Essential Environment The Science Behind the Stories, 6th edition Jay H Withgott Test Bank

Essential Environment The Science Behind the Stories, 6th edition by

Jay H Withgott

Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) How many citizens of Mexico does it take to equal the ecological footprint of the average citizen of the United States?

A) It takes just over three Mexican citizens to equal the ecological footprint of the average U.S. citizen.

B) They are essentially equal.

C) It takes just over eight Mexican citizens to equal the ecological footprint of the average U.S. citizen.

D) It takes just over two Mexican citizens to equal the ecological footprint of the average U.S. citizen.

E) It takes about 12 Mexican citizens to equal the ecological footprint of the average U.S. citizen.

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2) If everyone on the planet had an ecological footprint the size of the average citizen of the United

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States, then ________.

A) we would be able to provide for everyone without much difficulty by using the 50% of the land currently not being used for agriculture B) about 50% of the people would starve

C) we would have 50% more food to go around D) we could support 50% more people on our planet E) we would need at least two more planet Earths to feed and support everyone 3) The U.S. average footprint is about ________ times larger than the average world footprint.

A) 3 B) 6.7 C) 5 D) 2 E) 2.5

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4) The average footprint per person has increased from 2.2 to 2.9 since 2008, and the footprints of

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many developing nations, such as India and China, have also increased. This means that ________.

A) the populations of both India and China have decreased since 2008

B) our collective lifestyle is even more unsustainable than before C) our collective lifestyle is slightly more sustainable than before D) some nations no longer have a measurable footprint E) the ability of the planet to sustain human beings has increased 5) Geothermal energy, wind, and solar radiation are all examples of ________.

A) nonrenewable natural resources B) exhaustible renewable natural resources C) inexhaustible renewable natural resources D) biotic environmental factors E) biodegradable materials

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6) Nonrenewable natural resources include all of the following EXCEPT: A) natural gas.

B) minerals.

C) crude oil.

D) coal.

E) wind.

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7) Ecosystem services ________.

A) contribute to keeping ecosystems productive B) are required to rebalance natural systems that we have disturbed C) are not necessary to sustainable systems D) are economically valuable services provided by natural systems E) are valuable to natural systems but not to human-created systems

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8) Today (2018), there are about ________.

A) 5.35 billion people on Earth, the same as for the past 6 years B) 2% fewer people on Earth than in 2010 C) 9 billion people on Earth D) 7.5 billion people on Earth E) 10 billion people on Earth 9) Global population is projected to be nearly ________ in 2050.

A) 7 billion B) 11 billion C) 9 billion

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9) D) 10 billion

E) 8 billion

10) To determine your specific impacts on the environment, you can ________.

A) measure the volume and type of all the wastes you contribute to the municipal waste stream B) calculate your ecological footprint C) measure local air pollution and its impacts on your health D) determine your current water pollution impact E) calculate the biodiversity of your local community

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11) By studying ancient civilizations, such as the Greek and Roman empires and the Angkor

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civilization of Southeast Asia, historians have concluded that these civilizations declined partly because of ________.

A) sustainable practices

B) overabundance of resources C) floods D) fires E) environmental degradation due to unsustainable use of resources 12) Solutions to environmental problems ________.

A) must be designed with sustainable goals B) must be on a local scale C) must be short term D) are best designed and discussed in the political arena E) can be implemented only by scientists

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13) Which of the following best describes the practice of environmental science?

A) elitist and unnecessary B) integrative and interdisciplinary C) highly specialized and focused D) theoretical and controversial E) abstract and theoretical

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14) Academic environmental programs that emphasize the social sciences are often called ________

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programs.

A) resource studies

B) wildlife management C) environmental studies D) environmental science E) ecological science 15) Scientific inquiry is based on ________.

A) making huge leaps of knowledge with scientific insights B) facts that can be proven true without experimental manipulation C) an expanding knowledge based on observation, questioning, testing and discovery D) designing experiments that have never been done before E) the production of technological advances

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16) The scientific process and scientific knowledge are based on ________.

A) a systematic process of learning about and testing our understanding of the world B) the fact that all hypotheses can be proven true C) observation alone D) quantitative data alone E) guesses based on personal feelings about the subject under inquiry

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17) Sachiko and Fred are having a discussion about the scientific method. Sachiko makes the

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comment that every time she sees people carrying open umbrellas, she also sees several minor car accidents. This is a(n) ________.

A) scientific study

B) hypothesis C) theory about umbrellas D) observation E) theory about car accidents 18) A hypothesis is ________.

A) a proven scientific fact B) a prediction about something that has not yet been observed C) a testable proposition that explains an observed phenomenon or answers a question D) the design of an experiment that can be used in scientific inquiry E) an instrument that is used to examine environmental conditions

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19) An experiment ________.

A) is an activity designed to test the validity of a hypothesis B) does not need to be repeated if well designed C) often involves manipulating as many variables as possible D) involves only collection of quantitative data E) is designed to generate new scientific hypothesis

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20) A pharmaceutical company wishes to study a possible new headache medicine. They are doing

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human trials with 1000 volunteers and need to ________.

A) randomly assign each person to either the treatment group or control group

B) divide the groups by level of health C) put all women in the control group and all men in the experimental group D) have 10 volunteers in the control group E) give both control and experimental groups the same amount of the new medication 21) In a controlled experiment, ________.

A) the researcher knows the outcome before beginning the experiment B) you need only a single experimental organism, which is tested again and again C) the researcher has several hypotheses, one of which will be proven correct D) the experimental organisms have all been used before and given good results E) the researcher controls for the effects of all variables except one

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22) Quantitative data ________.

A) cannot be replicated B) are data that are expressed as numbers and can be tested using statistics C) cannot be used to support or disprove hypotheses D) have variables that may not have been properly manipulated E) fall into categories, such as male/female, school of attendance, what dorm you live in,

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23) In a manipulative experiment, ________.

A) researchers manipulate the dependent variable B) replication of the experiment is not necessary C) researchers manipulate the independent variable D) researchers manipulate as many variables as possible E) the peer review process is bypassed

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24) Ruben has a new puppy and wants to feed it the best possible food. He decides on an experiment

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whether you have pets, etc.

where he will feed it the very best canned food plus a dietary supplement of vitamins recommended by a veterinarian. Which of the following best describes Ruben's project?

A) Ruben needs to take careful measurements of the puppy's weight and height at least once a week for it to be a good experiment.

B) Ruben needs to control for the amount of exercise, sunshine, water, and care that the puppy gets each week, so that they are equal from week to week.

C) This is an example of an excellent controlled experiment as it is written.

D) Ruben needs to use his mother's 6-year-old chocolate Shar-Pei to feed a standard diet so he can compare his puppy with a control dog.

E) This is not an experiment there are no controls or replicates.

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25) The process by which several researchers review another researcher's manuscript prior to

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publication to ensure research quality is referred to as ________.

A) investigative inquiry

B) hypothesis testing C) quality control D) critical analysis E) peer review 26) Which of the following best embodies the qualities of a scientific theory?

A) Squirrels in central Illinois prefer to build their nests in oak trees instead of hickory trees.

B) Dangerous wildfires in California could be avoided by better fire prevention strategies.

C) Students who study for their environmental science exams will perform better on those

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27) A paradigm ________.

A) is a means of evaluating scientific hypotheses B) can only come from qualitative data C) is synonymous with the scientific method D) is a dominant world view in science E) is a group of several hypotheses that can be tested together

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28) A study's results are deemed worthy of acceptance into the body of scientific knowledge if they

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exams than those who do not.

D) Prairies that have larges herds of bison show greater plant diversity than prairies without bison.

