Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13th Edition Marieb and Keller Test Bank

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13th Edition BY Marieb and Keller

Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 1 The Human Body: An Orientation 1.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Figure 1.1 Using Figure 1.1, identify the following: 1) Identify the cavity that houses the spinal cord.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: B Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Label E points to the ________ cavity.

A) thoracic B) pelvic C) cranial D) abdominal Answer: D Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 1 .

3) Identify the cavity that houses the heart and lungs (and other organs).

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: C Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Identify the structure that separates the thoracic cavity from the rest of the ventral cavity.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: D Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Label F points to the ________ cavity.

A) thoracic B) pelvic C) cranial D) abdominal Answer: B Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Identify the cavity that houses the stomach, liver, and other digestive organs.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: E Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) Which of the following is the smallest unit of all living things?

A) Organ B) Tissue C) Cell D) Organ system Answer: C Page Ref: 2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The heart and blood vessels are the primary organs of the ________ system.

A) lymphatic B) integumentary C) cardiovascular D) muscular Answer: C Page Ref: 4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The skeletal muscles that contract and shorten to move the bones form the ________ system.

A) skeletal B) muscular C) endocrine D) reproductive Answer: B Page Ref: 4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The ________ system rids the body of indigestible food residue in feces while the ________ system removes nitrogen-containing metabolic waste in urine.

A) urinary; digestive B) cardiovascular; urinary C) digestive; urinary D) reproductive; digestive Answer: C Page Ref: 4, 7 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The ability to sense a mosquito landing on your arm and swat it away is described as ________.

A) metabolism B) homeostasis C) excretion D) responsiveness (irritability) Answer: D Page Ref: 7-8 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3 .

12) What accounts for 60 to 80 percent of the body's weight, depending on the age of the individual?

A) Water B) Carbon C) Carbohydrates D) Minerals Answer: A Page Ref: 9 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) When our body temperature rises above 37°C or 98.6°F, a negative feedback mechanism will be triggered to lower the body temperature. As a result, our sweat glands release sweat to cool the body temperature. What part of the negative feedback mechanism is the sweat gland?

A) Stimulus B) Effector C) Receptor D) Control center Answer: B Page Ref: 19 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) What type of sensor monitors and responds to changes in the environment in a negative feedback loop?

A) Effector B) Receptor C) Control center D) Stimulus Answer: B Page Ref: 18 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) When we imagine a person exhibiting anatomical position, the palms of the hands are assumed to be facing ________.

A) to the side B) forward C) down D) behind Answer: B Page Ref: 11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) The body's ability to maintain stable internal conditions is referred to as ________.

A) metabolism B) homeostasis C) irritability D) output Answer: B Page Ref: 18 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The acromial region is ________ to the antebrachial region.

A) superior (proximal) B) inferior (distal) C) anterior D) posterior Answer: A Page Ref: 12, 13 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Edna tore a ligament in the patellar region and anticipates having difficulty with her ________.

A) wrist B) knee C) ankle D) elbow Answer: B Page Ref: 13 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The spinal cord is best described as A) lateral.

B) proximal.

C) ventral (anterior).

D) medial.

Answer: D Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The central region of the thoracic cavity containing the heart is called the ________.

A) pleural cavity B) mediastinum C) quadrant D) visceral cavity Answer: B Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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21) The right and left iliac (inguinal) regions are lateral to the ________ region.

A) hypogastric (pubic) B) right hypochondriac C) right lumbar D) left hypochondriac Answer: A Page Ref: 17 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) A young child sustained a baseball hit to his cranial cavity. Which bones were fractured?

A) Ribs B) Vertebrae C) Hips D) Skull Answer: D Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) The diaphragm creates a ________ section by dividing the ventral body cavity into superior and inferior subdivisions.

A) transverse (cross) B) median C) midsagittal D) frontal (coronal) Answer: A Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The hypogastric (pubic) region is ________ to the umbilical region.

A) superior B) inferior C) posterior D) medial Answer: B Page Ref: 17 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Ventral is a directional term synonymous with ________ in humans.

A) posterior B) dorsal C) anterior D) medial Answer: C Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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26) Select all of the regions of the abdominopelvic cavity that are medial.

1) right iliac (inguinal) region 2) epigastric region 3) hypogastric region 4) left lumbar region 5) left hypochondriac region A) 1, 4, and 5 B) 1, 3, and 4 C) 2 and 3 D) 1, 2, 4, and 5 Answer: C Page Ref: 17 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) The navel is located in the ________ region of the abdominopelvic cavity.

A) epigastric B) hypogastric C) umbilical D) right lumbar Answer: C Page Ref: 17 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The two major internal body cavities are the ________ cavity and the ________ cavity.

A) abdominopelvic; thoracic B) ventral; dorsal C) cranial; dorsal D) thoracic; ventral Answer: B Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Which of these internal body cavities is the most inferior?

A) Pelvic cavity B) Thoracic cavity C) Abdominal cavity D) Cranial cavity Answer: A Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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30) The orbital cavities house the ________.

A) mouth B) nose C) eyes D) ears Answer: C Page Ref: 18 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which body cavity can be further subdivided into quadrants and regions?

A) Cranial B) Spinal C) Dorsal D) Abdominopelvic Answer: D Page Ref: 16-17 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) To perform heart surgery, an incision is made into the ________ cavity.

A) abdominal B) pelvic C) thoracic D) cranial Answer: C Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) The epigastric region is ________ to the right hypochondriac region of the abdominopelvic cavity.

A) medial B) superior C) dorsal D) lateral Answer: A Page Ref: 17 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 1.2 Using Figure 1.2, identify the following: 34) In which region is the stomach located?

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: A Page Ref: 17 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which region is the umbilical region?

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: C Page Ref: 17 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9 .

36) Which region is lateral to the umbilical region?

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: D Page Ref: 17 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which region is associated with the lower ribs?

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: B Page Ref: 17 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) The hypogastric (pubic) region is ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: E Page Ref: 17 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Which region is situated inferior to the right lumbar region?

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: F Page Ref: 17 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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1.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) The study of the structure and shape of the body and its parts and their relationships to one another is called ________.

A) anatomy B) physiology C) homeostasis D) negative feedback E) irritability Answer: A Page Ref: 1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following activities represents a physiological study?

A) Making a section through the kidney to observe its interior B) Examining the surface of a bone C) Viewing muscle tissue through a microscope D) Studying how the layers of the skin are organized E) Observing how the heart contracts to pump blood Answer: E Page Ref: 2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following levels of organization is inclusive of all others?

A) Chemical level B) Tissue level C) Organ level D) Organ system level E) Cellular level Answer: D Page Ref: 2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which of the following represents the chemical level of structure in the human body?

A) Organs B) Tissues C) Atoms D) Cells E) Organ systems Answer: C Page Ref: 2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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5) The major organs of the skeletal system are the ________.

A) skeletal muscles B) pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs C) bones, cartilages, and joints D) brain, spinal cord, nerves, and sensory receptors E) heart and blood vessels Answer: C Page Ref: 3-4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The main function of the respiratory system is to ________.

A) transport oxygen, nutrients, and wastes to and from body cells and tissues B) produce sperm and eggs C) supply the body with oxygen and remove carbon dioxide D) control body activities through hormones released into the blood E) break down food and deliver the products to the blood for dispersal Answer: C Page Ref: 4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The system that controls and coordinates the body using hormones is the ________.

A) integumentary system B) skeletal system C) nervous system D) endocrine system E) digestive system Answer: D Page Ref: 4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The nervous system consists of ________.

A) receptors and effectors B) muscles of the heart C) glands that produce hormones D) lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes, and lymphoid organs E) bones, cartilages, and joints Answer: A Page Ref: 4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Which two organ systems include the pancreas?

A) Digestive and endocrine systems B) Urinary and respiratory systems C) Reproductive and urinary systems D) Digestive and respiratory systems E) Endocrine and respiratory systems Answer: A Page Ref: 4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which system covers the external surface of the body and protects deeper tissues?

A) Endocrine system B) Integumentary system C) Nervous system D) Lymphatic system E) Skeletal system Answer: B Page Ref: 3 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) What is the major function of the lymphatic system?

A) Return leaked fluids back to the cardiovascular system, so there is enough blood to circulate B) Deliver oxygen, nutrients, and hormones via the blood to the body's cells C) Eliminate nitrogen-containing metabolic wastes from the blood in the form of urine D) Break down food and deliver the nutrients to the blood E) Secrete hormones into the blood to regulate body processes such as growth and reproduction Answer: A Page Ref: 4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) What are two organ systems that are involved in the excretion of wastes from the body?

A) Digestive and urinary B) Cardiovascular and skeletal C) Muscular and skeletal D) Endocrine and nervous E) Cardiovascular and nervous Answer: A Page Ref: 4, 7 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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13) Which of the following systems is matched most accurately to the life function it provides?

A) Integumentary system — movement B) Nervous system — excretion C) Muscular system — maintaining boundaries D) Nervous system — responsiveness E) Respiratory system — digestion Answer: D Page Ref: 7 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Which of the following is not considered a nutrient?

A) Carbohydrates B) Proteins C) Water D) Minerals E) Vitamins Answer: C Page Ref: 9 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Place these components of a homeostatic control system in the proper order.

1) effector 2) efferent pathway 3) receptor 4) control center 5) afferent pathway A) 1, 5, 4, 2, and 3 B) 3, 2, 4, 5, and 1 C) 3, 5, 2, 4, and 1 D) 3, 5, 4, 2, and 1 E) 5, 3, 4, 1, and 2 Answer: D Page Ref: 19 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 16) Blood calcium levels are maintained by a negative feedback homeostatic mechanism. When blood calcium levels rise beyond their set point, a hormone called calcitonin is released by the thyroid gland to lower blood calcium levels back to their set point. What role does the thyroid gland play in this mechanism?

A) Control center B) Stimulus C) Effector D) Receptor E) Variable Answer: C Page Ref: 19 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14 .

17) Milk production increases during breastfeeding when a newborn suckles from his mother's nipple. This type of feedback mechanism in which the stimulus pushes milk production farther from its original value best describes ________.

A) negative feedback B) an abnormal physiological mechanism C) homeostatic imbalance D) positive feedback E) both negative and positive feedback Answer: D Page Ref: 20 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) A body part that is considered lateral is understood to be ________.

A) toward the head end of the body B) toward or at the front of the body C) away from the midline of the body D) close to the origin of a body part E) toward the midline of the body Answer: C Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) When correctly situated in anatomical position, where are your feet in relation to your knees?

A) Proximal B) Medial C) Superior D) Distal E) Deep Answer: D Page Ref: 11-12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which of the following orientation and directional terms have the same meaning (in humans)?

A) Superior and caudal B) Inferior and cranial C) Inferior and cephalic D) Anterior and ventral E) Anterior and dorsal Answer: D Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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21) Which directional term best describes the location of the human nose?

A) Distal B) Posterior C) Inferior D) Anterior E) Lateral Answer: D Page Ref: 12-13 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) A football player broke a bone in the tarsal region. This region is in the ________.

A) calf B) thigh C) groin D) ankle E) wrist Answer: D Page Ref: 13 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) A weight lifter experiences nerve pain in his posterior elbow region. Which term best describes this body region?

A) Carpal B) Olecranal C) Antecubital D) Antebrachial E) Popliteal Answer: B Page Ref: 13 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) In reference to the relationship between the patellar and popliteal regions, which of the following statements is correct?

A) The patellar region is superior to the popliteal region.

B) The patellar region is proximal to the popliteal region.

C) The patellar region is distal to the popliteal region.

D) The patellar region is lateral to the popliteal region.

E) The patellar region is anterior to the popliteal region.

Answer: E Page Ref: 12-13 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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25) Which body cavity subdivision is part of the dorsal cavity?

A) Thoracic cavity B) Spinal cavity C) Nasal cavity D) Orbital cavity E) Abdominopelvic cavity Answer: B Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) The lungs and heart are situated in the ________ body cavity.

A) dorsal B) spinal C) thoracic D) cranial E) abdominopelvic Answer: C Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which of these body regions is located on the posterior body surface?

A) Antebrachial B) Umbilical C) Gluteal D) Pectoral E) Pubic Answer: C Page Ref: 14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The region that refers to the fingers and toes is the ________.

A) carpal region B) digital region C) antebrachial region D) brachial region E) axillary region Answer: B Page Ref: 14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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29) The dorsal body cavity houses the ________.

A) urinary and reproductive organs B) heart and lungs C) digestive and reproductive organs D) tongue E) spinal cord and brain Answer: E Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Place these body regions in order from superior (proximal) to inferior (distal): 1) coxal 2) tarsal 3) femoral 4) crural 5) patellar A) 1, 3, 4, 5, and 2 B) 1, 3, 5, 4, and 2 C) 1, 4, 3, 5, and 2 D) 2, 4, 5, 3, and 1 E) 2, 5, 4, 3, and 1 Answer: B Page Ref: 13-14 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 31) Which of these regions is not associated with the ventral (anterior) portion of the head?

A) Buccal B) Oral C) Orbital D) Occipital E) Nasal Answer: D Page Ref: 13-14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) A surgeon created an opening in the chest during surgery. The incision was made along a plane that equally separated the right and left halves of the thoracic cavity. This section is known as a(n) ________.

A) median (midsagittal) section B) frontal section C) transverse section D) horizontal section E) parasagittal section Answer: A Page Ref: 15 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18 .

33) Which type of plane separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity?

A) Coronal B) Sagittal C) Dorsal D) Ventral E) Transverse (cross) Answer: E Page Ref: 15-16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Which body cavity includes all others?

A) Thoracic cavity B) Ventral cavity C) Abdominal cavity D) Pelvic cavity E) Mediastinum Answer: B Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) A broken rib on the right side of the body would likely be felt in the A) right lumbar region.

B) epigastric region.

C) right hypochondriac region.

D) right iliac (inguinal) region.

E) hypogastric region.

Answer: C Page Ref: 17-18 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 36) An X-ray indicates a fracture in the distal portion of the tibia bone. You understand the fracture to be on which part of the bone?

A) The part of the bone farther from the attachment of the femur to the body B) The part of the bone closer to the attachment of the femur to the body C) The backside of the bone D) The part of the bone closer to the midline of the body E) The surface of the bone Answer: A Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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37) A patient in the emergency department complains of pain in her right upper quadrant (RUQ).

What organ is least likely to be the cause for her pain?

A) Liver B) Gallbladder C) Large intestine D) Urinary bladder E) Small intestine Answer: D Page Ref: 17 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 38) Considering the homeostatic control of body temperature when we become too hot, predict what would happen to body temperature if the effector was unable to perform its job.

A) The body would no longer be able to detect changes in the environment.

B) Changes in the environment would not cause a change in the set value for body temperature.

C) The body would not be able to transport information to the control center.

D) The body would not be able to reduce the effect of the stimulus.

E) The body would not be able to transport information from the control center to the effector.

Answer: D Page Ref: 19 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 39) A patient previously had abdominal surgery and has a scar from a transverse (cross) section.

Now, he'll have another surgery that requires a parasagittal section, which will intersect the transverse section. What will his scars look like when his surgical incision heals? Assume this patient is in anatomical position.

A) X B) T C) + D) Two parallel lines E) Y Answer: C Page Ref: 15-16 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 40) A patient with a brain injury shows no signs of being able to move any part of his body.

What would you recommend to determine if his brain shows any signs of responsiveness (irritability)?

A) Shine a light in his eyes to see if his pupils constrict B) Bring food in the room to see if the patient is hungry C) Check to see if your patient has a pulse D) Turn the lights off in the room to see if the patient can sleep E) Call the patient's relatives Answer: A Page Ref: 7-8 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 20 .

41) An outpatient is having a scan performed to check for lung cancer. The lung should be scanned showing the lungs image in a left to right view. What type of plane do you recommend?

A) Transverse (cross) plane B) Median (midsagittal) plane C) Frontal (coronal) plane D) Parasagittal plane E) Sagittal plane Answer: A Page Ref: 15-16 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 1.3

True/False Questions

1) Cells are the building blocks of all matter.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The stomach is an example of an organ; therefore, it is made of different types of tissues.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Glands of the nervous system release chemicals called hormones into the blood.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems work together to ensure blood circulation to the body's cells is adequate.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The digestive system is often called the excretory system for its role in removing nitrogencontaining wastes from the body.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 7 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Most homeostatic control mechanisms are negative feedback mechanisms.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 19 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) Survival needs include nutrients, oxygen, water, and appropriate temperature and atmospheric pressure.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 9 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) In anatomical position, a person is assumed to be standing erect.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The regional term pedal refers to the foot.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 13-14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The tarsal region is proximal to the patellar region.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 12-14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The hypogastric (pubic) region is directly superior to the umbilical region.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 17 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominopelvic cavity by the diaphragm.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The spinal cavity is part of the ventral body cavity.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 12, 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Transverse or cross sections divide the body into anterior and posterior parts.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) There is no physical structure that separates the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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1.4

Matching Questions

Match the following: A) farther from the origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk B) away from the midline C) behind D) toward the midline E) external F) anterior G) above H) internal 1) Superior Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Dorsal Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Lateral Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Deep Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding I) close to the origin of the body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk 5) Distal Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Medial Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Superficial Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Proximal Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Ventral Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) G 2) C 3) B 4) H 5) A 6) D 7) E 8) I 9) F

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Match the following: A) thigh B) calf C) forearm D) arm E) curve of shoulder F) hip G) anterior leg H) groin I) armpit J) ankle 10) Axillary Page Ref: 13-14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Tarsal Page Ref: 13-14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Deltoid Page Ref: 13-14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Antebrachial Page Ref: 13-14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Femoral Page Ref: 13-14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Sural Page Ref: 13-14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Coxal Page Ref: 13-14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Inguinal Page Ref: 13-14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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18) Brachial Page Ref: 13-14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Crural Page Ref: 13-14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 10) I 11) J 12) E 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) F 17) H 18) D 19) G

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Match the following organ systems with their functions: A) lymphatic system B) digestive system C) urinary system D) muscular system E) integumentary system F) endocrine system 20) Glands secrete hormones to regulate other structures Page Ref: 4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Breaks down food for distribution by blood to the body's cells Page Ref: 4, 7 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Movement of the body as a whole Page Ref: 3-4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Removes nitrogen-containing wastes from the blood and disposes of them in the urine Page Ref: 7 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Picks up fluids leaked from blood vessels and returns it to blood Page Ref: 4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Excretes salts in perspiration and helps regulate body temperature Page Ref: 3 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 20) F 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) E

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1.5

Essay Questions

1) Explain the relationship between anatomy and physiology.

Answer: Anatomy is the study of the structure and shape of the body and its parts and their relationships to one another. Physiology is the study of how the body and its parts work or function. Structure (anatomy) determines what functions (physiology) can take place in the human body.

Page Ref: 2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) List, and briefly define, the human body's organization levels from smallest to largest.

Answer: 1. Chemical level: a. atoms are the basic building blocks of matter. b. molecules are units formed by atoms combining.

2. Cellular level: Cells are the smallest living units in living organisms.

3. Tissue level: Tissues are groupings of cells performing a common function.

4. Organ level: An organ is a structure consisting of two or more tissue types.

5. Organ system level: An organ system describes a group of organs functioning cooperatively for a common purpose.

6. Organism level: A human organism consists of all of the organ systems of the body working together to promote healthy functioning (homeostasis).

Page Ref: 2-3 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Identify the organ system that bears the major responsibility for responsiveness, one of the necessary life functions, and briefly explain the system's role in the body.

Answer: The nervous system bears the major responsibility for responsiveness (or irritability), the ability to sense changes (stimuli) in the environment and then react to them. Nerve cells are highly irritable and can communicate rapidly via electrical and is thus the fast-acting control system of the body. This system responds to internal and external changes by activating appropriate muscles and glands.

Page Ref: 4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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4) List and explain the five survival needs of humans.

Answer: 1. Nutrients include carbohydrates, proteins, fats, and vitamins and minerals, which are taken in via the diet for energy and cell building.

2. Oxygen is required to release energy from food.

3. Water accounts for 60 to 80 percent of the body weight and provides the basis for various body fluids.

4. Normal body temperature should be around 37°C or 98.6°F. When body temperature becomes too high or too low, physiological activities cease, primarily because chemical reactions are affected.

5. Appropriate atmospheric pressure is the force exerted on the surface of the body by the weight of air; it is essential for normal operation of the respiratory system and breathing.

Page Ref: 7-9 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) A young child needs an X-ray to determine if she has fractured some bones in her arm. The Xray should be taken with the arm in the lateral view. The radiology technologist makes an error and performs a frontal (coronal) view instead. Evaluate her error.

Answer: There should be concern for this error as the lateral view is a side view of the elbow while the anterior view is a front view of the elbow. The lateral X-ray view may reveal certain structures or fractures not seen in an anterior view. The anterior view may not allow a fracture to be seen due to the positioning of the bones in the elbow joint. This positioning error could lead to a possible misdiagnosis.

Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 6) Identify the two dorsal body cavities, and state their locations and the organs contained therein.

Answer: 1. Cranial cavity—the superior posterior space inside the bony skull that houses the brain.

2. Spinal cavity—the inferior posterior space inside the bony vertebral column that houses the spinal cord.

Page Ref: 16 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) You are preparing to give an injection to a patient in his deltoid region. Explain specifically where you will administer this injection.

Answer: The deltoid region is a visible landmark on the anterior body surface. The injection will be administered into the area formed by the large deltoid muscle and the curve of the shoulder.

Page Ref: 13-14 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) Explain how the roles of the receptor and effector differ in the negative feedback mechanism to maintain homeostasis.

Answer: In the negative feedback mechanism, the receptor is a type of sensor that monitors and responds to changes, called stimuli, in the environment. The receptor sends input information to a control center in the feedback loop. The control center analyzes the information it receives and determines an appropriate course of action. The effector provides the means for the control center's response (output) to the stimulus. The results of the response then feedback to influence the stimulus.

Page Ref: 18-19 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Explain the terms distal and proximal using an example.

Answer: The term distal means farther from the origin of a body part or point or the attachment of a limb to the trunk. The ankle is distal to the knee means the ankle is farther from the leg's attachment to the trunk than the knee. The term proximal means closer to the origin of a body part of the point of attachment of a limb to the trunk. The knee is proximal to the ankle means the knee is closer to the leg's attachment to the trunk than the ankle.

Page Ref: 12 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) We sometimes hear stories of medical mistakes being made such an amputation of the left leg when the right leg was the intended limb. How should the use of anatomical position help medical professionals avoid these types of errors?

Answer: Anatomical position is defined as standing erect, feet parallel, the arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing forward. Anatomical position is used because it is a standard position; it also helps us to avoid confusion. Additionally, anatomical position is a reference point that helps us accurately describe body parts and position no matter the actual position the body happens to be in. Medical professionals should remember to look at the patient's own left and right sides–not their own–as that will help reduce errors in practice.

Page Ref: 11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) Explain homeostasis as it relates to the human body.

Answer: Homeostasis is the body's ability to maintain relative stable internal conditions even though the outside world is continuously changing. Homeostasis is a dynamic state of equilibrium, or a balance in which internal conditions change and vary but always within relatively narrow limits. The body demonstrates homeostasis when its needs are being adequately met, and it is functioning smoothly.

Page Ref: 18 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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12) Burn patients have difficulty in regulating their body temperatures, in part due to the loss of their protective covering. Given your knowledge of how homeostatic control systems operate, predict why burn patients may often be cold.

Answer: Sensory receptors located in the skin alert us to what is happening at the body surface.

While these receptors are situated in the integumentary system, they are part of the nervous system. Skin sensory receptors normally detect changes in temperature and send messages along an afferent pathway to the control center (central nervous system). When a person experiences burns, these sensory receptors can be damaged. They may no longer send messages to the control center about changes in temperature, such as when a person is too cold. As a result, the control center will not receive adequate input to alert effectors to warm the body when needed. As a result, the patient will be cold.

Page Ref: 3-4, 18-19 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

31 .

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 2 Basic Chemistry 2.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 2.1, identify the following: 1) Which letter represents a carbohydrate polymer?

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: C Page Ref: 42 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Letter D represents the structure of a(n) ________.

A) monosaccharide B) amino acid C) triglyceride D) steroid Answer: C Page Ref: 44 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

1 .

3) Letter E represents a nucleic acid building block known as a ________.

A) monosaccharide B) triglyceride C) saturated fat D) nucleotide Answer: D Page Ref: 52 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which letter represents a globular protein in its quaternary structure?

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: B Page Ref: 48, 49 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Matter is best described as ________.

A) having no mass B) the ability to put matter into motion C) anything that occupies space and has mass D) the ability to do work Answer: C Page Ref: 23 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) How would you classify chewing food, a type of movement that directly involves the use of energy to move matter?

A) Radiant B) Mechanical C) Electrical D) Chemical Answer: B Page Ref: 24 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Which of the following is not a subatomic particle associated with an atom?

A) Neutron B) Electron C) Proton D) Ion Answer: D Page Ref: 25 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2 .

8) Rank these elements found in the human body from most common to least common: 1) carbon 2) hydrogen 3) nitrogen 4) oxygen A) 1, 4, 3, 2 B) 4, 1, 2, 3 C) 4, 2, 1, 3 D) 3, 2, 1, 4 Answer: B Page Ref: 26 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of ________ an atom contains.

A) protons B) neutrons C) protons and neutrons D) neutrons and electrons Answer: A Page Ref: 28 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) An atom with 13 electrons will have ________ electrons in the valence shell.

A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 8 Answer: B Page Ref: 28, 31 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) Polar molecules, like water, result when electrons are shared ________.

A) unequally between atoms B) between ions C) equally between atoms D) or transferred between atoms Answer: A Page Ref: 33 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

3 .

12) During a synthesis reaction, amino acids join to form ________.

A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) monomers D) nucleic acids Answer: B Page Ref: 35, 36 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) You have tested a chemical in the laboratory and determined it to be a proton donor. How would you classify this chemical?

A) Base B) Acid C) Water D) Element Answer: B Page Ref: 39 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The brain and spinal cord are surrounded by water in cerebrospinal fluid. What purpose do you think this fluid serves in protecting these organs?

A) Cushioning B) Chemical reactant C) Polarity D) High heat capacity Answer: A Page Ref: 38 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Glycogen and starch are examples of a specific category of carbohydrates called ________.

A) monosaccharides B) triglycerides C) steroids D) polysaccharides Answer: D Page Ref: 43 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The pH scale is based on ________.

A) neutrons in solution B) electrons in solution C) hydrogen ion concentration in solution D) hydroxide ion concentration in solution Answer: C Page Ref: 40 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4 .

17) Unsaturated fatty acid chains contain one or more ________ bonds between carbon atoms.

A) peptide B) double C) triple D) monosaccharide Answer: B Page Ref: 43 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which type of functional protein serves as a catalyst in the body's chemical reactions?

A) Antibodies B) Transport proteins C) Hormones D) Enzymes Answer: D Page Ref: 50 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The complementary base to adenine in a molecule of DNA is ________.

A) guanine B) cytosine C) leucine D) thymine Answer: D Page Ref: 52-53 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which of the following is found in a molecule of DNA but not in a molecule of RNA? A) Deoxyribose B) Ribose C) Adenine D) Cytosine Answer: A Page Ref: 51-53 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

5 .

2.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions 1) Which of the following contains sodium?

A) H2O B) NaCl C) N2 D) CH4 E) H2SO4 Answer: B Page Ref: 26 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following is common to all elements?

A) Molecules B) Atoms C) Compounds D) Polymers E) Enzymes Answer: B Page Ref: 25 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The movement of ions across plasma membranes is an example of ________.

A) radiant energy B) chemical energy C) electrical energy D) mechanical energy E) potential energy Answer: C Page Ref: 24 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which of the following is classified as an inorganic compound?

A) Glucose B) Triglyceride C) Water D) Protein E) Steroid Answer: C Page Ref: 37 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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5) An atom of magnesium has lost two electrons. It is known as a(n) ________.

A) anion B) molecule C) isotope D) cation E) neutral atom Answer: D Page Ref: 31-32 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which of the following leads to an increase in the rate of a chemical reaction?

A) Increased temperature B) Large particle size C) Lack of catalysts D) Decreased temperature E) Few particles Answer: A Page Ref: 37 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The atomic mass number of an atom is equivalent to the number of ________ contained in its nucleus.

A) protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) protons and electrons E) protons and neutrons Answer: E Page Ref: 28 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The atomic number of sodium is 11 while the atomic mass number is 23. Which of the following is not true of an atom of sodium?

A) 11 protons present in the atomic nucleus B) 11 valence electrons present in a neutral sodium atom C) 11 neutrons present in the atomic nucleus D) 11 electrons present in the orbitals E) 1 valence electron present in a neutral sodium atom Answer: C Page Ref: 28, 31 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Which of the following elements is needed to make a functional hemoglobin molecule?

A) Magnesium B) Iodine C) Iron D) Potassium E) Chlorine Answer: C Page Ref: 26, 39 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The number of protons always equals the ________ in a neutral atom.

A) atomic mass number B) number of electrons C) number of neutrons D) atomic weight E) number of valence shells Answer: B Page Ref: 26 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) An atom with 6 protons, 7 neutrons, and 6 electrons shares four pairs of electrons with four other atoms. This atom is now considered to be ________.

A) a cation B) an anion C) a neutral atom D) stable E) an ion Answer: D Page Ref: 32-33 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) An atom has 6 protons, 8 neutrons, and 6 electrons. Its atomic mass number is ________.

A) 2 B) 6 C) 8 D) 14 E) 20 Answer: D Page Ref: 28 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

8 .

13) Which of the following may be used in PET scans as biological tracers that can be followed through the body?

A) Nucleic acids B) Proteins C) Electrons D) Ions E) Radioisotopes Answer: E Page Ref: 29-30 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) 12C and 13C are isotopes. Which of the following is true about these two isotopes?

A) These isotopes have the same atomic mass number.

B) These isotopes have the same number of particles in the atomic nucleus.

C) These isotopes have the same number of neutrons.

D) These isotopes are likely to form ionic bonds.

E) These isotopes have the same atomic number.

Answer: E Page Ref: 28 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) A molecule of methane, CH4, is known specifically as a(n) ________.

A) compound B) radioisotope C) element D) atom E) anion Answer: A Page Ref: 30 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The subatomic particles that are responsible for the chemical behavior of atoms are the ________.

A) protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) isotopes E) ions Answer: C Page Ref: 31 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

9 .

17)

What is the atomic number of the atom in Figure 2.2?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6 E) 12 Answer: D Page Ref: 28 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) What type of bond results when electrons are completely transferred from one atom to another?

A) Ionic bond B) Hydrogen bond C) Carbon bond D) Polar covalent bond E) Nonpolar covalent bond Answer: A Page Ref: 31-32 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

10 .

19) The growth of cells and repair of worn-out tissues is accomplished by ________.

A) decomposition reactions B) catabolic reactions C) hydrolysis reactions D) synthesis reactions E) neutralization reactions Answer: D Page Ref: 35-36 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) In order to break a disaccharide down into simple sugar units, ________.

A) water molecules must be added to each bond B) water molecules must be removed from each bond C) carbon atoms must be added to each bond D) carbon atoms must be removed from each bond E) water molecules and carbon atoms must be removed from each bond Answer: A Page Ref: 42 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The reaction sucrose + water → glucose + fructose is an example of a(n) ________.

A) double replacement reaction B) synthesis reaction C) hydrolysis reaction D) neutralization reaction E) anabolic reaction Answer: C Page Ref: 41-42 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) A chemist experiments on a molecule with the formula of C5H10O5. This compound is likely a(n) ________.

A) protein B) triglyceride C) enzyme D) carbohydrate E) nucleotide Answer: D Page Ref: 42 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

11 .

23) Hydrogen bonding between water molecules is responsible for ________.

A) polarity B) denaturation of proteins C) enzyme structure D) nonpolar covalent bonding E) surface tension Answer: E Page Ref: 33, 35 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Two chemicals were tested for pH in the laboratory. Solution A was found to be 10,000 times more acidic than solution B. If solution A was determined to be a pH of 6, what must have been the pH of solution B? A) pH 0 B) pH 2 C) pH 4 D) pH 8 E) pH 10 Answer: E Page Ref: 40 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 25) Blood is considered a weak base. Select the pH that best represents blood.

A) pH 2.4 B) pH 4.6 C) pH 7.4 D) pH 10.3 E) pH 13.4 Answer: C Page Ref: 40 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 26) In the small intestine, acidic gastric juice entering from the stomach mixes with basic fluids from the pancreas. What type of reaction results from the interaction of these two chemicals?

A) Decomposition reactions B) Neutralization reactions C) Anabolic reactions D) Hydrolysis reactions E) Catabolic reactions Answer: B Page Ref: 40 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

12 .

27) Which of the following carbohydrates would be the best choice for providing the fuel for ATP production?

A) Fructose B) Glucose C) Sucrose D) Starch E) Glycogen Answer: B Page Ref: 42-43 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which type of carbohydrate is insoluble in water?

A) Sucrose B) Glucose C) Ribose D) Glycogen E) Fructose Answer: D Page Ref: 43 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Which polysaccharide is formed of linked glucose molecules and stored in animal tissues?

A) Ribose B) Cellulose C) Starch D) Glucose E) Glycogen Answer: E Page Ref: 43 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which of these lipids is more "heart healthy" due to the presence of double and triple bonds that cause the fat to stay liquid at room temperature?

A) Saturated fats B) Triglyceride C) Trans fats D) Cholesterol E) Unsaturated fats Answer: E Page Ref: 43, 45 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

13 .

31) What are the two types of building blocks that form triglycerides (neutral fats)?

A) Fatty acids and glycerol B) Monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats C) Glucose and glycogen D) Amino acids and nucleic acids E) Nucleotides and nucleic acids Answer: A Page Ref: 43 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which statement best describes why ATP is an important nucleic acid in the body?

A) ATP is the storage form of glucose in the body.

B) ATP is a modified RNA molecule used to store genetic information.

C) ATP carries out the orders for protein synthesis issued by DNA. D) ATP functions as a catalyst to increase reaction rates.

E) ATP provides a form of chemical energy all body cells can use.

Answer: E Page Ref: 54 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which of the following DNA base pairs is complementary?

A) Adenine and guanine B) Guanine and uracil C) Thymine and guanine D) Cytosine and adenine E) Adenine and thymine Answer: E Page Ref: 53 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) What structural level comes immediately after the creation of a beta-pleated sheet in proteins?

A) Primary structure B) Tertiary structure C) Alpha-helix structure D) Quaternary structure E) Denaturation structure Answer: B Page Ref: 48-49 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

14 .

35) Enzymes are ________.

A) carbohydrates B) stable at high temperatures C) biological catalysts D) not reusable E) required in large amounts in order to be effective Answer: C Page Ref: 50 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Keratin is a protein that provide toughness to skin and forms hair and nails. Due to its role in the body, it is best classified as ________.

A) a globular protein B) an enzyme C) a triglyceride D) a structural protein E) a functional protein Answer: D Page Ref: 49 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which of these nucleic acids carries out the orders for protein synthesis?

A) H2O B) ATP C) RNA D) DNA E) CH4 Answer: C Page Ref: 53 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Two or more polypeptide chains combine to form a complex protein structure called a ________.

A) primary structure B) beta-pleated sheet C) secondary structure D) tertiary structure E) quaternary structure Answer: E Page Ref: 48 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

15 .

39) We often hear to protect our skin from the damaging ultraviolet radiation of the sun. In some cases, sun damage causes thymines next to each other bind instead of to their complementary base pairs. In which type of molecule would this damage be most problematic?

A) DNA B) Messenger RNA C) ATP D) Transfer RNA E) Ribosomal RNA Answer: A Page Ref: 53 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 40) Cyanide prevents the formation of energy molecules in the human body and leads to death because cells are unable to make ________.

A) glucose B) DNA C) messenger RNA D) ribosomal RNA E) ATP Answer: E Page Ref: 54 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) The nucleotide chains of DNA are held together by ________.

A) carbon bonds B) hydrogen bonds C) ionic bonds D) nonpolar covalent bonds E) polar covalent bonds Answer: B Page Ref: 52-53 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) Which of the following statements about ATP is false?

A) ATP drives the transport of certain solutes (e.g., amino acids) across cell membranes.

B) ATP activates contractile proteins in muscle cells so that cells can shorten and perform mechanical work.

C) ATP provides the energy needed to drive energy-absorbing chemical reactions.

D) ATP is a modified nucleotide.

E) The phosphate groups of ATP are attached by high-energy hydrogen bonds.

Answer: E Page Ref: 54-55 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

16 .

43) An organic molecule that catalyzes sucrose into the monosaccharides glucose and fructose would be called ________.

A) transfer RNA B) triglyceride C) an enzyme D) water E) a polypeptide Answer: C Page Ref: 49-50 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 44) The hydrolysis of a protein will produce ________.

A) triglycerides B) nucleotides C) amino acids D) nucleic acids E) fatty acids Answer: C Page Ref: 41, 47 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 45) Shell 1 of an atom can hold a maximum of ________ electron(s).

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 E) 18 Answer: B Page Ref: 31 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) Trans fats increase the risk of heart disease because they have been solidified by the addition of hydrogen atoms. Originally, trans fats were oils and classified as ________.

A) steroids B) cholesterol C) unsaturated fats D) saturated fats E) polysaccharides Answer: C Page Ref: 45 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

17 .

47)

How do you know this figure illustrates an ionic bond?

A) Electrons are shared equally between the atoms of the molecule.

B) Electrons have been transferred from one atom to another.

C) A weak bond is formed by the hydrogen atom.

D) Electrons are shared unequally between the atoms of the molecule.

E) The valence shells are stable due to electron sharing between valence shells.

Answer: B Page Ref: 31, 33 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 48) What is the function of DNA? A) DNA provides instructions for building every protein in the body.

B) DNA serves as a form of chemical energy that all body cells can use.

C) DNA serves as the most important fuel for body cells.

D) DNA carries out the orders for protein synthesis issued by RNA. E) DNA increases the rate of a chemical reaction without becoming part of the product.

Answer: A Page Ref: 51-53 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

18 .

49) Which of the following would be classified as an enzyme?

A) Hydrolase B) Cholesterol C) Triglyceride D) Cellulose E) ATP Answer: A Page Ref: 50 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 50) A molecule with the sequence of AUCGUCA should be categorized as ________.

A) ATP B) an enzyme C) RNA D) DNA E) a triglyceride Answer: C Page Ref: 51 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 51) An enzyme helps add glucose molecules to a glycogen molecule when storing excess glucose. Assess the impact on the human body if this enzyme's active site is not able to fit with the molecules on which it acted.

A) ATP production would decrease.

B) Blood sugar would increase.

C) Sucrose would break down into glucose.

D) Proteins would only become alpha-helix structures.

E) Fats would be converted into proteins.

Answer: B Page Ref: 36, 43, 51 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 52) Gastric juices produced by the stomach are strongly acidic. Without the neutralizing effect of fluids from the pancreas, the stomach acids could be absorbed directly into the blood. What would be a likely outcome for blood pH if this happened?

A) Blood pH would become more alkaline.

B) Blood pH would become 6.9.

C) Blood pH would become 8.5.

D) Blood pH would increase.

E) Blood pH would not change.

Answer: B Page Ref: 40-41 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

19 .

53) While grocery shopping with an aunt with heart disease, Gina has the opportunity to influence her buying habits. She's considering the following products, and Gina is assisting by looking at the nutrition labels. Which of the following snacks should Gina prioritize as the best choice for her aunt's heart health?

A) Cookie dough, which lists both trans fat and saturated fat as ingredients B) Baked chips, which lists some unsaturated fat and very little saturated fat as ingredients C) Cookies, which lists both saturated fat and unsaturated fat as major ingredients D) Potato chips, which lists trans fat as an ingredient E) Popcorn, which lists equal amounts of saturated and unsaturated fats as ingredients Answer: B Page Ref: 43, 45 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 2.3 True/False Questions 1) Inactive or stored energy is called kinetic energy.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 24 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The number of protons in an atom equals the atomic number for that element.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 28 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Atoms that have lost or gained electrons during chemical bonding are known as isotopes.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 28 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Inorganic compounds lack carbon and tend to be small, simple molecules.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 37 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The four most common elements in the human body are oxygen, carbon, nitrogen, and hydrogen.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 26 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Ionic bonds are responsible for the surface tension of water.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 33 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

20 .

7) Water is the single most abundant inorganic compound in the human body.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 38 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The lower the pH, the greater the number of hydrogen ions released by a chemical into solution.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 39 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Electrolytes conduct electrical currents in solution.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 39 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Neutralization reactions that occur between an acid and a base are a type of exchange reaction.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 36-40 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) At a pH of 7, the number of hydroxide ions exceeds the number of hydrogen ions.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 40 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) If dehydration synthesis of glucose into a polymer called glycogen cannot occur, then blood sugar will increase.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 41-43 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) Glucose and fructose both serve as fuel for cells to make ATP. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 42-43 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Both phospholipids and triglycerides are built from glycerol and three fatty acid chains.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 44-45 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Disruption of the hydrogen bonds of functional proteins leads to their denaturation.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 50 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21 .

2.4 Matching Questions Match the following: A) proton B) neutron C) electron 1) Atomic number is based on the number of these subatomic particles in an atom of a particular element.

Page Ref: 28 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Atoms share these subatomic particles when they combine to form molecules.

Page Ref: 32 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The atomic mass number does not include these subatomic particles in the calculation.

Page Ref: 28 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Ionic bonds are formed when these subatomic particles are completely transferred from one atom to another atom.

Page Ref: 31 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Isotopes have the same numbers of protons and ________.

Page Ref: 28 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) These subatomic particles carry a negative charge and are found in orbitals that surround the nucleus.

Page Ref: 27 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Ions have lost or gained these subatomic particles.

Page Ref: 31 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Along with protons, these subatomic particles are situated in the nucleus of an atom.

Page Ref: 27 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) A 2) C 3) C 4) C 5) C 6) C 7) C 8) B

22 .

Match the following: A) exchange reaction B) decomposition reaction C) synthesis reaction 9) Glycogen is broken down to release glucose subunits.

Page Ref: 36 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Amino acids join together to form proteins.

Page Ref: 36 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Bonds are both made and broken in these reactions.

Page Ref: 36 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Digestion of food Page Ref: 36 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 9) B 10) C 11) A 12) B

23 .

Match the following: A) lipids B) fibrous proteins C) globular proteins D) nucleic acids E) carbohydrates 13) The simplest forms are known as monosaccharides.

Page Ref: 42 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) DNA, RNA, and ATP are types.

Page Ref: 51, 54 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Triglycerides, steroids, and fat-soluble vitamins are examples.

Page Ref: 43 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Antibodies, some hormones, and enzymes are examples.

Page Ref: 49 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Collagen and keratin are types.

Page Ref: 49 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Nucleotides are the building blocks for this organic compound group.

Page Ref: 51 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Also known as functional proteins Page Ref: 49 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 13) E 14) D 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) C

24 .

2.5 Essay Questions 1) Describe the role of the electron in chemical bond formation.

Answer: When the valence shell of an atom contains fewer than eight electrons, an atom will tend to gain, lose, or share electrons with other atoms to reach a stable state. As a result, chemical bonds such as covalent bonds or ionic bonds are formed.

Page Ref: 31 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Differentiate between the method of determination of the atomic number and the atomic mass number.

Answer: The atomic number is determined by the number of protons in that atom. The atomic mass number is the sum of the protons and neutrons in the atom's nucleus.

Page Ref: 28 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) As a radiology technician, Kevin is tasked with a nuclear medicine diagnostic test for a thyroid patient. Small amounts of radioactive iodine isotopes, such as 123I or 131I, will be used.

Why is iodine the preferred radioisotope for this patient? Explain why radioisotopes are used in tests such as this one.

Answer: First, iodine is used by the body to make functional thyroid hormone. The thyroid gland will take up the radioactive iodine to be used in making this hormone. Radioisotopes are unstable isotopes of heavier elements that tend to decompose to become more stable. Recall that isotopes are structural variations of an element that vary by their neutron number. Radioisotopes are used to tag biological molecules, so they can be followed or traced through the human body.

Radioisotopes are valuable tools in medical diagnosis and treatment.

Page Ref: 26, 29 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Your neighbor recently had a heart attack and is on a diet with reduced fats. His son, Dan, makes a trip to the grocery store and returns with a variety of foods. In making his purchases, he assumed that trans fats are the best options for heart health and that saturated fats are better for his dad than unsaturated fats. Assess Dan's ranking of these types of triglycerides.

Answer: In fact, Dan has the ranking for these triglycerides in reverse order. The healthiest fats for the heart are unsaturated fats. Unsaturated fats tend to be plant oils, have some double or triple bonds between carbon atoms, and may be liquid at room temperature. The presence of the double or triple bonds allows the fatty acid chains to kink. Saturated fats are less healthy because they tend to be animal fats, may be solid at room temperature, and have all single bonds between carbon atoms in the fatty acid chains. Trans fats are oils that have been solidified by the addition of hydrogen atoms at the sites of double carbon bonds. Trans fats raise the risk for heart disease by elevating "bad" cholesterol and lowering "good" cholesterol.

Page Ref: 43, 45 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

25 .

5) When you soak dirty dishes in your sink, you allow water to break apart the bonds of the food stuck to your plates. Relate this process to the chemical reactions associated with organic compounds you learned in this chapter. Identify the type of reaction that happens in this situation, and explain how water accomplishes this goal.

Answer: This type of reaction is known as a hydrolysis reaction. Hydrolysis reactions involve the breakdown of a more complex molecule, such as a polymer of food, into its building blocks, or monomers. Water molecules break apart the bonds of the food stuck to the plate much the way we find water molecules hydrolyzing or breaking apart polymers of organic compounds in the human body being separated into monomers.

Page Ref: 41-42 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Differentiate between the functions of RNA and DNA. Answer: DNA is the genetic material found in the nucleus of a cell. It replicates prior to cell division to ensure every body cell is identical. DNA provides instructions for building every protein in the body. By contrast, RNA is mostly found outside the nucleus and carries out the instructions for generating proteins as dictated by DNA. Page Ref: 51, 53-54 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Describe the difference between the roles of functional (globular) proteins and structural (fibrous) proteins.

Answer: Structural proteins most often appear in the body structures, binding structures together or providing strength in tissues. Functional proteins perform jobs for the body. They serve in a variety of roles in the body from antibodies, enzymes, and hormones to transport proteins.

Page Ref: 49 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Explain why a denatured protein no longer functions.

Answer: Denaturation results when the three-dimensional shape of a protein is destroyed. The function of a protein depends on its structure. The presence of an active site on the surface of a protein that interacts with other molecules must be intact for the protein to work properly.

Page Ref: 50 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Discuss the organization of the pH scale, including the location of acids, bases, and neutral substances.

Answer: The pH scale is based on the number of hydrogen ions in solution. The pH scale is constructed from zero to 14. Each sequential change of one pH unit represents a ten-fold change in hydrogen ion concentration. Solutions with a pH lower than seven are considered acidic while solutions with a pH greater than seven are considered basic (alkaline). At a pH of seven, the solution is neutral since hydrogen ion concentration equals hydroxyl ion concentration.

Page Ref: 40 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

26 .

10) Describe the four structural levels of proteins.

Answer: 1. The primary structure of a protein resembles a string of beads in which the amino acids form the basis for the protein molecule.

2. A protein in its secondary structure may exist in a coiled alpha-helix or an accordion-like betapleated sheet.

3. Most proteins reach the more complex tertiary level of structure. The tertiary structure is achieved when the alpha-helical or beta-pleated region of the polypeptide chain folds in on itself to form a globular (ball-like) molecule.

4. The quaternary structure results when two polypeptide chains combine to form a complex protein.

Page Ref: 48-49 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Joey works in a lab on an organic compound with the formula of C6H12O6. Determine the type of organic compound, being as specific as possible, on which he works. Explain how you know.

Answer: Joey is working with a carbohydrate. Carbohydrates contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms in the same ratio as water (two hydrogens to every carbon and oxygen atom). To be specific, he is working with a monosaccharide. Monosaccharides contain between three and seven carbon atoms.

Page Ref: 42 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) Explain how potential energy differs from kinetic energy.

Answer: When energy is doing work, it is referred to as kinetic energy. However, when energy is active or stored, we call it potential energy.

Page Ref: 24 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Explain the relationship between atoms and elements.

Answer: Elements are unique substances that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by ordinary chemical means. Each element is composed of very similar particles, or building blocks, called atoms. Because all elements are unique, the atoms of each element differ from those of all other elements.

Page Ref: 25 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

27 .

14) An atom of the element Boron has an atomic number of 5 and an atomic mass number of 11.

While reviewing for a test, your friend Addison determines this atom to have 5 protons, 6 electrons, and 5 neutrons. Evaluate her answers for accuracy.

Answer: The atomic number of Boron is 5; the atomic number is equal to the number of protons.

Addison is correct about the number of protons. However, the number of protons is always equal to the number of electrons. Your friend incorrectly answered 6 electrons; the correct number is 5 electrons. Finally, the atomic mass number is 11. This number indicates the total number of protons and neutrons in the atomic nucleus. Since we know 5 of those 11 subatomic particles are protons, the remaining 6 subatomic particles will be neutrons. Addison incorrectly answered the number of neutrons.

Page Ref: 28 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 15) We usually drink water with a pH close to 7. In the past several years, alkaline water has been popular among some consumers and advertised as being good for health. Upon drinking alkaline water, acidic stomach juices will neutralize alkaline water. Given what you know about neutralization reactions and the pH scale, evaluate alkaline water as a health tonic.

Answer: Neutralization reactions are exchange reactions in which an acid (stomach acid) and a base (alkaline water) react with each other to form water and a salt. Since alkaline water is neutralized by stomach acids, it is likely this type of drink has little to no health benefit since it will not make it past the stomach.

Page Ref: 40-41 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

28 .

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 3 Cells and Tissues 3.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 3.1, match the following: 1) The illustration of simple cuboidal epithelium is ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: B Page Ref: 89 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

1 .

2) The illustration of skeletal muscle tissue is ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: E Page Ref: 97 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The illustration of stratified squamous epithelium is ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: D Page Ref: 90 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The illustration of simple squamous epithelium is ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: A Page Ref: 89 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The illustration of cardiac muscle tissue is ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: C Page Ref: 97 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2 .

6) Cellular material located outside the nucleus yet inside the plasma membrane is the ________.

A) nucleolus B) cytoplasm C) interstitial fluid D) extracellular fluid Answer: B Page Ref: 61, 65 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The specialized cellular compartments within the cytosol of the cell are collectively called ________.

A) organelles B) cilia C) flagella D) microvilli Answer: A Page Ref: 65 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which type of cell junction anchors cells together, so as to prevent the cells of cardiac muscle tissue from pulling apart due to mechanical stress as the heart beats?

A) Tight junctions B) Gap junctions C) Desmosomes D) Cytoplasm Answer: C Page Ref: 63 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) A needle piercing through a plasma membrane would travel through ________.

A) two layers of cholesterol embedded with carbohydrates B) one layer of phospholipids situated on a layer of cholesterol C) two layers of phospholipids embedded with proteins D) two layers of proteins embedded with some phospholipids Answer: D Page Ref: 62 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Muscle cells need abundant ATP for muscle contractions. Which organelle must commonly be found in muscle cells to accommodate ATP production?

A) Golgi apparatus B) Mitochondrion C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum D) Lysosome Answer: B Page Ref: 65 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3 .

11) The membrane connections that prevent the leaking of fluid between cells are called ________.

A) gap junctions B) tight junctions C) desmosomes D) microvilli Answer: B Page Ref: 63 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Place the following steps of protein synthesis and export from the cell in the proper order.

1. The protein folds into its functional shape.

2. The transport vesicle travels to the Golgi apparatus for further processing.

3. The protein is packaged in a transport vesicle.

4. The protein is synthesized on the ribosome as it migrates through the rough ER. A) 1, 3, 2, 4 B) 4, 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 3, 4, 2 D) 4, 1, 3, 2 Answer: D Page Ref: 67 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The passive process that involves the movement of water through aquaporins is ________.

A) facilitated diffusion B) endocytosis C) solute pumping D) osmosis Answer: D Page Ref: 75-76 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) What separates the intracellular fluid from the extracellular fluid?

A) Nucleus B) Cytoskeleton C) Plasma membrane D) Mitochondrion Answer: C Page Ref: 61, 74 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4 .

15) What is required for filtration to occur?

A) ATP B) Solute pumps C) Pressure gradient D) Protein carriers Answer: C Page Ref: 76 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The nucleotides of DNA join in a complementary way in which adenine pairs with ________ while cytosine pairs with ________.

A) adenine; cytosine B) uracil; guanine C) thymine; guanine D) guanine; thymine Answer: C Page Ref: 81 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) In cell division, the term that refers to division of the cytoplasm is ________.

A) mitosis B) interphase C) cytokinesis D) meiosis Answer: C Page Ref: 83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) The period of the cell cycle when the cell grows and performs its metabolic activities is ________.

A) anaphase B) interphase C) metaphase D) telophase Answer: B Page Ref: 81 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) What process results in the exact duplication of DNA? A) metaphase B) prophase C) DNA replication D) protein synthesis Answer: C Page Ref: 81 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5 .

20) The DNA segment that carries information for building one protein or polypeptide chain is called a(n) ________.

A) codon B) gene C) anticodon D) amino acid Answer: B Page Ref: 83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) A cancer drug prevents DNA transcription from occurring. Thus, the cell unable to make ________.

A) DNA B) mRNA C) anticodons D) genes Answer: B Page Ref: 84 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 22) Groups of cells that are similar in both structure and function are known as ________.

A) organs B) organ systems C) tissues D) atoms Answer: C Page Ref: 86 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which of the following is not a hallmark feature of epithelial tissues?

A) Epithelial tissues have a basement membrane.

B) Epithelial tissues have an apical surface.

C) Epithelial tissues cover body surfaces both inside and outside.

D) Epithelial tissues are well vascularized.

Answer: D Page Ref: 86-87 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The type of tissue that functions to protect, support, insulate, and cushion together body tissues are classified as ________.

A) epithelial tissues B) connective tissues C) muscle tissues D) nervous tissues Answer: B Page Ref: 91 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6 .

25) People with asthma produce too much mucus, which can block the airways. What type of cell associated with the epithelium of the respiratory tract is responsible for making mucus?

A) Fibroblast B) Chondrocyte C) Goblet cell D) Osteocyte Answer: C Page Ref: 88 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) The specific type of epithelial tissue found lining organs of the digestive system such as the small intestine is ________.

A) simple columnar B) simple cuboidal C) pseudostratified columnar D) simple squamous Answer: A Page Ref: 88, 89 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Tendons and ligaments are classified as ________.

A) skeletal muscle tissue B) loose connective tissue C) areolar connective tissue D) dense connective (regular fibrous) tissue Answer: D Page Ref: 92 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) ________ connective tissue is commonly called fat.

A) Adipose B) Bone C) Reticular D) Dense fibrous Answer: A Page Ref: 96 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) ________ muscle tissue has no visible striations and is found in the walls of hollow organs.

A) Smooth B) Cardiac C) Skeletal D) Dense regular Answer: A Page Ref: 98 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7 .

30) Irritability and conductivity are the two major functional characteristics of ________.

A) epithelial tissue B) nervous tissue C) loose connective tissue D) dense connective tissue Answer: B Page Ref: 98 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31)

The cell shown in Figure 3.2 has been placed into a(n) ________ solution.

A) hypertonic B) hypotonic C) isotonic D) equilibrium Answer: B Page Ref: 77 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

8 .

3.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) The structural and functional unit of all living things is the ________.

A) nucleus B) element C) cytoplasm D) cell E) organelle Answer: D Page Ref: 60-61 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following statements is not part of the cell theory?

A) The activities of cells are determined by their structure, which determines function.

B) The human body is composed of 50 to 100 trillion cells.

C) Cells are the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms.

D) The activity of an organism depends on its collective cellular activities.

E) The continuity of life has a cellular basis.

Answer: B Page Ref: 61 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) What are the three basic parts or regions of a cell?

A) Cytosol, cytoplasm, and intracellular fluid B) Nucleus, cytoplasm, and plasma membrane C) Nuclear envelope, DNA, and nuclear pores D) Nucleus, intracellular fluid, organelles E) Cytoplasm, plasma membrane, extracellular fluid Answer: B Page Ref: 61 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which of the following is not a structural component of the nucleus?

A) Nuclear envelope B) Nucleolus C) Golgi apparatus D) Chromatin E) Nuclear pores Answer: C Page Ref: 64 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

9 .

5) Nutrients and ions can pass directly from cell to cell through special membrane junctions known as ________.

A) desmosomes B) gap (communicating) junctions C) inclusions D) microvilli E) tight junctions Answer: B Page Ref: 63 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The three major components of the cytoplasm are the ________.

A) cytosol, organelles, and inclusions B) cytosol, inclusions, and nucleoli C) cytosol, organelles, and nucleoli D) organelles, inclusions, and nucleoli E) organelles, inclusions, and ribosomes Answer: A Page Ref: 65 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) If someone sitting at the other end of a bar is smoking, you may still breathe in some of the smoke. What process involves the movement of the smoke away from its source?

A) Diffusion B) Osmosis C) Facilitated diffusion D) Endocytosis E) Filtration Answer: A Page Ref: 75 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Where are proteins sent to be modified and packaged before being exported from the cell?

A) Mitochondrion B) Golgi apparatus C) Cytoskeleton D) Peroxisome E) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Answer: B Page Ref: 67, 68, 79 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

10 .

9) The organelle that contains enzymes produced by ribosomes and packaged by the Golgi apparatus is the ________.