E) All gases, liquids, and solids consist of atoms.

are published in journals that ________.

A) are funded by corporations funding the research

B) meet guidelines advocated by environmentalists or consumer groups C) charge a high fee for acceptance D) conform to current political and religious views E) use the peer review process 29) ________ believe that the guidelines for making environmental decisions are context-specific, depending on the cultures, social issues, and other factors framing the decision.

A) Preservationists

B) Relativists C) Followers of Leopold's land ethic D) Universalists E) Conservationists

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30) ________ gives inherent value to certain living things or to the biotic (living) realm of the earth in

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general; both human and nonhuman lives have ethical standing.

A) Biocentrism

B) Anthropocentrism C) Ecocentrism D) Relativism E) Realism 31) A(n) ________ is best defined as one who considers the impacts on the whole ecosystem, both the

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living and nonliving, when considering an action.

A) ethnocentrist

B) relativist C) ecocentrist D) anthropocentrist E) biocentrist 32) The Endangered Species Act, passed by Congress nearly four decades ago, has spawned a

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continuous series of debates between those who feel the ethical necessity to protect species at the brink of extinction and others who feel that if we have to protect every habitat of every species at risk, then there will be a loss of jobs and a blow to an already shaky economy. This boils down to a conflict between ________.

A) universalists and ecofeminists

B) economists and environmental scientists C) anthropocentrists and ecocentrists D) social scientists and conservationists E) relativists and environmental justice advocates 33) John Muir, a great American environmentalist, felt that ________.

A) pristine wilderness should be preserved because "Everybody needs beauty as well as bread" B) resources should be exploited wherever they were found to the greatest economic benefit C) wilderness was essentially worthless and should not be preserved D) the only true value of wilderness was its ability to provide national economic growth E) national parks violated the principles of environmental justice

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34) Who is credited for articulating the conservation ethic and for founding the U.S. Forest Service?

A) John Muir B) Gifford Pinchot C) Aldo Leopold D) Theodore Roosevelt E) Ralph Waldo Emerson

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35) Issues of ________ are environmental issues whose dimensions include differential exposure to

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risk from toxic wastes and air pollution or differential access to the natural beauty of parks based on ethnicity or race.

A) moral relativism

B) environmental justice C) anthropocentrism D) ecocentrism E) paradigm shifts 36) Sustainable development ________.

A) involves consuming resources without compromising future availability B) is beyond our current technology and attitudes C) ensures an economy that will decline over time D) is possible given our increased use of fertilizers and technology for agriculture E) is impossible to accomplish

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37) You have read about the mistakes made on Easter Island. On Tikopia, another small island, the

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people acted differently. When they realized that the pigs they had imported were damaging the environment, they killed them all. They had to have permission from a chief to fish, which prevented overfishing. They practiced contraception. These all indicate that ________.

A) they were concerned with only one year at a time

B) they believed in full resource utilization C) they felt that everything was a renewable resource D) they truly practiced sustainability E) they felt that everything was a nonrenewable resource 38) All of the following are ways that campuses could possibly become more sustainable EXCEPT: A) build a parking garage and convert some parking lots into gardens.

B) install photovoltaic solar panels on the roofs of campus buildings.

C) install low-flow showers and toilets.

D) close down many of the dorms and have students live off campus.

E) use more local produce in the dining halls.

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39) ________ is a basic understanding of Earth's physical and living systems and how we interact with

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them.

A) Sustainability B) Environmental literacy C) Environmental economics D) An ecological footprint E) Environmental ethics

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Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

Pablo and Johanna have to do a yearlong study for their biology course. After some discussion, they decide to try comparing their dogs and the diet that they feed them to test their hypothesis that the local veterinarian's special dog food mix will enhance growth and development. Each student adopts a puppy from the local pound. Pablo plans to feed his Goldendoodle the special diet, while Johanna plans to use generic dry kibble from the supermarket for her bulldog.

40) The independent variable in this study will be ________.

A) how much the dogs grow B) the sex of the dogs C) the type of food the dogs receive D) the age of the dogs E) the breed of the dogs

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41) One dependent variable in this study will be ________.

A) the type of food the dogs receive B) the breed of the dogs C) the sex of the dogs D) how much the dogs grow E) the age of the dogs

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42) When they write up their initial proposal, the instructor will probably ________.

A) tell them they have some serious problems with the proposal, but it is fixable if they are

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willing to use more dogs in their study

B) tell them that the proposal is impossible and that such a study cannot be done at all C) tell them that they need at least 100 dogs to do the study D) give them an F and tell them to start over–it would take many years to do such a study E) give them an A for thoroughness and allow them to proceed with the experiment 43) Pablo and Johanna have too many ________.

A) controlled variables and not enough uncontrolled variables B) independent variables and not enough dependent variables C) replicates and not enough variables D) dependent variables and not enough independent variables E) variables that they didn't control and not enough replicates

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44) Pablo and Johanna appear not to have given consideration to the importance of controlling for

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________.

A) the possibility that one dog food is healthier than the other dog food

B) the food that the dogs are being fed C) possible differences resulting from using two different breeds of dog D) the age of the dogs E) the source of the dog food

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45) After meeting with their instructor, Pablo and Johanna know that they need to change their

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experimental design. They contact a local puppy farm and arrange to do their study with 3-month-old litters of pups from four Irish setters, for a total of 24 puppies consisting of 12 females and 12 males. In order to have two groups of puppies (control and experimental), Pablo and Johanna should ________.

A) randomly choose one dog for the control group and use the other 23 in the experimental group B) put all the puppies from two of the litters in one group and all of the puppies from the other two litters in the other group C) put six males and six females in each group, with some from each litter in each group

D) flip a coin for each dog to see which group it will be in E) put the 12 females in one group and the 12 males in the other group ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

46) Name two transformative events of the past 10,000 years that caused human population size to increase.

Describe each, briefly explaining the contributions that each made to human population growth. Include the benefits and problems associated with each event.

47) Why is it important to understand our interactions with the environment? What will studying environmental science enable you to do?

48) Compare and contrast the types of knowledge gained and the research methods of natural and social sciences when considering environmental problems. Why do both types of disciplines need to be a part of environmental science?

49) Differentiate between environmental science and environmentalism. Define each term and explain how they are similar and how they differ.

50) Discuss the differences between a manipulative and a natural experiment.

51) Compare and contrast the philosophies of John Muir and Gifford Pinchot.

52) What qualities would be present in a sustainable enterprise?

53) Use the assessment tool at www.footprintcalculator.org to calculate your ecological footprint. Once you

determine the factors that evaluate your use of water, energy, waste disposal, transportation, and food consumption, use the results of your specific ecological footprint to determine three specific actions that you can take to reduce the size of your ecological footprint. Make sure that your specific actions each fit into a different category (water, energy, waste, transportation, and food). Summarize your assessment.

54) There is a heated debate on a certain college campus as to whether closing down one of the dorms would make the campus more sustainable. Present one possible argument why closing the dorm might be wise for sustainability, and one possible argument why such action might NOT make the campus more sustainable.

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED6

1) D 2) E 3) A 4) B 5) C 6) E 7) D 8) D 9) D 10) B 11) E 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) A 20) A 21) E 22) E 23) C 24) E 25) E 26) E 27) D 28) E 29) B 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) B 36) A 37) D 38) D 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) A

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED6

43) E 44) C 45) C 46) The agricultural revolution included transition from the hunter-gatherer lifestyle to an agricultural lifestyle. Then,

during the industrial revolution, there were shifts from rural life, animal-powered agriculture, and manufacture by craftspeople to an urban society powered by fossil fuels such as coal and oil. Students should describe the benefits and problems associated with each transformative event.

47) We depend on the environment for air, water, food, shelter, and everything else. We are capable of modifying the environment whether we intend to or not. Understanding our interactions with the environment is the essential first step toward devising positive, sustainable solutions. Studying environmental science will give us the tools we need to evaluate information on environmental change and to think critically and creatively about possible actions to take in response.

48) The natural sciences are made up of disciplines that study the physical and biological facets of the natural world and their interactions with each other. These disciplines rely on all types of studies that generate mainly quantitative data, allowing scientists to acquire and interpret information about the natural world. The social sciences are made up of disciplines that study human attitudes, behaviors, and interactions. The scientists in these disciplines mainly collect qualitative data using a variety of research techniques that are similar to natural scientists. Studies that examine how cultures perceive an environmental concept may be used to implement environmental policy. Because environmental problems involve accurate assessment of the scope of the problem by which policy that affects humans is devised, both types of sciences are needed to be a part of environmental science.

49) Environmental science is the pursuit of knowledge about the workings of the environment and our interactions with it. Environmentalism is a social concern focused on protecting the natural environment and, by extension, humans, from undesirable changes brought about by certain human choices. Environmental scientists and environmentalists study the same issues, but environmental scientists use an objective scientific approach to understanding environmental problems. Environmentalists, on the other hand, may use dramatic and often emotional approaches to alter the political and social understanding or to educate the public about environmental problems.

50) In a manipulative experiment, the researcher chooses and manipulates the independent variable, but in a natural experiment, the researcher records differences in variables as they are expressed in the natural environment, such as the mean weight of tomatoes grown in dry versus wet climates.

51) Both men were active in the early 1900s and both aimed to protect the North American wilderness by opposing rapid deforestation and unregulated land development. Muir was a preservationist and a true ecocentrist and preservationist who believed that nature should be protected for its own inherent value and who maintained that the experience of natural beauty was as important to us as the physical necessities of food and materials. He believed from his personal experience that nature provided spiritual renewal and met recreational needs. Pinchot was a conservationist who favored sustainable use of resources for the benefit of present and future generations. He was a utilitarian, meaning that he believed humans should use resources in a way that provides the greatest good for the greatest number of people for the longest time. He leaned closer to anthropocentrism than Muir.

52) A sustainable enterprise is one which allows future generations to carry it on at the same level of productivity that we do at present. Whatever natural capital is required will remain equally available in the future as it is now. The environmental effects of the enterprise will not damage, degrade, or deplete the systems with which it interfaces.

Materials and energy will be used efficiently, wastes will be minimal and nontoxic, and the ecological footprint of the enterprise will remain unchanged, or may diminish as better technology becomes available.

53) The answers will vary based on results of individual student lifestyle. Students can reflect on their results and can then consider making lifestyle adjustments that support a greater environmental sustainability.

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED6

54) Answers will vary. Possible reasons why closing the dorm would make the campus more sustainable include the

following: (1) the dorm is old and the costs of materials to bring it up to code and make it more energy efficient are not worth keeping the dorm open; (2) students may be able to use the land for a sustainability project such as a campus garden; and (3) the other dorms on campus have room for the students who would otherwise be living in this dorm, so you can house just as many students without having to heat and furnish the extra building. Reasons why the move may not be a step toward sustainability include the following: (1) the closing of the dorm may force more students to live off campus and they would have to commute to campus using automobiles, so even if they use public transportation, fossil fuels would be needed; (2) if the dorm is not demolished, it may just sit there unused and end up blighting the landscape; and (3) much of the material from the closed dorm might end up taking up space in a landfill.

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Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) A decrease of one unit in the pH scale represents a ________ the hydrogen ion concentration of a

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solution.

A) 1% decrease in

B) tenfold decrease in C) tenfold increase in D) halving of E) doubling of 2) Which of the following has the lowest concentration of H+ ions?

A) car battery acid B) seawater C) lemon juice D) pure water E) ammonia

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3) Which of the following has a hydrogen ion concentration approximately 1000 times higher than

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pure water?

A) lemon juice

B) normal rainwater C) acid rain D) ammonia E) soft soap 4) Stomach acid ________.

A) has a lower concentration of hydrogen ions than seawater B) has a higher concentration of hydrogen ions than car battery acid C) is technically not acidic D) is roughly 10,000 times more acidic than normal rainwater E) is less acidic than lemon juice

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5) The greatest source of both nitrogen and phosphorus entering Chesapeake Bay is ________.

A) septic systems B) urban fertilizer runoff C) agriculture D) natural sources E) municipal and industrial wastewater

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6) The ________ is the rock and sediment beneath our feet, plus Earth's uppermost mantle and crust.

A) atmosphere B) lithosphere C) hydrosphere D) mesosphere E) biosphere

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7) An example of a positive feedback loop ________.

A) is melting arctic snow exposing dark surfaces that heat up and cause further melting B) is a thermostat turning on the furnace as the temperature drops C) is a pond becoming more acidic as a result of pollution D) are predators eating most of their prey and then declining in numbers E) are birds migrating south in response to colder temperatures

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8) A(n) ________ is the smallest component of an element that still maintains the chemical properties

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of the element.

A) nucleus

B) molecule

C) atom

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D) proton

E) ion

9) Electrically charged atoms or combinations of atoms are called ________.

A) elements B) ions C) molecules D) isotopes E) compounds

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10) ________ is defined as the number of protons plus the number of neutrons.

A) Atomic number B) Nuclear number C) Mass number D) Isotopic number E) Ionic number

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11) How do organic compounds differ from inorganic compounds?

A) Inorganic compounds never contain carbon, whereas organic compounds always contain

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carbon.

B) Organic compounds are natural, while inorganic compounds are artificially synthesized.

C) Inorganic compounds always only consist of two atoms.

D) Organic compounds consist of carbon atoms joined by covalent bonds, while inorganic compounds lack carbon-carbon bonds.

E) Organic compounds are always acidic, while inorganic compounds are always basic.

12) All of the following are macromolecules EXCEPT: A) starch.

B) glucose.

C) protein.

12) D) cellulose.

E) DNA.

13) Skin, hair, muscles, and enzymes are all made up of ________.

A) lipids B) organelles C) nucleic acids D) proteins E) carbohydrates

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14) DNA is composed of units called ________.

A) amino acids B) sugars C) bases D) nucleotides E) lipids

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15) Forming the cell walls of stems, leaves, and roots, what compound is the primary structural

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constituent of plant tissues?

A) protein

B) starch C) cellulose D) chlorophyll E) enzymes 16) ________ are the primary, water-insoluble components of cell membranes.

A) Phospholipids B) Proteins C) Nucleic acids D) Carbohydrates E) Acids

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17) River water held behind a dam is a form of ________.

A) kinetic energy B) thermodynamics C) chemical energy D) potential energy E) entropy

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18) When you burn a log in your fireplace, you are converting ________.

A) electromagnetic energy to chemical energy B) proteins to amino acids C) chemical energy to nuclear energy D) thermal energy to electromagnetic energy E) chemical energy to thermal (heat) energy

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19) That all the energy of the universe remains constant, is conserved, is neither created nor

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destroyed, but may change form is a statement of the ________.

A) second law of thermodynamics

B) law of entropy C) law of feedback D) law of systemic connection E) first law of thermodynamics 20) Some organisms, such as plants, algae, and cyanobacteria, produce their own food by absorbing the sun's radiation. These organisms are referred to as ________.

A) mutualists or consumers

B) autotrophs or producers C) parasites or heterotrophs D) heterotrophs or primary producers E) heterotrophs or consumers

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20)

21) During photosynthesis, ________.