A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) peroxisome D) ribosome E) rough endoplasmic reticulum Answer: B Page Ref: 67 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The small intestine has tiny, finger-like projections of the plasma membrane that help increase the surface area and aid in absorption of nutrients known as ________.

A) vesicles B) cilia C) centrioles D) microvilli E) flagella Answer: D Page Ref: 72 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Passive processes that move substances across membranes ________.

A) utilize ATP B) employ protein pumps C) transport substances against their concentration gradients D) do not require ATP E) include exocytosis and endocytosis Answer: D Page Ref: 74-75 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) What is required for osmosis to occur?

A) Pressure gradient B) Solute pump C) Aquaporins D) Sodium-potassium pump E) Vesicles Answer: C Page Ref: 75 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

11 .

13) What assists the movement of substances that travel by facilitated diffusion?

A) ATP B) Protein carrier or channel C) Lysosomes D) Aquaporins E) Solute pumps Answer: B Page Ref: 75 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) What is required for simple diffusion to occur?

A) Protein carrier or channel B) Concentration gradient C) ATP D) Solute pump E) Ribosomes Answer: B Page Ref: 75 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) What are two types of endocytosis?

A) Cellular secretion and solute pumping B) Solute pumping and active transport C) Active transport and phagocytosis D) Phagocytosis and pinocytosis E) Pinocytosis and passive transport Answer: D Page Ref: 79 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) A solution that contains fewer solutes than the cell is ________ to the cell.

A) hypotonic B) hypertonic C) intravenous D) isotonic E) Ringer's lactate Answer: A Page Ref: 77 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

12 .

17) Which of the following substances must travel across a membrane via facilitated diffusion?

A) Carbon dioxide B) Water C) Oxygen D) Fat-soluble vitamins E) Glucose Answer: E Page Ref: 75-76 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which of the following processes require the use of protein carrier molecules?

A) Facilitated diffusion and solute pumping B) Facilitated diffusion and vesicular transport C) Vesicular transport and osmosis D) Osmosis and filtration E) Filtration and exocytosis Answer: A Page Ref: 75-77 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) A cell is isotonic to the surrounding 4% dextrose solution. If the cell is moved to a 6% dextrose solution, predict how the cell responds.

A) The cell will shrink.

B) The cell will not change in size or shape.

C) The cell will bloat.

D) The cell will rupture.

E) The cell will lyse.

Answer: A Page Ref: 77 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 20) The portion of the cell's life cycle that does not involve cell division is known as ________.

A) interphase B) mitosis C) metaphase D) prophase E) cytokinesis Answer: A Page Ref: 81 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

13 .

21) The molecule that carries an amino acid to the ribosome for incorporation into a protein is ________.

A) ATP B) messenger RNA (mRNA) C) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) D) DNA E) transfer RNA (tRNA) Answer: E Page Ref: 84 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) A drug prevents cancerous cells from replicating by inhibiting the creation of a mitotic spindle. During which phase of mitosis is this drug most effective?

A) Anaphase B) Cytokinesis C) Metaphase D) Prophase E) Telophase Answer: D Page Ref: 82-83 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 23) The process of transcription ________.

A) produces ATP from glucose and oxygen B) transfers information from DNA into mRNA C) occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell D) creates proteins from mRNA E) translates nucleic acids into amino acids Answer: B Page Ref: 84 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Sequences of three bases found in messenger RNA (mRNA) are called ________.

A) anticodons B) genes C) codons D) ribosomes E) amino acids Answer: C Page Ref: 84 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

14 .

25) Some antibiotics inhibit tRNA from delivering amino acids to the ribosome. What process cannot be completed?

A) transcription B) mitosis C) replication D) translation E) cytokinesis Answer: D Page Ref: 84 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 26) How many codons are present in this strand of mRNA: A U G G C A C A U U A A? A) One B) Three C) Four D) Six E) Twelve Answer: C Page Ref: 84 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) DNA replication takes place during ________.

A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) telophase Answer: A Page Ref: 81 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) During transcription, which base pairs with adenine of DNA in the newly formed molecule of RNA? A) Thymine B) Adenine C) Uracil D) Cytosine E) Guanine Answer: C Page Ref: 84 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

15 .

29) If the sequence of nitrogenous bases in one strand of DNA is GTA-GCA, the sequence of bases on its complementary DNA strand would be ________.

A) CAU-CGU B) CAT-CGT C) GAU-GCU D) GAT-GCT E) ACG-ATT Answer: B Page Ref: 81 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) A tissue constructed of a single layer of flattened cells is known as ________.

A) simple squamous epithelium B) simple columnar epithelium C) simple cuboidal epithelium D) stratified squamous epithelium E) transitional epithelium Answer: A Page Ref: 88 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which type of tissue is insulated, supported, and protected by neuroglia?

A) Epithelial tissue B) Muscle tissue C) Nervous tissue D) Connective tissue E) Dense tissue Answer: C Page Ref: 98 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which of the following is not classified as a connective tissue?

A) Bone B) Hyaline cartilage C) Blood D) Skeletal muscle E) Loose adipose Answer: D Page Ref: 92-96 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

16 .

33) Which type of tissue is situated in the lining of the urinary bladder and urethra where stretching occurs?

A) Simple cuboidal epithelium B) Stratified squamous epithelium C) Simple squamous epithelium D) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium E) Transitional epithelium Answer: E Page Ref: 91 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) The tissue that is usually well vascularized and has an extensive extracellular matrix is called ________.

A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) nervous tissue D) muscle tissue E) brain tissue Answer: B Page Ref: 91-92 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) The major cell type of cartilage is the ________.

A) goblet cell B) fibroblast C) osteocyte D) chondrocyte E) lacuna Answer: D Page Ref: 92 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) What forms the hard matrix of osseous tissue (bone)?

A) Calcium salts B) Water C) Fibroblasts D) Plasma E) Cartilage Answer: A Page Ref: 92 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

17 .

37) Identify the type of connective tissue that is found in lymph nodes, the spleen, and bone marrow.

A) Adipose tissue B) Dense connective tissue C) Areolar tissue D) Reticular connective tissue E) Osseous tissue Answer: D Page Ref: 96 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products so that they directly diffuse into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________.

A) exocrine B) endocrine C) sebaceous D) ceruminous E) sudoriferous Answer: B Page Ref: 91 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) What characteristic is shared by both cardiac and smooth muscle tissue?

A) Presence of striations B) Long, slow contractions C) Presence of intercalated discs D) Involuntary contractions E) Presence of short, branching cells Answer: D Page Ref: 96, 98 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) The type of muscle found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach, and in the walls of blood vessels is ________.

A) cardiac muscle B) skeletal muscle C) smooth muscle D) both smooth muscle and skeletal muscle E) both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle Answer: C Page Ref: 98 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

18 .

41) The presence of chondrocytes indicates that a tissue is ________.

A) adipose B) cartilage C) bone D) blood E) areolar Answer: B Page Ref: 92 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) Damaged tissues that are repaired by the same kind of cells experience a replacement process known as ________.

A) inflammation B) regeneration C) fibrosis D) scarring E) clotting Answer: B Page Ref: 99 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Due to the cast placed on her broken leg, Kinsley's muscles have decreased in size. Which term best describes how her muscles have been affected?

A) Hyperplasia B) Neoplasm C) Atrophy D) Benign E) Malignant Answer: C Page Ref: 100 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) Jacinda tore her Achilles (calcaneal) tendon during a recent track meet. She has injured ________.

A) muscle tissue B) loose connective tissue C) epithelial tissue D) dense connective tissue E) nervous tissue Answer: D Page Ref: 92 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

19 .

45) Looking into a microscope, you notice cells swimming, propelled by a long tail. What cell structure must these cells have in order to be mobile?

A) Ribosomes B) Smooth ER C) Flagella D) Peroxisomes E) Cytoplasm Answer: C Page Ref: 69, 72 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 46) Which of the following tissues is constructed of many collagen fibers?

A) Blood B) Scar tissue C) Transitional epithelium D) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium E) Simple cuboidal epithelium Answer: B Page Ref: 100 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 47) Which type of connective tissue is avascular?

A) Adipose B) Bone C) Cartilage D) Areolar E) Reticular Answer: C Page Ref: 91 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 48) You're observing a thin slice of onion root tip through the microscope. Cells were captured in various stages of mitosis. Which stage is easily recognizable due to the presence of chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell?

A) Prophase B) Telophase C) Anaphase D) Metaphase E) Interphase Answer: D Page Ref: 82-83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

20 .

49) Which type of tissue is most likely to repair itself if injured?

A) Cardiac muscle tissue B) Dense connective tissue C) Skeletal muscle tissue D) Nervous tissue E) Epithelial tissue Answer: E Page Ref: 100 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 50) What is the first stage to occur during tissue repair (wound healing)?

A) Inflammation B) Formation of scar tissue C) Formation of granulation tissue D) Fibrosis E) Regeneration Answer: A Page Ref: 99-100 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 51)

The tissue shown in Figure 3.3 is most likely ________.

A) contracts to produce movement B) transmits electrochemical impulses C) covers and lines body surfaces D) stores fat E) contains a matrix Answer: C Page Ref: 88, 90-91 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

21 .

52) You examine a slide with cells in various stages of mitosis on a lab quiz. The pointer shows a cell with sister chromatids having separated and the presence of a well-formed cleavage furrow separating the one cell into two. You debate between two answer choices–anaphase and telophase. What feature should have convinced you to select telophase?

A) The presence of mitotic spindle fibers B) The presence of a metaphase plate C) The separation of the sister chromatids D) The presence of a well-formed cleavage furrow E) The absence of a nucleolus Answer: D Page Ref: 82-83 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 53) A tissue on your lab exam has an apical surface and basement membrane. You observe multiple layers. The cells near the apical surface are flattened cells while those near the basement membrane are cuboidal or columnar in appearance. You identify it as transitional epithelium but later learn it was actually stratified squamous epithelial tissue. What key feature in the description of this tissue makes your answer incorrect?

A) Presence of an apical surface B) Presence of multiple layers C) Presence of a basement membrane D) Presence of flattened cells near the apical surface E) Presence of cuboidal or columnar cells near the basement membrane Answer: D Page Ref: 88, 91 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 54) After a recent knee surgery, Carrie was cautioned about resuming activities too quickly in order to give her surgical incision time to heal. Which of the following tissues will repair and heal the quickest in the weeks to come?

A) Ligaments B) Tendons C) Cartilages D) Dense connective tissues E) Epithelial tissues Answer: E Page Ref: 87, 91, 100 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

22 .

3.3

True/False Questions

1) Chromatin and chromosomes are both composed of DNA. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 64 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Phospholipid tails are hydrophilic and are attracted to water.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 62 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Ribosomes are found attached to smooth endoplasmic reticulum or freely in the cytoplasm.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 65-66 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle cells are cells that move organs and body parts.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 96, 98 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The plasma membrane is a selectively permeable barrier.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 74 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Diffusion occurs when molecules move against their concentration gradients.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 74-75 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Active processes, such as solute pumping, use ATP. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 76 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Mitotic spindles guide the separation of chromosomes during mitosis.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries an anticodon that codes for the amino acid while transfer RNA (tRNA) carries a codon complementary to the anticodon.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 84 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23 .

10) Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm, whereas mitosis is the division of the nucleus.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Translation is the stage of protein synthesis during which a complementary mRNA molecule is synthesized from a DNA template.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 84 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Stratified squamous epithelium forms the surface of the skin, the lining of the mouth, and the lining of the esophagus.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 88, 91 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The four primary tissue types are epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 86 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The matrix of hyaline cartilage consists of abundant collagen fibers hidden in a rubbery matrix.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 92 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Muscle tissue is located in the brain, spinal cord, and nerves.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 98 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

24 .

3.4

Matching Questions

Match the following: A) site of intracellular digestion B) increases surface area of plasma membrane for absorption C) packages substances for release from cell D) site of protein synthesis E) cylindrical structures made of tubulin proteins F) internal framework composed of a network of protein structures G) cellular extensions that move substances along the cell surface H) site of ATP synthesis I) synthesizes cholesterol and fat J) genetic control center of the cell 1) Cilia Page Ref: 69 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Mitochondria Page Ref: 65 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Ribosomes Page Ref: 65 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Microtubules Page Ref: 69 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Cytoskeleton Page Ref: 68-69 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Golgi apparatus Page Ref: 67 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Nucleus Page Ref: 63-64 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Microvilli Page Ref: 72 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25 .

9) Smooth ER Page Ref: 66-67 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Lysosomes Page Ref: 67 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) G 2) H 3) D 4) E 5) F 6) C 7) J 8) B 9) I 10) A

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Match the following: A) telophase B) metaphase C) prophase 11) Cytokinesis is completed Page Ref: 83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Centrioles separate and move toward opposite sides of the cell D) anaphase Page Ref: 82-83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Chromosomes align at the center of the spindle Page Ref: 83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Nucleoli appear in each daughter cell Page Ref: 83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Chromosomes separate and move to opposite ends of the cell Page Ref: 83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Chromosomes stop moving at the completion of this phase Page Ref: 83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Spindle breaks down and disappears Page Ref: 83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Nuclear envelope and nucleoli break down and disappear Page Ref: 82-83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Cleavage furrow squeezes the cell into two parts Page Ref: 83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) A

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Match the following: A) diffusion B) active transport C) osmosis D) endocytosis 20) Solute pumping of substances, such as sodium and potassium, across a membrane using ATP Page Ref: 77 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Type of passive process in which water is moved through aquaporins Page Ref: 75 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Type of passive process in which molecules move across the plasma membrane down a concentration gradient Page Ref: 75 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Type of active process in which the cell engulfs extracellular substances by phagocytosis or pinocytosis Page Ref: 79 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) D

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Match the following: A) nervous tissue B) connective tissue C) muscle tissue D) epithelial tissue 24) Type of tissue that has an apical surface and a basement membrane Page Ref: 86-87 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Type of tissue that consists of living cells surrounded by an extracellular matrix Page Ref: 91-92 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Type of tissue that is specialized to contract and produce movement Page Ref: 96 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Type of tissue that can be simple or stratified Page Ref: 86-87 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Type of tissue that is found in the brain and spinal cord Page Ref: 98 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Type of tissue that can be described as voluntary or involuntary Page Ref: 96 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Type of tissue that contains collagen, elastic, or reticular fibers Page Ref: 92 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Type of tissue that is common in glands and their ducts Page Ref: 91 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Type of tissue that supports, protects, and binds tissues together Page Ref: 91-92 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Type of tissue that can be classified as loose or dense Page Ref: 91-92, 95 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29 .

34) Type of tissue whose two functional characteristics are irritability and conductivity Page Ref: 98 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 24) D 25) B 26) C 27) D 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) A 3.5

Essay Questions

1) Drinking too much water over a short period of time can disrupt the electrolyte balance in the body (called water intoxication or hypotonic hydration). Explain how cells respond to an environment with less solutes than their intracellular fluid.

Answer: This solution is hypotonic to the cells since it contains less solutes than the body's cells. In these solutions, cells rapidly swell and fill with water in an attempt to reach equilibrium.

Cells may also burst, or lyse.

Page Ref: 77 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Describe the structural organization of the nucleus of a cell.

Answer: The nucleus of a cell has three recognizable regions or structures: the nuclear envelope (membrane), nucleolus, and chromatin. The nuclear envelope forms a boundary, is a double membrane with pores, and surrounds the nucleoplasm. The nucleus also contains one or more nucleoli, sites where ribosomes are assembled. When cell division is not occurring, DNA is wound around proteins (histones) to form chromatin, which is scattered throughout the nucleus.

Page Ref: 63, 64 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Explain the difference between filtration and osmosis.

Answer: Filtration is the process by which water and solutes are forced through a membrane by fluid (hydrostatic pressure). Hydrostatic pressure is exerted by the blood. By contrast, osmosis is a type of diffusion in which water moves across a membrane through aquaporins. During osmosis, water moves down its concentration gradient to achieve equilibrium.

Page Ref: 74-76 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Explain what is meant by selective permeability in reference to the plasma membrane.

Answer: The plasma membrane is a selectively permeable barrier. Selective permeability means that a barrier allows some substances to pass through it while excluding others. The plasma membrane allows nutrients to enter the cell, but keeps many undesirable or unnecessary substances out. At the same time, valuable cell proteins and other substances are kept within the cell, and wastes are allowed to pass out of it.

Page Ref: 74 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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5) List the three different types of RNA and identify their functions.

Answer: 1. Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the "message" containing instructions for protein synthesis from the DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm.

2. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) forms part of the "ribosomal" structure and helps coordinate the protein building process.

3. Transfer RNA (tRNA) transports an amino acid to the ribosomal site and recognizes the mRNA codons.

Page Ref: 84 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Discuss the two main phases that occur during protein synthesis.

Answer: 1. Transcription (DNA-directed synthesis of mRNA)–one strand of DNA acts as a template for the synthesis of the complementary mRNA molecule, and there is a transfer of information from the DNA's base sequence into the complementary base sequence of mRNA (codon).

2. Translation (RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide or protein) involves five steps. First, mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to ribosomes. Second, tRNA (anticodon) transports an amino acid to the mRNA strand and recognizes an mRNA molecule (codon). Third, the codon and the anticodon bind. Fourth, the ribosome moves the mRNA strand along as each codon is read sequentially. Finally, as each amino acid is bound to the next by a polypeptide bond, its tRNA is released. The polypeptide or protein chain is released when the termination (stop) codon is read.

Page Ref: 84-85 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Discuss the four stages of mitosis.

Answer: 1. Prophase–chromatin threads coil and shorten so that visible bar-like bodies, called chromosomes, appear. Each chromosome is made up of two strands called chromatids, which are held together by a centromere. Additionally, the centrioles separate and move toward opposite sides of the cell, directing the assembly of the mitotic spindle (composed of microtubules) between them as they move.

2. Metaphase–the chromosomes cluster and align in the center of the spindle, midway between the centrioles, forming a straight line of chromosomes.

3. Anaphase–the centromeres split and the chromosomes move slowly apart toward opposite ends of the cell. A cleavage furrow begins to form over the midline of the spindle, pinching the cytoplasmic mass into two parts as the start of a process called cytokinesis.

4. Telophase–the chromosomes reach opposite ends of the cell and their movement ends, and they then uncoil and become chromatin again. A nuclear membrane then forms around each chromatin mass, the spindle breaks down and disappears, and nucleoli reappear in each of the daughter nuclei. Finally, cytokinesis produces two separate daughter cells.

Page Ref: 82-83 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) A fat-soluble vitamin, vitamin A, is moving down its concentration gradient into a cell. What type of membrane transport is responsible for its movement? Describe this process.

Answer: Vitamin A is moving via simple diffusion, a type of passive transport. Passive transport requires no energy input from the cell. Vitamin A is moving from an area where it is more concentrated to an area where it is less concentrated. This vitamin is moving without assistance through the plasma membrane.

Page Ref: 75 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) Some chemotherapy drugs used to treat cancer, such as vincristine, interfere with the creation of mitotic spindle fibers of a cell. Explain how this drug affects mitosis.

Answer: The mitotic spindle is formed during prophase by centrioles. This spindle guides the movement of chromosomes later as mitosis progresses. By late prophase, the spindle has attached to the centromere of each chromosome. Without the creation of the spindle fibers, chromosomes cannot successfully be separated as mitosis progresses through anaphase.

Page Ref: 82-83 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) Sports injuries may cause the separation of a ligament from the bone, torn cartilage, or a broken bone. Given your knowledge of these connective tissues, which will regenerate the quickest?

Answer: Connective tissues have variations in blood supply. Dense connective tissues, such as tendons and ligaments, have a poor blood supply. Cartilages are avascular. As a result, these tissues will be slow to heal. By contrast, bone is a connective that regenerates well.

Page Ref: 91-92, 100 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) Describe the classification and naming scheme for epithelial tissues.

Answer: Epithelial tissues are named based on two features: the number of cell layers and the predominant cell shape. If the epithelial tissue has one layer, it is called a simple tissue. Two or more layers qualify the tissue as stratified. Cells can be flat in shape (squamous), cube-shaped (cuboidal), or brick-shaped (columnar). The viewer should look toward the apical surface for the most mature cells in the tissue for the cell shape. When naming the epithelial tissue, place the number of cell layers first (such as simple) followed by the cell shape (such as squamous).

Page Ref: 87 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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12) Ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun can cause changes in our DNA. As a result of longterm sun exposure, a portion of a gene sequence is changed. Evaluate the impact this change could potentially have on protein synthesis.

Answer: Protein synthesis involves two major phases–transcription and translation.

Transcription occurs when complementary mRNA is made using information in the DNA gene while the information coded in mRNA is translated from nucleic acids to proteins during translation. During transcription, this gene will be rewritten into mRNA codons. Since the gene sequence has changed, the incorrect codons may be transcribed. During translation of this mRNA strand, tRNA will deliver an amino acid that binds its anticodon. Recall that amino acids are the building blocks for proteins (Chapter 2). Since the gene sequence has changed, this coding error has the potential to ultimately change the protein's structure.

Page Ref: 84, 101 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 13) Mr. James has been admitted to the hospital with swollen legs due to his chronic heart condition. Based on your knowledge of membrane transport, advise the type of fluids that should be administered to reduce swelling.

Answer: Mr. James should receive a hypertonic intravenous solution. Hypertonic solutions contain more solutes, or dissolved substances, than there are inside cells. Hypertonic solutions can be given to patients who have edema (swelling due to fluid retention). These solutions draw water out of the tissue spaces and into the bloodstream. (The kidneys will eliminate the excess fluids in urine.)

Page Ref: 77 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 14) During lab, a student struggles to differentiate between microscope slides of stratified squamous epithelium and dense regular connective tissue. Recommend some differences and ways for her to discriminate between these two tissue slides.

Answer: Stratified squamous epithelium has the hallmark features of epithelial tissue that make it instantly recognizable: it has an apical surface and basement membrane. Its many cell layers fit closely together to form continuous sheets. The cells at the apical surface are flattened squamous cells while those near the basement membrane are cuboidal or columnar in shape. By contrast, dense regular connective tissue is recognizable for its plentiful parallel collagen fibers and rows of fibroblasts. Connective tissues lack an apical surface and basement membrane, so that feature immediately differentiates these two tissue types.

Page Ref: 88, 91, 92 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

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Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 4 Skin and Body Membranes 4.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 4.1, identify the following: 1) The hypodermis, or subcutaneous tissue, is represented by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: D Page Ref: 111 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

1 .

2) The hair follicle is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: F Page Ref: 111, 118 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The layer responsible for whorled ridges on the epidermal surfaces is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: A Page Ref: 111, 113 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The arrector pili muscle is represented by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: B Page Ref: 111, 118 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The gland that produces a mixture of oily substances and fragmented cells is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: C Page Ref: 111, 116-117 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2 .

6) The gland that produces sweat is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E F) Label F Answer: E Page Ref: 111, 116-117 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The pleura and pericardium are examples of ________ membranes that cover organs in a body cavity closed to the exterior.

A) mucous B) serous C) cutaneous D) synovial Answer: B Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The ________ membrane lines the fibrous capsule surrounding joints.

A) synovial B) serous C) mucous D) cutaneous Answer: A Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) When James shaves his face, which portion of the hair is removed?

A) Hair follicle B) Hair root C) Hair matrix D) Hair shaft Answer: D Page Ref: 118 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The outermost layer of the epidermis is keratinized and known as stratum ________.

A) basale B) granulosum C) corneum D) spinosum Answer: C Page Ref: 111 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3 .

11) Which of the following are pigments that contribute to skin color?

A) Collagen; elastic; keratin B) Melanin; jaundice; erythema C) Sebum; sweat; urea D) Melanin; carotene; hemoglobin Answer: D Page Ref: 115 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The sebaceous and sweat glands associated with the skin are classified as ________ glands because they release secretions on to the skin's surface via ducts.

A) exocrine B) endocrine C) serous D) mucous Answer: A Page Ref: 116 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Which of the following is a lubricant that keeps skin soft and moist and also contains chemicals that kill bacteria?

A) Sweat B) Sebum C) Carotene D) Melanin Answer: B Page Ref: 116 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) What type of burn only involves injury to the superficial epidermis?

A) First-degree B) Second-degree C) Third-degree D) Fourth-degree Answer: A Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4 .

15) The white, cheesy-looking substance that is produced by the sebaceous glands and protects a baby's skin while it is floating in its water-filled sac inside the mother is called ________.

A) lanugo B) vernix caseosa C) milia D) vellus Answer: B Page Ref: 124 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Hair color is due to a pigment known as ________.

A) hemoglobin B) carotene C) keratin D) melanin Answer: D Page Ref: 118 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The white crescent area located over the nail matrix is called the ________.

A) lunule B) cuticle C) matrix D) bed Answer: A Page Ref: 119 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) A nurse tends to a patient with a sunburn. Upon examination, she sees blisters and red, swollen skin. The patient complains of pain. What feature of this burn distinguishes it from a first-degree burn?

A) Pain B) Blisters C) Swollen skin D) Red skin Answer: B Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

5 .

19) The Staphylococcus infection of the skin that causes pink, water-filled, raised lesions is known as ________.

A) impetigo B) cold sores C) psoriasis D) contact dermatitis Answer: A Page Ref: 120 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which of the following is the least malignant and most common skin cancer that affects the cells of stratum basale?

A) Squamous cell carcinoma B) Malignant melanoma C) Basal cell carcinoma D) Psoriasis Answer: C Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Which of the following letters in the ABCDE rule for recognizing melanomas is incorrect?

A) A stands for asymmetry.

B) B stands for border irregularity.

C) C stands for color.

D) D stands for diagnosis.

Answer: D Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

6 .

4.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) What is situated between the visceral and parietal pleura?

A) Lung B) Heart C) Serous fluid D) Air E) Synovial fluid Answer: C Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following membranes lines all body cavities that are open to the exterior?

A) Pleura B) Synovial C) Cutaneous D) Mucous E) Serous Answer: D Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following reduces friction in movable joints, such as the knee?

A) Sebum B) Serous fluid C) Synovial fluid D) Sweat E) Keratin Answer: C Page Ref: 107,109 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) A needle performing a biopsy of lung tissue would travel through the serous membrane layers surrounding the lung in the following order ________.

A) visceral pleura, lung, parietal pleura B) visceral pleura, parietal pleura, lung C) parietal pleura, lung, visceral pleura D) visceral pericardium, lung, parietal pericardium E) parietal pleura, visceral pleura, lung Answer: E Page Ref: 107–08 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

7 .

5) The only dry membrane is the ________.

A) synovial membrane B) cutaneous membrane C) mucous membrane D) serous membrane E) basement membrane Answer: B Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Where are mucous membranes found?

A) Lining joint cavities B) Covering the heart C) Lining the inside of the stomach D) Covering the brain E) Lining the abdominal cavity wall Answer: C Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The skin and its appendages (nails, glands, and hairs) are collectively called the ________.

A) skeletal system B) integumentary system C) endocrine system D) immune system E) lymphatic system Answer: B Page Ref: 109 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which of the following is a vital function of the integumentary system?

A) The skin synthesizes vitamin D. B) The skin aids in the transport of materials throughout the body.

C) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy.

D) The skin absorbs vitamin C, so that the skin will not be subject to diseases.

E) The skin aids in desiccation.

Answer: A Page Ref: 110 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

8 .

9) Although you get wet while swimming, which protein makes the epidermis a tough protective layer?

A) Serous fluid B) Melanin C) Mucus D) Carotene E) Keratin Answer: E Page Ref: 110 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The epidermis is composed of ________.

A) simple columnar epithelium B) stratified squamous epithelium C) adipose tissue D) areolar tissue E) dense fibrous connective tissue Answer: B Page Ref: 110 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Jan got her microscope slides mixed up in lab as they were unlabeled. The skin slide with abundant adipose tissue should be labeled as the ________.

A) epidermis B) papillary layer of the dermis C) subcutaneous tissue (hypodermis) D) reticular layer of the dermis E) stratum corneum Answer: C Page Ref: 110 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) A little girl on the playground fell and scraped her knee. You notice her knee shows no signs of bleeding. Therefore, this must be only a superficial scrape to the ________.

A) epidermis B) both epidermis and dermis C) epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis D) entire cutaneous membrane E) entire synovial membrane Answer: A Page Ref: 110 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

9 .

13) Toya stepped on a tack while barefoot. It pierced all the way into the dermis. Through which strata of the epidermis did the tack pierce, from superficial to deep?

1. Stratum basale 2. Stratum corneum 3. Stratum granulosum 4. Stratum lucidum 5. Stratum spinosum A) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4 B) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2 C) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1 D) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 E) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 Answer: C Page Ref: 110-112 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) What provides toughness to the dermis and holds water in this skin layer?

A) Merkel cells B) Collagen fibers C) Melanocytes D) Elastic fibers E) Epidermis dendritic cells Answer: B Page Ref: 113-114 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The "tanning" effect (darkening of the skin) that occurs when a person is exposed to the sun is due to the increased presence of ________.

A) melanin B) keratin C) oil D) epidermis dendritic cells E) sweat Answer: A Page Ref: 115 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Which layer of the epidermis is composed of flattened, dead, keratin-filled cells?

A) Stratum spinosum B) Stratum granulosum C) Stratum basale D) Stratum corneum E) Stratum lucidum Answer: D Page Ref: 111-112 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10 .

17) People whose melanocytes produce a lot of melanin have a skin tone that is ________.

A) green B) brown C) blue D) pink E) orange Answer: B Page Ref: 112 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which of these layers directly connects to the dermis?

A) Stratum basale B) Stratum corneum C) Stratum granulosum D) Stratum lucidum E) Stratum spinosum Answer: A Page Ref: 111 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which of the following contains chemicals that kill bacteria and prevent bacterial invasions of the skin?

A) Sweat B) Hemoglobin C) Keratin D) Sebum E) Melanin Answer: D Page Ref: 116 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of ________.

A) absorption B) evaporation C) filtration D) diffusion E) osmosis Answer: D Page Ref: 111 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

11 .

21) Fingerprints and footprints in the epidermis are created by dermal papillae present in the ________.

A) reticular layer of the dermis B) subcutaneous tissue C) stratum lucidum D) hypodermis E) papillary layer of the dermis Answer: E Page Ref: 113 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) What function do the arrector pili muscles serve?

A) Produce and release sebum B) Provide nourishment to the hair follicle C) Connect each side of the hair follicle to dermal tissue D) Cover and protect the nail bed E) Provide keratin to the hair Answer: C Page Ref: 118 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which vitamin is synthesized by the skin?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin C C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin E E) Vitamin K Answer: C Page Ref: 110 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which layer of the epidermis forms the nail bed?

A) Stratum basale B) Stratum corneum C) Stratum granulosum D) Stratum lucidum E) Stratum spinosum Answer: A Page Ref: 118 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

12 .

25) Frequent hand washing can cause the outer layers of skin to dry out. What is removed from skin during this activity?

A) Melanin B) Collagen C) Keratin D) Sebum E) Sweat Answer: D Page Ref: 117 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) People who wear antiperspirant with deodorant are trying to reduce the secretions of the ________.

A) sudoriferous glands B) mammary glands C) sebaceous glands D) stratum corneum E) dermis Answer: A Page Ref: 117 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Where does hair growth occur?

A) Hair shaft B) Hair matrix C) Hair cuticle D) Hair cortex E) Hair medulla Answer: B Page Ref: 118 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which of the following abnormal skin colors results from liver disorders?

A) Cyanosis B) Pallor C) Erythema D) Jaundice E) Bruising Answer: D Page Ref: 115 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

13 .

29) What skin disorder is recognized using the ABCDE rule?

A) Squamous cell carcinoma B) Melanoma C) Psoriasis D) Basal cell carcinoma E) Impetigo Answer: B Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) A physician estimates the volume of fluid lost in a severely burned patient by ________.

A) measuring urinary output and fluid intake B) observing the tissues that are usually moist C) blood analysis D) using the "rule of nines" E) performing enzyme studies Answer: D Page Ref: 121-122 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which of the following is an indication of melanoma?

A) A symmetrical mole B) A pigmented spot that has smooth borders C) A pigmented spot on the skin that is smaller than the size of a pencil eraser D) A pigmented spot that is all black E) A pigmented spot that contains areas of different colors Answer: E Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Your 70-year-old grandfather shows signs of loss of hair and some baldness. What agerelated disorder do you suspect is the cause?

A) Psoriasis B) Lanugo C) Male pattern baldness D) Dermatitis E) Milia Answer: C Page Ref: 126 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

14 .

33) A genetic switch turns on graying hair in response to ________.

A) age B) size C) weight D) male hormones E) female hormones Answer: A Page Ref: 126 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34)

The membrane shown in Figure 4.2 is a ________.

A) cutaneous membrane B) synovial membrane C) pericardium, a serous membrane D) mucous membrane E) pleura, a serous membrane Answer: E Page Ref: 107-108 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

15 .

35) Vitiligo is a skin disorder characterized by the loss of skin pigmentation. Evaluate the following findings from various skin slides (from arm skin), and select the sample from a patient with vitiligo.

A) Slide A had both sebaceous and sudoriferous glands present.

B) Slide B had no melanin present in the epidermis.

C) Slide C had collagen fibers present in the dermis.

D) Slide D had no keratin present in the epidermis.

E) Slide E clearly showed dermal papillae.

Answer: B Page Ref: 110, 112 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 36) After an explosion during a fireworks show, a number of people arrive at the emergency room with burns to their skin. You and a colleague are assessing patients to determine who needs assistance first. Evaluate the signs and symptoms of the following patients and determine whose burn is the most severe.

A) Patient A has some pain in the burned skin.

B) Patient B has some discomfort around the site of the burn.

C) Patient C has blanched or blackened burned skin.

D) Patient D has red and swollen burned skin.

E) Patient E has a few blisters present on the burned skin.

Answer: C Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 37) Aileen's grandmother has a mole on her scalp with bluish-black colorations and irregular borders. She dismisses it as a squamous cell carcinoma and predicts her dermatologist will freeze it off like the ones she's had previously. Aileen disagrees and believes it's a melanoma.

Recommend an additional sign or symptom that will support a melanoma diagnosis.

A) Itching B) Size of the lesion C) Presence of blisters D) Swelling E) Painful Answer: B Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

16 .

4.3

True/False Questions

1) Both serous fluid and synovial fluid serve as lubricants in their respective locations.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Synovial membrane occurs in pairs with a parietal and visceral layer.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) When an individual is exposed to extremely low air temperatures, the capillaries of the skin will swell so that blood will flush into skin capillary beds, and heat will radiate.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 114 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The connective tissue composing the dermis is made of two regions: the papillary and the reticular areas.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 113 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The pigments that contribute to skin color are melanin, carotene, and hemoglobin.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 115 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Sebaceous glands and sweat glands are cutaneous glands associated with the skin.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 116 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The epidermis is made mostly of dense (fibrous) connective tissue.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 110 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The majority of the cells in the epidermis are keratinocytes.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 110 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

17 .

9) Collagen and elastic fibers are common in the epidermis of the skin.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 113-114 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Apocrine glands are associated with hair follicles in the armpit and genital regions.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 117-118 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Stratum basale forms the nail bed of a nail.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 118-119 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The arrector pili muscle contracts and pulls hairs upright when we are cold or frightened.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 118 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Nails and hair are both composed of keratin.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 118-119 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The reason that the nail bed appears pink is the presence of a large number of melanocytes in the underlying dermis.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 119 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Joe just burned his hand on a hot pot. A blister forms and the burn is painful; Joe's burn would best be described as a third-degree, or full-thickness, burn.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The rule of nines is used to estimate how much of the body surface is burned.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Apocrine gland secretions are normally odorless, and may be milky or yellowish in color.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 117 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18 .

18) The ABCDE rule is used for classifying burns.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Smoking and sunlight contribute to the loss of elasticity in the skin as we age.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 126 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Squamous cell carcinoma arises from cells of the stratum spinosum.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

19 .

4.4

Matching Questions

Match the following types of skin cancer with their description. Letters may be used more than once: A) basal cell carcinoma B) melanoma C) squamous cell carcinoma 1) Arises from the cells of stratum spinosum Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Least malignant and most common skin cancer Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Arises from cells of the stratum basale Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Arises from melanocytes Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Apply the ABCDE rule to recognize this type Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Lesions appear as dome-shaped nodules with a pearly beaded edge Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Lesions initially appear as scaly, reddened papules that gradually form shallow ulcers with firm, raised borders Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) C 2) A 3) A 4) B 5) B 6) A 7) C

20 .

Match the following types of burns with their appropriate descriptions. Letters may be used more than once.

A) second-degree burn B) fourth-degree burn C) third-degree burn D) first-degree burn 8) Burned area often appears blanched or blackened Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Burned area appears dry and leathery Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Burned area affects the epidermis and superficial dermis Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Considered a superficial partial-thickness burn Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Only the superficial epidermis is burned Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The presence of blisters differentiates a second-degree burn from this type Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Burns that can affect deeper tissues such as bones, muscles, or tendons Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Burned area is not painful and skin grafting is needed to cover underlying exposed tissues Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) D 13) D 14) B 15) D

21 .

Match the following: A) serous membrane B) cutaneous membrane C) synovial membrane D) mucous membrane 16) Type of membrane that forms the skin Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Type of membrane adapted for absorption or secretion Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Type of membrane that lines body cavities closed to the exterior Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Type of membrane that contains a visceral and a parietal layer Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Type of membrane that lines the fibrous capsules surrounding joints Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Type of membrane that lines open body cavities Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Peritoneum, pericardium, and pleura are examples of this type of membrane Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) A

22 .

4.5

Essay Questions

1) Explain the ABCDE rule.

Answer: The ABCDE rule describes the appearance of the most serious form of skin cancer, melanoma. The "A" is for asymmetry. In melanoma, the two sides of the pigmented spot or mole do not match. The "B" is for border irregularity. In melanoma, the borders of the lesion are not smooth but exhibit indentations. The "C" is for color. In melanoma, the pigmented spot contains areas of different colors (blacks, browns, tans, and sometimes blues and reds). The "D" is for diameter. In melanoma, the spot is larger than 6 mm in diameter (the size of a pencil eraser). The "E" stands for evolution. One or more of these characteristics is evolving, or changing.

Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Distinguish between the locations and secretions of apocrine and eccrine sweat glands.

Answer: Eccrine sweat glands are more numerous than apocrine sweat glands; they are found all over the body. Eccrine sweat glands function in body temperature regulation. When we are too hot, eccrine sweat glands release sweat containing water, salts, vitamin C, and metabolic wastes on to the body's surface. Upon its evaporation, we are cooled down. The ducts of apocrine sweat glands empty into hair follicles in the axillary and genital areas. Apocrine sweat glands activate at puberty and produce sweat almost continuously, but their overall function is not known. Apocrine sweat is milky or yellowish in color due to fatty acids and proteins in the secretions.

Page Ref: 116-117 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Explain how the skin helps regulate body temperature.

Answer: The dermis is abundantly supplied with blood vessels that play a role in maintaining body temperature homeostasis. When body temperature is high, the capillaries of the dermis become engorged, or swollen, with heated blood, and the skin becomes reddened and warm. This allows body heat to radiate from the skin surface. If the environment is cool and body heat must be conserved, blood bypasses the dermis capillaries temporarily, allowing internal body temperature to remain high.

Page Ref: 114 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Explain how the skin functions to protect deeper tissues from microbe damage.

Answer: The skin forms an unbroken surface and an "acid mantle." Skin secretions are acidic and thus inhibit microbes, such as bacteria. Phagocytes ingest foreign substances and pathogens, preventing them from penetrating into deeper body tissues.

Page Ref: 109 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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5) Identify four changes that occur to the skin and subcutaneous connective tissue as a result of aging, and state how these changes can be delayed.

Answer: 1. The amount of subcutaneous tissue below the skin decreases, leading to an intolerance to cold in the elderly.

2. Because of decreased oil production and declining numbers of collagen fibers, the skin becomes drier and may become itchy and bothersome.

3. Thinning of the skin makes it more susceptible to bruising and other types of injuries.

4. A decrease in elasticity of the skin, along with the loss of subcutaneous fat, allows bags to form under the eyes and causes jowls to sag.

There is no way to avoid aging skin, but good nutrition, plenty of fluids, and cleanliness help delay the process.

Page Ref: 126 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) List and describe the three types of epithelial membranes.

Answer: 1. Cutaneous membrane is: a. skin b. dry c. composed of keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium and the underlying connective tissue is often dense and fibrous.

2. Mucous membrane: a. is moist b. is found lining all body cavities that open to the exterior c. often contains stratified squamous epithelium or simple columnar epithelium 3. Serous membrane: a. is composed of two layers (visceral layer covers the organ in the cavity while the parietal layer lines a specific portion of the wall of the ventral body cavity) b. covers organs in body cavities that are closed to the exterior c. is constructed of simple squamous epithelium overlying a thin layer of areolar connective tissue Page Ref: 107 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Differentiate among the roles of melanocytes and keratinocytes. Where in the skin are these cells located?

Answer: Melanocytes are located in the stratum basale of the epidermis. These cells produce a pigment, melanin, upon exposure to the sun. Melanin functions to protect the dermis from damage due to UV radiation. Keratinocytes form most of the cells of the epidermis; they produce a water-resistant, tough protein called keratin.

Page Ref: 110, 112 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

24 .

8) Julia works in a walk-in clinic where several patients arrive with sunburns. How should she distinguish the first-degree and second-degree burns from one another?

Answer: Although both first-degree and second-degree burns produce red and painful skin and are partial thickness burns, only the second-degree burns produce blisters.

Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) Ehlers Danlos syndrome is an inheritable condition in which collagen production is greatly reduced. People with this condition have an incredible range of joint movement and have soft, stretchy skin. Hypothesize how a collagen deficiency would impact the skin.

Answer: Recall from Chapter 3 that collagen fibers are distinguished from other fiber types by their high tensile strength. Collagen fibers are found in the connective tissues in the dermis of the skin and are responsible for the toughness of the dermis. Collagen fibers in the dermis also attract water and help maintain hydration for the skin. In skin that has little collagen, the dermis would lose its toughness, sag, and be more susceptible to tears.

Page Ref: 113-114 Bloom's: 6: Creating 10) In the burn clinic, a nurse is assigned to assist new patients. Patient 1 has sunburn with blisters. Patient 2 has blackened, charred skin due to a backyard fire that raged out of control; he received burns to over 12% of his body. Patient 3 has red, swollen skin due to a hot water burn.

Rank these patients in order of priority from most severe burn to least.

Answer: Patient 2 has the most severe burn of the three patients. The blackened skin is indicative of a third-degree burn. This burn is a full thickness burn, which extends through the epidermis and dermis. Since this patient was burned over 12% of his body surface as a thirddegree burn, it is also considered a critical burn. Skin grafting must be done on this type of patient because regeneration is not possible. Patient 1 has a second-degree burn. Second-degree burns impact the epidermis and superficial dermis. The presence of blisters differentiates this burn from a first-degree burn. The least severe burn was experienced by patient 3. Red, inflamed skin is characteristic of a first-degree burn. This type of burn impacts only the superficial epidermis. First-degree burns are not usually serious and generally heal in about two to three days.

Page Ref: 121 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

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11) Jazmin's uncle visited a dermatologist to have a suspicious mole examined, shown below.

Using your knowledge of various types of skin cancers, evaluate this mole and determine which type it is. Support your answer with an explanation.

Answer: This mole is a melanoma, a cancer of the melanocytes of the skin. Melanomas can begin wherever there is pigment and can be recognized by applying the ABCDE rule. This particular mole clearly satisfies (A) asymmetry: any two sides of the pigmented mole do not match. It also satisfies (B) border irregularity: the borders of the lesion are not smooth. It may be difficult to determine letter (C) color, (D) diameter, and (E) evolving from this image if given in black and white view and without a sense of scale.

Page Ref: 123 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

26 .

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 5 The Skeletal System 5.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 5.1, identify the following: 1) The proximal epiphysis is represented by ________.

A) Label H B) Label C C) Label A D) Label B E) Label F Answer: D Page Ref: 132-133 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

1 .

2) The area that causes the lengthwise growth of a long bone is indicated by ________.

A) Label F B) Label D C) Label A D) Label E E) Label C Answer: D Page Ref: 132-133 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The area that serves as a storage area for fat (adipose tissue) in adults is indicated by ________.

A) Label H B) Label F C) Label A D) Label G E) Label B Answer: A Page Ref: 132-133 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The diaphysis is indicated by ________.

A) Label D B) Label C C) Label G D) Label A E) Label H Answer: B Page Ref: 132-133 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The periosteum, a connective tissue covering on the diaphysis, is represented by ________.

A) Label C B) Label A C) Label G D) Label B E) Label F Answer: E Page Ref: 132-133 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2 .

6) The area that contains glassy hyaline cartilage that provides a smooth slippery surface that decreases friction is indicated by ________.

A) Label D B) Label H C) Label E D) Label B E) Label A Answer: A Page Ref: 132-133 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

A) Storage of fat and minerals B) Support the body C) Protection of soft body organs D) Regulation of blood pressure Answer: D Page Ref: 131 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) What bones protect the spinal cord?

A) Ribs B) Sternum C) Vertebrae D) Coxal bones Answer: C Page Ref: 131 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Cube-shaped bones that contain mostly spongy bone are called ________ bones.

A) flat B) long C) short D) irregular Answer: C Page Ref: 132 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Small canals that connect osteocytes in their lacunae to the central canal are known as ________.

A) canaliculi B) perforating (Volkmann's) canals C) central (Haversian) canals D) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers Answer: A Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3 .

11) The process of bone formation is known as ________.

A) hematopoiesis B) hemostasis C) metabolism D) ossification Answer: D Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Mothers who breast-feed their children will lose a percentage of calcium from their bones.

Which hormone is responsible for raising blood calcium levels when they drop below homeostatic levels?

A) Calcitonin B) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) C) Insulin D) Growth hormone Answer: B Page Ref: 138 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) How does the formation of a bony callus assist with the process of bone healing after a fracture?

A) The presence of a bony callus allows new blood vessels to grow into the damaged site.

B) Cells forming the bony callus help to splint the broken bone and close the gap.

C) The bony callus is made of spongy bone, which replaces the fibrocartilage callus.

D) The blood clot created upon the fracture of the bone is removed by phagocytes within the fibrocartilage callus.

Answer: C Page Ref: 141 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) An eighty-six-year old woman has lost several inches of height due to crushed bone in her vertebrae. What type is common in osteoporotic bones of older people?

A) Spiral B) Greenstick C) Impacted D) Compression Answer: D Page Ref: 140-141 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4 .

15) The skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage form the ________ skeleton.

A) appendicular B) central C) axial D) main Answer: C Page Ref: 130, 142 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The large hole located in the base of the occipital bone that allows the spinal cord and brain to connect is the ________.

A) occipital condyle B) vertebral foramen C) intervertebral foramen D) foramen magnum Answer: D Page Ref: 144 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The temporal bones are joined with the parietal bones at the ________ sutures.

A) coronal B) sagittal C) squamous D) lambdoid Answer: C Page Ref: 142 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) From superior to inferior, what is the correct order of the vertebrae?

A) lumbar, thoracic, and cervical B) cervical, lumbar, and thoracic C) cervical, thoracic, and lumbar D) sacral, cervical, and lumbar Answer: C Page Ref: 149 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The head of the humerus fits into the ________ of the scapula.

A) acromion process B) glenoid cavity C) suprascapular notch D) coracoid process Answer: B Page Ref: 154, 156 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

5 .

20) Two or more bones meet at a location called a(n) ________.

A) fracture B) hematoma C) articulation (joint) D) marrow cavity Answer: C Page Ref: 163 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Immovable joints are functionally classified as ________.

A) diarthroses B) synarthroses C) amphiarthroses D) symphyses Answer: B Page Ref: 163 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

6 .

Figure 5.2 Using Figure 5.2, identify the following: 22) The parietal bone is indicated by ________.

A) Label M B) Label O C) Label A D) Label H E) Label P Answer: C Page Ref: 142-143 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

7 .

23) The fibula is indicated by ________.

A) Label Q B) Label X C) Label R D) Label T E) Label W Answer: B Page Ref: 143, 160 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The patella is indicated by ________.

A) Label E B) Label G C) Label I D) Label U E) Label A Answer: C Page Ref: 143 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) The manubrium, body, and xiphoid process fuse to form the bone indicated by ________.

A) Label O B) Label N C) Label A D) Label K E) Label B Answer: A Page Ref: 143, 152 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) The radius bone is indicated by ________.

A) Label T B) Label R C) Label F D) Label S E) Label Q Answer: E Page Ref: 143, 156 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

8 .

27) The mandible is indicated by ________.

A) Label N B) Label W C) Label M D) Label C E) Label B Answer: A Page Ref: 143, 148 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The carpals are indicated by ________.

A) Label N B) Label X C) Label J D) Label I E) Label T Answer: E Page Ref: 143, 156 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) The greater tubercle and trochlea are bone markings situated on the bone marked by ________.

A) Label O B) Label I C) Label E D) Label Y E) Label A Answer: C Page Ref: 143, 156 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) The ilium, pubis, and ischium fuse to form the bone marked by ________.

A) Label F B) Label G C) Label T D) Label H E) Label I Answer: B Page Ref: 143, 158-159 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

9 .

5.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) Julie experienced a break in the shaft of her femur. What part of her bone was fractured?

A) Epiphysis B) Epiphyseal plate C) Articular cartilage D) Diaphysis E) Epiphyseal line Answer: D Page Ref: 132 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2)

The arrangement of bone tissue shown in Figure 5.3 consists of ________.

A) osteons (Haversian systems) B) yellow marrow C) trabeculae D) neurons E) red marrow Answer: A Page Ref: 135-136 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

10 .

3) When growing bones widen through appositional growth, what cells add bone matrix to the outside of the diaphysis?

A) Erythrocytes B) Osteoblasts C) Osteoclasts D) Chondrocytes E) Osteocytes Answer: B Page Ref: 137-138 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The femur, tibia, humerus, and radius are all classified as ________.

A) compact bones B) irregular bones C) flat bones D) long bones E) sesamoid bones Answer: D Page Ref: 131-132 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) What type of tissue covers the epiphysis of bones and reduces friction in the joints?

A) Yellow marrow B) Endosteum C) Spongy bone D) Periosteum E) Articular cartilage Answer: E Page Ref: 132 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) In adults, the function of the yellow marrow is to ________.

A) store adipose tissue B) form blood cells C) store calcium and phosphorus D) promote lengthwise growth in long bones E) decrease friction at joint surfaces Answer: A Page Ref: 133 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

11 .

7) The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that ________.

A) bone is dead B) bone length is no longer increasing C) bone diameter is increasing D) bone diameter is decreasing E) bone length is increasing Answer: E Page Ref: 132 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Each complex of central canal and matrix rings in compact bone is known as ________.

A) a perforating (Volkmann's) canal B) the epiphysis C) a canaliculus D) a central (Haversian) canal E) an osteon (Haversian system) Answer: E Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) What does collagen contribute as a component of bone?

A) Elasticity B) Hardness C) Flexibility D) Brittleness E) Resistance to compression Answer: C Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which of the following is only found associated with a child's bone?

A) Diaphysis B) Marrow cavity C) Epiphyseal plate D) Periosteum E) Articular cartilage Answer: C Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

12 .

11) Which of these bone markings is a projection that serves as a site for muscle or ligament attachment?

A) External auditory meatus B) Subscapular fossa C) Foramen magnum D) Inferior orbital fissure E) Greater tubercle Answer: E Page Ref: 134 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) What is housed in a lacuna of compact bone tissue?

A) Lamellae B) Collagen fibers C) An osteon D) An osteocyte E) An osteoclast Answer: D Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (Haversian system) is the ________.

A) canaliculi B) central (Haversian) canal C) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers D) perforating (Volkmann's) canal E) lamellae Answer: B Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) A fracture in the ________ can impair the lengthwise growth of bones in a child.

A) epiphyseal plate B) osteoblasts C) periosteum D) medullary cavity E) articular cartilage Answer: A Page Ref: 132 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

13 .

15) What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?

A) elastic connective tissue B) dense fibrous connective tissue C) fibrocartilage D) hyaline cartilage E) loose fibrous connective tissue Answer: D Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) What type of bone cell is primarily active when bone growth occurs?

A) Osteocyte B) Erythrocyte C) Chondrocyte D) Osteoblast E) Osteoclast Answer: D Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) What determines where bone matrix will be remodeled?

A) Sex hormones B) Osteoblasts and osteoclasts C) The pull of gravity and muscles on the skeleton and calcium ion levels in the blood D) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) and calcitonin E) Sodium ion levels in the blood Answer: C Page Ref: 138 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) There are four stages in the healing of a bone fracture. Which of the following best illustrates the sequence of these stages?

1. bony callus formation 2. bone remodeling 3. fibrocartilage callus formation 4. hematoma formation A) 4, 3, 2, 1 B) 4, 3, 1, 2 C) 1, 2, 3, 4 D) 1, 3, 4, 2 E) 1, 3, 2, 4 Answer: B Page Ref: 141 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

14 .

19) Bone growth in width that occurs due to weight lifting at age 40 is most likely ________.

A) due to rickets B) none since bones do not grow after adolescence C) appositional growth D) occurring at the epiphyseal lines E) occurring at the epiphyseal plates Answer: C Page Ref: 138 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 20) Which of the following could create an open, or compound, fracture?

A) When the bone is crushed B) When the broken bone ends are forced into each other C) When the broken bone penetrates through the skin D) When the bone is broken into many fragments E) When adjacent bones fracture simultaneously Answer: C Page Ref: 139 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) A bone fracture that results in the bone being broken into many fragments is a ________.

A) compound fracture B) simple fracture C) comminuted fracture D) compression fracture E) greenstick fracture Answer: C Page Ref: 140-141 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) The physician knew her patient was most likely a child before she walked into the examination room because the X-ray revealed a(n) ________.

A) impacted fracture B) compression fracture C) comminuted fracture D) greenstick fracture E) open fracture Answer: D Page Ref: 141 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

15 .

23) While playing soccer, Lauren received a ragged fracture to her fibula due to twisting her leg.

This type of fracture is ________.

A) impacted fracture B) compression fracture C) spiral fracture D) depressed fracture E) simple fracture Answer: C Page Ref: 141 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The axial skeleton contains ________.

1. skull 2. scapula 3. true and false ribs 4. vertebrae 5. phalanges A) 1, 3, 4, 5 B) 1, 3, 4 C) 2, 5 D) 2, 3, 4, 5 E) 1, 2, 3, 5 Answer: B Page Ref: 142 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 25) Which bones are commonly referred to as the cheekbones?

A) Lacrimal bones B) Zygomatic bones C) Parietal bones D) Temporal bones E) Palatine bones Answer: B Page Ref: 146 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Identify the bones that do not house a paranasal sinus.

A) Frontal bones B) Maxillary bones C) Ethmoid bones D) Sphenoid bones E) Zygomatic bones Answer: E Page Ref: 148 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

16 .

27) The fibrous connections between the bones of a fetal skull are ________.

A) alveolar margins B) sinuses C) palates D) crista galli E) fontanels Answer: E Page Ref: 169-170 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which bones are associated with the palm of the hand?

A) Phalanges B) Carpals C) Metatarsals D) Tarsals E) Metacarpals Answer: E Page Ref: 156 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) The hyoid bone is unique because it ________.

A) is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone B) is an irregular bone C) belongs to both the axial and appendicular skeletons D) has no specific function E) largely consists of cartilage Answer: A Page Ref: 148 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 30) Which spinal curvature is associated with the lower back and appears when a baby begins to walk?

A) Cervical B) Primary C) Lumbar D) Thoracic E) Sacral Answer: C Page Ref: 149-150 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

17 .

31) Which type of rib connects directly to the sternum by way of costal cartilage?

A) True ribs only B) True and false ribs C) Floating ribs only D) False ribs only E) False and floating ribs Answer: A Page Ref: 153 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) What part of axis (C2) allows you to pivot your head left and right as if to say "no?"

A) Body B) Spinous process C) Dens D) Transverse foramen E) Transverse process Answer: C Page Ref: 151 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) In lab, you find a vertebra with foramina situated in the transverse processes. Which type of vertebrae must this be?

A) Thoracic B) Cervical C) Lumbar D) Sacrum E) Coccyx Answer: B Page Ref: 151 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 34) Which bone has a trochlea and capitulum at its distal end?

A) Ulna B) Radius C) Tibia D) Humerus E) Femur Answer: D Page Ref: 156 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

18 .

35) The sternum is the result of fusion of three bones called the ________.

A) ischium, ilium, coccyx B) pubis, ischium, ilium C) manubrium, body, xiphoid process D) jugular notch, sternal angle, xiphisternal joint E) true ribs, manubrium, xiphoid process Answer: C Page Ref: 151 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) What part of the femur articulates with the acetabulum of the coxal bone?

A) Greater trochanter B) Surgical neck C) Patellar surface D) Head E) Linea aspera Answer: D Page Ref: 160 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which of these bones is the most inferior?

A) Atlas B) Sacrum C) Lumbar vertebrae D) Coccyx E) Axis Answer: D Page Ref: 151, 153 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) You examine an articulated skeleton in the laboratory and determine the skeleton to be a female since ________.

A) the angle of the female pubic arch is smaller than in a male B) the distance between the female ischial spines is greater than in a male C) the distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less than in a male D) the female iliac bones are less flared than in a male E) the female pelvis as a whole is deeper, and the bones are heavier and thicker than in a male Answer: B Page Ref: 158 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

19 .

39)

The type of joint shown in Figure 5.4 is ________.

A) a suture B) a fibrous joint C) an amphiarthrotic joint D) a cartilaginous joint E) a synovial joint Answer: E Page Ref: 165 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Select the functional type of joint with the least amount of mobility.