A) entropy increases B) entropy stays the same C) oxygen is consumed D) there is net consumption of water and carbon dioxide E) the high-quality energy from the sun is converted to a lower quality energy

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22) During the light reactions of photosynthesis, the solar energy absorbed by chlorophyll is used to

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________.

A) split water molecules and release oxygen in the form of O2

B) break down macromolecules such as starch C) produce small, high-energy molecules that are used in the Calvin cycle to manufacture sugars

D) defend against predators E) Both A and C 23) Cellular respiration ________.

A) involves a net consumption of water B) represents a decrease in entropy C) produces carbon dioxide and water D) results in a net consumption of energy E) requires the green pigment chlorophyll

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24) Which of the following represents cellular respiration?

A) water + carbon dioxide glucose + oxygen + water + energy B) water + carbon dioxide + energy glucose + oxygen + water C) nitrogen + carbon dioxide + energy methane + oxygen D) nitrogen + oxygen + glucose methane + carbon dioxide E) glucose + oxygen water + carbon dioxide + energy

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25) The total amount of chemical energy that remains after autotrophs use some of the energy to fuel

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their own metabolism is known as ________.

A) gross primary production

B) secondary production C) positive primary production D) negative secondary production E) net primary production 26) Net primary productivity is ________.

A) the amount of energy consumers derive from producers B) the total biomass of an entire ecosystem C) the energy used by plants to make biomass after respiration D) the biomass of producers minus that of consumers E) the amount of detritus produced by an ecosystem

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26)

27) In all ecosystems, energy is eventually lost to the environment via ________.

A) photosynthesis B) matter C) radiation and reflection of light D) trophic levels E) heat from metabolism

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28) Geographic information systems (GIS) are ________.

A) useful in determining the number of heterotrophs in an ecosystem B) helping conservation biologists study habitats and study biodiversity C) useful in tracking the movements of individual organisms D) used to measure the economic value of ecosystem services E) used to predict rainfall and temperature changes in ecosystems

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29) Ecological modeling is most useful for studying ________.

A) the biodiversity in ecosystems B) small isolated microhabitats, where the inputs and outputs are well-studied C) how individual species interact with one another D) large complex ecosystems that have many interactions E) artificial data generated by computers

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30) Which of the following is the best example of an ecosystem service?

A) a city cutting down a tree that is dying B) a park ranger checking fishing licenses C) a college environmental club cleaning up the shoulder of a highway D) the regulation of gas prices E) soil microbes fixing atmospheric nitrogen

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31) Compared to energy flow in ecosystems, the flow of matter ________.

A) reflects conservation and recycling B) moves from consumers to producers C) does not involve either detritivores or detritus D) is one way E) is always dissipated as heat

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32) In the flow of matter in ecosystems, where would be the greatest flow of nutrients?

A) between decomposers and top consumers B) between middle consumers and producers C) between producers and top consumers D) between detritus and producers E) between the sun and producers

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33) Aquifers are ________.

A) porous rock formations located underground that store groundwater B) a source of water largely untapped by agriculture and urban systems C) large bodies of surface water such as lakes and oceans D) areas where the water table is above ground most of the year E) moist areas of soils that permit infiltration of nitrogen and phosphorus

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34) The largest reservoir in the hydrological cycle is ________.

A) dammed reservoirs B) the atmosphere C) precipitation D) groundwater E) oceans

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35) Plants release water vapor through their leaves via a process called ________.

A) evaporation B) condensation C) percolation D) transpiration E) magnification

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36) The greatest human impact on the carbon cycle has been through ________.

A) increased respiration of the exponentially growing human population B) use of synthetic fertilizers C) depletion of aquifers D) combustion of fossil fuels E) mining of limestone (calcium carbonate)

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37) Earth's largest pool of nitrogen is ________.

A) the atmosphere B) the biosphere C) in fossil fuel deposits D) the lithosphere E) the hydrosphere

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38) Biological nitrogen fixation is carried out by ________.

A) mammals B) specialized bacteria C) pine trees D) all organisms E) fungi

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39) Consider the following processes: respiration, combustion, polymerization, nitrification, industrial

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40) All of the following are approaches to reducing eutrophication EXCEPT: A) upgrading stormwater systems to capture runoff from roads and parking lots.

B) planting and maintaining vegetation buffers around ditches and streams that trap nutrient

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fixation of nitrogen, and photosynthesis. How many of these result in the release of oxygen into the atmosphere?

A) none B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 E) all

and sediment runoff.

C) reducing fertilizer use on farms and lawns.

D) applying fertilizers to farmland just before heavy rains are predicted.

E) using artificial wetlands to filter stormwater and farm runoff.

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

Glass Lake, located in a valley in low forested mountains, for many decades of the 19th and early 20th centuries was a favorite picnic, recreation, and fishing site for people in surrounding towns and farms. However, in the middle of the 20th century, a trend began in which the privately owned farms in the lake's watershed were purchased by large agribusinesses.

The decision was made to grow a profitable crop. The demand for quality farmland resulted in the sale of most of the family-owned establishments and a large increase in the area of land under cultivation. Most of the forests were cut to acquire the land needed for crops. The use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides increased several-fold by the end of the century. In addition, the combined population of the lakeside villages quadrupled during the same time. The lake experienced a slow degradation of water quality and biodiversity. Sport fishing declined, and the lake became murky, while the sediments in the lake increased in depth.

41) The symptoms of the lake suggest ________.

A) that all the problems have been created by deforestation B) the effects of global climate change C) pesticide poisoning D) eutrophication E) overfishing

41)

42) If a water quality expert were to check the level of dissolved oxygen in the lake water, s/he would

42)

find that it ________.

A) is much higher than normal

B) is near normal on the surface but extremely low near the bottom sediments C) is completely absent D) is within normal limits for an unpolluted lake E) is very low at the surface and normal near the bottom sediments

8

43) The same expert found that dissolved phosphorus and nitrogen levels were more than 10 times

43)

what they were 70 years ago. The primary sources of these nutrients are ________.

A) soil particles eroded from the deforested watershed

B) the changes in dissolved oxygen levels C) the increased algal biomass in the lake D) natural atmospheric phosphorus and nitrogen fixation E) agricultural and urban fertilizer runoff as well as increased urban wastewater discharges 44) The murkiness (turbidity) of the water was analyzed and found to have several major sources,

44)

including ________.

A) fertilizer particles, wind-borne atmospheric particles, and wastewater discharge

B) erosion from the hillsides, solid nitrogen and phosphorus from agricultural fertilizers, and numerous microscopic animals living in bottom sediments

C) pesticides, atmospheric deposition, and wastewater discharges D) algae, increased microscopic animal life, and pesticides E) erosion from deforested hillsides, sediments produced from poorly treated wastewater discharge, and sediments produced from the increased plant biomass of the lake

45) A biodiversity survey of the lake revealed a striking decline in nearly all animal species and in

45)

rooted plant life, especially where streams discharge into the lake. The immediate cause(s) of the decline most likely was/were ________.

A) natural declines in aging wildlife populations

B) pesticide poisoning C) very low oxygen levels and lack of plants to support animal consumers D) toxicity of nitrogen and phosphorus to wildlife E) the fact that the past two winters were colder than usual 46) A task force composed of water quality chemists, environmental landscape experts, townspeople,

46)

and corn growers meet and share information. They are likely to decide that they must focus on ________ in the initial efforts to restore the lake.

A) restoring biodiversity to the deforested areas and closing the wastewater plant

B) closing the wastewater treatment plant and reducing agriculture by 75% C) reducing the population of the town by 50% and agriculture by 50% D) reducing fertilizer inputs into the lake, increasing the efficiency of the wastewater plant, and using aerators to increase oxygen levels

E) banning agriculture from the entire region ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

47) In what ways are macromolecules essential to life? Describe the structures of three and describe their major role(s) in organisms.

48) What is the first law of thermodynamics, and why is it important?

49) Compare the first and second laws of thermodynamics.

9

50) Briefly explain the overall processes of photosynthesis and cellular respiration. Include a brief explanation of autotrophs and heterotrophs in your answer.

51) Briefly describe what ecologists mean by an ecosystem.

52) Discuss how natural ecosystems provide valuable ecosystem services to humankind.

53) Briefly discuss how human activities have affected the balance of global hydrological and carbon cycles.

10

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED7

1) C 2) E 3) C 4) D 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) D 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) E 19) E 20) B 21) D 22) E 23) C 24) E 25) E 26) C 27) E 28) B 29) D 30) E 31) A 32) D 33) A 34) E 35) D 36) D 37) A 38) B 39) B 40) D 41) D 42) B

11

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED7

43) E 44) E 45) C 46) D 47) Macromolecules provide critical components of organismal structure, energy storage and mobilization, and genetic

coding to name just a few of their many roles. Carbohydrates are made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen and have the general formula CH2 O. Carbon and water exist in a 1:1 ratio. They are the primary components of plant cell walls

and are the preferred energy source for many organisms. Proteins are chains of amino acids (amine group + carboxyl or acid group + central carbon). They are primarily structural molecules. They are blood transporters, aid in the function of the immune system, and promote metabolic reactions. Most enzymes are proteins. Nucleic acids are made of chains of nucleotides (phosphate + sugar + nitrogenous bases). They carry genetic information (genes) that coordinates all organismal functions and passes traits from generation to generation.

48) This law says that the total energy and mass in the universe are constant and conserved. This law is important because it says that there is a finite amount of energy on Earth. Humans cannot make new energy. This law also requires the balancing of all chemical reactions, where we acknowledge that mass is conserved, even though it may change form. In terms of our management of resources, especially those that are nonrenewable, it implies that efficient and sustainable use of energy and materials is extremely important since their abundance is limited.

49) The first law states that energy can change from one form to another; it cannot be created or lost. The total energy in the universe remains constant. However, the second law states that the universe will change from a more ordered state to a less ordered state. Entropy in the universe is increasing, as energy is converted from high to low quality.

Organisms must consume energy to maintain structure and keep entropy at bay. Low-quality energy from organisms is usually released into the environment as heat. For example, if you had a bowl of oatmeal for breakfast, your digestive systems digests the starch to glucose and your cells then burn the glucose to produce energy to run your body, but most of it is lost as heat. The low-quality exhaust products of this process are carbon dioxide and water, neither of which has any potential energy for you to use. Therefore, you have to keep taking in more chemical energy in food to keep your system running.

50) Photosynthesis is performed by autotrophs. In photosynthesis, light energy is converted into chemical energy (stored within the bonds of glucose). Water and carbon dioxide are consumed, and oxygen is released. In most autotrophs, photosynthesis occurs in the chloroplasts. Cellular respiration represents the reverse chemical process. It is performed by both autotrophs and heterotrophs to meet their energy needs. In cellular respiration, oxygen is consumed, and the bonds of glucose are broken to release energy (which is then used for work within the cell). Along with the energy, carbon dioxide and water are end products. In most organisms, cellular respiration takes place in the mitochondria.

51) An ecosystem is a network of dynamic relationships among components that interact with one another and influence one another by exchanging inputs of energy, materials, organisms, and information. Some of the outputs are communities that may take the forms of forests, grasslands or marshes, while others we may view as ecosystem services, such as pollination, water purification, and renewal of soil fertility, that have great value to human enterprises.

52) Because we are part of natural ecosystems, we share in the benefits they provide in supporting all species that inhabit them. For example, the food chains and webs by which energy and materials flow through ecosystems provide pest control (e.g., predators) and pollination, which is a byproduct of the feeding by certain animals, mainly insects, on plant flowers. Forests purify water moving through watersheds, control erosion, provide complex habitats for species of great economic value to us, provide timber, and remove pollutants such as carbon dioxide from air. Soils provide essential mechanisms for the movement of nutrients in biogeochemical cycles, and their fertility is indispensable for plant growth. Finally, all aspects of ecosystems provide intangible services of aesthetic, recreational, and cultural value that contribute greatly to our psychological and spiritual well-being.

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED7

53) Human activities have impacted nearly every aspect of the hydrological cycle. Groundwater and aquifer resources

have been depleted by urban and agricultural growth. Rivers have been dammed and diverted such that they have slowed and diminished their flow toward the seas. The removal of vegetation from watersheds has increased surface runoff and decreased infiltration and transpiration. Certainly the greatest disruption of the carbon cycle has been the enormous input to the atmosphere of the greenhouse gas carbon dioxide by the burning of fossil fuels. This has been the most important driver of global climate change. In addition, extensive deforestation, particularly in tropical regions, has diminished the ability of these regions to remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. Today, the atmospheric carbon dioxide reservoir is greater than it has been in more than 800,000 years.

13

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) The barrier between the fruit fly populations ________.

A) produced distinct species as soon as the barrier became impassible B) did not greatly interfere with both populations accessing both mountaintops C) was the first part of an extinction event for both populations D) was an effective barrier to mating and gene flow between the two populations E) caused completely different mutations to occur in the two populations

1)

2) Assuming the populations of fruit flies are the same size, the length of time necessary for

2)

significant divergence to take place in the populations depends on ________.

A) the rapid restoration of contact between the two populations

B) the kinds of mutations in the populations and the similarity of the two isolated habitats C) how quickly the fruit flies can fly between the two habitats D) the absence of natural selection E) the area of the two mountain habitats 3) In the initial fruit fly population at the top of the figure, it is safe to assume that ________.

A) any male in the population could successfully mate with any female B) there is already significant genetic divergence taking place C) no mutations are occurring in the population D) the population is mating with individuals of other species E) natural selection is not operating on the population

3)

4) The major force(s) causing the genetic divergence of the two isolated fruit fly populations is/are

4)

________.

A) mutation and natural selection

B) mating and gene flow between the two populations C) mutation D) natural selection and the variety of other species with which each population interbreeds E) the complete lack of sexual reproduction in the two populations 5) At Hakalau Forest in ________, ranchland is being restored to forest, invasive plants are being

removed, native plants are being planted, and néné are being protected while new populations of them are being established.

A) Tuvalu

B) Hawaii C) Guam D) Japan E) the Marshall Islands

2

5)

6) A population is a group of ________.

A) cells that have similar function B) individuals of several interacting species that live in one area C) individuals of a single species that live and interact in one area D) individuals of several interacting species that interact in multiple ecosystems E) all individuals of a species in all locations

6)

7) Heavy rains and mudslides cause a river to change course, isolating two groups of lizards of the

7)

same species from one another. Over a long period of time, ________.

A) one group will probably become an endemic species

B) one or both groups will probably become invasive species C) the groups will probably diverge genetically, and speciation may occur D) one or both groups will probably emigrate E) both groups will probably become native species 8) A species has evolved an asexual mode of reproduction by having offspring develop from

8)

unfertilized eggs. Which of the following will be true of this species' response to natural selection?

A) The species will increase in numbers because genetic variation is increased.

B) The species will compensate for loss of genetic variation by hybridizing with other species.

C) There will be more deaths from natural selection because there is no mutation.

D) There will be fewer deaths from natural selection because sexual recombination always leads to extinction.

E) There will be less genetic variation from sexual recombination and a risk of not adapting quickly to environmental change.