A) Amphiarthrosis B) Synovial C) Diarthrosis D) Synarthrosis E) Cartilaginous Answer: D Page Ref: 163 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

20 .

41) What type of joint is characterized by the presence of a joint cavity, ligaments, and articular cartilage with an articular capsule?

A) Synovial joint B) Amphiarthroses C) Synarthroses D) Cartilaginous joints E) Fibrous joints Answer: A Page Ref: 163, 165 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) Plane, hinge, and pivot joints are examples of ________.

A) amphiarthroses B) synovial joints C) cartilaginous joints D) synarthroses E) fibrous joints Answer: B Page Ref: 165-166 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) How would you classify the shoulder and hip joints?

A) Pivot joint B) Ball-and-socket joint C) Condylar joint D) Hinge joint E) Saddle joint Answer: B Page Ref: 166 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) Four of the five answers listed below are parts of the same anatomical area. Select the exception.

A) Humerus B) Radius C) Scapula D) Fibula E) Clavicle Answer: D Page Ref: 154, 156 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

21 .

45) What will decrease a person's risk for development of the bone-thinning disease known as osteoporosis?

A) Smoking B) Weight-bearing exercises C) Loss of estrogen in females who are post-menopausal D) Lack of vitamin D E) Diet poor in calcium and protein Answer: B Page Ref: 171 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) You're assisting with an exam for a young boy who broke the distal ends of his fibula and tibia. The physician examined the X-ray and discussed the evaluation with the family. The conversation focused on the potential loss of lengthwise growth at the broken end of the boy's bones. From this information, you assess the break must have affected the ________.

A) articular cartilage B) spongy bone C) medullary cavity D) epiphyseal plate E) epiphyseal line Answer: D Page Ref: 135, 137 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 47) On an exam, you recognize the bone in front of you as a long bone. It has a rather large knobby head and a tuberosity on its proximal end; two epicondyles and two rounded condyles are present on the distal end. What bone marking or characteristic helps you conclude the bone is a femur?

A) Head B) Tuberosity C) Epicondyles D) Condyles E) Long bone Answer: C Page Ref: 160 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

22 .

48) As a forensic technician, you assist with the processing of a crime scene containing a skeleton. Relying upon your anatomy background, evaluate the following features to support your assessment that the skeleton was female. Which answer choice supports your assessment?

A) The sacrum is long and curved.

B) The angle of the pubic arch is narrow.

C) The inlet of the pelvis is small.

D) The bones of the pelvis are light and thin.

E) The ischial spines are close together.

Answer: D Page Ref: 158 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 5.3

True/False Questions

1) The skeletal system is divided into two parts: the axial skeleton, the bones that form the longitudinal axis of the body, and the appendicular skeleton, the bones of the limbs and girdles that attach them to the skeleton.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 130, 142 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Two basic types of bone tissue are compact bone and smooth bone.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 131 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The arrangement of lamellae around central (Haversian) canals forms osteons (Haversian systems).

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Hypercalcemia promotes the deposition of calcium to bones using osteoblasts.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 138 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Broken bones do not bleed since bone tissue is avascular.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 141 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The last two pairs of ribs are called true ribs because they have no attachments to the sternum.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 153 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23 .

7) Teeth are anchored in the maxillary bones and the mandible.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 146 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The spinal cord passes through the body of each vertebra.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 150 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The intervertebral discs that cushion the spine and absorb shock are composed of fibrocartilage.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 149, 163 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The medial malleolus of the tibia and lateral malleolus of the fibula form the two parts of the ankle.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 161 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 150-151 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) A newborn baby has an S-shaped spinal curvature known as a primary curvature.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 150 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Diarthroses have a greater degree of mobility and flexibility than synarthroses.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 163 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) Osteoporosis is a bone-thinning disease that often affects young women.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 171 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

24 .

5.4

Matching Questions

Match the following: A) spiral fracture B) comminuted fracture C) greenstick fracture D) impacted fracture E) depressed fracture 1) Incomplete bone break Page Ref: 141 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Broken bone portion is pushed inward Page Ref: 140 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Ragged bone break resulting from twisting forces Page Ref: 141 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Bone breaks into many fragments Page Ref: 140 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Broken bone ends are forced into each other Page Ref: 140 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) C 2) E 3) A 4) B 5) D

25 .

Match the following components of compact bone structure: A) osteoblasts B) canaliculi C) lamellae D) lacunae E) osteoclasts 6) Cells that can dissolve the bony matrix Page Ref: 138 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Layers or rings of calcification that are found in compact bone Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Small channels that radiate through the matrix of compact bone Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Cells that can build bony matrix Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Tiny cavities in compact bone that house osteocytes Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 6) E 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) D

26 .

Match the following structural classifications of joints. Letters may be used more than once: A) synovial joint B) fibrous joint C) cartilaginous joint 11) Joint created by the intervertebral discs Page Ref: 163 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Skull sutures Page Ref: 163 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Joint created by the teeth and mandible or maxillary bones Page Ref: 163 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Joint created by the pubic symphysis Page Ref: 163 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Hinge joint, such as the elbow joint Page Ref: 166 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 11) C 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) A

27 .

Match the following: A) axial skeleton B) appendicular skeleton 16) Tarsals Page Ref: 143 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Femur Page Ref: 143 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Phalanges Page Ref: 143 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Ulna Page Ref: 143 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Clavicle Page Ref: 143 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Sternum Page Ref: 143 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Fibula Page Ref: 143 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Sacrum Page Ref: 143 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) True ribs Page Ref: 143 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Facial bones Page Ref: 143 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 16) B 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) A 28 .

5.5

Essay Questions

1) Explain the five functions of the skeletal system.

Answer: 1. Support—the skeletal system forms the body's internal structural framework. The bones of the legs act as pillars to support the body trunk when we stand, and the rib cage supports the thoracic wall.

2. Movement—the skeletal muscles, attached to bones by tendons, use the bones as levers to move the body and its parts.

3. Protection—bones, such as the skull, thorax, and pelvis, protect the enclosed soft body organs.

4. Storage—fat is stored in the internal cavities of bones. Bones also serve as a storehouse for minerals, the most important being calcium and phosphorus.

5. Blood cell formation—hematopoiesis occurs within the red marrow of certain bones.

Page Ref: 131 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Differentiate between the roles the organic matrix and calcium salts play in giving bone strength yet flexibility.

Answer: The organic matrix of bone, especially collagen fibers, provides bone's flexibility and great tensile strength (ability to stretch without breaking). The calcium salts give bone its hardness, which resists compression.

Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) List and explain the steps in the repair process of a simple fracture.

Answer: Step 1 is hematoma formation. A hematoma, or blood-filled swelling, forms when bone breaks and blood vessels rupture. Bone cells are deprived of nutrition and die.

Step 2 is fibrocartilage callus formation. The site of damage experiences growth of new capillaries into the clotted blood and disposal of dead tissue by phagocytes. Connective tissue cells of various types form a mass of repair tissue called fibrocartilage callus. This fibrocartilage callus contains several elements: some cartilage matrix, some bony matrix, and collagen fibers.

This fibrocartilage callus acts to splint the broken bone, closing the gap.

Step 3 is bony callus formation. As more osteoblasts and osteoclasts migrate into the area and multiply, fibrocartilage is gradually replaced by a callus of spongy bone (the bony callus).

Step 4 is bone remodeling. Over the next few months, bony callus is remodeled in response to the mechanical stresses placed on it, so that it forms a strong, permanent patch at the fracture site.

Page Ref: 141 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

29 .

4) Explain how the anatomy of compact bone differs from that of spongy bone.

Answer: Compact bone is composed of osteons (Haversian systems). Concentric rings of matrix, called lamellae, are situated around a central (Haversian) canal. The rings and central canal constitute an osteon, or a Haversian system. Other canals, called canaliculi, spread outward from central canals to connect to lacunae, which house osteocytes.

Under a microscope, you can see that spongy bone is composed of small needlelike pieces of bone called trabeculae and lots of "open" space filled by marrow, blood vessels, and nerves.

Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Explain how bones are remodeled in response to low blood calcium ion levels.

Answer: When blood calcium ion levels fall too low, parathyroid hormone (PTH) activates bone-destroying cells called osteoclasts to break down the bone's matrix and release the stored calcium into the blood. PTH determines when bone will be broken down in response to the level of calcium ions in the blood.

Page Ref: 138 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) List some of the features of a female pelvis that make it different from a male pelvis.

Answer: The female pelvis: a. has a larger and more circular inlet. b. is shallower than the male pelvis. c. has bones that are lighter and thinner than male pelvis bones. d. has a shorter and less curved sacrum. e. has a more rounded pubic arch because the angle of the pubic arch is greater. f. has shorter ischial spines that are also farther apart.

Page Ref: 158 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) If six-year-old Sarah fell and broke her femur, damaging the proximal epiphyseal plate, what might she expect as she grows older? What is an epiphyseal plate, and why is it significant to this situation?

Answer: The epiphyseal plate is a flat plate of hyaline cartilage seen in young growing bone.

Epiphyseal plates cause the lengthwise growth of long bone. Since this child is still growing and has not completed puberty, she may expect impaired growth in that one epiphyseal plate. Lucky for Sarah, there is an epiphyseal plate located at both the distal and proximal ends of the femur.

The healthy distal plate can continue to grow.

Page Ref: 132, 137 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

30 .

8) Maria observes a patient in her clinic with a spinal curvature abnormality. She notices the patient's spine curves laterally from the midline. Determine the abnormality she observed and explain how she differentiated it from the other two types of spinal abnormalities.

Answer: Maria observed a patient with scoliosis in which the spinal strays laterally from the midline. Lordosis, or sway back, results in lumbar curvature exaggerated in the ventral (anterior) direction. Kyphosis produces a humped back due to a thoracic curvature exaggerated in the dorsal (posterior) direction.

Page Ref: 149-150 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) Explain how atlas and axis are different from other vertebrae. Discuss the roles they play in the body.

Answer: 1. Unlike all other vertebrae, atlas (C1) has no body. Axis (C2) has a large process called the dens, which is not seen on any other vertebrae.

2. The structural differences of these two vertebrae allow you to rotate your head from side to side to indicate "no." The joint between these two vertebrae is a pivot joint.

Page Ref: 150-151 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) Differentiate among the three types of joints based on structural and functional classifications. Provide examples of each type of joint.

Answer: 1. Synarthroses are immovable joints. These joints are structurally classified as fibrous joints since the bones are united by fibrous tissue. Skull sutures are one example of a fibrous joint.

2. Amphiarthroses are slightly movable joints. These joints are structurally classified as cartilaginous joints since the bone ends are connected by cartilage. The pubic symphysis and intervertebral joints are two examples.

3. Diathroses are freely movable joints. These joints are structurally classified as synovial joints since the articulating bone ends are separated by a joint cavity containing synovial fluid. There are many examples of synovial joints, including the elbow, knee, and shoulder.

Page Ref: 163 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) Osteogenesis imperfecta, or "brittle bone disease," can result from insufficient production of collagen fibers. Why is collagen integral to bone structure? Predict the impact of this disease on bone tissue.

Answer: The organic parts of bone (especially the collagen fibers) provide for bone's flexibility and great tensile strength (ability to be stretched without breaking). Bone with inadequate amounts of collagen fibers will be less flexible, weaker and have a decreased ability to stretch without breaking. (That leads us to appreciate why this disease is called brittle bone disease.)

Page Ref: 135 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

31 .

12) An old wives' tale for pregnant and new mothers is gain a child and lose a tooth. In other words, a woman may lose a tooth for each pregnancy or for each child she is breast feeding.

Suppose there is truth to this old saying given the fact that a fetus or child may use calcium stored in the mother's teeth or bones to build his or her own skeleton. Supply an argument that supports this tale.

Answer: If calcium is leached from the bones and teeth of the mother to allow calcium to be placed either in the fetal skeleton or in breast milk, then it could be possible that a tooth could be lost during pregnancy or in the post-natal period. Bone remodeling may be performed in response to changes in calcium ion levels in the blood. When the blood calcium ion level drops below its homeostatic level, the parathyroid glands (located in the throat) are stimulated to release parathyroid hormone (PTH) into the blood. PTH activates osteoclasts, giant bonedestroying cells in bones, to break down bone matrix and release calcium ions into the blood.

Page Ref: 138 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 13) In this chapter, you read about osteoarthritis. Evaluate the structure of a synovial joint and determine the component(s) that would primarily be affected by this degenerative condition.

Answer: Synovial joints have four distinguishing features: articular cartilage, articular capsule, a joint cavity, and reinforcing ligaments. The most affected part of the joint would be the articular cartilage for the role it plays in the joint. Articular cartilage is made (in most cases) of hyaline cartilage. This cartilage covers the ends of bones forming the joint and provides a smooth surface that decreases friction at the joint when covered by lubricating fluid.

Page Ref: 132, 163, 168 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

32 .

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 6 The Muscular System 6.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 6.1, match the following: 1) The I band within a skeletal muscle fiber is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: B Page Ref: 182 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The A band within a myofibril is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: A Page Ref: 182 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 1 .

3) The H zone, located within the A band, lacks thin filaments and is represented by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: D Page Ref: 182 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The myofilament composed of actin is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: C Page Ref: 182 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

Using Figure 6.2, match the following: 5) The epimysium is represented by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: A Page Ref: 179 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2 .

6) The perimysium wraps a fascicle of muscle cells and is represented by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: C Page Ref: 179 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The muscle fiber (cell) is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: B Page Ref: 179 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The endomysium that wraps individual muscle fibers is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: D Page Ref: 179 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Striated involuntary muscle tissue is classified as ________ muscle.

A) skeletal B) cardiac C) smooth D) either smooth or skeletal Answer: B Page Ref: 180 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which term does not describe smooth muscle cells?

A) Visceral B) Nonstriated C) Skeletal D) Involuntary Answer: C Page Ref: 180 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

3 .

11) What organelle wraps and surrounds the myofibril and stores calcium?

A) Cross bridge B) Sarcomere C) Sarcolemma D) Sarcoplasmic reticulum Answer: D Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Muscle tissue has the ability to shorten when adequately stimulated, a characteristic known as ________.

A) elasticity B) irritability C) contractility D) extensibility Answer: C Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) One neuron and all the skeletal muscles it stimulates is known as a ________.

A) sarcoplasmic reticulum B) motor unit C) synaptic cleft D) neuromuscular junction Answer: B Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The heads of the myosin myofilaments are called ________ when they link the thick and thin filaments together during skeletal muscle contraction.

A) neuromuscular junctions B) synapses C) cross bridges D) motor units Answer: C Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) What is the unstoppable electrical current that travels down the length of the entire surface of a sarcolemma?

A) Neuromuscular junction B) Action potential C) Neurotransmitter D) Acetylcholine Answer: B Page Ref: 184 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4 .

16) According to the sliding filament theory, how does muscle contraction occur?

A) Myosin heads form cross bridges and pull thin filaments, causing them to slide.

B) Both thick and thin filaments shorten as the muscle contracts.

C) A bands bunch up and shorten as myosin heads attach to thin filaments.

D) Myosin heads attach and detach from thin filaments, causing thin filaments to shorten.

Answer: A Page Ref: 186 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The method that regenerates the most ATP during muscle activity is ________.

A) direct phosphorylation B) aerobic pathway C) anaerobic pathway D) lactic acid pathway Answer: B Page Ref: 189 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) A smooth, sustained contraction, with no evidence of relaxation, is called ________.

A) fused, or complete, tetanus B) a twitch C) unfused, or incomplete, tetanus D) summing of contractions Answer: A Page Ref: 188-189 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Leaning against an immovable wall while waiting for a bus is a type of ________.

A) isotonic contraction B) twitch C) isometric contraction D) resistance exercise Answer: C Page Ref: 191 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The point of muscle attachment to an immovable or less movable bone is known as the ________.

A) innervation B) action C) insertion D) origin Answer: D Page Ref: 192-193 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5 .

21) Lead poisoning can cause a condition known as wrist drop in which the wrist is pronated or ________.

A) the palms face posteriorly B) the palms face medially C) the palms face anteriorly D) the elbow flex Answer: A Page Ref: 196 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) The arrangement of fascicles in orbicularis oris is ________.

A) circular B) convergent C) pennate D) fusiform Answer: A Page Ref: 198 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which facial muscle is considered the "smiling" muscle since it raises the corners of the mouth?

A) Orbicularis oris B) Frontalis C) Orbicularis oculi D) Zygomaticus Answer: D Page Ref: 200 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The prime mover of arm abduction is the ________ muscle.

A) trapezius B) deltoid C) triceps brachii D) biceps brachii Answer: B Page Ref: 204 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Jason injured his hamstring muscle group during football practice. He will be unable to perform ________.

A) thigh extension and knee flexion B) dorsiflexion C) thigh abduction and adduction D) leg rotation and plantar flexion Answer: A Page Ref: 206 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6 .

26) An inherited disease that causes muscles to degenerate and atrophy is known as ________.

A) torticollis B) muscular dystrophy C) cystic fibrosis D) myasthenia gravis Answer: B Page Ref: 209 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) Striated involuntary muscle tissue found in the heart is ________.

A) smooth muscle B) skeletal muscle C) dense regular D) cardiac muscle E) dense irregular Answer: D Page Ref: 180 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) What is covered by the endomysium?

A) Fascicles of muscle cells B) An entire muscle C) An individual muscle cell D) Myofibrils E) Smooth muscle only Answer: C Page Ref: 179 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

7 .

3)

The type of muscle tissue pictured in Figure 6.3 is ________.

A) skeletal muscle B) voluntary C) striated D) found only in the heart E) smooth muscle Answer: E Page Ref: 180 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle cell is called the ________.

A) sarcolemma B) sarcomere C) myofilament D) sarcoplasm E) sarcoplasmic reticulum Answer: A Page Ref: 181 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) What creates the alternating light and dark bands that provides the striation pattern on skeletal muscle tissue?

A) Sarcoplasm and sarcolemma B) Thick filaments and myosin heads C) A bands and I bands D) H zones and M lines E) Z discs and H zones Answer: C Page Ref: 182 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

8 .

6) Which type of filament is anchored to the Z disc within a myofibril?

A) Thin filaments B) H zone C) Thick filaments D) Myosin filaments E) Cross bridges Answer: A Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which of the following is not a function of the muscular system?

A) Production of movement B) Maintenance of posture C) Stabilization of joints D) Generation of heat E) Blood cell formation Answer: E Page Ref: 181 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) A sarcomere is ________.

A) the nonfunctional unit of skeletal muscle B) the contractile unit between two Z discs C) the area between two intercalated discs D) the wavy lines on the cell, as seen in a microscope E) a compartment in a myofilament Answer: B Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which of the following is composed mostly of the protein myosin?

A) Thick filaments B) Thin filaments C) All myofilaments D) Z discs E) Light bands Answer: A Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

9 .

10) What is released by axon terminals into the synaptic cleft to stimulate a muscle to contract?

A) Potassium ions B) Actin C) Sodium ions D) Neurotransmitter E) Myosin heads Answer: D Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Which organelle stores calcium in muscle fibers?

A) Myofibril B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum C) Sarcolemma D) Myofilament E) Sarcoplasm Answer: B Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Why are calcium ions necessary for skeletal muscle contraction?

A) Calcium ions increase the speed of the action potential transmitted along the sarcolemma.

B) Calcium ions release the inhibition on Z discs.

C) Calcium ions trigger the binding of myosin heads to actin filaments.

D) Calcium ions cause ATP binding to actin.

E) Calcium ions bind to regulatory proteins on the myosin filaments, changing both their shape and their position on the thick filaments.

Answer: C Page Ref: 184 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) What is required to form a cross bridge between a myosin head and an actin filament?

A) Potassium ions B) Sodium ions C) Calcium ions and ATP D) Sodium ions and ATP E) Acetylcholine Answer: C Page Ref: 186 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

10 .

14) Pufferfish contain a venom known as tetrodotoxin (TTX), which makes sodium channels stay closed. You'd expect a muscle cell treated with TTX to ________.

A) produce contractions that are stronger than normal.

B) produce action potentials in rapid sequence.

C) be unable to produce an action potential.

D) operate the sodium-potassium pump more slowly.

E) continue forming cross bridges.

Answer: C Page Ref: 184-185 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15) The gap between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell is called the ________.

A) motor unit B) sarcomere C) neuromuscular junction D) synaptic cleft E) cross bridge Answer: D Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Neurotransmitters are released upon stimulation from a nerve impulse from the ________.

A) myofibrils B) sarcoplasmic reticulum C) thick filaments D) axon terminals of the motor neuron E) sarcolemma of the muscle cell Answer: D Page Ref: 183, 185 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) What must rush into a muscle cell to promote its depolarization?

A) Potassium ions B) Calcium ions C) Acetylcholine D) Sodium ions E) Acetylcholinesterase Answer: D Page Ref: 184-185 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

11 .

18) During skeletal muscle contraction, myosin heads bind actin filaments to form ________.

A) Z discs B) cross bridges C) A bands D) I bands E) H zones Answer: B Page Ref: 183, 186 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) What enzyme breaks down acetylcholine into acetic acid and choline to prevent continued contraction of the muscle fiber?

A) Potassium ions B) Cross bridges C) Calcium ions D) Sarcoplasmic reticulum E) Acetylcholinesterase Answer: E Page Ref: 184, 186 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Skeletal muscle, as a whole, can generate different amounts of force, and different degrees of shortening, in response to stimuli. What is this concept called?

A) Graded response B) Twitch C) Fused, or complete, tetanus D) Unfused, or incomplete, tetanus E) Action potential Answer: A Page Ref: 188 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Which of these events must occur first to trigger the skeletal muscle to generate an action potential and contract?

A) Sodium ions rush into the cell.

B) Acetylcholine (ACh) binds to receptors on the sarcolemma and allows passage of sodium ions into the cell.

C) Potassium ions diffuse out of the muscle cell.

D) The sodium-potassium pump restores sodium and potassium back to their initial positions.

E) Acetylcholinesterase (AchE) breaks down acetylcholine (ACh).

Answer: B Page Ref: 185 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

12 .

22) A skeletal muscle twitch differs from a tetanic contraction in that ________.

A) the tetanic contraction is considered abnormal, while the twitch is a normal muscle response B) the tetanic contraction is caused by a single stimulus, while the twitch is caused by very rapid multiple stimuli C) the muscle twitch is prolonged and continuous while a tetanic contraction is brief and "jerky" D) the muscle twitch occurs only in small muscles while a tetanic contraction occurs in large muscle groups E) the muscle twitch is a brief and "jerky" movement, while the tetanic contraction is prolonged and continuous Answer: E Page Ref: 188 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 23) Creatine phosphate (CP) functions within the muscle cells by ________.

A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin B) forming a chemical compound with actin C) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP as needed E) storing energy that will be transferred to ATP to resynthesize ADP as needed Answer: D Page Ref: 189 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The condition of skeletal muscle fatigue can be best explained by ________.

A) the all-or-none law B) the inability to generate sufficient quantities of ATP due to feedback regulation of synthesis C) the inability of the muscle to contract even if it is being stimulated D) a total lack of ATP in the body E) inadequate numbers of mitochondria in muscle cells Answer: C Page Ref: 190 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) The state of continuous partial muscle contractions is known as ________.

A) muscle fatigue B) muscle tone C) oxygen deficit D) fused (complete) tetanus E) twitch Answer: B Page Ref: 191 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

13 .

26) Which method of regenerating ATP during muscle contraction can produce lactic acid?

A) Aerobic respiration B) Oxidative phosphorylation C) Direct phosphorylation D) Creatine phosphate E) Anaerobic glycolysis Answer: E Page Ref: 189 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which of the following is a type isometric exercise in which muscles increase in size and strength?

A) Swimming B) Biking C) Jogging D) Pushing against a wall E) Dancing Answer: D Page Ref: 192 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which movement is antagonistic to extension?

A) Flexion B) Rotation C) Circumduction D) Adduction E) Supination Answer: A Page Ref: 193, 196 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Which of the following muscles acts as a synergist to the masseter and closes the jaw?

A) Buccinator B) Zygomaticus C) Frontalis D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Temporalis Answer: E Page Ref: 200 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

14 .

30) Sandra is playing the piano for her recital. Which muscle is not involved in the movement of her hands and/or fingers?

A) Flexor carpi radialis B) Flexor carpi ulnaris C) Extensor digitorum D) Extensor digitorum longus E) Extensor carpi radialis Answer: D Page Ref: 204, 209 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 31) Which of these muscles is the prime mover of elbow extension?

A) Brachialis B) Latissimus dorsi C) Deltoid D) Triceps brachii E) Biceps brachii Answer: D Page Ref: 205 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which muscle helps compress the abdominal contents during defecation or childbirth?

A) Internal intercostals B) Deltoids C) Trapezius D) Iliopsoas E) Rectus abdominis Answer: E Page Ref: 202 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which of these muscles is located on the ventral (anterior) side of the body?

A) Pectoralis major B) Occipitalis C) Gastrocnemius D) Gluteus medius E) Latissimus dorsi Answer: A Page Ref: 210-211 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

15 .

34) A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling or blowing a trumpet called the ________.

A) platysma B) masseter C) zygomaticus D) buccinator E) temporalis Answer: D Page Ref: 200 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) What is the main function of the quadriceps group?

A) Arm flexion B) Hand supination C) Thigh abduction D) Knee extension E) Foot inversion Answer: D Page Ref: 208 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Which muscle forms the curved calf of the posterior leg?

A) Fibularis longus B) Gastrocnemius C) Rectus femoris D) Tibialis anterior E) Soleus Answer: B Page Ref: 209 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which muscle group adducts the thighs?

A) Gluteus muscles B) Adductor group C) Hamstring group D) Quadriceps group E) Fibularis muscles Answer: B Page Ref: 205 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

16 .

38) Which muscle group includes the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus?

A) Abdominal muscles B) Quadriceps group C) Adductor group D) Fibularis muscles E) Hamstring group Answer: E Page Ref: 206 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the hip?

A) Biceps femoris B) Gastrocnemius C) Tibialis anterior D) Soleus E) Iliopsoas Answer: E Page Ref: 205 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 40) Which of the following consists of two large, flat muscles that cover the lower back?

A) Deltoid B) Biceps brachii C) Triceps brachii D) Latissimus dorsi E) Pectoralis major Answer: D Page Ref: 203 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) Like the biceps brachii muscle, which muscle is a prime mover in elbow flexion?

A) Triceps brachii B) Deltoid C) Brachioradialis D) Fibularis longus E) Brachialis Answer: E Page Ref: 204 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

17 .

42) While doing "jumping jacks" during an exercise class, your arms and legs move laterally away from the midline of your body. This motion is called ________.

A) extension B) flexion C) abduction D) adduction E) circumduction Answer: C Page Ref: 193 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which of the following muscles are antagonists?

A) Biceps brachii and triceps brachii B) Biceps femoris and biceps brachii C) Vastus medialis and vastus lateralis D) Masseter and temporalis E) Gastrocnemius and soleus Answer: A Page Ref: 196, 204-205 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 44) What condition results if muscles are not used, such as when immobilized in a cast for healing a broken bone?

A) Hypertrophy B) Lordosis C) Atrophy D) Spina bifida E) Scoliosis Answer: C Page Ref: 191, 214 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 45) Which one of the following is not a criterion generally used in naming muscles?

A) Relative size of the muscle B) Number of origins of the muscle C) Shape of the muscle D) Method of attachment of the muscle to bone E) Action of the muscle Answer: D Page Ref: 198 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

18 .

46) Prior to surgery, a patient will be given a muscle relaxant. Evaluate the following drug descriptions and select the one that will promote muscle relaxation.

A) Drug A increases an influx of calcium ions into the axon terminal.

B) Drug B inhibits the breakdown of acetylcholine by preventing acetylcholinesterase from acting.

C) Drug C decreases the binding of acetylcholine to its receptor.

D) Drug D increases the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

E) Drug E promotes an increase in acetylcholine from synaptic vesicles.

Answer: C Page Ref: 184-185 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 47) Botulinum toxin is produced by bacteria; it can cause flaccid paralysis in human muscle cells. Evaluate the following mechanisms to determine its mode of action.

A) Botulinum toxin prevents the release of acetylcholinesterase.

B) Botulinum toxin promotes the release of acetylcholine from axon terminals.

C) Botulinum toxin prevents the release of acetylcholine from axon terminals.

D) Botulinum toxin prevents the exit of potassium ions from muscle cells.

E) Botulinum toxin promotes the entry of sodium ions into muscle cells.

Answer: C Page Ref: 186-187 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 48) An elderly man fell down his stairs and was diagnosed with an injury to his tibialis anterior muscle. Evaluate the following actions to determine how his mobility will be impaired in the coming weeks.

A) Moving the foot down while walking B) Bending his knee C) Extending his knee D) Moving the foot up while walking E) Flexing the thigh Answer: A Page Ref: 208 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 6.3

True/False Questions

1) Cardiac and skeletal muscle both possess striations.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 178, 179-180 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Cardiac muscle fibers are joined by special gap junctions called intercalated discs; these discs allow heart activity to be closely coordinated.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 180 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19 .

3) Smooth muscle cells produce movement of the body and generate heat.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 181 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The striations seen in skeletal muscle are actually alternating dark A and light I bands.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 182 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The sarcoplasmic reticulum wraps like a sleeve around the myofibril and stores and releases calcium.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) A neuromuscular junction consists of one neuron and all the skeletal muscles it stimulates.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The neurotransmitter used by the nervous system to activate skeletal muscle cells is acetylcholine.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Strychnine is a neurotoxin found in rat poison. Since it prevents muscle contractions, strychnine functions by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 184-185 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The formation of cross bridges requires both calcium ions and ATP. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 186 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The fastest mechanism for producing ATP is aerobic respiration.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 189 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

20 .

11) Isometric contractions produce movement when filaments slide past one another and the muscle shortens.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 191 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Aerobic, or endurance, exercise involves jogging or biking.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 191-192 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) All muscles have at least two attachments: the origin and the insertion.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 192-193 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Fixators are specialized synergists that stabilize the origin of prime movers so tension can be used to move the insertion bone.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 196 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) A muscle that crosses on the lateral side of a joint produces abduction.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 197 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Abduction and adduction are antagonistic actions.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 193, 196 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The deltoid is a prime mover of arm adduction.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 196, 204 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) The deepest muscle of the abdominal wall is the transversus abdominis.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 203 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The deltoid muscle is a common site for intramuscular injections.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 204 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21 .

20) Plantar flexion at the ankle joint is accomplished by the tibialis anterior muscle.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 208-209 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Muscles will hypertrophy if they are not used continually.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 191, 214 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Muscle development in babies occurs in a superior/inferior direction.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 209, 214 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Supination and pronation refer to up and down movements of the foot at the ankle.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 196 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

22 .

6.4

Matching Questions

Match the following: A) smooth muscle tissue B) skeletal muscle tissue C) cardiac muscle tissue 1) Voluntary muscle tissue Page Ref: 178-180 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Muscle tissue found only in the heart Page Ref: 178, 180 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Muscle tissue that dilates and constricts the pupils of our eyes Page Ref: 178, 180 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Muscle tissue that is multinucleate Page Ref: 178, 180 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Muscle tissue composed of branching cells and intercalated discs Page Ref: 178, 180 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Muscle tissue that activates arrector pili muscles to stand hairs on end Page Ref: 178, 180 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Performs very slow, sometimes rhythmic, contractions Page Ref: 178, 181 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Muscle tissue that maintains posture, body position, and stabilizes joints Page Ref: 181 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) B 2) C 3) A 4) B 5) C 6) A 7) A 8) B

23 .

Match the following: A) synaptic cleft B) calcium ions C) acetylcholinesterase D) acetylcholine E) sodium ions F) action potential 9) The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores this chemical Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Specific neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle cells Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Chemical that enters a muscle cell upon excitation Page Ref: 184 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Gap between the axon terminals and the plasma membrane of a neighboring muscle cell Page Ref: 183 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Electrical current that travels the length of the sarcolemma that results in the contraction of the muscle fiber Page Ref: 184 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine (ACh) Page Ref: 184 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 9) B 10) D 11) E 12) A 13) F 14) C

24 .

Match the following. Letters may be used more than once.

A) supination B) adduction C) flexion D) extension E) plantar flexion F) abduction G) rotation H) inversion 15) Type of movement that decreases the angle of the joint Page Ref: 193 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Type of movement that allows you to carry a soup bowl Page Ref: 196 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The movement of a limb toward the body midline Page Ref: 193 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Type of movement that points the toes Page Ref: 196 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The movement of a bone around its longitudinal axis Page Ref: 193 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The movement of a limb away from the body midline Page Ref: 193 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Type of movement that turns the sole of the foot medially Page Ref: 196 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Primary action of the deltoid Page Ref: 204 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Primary action of the quadriceps group muscles Page Ref: 208 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25 .

24) Primary action of the erector spinae Page Ref: 203 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Primary action of the rectus abdominis Page Ref: 202 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) E 19) G 20) F 21) H 22) F 23) D 24) D 25) C 6.5

Essay Questions

1) You have no labels on your muscle tissue slides in laboratory. Explain the characteristics that allow you to distinguish among skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle tissue.

Answer: Although cells in both skeletal muscle tissue and cardiac muscle tissue are striated, look for intercalated discs and branched cells in the cardiac muscle cells to distinguish between these two tissues. Furthermore, skeletal muscle cells are multinucleate while cardiac muscle cells are uninucleate. Cells in smooth muscle tissue lack striations, making it easy to distinguish from skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues. Like the cells in cardiac muscle tissue, smooth muscle cells are uninucleate. However, smooth muscle tissue cells do not branch nor do they possess intercalated discs.

Page Ref: 178-180 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Describe the events that occur from the time that a motor neuron releases acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction until muscle cell contraction occurs.

Answer: Acetylcholine (ACh) is released from the axon terminals of a motor neuron, which diffuses across the synaptic cleft and attaches to receptors in the sarcolemma. ACh binds and opens channels that allow the simultaneous passage of sodium ions into the muscle fiber and potassium ions out of the muscle fiber. Since more sodium ions enter the muscle fiber than potassium ions leave, a local area of depolarization develops. As more channels that only allow sodium entry open, an action potential is initiated and sweeps over the entire sarcolemma.

Calcium ions are released from storage areas inside the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle cell. They attach to the myofilaments, which along with available ATP, trigger the sliding of the myofilaments and causes a muscle cell contraction.

Page Ref: 183-186 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Explain what meaning is inferred in the muscle name rectus femoris.

Answer: The term, rectus, means straight. The fibers in this muscle run straight along a plane.

The reference to the femur bone is relayed in femoris. Together, these terms tell us the muscle fibers of rectus femoris travel "straight along the femur bone."

Page Ref: 198 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

26 .

4) Describe where and how dorsiflexion and plantar flexion occur. Which muscle is the prime mover of plantar flexion, and which muscle do you think is its antagonist?

Answer: Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion are special actions occurring at the ankle joint.

Dorsiflexion is accomplished by lifting your foot so that its superior surface moves toward the shin while plantar flexion is accomplished by depressing the foot (pointing the toes or "planting" the toes toward the ground). Gastrocnemius is the prime mover of plantar flexion; tibialis anterior antagonizes the action of gastrocnemius since it performs dorsiflexion.

Page Ref: 196, 208-209 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Discuss the role of the myosin heads in sliding filament theory.

Answer: The myosin heads attach to binding sites on the actin filaments to form cross bridges and to begin the process of sliding. The myosin heads swivel toward the center of the sarcomere, attaching and detaching several times, which generates tension that helps pull the thin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere. This "walking" of the myosin heads along the thin filaments allows the thin filaments to slide past the thick filaments. As a result, the Z discs are pulled closer together. Since this event occurs simultaneously in sarcomeres throughout the cell, the muscle cell shortens.

Page Ref: 183, 186 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Fascicle arrangements produce skeletal muscles with different structures and functional properties, and determine their individual range of motion and power. List the seven different fascicle arrangements of human skeletal muscles and give a specific example of each.

Answer: 1. Circular–orbicularis oris, orbicularis oculi 2. Convergent–pectoralis major 3. Parallel–sartorius 4. Unipennate–extensor digitorum longus 5. Multipennate–deltoid 6. Fusiform–biceps brachii 7. Bipennate–rectus femoris Page Ref: 198 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Discuss the importance of calcium ions in skeletal muscle contraction.

Answer: Calcium ions are necessary for myosin heads to attach to binding sites on actin filaments. As the action potential travels into the muscle cell, it stimulates the sarcoplasmic reticulum surrounding each myofibril to release its stored calcium ions into the sarcoplasm. The calcium ions trigger the binding of myosin heads to actin filaments and the initiation of the sliding of filaments.

Page Ref: 183-185 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

27 .

8) Explain how isometric and isotonic contractions differ, using examples of each.

Answer: 1. Isometric contractions are contractions in which the muscles do not shorten. The myofilaments are trying to slide, but the muscle is pitted against some more or less immovable object. For example, when you push the palms of your hands together in front of you, your arm and chest muscles are contracting isometrically.

2. Isotonic contractions occur due to the successful sliding of the myofilaments. The muscle shortens and movement occurs. Bending the knee, lifting weights, and smiling are all examples of isotonic contractions.

Page Ref: 191-192 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Bell's palsy has caused the right side of Nathan's face to droop. He is unable to smile, and he has difficulty closing his eye on the right side of his face. Determine the muscles impacted by Bell's palsy.

Answer: The zygomaticus and orbicularis oculi muscles are affected. Zygomaticus is responsible for raising the corners of the mouth and is often referred to as the "smiling" muscle.

Orbicularis oculi allows the eye to be closed.

Page Ref: 199-200 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) Explain how muscle movements mature in a baby, using examples of each.

Answer: 1. Muscle development proceeds in a superior/inferior direction. For instance, babies can raise their heads before they sit up, and they can sit up before they can walk.

2. Muscle control proceeds in a proximal/distal direction. For instance, babies can perform gross movements like wave "bye-bye" before they can use the pincer grasp to pick up a pin.

Page Ref: 209, 214 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) On a lab exam, you are given a slide of muscle tissue to identify. How would you evaluate this tissue to determine if it is cardiac muscle tissue or smooth muscle tissue?

Answer: To differentiate between these two tissue types, look for features that are unique to each tissue type. Cardiac muscle tissue is characterized by branching cells with striations and intercalated discs. It is uninucleate, but so are the cells of smooth muscle tissue. By contrast, smooth muscle tissue is characterized by single, fusiform cells that lack striations.

Page Ref: 178, 180 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

28 .

12) A patient needs a medication to dilate his pupils and relax specific muscles in his eyes.

Should he receive drug A, which acts by increasing the release of acetylcholine from synaptic vesicles? Or, should he receive drug B, which acts by increasing the action of acetylcholinesterase? Assess these drugs, and discuss your selection.

Answer: To dilate the pupils and relax certain eye muscles, select drug B. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that can promote an action potential in a muscle cell while acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine to prevent continued contraction of the muscle fiber in the absence of additional nerve impulses. Drug B will prevent continued contraction of muscles and promote relaxation while drug A will increase the opportunity for an action potential to occur.

Page Ref: 184, 186 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 13) A patient is being examined for physical therapy because he has a hamstring injury. How should this muscle group be evaluated to determine it has healed?

Answer: The hamstring group is located on the posterior thigh and consists of the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus muscles. These muscles are the prime movers of thigh extension and knee flexion. When being examined, this patient should be able to perform those muscle actions to satisfaction.

Page Ref: 206 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

29 .

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 7 The Nervous System 7.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 7.1, identify the following: 1) The neural processes that convey incoming messages toward the cell body are indicated by ________.

A) Label H B) Label G C) Label A D) Label F E) Label B Answer: C Page Ref: 224-225 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 1 .

2) The metabolic center of the neuron is indicated by ________.

A) Label D B) Label F C) Label A D) Label H E) Label I Answer: A Page Ref: 224-225 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The axon terminals are indicated by ________.

A) Label I B) Label G C) Label B D) Label A E) Label C Answer: E Page Ref: 224-225 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The axon is indicated by ________.

A) Label B B) Label F C) Label H D) Label I E) Label A Answer: A Page Ref: 224-225 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The gaps between Schwann cells are indicated by ________.

A) Label D B) Label H C) Label B D) Label F E) Label A Answer: B Page Ref: 225-226 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2 .

6) The nucleus of the neuron is indicated by ________.

A) Label E B) Label I C) Label A D) Label B E) Label F Answer: A Page Ref: 224-225 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) What are the two main functional subdivisions of the nervous system?

A) Central and peripheral B) Somatic and autonomic C) Sensory and motor D) Autonomic and sympathetic Answer: C Page Ref: 222 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) What cells form the myelin sheaths around nerve fibers in the PNS? A) Satellite cells B) Ependymal cells C) Schwann cells D) Microglial cells Answer: C Page Ref: 224 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Support cells in the central nervous system are collectively called ________.

A) myelin sheaths B) neuroglia C) oligodendrocytes D) microglia Answer: B Page Ref: 222 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The part of the neuron that typically conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body is the ________.

A) dendrite B) cell body C) synaptic cleft D) axon Answer: D Page Ref: 224 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3 .

11) The gaps between Schwann cells found at regular intervals in peripheral system neurons are called ________.

A) synaptic clefts B) axon terminals C) nodes of Ranvier D) myelin sheaths Answer: C Page Ref: 226 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Sensory receptors located in muscles and tendons are termed ________.

A) Meissner's corpuscles B) proprioceptors C) lamellar corpuscles D) association neurons Answer: B Page Ref: 227-228 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Mr. Warren has spinal cord damage that prevents nerve impulses from being carried from the CNS to muscles or glands. What specific type of neuron has been damaged?

A) Afferent neurons B) Sensory neuron C) Motor neuron D) Axon terminals Answer: C Page Ref: 228 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) A polarized neuron is characterized by the presence of more ________ ions along the plasma membrane outside the cell and less ________ ions along the plasma membrane inside the cell.

A) calcium; sodium B) sodium; potassium C) potassium; sodium D) sodium; calcium Answer: B Page Ref: 229 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4 .

15) Myelinated fibers (tracts) form ________ matter while unmyelinated fibers form ________ matter.

A) sensory; motor B) gray; white C) motor; sensory D) white; gray Answer: D Page Ref: 227 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) What type of neuron connects sensory and motor neurons in neural pathways?

A) Interneurons (association neurons) B) Afferent neurons C) Efferent neurons D) Bipolar neurons Answer: A Page Ref: 227-228 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) After repolarization, what ions are pumped out of the cell?

A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Both sodium and potassium D) Calcium Answer: A Page Ref: 231 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) What does not describe a reflex?

A) Rapid B) Predictable C) Involuntary D) Multidirectional Answer: D Page Ref: 232 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus collectively constitute the ________.

A) cerebellum B) diencephalon (interbrain) C) brain stem D) cerebrum Answer: B Page Ref: 236, 239-240 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

5 .

20) What brain dysfunction results when blood supply to a region (or regions) of the brain is blocked and vital brain tissue dies, as by a blood clot or a ruptured blood vessel?

A) Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) or stroke B) Parkinson's disease C) Huntington's disease D) Multiple sclerosis Answer: A Page Ref: 247 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The brain and spinal cord are protected and cushioned by three connective tissue membranes that are collectively called ________.

A) ventricles B) arachnoid villi C) meninges D) sinuses Answer: C Page Ref: 242, 248 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Cerebrospinal fluid is formed from blood by clusters of capillaries in the brain known as ________.

A) choroid plexuses B) arachnoid villi C) ventricles D) sinuses Answer: A Page Ref: 242-243 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) does not flow through the ________.

A) cerebral aqueduct B) fourth ventricle C) subarachnoid space D) corpus callosum Answer: D Page Ref: 243-245 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

6 .

24) The blood-brain barrier is formed by ________ junctions that nearly seamlessly bind capillaries in the brain.

A) gap B) intercalated C) desmosome D) tight Answer: D Page Ref: 245 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Which of the following indicates a contusion?

A) Aphasia B) Coma due to injury to the reticular activating system C) Seeing "stars" D) Hemiplegia Answer: B Page Ref: 247 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) What fissure separates the two cerebral hemispheres of the brain?

A) Transverse fissure B) Longitudinal fissure C) Sagittal fissure D) Tentorium cerebelli Answer: B Page Ref: 234 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) The hypothalamus regulates the ________.

A) pineal gland B) pituitary gland C) pons D) thalamus Answer: B Page Ref: 236, 240 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The large fiber tract that allows communication between the two cerebral hemispheres is called the ________.

A) corpus callosum B) fornix C) pons D) thalamus Answer: A Page Ref: 238 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7 .

29) What portion of the diencephalon acts as a relay station for sensory impulses traveling upward to the sensory cortex?

A) Pons B) Pituitary gland C) Thalamus D) Hypothalamus Answer: C Page Ref: 239 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) The delicate innermost membrane, or meningeal layer, that clings to the surface of the brain and spinal cord is known as the ________ mater.

A) dura B) arachnoid C) periosteal D) pia Answer: D Page Ref: 242 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Hemiplegia and aphasia characterize those patients who have experienced a ________.

A) concussion B) cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke C) contusion D) cerebral edema Answer: B Page Ref: 247 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) How many pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord?

A) 12 B) 18 C) 25 D) 31 Answer: D Page Ref: 248, 252 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which disease is a progressive, degenerative disease of the brain that ultimately results in dementia and is associated with a shortage of acetylcholine?

A) Parkinson's disease B) Alzheimer's disease C) Huntington's disease D) Cerebral palsy Answer: B Page Ref: 246 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8 .

34) The ________ is a connective tissue wrapping around fascicles of neuron fibers.

A) epineurium B) endoneurium C) perineurium D) perimysium Answer: C Page Ref: 251 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which branch of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) mobilizes the body during extreme situations, such as rage or fear?

A) Sympathetic division B) Parasympathetic division C) Somatic division D) Sensory division Answer: A Page Ref: 259 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Which pair of cranial nerves is mismatched with its name?

A) Cranial nerve IX: glossopharyngeal B) Cranial nerve II: oculomotor C) Cranial nerve VIII: vestibulocochlear D) Cranial nerve X: vagus Answer: B Page Ref: 253-254 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which cranial nerve pairs are purely motor and control eye movement?

A) Optic, vestibulocochlear, and accessory B) Olfactory, optic, and oculomotor C) Oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens D) Trochlear, abducens, and facial Answer: C Page Ref: 253 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Damage to the cervical nerve plexus can cause problems with ________.

A) footdrop B) clawhand C) breathing D) wristdrop Answer: C Page Ref: 257 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9 .

39) What congenital disorder can occur when there is a temporary lack of oxygen during delivery of a baby?

A) Hydrocephalus B) Anencephaly C) Spina bifida D) Cerebral palsy Answer: D Page Ref: 264 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) The largest nerve in the body, the sciatic nerve, belongs to the ________ nerve plexus.

A) lumbar B) sacral C) brachial D) cervical Answer: B Page Ref: 257 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) Each spinal nerve divides into a dorsal and a ventral ________.

A) ramus B) tract C) ganglion D) plexus Answer: A Page Ref: 252 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) What division of the autonomic nervous system is often called the "rest-and-digest" division?

A) Somatic B) Sympathetic C) Parasympathetic D) Afferent Answer: C Page Ref: 263 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

10 .

7.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) The term central nervous system refers to the ________.

A) autonomic and peripheral nervous systems B) brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves C) brain and cranial nerves D) spinal cord and spinal nerves E) brain and spinal cord Answer: E Page Ref: 222 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Fibers that carry information from the skin, joints, and skeletal muscles to the central nervous system are ________.

A) motor B) both visceral and sensory C) both somatic and sensory D) interneurons (association neurons) E) parasympathetic Answer: C Page Ref: 222, 227 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of these neuroglial cells contributes to the structure of the blood-brain barrier?

A) Astrocytes B) Oligodendrocytes C) Schwann cells D) Ependymal cells E) Satellite cells Answer: A Page Ref: 222-245 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which ciliated neuroglial cell circulates cerebrospinal fluid?

A) Oligodendrocytes B) Schwann cells C) Microglia D) Ependymal cells E) Astrocytes Answer: D Page Ref: 223 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

11 .

5) What part of the neuron releases vesicles containing neurotransmitters?

A) Axon terminals B) Dendrites C) Axon hillock D) Schwann cells E) Myelin sheath Answer: A Page Ref: 224 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Ms. Young feels deep pressure during a tooth extraction. Which type of sensory receptor detects this sensation?

A) Free nerve ending B) Golgi tendon organ C) Meissner's corpuscle D) Proprioceptor E) Lamellar corpuscle Answer: E Page Ref: 228 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) What is the primary role of the interneuron (association neuron)?

A) Carry information from the central nervous system to muscles and/or the viscera B) Form a lipid-protein (lipoprotein) cell membrane on the outside of axons C) Transmit nerve impulses from the skin and organs to the central nervous system D) Connect motor and sensory neurons in their pathways E) Detect the amount of stretch in skeletal muscles or tendons and their joints Answer: D Page Ref: 228 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) How are neurons with several processes branching off the cell body, such as motor neurons and interneurons (association neurons), structurally classified?

A) Efferent B) Multipolar C) Afferent D) Bipolar E) Unipolar Answer: B Page Ref: 229 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

12 .

9) What are the two major functional properties of neurons?

A) Cover and line body surfaces B) Contraction and movements C) Irritability and conductivity D) Connect and protect E) Lubricate and secrete Answer: C Page Ref: 229 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Ganglia are collections of ________.

A) nuclei B) dendrites C) cell bodies D) axons E) axon terminals Answer: C Page Ref: 227 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Saltatory conduction is a faster type of nerve impulse transmission that occurs along myelinated axons. Why is nerve impulse transmission faster in myelinated neurons?

A) Neurons can repolarize more quickly to conduct an additional action potential.

B) Nerve impulses that travel over myelinated axons do not require depolarization.

C) The nerve impulse is hastened by the early activation of the sodium-potassium pump.

D) The nerve impulse can jump from one node of Ranvier to the next, speeding the rate of nerve impulse transmission.

E) The nerve impulse only depolarizes at the cell body and again at the axon terminals.

Answer: D Page Ref: 231 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Select the environment that is most likely to produce an action potential in a neuron.

A) A depolarizing neuron B) A repolarizing neuron C) A polarized neuron D) A neuron currently propagating an action potential E) A neuron restoring its resting ionic conditions Answer: A Page Ref: 229-230 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

13 .

13) What statement best describes the resting state of a neuron?

A) Neurons are polarized with more sodium ions outside the cell and more potassium ions inside the cell.

B) Neurons are propagating the action potential.

C) Neurons are depolarizing and generating an action potential.

D) Neurons are restoring the ionic conditions utilizing the sodium-potassium pump.

E) Neurons are repolarizing as potassium ions diffuse out of the cell.

Answer: A Page Ref: 229-230 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Immediately after an action potential is propagated, which one of the following ions rapidly diffuses out of the cell into the tissue fluid?

A) Sodium ions B) Chloride ions C) Calcium ions D) Potassium ions E) Magnesium ions Answer: D Page Ref: 230-231 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) An action potential is caused by an influx of ________ ions into the cell.

A) potassium B) sodium C) calcium D) magnesium E) both potassium and sodium Answer: B Page Ref: 231 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Lidocaine is used as a local anesthetic to block the sensation of pain. It operates by preventing sodium channels from opening in affected neurons. The specific event lidocaine prevents is ________.

A) repolarization B) action of the sodium-potassium pump C) depolarization D) polarization E) all-or-nothing response Answer: C Page Ref: 230-231 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

14 .

17) Neurons either conduct action potentials along the length of their axons, or they remain at rest. This statement best describes ________.

A) a reflex arc B) the all-or-nothing response C) repolarization D) saltatory conduction E) graded potential Answer: B Page Ref: 231 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events that correlates to the sequence of events of a nerve impulse?

1. the membrane becomes depolarized 2. sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse inward 3. the membrane becomes repolarized 4. potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse outward A) 3, 2, 4, 1 B) 2, 1, 4, 3 C) 2, 1, 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 4, 3 E) 4, 1, 3, 2 Answer: B Page Ref: 230 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 19) Which ion causes neurotransmitter vesicles to fuse with the axon's membrane during the conduction of a nerve impulse from one neuron to the next?

A) Chlorine B) Sodium C) Potassium D) Calcium E) Magnesium Answer: D Page Ref: 231 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The gap between two communicating neurons is termed ________.

A) synaptic cleft B) cell body C) effector D) Schwann cell E) node of Ranvier Answer: A Page Ref: 231 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15 .

21) Which of the following terms indicates a nerve impulse has been initiated and is being transmitted?

A) Graded potential B) Action potential C) Repolarization D) Local depolarization E) Depolarization Answer: B Page Ref: 230-231 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which of the following is the correct sequence in a typical reflex arc?

A) Effector, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, receptor B) Receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, effector C) Effector, motor neuron, integration center, sensory neuron, receptor D) Receptor, motor neuron, integration center, sensory neuron, effector E) Receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, integration center, effector Answer: B Page Ref: 232, 234 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 23) Rick quickly pulled his hand away from the hot stove. What type of reflex is this?

A) Two-neuron reflex B) Patellar reflex C) Knee-jerk reflex D) Withdrawal reflex E) Autonomic reflex Answer: D Page Ref: 234 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which of the following is not one of the brain's four major regions?

A) Brain stem B) Ventral ramus C) Diencephalon D) Cerebrum E) Cerebellum Answer: B Page Ref: 234 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

16 .

25) Which of the following indicates damage to the primary motor area?

A) Inability to form complex memories B) Inability to say words properly C) Inability to recognize patterns and faces D) Inability to voluntarily move skeletal muscles E) Inability to involuntarily move smooth muscles Answer: D Page Ref: 235 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 26) A stroke in the primary motor area has caused Don to lose control over his skeletal muscles on the right side of his body. What lobe of his brain was damaged?

A) Occipital lobe B) Temporal lobe C) Frontal lobe D) Parietal lobe E) Pyramidal tract Answer: C Page Ref: 235, 238 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 27) Sally has a brain injury; she knows what she wants to say but can't vocalize the words. The part of her brain that deals with the ability to say words properly is the ________.

A) longitudinal fissure B) gyrus C) central sulcus D) Broca's area E) primary motor area Answer: D Page Ref: 235 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are housed in the ________.

A) diencephalon B) hypothalamus C) brain stem D) pineal gland E) cerebellum Answer: C Page Ref: 236, 240 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

17 .

29) What specific part of the midbrain houses reflex centers for vision and hearing?

A) Cerebral peduncles B) Corpora quadrigemina C) Cerebral aqueduct D) Medulla oblongata E) Reticular formation Answer: B Page Ref: 241 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) The hypothalamus is the "emotional-visceral" center of the brain and, thus, is an important part of the ________.

A) posterior association area B) reticular activating system C) limbic system D) Broca's area E) anterior association area Answer: C Page Ref: 240 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which meningeal layer is filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

A) Dura mater B) Pia mater C) Dorsal ramus D) Subarachnoid space E) Filum terminale Answer: D Page Ref: 242 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) A special group of neurons in the gray matter of the brain stem that plays a role in consciousness and the awake/sleep cycles is the ________.

A) cerebrum B) reticular activating system (RAS) C) pineal gland D) limbic system E) cerebellum Answer: B Page Ref: 241 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

18 .

33) Control of temperature, endocrine activity, metabolism, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.

A) medulla oblongata B) cerebellum C) hypothalamus D) thalamus E) cerebrum Answer: C Page Ref: 240 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) The vital centers for the control of visceral activities such as heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, swallowing, and vomiting are located in the ________.

A) pons B) medulla oblongata C) midbrain D) cerebrum E) hypothalamus Answer: B Page Ref: 241 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Wendy had a few alcoholic drinks, and then found walking and maintaining her balance difficult. Which part of her brain was sedated by the alcohol?

A) Cerebrum B) Hypothalamus C) Cerebellum D) Thalamus E) Pons Answer: C Page Ref: 241-242 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 36) Which one of the following represents the correct sequence from outermost to innermost layers of the meninges?

A) Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater B) Pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater C) Arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater D) Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater E) Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater Answer: E Page Ref: 242 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

19 .

37) Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed into venous blood in the dural sinuses via the ________.

A) cerebral aqueduct B) hypothalamus C) arachnoid granulations D) choroid plexus E) pons Answer: C Page Ref: 242-245 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Cerebrospinal fluid ________.

A) is secreted by the arachnoid villi B) enters the four ventricles after filling and circulating through the subarachnoid space C) is secreted mostly by the ependymal cells lining the brain ventricles D) is continually formed mostly by the choroid plexuses E) is identical in composition to whole blood Answer: D Page Ref: 242-243 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) The blood-brain barrier is effective against the passage of ________.

A) water B) nutrients such as glucose C) respiratory gases D) fats E) metabolic waste such as urea Answer: E Page Ref: 245 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) What can an electroencephalogram (EEG) reveal about brain activity?

A) Awake or sleep status B) Confirmation of Alzheimer's disease C) Confirmation of a speech disorder D) Presence of a behavior disorder E) Development of Parkinson's disease Answer: A Page Ref: 265 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

20 .

41) The spinal cord terminates by vertebra ________.

A) C7 B) T3 C) T9 D) L3 E) S4 Answer: D Page Ref: 248 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) What do the ventral roots and dorsal roots fuse to form?

A) The dorsal root ganglion B) Medulla oblongata C) Spinal nerves D) The spinal cord E) Central canal Answer: C Page Ref: 252 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of nerves that exit the spinal cord, from superior to inferior?

A) Thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves B) Cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves C) Thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves D) Cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves E) Cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves Answer: E Page Ref: 256 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 44) Which one of the following is the correct sequence in connective tissue sheaths, going from the outermost to the innermost layer?

A) Epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium B) Epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium C) Perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium D) Perineurium, endoneurium, epineurium E) Endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium Answer: B Page Ref: 251 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

21 .

45) Which of the following parts of a spinal nerve contains sensory nerves only?

A) Ventral root B) Dorsal root ganglion C) Mixed nerves D) Ventral ramus E) Dorsal ramus Answer: B Page Ref: 249 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) How many pairs of cranial nerves branch from the surface of the brain?

A) Three B) Five C) Seven D) Twelve E) Eighteen Answer: D Page Ref: 252 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 47) People with bruxism (grinding or clenching the jaw either while awake or asleep) can inflame a cranial nerve, ________ that innervates the masseter muscle.

A) cranial nerve V B) cranial nerve III C) cranial nerve VIII D) cranial nerve XII E) cranial nerve IX Answer: A Page Ref: 253 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 48) The ventral rami of the spinal nerves form a complex network of nerves known as a ________.

A) ganglion B) reflex C) plexus D) tract E) fascicle Answer: C Page Ref: 252 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

22 .

49) Which cranial nerve transmits impulses for the senses of hearing and balance?

A) Oculomotor B) Vestibulocochlear C) Hypoglossal D) Accessory E) Glossopharyngeal Answer: B Page Ref: 254 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 50) Which nervous system subdivision is a chain of two motor neurons consisting of a preganglionic neuron and a postganglionic neuron?

A) Somatic B) Central C) Autonomic D) Skeletal E) Sensory Answer: C Page Ref: 259 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 51) Which of the following is not a major nerve of the brachial nerve plexus?

A) Radial B) Axillary C) Musculocutaneous D) Median E) Phrenic Answer: E Page Ref: 257 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 52) The sciatic nerve splits to form which two nerves?

A) Pudendal and femoral nerves B) Femoral and tibial nerves C) Pudendal and common peroneal nerves D) Common fibular and tibial nerves E) Pudendal and tibial nerves Answer: D Page Ref: 257 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

23 .

53) Both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions ________.

A) house the cell bodies of motor neurons within the CNS. B) control skeletal muscle activity C) release epinephrine D) consist of a one-neuron system E) are in the efferent (motor) division of the PNS Answer: E Page Ref: 259 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 54) In contrast to the somatic nervous system, the autonomic nervous system ________.

A) has a chain of two motor neurons B) has a chain of two sensory neurons C) stimulates its effector cells D) has both sensory and motor fibers E) is a subdivision of the central nervous system Answer: A Page Ref: 259 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 55) Which nerves dominate parasympathetic division activities?

A) Sensory cranial nerves B) Nerves of the brachial plexus C) Thoracolumbar ventral rami of spinal nerves D) Nerves of the solar plexus E) Craniosacral nerves Answer: E Page Ref: 260 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 56) Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response during threatening situations is the role of the ________.

A) sympathetic nervous system B) cerebrum C) parasympathetic nervous system D) somatic nervous system E) afferent nervous system Answer: A Page Ref: 261 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

24 .

57) Which of the following effects is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A) Decreased activity of the digestive system B) Stimulated sweat glands to produce perspiration C) Decreased urine output D) Increased metabolic rate E) Decreased heart rate Answer: E Page Ref: 262-263 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 58) The effects of the sympathetic nervous system are essentially opposite of the ________.

A) central nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system C) autonomic nervous system D) motor division E) sensory division Answer: B Page Ref: 259 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 59) We have often heard not to go for a swim after eating a large meal; we need to give our food time to digest before exercising. Which divisions are competing for control?

A) Sympathetic division and somatic nervous system B) Autonomic and somatic nervous systems C) Sensory and motor divisions D) Sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions E) Central and peripheral nervous systems Answer: D Page Ref: 259, 263 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 60) What congenital disorder results when the vertebrae fail to form completely around the spinal cord, typically in the lumbosacral region?

A) Cystic fibrosis B) Anencephaly C) Hydrocephaly D) Cerebral palsy E) Spina bifida Answer: E Page Ref: 264 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

25 .

61) Which one of the following statements about aging is most accurate?

A) The brain reaches its maximum weight around the seventh decade of life.

B) Synaptic connections are too fixed to permit a great deal of learning after the age of 35.

C) Despite some neuronal loss, an unlimited number of neural pathways are available and ready to be developed; therefore, additional learning can occur throughout life.

D) Learning throughout the adult and aging years is supported primarily by glial proliferation.

E) Increased efficiency of the sympathetic nervous system enhances the ability to learn.

Answer: C Page Ref: 264 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 62) Evaluate the following signs or symptoms, and determine the type of brain injury: left-sided paralysis, aphasia, and change in personality.

A) Concussion B) Transient ischemic attack (TIA) C) Contusion D) Cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke E) Brain lesion Answer: D Page Ref: 247-248 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 63) A friend sustained spinal cord damage in a car accident and cannot move his right arm.

Assess what part of the spinal cord sustained damage.

A) Central canal B) Ventral (anterior) horn, gray matter C) Lateral horn, gray matter D) Dorsal (posterior) horn, gray matter E) Dorsal root ganglion Answer: B Page Ref: 249 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 64) Elizabeth takes a beta-blocker, a drug that blocks the effects of epinephrine. Given the following choices, evaluate and select the condition for which she takes this medication.

A) Slow metabolic rate B) Fast heart rate C) Low blood pressure D) Chronic diarrhea E) Frequent urination Answer: B Page Ref: 259 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

26 .

7.3

True/False Questions

1) The central nervous system includes the spinal nerves and cranial nerves.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 222 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 222 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Oligodendrocytes form the myelin sheath around nerve fibers in the PNS. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 224 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Neuron processes that convey incoming messages toward the cell body are dendrites, whereas those that generate nerve impulses and typically conduct them away from the cell body are axons.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 224 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) A sensory neuron carries stimuli from the central nervous system to the effector.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 227 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Gray matter contains collections of unmyelinated fibers and cell bodies in the central nervous system.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 227 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) All motor and association neurons are bipolar neurons, the most common type.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 229 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) A graded potential is to local depolarization as an action potential is to a nerve impulse.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 231 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

27 .

9) Depolarization of neurons results from the entry of sodium ions into the cell.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 231 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The withdrawal, or flexor, reflex is one of the only voluntary reflexes.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 234 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The primary motor area allows us to consciously move our skeletal muscles.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 235 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Difficulty in breathing may reflect damage to respiratory centers located in the brain stem.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 241 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) One of the major functions of the pons is to regulate hormonal output of the anterior pituitary gland.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 241 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The thalamus plays a role in regulation of body temperature, metabolism, and water balance.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 239 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The reticular activating system (RAS) plays a role in consciousness and the sleep-awake cycle.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 241 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Sensory (afferent) tracts located within the white matter of the spinal cord conduct information to the brain.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 250 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) There is no possibility of damaging the spinal cord below the third lumbar vertebra.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 248 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28 .

18) The ventral and dorsi rami of each spinal nerve contain both sensory and motor nerves.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 252 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Cranial nerve X is the vestibulocochlear nerve, and its fibers carry sensations of hearing and equilibrium to the brain.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 254 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The vagus nerves are the only pair of cranial nerves to extend to the thoracic and abdominal cavities.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 252 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Complex networks of spinal nerves are termed nerve plexuses.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 252 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Sympathetic postganglionic fibers release norepinephrine, and the preganglionic axon releases acetylcholine.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 259 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems operate with a chain of two motor neurons.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 259 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The parasympathetic division is also called the craniosacral division since the preganglionic neurons originate in the brain and sacral region of the spinal cord.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 260 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) The usual cause of nervous system deterioration as we age is circulatory system problems.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 264 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

29 .

7.4

Matching Questions

Match the following: A) autonomic nervous system (ANS) B) peripheral nervous system (PNS) C) central nervous system (CNS) D) sensory (afferent) division 1) Structural nervous system subdivision that consists of the brain and spinal cord Page Ref: 222 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Functional nervous system subdivision that carries information toward the central nervous system from receptors E) motor (efferent) division Page Ref: 222 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Structural nervous system subdivision that consists of spinal nerves and cranial nerves Page Ref: 222 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Subdivision of the motor division responsible for controlling involuntary events Page Ref: 222 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Functional nervous system division that carries information from the central nervous system toward effectors Page Ref: 222 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) C 2) D 3) B 4) A 5) E

30 .

Match the following: A) thalamus B) medulla oblongata C) hypothalamus D) midbrain E) pituitary gland F) epithalamus 6) Includes the cerebral peduncles and the corpora quadrigemina Page Ref: 241 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Contains centers that control heart rate, blood pressure, breathing, swallowing, and vomiting Page Ref: 241 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Gland that hangs from the hypothalamus Page Ref: 240 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Regulates body temperature, water balance, and metabolism Page Ref: 240 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Relay station for sensory impulses passing to the sensory cortex Page Ref: 239 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Includes the pineal gland and choroid plexus of the third ventricle Page Ref: 240 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 6) D 7) B 8) E 9) C 10) A 11) F

31 .

Match the following: A) cranial nerve I B) cranial nerve VIII C) cranial nerve X D) cranial nerve VI E) cranial nerve V F) cranial nerve III 12) This cranial nerve pair transmits sensory information about balance and hearing Page Ref: 254 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) This cranial nerve pair is purely motor and controls the movement of the lateral rectus muscle of the eye Page Ref: 253 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) This cranial nerve pair is tested with the use of a penlight to gauge the responsiveness of the pupils Page Ref: 253 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Most motor fibers of this cranial nerve pair are parasympathetic fibers that regulate heart activity and promote digestive activity Page Ref: 254 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Impulses for the sense of smell are carried by this purely sensory pair of cranial nerves Page Ref: 253 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) This cranial nerve pair contains motor fibers that activate the chewing muscles Page Ref: 254 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 12) B 13) D 14) F 15) C 16) A 17) E

32 .

Match the following: A) sympathetic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system 18) Decreases heart rate Page Ref: 262 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Stimulates sweat glands to produce perspiration Page Ref: 262 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Decreases digestive system activities Page Ref: 262 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Constricts bronchioles of respiratory passageways Page Ref: 262 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) No effect on most blood vessels Page Ref: 262 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Decreases urine output of the kidneys Page Ref: 262 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Increases metabolic rate Page Ref: 262 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Increases the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla Page Ref: 262 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 18) B 19) A 20) A 21) B 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) A

33 .

7.5

Essay Questions

1) List and explain the three general functions of the nervous system.

Answer: 1. Sensory (input) function—the nervous system uses millions of sensory receptors to monitor changes (stimuli) inside and outside the body; the gathered information is called the sensory function.

2. Integrative function—the nervous system processes and interprets sensory input and makes decisions about what should be done and the magnitude to which it should be done at each moment.

3. Motor (output) function—the process of reaction to stimuli; the body responds by activating muscles that can produce motion or stimulating glands that can produce and secrete hormones.

Page Ref: 220-221 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Explain how the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system differ structurally.

Answer: Structurally, the central and peripheral nervous systems include different parts. The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) includes all parts of the nervous system outside of the CNS. It consists mainly of the nerves that extend from the spinal cord and brain called spinal nerves and cranial nerves.

Page Ref: 222 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Explain the difference between a polarized neuron and a depolarized neuron.

Answer: A neuron is polarized when there are more positively charged ions located on the outer surface of the membrane and less positively charged ions situated on the inner surface of the membrane. A neuron is at rest when it is polarized. Depolarization occurs when the sodium ions normally located outside the neuron's membrane rush into the cell. Now, the interior surface of the membrane carries a positive charge due to the presence of more positively charged ions while the exterior surface of the membrane carries a negative charge due to the smaller number of positively charged ions.

Page Ref: 229, 231 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The family of Mr. Sanchez has learned that his cerebrovascular accident (CVA, or stroke) impaired his ability to move the right side of his body. They were told the CVA involved the primary somatic sensory area in the right cerebral hemisphere. Did they receive correct information? Explain.

Answer: Mr. Sanchez's family received two incorrect pieces of information. First, if Mr. Sanchez cannot move the right side of his body, the left cerebral hemisphere is responsible for controlling that movement. The motor pathway crosses to the opposite hemisphere of the brain.

Second, the primary motor area provides conscious motor control of skeletal muscles. By contrast, the primary somatic sensory area receives information from the body's sensory receptors.

Page Ref: 235 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 34 .

5) An 18-wheeler just nearly missed hitting Sam head-on while driving. Exasperated, he pulls over to the side of the road with his heart pounding. Which division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) is taking control right now? What other symptoms do you think he's experiencing?

Answer: The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is controlling Sam. In addition to his pounding heart, he is also likely experiencing deep breathing; cold, sweaty skin; a prickly scalp; and dilated pupils of his eyes.

Page Ref: 261-262 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Explain how the signs of a contusion differ from those of a concussion.

Answer: A brain contusion results from marked tissue destruction. If the cerebral cortex is injured, the individual may remain conscious, but severe brain stem contusions always result in a coma lasting from hours to a lifetime due to damage to the reticular activating system. By contrast, a concussion occurs when the brain injury is slight. The victim may be dizzy, "see stars," or lose consciousness briefly. Typically, little permanent damage occurs.

Page Ref: 247 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) List and describe the protective structures found in the CNS. Answer: 1. The brain and spinal cord are protected by a bony skull and a bony vertebral column.

2. There are three layers of membranes (meninges) covering the structures in the CNS. a. The outermost dura mater surrounds the brain. This double-layered membrane is a leathery covering. b. The middle membrane layer is the arachnoid mater, which has a cobweb appearance. c. The pia mater is the innermost layer, which clings to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

3. Cerebrospinal fluid forms a water cushion that circulates in and around the brain and spinal cord. The CSF protects the CNS from blows and other trauma. Also, remember from a previous chapter that water has a high heat capacity that prevents changes in temperature.

Page Ref: 242 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Compare and contrast the functions of the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.

Answer: Both the somatic and autonomic nervous systems are subdivisions of the motor (efferent) division of the peripheral nervous system. The somatic nervous system, or voluntary nervous system, allows us to consciously, or voluntarily, control our skeletal muscles. The autonomic nervous system, or involuntary nervous system, regulates activity of smooth and cardiac muscles and glands.

Page Ref: 259 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

35 .

9) Sam was hit in the head with a baseball. While his eyes are being examined with a penlight, his nurse notices one of his pupils is constricted while the other pupil dilates in response to light.

Determine which cranial nerve pair has been damaged.

Answer: Cranial nerve III is the oculomotor nerve. The damage to Sam's brain has affected this pair of cranial nerves, which are purely motor and control pupil size. During testing, pupils are examined for size, shape, and size equality; pupillary reflex is tested with a penlight (pupils should constrict when illuminated).

Page Ref: 253 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 10) Mr. Reeves continues to experience digestive system functions despite having a spinal cord injury at C6 that prevents the spinal cord from communicating with the brain. Deduce how digestive system functions can continue.

Answer: All cranial nerves serve the head and neck with the exception of the vagus nerve pairs.

The vagus nerves extend to the thoracic and abdominal cavities. Most motor fibers of the vagus nerves are parasympathetic fibers that promote digestive activity and help regulate heart activity.

Even with damage to the spinal cord, the vagus nerves will remain intact and be able to continue promoting digestive system function.

Page Ref: 252, 254 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 11) A boating accident caused damage to Stan's spinal cord, specifically to the ventral horns.

Interpret the impact.

Answer: The ventral horns of the gray matter contain cell bodies of motor neurons of the somatic (voluntary) nervous system, which send their axons out the ventral root of the spinal cord. The dorsal and ventral roots fuse to form the spinal nerves. The spinal nerve(s) affected by this damage will not be able to carry out motor functions, and Stan will not be able to move those parts.

Page Ref: 249 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

36 .

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 8 Special Senses 8.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 8.1, identify the following: 1) The auricle (pinna) is indicated by ________.

A) Label F B) Label E C) Label J D) Label A E) Label B Answer: A Page Ref: 285 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

1 .

2) The tympanic membrane is indicated by ________.

A) Label F B) Label D C) Label H D) Label I E) Label J Answer: D Page Ref: 285 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The semicircular canals are indicated by ________.

A) Label C B) Label E C) Label J D) Label B E) Label A Answer: A Page Ref: 285-286 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The cochlea is indicated by ________.

A) Label I B) Label G C) Label E D) Label A E) Label B Answer: E Page Ref: 285-286 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube is indicated by ________.

A) Label J B) Label A C) Label I D) Label F E) Label D Answer: B Page Ref: 285-286 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2 .

6) The malleus (hammer) is indicated by ________.

A) Label F B) Label E C) Label A D) Label C E) Label J Answer: B Page Ref: 285-286 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The stapes (stirrup) is indicated by ________.

A) Label E B) Label I C) Label A D) Label H E) Label F Answer: D Page Ref: 285-286 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The membrane that covers the outer surface of the eye and lines the eyelids is the ________.

A) choroid B) sclera C) conjunctiva D) retina Answer: C Page Ref: 273 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which gland is located above the lateral end of each eye and releases tears?

A) Tarsal B) Ceruminous C) Lacrimal D) Ciliary Answer: C Page Ref: 274 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The fibrous covering of the eye consists of the white outer layer known as the ________, and a transparent portion known as the ________.

A) sclera; cornea B) conjunctiva; sclera C) iris; pupil D) pupil; cornea Answer: A Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3 .

11) Which layer of the eye contains photoreceptors known as rods and cones?

A) Choroid B) Retina C) Sclera D) Cornea Answer: B Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Which portion of the retina contains a concentration of cones?

A) Fovea centralis B) Optic disc C) Blind spot D) Ciliary body Answer: A Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The biconvex structure that focuses light on the retina is the ________.

A) cornea B) pupil C) lens D) iris Answer: C Page Ref: 280 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) What separates the aqueous humor in the anterior segment from the vitreous humor in the posterior segment of the eye?

A) Iris B) Lens C) Ciliary body D) Cornea Answer: B Page Ref: 280 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) What is the ability of the eye to focus on close objects?

A) Accommodation B) Refraction C) Binocular vision D) Inversion Answer: A Page Ref: 281 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4 .

16) Fibers from the medial side of each eye cross over to the opposite side of the brain at the ________.

A) convergence B) optic radiation C) optic tracts D) optic chiasma Answer: D Page Ref: 282 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Following the visual pathway into the brain, where does the nerve impulse travel upon leaving the optic tracts?

A) Optic bulbs B) Optic nerves C) Thalamus D) Retina Answer: C Page Ref: 282 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) What is the reflexive movement of both eyes medially to view objects close to us?

A) Emmetropia B) Convergence C) Accommodation pupillary reflex D) Photopupillary reflex Answer: B Page Ref: 284 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) What structure is lined with ceruminous glands?

A) Pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube B) Auricle (pinna) C) External acoustic meatus (auditory canal) D) Tympanic membrane Answer: C Page Ref: 285 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) What divides the outer ear from the middle ear?

A) Tympanic membrane (eardrum) B) Auricle (pinna) C) Vestibule D) Cochlea Answer: A Page Ref: 285 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5 .

21) The vibration of sound waves causes the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, to move against an ossicle known as ________.

A) malleus or hammer B) incus or anvil C) stapes or stirrup D) otolith Answer: A Page Ref: 286 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) After years of working on loud construction sites, Erik experienced deafness in both ears.

Determine what has been damaged.

A) Perilymph B) Spiral organ of Corti C) Tympanic membrane D) Vestibular apparatus Answer: B Page Ref: 287, 292 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 23) Dynamic equilibrium receptors that detect information about angular or rotational movements of the head are housed in the ________.

A) cochlea B) vestibule C) semicircular canals D) oval window Answer: C Page Ref: 290 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The movement of otoliths and bending of hair cells in the inner ear contribute to our sense of ________.

A) vibrations B) static equilibrium C) hearing D) dynamic equilibrium Answer: B Page Ref: 289 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

6 .

25) What sign or symptom distinguishes Méniére's syndrome from sensorineural and conduction deafness?

A) Temporary hearing loss B) Fusion of ossicles (otosclerosis) C) Buildup of earwax D) Vertigo Answer: D Page Ref: 292 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) What type of chemoreceptor is responsible for our sense of smell?

A) Static equilibrium receptor B) Olfactory receptor C) Dynamic equilibrium receptor D) Photoreceptor Answer: B Page Ref: 292 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) The small, peglike projections of the tongue's surface are called ________.

A) maculae B) papillae C) otoliths D) basal cells Answer: B Page Ref: 293 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) What are the three cranial nerves that carry taste sensations to the brain?

A) Facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus B) Hypoglossal, glossopharyngeal, and facial C) Abducens, trochlear, and oculomotor D) Hypoglossal, vagus, and trigeminal Answer: A Page Ref: 294 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) What specific receptor cells respond to chemicals dissolved in saliva?

A) Taste bud cells B) Hair cells C) Olfactory cells D) Gustatory cells Answer: D Page Ref: 294 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

7 .

30) The five taste sensations are ________.

A) sweet, sour, bitter, salty, umami B) sweet, sour, bitter, pasty, gritty C) sweet, sour, chewy, gritty, greasy D) sweet, salty, spicy, bitter, gritty Answer: A Page Ref: 294 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) Tears from the lacrimal gland travel across the eye and drain first into the ________.

A) lacrimal sac B) lacrimal apparatus C) lacrimal canaliculi D) lacrimal duct E) nasolacrimal duct Answer: C Page Ref: 274 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following correctly states the function of the tarsal glands?

A) Tarsal glands produce sweat.

B) Tarsal glands secrete mucus.

C) Tarsal glands produce an oily secretion that lubricates the eye.

D) Tarsal glands release tears.

E) Tarsal glands secrete lysozymes, which are enzymes that destroy bacteria in the eye.

Answer: C Page Ref: 273 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The transparent portion of the fibrous layer of the eye is the ________.

A) choroid B) conjunctiva C) cornea D) retina E) sclera Answer: C Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

8 .

4) The function of the choroid layer of the eye is to ________.

A) release tears onto the anterior surface of the eye B) refract light and focus it on the retina C) regulate the amount of light entering the eye D) produce gross eye movements E) prevent light from scattering inside the eye Answer: E Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which statement regarding the function of the pupil is correct?

A) The pupil focuses light on the retina.

B) The pupil regulates the amount of light entering the eye, so we can see as clearly as possible.

C) The pupil is the pigmented portion of the eye.

D) The pupil attaches to the lens via ciliary bodies.

E) The pupil absorbs light and prevents it from scattering inside the eye.

Answer: B Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Where are photoreceptors cells located within the eye?

A) Optic disc B) Fibrous layer C) Neural layer of the retina D) Vascular layer E) Pigmented layer of the retina Answer: C Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) What part of the eye has the greatest visual acuity?

A) Optic disc B) Blind spot C) Ciliary body D) Vitreous humor E) Fovea centralis Answer: E Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

9 .

8) What part of the retina absorbs light and prevents it from scattering inside the eye?

A) Choroid B) Neural layer C) Photoreceptors D) Vascular layer E) Pigmented layer Answer: E Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Select the pathway along which images received by the retina of the eye will travel into the brain.

A) Optic nerve, optic chiasma, optic tracts, thalamus, optic radiation, occipital lobe B) Cochlear nerve, optic disc, optic tracts, thalamus, temporal lobe C) Optic tracts, optic chiasma, optic nerve, thalamus, optic radiation, occipital lobe D) Optic nerve, optic radiation, optic tracts, hypothalamus, temporal lobe E) Vestibular nerve, optic disc, optic chiasma, optic tracts, thalamus, parietal lobe Answer: A Page Ref: 282 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) Which layer of the eye contains rods and cones?

A) Sclera B) Retina C) Choroid D) Iris E) Optic nerve Answer: B Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) What type of photoreceptor cell allows us to see gray tones in dim light, and provides our peripheral vision?

A) Optic disc B) Cones C) Ganglion cells D) Rods E) Bipolar cells Answer: D Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

10 .

12) A person with total color blindness may lack ________.

A) rods B) optic disc (blind spot) C) cones D) hair cells E) olfactory cells Answer: C Page Ref: 278 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) Which disorder of the eye results from increased pressure due to a buildup of aqueous humor?

A) Cataracts B) Glaucoma C) Color blindness D) Myopia E) Astigmatism Answer: B Page Ref: 280 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The aqueous humor of the eye is reabsorbed into venous blood through the ________.

A) inferior lacrimal canal B) nasolacrimal duct C) scleral venous sinus (canal of Schlemm) D) ciliary body E) pupil Answer: C Page Ref: 280 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Which of the following is a sex-linked condition that more often affects males?

A) Conjunctivitis B) Color blindness C) Night blindness D) Glaucoma E) Cataracts Answer: B Page Ref: 278, 280 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

11 .

16) The gel-like substance that reinforces the eyeball and prevents it from collapsing inward is the ________.

A) aqueous humor B) ciliary body C) choroid D) vitreous humor (body) E) scleral venous sinus (canal of Schlemm) Answer: D Page Ref: 280 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Which of the following does not refract light as it travels into the eye?

A) Aqueous humor B) Cornea C) Lens D) Choroid E) Vitreous humor Answer: D Page Ref: 281 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) The inability to see distant objects is termed "nearsighted" or ________.

A) Emmetropia B) Hyperopia C) Myopia D) Astigmatism E) Presbyopia Answer: C Page Ref: 283 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) When Brock walked out of the dark movie theater into the bright, mid-day sun, he experienced ________.

A) convergence B) the accommodation pupillary reflex C) the photopupillary reflex D) eyestrain E) hemianopia Answer: C Page Ref: 284 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

12 .

20) Which one of the following correctly lists the order of the parts through which light passes as it enters the eye?

A) Cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor B) Aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor C) Vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea D) Cornea, lens, aqueous humor, vitreous humor E) Lens, aqueous humor, cornea, vitreous humor Answer: A Page Ref: 281 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 21) Jake was struck in the head during a baseball game. Which of the following could impair the sense of hearing if damaged?

A) Cupula B) Vestibule C) Semicircular canals D) Vestibular nerve E) Tympanic membrane (eardrum) Answer: E Page Ref: 287 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 22) Sound waves entering the external acoustic meatus (auditory canal) hit the eardrum, also known as the ________.

A) tympanic membrane B) pinna C) auricle D) oval window E) ossicles Answer: A Page Ref: 285 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Hair cells that function as hearing receptors are located within the ________.

A) external acoustic meatus (auditory tube) B) spiral organ of Corti C) oval window D) auricle E) ossicles Answer: B Page Ref: 287 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

13 .

24) Identify the pathway of vibrations as they travel from one ossicle to the next.

A) Malleus, incus, stapes B) Incus, malleus, stapes C) Stapes, incus, malleus D) Malleus, stapes, incus E) Stapes, malleus, incus Answer: A Page Ref: 286 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Static equilibrium receptors are located in the ________.

A) semicircular canals B) auricle (pinna) C) cochlea D) tympanic membrane E) vestibule Answer: E Page Ref: 289 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) An ear infection following an illness such as a cold can pass from the throat through the auditory (pharyngotympanic) tube to the ________.

A) eardrum B) semicircular canals C) inner ear D) middle ear E) outer ear Answer: D Page Ref: 286 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) While spinning around on a carousel or carnival ride, this motion will be detected by receptors known as the ________.

A) basilar membrane B) crista ampullaris C) otoliths D) cochlea E) spiral organ of Corti Answer: B Page Ref: 290 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

14 .

28) Our sense of static equilibrium is created by the ________.

A) vibration of the tympanic membrane B) movement of otoliths along hair cells C) transmission of light through the lens D) sound waves traveling through the cochlea E) stimulation of hair cells in the spiral organ of Corti Answer: B Page Ref: 289 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) What must be stimulated in order for the sense of hearing to be transmitted to the cochlear nerve?

A) Otoliths B) Hair cells C) Semicircular canals D) Cupula E) Vestibule Answer: B Page Ref: 287 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) If the hair cells in the spiral organ of Corti are damaged, what sense is impaired?

A) Smell B) Dynamic equilibrium C) Taste D) Static equilibrium E) Hearing Answer: E Page Ref: 287 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which cranial nerve pairs transmit both hearing and equilibrium information to the brain?

A) Abducens (VI) B) Oculomotor (III) C) Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) D) Trigeminal (V) E) Trochlear (IV) Answer: C Page Ref: 288-289 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

15 .

32) Hearing aids would be most useful for a person with ________.

A) otitis media B) conduction deafness C) vertigo D) presbycusis E) sensorineural deafness Answer: B Page Ref: 292 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Gustatory hairs are to taste as olfactory hairs are to ________.

A) sight B) hearing C) dynamic equilibrium D) smell E) both hearing and dynamic equilibrium Answer: D Page Ref: 292 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 34) Where are the olfactory receptors located?

A) Tongue B) Inner ear C) Nasal cavity D) Eye E) Throat Answer: C Page Ref: 292 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Charlotte burned the top of her tongue on a hot slice of pizza. What type of taste bud was damaged?

A) Vallate papillae B) Foliate papillae C) Circumvallate papillae D) Fungiform papillae E) Lingual papillae Answer: D Page Ref: 294 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

16 .

36) Damage to the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) will partially impair the sense of ________.

A) static equilibrium B) smell C) dynamic equilibrium D) taste E) hearing Answer: D Page Ref: 292, 294 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Stimulation of sour receptors occurs in response to ________.

A) lemons B) mushrooms C) sugar D) salt E) steak Answer: A Page Ref: 295 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) The age-related condition resulting from decreased lens elasticity is known as ________.

A) hemianopia B) strabismus C) presbyopia D) myopia E) hyperopia Answer: C Page Ref: 280, 29 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) The age-related fusion of ear bones is known as ________.

A) hemianopia B) strabismus C) otosclerosis D) presbycusis E) otitis Answer: C Page Ref: 296 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

17 .

40) The only special sense that is not fully functional at birth is ________.

A) taste B) smell C) vision D) hearing E) touch Answer: C Page Ref: 295 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) Mr. Green has been prescribed a pair of convex corrective lens; this outcome leads you to conclude he was diagnosed with ________.

A) myopia B) emmetropia C) hyperopia D) cataracts E) conjunctivitis Answer: C Page Ref: 283 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 42) Mrs. Davis is looking forward to improved vision after lens replacement surgery. She was evaluated to have ________.

A) hyperopia B) presbyopia C) strabismus D) cataracts E) glaucoma Answer: D Page Ref: 280 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 43) Mr. Evans learned at his appointment that he is a candidate for a cochlear implant. Given that he has a very difficult time hearing no matter how loud his family speaks to him, he has been diagnosed with ________.

A) sensorineural deafness B) vertigo C) otitis media D) otosclerosis E) conduction deafness Answer: A Page Ref: 291-292 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

18 .

8.3

True/False Questions

1) Tarsal glands situated between the eyelashes release an oily secretion that lubricates the eye.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 273 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The choroid consists of an outer, pigmented layer and an inner, neural layer, which is home to rods and cones.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The pupil is the circular opening in the iris through which light passes.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Eye movements are controlled by the abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 275 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) We cannot see images formed on the optic disc (blind spot).

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) A form of vitamin A is a necessary component of the pigment found in the iris.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 279 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The ciliary body is a smooth muscle structure to which the lens is attached.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The ability of the eye to focus on objects closer than 20 feet away is known as accommodation.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 281 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

19 .

9) An astigmatism results from unequal curvatures of the cornea or lens.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 284 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The normal resting eye is generally "set" for distant vision.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 281 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube links the middle ear cavity with the throat.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 286 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The internal (inner) ear functions in the sensation of hearing only.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 287, 289 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Once stimulated, the hair cells of the spiral organ of Corti transmit impulses along the cochlear nerve, a branch of cranial nerve VIII. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 288 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The bony labyrinth of the internal ear consists of the cochlea, vestibule, and the semicircular canals.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 286 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) In order to hear sound, vibrations must pass from the tympanic membrane to the ossicles, and on to the oval window.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 287-288 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The movement of otoliths is involved in the sensation of dynamic equilibrium.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 289 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Conduction deafness may result from earwax buildup or the fusion of the ossicles.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 292 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20 .

18) Unlike the sensation of taste, it is not necessary to have the chemicals associated with smells dissolved in body fluids.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 292 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The olfactory receptors are responsible for detecting taste sensations.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 292 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Taste bud cells are replaced every 7 to 10 days by basal cells.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 294 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

21 .

8.4

Matching Questions

Match the following descriptions to their appropriate eye layer: A) sensory layer B) vascular layer C) fibrous layer 1) The protective, outermost layer of the eye Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) This layer contains a neural layer and a pigmented layer Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) This layer contains the blood-rich, pigmented choroid Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Photoreceptor cells are located in a portion of this layer Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The cornea and sclera compose this layer Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The iris, pupil, and ciliary body are components of this layer Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The fovea centralis is the point of greatest visual acuity in this layer Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Vitamin A is stored in the pigmented layer of this layer Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Rods and cones are situated in the neural layer of this layer Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) A 9) A

22 .

Match the following ear structures to their appropriate descriptions: A) middle ear B) outer ear C) inner ear 10) Location of equilibrium receptors Page Ref: 289 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Tympanic membrane separates the outer ear from this region Page Ref: 285-286 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Fluid-filled part of the ear Page Ref: 286 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Location of ceruminous glands Page Ref: 285 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Location of otoliths Page Ref: 289 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Location of the vestibular apparatus Page Ref: 289 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Location of the auricle (pinna) and external acoustic meatus Page Ref: 285 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Location of the ossicles Page Ref: 289 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Location of the cochlea Page Ref: 286 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Location of the pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube Page Ref: 286 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 10) C 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) C 19) A 23 .

Match the following taste sensations: A) sweet receptors B) sour receptors C) umami receptors D) bitter receptors E) salty receptors 20) Sugar, saccharine Page Ref: 294 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Oranges, tomatoes Page Ref: 295 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Amino acid glutamate Page Ref: 294 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Alkaloids Page Ref: 294 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Metal ions in solution Page Ref: 294 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Proteins Page Ref: 295 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) E 25) C

24 .

Match the following eye disorders with their descriptions: A) presbyopia B) strabismus C) myopia D) color blindness E) conjunctivitis F) glaucoma 26) Nearsightedness Page Ref: 283 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Increased pressure within the eye, which causes pain and possibly blindness Page Ref: 280 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) "Crossed eyes" Page Ref: 295 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Most common form is the lack of red or green cone receptors Page Ref: 278, 280 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Inflammation of the conjunctiva Page Ref: 274 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Decreased lens elasticity associated with aging Page Ref: 296 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 26) C 27) F 28) B 29) D 30) E 31) A

25 .

8.5

Essay Questions

1) Describe the pathway of light through the eyeball and the process of light refraction.

Answer: Light travels through the cornea, aqueous humor, lens, and vitreous humor before being focused on the retina during normal vision. Refraction by the cornea and humors is constant, whereas the lens changes its shape to be either more or less convex as needed. The greater the convexity, the more light is bent.

Page Ref: 281 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Explain how the function of rods and cones differ.

Answer: Rods and cones are photoreceptor cells because they respond to light. Rods allow us to see gray tones in dim light, and they provide our peripheral vision. By contrast, cones allow us to see color under bright light conditions. Three varieties of cones are sensitive to particular wavelengths of visible light.

Page Ref: 277 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Describe the role of the lens in vision. Name and explain the disease caused by the loss of lens transparency as well as the age-related disease caused by the loss of lens elasticity.

Answer: 1. The lens is the only structure in the eye that can change shape to refract light. The lens becomes more or less convex in order to properly focus light on the retina.

2. Cataracts are caused when the lens becomes increasingly hard and opaque. Vision becomes hazy and distorted, and blindness can occur in the affected eye.

3. Presbyopia makes it difficult to focus for close vision; it is basically farsightedness. This condition develops after age 40 and is the reason older people hold reading materials at arm's length to be able to see the words.

Page Ref: 280, 296 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Describe the pathway of sound waves that result in the sensation of hearing.

Answer: Sound waves enter the pinna and are transmitted down the external acoustic canal until they hit the tympanic membrane and cause it to vibrate. Vibration of the tympanic membrane then causes the ossicles of the middle ear to vibrate, which in turn presses on the oval window of the inner ear. Vibration of the oval window sets the fluids of the inner ear in motion. Movement of the cochlear fluids then stimulates the hair cells of the spiral organ of Corti, which in turn transmit impulses along the cochlear nerve to the auditory cortex in the temporal lobe, where interpretation of sound occurs.

Page Ref: 287-288 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

26 .

5) Explain static and dynamic equilibrium and their interrelationships.

Answer: Static equilibrium is regulated by the maculae of the vestibule. The maculae report on the position of the head with respect to the pull of gravity when the body is at rest. Each macula is a patch of receptor cells embedded in the otolithic membrane. The otolithic membrane contains otoliths, which roll in response to changes in the pull of gravity. This movement causes the hair cells of the membrane to bend, sending impulses along the vestibular nerve to the cerebellum, relating information regarding the position of the head in space. Dynamic equilibrium is regulated by the semicircular canals. The crista ampullaris of the membranous semicircular canal consists of a tuft of hair cells and their gelatinous cap called the cupula.

Movement of the head causes the cupula to move in the opposite direction, stimulating the hair cells, which then transmit impulses up the vestibular nerve to the cerebellum. Static and dynamic equilibrium work together to provide information to the cerebellum to help control balance.

Page Ref: 289-290 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Your elderly neighbor wears hearing aids. Without them, he can't hear you knocking on his door. Do you think he wears the hearing aids for sensorineural deafness or conduction deafness?

Explain your choice and differentiate between the causes of these two types of deafness.

Answer: The neighbor likely has conduction deafness, a condition for which hearing aids is helpful. Conduction deafness results when something interferes with the transmission of sound to the inner ear structures, such as earwax buildup or fusion of the ossicles. Sensorineural deafness results from degeneration or damage to the spiral organ of Corti, the cochlear nerve, or the neurons of the auditory cortex. In other words, the hearing aids assist with helping those hear who have mechanical problems with their ear structures (conduction deafness) rather than those with nervous system problems (sensorineural deafness).

Page Ref: 292 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Identify the five basic taste receptors, and describe what each type of receptor detects.

Answer: 1. Sweet receptors respond to sugars, saccharine, some amino acids, and some lead salts.

2. Sour receptors respond to acidic solutions (those with a high concentration of hydrogen ions) such as lemons, oranges, and tomatoes.

3. Bitter receptors respond to alkaloids.

4. Salty receptors respond to metal ions in solution.

5. Umami receptors respond to a specific amino acid, glutamate, found in proteins.

Page Ref: 294-295 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

27 .

8) A 46-year-old patient arrives for an eye exam complaining of difficulty reading and also difficulty seeing traffic signs down the road when he drives. Assess his complaints and determine what eye condition(s) he has.

Answer: This patient has both myopia and presbyopia. Myopic eyes are too long and the focal point is created in front of the retina. Nearby objects are in focus, however, because the lens "accommodates" (bulges) to focus the image properly on the retina. Correction requires concave corrective lenses that diverge the light rays before they enter the eye, so that they converge farther back, on the retinal surface. Presbyopia begins to set in around age 40, the result of decreasing lens elasticity. This condition makes it difficult to focus for close vision; it is basically farsightedness.

Page Ref: 283-284, 296 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 9) Elderly Mr. Jimenez is very hard of hearing. His daughter suggested him to try a pair of hearing aids, but they did not improve his hearing. Evaluate this information to determine the type of deafness he likely has.

Answer: Mr. Jimenez likely has sensorineural deafness. Sensorineural deafness occurs when there is degeneration or damage to the receptor cells in the spiral organ of Corti, to the cochlear nerve, or to neurons of the auditory cortex. Hearing aids, which use skull bones to conduct sound vibrations to the inner ear, are generally very successful in helping people with conduction deafness to hear. They are not helpful for sensorineural deafness.

Page Ref: 292 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 10) Sjorgren's syndrome causes less saliva production than normal. Which of the senses is most affected and why? Support your answer with an explanation.

Answer: The sense of taste could be affected in those with Sjorgren's syndrome. Receptors for taste and olfaction are classified as chemoreceptors because they respond to chemicals in solution (in this case, saliva). The specific receptor cells that respond to chemicals dissolved in the saliva are epithelial cells called gustatory cells. Their long microvilli–the gustatory hairs– protrude through the taste pore; and when they are stimulated, they depolarize, and impulses are transmitted to the brain.

Page Ref: 292, 294 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

28 .

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 9 The Endocrine System 9.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 9.1, identify the following: 1) The gland that produces thymosin is indicated by ________.

A) Label F B) Label J C) Label D D) Label A E) Label C Answer: A Page Ref: 306, 314 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

1 .

2) The gland that produces melatonin is indicated by ________.

A) Label C B) Label D C) Label J D) Label B E) Label A Answer: E Page Ref: 306, 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The gland that produces testosterone is indicated by ________.

A) Label I B) Label F C) Label E D) Label J E) Label A Answer: D Page Ref: 306, 321 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The glands that produce catecholamines are indicated by ________.

A) Label J B) Label I C) Label G D) Label E E) Label F Answer: C Page Ref: 306, 317 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The gland that produces oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone is indicated by ________.

A) Label B B) Label D C) Label J D) Label A E) Label C Answer: A Page Ref: 306, 307 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2 .

6) The gland that produces insulin and glucagon is indicated by ________.

A) Label D B) Label H C) Label B D) Label G E) Label F Answer: B Page Ref: 306, 318 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The glands that produce a hormone that is the most important regulator of calcium ion homeostasis of the blood are indicated by ________.

A) Label H B) Label E C) Label I D) Label F E) Label C Answer: B Page Ref: 306, 313 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The gland that hangs from a stalk from the hypothalamus is indicated by ________.

A) Label C B) Label J C) Label E D) Label F E) Label I Answer: A Page Ref: 306, 307 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The female glands that are stimulated by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) are indicated by ________.

A) Label D B) Label F C) Label J D) Label I E) Label H Answer: D Page Ref: 306, 319 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

3 .

10) The gland that is primarily responsible for regulating metabolism is indicated by ________.

A) Label I B) Label A C) Label D D) Label E E) Label J Answer: C Page Ref: 306, 311 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The thymus is indicated by ________.

A) Label E B) Label H C) Label F D) Label J E) Label A Answer: C Page Ref: 306, 314 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The pancreas is indicated by ________.

A) Label H B) Label E C) Label I D) Label A E) Label B Answer: A Page Ref: 306, 318 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The pineal gland is indicated by ________.

A) Label H B) Label D C) Label F D) Label B E) Label A Answer: E Page Ref: 306, 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4 .

14) The glands situated around the thyroid gland that operate entirely under humoral control are represented by ________.

A) Label C B) Label F C) Label E D) Label B E) Label G Answer: C Page Ref: 305-306, 313 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Water-soluble hormones, such as proteins and peptide hormones, activate target cells using ________.

A) direct gene activation B) the second-messenger system C) steroid hormone action D) diffusion Answer: B Page Ref: 304 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Hormones of the hypothalamus stimulate the anterior pituitary gland to secrete its hormones.

How would you classify this type of endocrine gland stimulation?

A) Hormonal B) Humoral C) Neural D) Direct gene activation Answer: A Page Ref: 305 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 17) Which endocrine gland is known as the "master endocrine gland" for its removal or destruction would have a dramatic effect on the body?

A) Thymus B) Pineal gland C) Thyroid gland D) Pituitary gland Answer: D Page Ref: 307 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

5 .

18) What gland is the target organ of thyrotropic hormone (TH), also known as thyroidstimulating hormone (TSH)?

A) Adrenal gland B) Pineal gland C) Pituitary gland D) Thyroid gland Answer: D Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which hormone causes the kidneys to reabsorb more water from forming urine and as a result, increases blood volume?

A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B) Insulin C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) D) Cortisol Answer: A Page Ref: 308 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which hormones are made by the hypothalamus yet stored and released by the posterior pituitary?

A) Oxytocin; antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B) Cortisol; aldosterone C) Growth hormone; prolactin D) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH); prolactin Answer: A Page Ref: 307 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Calcitonin is made by the ________ cells of the thyroid gland.

A) follicle B) parafollicular C) beta D) alpha Answer: B Page Ref: 312 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which adrenal cortex hormone helps regulate water and electrolyte balance in body fluids?

A) Thymosin B) Calcitonin C) Aldosterone D) Cortisol Answer: C Page Ref: 315 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6 .

23) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) promotes the release of ________, A) insulin and glucagon B) cortisone and cortisol C) thyroxine and triiodothyronine D) epinephrine and norepinephrine Answer: B Page Ref: 316 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) A hormone produced by the heart, known as ________, prevents the release of aldosterone in order to reduce blood volume and blood pressure.

A) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) B) cortisol C) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D) glucagon Answer: A Page Ref: 316 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Male sex hormones produced by the adrenal cortex are called ________.

A) estrogens B) glucocorticoids C) androgens D) mineralocorticoids Answer: C Page Ref: 316 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Bronze skin color, hypoglycemia, and a reduced ability to cope with stress (burnout) are signs and symptoms of ________.

A) Addison's disease B) Graves' disease C) Cushing's syndrome D) goiter Answer: A Page Ref: 316 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

7 .

27) In patients with Cushing's syndrome, the presence of a "moon face," a "buffalo hump" of fat on the upper back, hyperglycemia and high blood pressure are the result of excess production of ________.

A) epinephrine B) mineralocorticoids C) glucocorticoids D) thyroxine Answer: C Page Ref: 316 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The short-term stress response of epinephrine, such as running from a fire, includes all of the following except ________.

A) increased digestive activity B) increased heart rate C) increased metabolic rate D) increased blood pressure Answer: A Page Ref: 317 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Beta cells of the pancreatic islets produce a hormone known as ________ while the alpha cells produce a hormone known as ________.

A) insulin; glucagon B) glucagon; insulin C) cortisol; glucagon D) epinephrine; cortisol Answer: A Page Ref: 318-319 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which of the following disorders results from the hyposecretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

A) diabetes insipidus B) hypoglycemia C) diabetes mellitus D) goiter Answer: A Page Ref: 308 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

8 .

31) When blood glucose levels are too high, the beta cells of the pancreas release ________ to decrease levels.

A) epinephrine B) glucagon C) insulin D) growth hormone Answer: C Page Ref: 319 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which hormone appears to play an important role in establishing the body's sleep-wake cycle?

A) Thymosin B) Cortisol C) Melatonin D) Aldosterone Answer: C Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) What is the primary function of thymosin?

A) Thymosin regulates the salt content of the blood, particularly sodium and potassium.

B) Thymosin appears to be essential for the normal development of T lymphocytes.

C) Thymosin plays an important role in establishing the body's sleep-wake cycle.

D) Thymosin controls the rate at which glucose is oxidized and converted to body heat and ATP. Answer: B Page Ref: 314 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) The hormone produced by male testes, which is necessary for sperm production is ________.

A) estrogen B) cortisol C) testosterone D) prolactin Answer: C Page Ref: 321 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Home pregnancy tests check for a hormone in the female's urine is called ________.

A) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) B) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) C) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) D) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Answer: A Page Ref: 323 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9 .

9.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) Which system produces chemical messengers known as hormones?

A) Nervous system B) Immune system C) Endocrine system D) Integumentary system E) Muscular system Answer: C Page Ref: 303 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) How would you classify a hormone that is made from cholesterol, such as a sex hormone?

A) Steroid hormone B) Amine hormone C) Prostaglandin D) Protein hormone E) Peptide hormone Answer: A Page Ref: 303 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which one of the following is not typical of the changes that follow the binding of a hormone to its target cells?

A) Plasma membrane permeability changes.

B) Cellular mutations occur.

C) Enzymes are activated or inactivated.

D) Mitosis is stimulated.

E) Proteins are synthesized in the cell.

Answer: B Page Ref: 303 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) In the second-messenger system, what serves as the first messenger?

A) Cyclic AMP (cAMP) B) DNA C) ATP D) The hormone E) mRNA Answer: D Page Ref: 304 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

10 .

5) Being lipid soluble, steroids can do all the following except ________.

A) diffuse through the plasma membranes of target cells B) catalyze a reaction that produces cyclic AMP (cAMP) C) enter the nucleus D) bind to receptor proteins within the nucleus E) activate genes to transcribe mRNA for protein synthesis Answer: B Page Ref: 303 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Rising levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) will inhibit its further hormone release. This type of control mechanism is best described as ________.

A) positive feedback mechanism B) second-messenger system C) neural stimulation D) direct gene activation E) negative feedback mechanism Answer: E Page Ref: 305 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is secreted by the parathyroid glands in response to low blood concentration of calcium ions. This mechanism operates by a ________.

A) hormonal stimulus B) humoral stimulus C) neural stimulus D) messenger stimulus E) steroid stimulus Answer: B Page Ref: 306 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) Select the statement that best describes the function of tropic hormones.

A) Tropic hormones stimulate the pineal gland to secrete hormones.

B) Tropic hormones stimulate the thymus gland to secrete hormones.

C) Tropic hormones stimulate other endocrine glands to secrete hormones.

D) Tropic hormones stimulate nervous tissue to produce neurotransmitters.

E) Tropic hormones stimulate production of prostaglandins.

Answer: C Page Ref: 309 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

11 .

9) Which of these anterior pituitary hormones regulates the endocrine activity of the cortex region of the adrenal gland?

A) Thyrotropic hormone (thyroid-stimulating hormone, or TSH) B) Prolactin (PRL) C) Growth hormone (GH) D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) E) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Answer: D Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) What is the primary effect of prolactin?

A) Stimulate contractions of the uterus during breastfeeding B) Stimulate follicle development in the ovaries C) Trigger ovulation of an egg from the ovary D) Stimulate and maintain milk production after childbirth E) Promote milk ejection in a woman nursing her infant Answer: D Page Ref: 309 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The hormone that stimulates follicle development by female ovaries and sperm development by male testes is ________.

A) luteinizing hormone (LH) B) prolactin (PRL) C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) D) glucagon E) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Answer: C Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Tia is 31 years old and has been diagnosed with acromegaly. Which hormone is she hypersecreting?

A) Growth hormone (GH) B) Testosterone C) Estrogen D) Oxytocin (OXY) E) Prolactin (PRL) Answer: A Page Ref: 309 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

12 .

13) Releasing and inhibiting hormones produced by the hypothalamus influence the activities of the ________.

A) pineal gland B) anterior pituitary gland C) adrenal gland D) posterior pituitary gland E) thyroid gland Answer: B Page Ref: 307 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The two hormones released by the thyroid gland are ________.

A) calcitonin and thyroid hormone B) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone (PTH) C) thyroid hormone and parathyroid hormone (PTH) D) prolactin (PRL) and oxytocin E) oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Answer: A Page Ref: 311-312 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Which endocrine gland is situated at the base of the throat, just inferior to the Adam's apple?

A) Pineal gland B) Thyroid gland C) Thymus gland D) Pituitary gland E) Adrenal gland Answer: B Page Ref: 311 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Which two hormones play a role in promoting the milk reflex and in stimulating and maintaining breast milk production in a nursing mother's breasts?

A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and thyroid hormones B) Growth hormone (GH) and glucagon C) Prolactin (PRL) and oxytocin D) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) and thyroid hormones E) Prolactin (PRL) and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Answer: C Page Ref: 307, 309 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

13 .

17) Which of these hormones prods the thyroid gland to release thyroxine (T4)?

A) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) B) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) C) Gonadotropic hormones D) Thyrotropic hormone (TH) or thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) E) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Answer: D Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Alcohol inhibits the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). What impact will this have on the body?

A) Increased swelling (edema) in the body's tissues B) Increased thirst and dehydration C) Increased water retention by the kidneys D) Decreased urine output E) Increased presence of blood in the urine Answer: B Page Ref: 308 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Where are the parathyroid glands located?

A) On top of the kidneys B) Directly below the Adam's apple C) Within the mediastinum D) Within the pancreas E) Posterior surface of the thyroid gland Answer: E Page Ref: 313 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The body's major metabolic hormone, which is actually two iodine-containing hormones, is called ________.

A) prolactin (PRL) B) growth hormone (GH) C) adrenaline D) thyroid hormone E) calcitonin Answer: D Page Ref: 311 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

14 .

21) Without iodine in the diet, which thyroid gland disorder may result?

A) Graves' disease B) Cretinism C) Pituitary dwarfism D) Goiter E) Myxedema Answer: D Page Ref: 311-312 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 22) Graves' disease is accompanied by a condition in which the eyes bulge or protrude anteriorly.

This condition is known as ________.

A) Goiter B) Moon face C) Myxedema D) Exophthalmos E) Buffalo hump Answer: D Page Ref: 312 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 23) Which of these hormones regulate calcium levels in the body?

A) T3 and T4 B) Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone (PTH) C) Oxytocin and prolactin D) Insulin and glucagon E) Melatonin and glucocorticoids Answer: B Page Ref: 312, 313 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) What stimulates the release of calcitonin?

A) Increasing level of blood sodium ions B) Decreasing level of blood calcium ions C) Increasing level of blood glucose D) Increasing level of blood calcium ions E) Another hormone Answer: D Page Ref: 312 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

15 .

25) Which of these hormones is released by the adrenal medulla?

A) Sex hormones B) Aldosterone C) Cortisone D) Glucocorticoids E) Epinephrine (adrenaline) Answer: E Page Ref: 317 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Rising blood levels of aldosterone cause the kidney tubules to ________.

A) increase absorption of potassium ions B) increase absorption of sodium ions C) decrease excretion of calcium ions D) increase absorption of hydrogen ions E) decrease excretion of potassium ions Answer: B Page Ref: 315 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Tetany resulting from uncontrolled muscle spasms may indicate a malfunction of the ________.

A) pineal gland B) thymus C) parathyroid glands D) adrenal cortex E) posterior pituitary Answer: C Page Ref: 314 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops, stimulating a release of aldosterone, is called ________.

A) cortisone B) renin C) cortisol D) vasopressin E) angiotensin II Answer: B Page Ref: 315-316 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

16 .

29) Which of the following is a function of the mineralocorticoids, such as aldosterone?

A) Help resist long-term stress B) Increase blood glucose levels C) Decrease edema D) Suppress inflammation E) Regulate salt content of the blood Answer: E Page Ref: 315 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Daniella has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which of the following is probably NOT one of her signs or symptoms?

A) Bronze skin tone B) High blood pressure and edema C) Weak muscles D) Hypoglycemia E) Inability to cope with stress Answer: B Page Ref: 316 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 31) The "fight-or-flight" response triggers the release of ________.

A) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B) prolactin (PRL) C) growth hormone (GH) D) epinephrine E) melatonin Answer: D Page Ref: 317 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Mr. Lee has been working extra hours for weeks since he is covering for several employees in his department who are out. The long hours and additional stress have left him feeling extremely exhausted. How will his body respond to this long-term stress?

A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) will decrease urine volume and increase blood volume.

B) Insulin will decrease blood glucose levels.

C) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) will reduce blood volume and blood pressure.

D) Glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids will increase sodium and water retention, blood sugar, blood volume, and blood pressure.

E) Thyroxine levels will be controlled by hormonal stimulation.

Answer: D Page Ref: 317 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

17 .

33) Where does the body store excess glucose as glycogen in response to the presence of insulin?

A) Kidney B) Liver C) Spleen D) Pancreas E) Stomach Answer: B Page Ref: 320 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Which of the following hormones decreases blood glucose levels?

A) Glucocorticoids B) Epinephrine C) Growth hormone D) Insulin E) Glucagon Answer: D Page Ref: 318-319 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Ms. James is 73 years old and lately has had to urinate frequently. Her urinalysis test confirmed high levels of glucose in her urine. This finding points to a diagnosis of ________.

A) diabetes insipidus B) hyperaldosteronism C) diabetes mellitus, type 2 (adult onset) D) Addison's disease E) diabetes mellitus, type 1 (juvenile) Answer: C Page Ref: 319 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Which one of the following is not a sign of diabetes mellitus?

A) Polyuria B) Polydipsia C) Moon face D) Polyphagia E) Acidosis Answer: C Page Ref: 319 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

18 .

37) The pineal gland produces ________.

A) thymosin B) melatonin C) estrogen D) insulin E) cortisol Answer: B Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Some people purchase melatonin as an over-the-counter medication. For what specific purpose?

A) Growth of hair and nails B) Calcium supplement C) Increase metabolism D) Sleep aid E) Blood glucose regulation Answer: D Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 39) Which gland is located in the upper thorax, posterior to the sternum?

A) Parathyroid glands B) Pancreas C) Testes D) Thymus E) Thyroid gland Answer: D Page Ref: 314 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) What two groups of steroid hormones are made by female ovaries?

A) Testosterone and estrogens B) Estrogens and progesterone C) Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) D) Androgens and testosterone E) Gonadotropic hormones and thyrotropic hormones Answer: B Page Ref: 319 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

19 .

41) Which of the following is not an effect of testosterone on males?

A) Stimulation of the posterior pituitary B) Deepening of the voice C) Growth of facial hair D) Sperm production E) Development of heavy bones and muscles Answer: A Page Ref: 321 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) Which two hormones act together to bring about menstruation in females?

A) Testosterone and estrogen B) Progesterone and prolactin C) Progesterone and estrogen D) Aldosterone and cortisol E) Cortisol and cortisone Answer: C Page Ref: 320 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which hormone is produced by the kidneys to stimulate production of red blood cells by the bone marrow?

A) Relaxin B) Resistan C) Secretin D) Cholecystokinin (CCK) E) Erythropoietin Answer: E Page Ref: 324 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) Which hormone, produced by the placenta, stimulates the ovaries to continue producing estrogen and progesterone so that the lining of the uterine is not sloughed off in menses?

A) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) C) Luteinizing hormone (LH) D) Human placental lactogen (hPL) E) Oxytocin Answer: A Page Ref: 323 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

20 .