9) One example of artificial selection is ________.

A) the process of allopatric speciation B) pet dogs that have gone wild, mate with coyotes, and live in packs C) broccoli, cauliflower, cabbage, and Brussels sprouts bred from Brassica oleracea D) humans placing a gene for human insulin into a flower E) crossing a lion and a tiger to get a sterile animal called a liger

3

9)

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

10) According to the figure, which of the following is true?

A) Snakes are more closely related to crocodiles than they are to turtles.

B) Sharks possess a swim bladder.

C) Lampreys have lungs.

D) Amphibians have a skull with two openings.

E) Reptiles (turtles, snakes, lizards, and crocodiles) are more closely related to each other than

10)

11) According to the figure, crocodiles are most closely related to ________.

A) turtles B) mammals C) birds D) snakes and lizards E) lampreys

11)

they are to any other animals.

4

12) Organisms that are closely related have a recent common ancestor. Of the following organisms

12)

shown in the figure, which choice lists organisms that are most closely related to each other?

A) lizards and crocodiles

B) bony fish and birds C) lampreys and sharks D) mammals and turtles E) lungfish and amphibians 13) Which of the following can be inferred from the figure?

A) The ancestors of turtles had two openings in their skulls.

B) The ancestors of snakes had legs.

C) Turtle eggs are laid in the ocean.

D) The ancestors of crocodiles had feathers.

E) The ancestors of reptiles had hair.

13)

14) Phylogenetic trees ________.

A) have branches, each of which represents an extinction event B) are usually at odds with fossil evidence C) predict future evolutionary trends D) depict the flow of evolutionary change and diversification for a particular group of

14)

organisms

E) are a threatened species in Costa Rica's Monteverde National Park 15) All organisms in the same phylum are also in the same ________.

A) genus B) class C) order D) kingdom

15) E) family

16) You are an ecologist researching divergent evolution on the Galapagos Islands. Which of the

following might you be studying?

A) the processes by which several unrelated species of birds developed flightlessness as a result of the islands lacking natural predators B) the introduction and spread of an invasive bird species that has been introduced onto some of the islands C) the processes by which the various species of finches on the islands diverged from a common ancestor D) the similarities that have arisen between two completely unrelated species of birds that are competing for the same resources E) the geological processes by which the islands were formed millions of years ago

5

16)

6

17) According to the figure, which of the following birds is most closely related to the Palila?

A) Common Rosefinch B) Kaua`i Creeper C) Anianiau D) `I`iwi E) Laysan Finch

17)

18) Which of the following is true?

A) Extinctions of past species have always happened gradually and on a small scale.

B) Natural selection always favors complexity and a larger body size.

C) Most organisms present early in Earth's prehistory were more complex than modern

18)

organisms.

D) The number of species existing at one time has decreased throughout history.

E) Species on Earth today are just a fraction of all species that ever lived.

19) Extinction is ________.

A) the loss of a species from one place on the planet while still existing in other locations B) proceeding more slowly now than at any other time C) the disappearance of a species from Earth D) the loss of communities from the planet E) always caused by human disturbance

19)

20) Most extinction is ________.

A) problematic for generalists B) the result of environmental catastrophe C) not often a problem for endemics D) gradual, generally occurring when species cannot adapt genetically to changes in

20)

environmental conditions

E) the result of slow climate change 21) The two processes that determine the world's current biodiversity are ________.

A) endemism and climate change B) extinction and speciation rates C) mutation and humidity D) allopatric and sympatric speciation E) breeding and ecotourism

21)

22) Endemic species ________.

A) are generalist organisms B) cause disease C) have high rates of mutations that lead to large numbers of offspring species D) are invasive species that cause extinction E) are found only in one place on the planet

22)

7

23) In ecology, a(n) ________ is made up of interacting populations of different species that inhabit

23)

the same area.

A) guild

B) population C) ecosystem D) biome E) community 24) An ecosystem ________.

A) encompasses all the organisms and the physical and chemical environment within an area B) is the total population of a specific kind of plant, animal, or microbe, all the members of

24)

which do or potentially can interbreed and produce young

C) is a collection of interacting species living in a specific area D) is a grouping of plants and animals that interacts with one another in a way that causes the grouping to die E) is a regional grouping of plants, animals, and other biotic factors

25) A species' ________ is its functional role in its community.

A) habitat B) niche C) distribution D) selection E) place in the food chain

25)

26) A niche specialist is ________.

A) more likely to go extinct than a niche generalist B) more likely to have a large geographic distribution than a niche generalist C) more likely to use a wide variety of resources than a niche generalist D) more likely to adapt to climate change than a niche generalist E) more likely to thrive in human-modified environments than a niche generalist

26)

27) The niche of a species is the functional role of that species in the community that it belongs to.

27)

Species that have narrow niches (have very specific resource requirements) are said to be ________, while species that have broad niches (able to use a wide array of resources) are known as ________.

A) Type A species; Type B species

B) generalists; specialists C) specialists; generalists D) narrowists; broadists E) widespread; restricted

8

28) Which of the following descriptions of a hummingbird best describes its niche?

A) has a slender bill B) lays two eggs C) eats mosquitoes D) can migrate across the Gulf of Mexico E) can fly backward

28)

29) A coyote, which can alter its food intake to match seasonal abundance of plants, fruits, or small

29)

animals, is considered to be ________.

A) a specialist, able to specialize on whatever is available at the time

B) density independent and resource neutral C) herbivorous D) an endemic E) a generalist 30) High population density can ________.

A) decrease biodiversity within a species B) decrease the use of resources C) hinder organisms from finding mates D) decrease competition E) increase disease transmission and food scarcity

30)

31) Population distribution describes ________.

A) spatial arrangement of multiple species within a particular area B) placement of a species around the globe C) placement of a species within a country's boundaries D) how near or far away individuals in a population are from a resource, such as water E) spatial arrangement of individuals of a single species within a particular area or ecosystem

31)

32) When the organisms of a particular population seek habitats or resources that are unevenly

32)

spaced, the distribution of the individuals in the population tends to be ________.

A) binary

B) uniform C) evenly dispersed D) clumped E) random 33) Which of the following would best represent a clumped population dispersion pattern?

A) oaks planted on city streets B) a pod of 40 migrating gray whales in the Bering Sea C) earthworms within the soil of a garden D) pine trees within a pine plantation E) eagles nesting in the tallest trees in the Grand Canyon

9

33)

34) A population's age structure ________.

A) has no inherent value for predicting growth B) indicates the relative numbers of individuals of different ages within a population C) cannot predict possible species declines in numbers D) is correlated with the different niches the population occupies E) represents sizes of individual organisms

34)

35) Which of the following are the major factors that determine a population's growth rate?

A) limiting factors, carrying capacity, mutation rate, and inbreeding B) birth rate, death rate, emigration, and immigration C) adaptation, competition, birth rate, and emigration D) immigration, climate, emigration, and population distribution E) survivorship, natural selection, mutation, and extinction

35)

36) Populations lacking any environmental resistance tend to increase by ________.

A) exponential growth B) emigration C) immigration D) linear growth E) pyramidal growth

36)

37) Carrying capacity is the ________.

A) maximum sustainable population size that a given environment can support B) potential growth in the number of species in a given area C) limitation on numbers of species in a community D) greatest number of different niches possible in a given area E) average number of offspring carried to term by a species

37)

38) The invasive European buckthorn invades a local forest preserve. Initially, the population of

38)

buckthorn rapidly increases, and then it begins to level off. This pattern of population growth most closely resembles ________.

A) unlimited growth

B) slow and constantly changing growth C) rapid and steady rate growth D) logistic growth E) exponential growth 39) Density-dependent factors ________.