45) As the efficiency of the ovaries declines in middle age, a woman's ability to bear children ends. What is this known as?

A) Pregnancy B) Menstruation C) Menopause D) Puberty E) Menses Answer: C Page Ref: 326 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) A young child is small for his age and shows signs of mental impairment. Given his symptoms, you conclude he may have ________.

A) myxedema B) cretinism C) pituitary dwarfism D) goiter E) Graves' disease Answer: B Page Ref: 312 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 47) A woman complains of frequent urination and thirst. A urinalysis test does not show increased sugar in her urine. What condition would you rank as the likely cause of her symptoms?

A) Diabetes mellitus B) Cushing's syndrome C) Diabetes insipidus D) Gigantism E) Cretinism Answer: C Page Ref: 308 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 48) Pat, a 68-year-old woman, has high levels of TSH and low levels of thyroxine (T4). She is often tired and has gained weight. For what condition would you evaluate her?

A) Diabetes mellitus B) Graves' disease C) Myxedema D) Cretinism E) Addison's disease Answer: C Page Ref: 312 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

21 .

9.3

True/False Questions

1) The scientific study of hormones and endocrine organs is known as immunology.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 302 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Hormones only affect certain tissue cells or organs known as target cells or target organs.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 303 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The primary method of maintaining blood levels of nearly all hormones is through negative feedback mechanisms.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 305 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Hormones that are secreted in response to other hormones are prodded by hormonal stimuli.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 305 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The posterior pituitary makes and secretes oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 307 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Releasing and inhibiting hormones made by the hypothalamus control the release of hormones from the posterior pituitary.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 307 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Oxytocin is released in significant amounts only during childbirth and nursing.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 307 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Acromegaly is a condition that results from the hypersecretion of growth hormone after long bone growth has ended.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 309 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

22 .

9) The hyposecretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) or follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) results in sterility.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Antidiuretic hormone promotes both sodium and water retention.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 308 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Growth hormone promotes the growth of skeletal muscles and long bones of the body.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 309 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The peak levels of melatonin occur around noon so that we are sleepy in the evening.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Thyroxine is the major thyroid hormone secreted by the thyroid gland follicles.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 311 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Thyroid hormone is actually two iodine-containing hormones called T3 and T4.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 311 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone (PTH) are produced by the parathyroid glands.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 312, 313 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Blood calcium levels are controlled by a positive feedback mechanism.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 313 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is the most important regulator of calcium ion homeostasis of the blood.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 313 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23 .

18) Calcitonin is a hypocalcemic hormone while parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a hypercalcemic hormone.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 313 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The primary regulators of aldosterone release two hormones: adrenocortotropic hormone (ACTH) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 315 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The adrenal glands are similar to the pituitary gland in that they have both glandular and neural tissue.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 314 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 21) The adrenal cortex makes three major groups of hormones collectively called catecholamines.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 315 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Glucocorticoids, glucagon, and epinephrine are hyperglycemic hormones.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 316, 319 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) The glucocorticoids promote normal cell metabolism and help the body to resist long-term stressors, primarily by increasing blood glucose levels.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 316 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Both male and female sex hormones are produced by the adrenal medulla throughout life in relatively small amounts.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 316 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Hypersecretion of the sex hormones from the adrenal cortex may lead to masculinization in both men and women.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 316 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24 .

26) Aldosterone release is prevented by atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), a hormone released by the heart.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 315, 316 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) The catecholamines and aldosterone both increase blood pressure through different mechanisms.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 315, 317 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Glucagon acts as an antagonist (opposite) to insulin.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 319-320 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Ketosis, the breakdown of fats for energy, may accompany diabetes mellitus but not diabetes insipidus.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 308, 319 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) The thymus gland is located in the neck on the posterior surface of the trachea.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 314 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) The ovaries release estrogen and progesterone in response to gonadotropic hormones from the anterior pituitary gland.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 320-321 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) The placenta is a temporary organ formed in the uterus of pregnant women.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 324 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

25 .

9.4

Matching Questions

Match each of the following hormones with the endocrine gland or structure that produces it: A) adrenal medulla B) thymus gland C) adrenal cortex D) hypothalamus E) parathyroid glands F) thyroid gland G) anterior pituitary H) pancreas 1) Growth hormone Page Ref: 309 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Prolactin (PRL) Page Ref: 309 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Thyrotropic hormone (TH) or thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Oxytocin Page Ref: 307 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin Page Ref: 308 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

26 .

9) Thyroxine (T4) Page Ref: 311 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Calcitonin Page Ref: 312 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Page Ref: 313 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Aldosterone Page Ref: 315 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Cortisone Page Ref: 316 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Epinephrine Page Ref: 317 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Glucocorticoids Page Ref: 316 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Insulin Page Ref: 318 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Glucagon Page Ref: 318 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Releasing and inhibiting hormones Page Ref: 307 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Thymosin Page Ref: 314 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

27 .

20) Norepinephrine Page Ref: 317 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) G 2) G 3) G 4) G 5) G 6) D 7) D 8) G 9) F 10) F 11) E 12) C 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) H 17) H 18) D 19) B 20) A

28 .

Match the following actions with the appropriate hormone: A) insulin B) adrenocorticotropic hormone C) glucocorticoids D) follicle-stimulating hormone E) thyroid-stimulating hormone F) antidiuretic hormone G) oxytocin H) parathyroid hormone 21) Stimulates contraction of the uterus and milk ejection (the let-down reflex) Page Ref: 308 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Operates as an antagonist to calcitonin in regulating blood calcium levels Page Ref: 312, 313 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Promotes normal cell metabolism and helps the body resist long-term stressors Page Ref: 316 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine Page Ref: 310, 312 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Promotes reabsorption of water by the kidneys to increase blood volume Page Ref: 308 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Operates as an antagonist to glucagon to regulate blood glucose levels Page Ref: 318-319 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Anterior pituitary hormone that regulates the endocrine activity of the cortex region of the adrenal gland Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates development of follicles in female ovaries and sperm development in male testes Page Ref: 310 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 21) G 22) H 23) C 24) E 25) F 26) A 27) B 28) D 29 .

9.5

Essay Questions

1) Explain the composition of the two major chemical classifications of hormones.

Answer: Hormones are chemical substances released by endocrine cells. Hormones can be classified as amino acid-based molecules or as steroids. The amino acid-based molecules include proteins, peptides, and amines. The steroid hormones are made from cholesterol.

Page Ref: 303 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Describe the three types of stimuli that activate the endocrine organs.

Answer: The stimuli that activate endocrine glands fall into three major categories: hormonal, humoral, and neural. The most common stimulus is hormonal, in which endocrine organs are prodded into action by other hormones, known as tropic hormones. Changing blood levels of certain ions and nutrients stimulate hormone release; these stimuli are referred to as humoral stimuli. The third type of stimulus is neural, in which nerve fibers stimulate hormone release.

Page Ref: 305-306 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Explain the pituitary-hypothalamus relationship.

Answer: Hormones from the anterior pituitary are released in response to releasing and inhibiting hormones produced by the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus releases these hormones into the blood of the portal circulation, which connects the blood supply of the hypothalamus with that of the anterior pituitary. Hormones released from the posterior pituitary are made in the hypothalamus by hypothalamic neurons. Those hormones, oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH), are then stored in the posterior pituitary until their release is necessary.

Page Ref: 307 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Discuss the role of hormones in maintaining blood calcium levels.

Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH), produced by the parathyroid glands, is the most important regulator of blood calcium levels. PTH is a hypercalcemic hormone, meaning that it is secreted in response to low blood calcium levels. PTH stimulates osteoclasts to destroy bone matrix and release the calcium into the blood, raising blood calcium levels. PTH also targets the intestine and kidneys to absorb calcium. PTH works opposite to calcitonin, whose job is to lower blood calcium levels through deposition to bones.

Page Ref: 312, 313 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

30 .

5) Explain the effects of the catecholamines on the body during the fight-or-flight response, and how these effects help us deal with short-term stress.

Answer: When you feel threatened physically or emotionally, your sympathetic nervous system brings about the "fight-or-flight" response to help you cope with the stressful situation. In response, the adrenal medulla pumps hormones known as catecholamines into the bloodstream to increase heart rate, blood pressure, and the blood glucose level, and dilate the small passageways of the lungs. These events result in more oxygen and glucose in the blood and a faster circulation of blood to the body organs.

Page Ref: 317-319 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Four-year-old Tim is extremely small for his age, and he shows signs of intellectual impairment. His hair is thinning and his skin is dry. His parents have read about cretinism and pituitary dwarfism as possible diagnoses for their son and have taken him to the pediatrician for tests to be run. Which diagnosis do you think is correct? Explain why.

Answer: The likely diagnosis is cretinism. Hyposecretion of the thyroid hormone in early childhood leads to cretinism. Cretinism results in dwarfism and intellectual impairment.

Cretinism also causes the hair to be scanty and the skin to be dry. It is unlikely Tim suffers from pituitary dwarfism. Pituitary dwarfism results from hyposecretion of growth hormone in children, but does not cause the other symptoms listed.

Page Ref: 309, 312 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Jamie is dehydrated from playing a rough game of football on a hot summer afternoon.

Explain why beer, an alcoholic drink, is not a good choice of beverage considering what you know about antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

Answer: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) prevents urine production and promotes water retention by the kidneys. However, alcoholic beverages inhibit ADH secretion and result in a large output of urine. Jamie is already dehydrated and the alcoholic drink will only further enhance that dehydration.

Page Ref: 308 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) Some people take medications to lower their blood pressure known as ACE inhibitors (angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors). These medications prevent the formation of angiotensin II. Explain why these medications are effective.

Answer: When blood pressure is low, the kidneys release an enzyme called renin. Renin, in turn, triggers the production of angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent stimulator of aldosterone release. Aldosterone targets the kidney and promotes sodium reabsorption by the tubule cells of the kidney; water follows and is also reabsorbed when aldosterone is present in the kidney. The increased blood volume, due to water reabsorption, leads to increased blood pressure. When a person takes a medication such as an ACE inhibitor, this mechanism is shut off and blood pressure remains low (and that's the goal).

Page Ref: 315-316 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

31 .

9) Summarize the three cardinal signs of diabetes mellitus.

Answer: Diabetes mellitus is characterized by polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia. Polyuria flushes out glucose while polydipsia is excessive thirst resulting from water lost in the urine.

Polyphagia is the hunger due to the inability to use sugars and the loss of fat and proteins from the body. Type I diabetes results from the hyposecretion of insulin and causes glucose to be lost in the urine. In contrast, an individual with type II diabetes releases insulin, but their insulin receptors are unable to respond to it.

Page Ref: 319 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Molly presents with frequent urination and thirst as her two primary symptoms. She's often dehydrated and develops a headache, too. How would you further evaluate her to confirm which form of diabetes she has?

Answer: In one form of diabetes known as diabetes mellitus, blood glucose levels rise and excess sugar spills into the urine due to a lack of insulin. An accompanying symptom of this form of diabetes is polyphagia due to the body's inability to use sugar and the loss of fats and proteins from the body. Another form of diabetes known as diabetes insipidus, which involves hyposecretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), does not share the polyphagia symptom with diabetes mellitus. Investigate Molly's blood for glucose and ADH levels to give more insight into which type of diabetes she may have.

Page Ref: 308, 319 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 11) A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus has been prescribed glucocorticoids to reduce inflammation related to her arthritis. Her doctor explains the cautions for long-term use of this medication. Evaluate how the new medication will impact her blood glucose levels and interact with her existing condition. For which additional disease does the use of these glucocorticoids place her at risk?

Answer: Glucocorticoids such as cortisone and cortisol help the body to resist long-term stressors, primarily by increasing the blood glucose level. When blood levels of glucocorticoids are high, fats and even proteins are broken down by body cells and converted to glucose, which is released to the blood. For this reason, glucocorticoids are said to be hyperglycemic hormones.

This woman already has diabetes mellitus; in combination with this medication, her blood glucose levels can rise dramatically. Cushing's syndrome can occur if the patient has been receiving pharmacological doses (amounts higher than those released in the body) of glucocorticoids to counteract inflammatory disease. Excessive glucocorticoids result in a swollen "moon face" and the appearance of a "buffalo hump" of fat on the upper back. Other common and undesirable effects of Cushing's syndrome include high blood pressure, hyperglycemia (steroid diabetes), weakening of the bones (as protein is withdrawn to be converted to glucose), and severe depression of the immune system.

Page Ref: 316, 319 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

32 .

12) Manuel has been taking a prescribed dose of thyroxine for years due to a diagnosis of hypothyroidism. Recently, his pituitary gland was removed. Advise him on how the surgical removal of his pituitary gland will impact his future use of thyroxine supplements.

Answer: The pituitary gland makes and releases thyrotropic hormone (TH), also called thyroidstimulating hormone (TSH). This hormone influences the growth and activity of the thyroid gland. Without the pituitary gland producing this stimulating hormone, his thyroid gland will now produce no thyroxine. Therefore, it will be necessary for Manuel to continue taking his thyroxine medication.

Page Ref: 310, 311 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

33 .

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 10 Blood 10.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 10.1, identify the following: 1) The neutrophil is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: A Page Ref: 337 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

1 .

2) The eosinophil is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: C Page Ref: 337 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The monocyte is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: B Page Ref: 337 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The lymphocyte is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: D Page Ref: 337 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The granulocytes are indicated by ________ and ________.

A) Label A; Label C B) Label B; Label A C) Label C; Label D D) Label D; Label B Answer: A Page Ref: 337 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The most common type of leukocyte is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: A Page Ref: 337-338 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2 .

7) The type of leukocyte that fights allergies and parasitic worms is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: C Page Ref: 337-338 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Normal blood pH falls in a range between ________ and ________.

A) 7.1; 7.2 B) 7.35; 7.45 C) 7.6; 7.75 D) 7.85; 8.05 Answer: B Page Ref: 332 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) An important plasma protein that contributes to the osmotic pressure of blood is ________.

A) thyroglobulin B) fibrin C) albumin D) glucose Answer: C Page Ref: 332 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The percentage of erythrocytes in blood is known as the ________.

A) hematocrit B) buffy coat C) hemoglobin D) plasma Answer: A Page Ref: 332 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The transportation of oxygen in the blood is the responsibility of ________.

A) neutrophils B) platelets C) erythrocytes D) granulocytes Answer: C Page Ref: 333-334, 337 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

3 .

12) Which of the following characterizes leukopenia?

A) excessive number of leukocytes B) abnormally low number of erythrocytes C) excessive number of erythrocytes D) abnormally low number of leukocytes Answer: D Page Ref: 336 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Life at a high altitude, where less oxygen is available, can lead to a red blood cell disorder known as ________.

A) anemia B) polycythemia C) leukocytosis D) leukemia Answer: B Page Ref: 335 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) A recent blood test shows that Mr. Jimenez's total WBC count exceeded 11,000 cells/mm3.

What is most likely his condition?

A) Leukopenia B) Leukocytosis C) Polycythemia D) Anemia Answer: B Page Ref: 336 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15) The capability of white blood cells to locate areas of damaged tissue and infection by responding to certain chemicals is ________.

A) cytoplasmic extension B) diapedesis C) amoeboid motion D) positive chemotaxis Answer: D Page Ref: 336 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Which group of white blood cells includes the neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils?

A) Erythrocytes B) Granulocytes C) Agranulocytes D) Thrombocytes Answer: B Page Ref: 337-338 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4 .

17) White blood cells containing granules and lobed nuclei are classified as ________.

A) agranulocytes B) granulocytes C) thrombocytes D) megakaryocytes Answer: B Page Ref: 336-338 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Platelets are fragments of a multinucleate cell known as a(n) ________.

A) megakaryocyte B) erythrocyte C) reticulocyte D) monocyte Answer: A Page Ref: 338 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The process by which bleeding is stopped is called ________.

A) hematopoiesis B) erythropoiesis C) homeostasis D) hemostasis Answer: D Page Ref: 340 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) What hormone controls the rate of erythrocyte production?

A) Erythropoietin B) Thrombopoietin C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) D) Interleukins Answer: A Page Ref: 339 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) What long, hairlike molecules form the basis of a clot during coagulation?

A) Thrombin B) Prothrombin C) Fibrin D) Albumin Answer: C Page Ref: 341 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

5 .

22) Hereditary bleeding disorders that result from lack of clotting factors are referred to as ________.

A) petechiae B) hemophilia C) aplastic anemia D) thrombocytopenia Answer: B Page Ref: 342 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Substances that the body recognizes as foreign are called ________.

A) antigens B) antibodies C) formed elements D) megakaryocytes Answer: A Page Ref: 343 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) When antibodies bind to antigens on foreign blood types, clumping or ________ occurs.

A) coagulation B) hematopoiesis C) agglutination D) alkalosis Answer: C Page Ref: 343 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) The "universal donor" is blood type ________.

A) A B) B C) AB D) O Answer: D Page Ref: 344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which blood type lacks antigens for the ABO blood group yet carries anti-A and anti-B antibodies?

A) AB B) A C) B D) O Answer: D Page Ref: 344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6 .

27) A person with type B blood can receive blood from blood type(s) ________.

A) AB, B B) B, O C) A, B, AB, O D) B, O, AB Answer: B Page Ref: 344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) If you carry the Rh antigen, you are referred to as Rh ________.

A) positive B) sensitive C) negative D) compatible Answer: A Page Ref: 344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) The condition in which maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the baby's RBCs is called ________.

A) hemophilia B) thrombus C) hemolytic disease of the newborn D) physiologic jaundice Answer: C Page Ref: 344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) The condition in which fetal RBCs are destroyed faster than the infant liver can rid the body of the breakdown products of hemoglobin is called ________.

A) hemolytic disease of the newborn B) pernicious anemia C) sickle cell trait (SCT) D) physiologic jaundice Answer: D Page Ref: 346 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

7 .

10.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) What is not contained in the plasma of blood?

A) Nutrients B) Gases C) Hormones D) Hemoglobin E) Plasma proteins Answer: D Page Ref: 332-333 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy coat situated between the formed elements and the plasma contains ________.

A) leukocytes and erythrocytes B) platelets and erythrocytes C) leukocytes and platelets D) erythrocytes only E) leukocytes only Answer: C Page Ref: 332 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following does not correctly characterize blood?

A) The pH range of blood falls between 7.35 and 7.45.

B) Blood is cooler than body temperature.

C) Blood accounts for a volume of 5 to 6 liters in healthy adults.

D) The color of blood ranges from scarlet red to dark red or purple depending on the level of oxygenation.

E) Blood has a characteristic metallic, salty taste.

Answer: B Page Ref: 332 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) What component of a red blood cell binds and transports oxygen?

A) Albumin B) Hemoglobin C) Fibrinogen D) Mitochondria E) Thrombin Answer: B Page Ref: 334 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

8 .

5) Which formed element is the most abundant in blood?

A) Erythrocyte B) Eosinophil C) Platelet D) Basophil E) Lymphocyte Answer: A Page Ref: 334 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Erythrocytes ________.

A) possess lobed nuclei and cytoplasmic granules B) lack a nucleus and most organelles C) are the least common of all formed elements D) travel by diapedesis through the walls of vessels E) clot blood Answer: B Page Ref: 334 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) On average, how many red blood cells are present in a cubic millimeter of blood?

A) 1,000 B) 150,000 C) 5 million D) 10 million E) 25 billion Answer: C Page Ref: 333-334 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which of the following red blood cell disorders may provide a better chance of surviving where malaria is present?

A) Aplastic anemia B) Sickle cell anemia (SCA) C) Pernicious anemia D) Polycythemia E) Hemolytic anemia Answer: B Page Ref: 335 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

9 .

9) White blood cells differ from red blood cells because only they contain ________.

A) a biconcave shape B) a nucleus and most organelles C) the ability to transport both oxygen and carbon dioxide D) the iron-containing molecule called hemoglobin E) cytoplasm Answer: B Page Ref: 336-338 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) Jordan works in a hematology lab and processed a blood report showing 22,000 white blood cells/mm3 of blood for a patient. He suspects this patient has a bacterial infection leading to ________.

A) sickle cell anemia (SCA) B) polycythemia C) anemia D) leukocytosis E) leukopenia Answer: D Page Ref: 336 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) The two major groups of white blood cells are ________.

A) leukocytes and erythrocytes B) platelets and megakaryocytes C) neutrophils and basophils D) granulocytes and agranulocytes E) granulocytes and leukocytes Answer: D Page Ref: 336 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Shakira is taking an antihistamine medication due to several itchy mosquito bites. This medication blocks the release of histamine from ________.

A) neutrophils B) lymphocytes C) eosinophils D) basophils E) monocytes Answer: D Page Ref: 337-338 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

10 .

13) A stubborn infection continues to persist for Nyisha. A blood test reveals a bacterial infection, which is confirmed by an excessive number of ________.

A) eosinophils B) basophils C) neutrophils D) lymphocytes E) monocytes Answer: C Page Ref: 337-338 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) The most numerous of the white blood cells are the ________.

A) lymphocytes B) neutrophils C) eosinophils D) monocytes E) basophils Answer: B Page Ref: 337-338 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Which type of leukocyte kills parasitic worms by deluging them with digestive enzymes?

A) Neutrophil B) Monocyte C) Lymphocyte D) Basophil E) Eosinophil Answer: E Page Ref: 337-338 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Place these leukocytes in order from the most common to the least common: 1) basophil 2) eosinophil 3) lymphocyte 4) monocyte 5) neutrophil A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 C) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 D) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 E) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1 Answer: E Page Ref: 337-338 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

11 .

17) What multinucleate cell gives rise to thousands of anucleate fragments known as platelets?

A) Erythrocyte B) Eosinophil C) Basophil D) Megakaryocyte E) Macrophage Answer: D Page Ref: 338 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Where does hematopoiesis occur to produce new red blood cells?

A) Yellow bone marrow B) Articular cartilage C) Red bone marrow D) Epiphyseal line E) Synovial membrane Answer: C Page Ref: 339 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which of the following is not a descendent of the myeloid stem cell line?

A) Monocyte B) Basophil C) Lymphocyte D) Platelet E) Erythrocyte Answer: C Page Ref: 339 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The average functional lifespan of an RBC is ________.

A) 20—30 days B) 50—75 days C) 100—120 days D) one year E) the body's lifetime Answer: C Page Ref: 339 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

12 .

21) An immature RBC that still contains some endoplasmic reticulum is called a(n) ________.

A) megakaryocyte B) hemocytoblast C) reticulocyte D) agranulocyte E) granulocyte Answer: C Page Ref: 339 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) What enzyme joins soluble fibrinogen proteins into long molecules of fibrin during coagulation?

A) PF3 B) Thrombin C) Tissue factor D) Prothrombin E) Calcium Answer: B Page Ref: 341 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Placing pressure on a cut will constrict blood vessels manually, and encourages ________.

A) platelet plug formation B) agglutination C) the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin D) coagulation E) vascular spasms Answer: E Page Ref: 341 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 24) What is the final step of hemostasis in which the formation of a blood clot is accomplished?

A) Vascular spasms B) Formation of a platelet plug C) Coagulation D) Erythropoiesis E) Agglutination Answer: C Page Ref: 341 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

13 .

25) Which one of the following represents the proper sequence of hemostasis?

A) Platelet plug formation, coagulation, vascular spasm B) Vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation C) Coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation D) Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation E) Coagulation, platelet plug formation, vascular spasm Answer: D Page Ref: 341 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 26) Why do you think Mrs. Gonzalez was prescribed heparin, an anticoagulant?

A) To enhance hematopoiesis B) To inhibit release of erythropoietin C) To enhance the formation of clots D) To increase vascular spasms E) To inhibit the formation of clots Answer: E Page Ref: 342 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 27) Blood normally clots in approximately ________.

A) 1 minute B) 3 to 6 minutes C) 5 to 10 minutes D) 15 minutes E) 30 minutes Answer: B Page Ref: 341 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) What does fibrin contribute to the process of coagulation?

A) Fibrin is an enzyme that joints soluble fibrinogen proteins together.

B) Fibrin forms a meshwork that traps RBCs and forms the basis of the clot.

C) Fibrin causes platelets to become sticky and attracts more platelets to cling to the damaged site.

D) Fibrin promotes vasoconstriction and the resulting spasms of blood vessels.

E) Fibrin promotes the formation of a platelet plug.

Answer: B Page Ref: 341-342 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

14 .

29) What is blood serum?

A) Formed elements and plasma B) Blood plasma minus the clotting proteins C) Blood plasma minus vitamin K D) Erythrocytes and leukocytes E) Leukocytes and platelets Answer: B Page Ref: 341 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) A blood clot traveled to a small vessel in Mr. Zeng's lungs and became lodged there. How should this moving clot be named?

A) An embolus B) Petechiae C) Hemophilia D) A thrombus E) Leukopenia Answer: A Page Ref: 342 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which of the following is a blood clotting disorder?

A) Polycythemia B) Hemophilia C) Leukocytosis D) Leukopenia E) Anemia Answer: B Page Ref: 342-343 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Bleeding disorders can result from the lack of ________.

A) vitamin B12 B) vitamin A C) vitamin C D) vitamin D E) vitamin K Answer: E Page Ref: 342 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

15 .

33) Which of these steps of hemostasis results in the creation of long, hairlike molecules of insoluble fibrin?

A) Platelet plug formation B) The vasoconstriction of the damaged vessel C) The release of tissue factor (TF) by damaged tissues D) The release of serotonin by anchored platelets E) The reaction between thrombin and fibrinogen Answer: E Page Ref: 341 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 34) Which organ is largely responsible for the synthesis of clotting factors?

A) Pancreas B) Thyroid C) Liver D) Spleen E) Kidneys Answer: C Page Ref: 342 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) What does treatment of hemophilia often involve?

A) Transfusion of plasma and vitamin K supplements B) Injections of missing clotting factors and vitamin B12 injections C) Vitamin K supplements only D) Transfusion of plasma or injections of missing clotting factor E) Vitamin K supplements and vitamin B12 injections Answer: D Page Ref: 343 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Severe shock that can be fatal occurs with blood loss exceeding ________.

A) 5 percent B) 10 percent C) 20 percent D) 30 percent E) 50 percent Answer: D Page Ref: 343 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

16 .

37) For a person with blood type A, the body perceives blood type B as a(n) ________.

A) antigen B) hormone C) antibody D) thrombus E) agglutinin Answer: A Page Ref: 343 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) What is the process whereby the binding of antibodies to antigens causes RBCs to clump?

A) Hemostasis B) Coagulation C) Agglutination D) Clotting cascade E) Hemolysis Answer: C Page Ref: 343 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Which blood type contains the A antigen only?

A) Blood type A B) Blood type B C) Blood type AB D) Blood types A and AB E) Blood type O Answer: A Page Ref: 343-344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) The most common type of blood in the U.S. population is ________.

A) A B) B C) AB D) O E) AO Answer: D Page Ref: 344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

17 .

41) Molly has blood type A and her daughter has blood type B. Why can't Molly donate blood to her daughter?

A) Blood types A and B will coagulate during a transfusion.

B) Mothers cannot donate blood to their daughters.

C) Blood type B contains anti-A antibodies, which will agglutinate type A blood.

D) Blood transfusions cannot be performed among relatives.

E) Only fathers can donate blood to their daughters.

Answer: C Page Ref: 343-345 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 42) Hemolysis most likely will occur when ________.

A) an Rh-negative person receives the first transfusion of blood that is Rh positive B) any person receives blood type O during a transfusion C) an Rh-positive person receives the first transfusion of blood that is Rh negative D) an Rh-negative person receives the second transfusion of blood that is Rh positive E) platelets cling to the ruptured endothelium of a blood vessel Answer: D Page Ref: 344, 346 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type O receive?

A) Blood type A B) Blood type B C) Blood type AB D) Blood type O E) Blood type A, B, AB, or O Answer: D Page Ref: 344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) The immune serum used to prevent maternal sensitization to Rh antigens is ________.

A) serotonin B) interleukin C) agglutinin D) RhoGAM E) fibrinogen Answer: D Page Ref: 344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

18 .

45) While cross matching an unknown blood type, agglutination was observed with anti-A serum only. This blood type is ________.

A) blood type A B) blood type B C) blood type AB D) blood type A or AB E) blood type O Answer: A Page Ref: 344, 345-346 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 46) Compatibility testing for agglutination of donor RBCs by the recipients' serum is called ________.

A) blood typing B) transfusion reaction C) cross matching D) hemolysis E) hemodialysis Answer: C Page Ref: 345 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 47) Which of the following blood disorders is more likely to occur as we age?

A) Hemolytic disease of the newborn B) Pernicious anemia C) Sickle cell anemia (SCA) D) Hemophilia E) Physiologic jaundice Answer: B Page Ref: 346 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 48) A separated sample of blood reveals the hematocrit composes 72 percent of the volume of blood while the plasma contributes 38 percent of the blood volume. The buffy coat makes up less than 1 percent of this sample. Which is likely the correct interpretation of these findings?

A) Sickle cell anemia (SCA) B) Hemophilia C) Polycythemia D) Leukopenia E) Pernicious anemia Answer: C Page Ref: 332, 333, 335 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

19 .

49) Assess the following features of a blood cell seen under the microscope to determine the specific type: a large nucleus that occupies the majority of the cell and stains dark blue-purple; cytoplasm is pale blue; and the cell appears to lack granules.

A) Erythrocyte B) Basophil C) Monocyte D) Lymphocyte E) Neutrophil Answer: D Page Ref: 337-338 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 50) While cross matching an unknown blood type, agglutination was observed with neither the anti-A nor the anti-B sera. You evaluate these results to indicate that the unknown blood contains ________.

A) no antigens B) O antigen C) A antigen D) B antigen E) AB antigen Answer: A Page Ref: 344, 345-346 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 10.3

True/False Questions

1) Normal blood pH is between 7.35 and 7.45.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 332 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Erythrocytes make up the majority of the formed elements.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 333-334 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The hematocrit is a measure of how much hemoglobin is housed within RBCs. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 332 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Polycythemia arises from an excess or abnormal increase in the number of white blood cells.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 335 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

20 .

5) Unlike erythrocytes, leukocytes contain a nucleus and the usual complement of organelles, including mitochondria.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 335 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Megakaryocytes are classified as agranulocytes since they lack visible granules in the cytoplasm.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 338 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Both platelets and erythrocytes are anucleate.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 334, 338 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The process of hematopoiesis occurs in the myeloid tissue (red bone marrow).

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 338 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The process of erythropoiesis takes only 3 to 5 days from hemocytoblast to erythrocyte.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 339-340 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Erythropoietin is released to stimulate platelet production in response to inadequate amounts of oxygen in the blood.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 339-340 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Vascular spasms, a part of process of hemostasis, limit blood loss during blood vessel injury.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 341 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Calcium ions are necessary for coagulation to properly occur during hemostasis.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 341 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Blood type A can receive a transfusion from blood types A and AB during a transfusion.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 343-345 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21 .

14) Rh-related problems occur in pregnant Rh- women carrying an Rh+ baby.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Cross matching prevents transfusion reactions by testing for agglutination between donor and recipient blood prior to the transfusion.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 345 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

22 .

10.4

Matching Questions

Match the following function with its blood cell: A) platelet B) leukocyte C) erythrocyte 1) Normal count of these cell fragments is 300,000 cells/mm3 of blood Page Ref: 338 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) These formed elements number 4,800 to 10,800 cells/mm3 of blood Page Ref: 333, 335, 337 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Granulocytes and agranulocytes are classified as types of these cells Page Ref: 336 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Excess of these cells cause polycythemia Page Ref: 335 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Type of cell produced in response to erythropoietin Page Ref: 339-340 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Cell fragments that form from the rupture of a megakaryocyte Page Ref: 338 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Immature form of this cell is called a reticulocyte Page Ref: 339 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Type of cell that is anucleate Page Ref: 334 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Type of cell that averages 5 million cells/mm3 of blood Page Ref: 334 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

23 .

10) Type of cell fragment involved in hemostasis Page Ref: 338, 340 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) A 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) C 6) A 7) C 8) C 9) C 10) A

24 .

Match the following blood types: A) blood type O B) blood type A C) blood type B D) blood type AB 11) The blood type that carries an anti-A antibody only Page Ref: 343-344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The blood type that possesses the A antigen only Page Ref: 343-344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The blood type that can receive blood types B and AB Page Ref: 343-344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The blood type that forms both anti-A and anti-B antibodies Page Ref: 343-344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The most common blood type Page Ref: 344 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The blood type that does not form anti-A or anti-B antibodies Page Ref: 344, 346 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The blood type that can only receive blood types B and O Page Ref: 344-345 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) C

25 .

10.5

Essay Questions

1) Summarize the composition of blood plasma.

Answer: Blood plasma is approximately 90 percent water and forms the liquid part of blood.

Examples of some of the many substances dissolved in plasma are nutrients, salts (electrolytes), respiratory gases, hormones, plasma proteins, and various wastes and products of cell metabolism.

Page Ref: 332 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Discuss why Martina, who has blood type A, cannot receive blood type B during a transfusion.

Answer: Martina has the antigen for A on her red blood cells. During infancy, her body built anti-B antibodies since she lacked that antigen in her blood. If she receives a transfusion of blood type B, her body will already have the anti-B antibodies in place. Agglutination will occur as the anti-B antibodies bind and clump to the foreign B antigen. The red blood cells will undergo hemolysis, hemoglobin will be released into the blood stream, and these events would lead to a transfusion reaction.

Page Ref: 344, 346 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) How would you visually differentiate granulocytes from agranulocytes when viewing them through a microscope?

Answer: WBCs are classified into two major groups–granulocytes and agranulocytes– depending on whether or not they contain visible granules (when stained) in their cytoplasm.

Granulocytes are granule-containing WBCs, named for the granules visible in their cytoplasm when stained with Wright's stain. They have lobed nuclei, which typically consist of several rounded nuclear areas connected by thin strands of nuclear material. The second group of WBCs, agranulocytes, lack visible cytoplasmic granules when stained. Their nuclei are closer to the norm–that is, they are spherical, oval, or kidney-shaped.

Page Ref: 336-338 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Describe the three phases of the normal blood-clotting process.

Answer: Hemostasis involves three major phases. The first phase is the vascular spasm phase, in which serotonin released by the platelets causes the blood vessels to spasm and constrict, thus, decreasing blood loss. The second phase is the platelet plug formation, in which platelets become "sticky" and cling to the site of injury. The third phase is coagulation wherein thromboplastin interacts with PF3 (platelet factor 3) and calcium, as well as other blood proteins, to form an activator that leads to the formation of thrombin. Thrombin joins with fibrinogen to form fibrin, the basis of the clot.

Page Ref: 341 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

26 .

5) Which situation do you predict to prompt the release of more erythropoietin into the blood: anemia or polycythemia? Explain.

Answer: Any decline in the level of oxygen in the blood prompts the kidneys to release more erythropoietin into the blood. Erythropoietin targets the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. Anemia is a decrease in the blood's ability to transport oxygen for any reason while polycythemia is an excessive or abnormal increase in the number of red blood cells. Therefore, anemia would prompt the release of more erythropoietin so that the blood could transport more oxygen. In fact, polycythemia would likely inhibit erythropoietin production by the kidneys.

Page Ref: 335, 339 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Describe the antigens associated with the blood types of the ABO blood group.

Answer: Blood groups are based on the presence or absence of specific surface antigens. The ABO blood group is based on which of two antigens, type A or type B, a person may inherit.

Blood type A has type A antigens, blood type B has type B antigens, while blood type AB has both type A and type B antigens, and blood group O lacks both type A and type B antigens.

Page Ref: 343, 346 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Explain agglutination as it relates to blood groups.

Answer: Antigens are surface proteins found on all cells including blood cells. In the case of blood groups, an individual's blood type reflects the presence or absence of specific antigens. An antigen-antibody response is initiated if the individual receives a transfusion of blood containing antigens that it identifies as being "foreign." Antibodies found in a person's blood bind to the foreign antigen, causing agglutination, or clumping. The antigen-antibody complexes clog the small blood vessels, and the foreign RBCs are lysed, releasing hemoglobin into the bloodstream.

The most serious complication of a transfusion reaction is kidney failure due to blockage of the kidney tubules by the hemoglobin molecules.

Page Ref: 343, 345-346 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Mrs. Litaker was concerned because her baby was born with yellow skin. Name and explain this condition to her.

Answer: This condition is known as physiologic jaundice, and it arises because fetal red blood cells are destroyed at a rate faster than the newborn's liver can rid the body of the hemoglobin breakdown products in bile. This form of jaundice typically causes no major problems.

Page Ref: 346 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

27 .

9) The production rate of new blood cells can slow when a person takes chemotherapy medications to fight cancer. Interpret why a person taking chemotherapy medications may be more at risk for infections.

Answer: If white blood cell populations are replaced at a rate slower than normal, neutrophil populations may decrease. Neutrophils are avid phagocytes at sites of short-term or acute infection. During infection, the number of neutrophils should normally increase rapidly.

However, chemotherapy medications can decrease the populations of neutrophils and increase the risk for infection.

Page Ref: 336-338 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 10) An athlete is using injections of erythropoietin (EPO) for competitive sports. A friend thinks his use of EPO may result in some type of blood disorder. Which is he more likely to develop– anemia or polycythemia? Defend your choice.

Answer: Injections that supply additional erythropoietin will target the bone marrow, prodding it into "high gear" to turn out more RBCs. An excessive or abnormal increase in the number of erythrocytes is polycythemia. Anemia would be an unlikely result due to the excess presence of EPO in the body.

Page Ref: 335, 339-340 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 11) Ms. Moore arrives in the emergency department hemorrhaging blood and in need of an immediate transfusion. She has blood type AB and will receive blood type A during a transfusion. Evaluate this transfusion for compatibility.

Answer: Since she is blood type AB, Ms. Moore carries both the A and B antigens on her RBCs. She has no antibodies against the blood types in the ABO blood group. Blood type A carries the A antigen only (but it does carry anti-B antibodies). In terms of antigen compatibility, Ms. Moore should be able to receive the donation of blood type A. Also, note that blood type AB is considered the "universal recipient," able to receive blood from types A, B, AB, and O. Page Ref: 343-344, 346 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

28 .

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 11 The Cardiovascular System 11.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 11.1, identify the following: 1) The Purkinje fibers are indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: E Page Ref: 359, 360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

1 .

2) The sinoatrial (SA) node is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: A Page Ref: 359, 360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His) is represented by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: C Page Ref: 359, 360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The atrioventricular (AV) node is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: B Page Ref: 359, 360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The bundle branches are indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: D Page Ref: 359, 360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2 .

6) The layer of the heart wall that receives the stimulus from letter E is called the ________.

A) pericardium B) epicardium C) endocardium D) myocardium Answer: D Page Ref: 359, 360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The partition where the bundle branches are located is called the ________.

A) left atrioventricular groove B) interatrial septum C) interventricular septum D) right atrioventricular groove Answer: C Page Ref: 359, 360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The pointed, inferior portion of the heart, known as the ________, rests on the diaphragm and is oriented toward the left hip.

A) Base B) Mediastinum C) Apex D) Pericardium Answer: C Page Ref: 352 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) What part of the heart wall is composed of thin endothelium that lines the heart chambers?

A) Epicardium B) Myocardium C) Fibrous pericardium D) Endocardium Answer: D Page Ref: 353 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The two superior receiving chambers of the heart are known as the ________, while the two inferior discharging chambers of the heart are known as the ________.

A) ventricles; atria B) atria; ventricles C) arteries; veins D) veins; arteries Answer: B Page Ref: 353 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3 .

11) Which valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle?

A) Pulmonary semilunar valve B) Tricuspid valve C) Bicuspid (mitral) valve D) Aortic semilunar valve Answer: B Page Ref: 356 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Blood leaves the left ventricle through an artery known as the ________.

A) pulmonary trunk B) aorta C) superior vena cava D) coronary sinus Answer: B Page Ref: 355 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The transportation of blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs and back to the left side of the heart is known as ________ circulation.

A) systemic B) cardiac C) pulmonary D) coronary Answer: C Page Ref: 355 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) What are the tiny white cords that anchor the cusps of the heart valves to the walls of the ventricles?

A) Chordae tendineae B) Ligamentum arteriosum C) Ductus venosus D) Myocardium Answer: A Page Ref: 356 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Which of the following provides the functional blood supply to oxygenate and nourish the myocardium of the heart?

A) Sinoatrial (SA) node B) Coronary veins C) Right and left coronary arteries D) Superior and inferior venae cavae Answer: C Page Ref: 358 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4 .

16) The walls of the ________ are substantially thicker because that chamber acts as the more powerful systemic pump of the heart.

A) left atrium B) left ventricle C) right atrium D) right ventricle Answer: B Page Ref: 355, 356 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Which valve is closed during heart relaxation to prevent blood from backflowing from the aorta into the heart?

A) Bicuspid (mitral) valve B) Tricuspid valve C) Pulmonary semilunar valve D) Aortic semilunar valve Answer: D Page Ref: 357, 360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which of the following is not a major branch of the coronary arteries?

A) Coronary sulcus B) Marginal artery C) Circumflex artery D) Anterior interventricular artery Answer: A Page Ref: 358 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which of the following vessels does not return blood to the right atrium of the heart?

A) Pulmonary vein B) Inferior vena cava C) Superior vena cava D) Coronary sinus Answer: A Page Ref: 355, 358 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

5 .

20) Which of the following enforces a contraction rate of 75 beats per minute as the pacemaker of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart?

A) Purkinje fibers B) Sinoatrial (SA) node C) Atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His) D) Atrioventricular (AV) node Answer: B Page Ref: 359 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The length of the cardiac cycle is normally ________ second(s) in length.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 0.8 D) 0.3 Answer: C Page Ref: 360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which wave on the electrocardiogram (ECG) results from the firing of the sinoatrial (SA) node?

A) QRS B) T C) P D) S-T Answer: C Page Ref: 362 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) The first heart sound, "lub," is caused by the closure of the ________ valves.

A) semilunar B) pulmonary C) atrioventricular (AV) D) aortic Answer: C Page Ref: 361-362 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which term means heart contraction?

A) Diastole B) Tachycardia C) Systole D) Fibrillation Answer: C Page Ref: 360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6 .

25) Which of the following describes atrial diastole?

A) Contraction of the atria B) All four heart valves are closed C) Contraction of the ventricles D) Ventricles passively filling with blood Answer: D Page Ref: 361 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which phase of the cardiac cycle immediately follows the isovolumetric relaxation phase?

A) Atrial systole B) Ventricular systole C) Isovolumetric contraction phase D) Atrial diastole Answer: D Page Ref: 361 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) What is the volume of blood pumped out of a ventricle with each heartbeat?

A) Heart rate (HR) B) Stroke volume (SV) C) Cardiac output (CO) D) Blood pressure (BP) Answer: B Page Ref: 363 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The vagus nerve operates under the control of the parasympathetic nervous system and causes the ________.

A) heart rate to decrease B) heart rate to increase, then decrease C) heart rate to increase D) blood pressure to increase Answer: A Page Ref: 364 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) In patients with congestive heart failure (CHF), which of the following would you expect to see from a weakened heart?

A) Increased contractility B) Increased heart rate C) Decreased production of epinephrine D) Decreased cardiac output and stroke volume Answer: D Page Ref: 365 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7 .

30) Our vessels lose elasticity as we age, as happens in arteriosclerosis. Which vessel layer is affected?

A) Tunica intima B) Tunica externa C) Tunica media D) Tunica adventitia Answer: C Page Ref: 366, 367 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 31) A phlebotomist places a needle into a vessel to draw blood; this vessel is characterized by thin walls, low pressure, and is a ________.

A) pulmonary artery B) terminal arteriole C) vein D) systemic artery Answer: C Page Ref: 367 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which vessel drains capillary beds?

A) Postcapillary venule B) Precapillary sphincters C) Terminal arterioles D) Systemic arteries Answer: A Page Ref: 368 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Large veins have ________ to prevent the backflow of blood.

A) tunics B) sphincters C) valves D) shunts Answer: C Page Ref: 367 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) What is the flow of blood through a capillary bed called?

A) Pulmonary circulation B) Hepatic portal circulation C) Systemic circulation D) Microcirculation Answer: D Page Ref: 368 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8 .

35) What is the largest artery in the body?

A) Brachiocephalic artery B) Pulmonary trunk C) Aorta D) Common carotid artery Answer: C Page Ref: 369 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) As blood flows from the heart to the right thumb, it does not pass through the ________.

A) right axillary artery B) right vertebral artery C) right brachial artery D) right radial artery Answer: B Page Ref: 369, 370 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 37) What body region is drained by the great saphenous veins?

A) Forearm B) Leg C) Head D) Arm Answer: B Page Ref: 371 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Veins draining the head and arms empty into the ________, which carries blood to the right atrium of the heart.

A) superior vena cava B) inferior vena cava C) common iliac vein D) great saphenous vein Answer: A Page Ref: 371 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) The single vessel that drains blood from the digestive tract organs to the liver is the ________.

A) hepatic vein B) hepatic portal vein C) renal vein D) inferior vena cava Answer: B Page Ref: 373 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Which vessel feeds oxygen-rich blood into the cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis) of the 9 .

brain?

A) External carotid artery B) Internal carotid artery C) External iliac artery D) Subclavian artery Answer: B Page Ref: 373 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) The vessel that carries oxygen-rich and nutrient-rich blood to the fetus is the ________.

A) hepatic portal vein B) umbilical vein C) ductus arteriosus D) umbilical artery Answer: B Page Ref: 384 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) The flaplike opening in the interatrial septum of the fetus through which blood is shunted directly from the right atrium to the left atrium is the ________.

A) ductus arteriosus B) ligamentum arteriosum C) ductus venosus D) foramen ovale Answer: D Page Ref: 384 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Due to the presence of plasma proteins, what pressure draws fluids into capillaries?

A) Blood pressure B) Systolic pressure C) Osmotic pressure D) Diastolic pressure Answer: C Page Ref: 383 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) The alternating expansion and recoil of an artery that occurs with each beat of the left ventricle creates a pressure wave known as a ________.

A) cardiac output B) pulse C) pressure point D) stroke volume Answer: B Page Ref: 375 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10 .

45) Which of the following will promote vasodilation?

A) Angiotensin II B) Exercise C) Epinephrine D) Heat Answer: D Page Ref: 379, 380 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) Sustained elevated arterial blood pressure above 140/90 mm Hg is a condition known as ________.

A) hypertension (high blood pressure) B) orthostatic hypotension C) circulatory shock D) myocardial infarction Answer: A Page Ref: 380 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 47) What lowers the risk of coronary artery disease?

A) Smoking B) Regular, moderate exercise C) Sedentary lifestyle D) High fat diet Answer: B Page Ref: 384 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

11 .

11.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) The heart is situated within the medial section of the thoracic cavity known as the ________.

A) mediastinum B) hiatus C) pleural cavity D) hilus E) diaphragm Answer: A Page Ref: 352 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The layer of the heart wall synonymous with the visceral layer of the serous pericardium is ________.

A) myocardium B) endocardium C) epicardium D) parietal layer of the serous pericardium E) either endocardium or epicardium Answer: C Page Ref: 352-353 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Pulmonary circulation involves blood flow to and from the heart and the ________.

A) body B) digestive organs C) skin D) lungs E) brain Answer: D Page Ref: 355 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which vessels return oxygen-rich blood to the left atrium of the heart?

A) Pulmonary arteries B) Superior vena cava C) Aorta D) Pulmonary veins E) Inferior vena cava Answer: D Page Ref: 355 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

12 .

5) In a condition known as cardiac tamponade, excess serous fluid can build up around the heart in the pericardial cavity. Between what two layers is this fluid located?

A) Fibrous pericardium and parietal pericardium B) Epicardium and endocardium C) Visceral pericardium and epicardium D) Parietal pericardium and visceral pericardium E) Epicardium and myocardium Answer: D Page Ref: 352-354 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) What structure divides the left ventricle from the right ventricle?

A) Interventricular septum B) Interatrial septum C) Bicuspid valve D) Tricuspid valve E) Chordae tendineae Answer: A Page Ref: 353, 355 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) An incompetent aortic semilunar valve would allow blood to backflow from the ________.

A) right ventricle to the right atrium B) left ventricle to the left atrium C) aorta to the left ventricle D) aorta to the left atrium E) pulmonary trunk to the left ventricle Answer: C Page Ref: 357, 358 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) When the right ventricle contracts, which specific valve closes to prevent blood from flowing into the right atrium?

A) Mitral valve B) Pulmonary semilunar valve C) Aortic semilunar valve D) Biscuspid valve E) Tricuspid valve Answer: E Page Ref: 356-358 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

13 .

9) The atrioventricular valves are closed when ________.

A) atrial pressure is greater than ventricular pressure B) the atria contract C) the ventricles fill with blood D) atrial pressure is less than ventricular pressure E) atrial systole occurs Answer: D Page Ref: 356-358 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which one of the following blood vessels carries oxygen-rich blood?

A) Superior vena cava B) Inferior vena cava C) Coronary sinus D) Pulmonary artery E) Pulmonary vein Answer: E Page Ref: 355 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Which valve guards the base of the aorta and opens when the ventricles are contracting?

A) Mitral valve B) Aortic semilunar valve C) Bicuspid valve D) Pulmonary semilunar valve E) Tricuspid valve Answer: B Page Ref: 357-358 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Which system causes heart muscle to depolarize, atria first and then the ventricles?

A) Somatic nervous system B) Sympathetic nervous system C) Autonomic nervous system D) Endocrine system E) Intrinsic conduction system (nodal system) Answer: E Page Ref: 359 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

14 .

13) The sinoatrial (SA) node is located in the ________.

A) aorta B) right atrium C) left atrium D) right ventricle E) interventricular septum Answer: B Page Ref: 360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Which one of the following represents the correct path for the transmission of an impulse in the intrinsic conduction system of the heart?

A) Atrioventricular (AV) node, sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His), right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers B) Atrioventricular (AV) node, atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His), sinoatrial (SA) node, Purkinje fibers, right and left bundle branches C) Sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His), atrioventricular (AV) node, Purkinje fibers, right and left bundle branches D) Sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His), atrioventricular (AV) node, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers E) Sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) node, atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His), right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers Answer: E Page Ref: 360 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15) Which vessel carries oxygen-poor blood from cardiac circulation to the right atrium of the heart?

A) Coronary sulcus B) Coronary artery C) Coronary sinus D) Circumflex artery E) Pulmonary vein Answer: C Page Ref: 358 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) All four heart valves are briefly closed as pressure begins to rise in the ventricles, a phase known as ________.

A) atrial systole B) isovolumetric contraction C) ventricular systole D) atrial diastole E) isovolumetric relaxation Answer: B Page Ref: 361 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15 .

17) The pulmonary semilunar valve is normally open during ________.

A) atrial diastole B) isovolumetric contraction phase C) ventricular systole D) atrial systole E) isovolumetric relaxation phase Answer: C Page Ref: 361 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Cardiac output is the product of which two variables?

A) Heart rate and blood pressure B) Heart rate and stroke volume C) Contraction and relaxation D) Diastole and systole E) Blood pressure and peripheral resistance Answer: B Page Ref: 363 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The normal resting stroke volume is ________.

A) 150 ml B) 5.25 L/min C) 70 ml D) 75 beats/min E) 120 ml Answer: C Page Ref: 363 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The ability of the heart muscle to generate tension is known as ________.

A) distensibility B) cardiac output C) preload D) afterload E) contractility Answer: E Page Ref: 363 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

16 .

21) The path of blood flow within the systemic vascular system is ________.

A) arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, venules, veins B) arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, veins, venules C) arterioles, arteries, venules, veins, capillary beds D) arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, veins, venules E) arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, venules, veins Answer: E Page Ref: 365 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 22) You notice a missing P wave on a patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) and believe there is a problem with the ________.

A) atrioventricular (AV) node B) Purkinje fibers C) left bundle branch D) atrioventricular (AV) bundle E) sinoatrial (SA) node Answer: E Page Ref: 362 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 23) Which of the following increases heart rate?

A) Low levels of calcium B) Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation C) Vagus nerve stimulation D) Cold E) Epinephrine Answer: E Page Ref: 363-365 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Veins ________.

A) carry blood away from the heart B) branch into smaller vessels called arterioles C) transport oxygen-rich blood D) operate under high pressure E) often have valves to prevent the backflow of blood Answer: E Page Ref: 365, 367 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

17 .

25) Which type of vessel is constructed only from tunica intima?

A) Arteries B) Arterioles C) Capillaries D) Veins E) Venules Answer: C Page Ref: 368 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) The correct sequence of layers of a typical blood vessel, from superficial to deep, are ________.

A) tunica media, tunica intima, tunica externa B) tunica media, tunica externa, tunica intima C) tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima D) tunica externa, tunica intima, tunica media E) tunica intima, tunica media, tunica externa Answer: C Page Ref: 366-367 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 27) Which of the following is the pathway the aorta takes as it exits the heart?

A) Ascending aorta, aortic arch, abdominal aorta, thoracic aorta B) Aortic arch, ascending aorta, thoracic aorta, abdominal aorta C) Ascending aorta, thoracic aorta, aortic arch, abdominal aorta D) Ascending aorta, aortic arch, thoracic aorta, abdominal aorta E) Aortic arch, thoracic aorta, ascending aorta, abdominal aorta Answer: D Page Ref: 369 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which one of the following does not receive blood directly from the aortic arch?

A) Brachiocephalic artery B) Left subclavian artery C) Left common carotid artery D) Right common carotid artery E) Thoracic aorta Answer: D Page Ref: 369 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

18 .

29) Which of the following arteries is the first branch of the abdominal aorta?

A) Splenic artery B) Superior mesenteric artery C) Celiac trunk D) Femoral artery E) Hepatic artery Answer: C Page Ref: 369 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which of these pathways correctly traces blood as it travels from the aortic arch to the left arm?

A) Aortic arch, brachiocephalic trunk, right common carotid artery B) Aortic arch, left common carotid artery, left internal carotid artery C) Aortic arch, left subclavian artery, left axillary artery, left brachial artery D) Ascending aorta, right coronary arteries E) Abdominal aorta, celiac trunk, left gastric artery Answer: C Page Ref: 369 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 31) The external carotid artery serves the skin and muscles of the head and ________.

A) armpit B) groin C) neck D) abdomen E) leg Answer: C Page Ref: 369 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which vein drains blood into the superior vena cava?

A) Brachiocephalic vein B) Renal vein C) Hepatic portal vein D) Common iliac vein E) Great saphenous vein Answer: A Page Ref: 371 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

19 .

33) Which vein returns blood to the femoral vein?

A) Popliteal vein B) Common iliac vein C) Superior vena cava D) Hepatic portal vein E) External iliac vein Answer: A Page Ref: 371 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) What statement best describes the hepatic portal system?

A) Since the lungs and digestive system are immature and not functioning in a fetus, all nutrient, excretory, and gas exchanges occur through the placenta.

B) Nutrients and toxins picked up from capillaries in the stomach and intestine are transported to the spleen and pancreas via the celiac trunk.

C) Oxygen-rich blood is carried to the liver through the hepatic artery.

D) The cerebral arterial circle protects the brain by providing more than one route for blood to reach brain tissue in case of a clot or an impaired blood flow anywhere in the system.

E) Nutrients and toxins picked up from capillaries in the stomach and intestine are transported to the liver for processing via the hepatic portal vein.

Answer: E Page Ref: 373, 375 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) The brachial vein ________.

A) drains blood from the radial and ulnar veins, then empties that blood into the axillary vein B) drains blood from the internal jugular vein, then empties that blood into the superior vena cava C) drains blood from the popliteal vein, then empties that blood into the external iliac vein D) drains blood from the axillary vein, then empties that blood into the superior vena cava E) drains blood from the popliteal vein, then empties that blood into the femoral vein Answer: A Page Ref: 371 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) What does the umbilical vein carry?

A) Metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide from the fetus to the placenta B) Metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide from the placenta to the fetus C) Oxygen and nutrients from the fetus to the placenta D) Oxygen and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus E) Blood from the navel into the inferior vena cava Answer: D Page Ref: 384 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

20 .

37) Which fetal shunt bypasses the lungs by directly connecting the right atrium and the left atrium?

A) Ligamentum arteriosum B) Umbilical vein C) Foramen ovale D) Ductus arteriosus E) Ductus venosus Answer: C Page Ref: 384 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) What can be palpated at a pressure point?

A) Peripheral resistance B) Pulse C) Osmotic pressure D) Cardiac output E) Stroke volume Answer: B Page Ref: 375 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Which of the following vessels has the lowest blood pressure?

A) Veins B) Capillaries C) Venae cavae D) Arteries E) Arterioles Answer: C Page Ref: 376-377 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) The friction blood encounters as it flows through the vessels is called ________.

A) cardiac output B) stroke volume C) peripheral resistance D) blood pressure E) diastolic pressure Answer: C Page Ref: 377-378 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

21 .

41) What can we infer from the following: 110/70 mm Hg? A) Diastolic pressure measurement over systolic pressure measurement B) Cardiac output over peripheral resistance C) Systolic pressure measurement over diastolic pressure measurement D) Blood pressure over osmotic pressure E) Heart rate over stroke volume Answer: C Page Ref: 377 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) Which of the following hormones promotes sodium ion (and water) reabsorption by the kidney in order to increase blood pressure and blood volume?

A) Glucagon B) Thyroxine C) Epinephrine D) Aldosterone E) Antidiuretic hormone Answer: D Page Ref: 380 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which of the following is not a method or pathway of movement for substances traveling across a capillary wall?