A) cause decreases in the number of species in an ecosystem B) include the effects of a hard freeze on a single species within a community C) include the effects of rainfall on an entire community D) include the effects of a hard freeze on an entire community E) include the effects of disease, predators, and food on a single species within a community

10

39)

40) Which of the following would be an example of a density-independent factor?

A) a plant parasite, such as mistletoe B) suitable nest sites for a flock of warblers C) cold weather causing a lake to freeze D) a specialist searching for the one species of plant that is its food E) blight (a mold disease) in a wheat field

40)

41) A small group of leaf-feeding beetles locates a field of snap beans, one of the preferred plants for

41)

42) Which of the following is accurate?

A) Any damaged ecosystem can be completely restored.

B) Humans can find and make their own resources if they destroy natural ecosystems.

C) Our understanding of genetics allows us to replace extinct species.

D) Costa Rica has declared national bankruptcy because of its failed ecotourism industry.

E) Ecotourism combines wildlife conservation with economic benefits.

42)

43) Which of the following has been an effect of ecotourism in Hawaii?

A) The trash from millions of visitors has choked out mangrove forests on the island of Oahu.

B) Conservation efforts have become more financially feasible because of increased tourist

43)

this species. At first, the population grows rapidly in the snap bean field, but as the beetle population grows larger, predators, such as spiders and birds, discover the beetles and start to remove individuals from the population. Competition for mates, food, and oviposition (egg-laying) sites intensifies for the individuals in the beetle population as population density increases. A fungal disease also starts to kill many of the beetles. The population no longer grows rapidly but levels off. How many of these factors controlling the beetle population are density-independent factors?

A) three B) one C) zero D) two E) four

dollars.

C) Ecotourism has always been banned in Hawaii, but other Pacific islands have experienced myriad negative effects of ecotourism.

D) A large marine reserve in Hawaii was forced to close because of the increased need to feed tourists.

E) Tourists have irreparably damaged sensitive coral reef ecosystems.

11

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

In 1906, President Theodore Roosevelt created the Grand Canyon National Game Preserve on the Kaibab Plateau in northern Arizona. Between 1907 and 1923, cattle grazing was greatly reduced, mule deer hunting was eliminated, and predators were killed. Over 800 cougars, 20 wolves (most had already been killed in the 1800s), and 7000 coyotes were trapped or shot. In response, the mule deer herd began to increase: By 1915, deer numbers were estimated at 25,000; 50,000 by 1920; and 100,000 by 1923.

44) Which of the following describes a graph of the Kaibab deer population between 1906 and 1923?

A) a J-shaped upward curve with a very rapid increase B) a "sine wave" curving up, down, up, down C) an S-shaped curve that shows a smooth, rapid increase and then levels off D) a straight line slanting upward, showing a steady increase over time E) a rapidly decreasing slope from left to right

44)

45) The removal of the livestock and predators and the cessation of hunting in 1907 ________.

A) increased the carrying capacity for the Kaibab deer B) decreased the reproductive output of the Kaibab deer C) decreased the carrying capacity for the Kaibab deer D) removed the limits on immigration, allowing more deer into the area E) caused the Kaibab deer to become extirpated

45)

46) The initial population of Kaibab deer in 1906 was about 4000. In an area of about 800,000 acres,

46)

this works out to an average density of one deer per 200 acres. What was the density in 1923?

A) one deer per 500 acres

B) one deer per 20 acres C) one deer per 0.8 acres D) one deer per 80 acres E) one deer per 8 acres 47) Which of the following is likely to be a direct or indirect effect of removing top predators from an ecosystem such as the Kaibab Plateau?

A) conversion of grassland into forest

B) a decrease in ground-level vegetation such as tree saplings C) a decrease in the carrying capacity of their prey D) a decrease in the populations of their prey E) greater competition among the remaining top predators in the ecosystem ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

48) Briefly describe the process of speciation, and define allopatric speciation.

49) Describe the sixth mass extinction event, when it occurred, and its specific causes.

12

47)

50) A species of bird had an original range covering the entire eastern half of the United States from New England west to the Mississippi and then south to Florida. During a period of glaciation, the eastern part of the population was cut off from the western part for 2000 years. Then the glacier melted and the birds' original range was reestablished. During the separation, the western birds evolved a slightly different song and a darker wing color. Ornithologists are now studying this species to determine whether speciation has taken place. What evidence should they look for in their study?

51) Differentiate between exponential and logistic growth curves. Give examples of the conditions under which each would occur.

52) Discuss the role of humans in regulating carrying capacity for the human species and in altering the carrying capacity for other species.

53) A population of quail lives in an area of prairie grasslands. In good years, a pair of quail can have four clutches of young, with as many as 12 to 14 eggs in each clutch. Despite this, the population size remains stable over the long term. Discuss the population structure, its potential for growth, and its possible limiting factors, using at least four of the terms you learned in this chapter.

13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED8

1) D 2) B 3) A 4) A 5) B 6) C 7) C 8) E 9) C 10) A 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) D 16) C 17) E 18) E 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) E 23) E 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) C 28) C 29) E 30) E 31) E 32) D 33) B 34) B 35) B 36) A 37) A 38) D 39) E 40) C 41) C 42) E

14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED8

43) B 44) A 45) A 46) E 47) B 48) When mutations occur in one population or subpopulation that are not passed to another population or

subpopulation, or if natural selection favors different genes in different populations, speciation can occur if gene flow becomes restricted permanently between the two populations (i.e., they can no longer mate and produce fertile offspring). If a physical boundary such as a stream divides the two populations, restricting gene flow between them, and a speciation event occurs, this is termed allopatric speciation.

49) Currently, most biologists believe that Earth is experiencing its sixth mass extinction event and that we are the cause.

The changes to Earth's environment by human population growth, resource use, and development have greatly altered conditions for many species, have driven many to extinction already, and are threatening countless more. The alteration and outright destruction of natural habitats, the hunting and harvesting of species, pollution, and the introduction of invasive species from one place to another have contributed to the threat to Earth's biodiversity.

50) Among many observations that can be made, the researchers will have to look at the ability of eastern and western birds to recognize one another, court, and mate. If mating does occur, they will have to observe whether or not any eggs are laid in the nest and whether any offspring hatch. They will have to determine whether the east-west matings produce more or less offspring than east-east and west-west matings. Finally, if offspring are produced and can in turn produce a second generation of hybrids, the researchers may conclude that these birds still function as a single species. If there are no viable hybrids or if the matings are blocked at an earlier stage, they may conclude that speciation has indeed taken place.

51) Exponential growth (a J-shaped curve) occurs when there are no limiting factors. This occurs when a population is small and environmental conditions are ideal for the organism in question. Mold on a piece of bread and bacteria colonizing a dead animal are examples. Logistic growth (S-shaped growth curve) rises exponentially at first and then begins to level off as the effects of limiting factors become stronger. A population introduced into a new environment where there are other organisms will experience limitations quickly, and these limitations will limit the population growth.

52) Humans can alter their own carrying capacity by finding resources and through technology, but other species have less flexibility in altering their carrying capacity. Humans often alter the carrying capacity for other species by altering climate, encroaching on habitat, reducing breeding areas and food resources, and/or altering trophic structure within an ecosystem through hunting.

53) Students might discuss the population's potential for exceeding the population's typical carrying capacity in a "good" year with mild weather and plentiful food. They might talk about the population dispersion (clumped). They might choose to look at the age distribution or draw an age-structure diagram, illustrating the large number of eggs and chicks and the rapid loss of young. Density-independent factors would include things such as weather and drought or floods. Some density-dependent factors might be disease, predators, available nesting sites, and the amount of food available.