A) Diffusion through intercellular clefts B) Direct diffusion through the plasma membrane C) Transport via vesicles by endocytosis or exocytosis D) Active transport using proteins and ATP E) Diffusion through the pores of fenestrated capillaries Answer: D Page Ref: 382 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) Substances tend to leave the bloodstream at the arterial end of the capillary because ________.

A) osmotic pressure is higher than blood pressure at the arterial end of the capillary B) osmotic pressure is higher than blood pressure at the venule end of the capillary C) blood pressure is higher than osmotic pressure at the arterial end of the capillary D) blood pressure is higher than osmotic pressure at the venule end of the capillary E) interstitial pressure is higher than osmotic pressure at the arterial end of the capillary Answer: C Page Ref: 383 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

22 .

45) Coronary artery disease results from ________.

A) persistent parasympathetic nervous system stimulation of the heart B) the accumulation of fatty, calcified deposits within blood vessels C) temporary loss of oxygen to the heart D) incompetent venous valves E) scar tissue in the myocardium of the heart from repeated myocardial infarctions Answer: B Page Ref: 384 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) A patient who experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) sustained damage to the intrinsic conduction system. Since the nerve impulse still reaches the atria, but does not reach either ventricle, assess the location of the damage.

A) Purkinje fibers B) Sinoatrial (SA) node C) Left bundle branch D) Atrioventricular (AV) node E) Right bundle branch Answer: D Page Ref: 359-360 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 47) Patients with a condition called POTS (postural orthostatic tachycardia syncope) can have a variety of symptoms, including an elevated heart rate upon standing. In some cases, blood vessels do not adequately constrict upon standing. Deduce which part of the vessel is responsible.

A) Tunica intima B) Tunica externa C) Endothelium D) Lumen E) Tunica media Answer: E Page Ref: 367 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 48) Pain can overstimulate the vagus nerve. Appraise the following, and determine the likely outcome for an overstimulated vagus nerve.

A) Heart rate slows.

B) Stroke volume increases.

C) Contractile force of cardiac muscle increases.

D) Blood pressure increases.

E) Venous return increases.

Answer: A Page Ref: 364 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

23 .

11.3

True/False Questions

1) The heart is enclosed by three membranes: an outer fibrous layer and an inner serous membrane pair.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 352-353 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Blood is returned to the right side of the heart from the lungs.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 355 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The chordae tendineae anchor the semilunar valves to the walls of the ventricles.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 356 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The functional blood supply that oxygenates the myocardium is provided by the right and left coronary arteries.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 358 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Chordae tendineae anchor the semilunar valves and prevent them from inverting during heart contraction.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 356-358 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The sinoatrial (SA) node is the pacemaker of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 359-360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) During ventricular systole, blood is ejected from the ventricles through the large arteries connected to the heart.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 361 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The heart sounds, "lub" and "dup," occur when the atria contract and subsequently when the ventricles contract.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 361-362 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24 .

9) The part of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart that directly transmits impulses to the walls of the ventricles is the Purkinje fibers.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 359-360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The QRS wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) is representative of ventricular repolarization.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 362 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) .The average length of the cardiac cycle is 0.8 seconds.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) During ventricular systole, the bicuspid and tricuspid (mitral) valves are closed.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 361 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart in one minute.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 363 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Reductions in venous return cause reductions in both stroke volume and cardiac output.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 363 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) An increased firing of the parasympathetic nervous system causes increased cardiac output.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 364 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) From innermost to outermost, the three layers of a vessel, with the exception of capillaries, are the tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica externa.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 366-367 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Varicose veins result from overworked valves that give way and cause the veins to be twisted and dilated.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 368 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25 .

18) Exchanges between blood and tissue cells occur in capillary beds.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 368 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) When precapillary sphincters are contracted and closed, blood flows through the shunts and bypasses the tissue cells in that region.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 368 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The aorta is the largest artery in the body and the different parts are known as the ascending aorta, aortic arch, thoracic aorta, and the abdominal aorta.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 369 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The three branches of the aortic arch are the brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid artery, and the left subclavian artery.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 369 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) The renal veins carry oxygen-rich blood to the kidneys.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 371, 373 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) The radial and ulnar veins ultimately drain into the superior vena cava.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 371 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The inferior vena cava returns blood to the heart from all body regions above the diaphragm.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 371 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) The veins of the hepatic portal circulation drain the digestive organs, spleen, and pancreas and deliver this blood to the liver through the hepatic portal vein.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 373 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

26 .

26) The cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis) involves blood flow through the liver.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 373 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) The major vessels involved in hepatic portal circulation are the inferior and superior mesenteric arteries, the splenic artery, and the left gastric artery.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 373 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The umbilical vein carries blood rich in nutrients and oxygen to the fetus.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 384 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) In fetal circulation, blood travels directly from the right atrium to the left atrium through the foramen ovale.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 384 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) A blood pressure reading of 120/80 mm Hg is written with diastolic pressure over systolic pressure.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 377 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Blood pressure is highest in the arteries and declines to zero or negative pressure in the vena cavae.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 376-377 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Hypotension is diastolic blood pressure below 100 mm Hg. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 380 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Blood cells and proteins typically cannot pass across the walls of capillaries and are thus prevented from leaving or entering the capillaries.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 382 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

27 .

11.4

Matching Questions

Match the following: A) left ventricle B) right ventricle C) left atrium D) right atrium 1) Heart chamber with the thickest wall Page Ref: 353 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Inferior discharging chamber on the left side of the heart Page Ref: 353 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Heart chamber that pumps blood to the pulmonary trunk Page Ref: 353, 355 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Heart chamber that contains the sinoatrial node Page Ref: 353, 360 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The bicuspid (mitral) valve is situated between the left atrium and this chamber Page Ref: 356 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The coronary sinus empties blood from cardiac circulation into this chamber Page Ref: 358 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The four pulmonary veins return oxygen-rich blood to this chamber Page Ref: 355 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The interatrial septum separates the right atrium from this chamber Page Ref: 353, 355 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) A 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) C

28 .

Match the following: A) QRS wave B) P wave C) T wave 9) Wave seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) representing ventricular depolarization Page Ref: 362 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Wave visible on the electrocardiogram (ECG) representing atrial depolarization Page Ref: 362 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Wave visible on the electrocardiogram (ECG) representing ventricular repolarization Page Ref: 362 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Wave on the electrocardiogram (ECG) that follows the firing of the sinoatrial (SA) node Page Ref: 362 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) B

29 .

Match the following: A) ventricular systole B) isovolumetric relaxation C) atrial diastole D) isovolumetric contraction E) atrial systole 13) Atria contract and pressure in the heart rises Page Ref: 360-361 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Ventricles relax; all four heart valves are closed.

Page Ref: 360-361 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The atrioventricular (AV) valves are open as blood passively fills the ventricles Page Ref: 360-361 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Atria relax as the ventricles begin to contract; all four heart valves are closed Page Ref: 360-361 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Atrioventricular (AV) valves shut preventing the backflow of blood into the atria Page Ref: 360-361 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Ventricular contraction; semilunar valves open and blood leave s the heart Page Ref: 360-361 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 13) E 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) D 18) A

30 .

Match the following: A) capillaries B) veins C) arteries 19) These vessels carry blood away from the heart Page Ref: 365 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) These vessels return blood to the heart Page Ref: 366 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Superior and inferior vena cava are classified as these types of vessels Page Ref: 355, 371 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) The aorta is classified as one of these vessels Page Ref: 355, 369 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) These vessels have thicker walls and a heavier tunica media Page Ref: 366, 367 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Microcirculation occurs in these vessels Page Ref: 368 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Due to low pressure in these vessels, skeletal muscle activity aids the return of blood by milking it along in these vessels toward the heart Page Ref: 367 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) These vessels have thinner walls and transport oxygen-poor blood Page Ref: 367 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Some of these larger vessels have valves to prevent backflow Page Ref: 367 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Venules drain these tiny beds of vessels Page Ref: 368 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 19) C 20) B 21) B 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) B 27) B 28) A 31 .

11.5

Essay Questions

1) Trace the path of a drop of blood, starting at the right atrium and returning to the right atrium, through the pulmonary and systemic circuits of the cardiovascular system. Identify the chambers, valves, and vessels (except specific systemic blood vessels that are not directly associated with the heart), and indicate whether the blood is oxygen-rich or oxygen-poor in each area.

Answer: Oxygen-poor blood in the right atrium, oxygen-poor blood through the tricuspid valve, oxygen-poor blood in the right ventricle, oxygen-poor blood through the pulmonary semilunar valve, oxygen-poor blood in the pulmonary trunk, oxygen-poor blood in the right and left pulmonary arteries, oxygen-poor blood in the pulmonary capillaries in the lungs, oxygen-rich blood in the pulmonary veins, oxygen-rich blood in the left atrium, oxygen-rich blood through the bicuspid (mitral) valve, oxygen-rich blood in the left ventricle, oxygen-rich blood through the aortic semilunar valve, oxygen-rich blood in the aorta, oxygen-rich blood in the systemic arteries, oxygen-rich blood in the systemic arterioles, oxygen-rich blood in the systemic capillaries, oxygen-poor blood in the systemic venules, oxygen-poor blood in the systemic veins, oxygen-poor blood in the superior and inferior vena cavae and the coronary sinus, oxygen-poor blood in the right atrium.

Page Ref: 353-356 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Contrast the role of the sinoatrial (SA) node with that of the atrioventricular (AV) node as parts of the intrinsic conduction system (nodal system).

Answer: The sinoatrial (SA) node is located in the right atrium of the heart. Since it starts the heartbeat and sets the pace for the whole heart, it is often called the pacemaker. The impulse from the SA node spreads through the atrial walls to the atrioventricular (AV) node, and then the atria contract. By contrast, the AV node pauses after it receives the impulse from the SA node to give the atria time to finish contracting. The nerve impulse then passes through the remainder of the intrinsic conduction system and serves to promote ventricular contraction.

Page Ref: 360 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Amanda is exercising and noticed her heart rate has nearly doubled from her resting heart rate of 68 beats per minute. Explain how her increased heart rate will impact cardiac output.

Answer: Cardiac output (CO) is the product of the heart rate (HR) and the stroke volume (SV).

When heart rate increases, as is the case for Amanda since she is exercising, the cardiac output will also increase. Exercise is a physical factor that leads to this increase.

Page Ref: 363-365 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

32 .

4) Describe how arteries, capillaries, and veins are structurally different.

Answer: Arterial walls are thicker, heavier, stronger, and stretchy enough to handle expansion and recoil as blood under high pressure is transported. Veins have thinner walls; these vessels operate under low or even negative pressure. The lumens of veins are larger than those of corresponding arteries. Veins also have valves to prevent the backflow of blood. Capillaries are composed of only the tunica intima and are only one cell layer thick.

Page Ref: 366-367 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Explain what is meant by a blood pressure reading of 120/80 mm Hg. Answer: Blood pressure is reported in millimeters of mercury (mm Hg) with the higher systolic pressure (120 mm Hg) written first. The pressure reading of 120/80 translates to a systolic pressure of 120 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure of 80 mm Hg. Systolic pressure is the pressure in the arteries at the peak of ventricular contraction while diastolic pressure is the pressure in the arteries when the ventricles are relaxing.

Page Ref: 377 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Name two shunts that bypass the lungs in a fetus. Briefly explain the structures these shunts connect.

Answer: 1. The foramen ovale is a flap-like opening between the right atrium and the left atrium of the fetal heart. Some of the blood entering the right atrium flows directly into the left atrium, bypassing pulmonary circulation.

2. The ductus arteriosus is a vessel connecting the pulmonary trunk and the aorta. Blood that happens to enter the right ventricle is pumped into the pulmonary trunk, supposedly on its way to the lungs. However, that blood is transported from the pulmonary trunk through ductus arteriosus into the aorta.

Page Ref: 384 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Describe the two types of pressures controlling fluid movement in a capillary bed. Explain the role of each pressure in fluid movement.

Answer: Blood pressure forces fluids and solutes out of capillaries while osmotic pressure pulls fluid back into capillaries. Osmotic pressure is created by plasma proteins in the blood. At the arterial end of the capillary, blood pressure is higher than osmotic pressure, so fluids and solutes are pushed out of the capillary and into the interstitial space. As fluid is forced out of the capillary, blood pressure drops. Therefore, at the venous end of the capillary, osmotic pressure is higher than blood pressure so fluid is pulled back into the capillary from the interstitial space at the venous end.

Page Ref: 383 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

33 .

8) Joann has aortic valve stenosis. Will her condition primarily affect pulmonary circulation or systemic circulation? Support your selection with an explanation.

Answer: In valvular stenosis, the valve cusps become stiff, often because of repeated bacterial infection of the endocardium (endocarditis). This forces the heart to contract more vigorously than normal to create enough pressure to drive blood through the narrowed valve. Since the aortic semilunar valve is the affected valve, systemic circulation will mainly be affected. This circulation is a blood flow pathway from the left ventricle of the heart, to the body, and back to the right atrium.

Page Ref: 355, 358 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 9) Alcohol inhibits the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the posterior pituitary.

Evaluate the impact of alcohol on cardiac output.

Answer: Recall that antidiuretic hormone (ADH) promotes water retention from forming urine.

Since alcohol inhibits the secretion of ADH, more water will be lost in the urine and less water will be reabsorbed back into the blood. Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart in one minute. As a result of the presence of alcohol in one's blood, cardiac output will decrease.

Page Ref: 363 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 10) Hypovolemic shock can result from severe dehydration when both water and salt are lost from the blood. In this situation, blood loss leads to loss of cardiac output and a loss of blood pressure.

Will the parasympathetic division or the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system respond to correct low blood pressure? Defend your selection.

Answer: When blood pressure is low, the sympathetic nervous system responds by strongly stimulating the SA and AV nodes and the cardiac muscle itself. As a result, the heartbeats more rapidly and stroke volume increases. When stroke volume increases, so will cardiac output and blood pressure.

Page Ref: 363-365, 377 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

34 .

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 12 The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses 12.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 12.1, identify the following: 1) A lymph capillary is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: D Page Ref: 393 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

1 .

2) A lymph node is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: B Page Ref: 393 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The lymph duct is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: A Page Ref: 393 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Blood capillaries are indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: E Page Ref: 393 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Lymphatic collecting vessels are indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D E) Label E Answer: C Page Ref: 393 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2 .

Using Figure 12.2, identify the following: 6) The spleen is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: C Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

3 .

7) The tonsils are indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: A Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The thymus is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: B Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The Peyer's patches are indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: D Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The lymphoid organ that destroys worn-out blood cells is indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: C Page Ref: 396, 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The lymphoid tissues that trap and remove bacteria that enter the throat are indicated by ________.

A) Label A B) Label B C) Label C D) Label D Answer: A Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4 .

12) Fluids that have escaped the cardiovascular system are picked up by the ________.

A) respiratory system B) lymphatic system C) endocrine system D) immune system Answer: B Page Ref: 392 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Excess accumulation of fluid, which impairs the exchange of materials within the tissues, is called ________.

A) stroke B) shock C) edema D) MALT (mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue) Answer: C Page Ref: 393 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) What makes lymph capillaries different from blood capillaries?

A) Lymph capillaries are characterized by the presence of flap-like mini valves.

B) Lymph capillaries consistently operate under high pressure.

C) Lymph capillaries transport both blood and lymph.

D) Lymph capillaries propel lymph by using a high-pressure pump.

Answer: A Page Ref: 393 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Bacteria and tumor cells are removed from lymph by ________.

A) lymph nodes B) tonsils C) the spleen D) thymus Answer: A Page Ref: 394 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The role of the ________ is to trap and remove bacteria or other foreign pathogens entering the throat.

A) thymus B) spleen C) tonsils D) lymph node Answer: C Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5 .

17) Peyer's patches and the tonsils are part of the collection of small lymphoid tissues that protect the upper respiratory and digestive tracts from infection and are referred to as ________.

A) lymph nodes B) MALT or mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue C) germinal centers D) lymphatics Answer: B Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which of the following are harmful or disease-causing microorganisms from which nonspecific defenses protect the body?

A) Macrophages B) Antibodies C) Pathogens D) Allergens Answer: C Page Ref: 398 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which of the following is mismatched?

A) Innate (nonspecific defense mechanisms): first and second lines of defense B) Third line of defense: natural killer cells and antimicrobial proteins C) Second line of defense: phagocytic cells and inflammatory response and fever D) First line of defense: skin and mucous membranes Answer: B Page Ref: 398 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) What mediates the adaptive defense system (specific defense system)?

A) Lymphocytes B) Antigens C) Mucous membranes D) Pathogens Answer: A Page Ref: 405, 406 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The binding of complement proteins to certain sugar or proteins on a foreign cell's surface is called ________.

A) cellular immunity (cellular-mediated immunity) B) complement fixation C) positive chemotaxis D) diapedesis Answer: B Page Ref: 399, 403-404 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6 .

22) What small proteins are secreted by virus-infected cells to help defend cells that have not yet been infected?

A) Haptens B) Pyrogens C) Interferons D) Antigens Answer: C Page Ref: 404 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) What chemical do white blood cells and macrophages secrete to raise body temperature and induce fever?

A) Complements B) Haptens C) Interferons D) Pyrogens Answer: D Page Ref: 404-405 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which of the following is least likely to provoke an immune response?

A) Haptens B) Nonself-antigens C) Self-antigens D) Incomplete antigens Answer: C Page Ref: 406 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) T cells or B cells that are capable of responding to a specific antigen by binding to it with antigen-specific receptors that appear on the lymphocyte's surface are considered ________.

A) clones B) complement C) self-tolerant D) immunocompetent Answer: D Page Ref: 407 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

7 .

26) Which of the following is not a cell that behaves as an antigen-presenting cell (APC)?

A) Virus B) B lymphocytes C) Macrophages D) Dendritic cells Answer: A Page Ref: 408 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which of the following provides active immunity that is artificially acquired?

A) Vaccines B) Serum C) Antivenom D) Antitoxin Answer: A Page Ref: 410-411 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Antibodies provided by serum from an immune donor or an animal donor do not challenge the B cells and thus provide ________.

A) cellular or cell-mediated immunity B) active immunity C) natural immunity D) passive immunity Answer: D Page Ref: 410-411 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) What is the region of the antibody that varies from antibody to antibody?

A) Regional or R region B) Variable or V region C) Constant or C region D) Stable or S region Answer: B Page Ref: 411-412 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Antibody binding that tags an antigen on a cellular target for phagocytosis is known as ________.

A) neutralization B) opsonization C) precipitation D) agglutination Answer: B Page Ref: 412 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8 .

31) What type of cell specializes in killing virus-infected, cancer, or foreign graft cells directly?

A) Cytotoxic T cells B) Regulatory T cells C) Antigen-presenting cells D) Helper T cells Answer: A Page Ref: 415 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Arnav will need a skin graft to cover the hole where his basal cell carcinoma is removed. His surgeon will use a piece of skin from behind his ear to create the skin graft. This type of graft is a(n) ________.

A) xenograft B) autograft C) allograft D) isograft Answer: B Page Ref: 420 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 33) Sheldon experiences difficulty breathing when he eats peanuts. Recently, he had a cookie that contained peanuts and developed a systemic acute allergic reaction known as ________.

A) myasthenia gravis B) rheumatic fever C) anaphylactic shock D) delayed hypersensitivity Answer: C Page Ref: 422 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 34) AIDS cripples the immune system by interfering with the activity of cells called ________.

A) antigen-presenting cells B) plasma cells C) memory cells D) helper T cells Answer: D Page Ref: 423, 424-425 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Developmentally, what is the origin of lymphatic vessels?

A) Veins of the blood vascular system B) The organs of the digestive system C) Arteries of the blood vascular system D) The glands of the endocrine system Answer: A Page Ref: 424 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9 .

12.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) Lymph is largely composed of water that has escaped from ________.

A) cytosol B) cerebrospinal fluid C) saliva D) tears E) blood Answer: E Page Ref: 392, 393 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) From what part of the body does the right lymphatic duct collect lymph?

A) Right arm B) Right leg C) Left leg D) Left side of the head E) Right and left legs Answer: A Page Ref: 394 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which blood vessels receive lymph from the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct?

A) Inferior vena cava B) Subclavian veins C) External jugular veins D) Subclavian arteries E) Aorta Answer: B Page Ref: 394 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which one of the following is not a mechanism that aids lymph return to the heart?

A) Milking action of skeletal muscles B) Pressure changes within the thorax C) The pumping action of the heart D) Smooth muscle contractions within the lymphatic vessels E) Presence of valves within the larger lymph vessels Answer: C Page Ref: 394 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

10 .

5) Within a lymph node, what cells engulf and destroy bacteria, viruses, and other foreign substances in the lymph?

A) Trabeculae B) Macrophages C) Follicles D) Erythrocytes E) Lymphocytes Answer: B Page Ref: 395 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which of the following is not a lymphoid organ?

A) Thyroid gland B) Spleen C) Thymus gland D) Appendix E) Peyer's patches Answer: A Page Ref: 396-397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Jill felt small, swollen structures under her chin in her neck during a recent head cold. She probably had swollen ________.

A) axillary lymph nodes B) cervical lymph nodes C) tonsils D) Peyer's patches E) inguinal lymph nodes Answer: B Page Ref: 395-396 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) Which of the following lymphoid organs functions at peak level during youth?

A) Peyer's patches B) Lymph nodes C) Thymus D) Spleen E) Tonsils Answer: C Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

11 .

9) What lymphoid organ stores platelets and acts as a blood reservoir?

A) Thymus B) Spleen C) Appendix D) Tonsils E) Peyer's patches Answer: B Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Where are the tonsils located?

A) Throat (pharynx) B) Small intestine C) Large intestine D) Overlying the heart E) Left side of the abdominal cavity Answer: A Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) If you cut up raw chicken meat that houses potentially harmful bacteria, which barrier from your first line of defense provides protection?

A) Cilia B) Phagocytes C) Mucus D) Lysozymes E) Acid mantle Answer: E Page Ref: 398-400 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) How do natural killer (NK) cells protect the body?

A) Encourage a fever B) Engulf pathogens C) Promote cell lysis D) Fix complement E) Make antibodies Answer: C Page Ref: 399, 400 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

12 .

13) What is the body's first line of defense against the invasion of disease-causing microorganisms?

A) Phagocytes B) Natural killer (NK) cells C) Skin and mucous membranes D) Inflammatory response E) Fever Answer: C Page Ref: 398-400 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Declan was bitten by a number of ants. He has taken an antihistamine to reduce the redness and swelling associated with the ant bites. What will his antihistamine prevent?

A) Complement fixation B) Opsonization C) Inflammatory response D) Neutralization E) Antibody-mediated immunity Answer: C Page Ref: 400, 401 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15) Which of the following is not one of the nonspecific body defenses?

A) Intact skin B) Antibody production C) The inflammatory response D) Fever E) Natural killer (NK) cells Answer: B Page Ref: 399, 400-405 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The process by which neutrophils are squeezed through the capillary walls during the inflammatory process is called ________.

A) Agglutination B) Chemotaxis C) Diapedesis D) Coagulation E) Antibody production Answer: C Page Ref: 402 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

13 .

17) Which of the following is not one of the four most common indicators of the inflammatory response?

A) Redness B) Heat C) Swelling D) Chills E) Pain Answer: D Page Ref: 400, 401 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which of the following best describes positive chemotaxis?

A) The movement of neutrophils through capillary walls B) The movement of cells toward a high concentration of signaling molecules C) The dilation of blood vessels, which causes local edema D) The release of a lytic chemical by perforins E) The limitation of joint movement Answer: B Page Ref: 400 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The inflammatory process begins with release of chemicals, which do all of the following except ________.

A) dilate blood vessels B) attract neutrophils to the area C) stimulate the release of lysozyme D) cause capillaries to become leaky E) activate pain receptors Answer: C Page Ref: 400-402 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Membrane attack complexes (MAC) form holes in attacked cells causing them to burst; this is a result of ________.

A) interferon B) complement fixation C) natural killer (NK) cells D) keratin E) phagocytes Answer: B Page Ref: 404 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

14 .

21) What does fever accomplish?

A) Fever inhibits bacterial reproduction and speeds the repair process.

B) Fever promotes cell lysis by direct cell attack.

C) Fever enables macrophages to attack microorganisms.

D) Fever prevents the spread of pathogens to adjacent tissues.

E) Fever prevents the formation of complement fixation.

Answer: A Page Ref: 404-405 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which line of defense involves the recognition of specific antigens and actions to inactivate or destroy them?

A) First line of defense B) Surface membrane barriers C) Third line of defense D) Second line of defense E) Cellular and chemical defenses Answer: C Page Ref: 398, 405 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which of the following is not applicable to the third line of defense?

A) This system recognizes and acts against particular pathogens or foreign substances.

B) Humoral immunity is provided by antibodies in the body's fluids.

C) The injection of serum containing antibodies will always provide immunity against disease.

D) Immunity in this system is not restricted to the initial infection site.

E) This system recognizes and mounts even stronger attacks on previously encountered pathogens.

Answer: C Page Ref: 405 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) What type of cells develops immunocompetence prior to responding to specific antigens?

A) Natural killer (NK) cells B) Macrophages C) Eosinophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes Answer: D Page Ref: 406-407 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

15 .

25) Humoral immunity is provided by ________.

A) pyrogens B) skin and mucous membranes C) interferon D) antibodies E) complement fixation Answer: D Page Ref: 405, 406 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which statement regarding the role of T lymphocytes (T cells) is true?

A) T lymphocytes (T cells) constitute the cell-mediated arm of the adaptive defenses.

B) T lymphocytes (T cells) produce antibodies.

C) T lymphocytes (T cells) activate lymphocytes that respond to specific antigens.

D) T lymphocytes (T cells) can target specific extracellular antigens.

E) T lymphocytes (T cells) oversee humoral immunity.

Answer: A Page Ref: 406 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) The specific foreign substances that an individual's immune system has the ability to recognize and resist are determined by ________.

A) individual exposure to the specific foreign substance B) individual genetic makeup C) the total number of lymphocytes present at a given time D) the total number of macrophages at a given time E) the total number of self-antigens at a given time Answer: B Page Ref: 408 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The development of self-tolerance of ________ is critical for the T lymphocytes (T cells) and B lymphocytes (B cells) to function properly.

A) Fungi B) Foreign blood cells C) The body's own cells D) Viruses E) Bacteria Answer: C Page Ref: 407 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

16 .

29) Where do B cells develop immunocompetence?

A) Thymus gland B) Bone marrow C) Spleen D) Thyroid gland E) Lymph nodes Answer: B Page Ref: 407 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) present fragments of cells so they can be recognized by ________.

A) inteferon B) T cells C) macrophages D) antigens E) histamine Answer: C Page Ref: 408 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) How do plasma cells assist with humoral immunity?

A) Plasma cells reproduce rapidly to crowd pathogens out of the blood.

B) Plasma cells bind to viruses and bacteria to immobilize them.

C) Plasma cells produce interferons.

D) Plasma cells secrete highly specific antibodies.

E) Plasma cells secrete pyrogens.

Answer: D Page Ref: 409-410 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) In the 1940s, Christine had the chicken pox at age 4. At age 8, she was exposed to the virus again when her sister contracted the chicken pox. What type of cells present in her blood was capable of responding to the antigen during the second exposure?

A) Neutrophils B) Macrophages C) Memory cells D) Natural killer (NK) cells E) Keratinocytes Answer: C Page Ref: 410 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

17 .

33) Due to a recent respiratory illness from a viral infection, Jennifer has now developed ________.

A) naturally acquired active immunity B) artificially acquired active immunity C) naturally acquired passive immunity D) artificially acquired passive immunity E) passively acquired natural immunity Answer: A Page Ref: 410-411 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Which portion of the antibody's structure determines the antibody's class?

A) Variable region B) Heavy chain C) Constant region D) Disulfide bonds E) Light chain Answer: C Page Ref: 411-412 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which one of the following is not true of the constant (C) regions of antibodies?

A) The constant regions are the same or nearly the same on all antibodies of a given class.

B) The constant regions form the "stem" of an antibody.

C) The constant regions determine the specific type of antibody class formed.

D) The constant regions form an antigen-binding site.

E) The constant regions determine how an antibody class will carry out its immune role.

Answer: D Page Ref: 411-412 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Which antibody class is found in the secretions that bathe body surfaces, such as tears and mucus?

A) IgA B) IgM C) IgD D) IgG E) IgE Answer: A Page Ref: 412 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

18 .

37) Which statement is true of antibody IgE? A) IgE is mainly found in secretions such as tears and saliva.

B) IgE is passed from mother to fetus during pregnancy.

C) IgE is the most abundant antibody in blood plasma.

D) IgE can fix complement.

E) IgE is involved in allergies.

Answer: E Page Ref: 413 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) What is the chief way the body responds to cellular antigens, such as bacteria or mismatched red blood cells?

A) Agglutination B) Chemotaxis C) Complement fixation D) Neutralization E) Precipitation Answer: C Page Ref: 412 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Which antibody-antigen interaction results when a foreign blood type is transfused and clumped?

A) Opsonization B) Agglutination C) Neutralization D) Precipitation E) Phagocytosis Answer: B Page Ref: 413 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) The process by which antibodies bind to specific sites on bacterial exotoxins (toxic chemicals secreted by bacteria) to block their harmful effects is called ________.

A) agglutination B) chemotaxis C) complement fixation D) neutralization E) precipitation Answer: D Page Ref: 412-413 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

19 .

41) Antigen presentation is essential for the activation and clonal selection of ________.

A) T cells B) B cells C) plasma cells D) antigen-presenting cells E) antibodies Answer: A Page Ref: 408 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) What type of T cell releases cytokines to indirectly rid the body of antigens?

A) Helper T cells B) Cytotoxic T cells C) Regulatory T cells D) Killer T cells E) Suppressor T cells Answer: A Page Ref: 415 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Cedric needs a kidney transplant. Which type of graft is least likely to be successful?

A) A graft from a sibling B) A graft from a recently deceased individual C) A graft from a friend D) A xenograft E) An allograft Answer: D Page Ref: 420 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 44) Which of the following is often used to treat allergies?

A) Vaccines B) Antihistamines C) Blood transfusions D) Bone marrow transplants E) Immunosuppressor drugs Answer: B Page Ref: 422 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

20 .

45) Allergic contact dermatitis following skin contact with poison ivy would normally lead to ________.

A) immediate hypersensitivity B) acute hypersensitivity C) delayed hypersensitivity D) anaphylactic shock E) immunodeficiency Answer: C Page Ref: 423 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) Hannah has an autoimmune disease in which the beta cells of the pancreas are destroyed. As a result, she does not make enough insulin. What disease does she have?

A) Multiple sclerosis B) Graves' disease C) Myasthenia gravis D) Type I diabetes mellitus E) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Answer: D Page Ref: 423 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 47) Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

A) Allergic contact dermatitis B) Multiple sclerosis C) Graves' disease D) Type I diabetes mellitus E) Rheumatoid arthritis Answer: A Page Ref: 423 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 48) While walking barefoot, Maggie got a cut on the sole of her foot. She later noticed redness, swelling, and pus draining from her wound. How would you interpret these symptoms?

A) Maggie's immune system is unable to manage the overwhelming infection.

B) Pus is a sign of antibody-mediated immunity.

C) These symptoms indicate the inflammatory response is in progress.

D) The next symptom she will experience is fever and chills.

E) These symptoms indicate complement fixation is occurring.

Answer: C Page Ref: 402 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

21 .

49) A patient with an infection is given a dose of interferon. The interferon injection was successful and helped her recover from the illness more quickly. Deduce the type of infection she had.

A) Bacteria B) Fungal C) Allergic D) Viral E) Hapten Answer: D Page Ref: 404 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 50) Newer cancer drugs use antigen-presenting cells (APCs) to attract the attention of the immune system to target tumors for destruction. What type of cell would you rate as most important for the APCs to activate in order for this new therapy to be successful?

A) Natural killer (NK) cells B) Neutrophils C) T cells D) Memory cells E) B cells Answer: C Page Ref: 406 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 12.3

True/False Questions

1) The two main structures of the lymphatic system are the lymphatic vessels and the blood vessels.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 392 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) All lymph rejoins the bloodstream via the subclavian veins.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 394 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The lymph nodes filter bacteria, viruses, and tumor cells from blood on its way back to the heart.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 394 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

22 .

4) The role of the spleen in the lymphatic system is to provide a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 396-397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The most important function of the thymus gland is to destroy worn-out red blood cells and return some of the products to the liver.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The innate (nonspecific) defense system and adaptive (specific) defense system make up the immune system.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 397-398 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Intact keratinized epidermis and mucous membranes are strong mechanical barriers to most microorganisms and serve as the body's first line of defense.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 398, 399, 400 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Pathogens that make it through the mechanical barriers of the body are encountered by phagocytes such as cytokines and interferons.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 403 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The nonspecific defense by which complement proteins attach to sugars or proteins on the surface of foreign cells is called complement fixation.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 403-404 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Chemicals secreted by white blood cells and macrophages exposed to foreign substances that can increase body temperature are called pyrogens.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 404-405 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) All types of lymphocytes produce antibodies.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 406 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23 .

12) B lymphocytes (B cells) and T lymphocytes (T cells) must both become self-tolerant of the body's own cells.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 407 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) B cells become immunocompetent in the thymus.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 407 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) engulf antigens and present them to cells that will deal with them.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 408 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Artificially acquired passive immunity is conferred when one receives immune serum for poisonous snakebites.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 410-411 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Antibodies, or immunoglobulins, are secreted by activated B cells or by their plasma-cell offspring in response to an antigen.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 411 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The constant region of the antibody joins heavy and light chains to form an antigen-binding site specifically made to fit an antigen.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 411-412 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Antibodies can inactivate an antigen in many ways, including complement fixation, neutralization, and opsonization.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 412 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The process that occurs when antibodies clump foreign cells is called agglutination.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 413 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

24 .

20) Macrophages and dendritic cells release interferons to trigger an immune response from T cells.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 415 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Antigen presentation is essential for the activation of clonal selection of T cells.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 415 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Xenografts are ideal donor organs or tissues since they rarely cause rejection.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 420 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Autoimmune disease arises when the immune system is no longer tolerant of self-antigens, and antibodies are produced to attack the body's own tissues.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 423 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Allergies, or hypersensitivities, are normal immune responses to pathogens or harmful antigens.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 421-422 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Anaphylactic shock, an acute systemic allergic response, causes vasodilation and difficulty breathing.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 422 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) As people age, they become more resistant to the development of autoimmune and immunodeficiency diseases.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 425 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

25 .

12.4

Matching Questions

Match the following descriptions with the appropriate lymphoid organ or tissue: A) tonsils B) thymus gland C) Peyer's patches D) spleen 1) Located on the left side of the abdominal cavity Page Ref: 396-397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Traps and removes bacteria and pathogens entering the throat Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Located overlying the heart Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Destroys worn-out blood cells and returns some of their breakdown products to the liver Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Located in the wall of the small intestines Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Programs T lymphocytes during youth Page Ref: 397 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) D 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) C 6) B

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Match the following terms with the correct description: A) interferon B) perforins C) antigen D) pyrogen E) keratin F) cytokines G) antibody 7) Any substance capable of provoking an immune response Page Ref: 406 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Small protein that binds with receptors on healthy cells to promote protein synthesis and prevent viruses from binding Page Ref: 404 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Chemical secreted by white blood cells and macrophages to raise the body's temperature Page Ref: 404 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Chemical released by natural killer cells (NK) to cause cell lysis Page Ref: 400 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Chemical released by macrophages and dendritic cells to activate many other immune cells Page Ref: 415 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Vaccines stimulate the production of these soluble proteins Page Ref: 410 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Chemical that provides resistance to intact skin against acids, alkalis, and bacterial enzymes Page Ref: 399, 400 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 7) C 8) A 9) D 10) B 11) F 12) G 13) E

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Match the following biological function with its antibody class: A) regulatory T cell B) B cell C) helper T cell D) antigen-presenting cell (APC) E) memory cell F) cytotoxic T cell G) plasma cell 14) Cell that may exist in the body for years and enable a quick response to subsequent meetings with the same antigen Page Ref: 410, 416 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Cell that slows or stops B and T cell activity once infection has been conquered Page Ref: 416, 420 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Cell that produces huge numbers of the same antibody (immunoglobulin) Page Ref: 409, 410, 420 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Cell that kills virus-infected cells, cancerous cells, and is involved in graft rejection Page Ref: 415 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Cells that engulf and present parts of antigens on the membrane for recognition by T cells bearing receptors for the same antigen Page Ref: 408 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Cell that develops immunocompetence in the bone marrow Page Ref: 406, 407 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Cell that directs the adaptive immune response by recruiting other cells to fight the invaders Page Ref: 415 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 14) E 15) A 16) G 17) F 18) D 19) B 20) C

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12.5

Essay Questions

1) Explain the origin and pathway of lymph.

Answer: Lymph fluid arises from blood plasma that has been forced out of the capillary beds by osmotic and hydrostatic pressures. The fluid left behind is called interstitial fluid. The interstitial fluid is then picked up by lymph capillaries, after which it is called lymph. Lymph is routed up the lymphatic vessels until it is finally returned to the venous system through either the right lymphatic duct or the thoracic duct.

Page Ref: 393-394 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Mona had some axillary lymph nodes and lymphatic vessels removed from her left arm during a recent surgery. Determine why she experiences edema (swelling) in that arm.

Answer: The function of lymphatic vessels is to pick up excess interstitial fluid and return it to the blood. Excess tissue fluid can accumulate in tissues if not picked up by lymphatic vessels, producing edema (swelling). Lymph from the left arm should ultimately be returned to the thoracic duct and into the left subclavian vein before being returned to the heart. If lymphatic vessels have been removed from Mona's left arm, the mechanism of picking up and returning escaped fluids to the blood has become impaired.

Page Ref: 394-396 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Explain how the innate and adaptive immune systems differ in their responses to foreign substances.

Answer: The innate immune system is the system we have when we're born. This system includes the skin and mucous membranes, the inflammatory response, and proteins already present in our cells. This system is the first one to come into contact with a foreign substance and thus is always prepared to defend the body. Therefore, we think of the innate system as the nonspecific body defense and the first line of defense to protection from invaders.

The adaptive immune system is the second line of defense, which defends us from specific invaders. This system consists of molecules like pyrogens and immune cells such as lymphocytes and macrophages. This system differs from the innate system since it must be exposed to the invader before it can form a response.

Page Ref: 397-398 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Identify the four most common indicators and major symptoms of an acute inflammatory response, and explain their origins.

Answer: The four most common indicators of the inflammatory response are redness, heat, swelling, and pain. Redness and heat are a result of dilation of blood vessels that increase blood flow to the injured area. Swelling occurs when increased permeability of the capillaries allows plasma to leak from the bloodstream into the tissue spaces. The excess fluid, or edema, triggers the activation of pain receptors in the area, accounting for the pain associated with an injury.

Page Ref: 400-402 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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5) Differentiate how antibodies perform precipitation and agglutination to inactivate antigens.

Answer: Antibodies can inactivate antigens through both precipitation and agglutination.

When antibodies bind antigens, such as those of a foreign blood type, they can form antibodyantigen complexes that can be cross-linked into large lattices. This process of clumping foreign cells is called agglutination. However, when the cross-linking involves soluble antigenic molecules that become insoluble and settle out of solution, precipitation has occurred. Both agglutinated and precipitated molecules can be captured by phagocytes more easily.

Page Ref: 413, 414 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Contrast the primary humoral response with the secondary humoral response.

Answer: The primary humoral response occurs during the first encounter with an antigen. An antigen binds to a specific receptor on a specific B cell. The activated B cells proliferate to form a clone. While most of the B cell clone members become plasma cells that will secrete antibody molecules, B cells that do not become plasma cells will become memory cells. Memory cells exist for years and are capable of responding to the same antigen at a later meeting (immunological memory). Secondary humoral responses are the later immune responses that are faster, more prolonged, and more effective than the primary humoral response because preparations for this attack have already been made.

Page Ref: 409-410 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Let's suppose scientists have discovered a new disease that arises when antigen-presenting cells (APCs) are not made by the body. How do you think our immune response will be impacted?

Answer: Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) engulf an antigen and present part of it on the membrane in combination with one of the APCs' own glycoproteins. T cells require the presentation of the antigen for activation and clonal selection. Without the presentation of antigens by APCs, the immune process would be severely impaired. T cell clone classes provide for cell-mediated immunity and include helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory T cells, and memory cells.

Page Ref: 408 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) Audrey's mom smokes cigarettes that can damage and eventually destroy the cilia in the passageways of the lungs. Convince her that stopping smoking will benefit her cilia and respiratory mucous membranes.

Answer: Intact mucous membranes are part of the immune system's first line of defense. The cilia benefit us by sweeping dust- and bacteria-laden mucus (think "sticky trap") superiorly toward the mouth, preventing it from entering the lungs, where the warm, moist environment provides ideal conditions for bacterial growth. Damaged or destroyed cilia place Audrey's mom at a higher risk of infection. Without an adequate mechanism for the removal of mucus in the lungs, our bodies must rely on the second and third lines of defense.

Page Ref: 398-400 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

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9) People with severe burns may need skin grafts. A patient is presented with an option to receive skin from elsewhere on his body, which will also require time to heal, or he can receive skin from a donor. Judge these two sources and discuss the advantages or disadvantages. Which option would you recommend?

Answer: Autografts are tissue grafts transplanted from one site to another in the same person while allografts are tissue grafts taken from a person other than an identical twin. Autografts are ideal donors while a tissue transplant from another person would require blood typing and tissue antigen matching. The disadvantage of an autograft is that the transplanted site will also need time to heal. An allograft would run the risk of rejection from the work of cytotoxic T cells.

Given the risk for rejection with an allograft, an autograft may be a better choice simply based on acceptance by the immune system.

Page Ref: 415, 420 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 10) An acquaintance is hesitant about getting a COVID-19 vaccine. Persuade him of the benefits of vaccination.

Answer: We receive two benefits from vaccines: (1) they spare us most of the signs and symptoms (and discomfort) of the disease that would otherwise occur during the primary response, and (2) the weakened antigens are still able to stimulate antibody production and promote immunological memory. Upon exposure to this virus, a secondary humoral response will occur. These responses are produced much faster, are more prolonged, and are more effective than the events of the primary response because all the preparations for this attack have already been made.

Page Ref: 410 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

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Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 13 The Respiratory System 13.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 13.1, identify the following: 1) The nasal cavity is indicated by ________.

A) Label D B) Label C C) Label B D) Label H E) Label A Answer: E Page Ref: 433 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The right main (primary) bronchus is indicated by ________.

A) Label H B) Label I C) Label J D) Label B E) Label F Answer: A Page Ref: 433 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 1 .

3) The trachea is indicated by ________.

A) Label D B) Label I C) Label B D) Label F E) Label G Answer: B Page Ref: 433, 438 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The diaphragm muscle is indicated by ________.

A) Label C B) Label E C) Label F D) Label G E) Label J Answer: D Page Ref: 433, 438 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The oral cavity is indicated by ________.

A) Label C B) Label A C) Label E D) Label B E) Label G Answer: A Page Ref: 433 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The inferior lobe of the right lung is indicated by ________.

A) Label E B) Label J C) Label I D) Label G E) Label F Answer: E Page Ref: 433, 438 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2 .

7) The nostrils, or nares, are indicated by ________.

A) Label C B) Label G C) Label B D) Label A E) Label F Answer: C Page Ref: 433 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The apex of the right lung is indicated by ________.

A) Label E B) Label F C) Label H D) Label G E) Label J Answer: A Page Ref: 433, 438 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The larynx is indicated by ________.

A) Label H B) Label G C) Label F D) Label A E) Label D Answer: E Page Ref: 433 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The pharynx is indicated by ________.

A) Label H B) Label I C) Label J D) Label F E) Label B Answer: C Page Ref: 433 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) Which of the following is not a function of the mucosa lining the nasal conchae and nasal cavity?

A) Serve as a partition between the oral and nasal cavities B) Warm incoming air as it flows into the nasal cavity C) Trap incoming bacteria and debris and prevent it from reaching the lungs D) Moisten air as it flows into the nasal cavity Answer: A Page Ref: 433-434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The anterior portion of the palate that is supported by bone is called the ________.

A) soft palate B) glottis C) epiglottis D) hard palate Answer: D Page Ref: 434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) From superior to inferior, the three regions of the pharynx are the ________.

A) oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx B) nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx C) laryngopharynx, oropharynx, nasopharynx D) nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, oropharynx Answer: B Page Ref: 434 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) Which tonsil sits at the base of the tongue?

A) Lingual B) Tubal C) Pharyngeal D) Palatine Answer: A Page Ref: 434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) What part of the respiratory system routes air and food into their proper channels and plays a role in speech?

A) Tongue B) Pharynx C) Nasal conchae D) Larynx Answer: D Page Ref: 435 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4 .

16) What flap of elastic cartilage protects the superior opening of the larynx?

A) Trachea B) Epiglottis C) Glottis D) Thyroid cartilage Answer: B Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) When we swallow food or drink, what prevents the passage of these items into our larynx and lower respiratory passageways?

A) Thyroid cartilage B) Epiglottis C) Glottis D) Cilia Answer: B Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) When breathing in, air enters the larynx through an opening called the ________.

A) glottis B) epiglottis C) esophagus D) thyroid cartilage Answer: A Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which tissue forms the C-shaped rings that reinforce the trachea?

A) Fibrocartilage B) Elastic cartilage C) Hyaline cartilage D) Compact bone Answer: C Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The primary purpose for a tracheostomy would be to allow the patient to ________.

A) talk B) cough C) swallow D) breathe Answer: D Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

5 .

21) Damage to the larynx can cause an inability to ________.

A) sneeze B) cough C) speak D) hiccup Answer: C Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 22) The serous membrane that surrounds each lung is created by a parietal and visceral ________.

A) pleura B) pericardium C) peritoneum D) mediastinum Answer: A Page Ref: 437 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which passageways branch off of the inferior end of the trachea?

A) Bronchioles B) Bronchi C) Alveolar ducts D) Alveolar sacs Answer: B Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) What are the smallest conducting passageways of the lungs that lead into the alveoli?

A) Main (primary) bronchi B) Trachea C) Terminal bronchioles D) Alveolar ducts Answer: C Page Ref: 439 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Which zone includes the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli and is where gas exchange occurs?

A) Respiratory zone B) Conducting zone C) Terminal zone D) Filtering zone Answer: A Page Ref: 439 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6 .

26) The process of moving air into and out of the lungs is commonly called breathing or ________.

A) cellular respiration B) internal respiration C) respiratory gas transport D) pulmonary ventilation Answer: D Page Ref: 441 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which two variables dictate the mechanics of breathing (pulmonary ventilation)?

A) Temperature and volume B) Pressure and volume C) Diffusion and osmosis D) Pressure and temperature Answer: B Page Ref: 441 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which inspiratory muscles contract so we can inspire air?

A) Rectus abdominis; external obliques B) Diaphragm; external intercostals C) Trapezius; latissimus dorsi D) Diaphragm; external obliques Answer: B Page Ref: 441 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) In order to expire air, which of the following must occur?

A) Intrapulmonary pressure and atmospheric pressure equalize.

B) Atmospheric pressure rises higher than intrapulmonary pressure.

C) Intrapulmonary pressure drops lower than atmospheric pressure.

D) Intrapulmonary volume decreases as the inspiratory muscles and diaphragm relax and return to their resting positions.

Answer: D Page Ref: 443 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Lung collapse, or ________, can occur when air enters the pleural space.

A) pleurisy B) atelectasis C) rales D) wheezing Answer: B Page Ref: 443-444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7 .

31) ________ volume is the air moved into and out of the lungs during normal quiet breathing and is approximately 500 ml of air.

A) Tidal B) Expiratory reserve C) Residual D) Inspiratory reserve Answer: A Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which of the following respiratory volumes is the largest?

A) Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) B) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) C) Tidal volume (TV) D) Vital capacity (VC) Answer: D Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) What nonrespiratory air movement is intended to ventilate all alveoli?

A) Cough B) Hiccup C) Yawn D) Sneeze Answer: C Page Ref: 445 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) In the pulmonary circuit, which gas diffuses from the blood of the pulmonary capillaries into the alveoli to be exhaled?

A) Nitrous oxide B) Oxygen C) Carbon dioxide D) Carbon monoxide Answer: C Page Ref: 446 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) What odorless, colorless gas binds preferentially with the same binding site on hemoglobin as oxygen?

A) Hydrogen sulfide B) Carbon monoxide C) Nitrous oxide D) Methane Answer: B Page Ref: 447 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8 .

36) What is the most common transport method for carbon dioxide?

A) Oxyhemoglobin B) Deoxyhemoglobin C) Carbon monoxide D) Bicarbonate ions Answer: D Page Ref: 446 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) The normal respiratory rate of 12–15 breaths per minute is known as ________.

A) hyperpnea B) eupnea C) dyspnea D) apnea Answer: B Page Ref: 448 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) What portions of the brain contain respiratory centers and set the breathing rate?

A) Medulla and pons B) Pons and cerebellum C) Cerebrum and cerebellum D) Thalamus and hypothalamus Answer: A Page Ref: 448 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) The regulation of the activity of the breathing muscles, the diaphragm and external intercostals, is controlled by nerve impulses transmitted from the brain via the ________ and ________ nerves.

A) splanchnic; sacral B) trochlear; trigeminal C) phrenic; intercostal D) cranial; spinal Answer: C Page Ref: 448 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

9 .

40) The most important stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is the body's need to rid itself of the blood gas called ________.

A) carbon dioxide B) oxygen C) methane D) nitrous oxide Answer: A Page Ref: 450 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) When we exercise, carbon dioxide levels increase in our blood, which leads to a decrease in blood pH. How will the respiratory system respond to restore carbon dioxide and blood pH levels to normal?

A) Hypoventilation B) Hyperventilation C) Apnea D) Dyspnea Answer: B Page Ref: 450 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) What fatty molecule is made by cuboidal-shaped cells in the epithelium of the alveoli to reduce surface tension and prevent alveolar collapse between breaths?

A) Sebum B) Surfactant C) Nicotine D) Mucus Answer: B Page Ref: 440, 453 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

10 .

13.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) Which organ or structure belongs to the lower respiratory tract?

A) Nose B) Pharynx C) Larynx D) Trachea E) Nasal cavity Answer: D Page Ref: 433 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The respiratory conducting passageways perform all of the following functions except ________.

A) allow air to reach the lungs B) purify air C) humidify air D) exchange gases E) warm incoming air Answer: D Page Ref: 433-434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) What sweeps contaminated mucus from the nasal cavity to the throat?

A) Tonsils B) Flagella C) Cilia D) Coarse hairs E) Air turbulence Answer: C Page Ref: 434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) What is the role of mucus in the nasal cavity?

A) Increase the air turbulence in the nasal cavity B) Separate the oral cavity from the nasal cavity C) Lighten the skull D) Act as a resonance chamber for speech E) Trap incoming bacteria and other foreign debris Answer: E Page Ref: 433-434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

11 .

5) The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by ________.

A) the pharynx B) the nasal conchae C) the larynx D) both the hard and soft palate E) both the nasal conchae and hard palate Answer: D Page Ref: 434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which bone does not contain a paranasal sinus?

A) Frontal B) Sphenoid C) Mandible D) Ethmoid E) Maxilla Answer: C Page Ref: 434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) What role do the tonsils play in the respiratory system?

A) Tonsils produce mucus, which drains into the nasal cavities.

B) Tonsils humidify and warm incoming air.

C) Tonsils moisten the air entering the respiratory passageways.

D) Tonsils protect the body from infection.

E) Tonsils sweep contaminated mucus toward the throat.

Answer: D Page Ref: 434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which region of the throat houses the pharyngeal tonsil (adenoid)?

A) Nasopharynx B) Oropharynx C) Palatopharynx D) Laryngopharynx E) Tracheopharynx Answer: A Page Ref: 434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

12 .

9) The pharyngotympanic tubes, which drain the middle ear, open into the ________.

A) nasopharynx B) oropharynx C) palatopharynx D) laryngopharynx E) tracheopharynx Answer: A Page Ref: 434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The correct pathway air flows through the respiratory system is ________.

A) nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, main (primary) bronchi B) nose, larynx, pharynx, trachea, main (primary) bronchi C) nose, pharynx, trachea, larynx, main (primary) bronchi D) nose, larynx, trachea, pharynx, main (primary) bronchi E) nose, pharynx, larynx, main (primary) bronchi, trachea Answer: A Page Ref: 433-437 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) In rare cases of vocal cord paralysis, the vocal cords will not be able to move. This can impair ________.

A) speaking and breathing B) the ability to smell C) the ability to taste D) the action of cilia in the nasal cavity E) the sneeze reflex Answer: A Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) Smoking destroys cilia in the respiratory passageways, such as the trachea. Which of the following is a likely consequence of damaged cilia?

A) Inflammation and swelling of the tonsils B) Air is not moistened, warmed, or filtered before reaching the lungs C) Inability to propel mucus from the lungs to the throat D) Nasal congestion and postnasal drip E) Inability to produce mucus Answer: C Page Ref: 436, 437 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

13 .

13) How do goblet cells, present in the lining of the trachea, contribute to the protection of the respiratory system?

A) Goblet cells create a sweeping motion that propels mucus toward the throat.

B) Goblet cells create a patent airway.

C) Goblet cells protect the superior opening of the larynx by preventing the entry of food and fluids into the larynx.

D) Goblet cells produce mucus that traps dust particles and other debris.

E) Goblet cells vibrate to allow us to speak.

Answer: D Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Vibration due to exhaled air that results in speech is a function of the ________.

A) trachea B) larynx C) pharynx D) glottis E) epiglottis Answer: B Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The superior portion of each lung is the ________.

A) pleura B) base C) apex D) mediastinum E) fissure Answer: C Page Ref: 437 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) A needle piercing into the thorax to perform a lung biopsy would travel first through the ________.

A) parietal pleura B) visceral pleura C) visceral pericardium D) alveoli E) parietal pericardium Answer: A Page Ref: 437 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

14 .

17) Which one of the following is not true of the lungs?

A) The narrower portion of each lung is called the apex.

B) The bases rest on the diaphragm.

C) The left lung has two lobes.

D) The right lung has three lobes.

E) Both lungs have two lobes.

Answer: E Page Ref: 437 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) What is the function of an alveolar macrophage?

A) Secrete mucus B) Facilitate gas exchange C) Produce surfactant D) Engulf bacteria, carbon particles, and debris E) Sweep contaminated mucus and debris from the alveoli Answer: D Page Ref: 440 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which of the following is part of the conducting zone?

A) Respiratory bronchioles B) Alveolar ducts C) Alveolar sacs D) Alveoli E) Primary bronchus Answer: E Page Ref: 439 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which of the following is not one of the four main events of respiration?

A) Pulmonary ventilation B) Respiratory gas transport C) Residual volume D) External respiration E) Internal respiration Answer: C Page Ref: 441 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

15 .

21) Exchange of both oxygen and carbon dioxide through the respiratory membrane occurs by ________.

A) osmosis B) simple diffusion C) facilitated diffusion D) active transport E) endocytosis Answer: B Page Ref: 440, 446 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) What forms the respiratory membrane (air-blood barrier)?

A) Respiratory bronchioles and alveoli B) Terminal bronchioles and respiratory bronchioles C) Systemic capillaries and cells of the body D) The visceral and parietal pleura E) The fused basement membranes of alveolar and pulmonary capillary walls Answer: E Page Ref: 440 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) The major function of the respiratory system is to ________.

A) transport oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from the lungs and tissue cells of the body B) transport escaped fluids back to the cardiovascular system C) circulate oxygen-rich blood around the body D) supply the body with oxygen and dispose of carbon dioxide E) perform a gas exchange between the blood and the cells of the body Answer: D Page Ref: 441 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which one of the following is not true of inspiration?

A) Contraction of the diaphragm muscle helps increase the size of the thoracic cavity.

B) Relaxation of the external intercostal muscles helps increase the size of the thoracic cavity.

C) Increased intrapulmonary volume causes inhaled gases to spread out.

D) The decreased gas pressure produces a partial vacuum that forcibly sucks air in.

E) Air continues to move into the lungs until intrapulmonary pressure equals atmospheric pressure.

Answer: B Page Ref: 441-443 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

16 .

25) The presence of air in the intrapleural space is known as ________.

A) pneumothorax B) atelectasis C) pneumonia D) pleurisy E) wheezing Answer: A Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Expiration (exhalation) occurs when ________.

A) the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract B) air moves into the lungs C) intrapulmonary volume increases D) the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax E) intrapulmonary pressure decreases Answer: D Page Ref: 443 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which nonrespiratory air movement clears the upper respiratory passageways?

A) Coughing B) Yawning C) Laughing D) Hiccupping E) Sneezing Answer: E Page Ref: 445 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Harry prepares to take a dive to the bottom of the pool to pick up a toy. What must happen for him to take a deep breath of air?

A) The intrapulmonary volume in the lungs decreases.

B) The abdominal muscles contract.

C) The intrapulmonary pressure inside the lungs increases.

D) The diaphragm moves superiorly, becoming elevated and dome-shaped.

E) Both the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract.

Answer: E Page Ref: 441-443 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

17 .

29) The respiratory movement representing the total amount of exchangeable air is the ________.

A) tidal volume B) inspiratory reserve volume C) expiratory reserve volume D) vital capacity E) dead space volume Answer: D Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Even after a forceful expiration, air still remains in the lungs for gas exchange to continue.

This volume is about ________.

A) 500 ml B) 1,200 ml C) 2,100 ml D) 4,800 ml E) 6,000 ml Answer: B Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) The amount of air exchanged during normal quiet breathing is about ________.

A) 500 ml B) 1,200 ml C) 2,100 ml D) 4,800 ml E) 6,000 ml Answer: A Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which of these terms is an abnormal bronchial sound that occurs when mucus is present in the lung passages?

A) Sneeze B) Cough C) Pleural friction rub D) Wheezing E) Rales Answer: E Page Ref: 445 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

18 .

33) Oxygen diffuses from the blood stream into surrounding cells and tissues during ________.

A) internal respiration B) pulmonary ventilation C) external respiration D) respiratory gas transport E) tidal volume Answer: A Page Ref: 447-448 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Oxygen is primarily transported in the blood as ________.

A) bicarbonate ion B) oxyhemoglobin C) carbonic acid D) deoxyhemoglobin E) carbonic anhydrase Answer: B Page Ref: 446 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which nerves stimulate the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles to contract?

A) Splanchnic nerves B) Somatic nerves C) Phrenic and intercostal nerves D) Vagus nerves E) Myenteric nerves Answer: C Page Ref: 448 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) When Jamie fell, she hit her head and damaged her respiratory center. She began to hypoventilate. Which part(s) of her brain sustained injury?

A) Thalamus B) Hypothalamus and pituitary gland C) Medulla oblongata and pons D) Cerebellum E) Midbrain Answer: C Page Ref: 448 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

19 .

37) Hypoventilation dramatically increases carbonic acid concentration and involves ________.

A) extremely deep breathing B) extremely fast breathing C) extremely slow breathing D) intermittent breathing E) irregular breathing Answer: C Page Ref: 450 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Which of the following houses neurons that ultimately stimulate the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles to initiate inspiration?

A) Dorsal respiratory group (DRG) of the medulla oblongata B) Arbor vitae of the cerebellum C) Ventral respiratory group (VRG) of the medulla oblongata D) Pons respiratory centers E) Corpora quadrigemina of the midbrain Answer: C Page Ref: 448 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Five-year-old Josiah is mad at his mother and is holding his breath. His body will eventually force him to breathe again due to ________.

A) increased oxygen levels in the blood B) increased blood pH C) increased carbon dioxide blood levels and decreased blood pH D) increased electrolyte concentration in the blood E) decreased carbon dioxide blood levels Answer: C Page Ref: 449-450 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Which one of the following is not a feature of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

A) Most patients have a genetic predisposition to COPD. B) Dyspnea becomes progressively more severe.

C) Frequent pulmonary infections are common.

D) Most COPD victims are hypoxic.

E) Most patients have a history of smoking.

Answer: A Page Ref: 451 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

20 .

41) Which respiratory disease in which sufferers are often called "pink puffers," is characterized by enlarged alveoli, lung inflammation, and fibrosis of the lungs?

A) Asthma B) Emphysema C) Cleft palate D) Chronic bronchitis E) Cystic fibrosis Answer: B Page Ref: 451 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) What accounts for the majority of cases of lung cancer?

A) Small cell carcinoma B) Adenocarcinoma C) Melanoma D) Squamous cell carcinoma E) Basal cell carcinoma Answer: B Page Ref: 451 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) The lack of adequate surfactant in premature babies can result in ________.

A) adenocarcinoma B) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) C) tuberculosis D) asthma E) infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) Answer: E Page Ref: 453 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) Which of the following is true of cystic fibrosis (CF)?

A) CF is a genetic condition that is inheritable.

B) Sneezing and sinusitis are common symptoms of CF. C) Most cases of CF arise due to exposure to second-hand smoke.

D) The cells of the alveoli produce too much surfactant in cases of CF. E) People with CF do not produce enough mucus and are at a higher risk for infections.

Answer: A Page Ref: 453 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

21 .

45) What is the most common cause for lung cancer?

A) Diet B) Work environment C) Asthma D) Hereditary E) Smoking Answer: E Page Ref: 451 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) The respiratory rate in newborns is ________.

A) 5–10 respirations per minute B) 12–18 respirations per minute C) 20–25 respirations per minute D) 30 respirations per minute E) 40–80 respirations per minute Answer: E Page Ref: 453 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 47) Parents of healthy newborns are encouraged to place their babies on their backs to sleep to avoid ________.

A) cystic fibrosis (CF) B) sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) C) asthma D) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) E) infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) Answer: B Page Ref: 453 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 48) Chronically inflamed, hypersensitive bronchial passages that respond to many irritants are characteristic of ________.

A) atelectasis B) pleurisy C) asthma D) pneumothorax E) pulmonary tamponade Answer: C Page Ref: 455 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

22 .

49) Which of these disorders is related to loss of elasticity of the lungs?

A) Asthma B) Emphysema C) Tuberculosis D) Pneumonia E) Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) Answer: B Page Ref: 451 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 50) Which one of the following is not true of lung cancer?

A) Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths in the United States.

B) Lung cancer slows down the movement of cilia.

C) Lung cancer only occurs in smokers.

D) Lung cancer is aggressive.

E) Lung cancers often metastasize rapidly and widely.

Answer: C Page Ref: 451 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 51) Helene started coughing when her epiglottis did not close completely while swallowing her drink. Later, she commented the drink went down the "wrong pipe." Given your knowledge of the anatomy of the respiratory system, deduce where the drink traveled.

A) Esophagus B) Nasal cavity C) Larynx D) Pharynx E) Oral cavity Answer: C Page Ref: 434, 436 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 52) As a respiratory therapist, Gabriella measures the respiratory volumes for new patients with a spirometer. She assists a patient who has a normal inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), but he has a greatly decreased expiratory reserve volume (ERV) and a higher-than-normal residual volume (RV). He has a history of smoking and a barrel chest. Assess his condition.

A) Allergies B) Pneumonia C) Emphysema D) Sleep apnea E) Cystic fibrosis Answer: C Page Ref: 444-445, 451 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

23 .

53) Methamphetamine is a drug that can cause hyperthermia. Assess the impact on the respiration system for a person who has used this drug.

A) Dyspnea B) Increased respiratory rate C) Hyperpnea D) Decreased respiratory rate E) Apnea Answer: B Page Ref: 449 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 13.3

True/False Questions

1) Olfactory receptors are located in the mucosa in the nasal cavity.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 433 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by the nasal conchae.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Paranasal sinuses warm, cleanse, and humidify air entering the nasal cavity.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The tubal tonsils protect the openings of the pharyngotympanic tubes in the nasopharynx.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The opening between the vocal cords is known as the epiglottis.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The larynx routes air and food into their proper channel and plays an important role in speech production.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 435-436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

24 .

7) Cilia lining the trachea propel mucus toward the lungs.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The function of the C-rings of hyaline cartilage in the trachea is to keep the airway patent or open for breathing.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The Heimlich maneuver is a procedure in which air in a person's own lungs is used to eject an obstructing piece of food.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Each main (primary) bronchus enters the lung at the apex.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 436-437 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The parietal pleurae cover the surface of each lung while the visceral pleurae line the wall of the thoracic cavity.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 437 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The bronchioles are the smallest of the conducting passageways in the lungs.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 439 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The respiratory zone is the only site of gas exchange within the lungs.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 439 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The respiratory membrane is the air-blood barrier, where gases are exchanged.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 400 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

25 .

15) Alveolar macrophages patrol the alveoli to engulf and remove bacteria, carbon particles, and other debris.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 440 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Cellular respiration uses carbon dioxide to produce ATP and oxygen.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 441 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Both inspiration and expiration are active processes requiring muscle contractions.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 441-443 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Expiration occurs when the thoracic and intrapulmonary volumes decrease and the intrapulmonary pressure increases.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 443 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled beyond a tidal expiration is around 1,200 ml.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Normal quiet breathing, known as tidal volume, is around 500 ml of air.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Laughing and crying similarly involve inspiration followed by a release of air in a number of short expirations.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 445 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Bronchial sounds are produced as air fills the alveoli of the lungs while vesicular breathing sounds are produced by air rushing through the large respiratory passageways of the trachea and bronchi.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 445 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

26 .

23) Wheezing is a whistling sound associated with diseased respiratory tissue, mucus, or pus.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 445 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The loading of carbon dioxide into the blood occurs during external respiration.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 446-448 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) People who experience hypoxia produce characteristic signs of cyanosis and respiratory distress.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 447 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Venous blood in systemic circulation is poorer in oxygen and richer in carbon dioxide.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 448 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Hyperpnea results from exercise when breathing becomes deeper and more vigorous.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 48 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Surfactant prevents lung collapse since it lowers surface tension of the film of water lining each alveolar air sac.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 440, 453 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Changes in oxygen levels in the blood are the most important stimuli for breathing in a healthy person.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 450 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

27 .

13.4

Matching Questions

Match the following structure with its description: A) bronchioles B) alveoli C) glottis D) pharynx E) epiglottis F) larynx G) main (primary) bronchi H) trachea 1) Passageway for both food and air known as the "throat" Page Ref: 434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Rigid, patent airway reinforced with C-rings of hyaline cartilage Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Routes air and food into their proper channels Page Ref: 435-436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Directs food posteriorly into the esophagus Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Opening to the trachea situated between the vocal cords Page Ref: 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Passageways, formed by the division of the trachea, enter the hilum of each lung Page Ref: 436-437 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Smallest conducting passageways in the lungs Page Ref: 439 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Air sacs composed of simple squamous epithelium Page Ref: 440 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) D 2) H 3) F 4) E 5) C 6) G 7) A 8) B 28 .

Match the following with the four events of respiration: A) pulmonary ventilation B) respiratory gas transport C) external respiration D) internal respiration 9) Breathing in and out while at rest Page Ref: 441 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Gas exchange occurring between the pulmonary blood and alveoli Page Ref: 441 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Gas exchange occurring between systemic capillaries and surrounding cells and tissues Page Ref: 441, 447-448 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Inspiration and expiration Page Ref: 441 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Oxygen is loaded into the blood, and carbon dioxide unloaded from the blood Page Ref: 441, 446 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Oxygen primarily travels bound to hemoglobin as oxyhemoglobin; carbon dioxide primarily travels as the bicarbonate ion Page Ref: 441, 446 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 9) A 10) C 11) D 12) A 13) C 14) B

29 .

Match the following definitions with their associated respiratory volume or capacity: A) residual volume B) vital capacity C) tidal volume D) expiratory reserve volume E) inspiratory reserve volume F) dead space volume 15) Volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled beyond a normal tidal expiration Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Normal, quiet breathing that moves approximately 500 ml of air per breath Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Volume of air that enters the respiratory tract and remains within the conducting zone passageways Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Volume of air that can be inhaled forcibly over the tidal volume Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Total volume of exchangeable air, approximately 4,800 ml in males and 3,100 ml in females Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Volume of air that allows gas exchange to go on continuously even between breaths Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Sum total of tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, and expiratory reserve volume Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 15) D 16) C 17) F 18) E 19) B 20) A 21) B

30 .

13.5

Essay Questions

1) Explain the roles of mucus and cilia in the respiratory system.

Answer: Respiratory mucosa lines the nasal cavity and produces sticky mucus. This mucus moistens the air and traps incoming bacteria and other foreign debris entering the nasal cavity.

The ciliated cells of the nasal mucosa move this contaminated mucus posteriorly toward the pharynx where it can be swallowed. The trachea is also lined with ciliated mucosa. These cilia move contaminated mucus toward the throat where it either can be swallowed or spat out.

Page Ref: 433, 434, 436 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Explain the contributions of the paranasal sinuses.

Answer: The paranasal sinuses lighten the skull and provide resonance chambers for speech.

They also produce mucus, which drains into the nasal cavities.

Page Ref: 434 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) What structures does a molecule of oxygen encounter on its way to the alveoli of the lungs from the nose? Trace the pathway.

Answer: Air first encounters the nose by entering through the nares. It travels by the nasal conchae of the nasal cavity, then to the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx. The next structure, the larynx, routes air into the lower respiratory passageways and food into the posterior tube, the esophagus. Air travels through the glottis into the windpipe, or trachea, into each main (primary) bronchus and into the smaller branches, finally reaching the smallest passageways known as bronchioles. The terminal bronchioles end in alveoli, small air sacs, where gas exchange is occurring.

Page Ref: 433-440 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Identify the two pleural membranes, and describe them under normal and disease conditions.

Answer: The pleural membranes, the visceral pleura and the parietal pleura, produce a slippery serous secretion that allows the lungs to glide easily over the thorax wall during breathing. This serous fluid causes the two pleural layers to cling together. They can slide easily from side to side across one another, but they cannot easily be pulled apart. As surface tension of water holds them tightly to each other, the lungs are held tightly to the thorax wall. The pleural space is more of a potential space than an actual space, and it is only during illness or injury that this space becomes apparent, such as with a pneumothorax that can lead to atelectasis. Pleurisy, inflammation of the pleurae, can be caused by insufficient secretion of pleural fluid or by excess amounts of fluid.

Page Ref: 437, 439, 444 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

31 .

5) Explain the structure and function of the respiratory membrane.

Answer: The respiratory membrane, also known as the air-blood barrier, is comprised of the fused basement membranes of the alveolar and pulmonary capillary walls. The respiratory membrane has gas flowing past on one side and blood flowing past on the other. Gas exchanges occur by simple diffusion through the respiratory membrane. Oxygen passes from the alveolar air into the capillary blood, and carbon dioxide leaves the blood to enter the gas-filled alveoli.

Page Ref: 440 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Describe the changes in pressure and volume that lead to inspiration.

Answer: The diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract upon stimulation by the phrenic and intercostal nerves. In doing so, the intrapulmonary volume (volume inside the lungs) increases. Gases within the lungs spread out to fill the larger space, decreasing the intrapulmonary pressure. Air follows the pressure gradient into the body until intrapulmonary pressure equals atmospheric pressure, and inspiration (inhalation) occurs. Air rushes into the lungs.

Page Ref: 441-443 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Describe how oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in the blood.

Answer: Oxygen is transported in two ways: 1. Most oxygen attaches to hemoglobin molecules on the RBCs to form oxyhemoglobin.

2. A small amount of oxygen dissolves in the plasma for transport.

Carbon dioxide is also transported in two ways: 1. Most carbon dioxide is transported in the plasma as the bicarbonate ion.

2. A small amount of carbon dioxide is carried inside the RBCs bound to hemoglobin (bound to a different site from oxygen).

Page Ref: 446, 447 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Five-year-old Charlie is angry he can't continue to play, so he holds his breath. His carbon dioxide levels continue to climb and his parents are concerned what will happen to him. Predict how the respiratory system handles the rising carbon dioxide levels.

Answer: As carbon dioxide levels increase, the pH of the blood decreases becoming more acidic. The respiratory centers in the brain stimulate the inspiratory muscles to contract and increase the breathing rate. Hyperventilation produces breathing that is deeper and more rapid than eupnea (normal breathing) and removes more carbonic acid from the blood. Carbon dioxide is the primary stimulus for breathing; oxygen becomes an important stimulus when levels become dangerously low.

Page Ref: 449-450 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

32 .

9) Mr. Miles has a pneumothorax associated with his left lung. Evaluate its impact on his vital capacity.

Answer: A pneumothorax is air in the intrapleural space between the parietal and visceral pleura. It pushes on the lung, disrupting the fluid bond between the pleurae. In some cases, a pneumothorax can cause lung collapse (atelectasis). Since the pneumothorax pushes on the lung, it can reduce the vital capacity of the affected lung. Vital capacity is the sum of the inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), expiratory reserve volume (ERV), and tidal volume (TV).

Page Ref: 444 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 10) Andre has sickle cell anemia (SCA) (recall this form of anemia from Chapter 10). Assess his risk for hypoxia.

Answer: Recall from Chapter 10 that in sickle cell anemia (SCA), the body does not form normal hemoglobin. Most oxygen transported in the blood attaches to hemoglobin molecules inside the red blood cells (RBCs) and forms oxyhemoglobin. Inadequate oxygen delivery to body tissues is called hypoxia and can be caused by anemia, such as sickle cell anemia. If Andre's red blood cells are unable to transport adequate levels of oxygen, he will be at a higher risk for hypoxia.

Page Ref: 335, 446, 447 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 11) Julisa is running up several flights of stairs because she is late for her class. Carbon dioxide levels build in her blood; her blood pH begins to drop. Will she hyperventilate or hypoventilate to restore her blood pH and carbon dioxide levels to normal? Defend your answer with an explanation.

Answer: An increase in the carbon dioxide levels of the blood can cause a decreased blood pH. High CO2 results in more carbonic acid, which lowers blood pH. As carbon dioxide or other sources of acids begin to accumulate in the blood and tissues, and blood pH starts to drop, Julisa will begin to breathe more deeply and more rapidly (hyperventilation). Hyperventilation is an increase in the rate and depth of breathing that will elevate her blood pH back to normal through the removal of carbonic acid, and in turn, carbon dioxide from the blood.

Page Ref: 450 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

33 .

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 14 The Digestive System and Body Metabolism 14.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 14.1, identify the following: 1) The mouth (oral cavity) is indicated by ________.

A) Label C B) Label D C) Label E D) Label B E) Label A Answer: E Page Ref: 461 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 1 .

2) The large intestine is indicated by ________.

A) Label J B) Label L C) Label K D) Label M E) Label N Answer: A Page Ref: 461 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The salivary glands are indicated by ________.

A) Label J B) Label L C) Label M D) Label N E) Label O Answer: E Page Ref: 461 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The small intestine is indicated by ________.

A) Label H B) Label J C) Label D D) Label F E) Label G Answer: D Page Ref: 461 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The liver is indicated by ________.

A) Label F B) Label D C) Label E D) Label G E) Label L Answer: B Page Ref: 461 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2 .

6) The tongue is indicated by ________.

A) Label F B) Label D C) Label B D) Label A E) Label C Answer: C Page Ref: 461 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The stomach is indicated by ________.

A) Label K B) Label M C) Label L D) Label O E) Label N Answer: B Page Ref: 461 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The esophagus is indicated by ________.

A) Label C B) Label D C) Label E D) Label A E) Label G Answer: A Page Ref: 461 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The rectum is indicated by ________.

A) Label O B) Label N C) Label K D) Label I E) Label J Answer: D Page Ref: 461 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

3 .

10) The location of food mastication is indicated by ________.

A) Label B B) Label A C) Label C D) Label D E) Label F Answer: B Page Ref: 461, 463 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The passageway that connects the oral cavity to the esophagus is indicated by ________.

A) Label N B) Label F C) Label K D) Label M E) Label L Answer: A Page Ref: 461 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The anus is indicated by ________.

A) Label K B) Label L C) Label M D) Label O E) Label G Answer: E Page Ref: 461 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The appendix is indicated by ________.

A) Label I B) Label F C) Label D D) Label G E) Label H Answer: E Page Ref: 461 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4 .

14) The pancreas is indicated by ________.

A) Label I B) Label E C) Label G D) Label M E) Label L Answer: E Page Ref: 461 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The gallbladder is indicated by ________.

A) Label C B) Label E C) Label D D) Label F E) Label I Answer: B Page Ref: 461 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The process of breaking food particles down is referred to as ________.

A) digestion B) defecation C) ingestion D) absorption Answer: A Page Ref: 460 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) What anchors the tongue to the floor of the mouth and limits its movements?

A) Lingual frenulum B) Hard palate C) Uvula D) Vestibule Answer: A Page Ref: 462 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Food that you have swallowed comes in contact with the ________.

A) serosa B) submucosa C) mucosa D) muscularis externa Answer: C Page Ref: 463 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5 .

19) The two intrinsic nerve plexuses serving the alimentary canal are the ________.

A) solar and sympathetic B) submucosa and myenteric C) autonomic and somatic D) mucosa and submucosa Answer: B Page Ref: 463-464 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which sphincter, or valve, controls food movement from the stomach into the small intestine?

A) Ileocecal B) Cardioesophageal C) Pyloric D) Anal Answer: C Page Ref: 464 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) What do chief cells of the stomach produce?

A) Protein-digesting enzymes B) Hormones C) Hydrochloric acid (HCl) D) Mucus Answer: A Page Ref: 467 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Intrinsic factor, produced by cells in the stomach, is necessary for the absorption of vitamin ________ in the small intestine.

A) B9 B) B3 C) B6 D) B12 Answer: D Page Ref: 467 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which portion of the small intestine joins the large intestine at the ileocecal valve?

A) Cecum B) Duodenum C) Jejunum D) Ileum Answer: D Page Ref: 468 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6 .

24) What are the fingerlike projections of the small intestine that increase the absorptive surface area?

A) Haustra B) Cilia C) Villi D) Rugae Answer: C Page Ref: 469 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Bile is formed by the ________ and stored in the ________.

A) spleen; liver B) liver; gallbladder C) gallbladder; liver D) pancreas; gallbladder Answer: B Page Ref: 473 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which of the following gives the small intestine a fuzzy appearance known as the brush border?

A) Circular folds (plicae circulares) B) Microvilli C) Haustra D) Villi Answer: B Page Ref: 469 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which of the following collections of lymphatic tissue prevents large numbers of bacteria from entering the bloodstream in the distal (end) portion of the small intestine?

A) Circular folds (plicae circulares) B) Peyer's patches C) Villi D) Microvilli Answer: B Page Ref: 470 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which sphincter operates under voluntary control?

A) Cardioesophageal sphincter B) Internal anal sphincter C) Pyloric sphincter D) External anal sphincter Answer: D Page Ref: 470 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7 .

29) How many baby teeth will a child have by two years of age?

A) 12 B) 20 C) 28 D) 32 Answer: B Page Ref: 471 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) The portion of the tooth embedded in the jawbone is the ________.

A) neck B) enamel C) crown D) root Answer: D Page Ref: 472 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which of the following is not a function of saliva?

A) Salivary amylase begins the emulsification of fats in the mouth.

B) Saliva dissolves food chemicals, so they can be tasted.

C) The mucus in saliva helps bind food together in a bolus.

D) Antibodies present in saliva inhibit bacteria.

Answer: A Page Ref: 473 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Jaundice indicates that bile has backed up into the ________ rather than entering the small intestine.

A) large intestine B) liver C) stomach D) esophagus Answer: B Page Ref: 473 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) What is the first digestive process, which involves placing food in the mouth, to occur?

A) Segmentation B) Mastication C) Peristalsis D) Ingestion Answer: D Page Ref: 474, 476 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8 .

34) The process of eliminating indigestible residues from the GI tract is called ________.

A) deglutition B) segmentation C) mastication D) defecation Answer: D Page Ref: 476, 482-483 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which two hormones promote the release of bile and pancreatic juice into the small intestine?

A) Secretin; cholecystokinin (CCK) B) Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP); histamine C) Somatostatin; secretin D) Gastrin; histamine Answer: A Page Ref: 467, 481, 482 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) The hormone responsible for promoting the release of pepsinogens, mucus, and hydrochloric acid in the stomach is called ________.

A) insulin B) cholecystokinin (CCK) C) gastrin D) secretin Answer: C Page Ref: 467, 478, 479 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which reflex inhibits the stomach's activities and slows the emptying of the stomach?

A) Rooting B) Enterogastric C) Sucking D) Defecation Answer: B Page Ref: 480 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Hydrochloric acid is necessary in the stomach for the conversion of pepsinogen into its active protein-digesting form called ________.

A) pepsin B) rennin C) amylase D) peptidase Answer: A Page Ref: 478-479 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9 .

39) What organs are targeted by the hormones secretin and cholecystokinin (CCK) to release pancreatic juice and bile into the small intestine for digestion?

A) Gallbladder, stomach, liver B) Liver, spleen, esophagus C) Stomach, spleen, large intestine D) Pancreas, gallbladder, liver Answer: D Page Ref: 481, 482 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) When feces are forced into the rectum by mass movements and the wall of the rectum becomes stretched, the ________ reflex is initiated.

A) defecation B) sucking C) enterogastric D) rooting Answer: A Page Ref: 483 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) The energy value of foods is measured in units called ________.

A) BMI B) Hertz C) kilocalories (kcal) or Calories D) Joules Answer: C Page Ref: 485 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) What does MyPlate from the USDA recommend?

A) MyPlate predicts individual basal metabolic rates.

B) MyPlate recommends a balance of fruits, vegetables, grains, and proteins that we should consume.

C) MyPlate is a nationwide meal delivery service.

D) MyPlate provides a personalized exercise plan.

Answer: B Page Ref: 485-486, 487 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

10 .

43) ________ refers to all chemical reactions necessary to maintain life.

A) Digestion B) Metabolism C) Homeostasis D) Nutrition Answer: B Page Ref: 488 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) The major fuel for making ATP in most cells of the body is a type of carbohydrate known as ________.

A) cellulose B) glucose C) starch D) saturated fat Answer: B Page Ref: 488, 489 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 45) Which event of cellular respiration is the biggest payoff step in which 28 ATP are produced?

A) Citric acid cycle B) Glycolysis C) Electron transport chain D) Glycogenesis Answer: C Page Ref: 488-489 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) Fat oxidation products can acidify the blood, a condition known as ________.

A) cirrhosis B) alkalosis C) acidosis or ketoacidosis D) hepatitis Answer: C Page Ref: 491 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 47) The process of making glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, such as fats and proteins, is known as ________.

A) glycogenolysis B) gluconeogenesis C) glycolysis D) glycogenesis Answer: B Page Ref: 493, 494 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11 .

48) Which lipoprotein transports cholesterol and other lipids to body cells?

A) High-density lipoprotein or HDL B) Low-density lipoprotein or LDL C) Vitamin D D) Cortisol Answer: B Page Ref: 493 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 49) The total amount of kilocalories the body must consume to fuel all ongoing activities, which increases dramatically during physical exertion, is called the ________.

A) total metabolic rate (TMR) B) homeostasis C) basal metabolic rate (BMR) D) body mass index (BMI) Answer: A Page Ref: 495-496 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 50) The reflex that helps babies hold onto a breast (or bottle) and swallow is the ________ reflex.

A) flexor B) rooting C) enterogastric D) sucking Answer: D Page Ref: 499 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

12 .

14.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) The area in the mouth contained by the teeth is known as ________.

A) vestibule B) uvula C) labia D) oral cavity proper E) lingual frenulum Answer: D Page Ref: 462 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which one of the following represents the correct order through which food passes in the alimentary canal?

A) Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine B) Mouth, esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine C) Pharynx, mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine D) Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine E) Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, small intestine, stomach, large intestine Answer: D Page Ref: 462 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Where does the breakdown of food begin?

A) Pharynx B) Esophagus C) Mouth D) Stomach E) Salivary glands Answer: C Page Ref: 463 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) A stabbing victim sustained a perforation to his large intestine. From the outermost layer to the innermost layer, what is the order in which the knife penetrated his intestine?

A) Serosa, muscularis externa, submucosa, mucosa B) Serosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, mucosa C) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa D) Submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa E) Mucosa, muscularis external, submucosa, serosa Answer: A Page Ref: 463 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

13 .

5) Which tissue layer (or tunic) houses blood vessels, nerve endings, mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT), and lymphatic vessels?

A) Mucosa B) Lumen C) Submucosa D) Muscularis externa E) Serosa Answer: C Page Ref: 463 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which of the following is the outermost layer of the GI tract that lines the abdominopelvic cavity?

A) Mucosa B) Submucosa C) Visceral peritoneum D) Muscularis externa E) Parietal peritoneum Answer: E Page Ref: 463, 466 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The submucosal and myenteric nerve plexuses that help regulate the mobility and secretory activity of the GI tract organs are both part of the ________.

A) somatic nervous system B) autonomic nervous system C) sympathetic nervous system D) fight-or-flight mechanism E) central nervous system Answer: B Page Ref: 463-464 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) What region is the terminal part of the stomach?

A) Cardia B) Fundus C) Greater curvature D) Pylorus E) Body Answer: D Page Ref: 464 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

14 .

9) What protects the stomach from being damaged by acid or enzymes?

A) Pepsin B) Hydrochloric acid C) Intrinsic factor D) Alkaline mucus E) Gastric juice Answer: D Page Ref: 467 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Hydrochloric acid is necessary in the stomach for the conversion of pepsinogen to ________.

A) acid B) rennin C) pepsin D) rugae E) gastrin Answer: C Page Ref: 465, 467, 478 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) What do the ducts that join at the hepatopancreatic ampulla deliver to the duodenum of the small intestine?

A) Bile and pancreatic juices B) Oxygen-rich blood and nutrients C) Hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor D) Gastrin and histamine E) Cholecystokinin (CCK) and secretin Answer: A Page Ref: 468 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The small intestine extends from the ________.

A) cardioesophageal sphincter to the pyloric sphincter (valve) B) pyloric sphincter (valve) to the ileocecal valve C) ileocecal valve to the appendix D) appendix to the sigmoid colon E) gastroesophageal (cardiac) sphincter to ileocecal valve Answer: B Page Ref: 468 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

15 .

13) Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder caused by sensitivity to gluten. When a person has this disease, the intestinal villi are shortened. The most likely symptom of this disease is decreased ________.

A) hydrochloric acid production B) bile production C) nutrient absorption D) defecation E) blood pH Answer: C Page Ref: 469-470 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) Enzymes and bile are carried by the hepatopancreatic ampulla into the ________.

A) duodenum B) jejunum C) ileocecal valve D) ileum E) large intestine Answer: A Page Ref: 468 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) What is one of the main functions of the small intestine?

A) Absorption of nutrients B) Absorption of water C) Waste secretion D) Vitamin conversion E) Mineral secretion Answer: A Page Ref: 468-469 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Which of the following is not a modification designed to increase surface area for absorption within the small intestine?

A) Microvilli B) Villi C) Peyer's patches D) Circular folds E) Plicae circulares Answer: C Page Ref: 469-470 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

16 .

17) What is the correct pathway that feces would travel through the colon?

A) Ascending colon, transverse colon, sigmoid colon, descending colon B) Ascending colon, sigmoid colon, transverse colon, descending colon C) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum D) Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon E) Transverse colon, ascending colon, sigmoid colon, descending colon Answer: D Page Ref: 470, 471 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which organ is responsible for drying out indigestible food residue through water absorption and the elimination of feces?

A) Stomach B) Large intestine C) Small intestine D) Pancreas E) Liver Answer: B Page Ref: 470, 476 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) What is the purpose of mastication?

A) To eliminate undigested food wastes from the body B) To propel food from one digestive organ to the next C) To transport nutrients into the blood and lymph D) To chew, grind, and tear food into smaller pieces while in the mouth E) To move food back and forth along the walls of the small intestine Answer: D Page Ref: 463, 470 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) What does salivary amylase digest?

A) Protein B) Starch C) Fat D) Vitamins E) Minerals Answer: B Page Ref: 473, 476, 477 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

17 .

21) What ceramic-like substance covers the crown of a tooth?

A) Cement B) Root C) Enamel D) Pulp E) Dentin Answer: C Page Ref: 472 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Liam lost his first deciduous (baby) tooth–a lower front tooth. What type of tooth was it?

A) Incisor B) Canine (eyetooth) C) Premolar (bicuspid) D) Molar E) Wisdom tooth Answer: A Page Ref: 471-472 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Enzymes that break down all food groups are made by the ________.

A) liver B) gallbladder C) salivary glands D) pancreas E) spleen Answer: D Page Ref: 473, 476, 477 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) What organ stores bile when food digestion is not occurring?

A) Liver B) Pancreas C) Gallbladder D) Spleen E) The body has no capacity for bile storage Answer: C Page Ref: 473 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

18 .

25) Which tube brings bile directly back into the gallbladder for storage?

A) Common bile duct B) Main pancreatic duct C) Cystic duct D) Accessory pancreatic duct E) Common hepatic duct Answer: C Page Ref: 473 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which tissue layer or tunic of the digestive tract performs peristalsis?

A) Mucosa B) Muscularis externa C) Submucosa D) Mesentery E) Serosa Answer: B Page Ref: 463, 474 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) The propulsive process that moves food from one organ to the next is called ________.

A) ingestion B) peristalsis C) digestion D) mastication E) absorption Answer: B Page Ref: 463, 474 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The process by which food within the small intestine is mixed with digestive juices by backward and forward movement across the internal wall of the organ is called ________.

A) peristalsis B) segmentation C) defecation D) digestion E) absorption Answer: B Page Ref: 474-475 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

19 .

29) What is the last process the digestive tract performs?

A) Ingestion B) Mastication C) Defecation D) Absorption E) Segmentation Answer: C Page Ref: 476 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Where does protein digestion begin?

A) Pancreas B) Mouth C) Large intestine D) Pharynx E) Stomach Answer: E Page Ref: 477, 478-479 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) After chewing food, you consciously decide to push the bolus to the back of your mouth into your pharynx with your tongue. What is this voluntary phase of swallowing called?

A) Ingestion B) Buccal phase of deglutition C) Mastication D) Pharyngeal-esophageal phase of deglutition E) Segmentation Answer: B Page Ref: 478 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Waves of peristalsis in the stomach propel chyme toward the pyloric sphincter (valve). When a contraction closes the valve, what happens to the chyme?

A) Chyme is absorbed by the stomach mucosa.

B) Chyme is propelled backward into the stomach for continued mixing, a process called retropulsion.

C) Vomiting (emesis) occurs as reverse peristalsis waves move the chyme toward the esophagus.

D) An enzyme will now curdle the chyme into a substance that looks like sour milk.

E) Segmentation mixes the chyme with enzymes in the stomach.

Answer: B Page Ref: 479-480 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

20 .

33) Where does starch digestion begin?

A) Mouth B) Pancreas C) Large intestine D) Small intestine E) Stomach Answer: A Page Ref: 473, 476, 477 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Which of the following does not contribute to the digestion of proteins?

A) Trypsin B) Pepsin C) Chymotrypsin D) Carboxypeptidase E) Amylase Answer: E Page Ref: 477-81 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) The process of swallowing is also known as ________.

A) mastication B) segmentation C) deglutition D) defecation E) absorption Answer: C Page Ref: 478 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Which one of the following alimentary segments has no digestive function?

A) Cardial region of the stomach B) Pyloric region of the stomach C) Mouth D) Esophagus E) Duodenum Answer: D Page Ref: 478 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

21 .

37) Which digestive system organ is the target of gastrin?

A) Esophagus B) Pancreas C) Stomach D) Small intestine E) Liver Answer: C Page Ref: 467, 478 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) What neutralizes acidic chyme arriving in the small intestine from the stomach?

A) Pancreatic amylase B) Bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice C) Secretin D) Enzyme-rich pancreatic juice E) Cholecystokinin (CCK) Answer: B Page Ref: 481 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) What does the enterogastric reflex accomplish?

A) Increases output of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice B) Stimulates the release of gastric juices C) Slows the emptying of the stomach contents D) Stimulates gallbladder to contract and expel bile E) Stimulates emptying of the stomach contents Answer: C Page Ref: 480 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) The enzyme responsible for converting milk protein in an infant's stomach to a substance that looks like sour milk is ________.

A) pepsin B) salivary amylase C) pancreatic amylase D) bile E) rennin Answer: E Page Ref: 479 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

22 .

41) Gastric juice can back up from the stomach into the esophagus and cause heartburn. What sphincter, weakened by a hiatal hernia, can contributes this condition?

A) Upper esophageal sphincter B) Pyloric sphincter C) External anal sphincter D) Cardioesophageal sphincter E) Ileocecal sphincter Answer: D Page Ref: 478 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) Enzyme-rich pancreatic juice contains all the following except ________.

A) amylase B) trypsin C) nuclease D) pepsin E) lipase Answer: D Page Ref: 477, 481 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which of the following hormones influence the release of pancreatic juice and bile?

A) Rennin and cholecystokinin (CCK) B) Gastrin and rennin C) Cholecystokinin (CCK) and gastrin D) Secretin and gastrin E) Cholecystokinin (CCK) and secretin Answer: E Page Ref: 467, 481, 482 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) What occurs to initiate the defecation reflex, often during or after a meal?

A) Haustral contractions B) Flatulence C) Mass movement D) Segmentation E) Enterogastric reflex Answer: C Page Ref: 483 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

23 .

45) The microbial residents of the human body are known as the ________.

A) macrodiet B) macroflora C) microbiota D) microfauna E) microbiome Answer: C Page Ref: 483 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) Which of these foods would be the most mineral-rich?

A) Broccoli B) Apple C) Bread D) Milk E) Cake Answer: D Page Ref: 486 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 47) The process by which larger molecules or structures are built up from smaller ones is called ________.

A) anabolism B) catabolism C) metabolism D) carbolysis E) glycolysis Answer: A Page Ref: 488 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 48) What role do most vitamins play in our bodies?

A) Essential amino acid B) Coenzyme C) Mineral D) Neutral fat E) Fiber Answer: B Page Ref: 487 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

24 .

49) After a meal of doughnuts and a soft drink, determine the process used by Marcella's body to store excess glucose.

A) Anaerobic respiration B) Glycogenolysis C) Glycogenesis D) Gluconeogenesis E) Glycolysis Answer: C Page Ref: 493, 494 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 50) Ketoacidosis results from the incomplete breakdown of ________.

A) fats B) proteins C) glycogen D) nucleic acids E) cholesterol Answer: A Page Ref: 491 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 51) Which one of the following is not a main role of the liver?

A) Detoxify drugs and alcohol B) Degrade hormones C) Make cholesterol D) Process nutrients during digestion E) Add ammonia to the blood Answer: E Page Ref: 491, 493 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 52) What accounts for the most heat loss?

A) Shivering B) Radiation or evaporation C) Vasoconstriction D) Exhaled breath E) ATP production Answer: B Page Ref: 494, 496, 498 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

25 .

53) Which hormone controls the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?

A) Thyroxine B) Melatonin C) Insulin D) Glucagon E) Testosterone Answer: A Page Ref: 495 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 54) Which of the following is a heat-promoting mechanism?

A) Skeletal muscles begin to shiver B) Sweat glands are activated C) Evaporation of perspiration from the skin's surface D) Radiation of heat from the skin's surface E) Blood vessels in the skin dilate Answer: A Page Ref: 498 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 55) Which condition prevents pancreatic juices from reaching the small intestine to break down fats and fat-soluble vitamins?

A) Cystic fibrosis B) Appendicitis C) Gastroenteritis D) Phenylketonuria E) Tracheoesophageal fistula Answer: A Page Ref: 499 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 56) Dehydration can reduce the amount of saliva you produce. Rank the process that is most impacted by decreased saliva production.

A) Starch breakdown B) Basal metabolic rate C) Nutrient absorption D) Mastication E) Retropulsion Answer: A Page Ref: 463, 473 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

26 .

57) Jay takes a proton-pump inhibitor to reduce the production of stomach acid for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Assess the following and select the function or process that will be most impacted by the presence of this drug in Jay's body.

A) Segmentation of food in the small intestine B) Activation of enzymes in the stomach C) Enterogastric reflex D) Transport of enzymes from the pancreas to the small intestine E) Bile production and transport to the small intestine Answer: B Page Ref: 467, 478 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 58) Gallstones ejected from the gallbladder will subsequently travel through a series of ducts.

The stone can create a blockage at the union of ducts joining at the hepatopancreatic ampulla.

Assess the following and select the organ that will be least impacted by a blockage.

A) Small intestine B) Pancreas C) Gallbladder D) Liver E) Stomach Answer: E Page Ref: 468, 473 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 14.3

True/False Questions

1) The organs of the alimentary canal (gastrointestinal, or GI, tract) are the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and anus.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 461-462 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The mucosa is the outermost lining of the alimentary canal organs from the esophagus to the large intestine.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 463 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Muscularis externa typically contains an inner circular layer and an outer longitudinal layer.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 463 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The mesenteries that surround most digestive organs anchor them in place and store fat.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 463, 466 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27 .

5) The lacy apron of the peritoneum that covers the abdominal organs is called the lesser omentum.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 464, 465, 466 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Pepsinogens are produced by parietal cells in the stomach.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 467 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Each villus of the small intestinal mucosa houses a modified lymphatic capillary known as a lacteal, which can absorb nutrients.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 469 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The villi, microvilli, and circular folds of the large intestine all increase the surface area.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 469-470 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The ascending colon makes a turn at the left colic (or splenic) flexure and continues on as the transverse colon.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 470, 471 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Goblet cells in the mucosa of the large intestine produce mucus to lubricate the passage of feces.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 470 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Haustra are pocket-like sacs of the small intestine.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 470, 471 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The segment of the colon to which the appendix is attached is the cecum.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 470, 471 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

28 .

13) The anal canal has a voluntary sphincter formed by smooth muscle only.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 470 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Teeth function in mastication.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 470 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The enamel found on teeth is heavily mineralized with calcium salts and comprises the hardest substance within the entire body.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 472 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Saliva, produced by endocrine glands, is a mixture of serous fluid and mucus.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 473 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Bile is an enzyme-rich fluid that breaks down fats into their building blocks.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 473 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) The pancreas makes an alkaline fluid that neutralizes the acidic chyme entering the small intestine from the stomach.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 473, 481 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Digestive activities are mostly controlled by reflexes of the parasympathetic nervous system.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 476, 478 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The two major phases of swallowing include an involuntary buccal phase and a voluntary pharyngeal-esophageal phase.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 478 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

29 .

21) The pharynx and esophagus have no digestive roles other than to provide a passageway to the next processing site.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 478 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) The presence of food or a rising pH stimulates the release of gastrin from the esophagus.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 478 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Absence of either bile or pancreatic juice indicates that no fat digestion or absorption is occurring. This can lead to blood-clotting problems because the liver needs vitamin K to make prothrombin.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 481 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Secretin and cholecystokinin influence the release of both pancreatic juice and bile.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 481 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Bacteria in the small intestine make some vitamins, such as some B and K. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 482 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Haustral contractions are slow-moving contractile waves that move over large areas of the colon three or four times each day.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 482-483 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) A nutrient may be a carbohydrate, lipid, protein, vitamin, mineral, or water.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 485 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Saturated fat is sourced mainly from animal products, such as meat and dairy foods.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 487 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

30 .

29) Fat is used as the major fuel for making ATP during cellular respiration in most body cells.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 488 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Optimal health of tissues is achieved when high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) and low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are present in equal amounts within the bloodstream.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 493 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) The body's thermostat, which constantly regulates body temperature, is located within the hypothalamus.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 496 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Most heat loss occurs through the skin via radiation or evaporation.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 498 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

31 .

14.4

Matching Questions

Match the following nutrients with their associated digestive enzymes: A) amylase B) nuclease C) rennin D) trypsin E) lipase 1) Protein Page Ref: 477, 481 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Milk proteins Page Ref: 479 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Starch Page Ref: 473-81 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Fat Page Ref: 477, 480, 481 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Nucleic acids Page Ref: 476, 481 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) D 2) C 3) A 4) E 5) B

32 .

Identify the digestive organ that is primarily associated with each of the following functions: A) small intestine B) liver C) stomach D) mouth 6) Organ where carbohydrate absorption occurs Page Ref: 477, 481 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Organ where starch digestion begins Page Ref: 473, 476, 477 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Organ where brush border enzymes break down small polypeptides into amino acids Page Ref: 469, 477, 481 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Organ where protein digestion begins Page Ref: 477, 478, 479 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Organ where bile emulsifies fats Page Ref: 473, 477, 481 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Organ that receives nutrients via the hepatic portal vein Page Ref: 477, 481, 491 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Organ where pancreatic lipase completes the breakdown of fats Page Ref: 477, 481 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 6) A 7) D 8) A 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) A

33 .

Match the following phrases with the appropriate process: A) propulsion B) food breakdown: digestion C) ingestion D) food breakdown: mechanical breakdown E) absorption F) defection 13) Placement of food into the mouth Page Ref: 474 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Peristalsis moves food from one organ to the next Page Ref: 474 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Transport of food products from the lumen of the GI tract to the blood or lymph Page Ref: 474, 476 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Chewing and segmentation are examples of this process Page Ref: 475 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Elimination of indigestible food residues from the GI tract as feces Page Ref: 474, 476 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Enzymatic reactions that hydrolyze food particles into their building blocks Page Ref: 474, 475-476 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 13) C 14) A 15) E 16) D 17) F 18) B

34 .

14.5

Essay Questions

1) Describe the four layers of the GI tract.

Answer: 1. Mucosa is the moist innermost layer; it lines the cavity of the organ. The mucosa consists primarily of a surface epithelium mostly composed of simple columnar epithelium, a small amount of connective tissue (lamina propria), and a scanty smooth muscle layer.

2. The submucosa is found just beneath the mucosa layer. It contains blood vessels, nerve endings, mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT), and lymphatic vessels.

3. The muscularis externa is the next layer, which is typically made up of a circular and a longitudinal layer of smooth muscle.

4. The outermost layer is the serosa, which consists of two single layers of cells. The innermost serosa is the visceral peritoneum. The outermost layer is the parietal peritoneum, which lines the abdominal cavity by way of a membrane extension called the mesentery. Between these layers is serous fluid.

Page Ref: 463-464 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Predict the effect on digestion if the pancreas is unable to make and release pancreatic juices.

Answer: Pancreatic juices are rich in both enzymes and bicarbonate ions. Without the enzymerich pancreatic juice, starch digestion will be incomplete, about half of protein digestion will not occur, nearly all of fat digestion will cease, and nucleic acid digestion will not occur.

Bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice helps neutralize the acidic chyme entering the small intestine from the stomach. Without the alkaline environment in the small intestine, enzymatic activity would not occur.

Page Ref: 481 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Discuss why an acidic pH is necessary for the stomach's activities to be accomplished.

Answer: Hydrochloric acid makes the stomach contents acidic. Acid is necessary for the activation of protein-digesting enzymes. Pepsin is the active protein-digesting enzyme that begins protein digestion in the stomach and is converted from pepsinogen when the stomach pH is acidic. Without the acidic environment, about half of the process of protein digestion would not be able to occur.

Page Ref: 467, 478 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

35 .

4) Explain the role of the hormones cholecystokinin (CCK) and secretin in regulating the release of bile and pancreatic juices.

Answer: When chyme enters the small intestine, it stimulates the mucosa cells to produce the hormones cholecystokinin (CCK) and secretin. These hormones travel in the bloodstream to their target organs: the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder. The pancreas responds to cholecystokinin (CCK) by releasing enzyme-rich pancreatic juice and secretin causes the secretion of bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice. The liver responds to secretin by releasing bile while cholecystokinin (CCK) stimulates the gallbladder to release stored bile. Bile and pancreatic juices enter the small intestine together through the hepatopancreatic ampulla.

Page Ref: 467, 481, 482 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) What is the difference between the basal metabolic rate (BMR) and the total metabolic rate (TMR)? Which one should dieters focus on for weight loss?

Answer: Basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of heat produced by the body at rest based on the amount of energy, or kilocalories, needed to operate per hour. Essential life operations include breathing, heartbeat, kidney functions, etc.

Total metabolic rate (TMR) is the total amount of kilocalories needed for the body to perform all of the ongoing activities. Muscular activity increases TMR. Dieters should focus on the TMR and reduce the kilocalorie intake by 20 percent or more to induce weight loss.

Page Ref: 495-496 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Discuss the process of cellular respiration by which body cells generate adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

Answer: Cellular respiration includes all of the oxygen-dependent processes by which energy from the breakdown of glucose is captured within chemical bonds, which unite adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and inorganic phosphate into the body's preferred energy molecule, adenosine triphosphate (ATP). One process, glycolysis, energizes each glucose molecule so that it can be split into two pyruvic acid molecules to yield ATP. The citric acid cycle, located within the mitochondria, produces all the carbon dioxide and water that results during cellular respiration, and it yields a small amount of ATP as well. The electron transport chain, also located within the mitochondria, is the primary producer of ATP. Hydrogen atoms removed during glycolysis and the citric acid cycle are delivered to the protein carriers of the electron transport chain, which form part of the mitochondrial cristae membranes. There the hydrogen atoms are split into their positive ions and negative electrons. The electrons then travel from carrier to carrier in a series of steps that enable phosphate to attach to ADP to form ATP. Page Ref: 488-490 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

36 .

7) Describe how these chemical reactions assist with blood sugar homeostasis: gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, and glycogenesis.

Answer: Gluconeogenesis is a reaction in which the liver uses noncarbohydrate sources (such as fats and proteins) to produce glucose. Glycogenolysis is a reaction in which the liver breaks down stored glycogen and turns it into glucose. Both of these reactions response to hormones that are meant to raise blood sugar levels. Glycogenesis is a reaction in which the liver turns excess glucose in the blood into a large polysaccharide called glycogen. This type of reaction removes glucose from the blood and lowers blood sugar levels.

Page Ref: 493 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Some medications can cause bleeding in the stomach and irritation of the stomach lining.

Which tissue layer, or tunic, is most impacted? Support your answer with an explanation.

Answer: The mucosa is the innermost layer, a moist mucous membrane that lines the hollow cavity, or lumen, of the digestive organ. The mucosa of the stomach is a simple columnar epithelium composed entirely of mucous cells. They produce a protective layer of bicarbonaterich alkaline mucus that clings to the stomach mucosa and protects the stomach wall from being damaged by acid or digestive enzymes. If bleeding occurs, it proves that the submucosa layer is also involved, because unlike the submucosa, the mucosa is comprised of epithelial tissue, which is avascular.

Page Ref: 463, 466-467 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 9) Diverticula are formed when the diet lacks bulk and the circular muscles of the digestive tract contract more powerfully to propel feces during a reflex. In diverticulosis, the mucosa protrudes through the walls of the tract. Would this condition be more commonly found in the small intestine or the large intestine? Support your answer with an explanation.

Answer: Diverticulosis is associated with the large intestine since the propulsion of feces only occurs in this organ. Once the defecation reflex is initiated, a bowel movement may be produced, if convenient.

Page Ref: 483 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 10) People with diabetes mellitus are often encouraged to select appropriate foods to eat to reduce the impact on their blood glucose homeostasis. Which specific food groups– monosaccharides, disaccharides, or polysaccharides–should be eaten in limited amounts by a diabetic who has difficulty regulating blood glucose levels?

Answer: A diabetic aiming to maintain blood glucose levels should avoid a meal rich in monosaccharides (simple sugars). While glucose is the fuel used to provide ATP for the body, the liver helps maintain the blood glucose level within the normal range. After a carbohydraterich meal, glucose molecules are removed from the blood and combined to form large polysaccharide molecules called glycogen, which are then stored in the liver (glycogenesis).

Recall from Chapter 9 that the hormone insulin is vitally important in reducing blood glucose levels but that hormone is hyposecreted in cases of diabetes mellitus.

Page Ref: 475 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 37 .

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 15 The Urinary System 15.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 15.1, identify the following: 1) The ureter is indicated by ________.

A) Label E B) Label A C) Label G D) Label F E) Label B Answer: E Page Ref: 512, 514, 515 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) The renal cortex is indicated by ________.

A) Label F B) Label G C) Label D D) Label E E) Label A Answer: B Page Ref: 514, 515 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The renal pelvis is indicated by ________.

A) Label E B) Label A C) Label G D) Label F E) Label B Answer: A Page Ref: 514, 515 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) A calyx is indicated by ________.

A) Label G B) Label F C) Label A D) Label B E) Label C Answer: C Page Ref: 514 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

Figure 15.2 Using Figure 15.2, identify the following: 5) The nephron loop, or loop of Henle, is indicated by ________.

A) Label I B) Label J C) Label K D) Label M E) Label O Answer: B Page Ref: 515 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

6) The peritubular capillaries are indicated by ________.

A) Label N B) Label M C) Label O D) Label L E) Label K Answer: A Page Ref: 515 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The glomerular (Bowman's) capsule is indicated by ________.

A) Label G B) Label F C) Label A D) Label I E) Label C Answer: C Page Ref: 515 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The proximal convoluted tubule is indicated by ________.

A) Label M B) Label N C) Label O D) Label I E) Label F Answer: A Page Ref: 515 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The efferent arteriole is indicated by ________.

A) Label D B) Label C C) Label L D) Label K E) Label B Answer: B Page Ref: 515 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The cortical radiate artery is indicated by ________.

A) Label E B) Label A C) Label I D) Label M E) Label D Answer: E Page Ref: 515 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

11) The glomerulus is indicated by ________.

A) Label F B) Label I C) Label K D) Label O E) Label M Answer: D Page Ref: 515 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Which of the following is not true of the location of the kidneys?

A) The kidneys lie along the dorsal body wall.

B) The right kidney sits lower than the left kidney due to the presence of the liver.

C) The kidneys are encapsulated by the parietal peritoneum.

D) The kidneys are situated between vertebrae T12 to L3.

Answer: C Page Ref: 512 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) From outermost to innermost, what are the three regions of the kidney?

A) Renal medulla, renal cortex, renal hilum B) Renal cortex, renal medulla, renal pelvis C) Renal pelvis, renal pyramids, renal columns D) Renal hilum, renal medulla, renal cortex Answer: B Page Ref: 513 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) What extensions of cortex-like tissue separate the renal (medullary) pyramids?

A) Renal columns B) Renal pelvis C) Renal hilum D) Renal capsule Answer: A Page Ref: 513 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) What blood vessel carries blood from the aorta into the kidney?

A) Hepatic artery B) Renal artery C) Renal vein D) Glomerulus Answer: B Page Ref: 513, 514 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

16) What is the functional unit of the kidney that filters blood and forms urine?

A) Glomerulus B) Nephron C) Renal pyramid D) Renal pelvis Answer: B Page Ref: 513, 515 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Where does blood travel immediately upon exiting the efferent arteriole?

A) Peritubular capillaries B) Renal tubule C) Glomerulus D) Cortical radiate vein Answer: A Page Ref: 514, 515, 516 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Filtrate formed during glomerular filtration is captured by the ________.

A) renal pyramid B) renal hilum C) glomerular (Bowman's) capsule D) renal column Answer: C Page Ref: 516, 517 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The process that removes ions such as potassium and hydrogen from the blood and places them into the nephron for removal from the body as urine is known as ________.

A) glomerular filtration B) tubular reabsorption C) tubular secretion D) osmosis Answer: C Page Ref: 518 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Filtrate contains everything in blood plasma except for ________.

A) water B) blood proteins C) solutes D) electrolytes Answer: B Page Ref: 517 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

21) Water that is reclaimed from filtrate in the renal tubule will be transported to the ________.

A) distal convoluted tubule B) glomerular (Bowman's) capsule C) peritubular capillaries D) glomerulus Answer: C Page Ref: 517 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Adequate glomerulus pressure is primarily necessary for ________.

A) tubular secretion B) tubular reabsorption C) glomerular filtration D) micturition Answer: C Page Ref: 517 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) The smooth triangular region of the urinary bladder base that is outlined by the openings of the two ureters and the urethra is called the ________.

A) trigone B) calyx C) pelvis D) hilum Answer: A Page Ref: 521 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Inflammation of the urethra is called ________.

A) pyelonephritis B) urethritis C) cystitis D) glomerulonephritis Answer: B Page Ref: 522 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) What is the name of the involuntary sphincter that keeps the urethra closed when urine is not being passed?

A) External urethral sphincter B) Internal anal sphincter C) Internal urethral sphincter D) Ileocecal sphincter Answer: C Page Ref: 522 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

26) The inability to voluntarily control the external urethral sphincter is known as ________.

A) incontinence B) urinary retention C) urgency D) hyperplasia Answer: A Page Ref: 524 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) The process of emptying the urinary bladder is known as voiding or ________.

A) urgency B) incontinence C) micturition D) nocturia Answer: C Page Ref: 522 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which of the following fluid compartments accounts for the majority of the water in the body?

A) Lymph B) Plasma C) Extracellular fluid or ECF D) Intracellular fluid or ICF Answer: D Page Ref: 524, 525 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) What is the driving force for water intake?

A) Metabolism B) The thirst mechanism C) The renin-angiotensin mechanism D) Glomerular filtration Answer: B Page Ref: 526 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Vyasar ate a salty meal but did not drink enough fluids with it. Which receptors in his brain will detect that his blood plasma solute concentration has increased?

A) Thermoreceptors B) Baroreceptors C) Mechanoreceptors D) Osmoreceptors Answer: D Page Ref: 526 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

31) What abnormal condition results from the lack of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release, causing huge amounts of very dilute urine to be voided?

A) Diabetes insipidus B) Glomerulonephritis C) Diabetes mellitus D) Urethritis Answer: A Page Ref: 527 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) What is the most important trigger for aldosterone release?

A) Blood buffers B) Thirst mechanism C) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D) Renin-angiotensin mechanism Answer: D Page Ref: 528, 529 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Arterial blood pH above 7.45 is considered to be ________.

A) acidosis B) normal C) alkalosis D) physiological acidosis Answer: C Page Ref: 529 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) A strong acid will dissociate and liberate more ________ ions in water than a weak acid.

A) bicarbonate B) hydrogen C) sodium D) potassium Answer: B Page Ref: 530 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) As blood pH rises, the kidneys will ________.

A) secrete bicarbonate ions into the urine and reabsorb hydrogen ions into the blood B) secrete urea, uric acid, and creatinine from the filtrate into the urine C) secrete bicarbonate ions into the urine and reabsorb carbonic acid into the blood D) secrete hydrogen ions into the urine and reabsorb bicarbonate ions into the blood Answer: A Page Ref: 531 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

36) Which congenital condition is found in male babies only and arises when the urethral orifice is located on the ventral surface of the penis?

A) Renal calculi B) Glomerulonephritis C) Hypospadias D) Cystitis Answer: C Page Ref: 533 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Untreated streptococcal infections in childhood can lead to the kidney condition known as ________.

A) cystitis B) hypospadias C) urethritis D) glomerulonephritis Answer: D Page Ref: 533 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) A feeling that it is necessary to void, which is experienced more regularly in the elderly, is known as ________.

A) urgency B) nocturia C) frequency D) urethritis Answer: A Page Ref: 533 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

15.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) Which of the following is not one of the functions of the kidneys?

A) Manufacture urine B) Convert vitamin D from its inactive to its active form C) Dispose of metabolic waste products D) Produce hormones that assist in digestion E) Regulate blood volume Answer: D Page Ref: 511-512 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which organ filters blood, regulates blood volume and chemical makeup?

A) Kidney B) Ureter C) Liver D) Urinary bladder E) Urethra Answer: A Page Ref: 511. 512 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which protective layer is the most superficial covering of the kidney, which anchors the kidney and adrenal gland to surrounding structures?

A) Renal cortex B) Fibrous capsule C) Parietal peritoneum D) Perineal fat capsule E) Renal fascia Answer: E Page Ref: 513 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) What region of the kidney is deep to the renal cortex?

A) Renal fascia B) Renal medulla C) Renal column D) Calyx E) Renal hilum Answer: B Page Ref: 513, 514 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

5) The triangular regions of the kidneys that are striped in appearance and separated by the renal columns are the ________.

A) renal cortex B) renal fascia C) renal (medullary) pyramids D) renal pelvis E) calyces Answer: C Page Ref: 513, 514 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) As venous blood is drained from the kidney, identify the path it follows.

A) Cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, interlobar veins, renal vein B) Renal vein, interlobar veins, segmental veins, arcuate veins C) Arcuate veins, cortical radiate veins, interlobar veins, renal vein D) Renal vein, segmental veins, interlobar veins, arcuate veins, cortical radiate veins E) Cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, interlobar veins, segmental veins, renal vein Answer: A Page Ref: 513, 514 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Red blood cells are too large to be filtered by the glomerulus. Under normal conditions, they will travel from the glomerulus to the ________.

A) urinary bladder B) filtrate C) efferent arteriole D) renal tubule E) ureter Answer: C Page Ref: 516. 517 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) What is the name of the capillary bed that surrounds the renal tubule?

A) Afferent arteriole B) Segmental arteries C) Peritubular capillaries D) Cortical radiate arteries E) Glomerular capillaries Answer: C Page Ref: 516 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

9) Starting from the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule, the correct order of the renal tubule regions is ________.

A) proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule, nephron loop (loop of Henle) B) distal convoluted tubule, nephron loop (loop of Henle), proximal convoluted tubule C) nephron loop (loop of Henle), proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule D) proximal convoluted tubule, nephron loop (loop of Henle), distal convoluted tubule E) distal convoluted tubule, proximal convoluted tubule, nephron loop (loop of Henle) Answer: D Page Ref: 515, 516 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) The portion of the renal tubule closest to the glomerulus is the ________.

A) collecting duct B) proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) C) glomerular (Bowman's) capsule D) distal convoluted tubule (DCT) E) nephron loop (loop of Henle) Answer: B Page Ref: 515, 516 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Where are the most nephrons located?

A) Renal pelvis B) Calyces C) Renal medulla D) Renal pyramids E) Renal cortex Answer: E Page Ref: 516 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) What do collecting ducts of the kidney transport?

A) Blood B) Filtrate C) Urine D) Blood cells E) Intracellular fluid Answer: C Page Ref: 516 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

13) Of the capillary beds associated with each nephron, which one is both fed and drained by arterioles?

A) Peritubular capillaries B) Pyramidal capillaries C) Glomerulus D) Henle capillaries E) Bowman's capillaries Answer: C Page Ref: 515, 516 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Which of the following is not typically found in filtrate?

A) Water B) Blood proteins C) Glucose D) Ions E) Amino acids Answer: B Page Ref: 517 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) How are nitrogenous wastes, such as urea, uric acid, and creatinine, handled by the kidney?

A) Most nitrogenous wastes are reabsorbed into the blood from the filtrate.

B) The urinary system does not handle nitrogenous wastes; instead, these wastes are removed in the feces.

C) Most nitrogenous wastes are filtered and excreted in urine.

D) Nitrogenous wastes are removed from the body during exhalation.

E) Nitrogenous waste is under the control of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

Answer: C Page Ref: 518-519 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The highest concentration of urea should be found in the ________.

A) blood B) lymph C) urine D) intracellular fluid E) extracellular fluid Answer: C Page Ref: 518, 519 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

17) Which of the following is not a substance typically reabsorbed by the tubules under normal healthy conditions?

A) Glucose B) Urea C) Amino acids D) Sodium E) Water Answer: B Page Ref: 518, 519 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) In a 24-hour period, how much urine is typically produced?

A) 0.5 L B) 0.9 L C) 1.4 L D) 2.0 L E) 3.4 L Answer: C Page Ref: 519 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which of the following substances is normally found in urine?

A) Blood proteins B) Red blood cells C) Hemoglobin D) White blood cells E) Creatinine Answer: E Page Ref: 519 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Iris performed a urinalysis test in her biology lab and discovered glucose was present in her urine. What could be a potential reason for glycosuria?

A) Diabetes mellitus B) Kidney infection C) Hypertension D) Kidney stones E) Liver disease Answer: A Page Ref: 520 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

21) A very dehydrated person will produce urine with a specific gravity closest to ________.

A) 0.005 B) 1.001 C) 1.010 D) 1.020 E) 1.030 Answer: E Page Ref: 519 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Liver disease, such as hepatitis, can lead to an abnormal urine condition known as ________.

A) hematuria B) diabetes mellitus C) bilirubinuria D) ketonuria E) proteinuria Answer: C Page Ref: 520 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Why is the trigone of the urinary bladder clinically important?

A) The trigone is longer in males than in females.

B) Infections tend to persist in the trigone.

C) Females have a trigone but males lack the trigone.

D) The prostate gland is present in males in the trigone.

E) Both sperm and urine pass through the trigone in males.

Answer: B Page Ref: 521 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The urinary bladder is able to expand as urine accumulates within it due to the presence of a specialized mucosa called ________.

A) simple squamous epithelium B) transitional epithelium C) stratified squamous epithelium D) pseudostratified epithelium E) sphincters Answer: B Page Ref: 521 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

25) What tube transports urine from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body?

A) Ureter B) Distal convoluted tubule C) Proximal convoluted tubule D) Urethra E) Collecting duct Answer: D Page Ref: 522 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which of the following is not true of the differences between the male and female urethrae?

A) The male urethra is part of both the urinary and reproductive systems while the female urethra is only part of the urinary system.

B) The male urethra opens at the tip of the penis while the female urethra opens anterior to the vagina opening.

C) The male urethra transports both urine and sperm (but never at the same time) while the only function of the female urethra is to transport urine.

D) The male urethra has three different regions: prostatic, membranous, and spongy while the female urethra lacks these regions.

E) The male urethra is the same length as the female urethra.

Answer: E Page Ref: 522 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 27) What sphincters (or valves) control the flow of urine from the urinary bladder?

A) Internal urethral sphincter and external urethral sphincter B) Internal anal sphincter and external anal sphincter C) External urethral sphincter and external anal sphincter D) Trigone and detrusor muscle E) Internal urethral orifice and external urethral orifice Answer: A Page Ref: 522 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) When we begin to feel the need to void, the urinary bladder contains around ________.

A) 50 ml of urine B) 200 ml of urine C) 1,000 ml of urine D) 1,800 ml of urine E) 26,000 ml of urine Answer: B Page Ref: 522 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

29) In males, the urethra is part of both the urinary system and ________.

A) endocrine system B) digestive system C) immune system D) respiratory system E) reproductive system Answer: E Page Ref: 522 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) The micturition reflex forces urine into the upper part of the ________.

A) urethra B) ureter C) urinary bladder D) kidney E) rectum Answer: A Page Ref: 522 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which of the following fluid compartments includes blood plasma, lymph, and interstitial fluid (IF)?

A) Intracellular fluid (ICF) B) Cytosol C) Extracellular fluid (ECF) D) Serous fluid E) Transcellular fluid Answer: C Page Ref: 524, 525 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Who has the highest percentage of water in the body?

A) Adult male B) Adult female C) Infant D) Elderly female E) Elderly male Answer: C Page Ref: 524 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

33) Which of the following would decrease the amount of water lost by the body?

A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B) Hyperventilation C) Hemorrhage D) Sweating E) Diarrhea Answer: A Page Ref: 526, 527 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Which of the following is the major stimulus for the thirst mechanism?

A) Hunger B) Decreased urination C) Increased solute content of blood plasma D) Defecation E) Increased saliva production Answer: C Page Ref: 526 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which of the following does not promote an increase, directly or indirectly, in blood pressure?

A) Aldosterone B) Nocturia C) Sympathetic nervous system D) Thirst mechanism E) Renin-angiotensin mechanism Answer: B Page Ref: 527, 528, 529 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) The main hormone that acts on the kidneys to regulate sodium ion concentration of the extracellular fluid (ECF) is ________.

A) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B) renin C) secretin D) aldosterone E) epinephrine Answer: D Page Ref: 527 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

37) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) prevents excessive water loss by promoting water reabsorption in the ________.

A) glomerulus B) proximal convoluted tubule C) distal convoluted tubule D) collecting duct E) urinary bladder Answer: D Page Ref: 527 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Which of the following is not directly or indirectly regulated by aldosterone?

A) Sodium B) Chlorine C) Magnesium D) Potassium E) Glucose Answer: E Page Ref: 527 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) What stimulates the release of renin from the juxtaglomerular (JG) apparatus?

A) High blood pressure B) High blood sodium levels C) Low blood pressure D) Low blood potassium levels E) High blood volume Answer: C Page Ref: 529 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are medications that block the formation of angiotensin II. What is the intended impact of this medication?

A) Increased vasoconstriction B) Prevention of tubular reabsorption of glucose C) Decreased blood volume and blood pressure D) Increased sodium reabsorption E) Increased water reabsorption Answer: C Page Ref: 527-529 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

41) Which chemical buffer system includes carbonic acid and its salt and ties up hydrogen ions (H+) released by strong acids?

A) Phosphate buffer system B) Protein buffer system C) Ionic buffer system D) Bicarbonate buffer system E) Acid-base buffer system Answer: D Page Ref: 530 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) A urine pH of 4.6 can indicate ________.

A) increased secretion of hydrogen ions in the urine B) diabetes insipidus C) increased secretion of bicarbonate ions in the urine D) incontinence E) nocturia Answer: A Page Ref: 531-533 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which system removes excess carbon dioxide from the blood?

A) Urinary system B) Respiratory system C) Digestive system D) Cardiovascular system E) Endocrine system Answer: B Page Ref: 530-531 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) When blood pH begins to rise, the respiratory control centers in the brain are ________.

A) accelerated B) depressed C) not effected D) shut off E) controlled by the kidneys Answer: B Page Ref: 531 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

45) How does the urinary system respond to blood that has become acidic?

A) Secrete more hydrogen ions only B) Breathing rate increases C) Reabsorb more bicarbonate ions only D) Breathing rate decreases E) Both secrete more hydrogen ions and reabsorb more bicarbonate ions Answer: E Page Ref: 531 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) The need to get up during the night to urinate is called ________.

A) hypospadias B) frequency C) nocturia D) urgency E) glomerulonephritis Answer: C Page Ref: 533 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 47) The degenerative condition in which blisterlike sacs (cysts) containing urine form in the kidneys and obstruct urine drainage is called ________.

A) cystitis B) anuria C) hypospadias D) glycosuria E) adult polycystic kidney disease Answer: E Page Ref: 532-533 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 48) Hypospadias is a condition of male children that involves ________.

A) atrophied prostate B) opening of the urethra on the ventral surface of the penis C) cysts on the kidneys D) closing of the foreskin over the end of the penis E) inflammation of the glomerulus Answer: B Page Ref: 533 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

49) Eighty-year-old Mary urinates small amounts of urine quite often, likely due to bladder shrinkage and loss of bladder tone. What age-related condition does she have?

A) Incontinence B) Frequency C) Nocturia D) Hypospadias E) Glomerulonephritis Answer: B Page Ref: 533 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 50) Control of the voluntary urethral sphincter in normal children is related to ________.

A) intelligence B) nervous system development C) enzymatic regulation D) hormone regulation E) muscular development Answer: B Page Ref: 533 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 51) From childhood through late middle age, one of the most common bacteria to infect and inflame the urinary tract and cause urethritis and cystitis is ________.

A) streptococcus B) staphylococcus C) Escherichia coli D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis E) Clostridium botulinum Answer: C Page Ref: 533 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 52) Evaluate the following situations, and select the one in which antidiuretic hormone (ADH) would be released from the posterior pituitary.

A) High blood pressure B) Overhydration C) Polyuria D) Hemorrhage E) Acidosis Answer: D Page Ref: 527, 528 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

53) Evaluate the following, and select the step that occurs first in the renin-angiotensin mechanism.

A) Renin is produced by the cells of the juxtaglomerular (JG) apparatus when low blood pressure is detected.

B) Angiotensin II promotes vasoconstriction, increased blood volume, and increased blood pressure.

C) Aldosterone is released by the adrenal cortex.

D) High blood pressure is present in the afferent arteriole of the nephron.

E) Sympathetic nervous system releases epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Answer: A Page Ref: 528-529 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 54) Medications known as loop diuretics prevent the nephron loop from reabsorbing sodium ions from filtrate in the renal tubule. For which patient would you recommend its use?

A) Acidosis B) High blood pressure C) Nocturia D) Glycosuria E) Addison's disease Answer: B Page Ref: 529 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 15.3

True/False Questions

1) Each kidney has a medial indentation known as the renal hilum, and an adrenal gland sits atop each kidney.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 512, 513 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The structural and functional units of the kidney are the renal (medullary) pyramids.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 513 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The presence of microvilli in the tubule cells of the nephron increase the surface area.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 516 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Substances in the blood that are too large to be filtered, such as red blood cells, will travel from the afferent arteriole, through the glomerulus, and to the efferent arteriole.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 516, 517 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

5) Tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion are essentially opposite processes: during tubular reabsorption, reclaimed items are moved from the filtrate into the blood while during tubular secretion, items are moved from the blood to the filtrate to be eliminated in urine.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 517, 518 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Urea, uric acid, and creatinine are usually reabsorbed from the filtrate in the renal tubule into the blood of the peritubular capillaries.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 517-519 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Useful substances, including water, glucose, ions, and amino acids, are reclaimed and returned to the blood during tubular secretion.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 517-518 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Most reabsorption occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 517 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The normal yellow color of urine comes from urochrome, a pigment that comes from the body's destruction of hemoglobin.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 519 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) A diet rich in proteins such as eggs, cheese, and whole-wheat products produces urine with an alkaline pH. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 519 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Urine has a specific gravity closest to 1.001 when excessive fluids are consumed.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 519 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Urine moves down the ureters into the urinary bladder due to gravitational pull alone.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 520 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

13) Urine may routinely contain sodium, potassium, proteins, and red blood cells.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 519, 520 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The urethra, which carries urine exiting the urinary bladder by peristalsis, is typically shorter in females than in males.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 522 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The involuntary internal urethral sphincter is composed of skeletal muscle.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 522 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The fluid stored inside cells is referred to as extracellular fluid (ECF).

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 524 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The average fluid intake and fluid output per day is about 2,500 ml.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 526 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) When antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is present at the collecting ducts of the kidneys, less water is reabsorbed and diuresis increases.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 527 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The most important trigger for aldosterone release is the renin-angiotensin mechanism, mediated by the juxtaglomerular (JG) apparatus of the renal tubules.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 527-529 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Blood buffers are important in maintaining fluid-electrolyte balance.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 529-530 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The bicarbonate buffer system prevents changes in blood pH through the action of carbonic acid and its salt, sodium bicarbonate.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 530 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

22) When blood pH becomes too acidic, the tubule cells of the kidneys excrete bicarbonate ions and retain hydrogen ions.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 531 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are primarily infections of the reproductive tracts but may also cause urinary tract infections.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 533 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Incontinence is often the final outcome of the urinary system during the aging process.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 524, 533 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

15.4

Matching Questions

Identify the process that occurs in the kidney.

A) tubular reabsorption B) glomerular filtration C) tubular secretion 1) Water and solutes pass from the blood into the glomerular capsule part of the renal tubule Page Ref: 516-517 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Water, glucose, amino acids, and needed ions are moved from the filtrate back into the blood Page Ref: 517-518 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Aldosterone promotes the loss of potassium ions from the blood to the filtrate of the renal tubule Page Ref: 518, 527 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) promotes the movement of water from the filtrate back into the blood of the peritubular capillaries Page Ref: 527 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Substances such as potassium, urea, and creatinine are moved from the blood of the peritubular capillaries into the filtrate to be eliminated in urine Page Ref: 518 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) As long as blood pressure is normal, filtrate will be formed Page Ref: 516-517 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) B 2) A 3) C 4) A 5) C 6) B

Identify the urinary structure with its associated description: A) renal cortex B) renal columns C) calyces D) adrenal gland E) renal pyramids or medullary pyramids F) renal pelvis G) renal medulla 7) Cup-shaped extensions of the pelvis that enclose the tips of the renal (medullary) pyramids Page Ref: 513, 514 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Outer, lighter region of the kidney Page Ref: 513, 514 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Endocrine gland that sits atop each kidney Page Ref: 512, 513 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Cortex-like extensions that separate the renal (medullary) pyramids Page Ref: 513, 514 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Darker, reddish-brown region that is deep to the cortex Page Ref: 513, 514 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Triangular regions with a striped appearance present in the medulla Page Ref: 513, 514 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Flat, funnel-shaped tube continuous with the ureter leaving the hilum Page Ref: 513, 514 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 7) C 8) A 9) D 10) B 11) G 12) E 13) F

Identify these organs of the urinary system with their associated descriptions: A) urethra B) ureter C) urinary bladder 14) Tube that drains urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder Page Ref: 513, 520 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Muscular sac suitable for temporary urine storage Page Ref: 521, 522 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Transports urine and sperm, in semen, in males (but never at the same time) Page Ref: 522 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Contains three layers of smooth muscle known as the detrusor muscle Page Ref: 521 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Contains an area called the trigone formed by the openings of the ureters and urethra Page Ref: 521 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Around 200 ml of urine activates stretch receptors and causes this organ to go into reflex contractions Page Ref: 522 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) C 19) C

15.5

Essay Questions

1) Discuss the significance of normal blood pressure for filtrate formation to occur in the glomerulus. What conditions can result if glomerular blood pressure is too low to form filtrate?

Answer: Glomerular filtration is a process in which fluid passes from the blood into the glomerular capsule part of the renal tubule. Fluid captured by the glomerular capsule is called filtrate; it is essentially blood plasma without blood proteins. As long as the systemic blood pressure is normal, filtrate will be formed. If arterial blood pressure drops too low, glomerular pressure becomes inadequate to force substances out of the blood into the tubules, and filtrate formation stops. If glomerular blood pressure is too low, an abnormally low urinary output can result. The condition is called oliguria if urinary output is between 100 and 400 ml/day, and anuria if urinary output it is less than 100 ml/day.

Page Ref: 516, 517 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Describe the normal characteristics of freshly voided urine in a healthy adult.

Answer: Urine is a pale, straw-colored liquid that progressively becomes a darker yellow color as it becomes more concentrated. The yellow color is a result of the presence of urochrome pigment, a by-product of hemoglobin breakdown. Urine is more concentrated than water with a specific gravity that ranges from 1.001 at its most dilute to l.035 at its most concentrated. Urine is sterile and slightly aromatic, but if allowed to stand, it develops an ammonia odor. Urine often has an acidic pH of around 6 but can be either acidic or basic depending on metabolism or diet.

Urine normally contains water, sodium and potassium ions, urea, uric acid, creatinine, ammonia, and bicarbonate ions, as well as other ions that the body needs to dispose.

Page Ref: 519 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Trace the pathway of a red blood cell through the kidney from the renal artery to the renal vein.

Answer: Red blood cells are not filtered by the glomerulus since they are too large to pass through the filtration membrane. Instead, red blood cells travel through the renal artery, segmental artery, interlobar artery, arcuate artery, cortical radiate artery, afferent arteriole, glomerulus, and on to the efferent arteriole. Then, the red blood cell continues its travels to the peritubular capillaries and exits the kidney via the cortical radiate vein, arcuate vein, interlobar vein, and the renal vein.

Page Ref: 513-514 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) A patient is with back pain and a severe headache is diagnosed with pyuria. Explain this diagnosis and provide a possible explanation for it.

Answer: Pyuria is pus (white blood cells and bacteria) in the urine. Pus is an abnormal urinary constituent. A urinary tract infection is a possible cause. Urinary tract infections (UTI) can cause symptoms of dysuria (painful urination), urinary urgency and frequency, fever, and sometimes cloudy or blood-tinged urine. When the kidneys are involved, back pain and a severe headache are common. Many types of bacteria may invade the urinary tract to cause urethritis, cystitis, or pyelonephritis.

Page Ref: 519, 520, 522 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

5) Explain the renin-angiotensin mechanism as a method to maintain blood pressure homeostasis.

Answer: The renin-angiotensin mechanism is the most important trigger for the release of aldosterone. It is mediated by the juxtaglomerular (JG) apparatus of the renal tubules. The JG apparatus consists of modified smooth muscle cells that are stimulated by low blood pressure within the afferent arteriole or changes in solute content of the filtrate. The JG cells respond to these changes by releasing renin into the blood. Renin catalyzes reactions that lead to angiotensin II production, which then acts directly on the blood vessels to cause vasoconstriction as well as aldosterone release. Aldosterone then causes the reabsorption of sodium and water, leading to increased blood volume and blood pressure.

Page Ref: 527, 528, 529 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Describe how the bicarbonate buffer system functions to maintain pH. Answer: The bicarbonate buffer system utilizes carbonic acid and its salt, sodium bicarbonate.

When blood is too acidic, the bicarbonate ions of the salt act as a base and tie up more hydrogen ions. Thus, more carbonic acid is formed. A strong acid is changed to a weak acid, which has less of an effect on pH. Under alkaline conditions, carbonic acid releases more hydrogen ions to bind with the hydroxide ions released by the strong base. A strong base is changed to a weak base, which has less of an effect on pH. Page Ref: 530 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) As an LPN starts her shift, she is advised to measure the urine output of one of her patients.

Evaluate the urine output if this patient produces 350 ml of urine over a 24-hour period.

Answer: In 24 hours, 1.0 to 1.8 liters of urine will be produced by the average person. An abnormally low urinary output is called oliguria if it is between 100 and 400 ml/day, and anuria if it is less than 100 ml/day. Low urinary output usually indicates that glomerular blood pressure is too low to cause filtration.

Page Ref: 517, 519 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 8) Shakira was dehydrated from excessive sweating on a hot summer day. In response to the water loss, antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is present in her kidneys. Evaluate and discuss the impact on urine output.

Answer: Water filtered by the glomerulus will travel into the renal tubule where it may be reabsorbed. Since ADH is present, its main target is the kidney's collecting ducts, where it causes the duct cells to reabsorb more water. As more water is returned to the bloodstream, blood volume and blood pressure increase to normal levels, and only a small amount of concentrated urine is formed. When ADH is present in the kidneys, urine output decreases.

Page Ref: 513-516, 527 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

9) Evaluate this urine sample: 275 ml, light yellow, cloudy, presence of sodium ions, bicarbonate ions, and white blood cells, pH 7.2. Identify and provide an explanation for any abnormal constituents or characteristics.

Answer: The abnormal characteristics of this urine are the presence of white blood cells and cloudy urine. These abnormal constituents indicate a urinary tract infection (UTI). Pyuria occurs when white blood cells are present in the urine. Symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI) include dysuria (painful urination), urinary urgency and frequency, fever, and sometimes cloudy or blood-tinged urine. When the kidneys are involved, back pain and a severe headache are common.

Page Ref: 519, 520, 522 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 13e (Marieb) Chapter 16 The Reproductive System 16.1

Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 16.1, identify the following: 1) The testis is indicated by ________.

A) Label L B) Label J C) Label I D) Label K E) Label C Answer: D Page Ref: 541, 542 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

1 .

2) The epididymis is indicated by ________.

A) Label J B) Label K C) Label L D) Label A E) Label B Answer: A Page Ref: 541, 542 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The prostate is indicated by ________.

A) Label E B) Label D C) Label A D) Label B E) Label G Answer: C Page Ref: 542 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The ejaculatory duct is indicated by ________.

A) Label L B) Label F C) Label H D) Label C E) Label G Answer: E Page Ref: 542 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The spongy urethra is indicated by ________.

A) Label C B) Label D C) Label B D) Label A E) Label F Answer: A Page Ref: 542 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2 .

Using Figure 16.2, identify the following: 6) The uterine (fallopian) tube is indicated by ________.

A) Label B B) Label D C) Label H D) Label E E) Label J Answer: D Page Ref: 551 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The ovary is indicated by ________.

A) Label J B) Label H C) Label I D) Label A E) Label B Answer: E Page Ref: 551 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

3 .

8) The clitoris is indicated by ________.

A) Label C B) Label I C) Label G D) Label F E) Label H Answer: E Page Ref: 551 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The vaginal orifice is indicated by ________.

A) Label I B) Label J C) Label G D) Label F E) Label D Answer: A Page Ref: 551 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The myometrium of the uterus is indicated by ________.

A) Label C B) Label I C) Label H D) Label G E) Label F Answer: D Page Ref: 551 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The gonads, or primary sex organs, produce sex cells, also known as ________.

A) zygotes B) interstitial cells C) gametes D) spermatids Answer: C Page Ref: 540 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4 .

12) Sperm are formed in tightly coiled tubes called seminiferous tubules that are found within each ________.

A) spermatic cord B) testis C) ductus deferens D) epididymis Answer: B Page Ref: 541 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Which glands produce a thick, yellowish secretion that nourishes and activates sperm?

A) Bulbourethral glands B) Prostate C) Seminal vesicles D) Ejaculatory duct Answer: C Page Ref: 543 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Which gland surrounds the upper portion of the urethra just below the junction with the urinary bladder?

A) Ejaculatory B) Seminal vesicles C) Bulbourethral D) Prostate Answer: D Page Ref: 543 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Which gland provides fructose, a sugar in semen that energizes sperm?

A) Seminal vesicles B) Bulbourethral gland C) Prostate D) Epididymis Answer: A Page Ref: 543, 544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Which of the following is not a role of semen?

A) Semen dilutes sperm.

B) The acidity of semen helps neutralize the pH environment of a female's vagina.

C) Semen contains enzymes that enhance sperm motility.

D) Semen contains antibiotic chemicals that destroy bacteria.

Answer: B Page Ref: 544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5 .

17) The helmet-like region of the sperm that is similar to a large lysosome and assists penetration of the egg is called the ________.

A) flagellum B) midpiece C) spermatid D) acrosome Answer: D Page Ref: 546, 547 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) What is the purpose of spermiogenesis?

A) The stem cell line is built through the process of spermiogenesis.

B) Spermiogenesis produces type A cells from each spermatogonium.

C) Spermatids are streamlined to form sperm via spermiogenesis.

D) Spermiogenesis results in the production of two sperm from one primary spermatocyte.

Answer: C Page Ref: 545, 546 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which of the following is suitable for the fertilization of an egg?

A) Sperm B) Spermatid C) Primary spermatocyte D) Spermatogonium Answer: A Page Ref: 546 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The female reproductive organs, known as ________, produce both eggs (ova) and hormones such as estrogen and progesterone.

A) Follicles B) Uterine (fallopian) tubes C) Testes D) Ovaries Answer: D Page Ref: 549 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) A mature ovarian follicle that is ready to be ejected from an ovary is called a(n) ________.

A) primary oocyte B) vesicular (Graafian) follicle C) ovum D) corpus luteum Answer: B Page Ref: 550, 554 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6 .

22) The ducts or tubes responsible for receiving the ovulated oocyte and providing the site for fertilization are the ________.

A) uterine (fallopian) tubes B) vagina C) ductus deferens D) uterus Answer: A Page Ref: 549, 550 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) A corpus luteum would be present ________.

A) prior to ovulation in a female B) after ovulation in a female C) in the semen of a male D) only on the day of ovulation in a female Answer: B Page Ref: 549 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) What is the rounded region of the uterus that is superior to the entrance of the uterine tubes?

A) Infundibulum B) Cervix C) Fundus D) Body Answer: C Page Ref: 550 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Which of the following can be caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), a sexually transmitted disease?

A) Syphyllis B) Squamous cell carcinoma C) Gonorrhea D) Cervical cancer Answer: D Page Ref: 552 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) During childbirth, which layer of the uterus contracts to force the baby out of the mother's body?

A) Endometrium B) Perimetrium C) Myometrium D) Epimetrium Answer: C Page Ref: 552 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7 .

27) Burrowing of the fertilized egg into the endometrium lining of the uterus is called ________.

A) ovulation B) implantation C) cleavage D) fertilization Answer: B Page Ref: 552 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) What part of the external female genitalia corresponds to the male penis?

A) Clitoris B) Perineum C) Mons pubis D) Vulva Answer: A Page Ref: 553 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) At what point in life does a female begin her monthly ovarian cycle?

A) At birth B) At puberty C) At middle age D) At menopause Answer: B Page Ref: 553 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) The process of creating female gametes is called ________.

A) spermatogenesis B) oogenesis C) spermiogenesis D) cleavage Answer: B Page Ref: 553 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which hormone promotes a small number of primary follicles within the ovary to grow and mature each month?

A) Luteinizing hormone (LH) B) Estrogen C) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) D) Testosterone Answer: C Page Ref: 553 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8 .

32) Ovulation occurs in response to the release of an anterior pituitary hormone known as ________ hormone.

A) antidiuretic B) thyroid-stimulating C) luteinizing D) follicle-stimulating Answer: C Page Ref: 554 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Upon fertilization, an oocyte completes its second meiotic division and produces ________.

A) the corona radiata and a polar body B) the morula and blastocyst C) the ovum and another polar body D) the primary oocyte and secondary oocyte Answer: C Page Ref: 555 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Which hormone is produced by the corpus luteum that helps maintain pregnancy?

A) Estrogen B) Testosterone C) Progesterone D) Relaxin Answer: C Page Ref: 555-556 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Days 5–14 of the uterine (menstrual) cycle are known as the ________ phase. This phase concludes with ovulation.

A) Secretory B) Luteal C) Proliferative D) Menstrual Answer: C Page Ref: 556 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) The pigmented area of a female's breast that surrounds the nipple is the ________.

A) areola B) lactiferous sinus C) lactiferous duct D) lobule Answer: A Page Ref: 558 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9 .

37) What is the process by which the acrosome membranes of sperm break down and release enzymes that digest holes in the surrounding oocyte membrane?

A) The acrosomal reaction B) Cleavage C) Ovulation D) Implantation Answer: A Page Ref: 560-561 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) A fertilized egg, which represents the first cell of a new individual, is called a(n) ________.

A) blastocyst B) zygote C) fetus D) embryo Answer: B Page Ref: 561, 562 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) What is the early stage of embryonic development during which rapid mitotic cell divisions occur as the zygote travels down the uterine (fallopian) tube?

A) The acrosomal reaction B) Cleavage C) Fertilization D) Implantation Answer: B Page Ref: 561, 562 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Of the two functional areas of the blastocyst, which one gives rise to the three primary germ layers?

A) Amnion B) Morula C) Inner cell mass D) Trophoblast Answer: C Page Ref: 561 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

10 .

41) Which hormone causes pelvic ligaments and the pubic symphysis to relax, widen, and become more flexible during pregnancy?

A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Relaxin D) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Answer: C Page Ref: 566 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) Oxytocin and prostaglandins are necessary to initiate the series of events that result in childbirth known as ________.

A) labor B) menarche C) menstruation D) menopause Answer: A Page Ref: 567 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which of the following is a false description of the changes that occur in the pregnant female's body?

A) Urination becomes more frequent, urgent, and sometimes uncontrollable.

B) Morning sickness and heartburn are common.

C) Vital capacity and the respiratory rate increase; dyspnea is common in the later stages of pregnancy.

D) Blood pressure and pulse decrease due to great blood volume.

Answer: D Page Ref: 566-567 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) The placenta and its attached fetal membranes, expelled from the uterus during the placental stage of labor, are collectively referred to as ________.

A) the vertex position B) the afterbirth C) dystocia D) parturition Answer: B Page Ref: 569 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

11 .

45) Which rare condition results in individuals who possess both ovarian and testicular tissues?

A) Phimosis B) Cryptorchidism C) Hermaphroditism D) Orchiditis Answer: C Page Ref: 569-571 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) Which of the following is true of the age-related effects on a male's reproductive system?

A) Testosterone levels are maintained throughout the life of a male.

B) Sperm production increases as a male ages.

C) Males experience a longer latent period after orgasm as they age.

D) Males are no longer able to father offspring after andropause.

Answer: C Page Ref: 573 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16.2

Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) The male gonads have both sperm-producing and testosterone-producing functions and are called ________.

A) testes B) sperm C) ovaries D) ovum E) gametes Answer: A Page Ref: 541 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Where are sperm produced within a male's testis?

A) Seminiferous tubules B) Ejaculatory duct C) Interstitial cells D) Rete testis E) Lobules Answer: A Page Ref: 541 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

12 .

3) Which of the following is the exocrine function of the testes?

A) Testosterone production B) Ovum fertilization C) Sperm production D) Embryo nutrition E) Estrogen production Answer: C Page Ref: 541 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Trace the pathway of sperm through the duct system during ejaculation.

A) Epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra B) Epididymis, ductus deferens, seminiferous tubules, ejaculatory duct C) Seminiferous tubule, ductus deferens, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, urethra D) Epididymis, seminal vesicles, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra E) Ductus deferens, epididymis, seminiferous tubule, urethra, seminal vesicles Answer: A Page Ref: 541-543 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Which hormone is made by the interstitial cells of the testis?

A) Estrogen B) Testosterone C) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) D) Luteinizing hormone (LH) E) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Answer: B Page Ref: 541 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) What does a vasectomy prevent from happening in a male?

A) Sperm from exiting the body in semen B) Ejaculation C) Sperm production D) Release of testosterone into the bloodstream E) The development of secondary sex characteristics (male) Answer: A Page Ref: 542 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

13 .

7) In what specific part of the male reproductive system do maturing sperm gain increased motility and their ability to swim?

A) Seminiferous tubules B) Epididymis C) Ductus deferens D) Ejaculatory duct E) Urethra Answer: B Page Ref: 541, 546 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which of the following connects the ampulla of the ductus deferens with the urethra?

A) Ureter B) Ejaculatory duct C) Rete testis D) Epididymis E) Seminal vesicles Answer: B Page Ref: 542, 543 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which of the following structures will primarily be impacted when a male experiences hypertrophy of the prostate?

A) Epididymis B) Ductus deferens C) Urethra D) Seminal vesicles E) Glans penis Answer: C Page Ref: 543-544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which one of the following is not a component of semen?

A) Sperm B) Seminal fluid C) Prostatic fluid D) Bulbourethral fluid E) Epididymal fluid Answer: E Page Ref: 543-544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

14 .

11) Which gland produces thick, clear mucus that cleanses the penile urethra of acidic urine?

A) Testes B) Seminal vesicles C) Prostate D) Bulbourethral glands E) Epididymis Answer: D Page Ref: 544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) What is the function of the milky-colored fluids secreted from the prostate?

A) Enable sperm to swim B) Activate sperm C) Cleanse the urethra D) Neutralize urine E) Begin spermatogenesis Answer: B Page Ref: 543 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The spongy tissue of the penis fills with blood during sexual excitement and causes the penis to enlarge and become rigid during ________.

A) erection B) circumcision C) ejaculation D) emission E) parturition Answer: A Page Ref: 544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) What is removed during male circumcision?

A) Glans penis B) Shaft of the penis C) Scrotum D) Prepuce E) Ductus deferens Answer: D Page Ref: 544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

15 .

15) What effect does follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) have on males?

A) Male testes are not influenced by FSH. B) FSH functions solely in females.

C) FSH stimulates sperm production in males.

D) FSH causes the testes to enlarge in size.

E) FSH stimulates estrogen production in males.

Answer: C Page Ref: 545, 547, 548 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The primitive stem cell of spermatogenesis, which is found on the periphery of each seminiferous tubule, is called a ________.

A) spermatogonium B) spermatid C) primary spermatocyte D) secondary spermatocyte E) sperm Answer: A Page Ref: 545 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Which portion of the sperm houses the nucleus and its DNA? A) Midpiece B) Flagellum C) Head D) Tail E) Acrosome Answer: C Page Ref: 546 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) What excess cellular component do spermatids shed to become sperm during spermiogenesis?

A) DNA B) Cytoplasm C) Flagellum D) Mitochondria E) Acrosome Answer: B Page Ref: 546 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

16 .

19) Which of the following is a false description of the negative feedback loop involved in the production of testosterone?

A) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) targets the testes of males.

B) Rising levels of testosterone promote increased release of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus.

C) Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) is released by the hypothalamus; this hormone stimulates the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).

D) Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) are produced and released by the anterior pituitary.

E) The interstitial cells of the testes release testosterone in response to luteinizing hormone (LH).

Answer: B Page Ref: 545, 547-548 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which of the following cells undergoes meiosis to produce four sperm?

A) Spermatids B) Spermatogonium C) Primary spermatocyte D) Ovum E) Zygote Answer: C Page Ref: 545-546 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The entire process of spermatogenesis takes approximately ________.

A) 25—50 days B) 64—72 days C) 120 days D) 1 year E) 15 years Answer: B Page Ref: 546 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which one of the following is not one of the secondary sex characteristics typical of males?

A) Deepening voice B) Increased growth of body hair C) Enlargement of skeletal muscle mass D) Development of breast tissue E) Thickening of bones Answer: D Page Ref: 547, 549 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

17 .

23) Where does fertilization usually occur in the female reproductive system?

A) Ovary B) Vesicular (Graafian) follicle C) Uterine (fallopian) tubes D) Uterus E) Vagina Answer: C Page Ref: 549, 550 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The process by which a secondary oocyte is ejected from the ovary is called ________.

A) emission B) menses C) fertilization D) ovulation E) parturition Answer: D Page Ref: 549, 554 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) On which day of the female's uterine (menstrual) cycle does ovulation typically occur?

A) Day 7 B) Day 14 C) Day 21 D) Day 24 E) Day 28 Answer: B Page Ref: 554, 556 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which of the following does not occur during puberty in a female?

A) Increased fat deposits beneath the skin B) Onset of menopause C) Widening and lightening of the pelvis D) Development of the breasts E) Appearance of axillary and pubic hair Answer: B Page Ref: 555 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

18 .

27) Which layer of the uterus serves as the site of implantation of a fertilized ovum?

A) Fundus B) Cervix C) Myometrium D) Endometrium E) Perimetrium Answer: D Page Ref: 552, 561 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) What is not a true statement concerning the vagina?

A) The vagina serves as the birth canal.

B) The distal end of the vagina is partially enclosed by the hymen.

C) The vagina is the female organ of copulation.

D) The innermost lining of the vagina sloughs off periodically.

E) The vagina is situated between the rectum and urinary bladder.

Answer: D Page Ref: 552 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) At the time of ovulation, each secondary oocyte is surrounded by a single layer of cells known as a(n) ________.

A) vesicular (Graafian) follicle B) primary follicle C) primordial follicle D) uterine (fallopian) follicle E) antrum Answer: A Page Ref: 549, 550, 554 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) The inner mucosal layer of the uterus that is sloughed off approximately every 28 days is called the ________.

A) endometrium B) myometrium C) perimetrium D) epimetrium E) hypometrium Answer: A Page Ref: 552, 556 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

19 .

31) What effect does luteinizing hormone (LH) have on a female?

A) LH promotes enlargement of the female's breasts.

B) LH has no effect on a female.

C) LH causes secondary sex characteristics to develop in a female.

D) LH stimulates primary follicles in a female's ovary to grow each month.

E) LH triggers ovulation in a female.

Answer: E Page Ref: 554, 557 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which of the following cells could be fertilized?

A) Polar body B) Primary oocyte C) Secondary oocyte D) Oogonium E) Corpus luteum Answer: C Page Ref: 554, 555 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which of the following is responsible for secondary sex characteristics in females?

A) Estrogens B) Progesterone C) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) D) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) E) Testosterone Answer: A Page Ref: 555-556 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) How long are the typical ovarian and uterine (menstrual) cycles in a female?

A) 7 days B) 14 days C) 28 days D) 40 days E) 60 days Answer: C Page Ref: 555, 556 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

20 .

35) Which of the following characterizes the secretory phase of a female's uterine (menstrual) cycle?

A) Ovulation of a secondary oocyte occurs.

B) The functional layer of the endometrium is absent.

C) The corpus luteum increases progesterone levels.

D) The functional layer of the endometrium is shed.

E) Luteinizing hormone (LH) has a surge of release from the anterior pituitary.

Answer: C Page Ref: 556, 557 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) What hormone(s) stimulates the growth of the endometrium during the proliferative phase of the uterine (menstrual) cycle?

A) Estrogens B) Progesterones C) Insulin D) Testosterone E) Parathyroid hormone Answer: A Page Ref: 556, 557 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which hormone is necessary for the growth of endometrial glands, which are important for the sustenance of a growing embryo until its implantation?

A) Luteinizing hormone (LH) B) Testosterone C) Progesterone D) Inhibin E) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Answer: C Page Ref: 556, 557 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Which hormone is primarily produced by the corpus luteum?

A) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) B) Progesterone C) Testosterone D) Androgens E) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Answer: B Page Ref: 555-556 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

21 .

39) Where does milk accumulate within the breast in a lactating female?

A) Ceruminous gland B) Areola C) Alveolar gland D) Lactiferous duct E) Lactiferous sinus Answer: E Page Ref: 558 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) The clusters of specific glands that produce milk when a woman is lactating are called ________.

A) lactiferous ducts B) areolar glands C) sebaceous glands D) alveolar glands E) lactating glands Answer: D Page Ref: 558 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) From fertilization to week 8 of pregnancy, the conceptus is called ________.

A) a fetus B) an embryo C) a baby D) a zygote E) a morula Answer: B Page Ref: 559 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) What part of the blastocyst forms the chorionic villi that become part of the placenta?

A) Endoderm B) Trophoblast C) Inner cell mass D) Amnion E) Zygote Answer: B Page Ref: 561-562, 563 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

22 .

43) Why is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) important early in pregnancy?

A) hCG guides the embryo to the appropriate site for implantation.

B) hCG promotes cleavage of the zygote.

C) hCG prevents other sperm from fertilization of the oocyte.

D) hCG prods the corpus luteum to continue producing hormones.

E) hCG promotes menstruation.

Answer: D Page Ref: 561 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) The tiny ball of 16 cells found freely floating in the uterine cavity approximately three days after fertilization is called a ________.

A) blastocyst B) zygote C) morula D) placenta E) trophoblast Answer: C Page Ref: 561 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 45) Which primary germ layer gives rise to the mucosae and associated glands?

A) Ectoderm B) Blastocyst C) Mesoderm D) Endoderm E) Morula Answer: D Page Ref: 561, 563 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) What fluid-filled sac surrounds the fetus?

A) Amnion B) Placenta C) Chorionic villi D) Umbilical cord E) Mesoderm Answer: A Page Ref: 562, 563 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

23 .

47) The placenta is usually functioning to deliver nutrients and oxygen to, and remove waste from, the embryonic blood by the ________ week of pregnancy.

A) first B) second C) third D) fourth E) fifth Answer: C Page Ref: 562 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 48) The three stages of labor in the correct order are ________.

A) effacement, dilation, birth B) dilation, expulsion, effacement C) dilation, expulsion, placental D) effacement, propulsion, placental E) dilation, propulsion, delivery Answer: C Page Ref: 567-569 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 49) Which hormone stimulates more frequent and more powerful contractions of the uterus as birth nears?

A) Estrogen B) Relaxin C) Progesterone D) Oxytocin E) Gonadotropin Answer: D Page Ref: 567, 568 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 50) Approximately 280 days from the last menstrual period, parturition, or ________, will occur.

A) menopause B) menses C) fertilization D) menstruation E) childbirth Answer: E Page Ref: 567 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

24 .

51) When a pregnant female experiences her "water breaking" during the dilation stage of labor, what has ruptured?

A) Blastocyst B) Umbilical cord C) Amnion D) Urinary bladder E) Placenta Answer: C Page Ref: 568 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 52) The presence of more oxytocin receptors in the uterus leads to weak, irregular contractions known as ________.

A) dystocia B) Braxton Hicks C) menopause D) cryptorchidism E) C-section Answer: B Page Ref: 567 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 53) A difficult or prolonged stage 2 of labor is known as ________.

A) breech birth B) dystocia C) afterbirth D) parturition E) Braxon Hicks contractions Answer: B Page Ref: 569 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 54) The stage of labor that involves the delivery of the infant is the ________.

A) dilation stage B) expulsion stage C) secretory phase D) placental stage E) postpartum stage Answer: B Page Ref: 568-569 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

25 .

55) Male sex chromosomes are represented as ________.

A) XX B) XO C) XY D) YO E) YY Answer: C Page Ref: 569 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 56) The first menstrual period, which usually occurs at approximately age 13, is called ________.

A) menses B) menstruation C) menopause D) menarche E) menogen Answer: D Page Ref: 571 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 57) Menopause, which ends childbirth ability, is considered to have occurred when a woman ________.

A) misses her first period B) misses two periods in a row C) turns 50 D) has gone a year without menstruation E) has had a hysterectomy Answer: D Page Ref: 571, 573 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 58) A male's prostate was removed due to cancer. Evaluate the impact on a male's reproductive capabilities.

A) Sperm will not receive the nourishment of fructose.

B) Erection will not occur.

C) Less sperm will be activated.

D) The urethra will not be cleansed of acidic urine during sexual excitement.

E) Ejaculation will not occur.

Answer: C Page Ref: 543 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

26 .

59) A drug has caused a man's sperm to be produced with multiple flagella. Assess the following and determine the process that was the likely cause for this abnormality.

A) Spermiogenesis B) Acrosome reaction C) Ejaculation D) Erection E) Fertilization Answer: A Page Ref: 545, 546 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 60) A woman wants to have children who are conceived naturally. She has had repeated infections in both of her uterine (fallopian) tubes due to gonorrhea. As a result, both uterine tubes have been narrowed due to the presence of scar tissue. Interpret the impact of the scar tissue on her reproductive future.

A) She will not be able to ovulate.

B) Menstruation will be sporadic since hormones travel the uterine (fallopian) tube.

C) No impact as both fertilization and implantation of a fertilized egg occur in the uterus.

D) No impact as fertilization occurs in the vagina while implantation occurs in the uterus.

E) She will have difficulty conceiving naturally since the usual site of fertilization is the uterine (fallopian) tube.

Answer: E Page Ref: 549, 550, 552 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 61) During the early stages of pregnancy, a woman is diagnosed with German measles (rubella).

Evaluate the following and determine what problem her fetus is more at risk for experiencing.

A) Severe fetal damage B) Phimosis C) Chromosomal abnormality D) Hermaphroditism E) Cryptorchidism Answer: A Page Ref: 566 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

27 .

16.3

True/False Questions

1) The interstitial cells of the testes produce androgens, such as testosterone.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 541 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Sperm are matured and ejaculated from the epididymis and ductus deferens, which are the terminal portions of the male duct system.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 541 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The ejaculatory duct passes through the prostate gland to merge with the urethra.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 542 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Both urine and semen can pass through the male's urethra simultaneously.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 543 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The portion of the male urethra that is surrounded by the prostate is called the membranous urethra.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 543 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The bulbourethral gland produces a thick, yellowish fluid that nourishes and activates sperm.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The prepuce (foreskin) is a sleeve of skin around the glans penis that may be removed during circumcision.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 542, 544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Semen is an acidic mixture of sperm and accessory gland secretions.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

28 .

9) Viable sperm cannot be produced at temperatures below body temperature.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) An erection results from blood filling the spongy erectile tissues of the penis.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) One primary spermatocyte completes two meiotic divisions to produce four sperm.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 545, 546 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Spermatids have only half as much genetic material as other body cells.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 546 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The acrosome helps a sperm penetrate the follicle cells that surround the egg.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 546 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) During puberty, increases in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) cause the seminiferous tubules to produce sperm and the interstitial cells to release testosterone, respectively.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 541, 547 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Ovaries contain many tiny saclike structures called ovarian follicles, each of which consists of an immature egg surrounded by one or more layers of follicle cells.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 549 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The fundus of the uterus protrudes into the vagina.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 550 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

29 .

17) The round ligaments and uterosacral ligaments anchor the uterus anteriorly and posteriorly, respectively.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 550 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Both implantation of a fertilized ovum and menstruation are processes that involve the endometrium of the uterus.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 550, 552 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The hymen is a thin fold of mucosa that encloses the distal end of the vagina.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 552 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) In a female, the labia minora are two outer, hair-covered folds of skin that enclose the delicate, hair-free folds called the labia majora.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 552-553 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The vagina functions both as the birth canal and also as the female's organ of copulation.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 552 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) The diamond-shaped region of a female's external genitalia found between the anterior ends of the labial folds, the anus posteriorly, and the ischial tuberosities laterally is called the perineum.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 552-553 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) A female has both an ovarian cycle, which involves the cyclic monthly changes in the ovary, and a uterine (menstrual) cycle, which involves the cyclic monthly changes in the endometrium of the uterus.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 553, 556 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) A female ovulates an ovum that has completed meiosis II each month.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 554 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30 .

25) Ovulation occurs in response to a surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) near the end of the proliferative phase of the uterine (menstrual) cycle.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 554, 556 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) During the secretory phase of the uterine (menstrual) cycle, progesterone causes endometrial glands to grow and secrete nutrients into the uterine cavity.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 556, 557 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Together, progesterone and estrogen promote secondary sex characteristics in females.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 555-556 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Ovulation usually occurs on or about day 14 of the uterine (menstrual) cycle.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 556 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Mammary glands are only present in females.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 556 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) The rapid mitotic cell division that occurs after the fertilization of an egg is known as cleavage.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 561 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by the corpus luteum after fertilization.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 561 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) The endoderm gives rise to the nervous system and the epidermis of the skin.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 561 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

31 .

33) The umbilical cord is a blood vessel-containing stalk of tissue that connects the embryo to the placenta.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 562 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Parturition includes delivery of both the infant and the placenta.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 567-569 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) The cervix typically dilates to about 10 cm during the dilation stage of labor.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 567 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) If the embryonic testes of a genetic male fail to produce testosterone, female accessory structures and external genitalia are developed.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 569 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) When a year has passed without menstruation, a woman has reached menarche.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 571, 573 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

32 .

16.4

Matching Questions

Match each description with the appropriate male reproductive structure: A) epididymis B) scrotum C) prostate D) testes E) prepuce (foreskin) F) bulbourethral gland G) urethra H) seminal vesicles I) ductus deferens 1) Primary reproductive organs of the male Page Ref: 540, 541 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Glands that produce a thick, yellowish secretion rich in sugar (fructose) Page Ref: 543 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Terminal part of the male duct system and has three regions: prostatic, membranous, and spongy Page Ref: 543 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) First part of the male duct system and provides a temporary storage site for immature sperm Page Ref: 541 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Gland that encircles the prostatic urethra Page Ref: 543 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Connects the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct Page Ref: 542 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Sac of skin that holds the testes outside the body Page Ref: 542, 544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Glands that produce a clear, thick mucus Page Ref: 544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33 .

9) Loose skin covering the penis like a sleeve Page Ref: 544 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) D 2) H 3) G 4) A 5) C 6) I 7) B 8) F 9) E

34 .

Match each description with the appropriate female reproductive structure: A) vulva B) clitoris C) vagina D) uterine (fallopian) tube E) uterus F) ovary 10) Birth canal Page Ref: 552 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Organ that is the typical site of implantation of a fertilized egg Page Ref: 552, 556 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Duct that provides a site for fertilization Page Ref: 549-550 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Organ that produces eggs Page Ref: 540, 549 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) External genitalia of a female Page Ref: 552 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Part of the female external genitalia that corresponds to the male penis Page Ref: 553 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 10) C 11) E 12) D 13) F 14) A 15) B

35 .

Match each hormone with the appropriate function: A) relaxin B) oxytocin C) estrogens D) progesterone E) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) F) luteinizing hormone (LH) G) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) H) testosterone 16) Promotes relaxation of the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis during pregnancy Page Ref: 566 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Promotes breast development in females Page Ref: 555, 558 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Activates the interstitial cells of the testes to produce testosterone Page Ref: 547 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Prods the corpus luteum of the ovary to continue producing its hormones Page Ref: 561 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Primary hormone produced by the glandular corpus luteum Page Ref: 556 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) With prostaglandins, promotes the rhythmic, expulsive contractions of true labor Page Ref: 567 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Stimulates primary follicles in a female's ovary to grow and mature each month Page Ref: 553 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Responsible for the growth spurt seen in males during puberty Page Ref: 547, 549 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 16) A 17) C 18) F 19) G 20) D 21) B 22) E 23) H

36 .

16.5

Essay Questions

1) Trace the pathway of sperm from their production to their exit from the body during ejaculation.

Answer: Sperm are formed in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. Sperm are matured in the epididymis where they gain the ability to swim. During ejaculation, peristaltic waves squeeze sperm from the epididymis to the ductus deferens. The ductus deferens enters the pelvic cavity and travels to the posterior side of the urinary bladder where it empties into an ejaculatory duct.

Each ejaculatory duct travels through the prostate to merge with the urethra. Ejaculation carries the sperm through the prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, and spongy (penile) urethra to exit the body.

Page Ref: 541-543 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Describe the effects of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) on the testes.

Answer: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) prods the seminiferous tubules of the testes to produce sperm. Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes secrete testosterone. Testosterone enhances spermatogenesis, the process of making sperm.

Page Ref: 547, 548 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Describe the process of spermatogenesis.

Answer: Spermatogenesis is sperm production that begins during puberty and continues throughout life. The process is begun by primitive stem cells called spermatogonia. From birth until puberty, spermatogonia undergo mitotic division to increase the number of stem cells.

During puberty, FSH causes each division of spermatogonium into one stem cell (type A cell) and one type B cell that becomes a primary spermatocyte. The primary spermatocytes then undergo meiosis to secondary spermatocytes, which then form four spermatids. The spermatids streamline and a tail is formed during spermiogenesis, after which they are mature enough to fertilize an ovum and are called sperm.

Page Ref: 545-546 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Secondary oocytes stall in meiosis II at the time of ovulation. Why is it critical for a secondary oocyte to complete meiosis II if fertilization occurs?

Answer: If the ovulated secondary oocyte is fertilized by a sperm in one of the uterine tubes, the oocyte quickly completes the second meiotic division that produces the ovum and another polar body. This polar body, formed by the division of the ovum as it completes meiosis II, is produced to reduce the number of chromosomes in the secondary oocyte. Once the ovum is formed, its 23 chromosomes are combined with those of the sperm to form the zygote.

Page Ref: 554 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

37 .

5) Discuss the role of the corpus luteum in maintaining pregnancy. When is it no longer needed and why?

Answer: The corpus luteum is a ruptured follicle released from the ovary during ovulation. It produces progesterone as long as luteinizing hormone (LH) is present. When fertilization occurs and a blastocyst forms, it secretes an LH-like hormone called human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which prods the corpus luteum of the ovary to continue producing its hormones. By the end of the second month of pregnancy, the placenta has also become an endocrine organ and is producing estrogens, progesterone, and other hormones that help to maintain the pregnancy. At this time, the corpus luteum of the ovary becomes inactive and degenerates.

Page Ref: 555-556, 562-563 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Summarize the phases of the uterine (menstrual) cycle.

Answer: During the menstrual phase, days 0–4 of the cycle, the functional layer of the endometrium is sloughed and bleeding occurs. The proliferative phase (days 5–14) is characterized by the rebuilding of the endometrium and rising levels of estrogens. The secretory phase (days 15–28) occurs immediately after the ovulation of an oocyte from the ovary (ovarian cycle). The endometrium continues to increase its blood supply while the endometrium glands grow and begin secreting nutrients into the uterine cavity. The future of the functional layer of the endometrium depends on whether fertilization occurred and the status of the corpus luteum.

Page Ref: 556-557 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) A man takes a medication that impairs the acrosomal reaction. Assess the impact on his ability to father children.

Answer: Sperm undergo the acrosomal reaction when they surround an oocyte. In this reaction, the acrosome membranes break down, releasing enzymes that digest holes in the surrounding oocyte membrane. Then, when the membrane is adequately weakened and a single sperm makes contact with one of the oocyte's membrane receptors for sperm, the head (nucleus) of the sperm fuses with the oocyte membrane, and the sperm contents enter the oocyte cytoplasm. If this man's medication inhibits the acrosomal reaction, sperm may have difficulty weakening the membrane around an oocyte for fertilization to occur.

Page Ref: 546, 560-561 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating 8) Cervical cancer can be caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), a sexually transmitted disease. Deduce why the endometrium of the uterus is likely at a lower risk to develop cancer from this virus.

Answer: When a woman is not pregnant, the endometrial lining sloughs off periodically, usually about every 28 days, in response to changes in the levels of ovarian hormones in the blood. This process, called menstruation or menses, is often referred to as a woman getting her "period." This routine shedding of the endometrium makes it more difficult for a slow-growing cancer to take hold.

Page Ref: 550, 552, 556 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

38 .

9) A 53-year-old woman no longer has her monthly period. In fact, she hasn't had her period for a few years. Is she experiencing menarche or menopause? Assess her situation and support your answer with an explanation.

Answer: Menarche, the onset of the first menstrual period, occurs during puberty in young woman at the average age of 13. Menopause normally occurs between the ages of 46 and 54; a woman is said to have reached menopause when she has gone a whole year without menstruation. This woman has entered menopause.

Page Ref: 571, 573 Bloom's: 5: Evaluating

39 .