15

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) Which of the following does the diagram illustrate?

A) Tundra and desert both share a hot climate.

B) Biomes are determined primarily by precipitation and temperature.

C) Boreal forests and tropical dry forest have similar climates.

D) Biodiversity does not vary with climate.

E) Deserts and tropical rainforests normally occur within a few meters of one another.

1

1)

2) According to this diagram, you should find ________.

A) deserts anywhere in the world where hot and dry conditions prevail B) tropical rainforest in most parts of Europe and North America C) deserts usually bordering tundra D) tropical rainforests usually bordering temperate grassland E) that vegetation is lushest in moderately dry areas

2)

3) Of the following, chaparral has a climate most similar to ________.

A) temperate rainforest B) boreal forest C) tundra D) savanna E) tropical dry forest

3)

4) If global climate change results in an area of temperate grassland receiving less rainfall and higher

4)

temperatures, it will ________.

A) gradually be replaced by savanna

B) rapidly be replaced by temperate deciduous forest C) begin to support more invasive exotic species D) begin to support more desert species E) have no effect on the biome 5) Temperate deciduous forests are characterized by ________.

A) cold temperatures and low amounts of precipitation B) moderate temperatures and moderate amounts of precipitation C) cold temperatures and wet condition (high precipitation) D) hot temperatures and wet conditions (high precipitation) E) hot temperatures and dry conditions (low precipitation)

5)

6) Zebra mussels ________.

A) are native to Canada B) are an invasive exotic species that clog pipes and cover boat propellers C) are presently restricted to the Great Lakes and Hudson River, but they are expected to

6)

spread rapidly in the near future D) were introduced into the United States in the early 1900s

E) excrete waste that facilitates algae blooms and subsequent eutrophication of lakes 7) ________ involves individuals of a single species fighting over access to a limiting resource.

A) Competitive exclusion B) Resource partitioning C) Intraspecific competition D) Interspecific competition E) Symbiosis

2

7)

8) Which of the following is an example of resource partitioning?

A) Two male ostriches share a harem of females.

B) Two species of rodents compete for the same seed resource, and one species causes the other

8)

to become extirpated (locally extinct).

C) Earthworms feed on organic material in soil, and then robins feed on the earthworms.

D) Deer and mountain lions feed on different kinds of food.

E) Two species of birds forage together, with one eating insects on tree trunks while the other eats insects in the outer branches.

9) Herbivory is actually a type of ________.

A) mutualism B) competition C) predation D) primary succession E) coevolution

9)

10) By definition, parasites ________ their host.

A) are much smaller than B) kill C) feed on and harm D) benefit E) live on the external surface of

10)

11) Which of the following is a pathogen?

A) alligator gars B) influenza virus C) arthritis D) mosquitoes E) cancer

11)

12) Microbes in our digestive tract that help us digest food demonstrate a ________ association.

A) parasitic B) symbiotic C) pathogenic D) homeopathic E) benthic

12)

3

13) Which of the following is an example of an ecological community?

A) all of the bears, wolves, elk, moose, aspen trees, lodgepole pine trees, and all other animals

13)

and plants in Yellowstone National Park, plus the geysers, hydrothermal vents, rocks, mountains, and other nonliving features in the park B) all of the bears, wolves, elk, moose, aspen trees, lodgepole pine trees, and all other animals and plants in Yellowstone National Park C) all of the wolves in Yellowstone National Park

D) all of the employees working at Yellowstone National Park E) all of the lodgepole pine trees in Yellowstone National Park 14) ________ capture solar energy and use photosynthesis to produce sugars.

A) Primary consumers B) Heterotrophs C) Secondary consumers D) Detritivores E) Producers

14)

15) Grazing animals such as deer are ________.

A) decomposers B) producers C) secondary consumers D) primary consumers E) detritivores

15)

16) Fish that eat zooplankton would be considered ________.

A) secondary consumers B) producers C) detritivores D) primary consumers E) herbivores

16)

17) Detritivores include ________.

A) algae and photosynthetic bacteria B) bacteria and fungi C) wolves, lions, and oak trees D) millipedes, soil insects, and many ants E) species that can break down cellulose, bone, and other durable biopolymers

17)

18) The energy content and biomass of ________ is lowest in any terrestrial food web.

A) detritivores B) top carnivores C) small carnivores such as spiders and lizards D) decomposers E) producers

18)

4

19) ________ are typical primary consumers in a temperate deciduous forest.

A) Snakes B) Bison C) Deer D) Wolves E) Shelf fungi

19)

20) Which of the following is true about top predators?

A) They are often keystone species.

B) They include bacteria and fungi.

C) They are likely to be producers.

D) They are likely to be herbivores.

E) Their removal increases biodiversity.

20)

21) Kelp ________.

A) suffers intense herbivory from zebra mussels B) suffers intense herbivory from sea urchins C) is an invasive exotic species D) is eaten by sea otters E) is pollinated by sea urchins

21)

22) A trophic cascade is the effect of ________ on ________.

A) detritivores; decomposers B) producers; first-level consumers C) top consumers; one another D) flooding; terrestrial ecosystems E) top consumers; lower trophic levels

22)

23) A community may undergo a regime shift or a phase shift if ________.

A) pollutants cause a rapid rise in mutations B) it loses a keystone species or suffers a major climatic change C) it suffers a natural fire or flood D) it has too many symbiotic relationships among species E) all invasive species are removed

23)

24) Secondary succession ________.

A) requires primary succession to precede it B) occurs after a fire or flood C) is predictable because it always ends in the formation of a climax community D) occurs after a volcano spreads lava across a landscape E) typically begins with lichen colonizing rock

24)

5

25) Which of the following are pioneer species?

A) beavers B) lichens C) wolves and mountain lions D) aspen trees E) zebra mussels

25)

26) A climax community always ________.

A) consists of a single population of organisms B) has the lowest biodiversity of all stages of succession C) contains as many pioneer species as later successional species D) remains in place until a disturbance restarts succession E) is typical of the first stages of secondary succession

26)

27) Ecologists researching Mount Saint Helens after the 1979 eruption determined that ________.

A) the red alder went extinct from the eruption B) many species in the blast zone survived the eruption C) plants in unseeded areas were growing better than plants in seeded areas D) the landscape has remained barren for almost 40 years E) nothing in the blast zone survived the eruption

27)

28) A restoration ecologist may do all of the following EXCEPT: A) place levees in sensitive areas to prevent seasonal flooding.

B) recreate a wetland in an area that had been drained for farming.

C) remove invasive European buckthorn from a Minnesota forest.

D) plant trees in an area that has been mined.

E) plant a prairie in an area that has been farmed.

28)

29) Which of the following is/are an abiotic factor?

A) temperature B) butterflies C) grasses D) oak trees E) snails

29)

30) The statement, "Hiking up a mountain in the southwestern United States is like walking from

30)

Mexico to Canada," is meant to demonstrate that ________ change(s) rapidly as you change altitude and latitude.

A) levels of industrial air pollutants

B) carbon dioxide levels C) human population density D) oxygen levels E) biomes

6

31) What terrestrial biome has the most biodiversity?

A) temperate rainforest B) boreal forest C) tropical rainforest D) temperate deciduous forest E) coral reefs

31)

32) Global climate change may cause shifts in biomes because ________.

A) biodiversity and day length will change B) food web dynamics will change C) mean temperature and precipitation for many areas will change D) many species may become extinct E) soil chemistry, pH of precipitation, and the frequency of invasive species will change

32)

33) What biome is depicted in this climate graph?

33)

A) tropical rainforest B) savanna C) temperate rainforest D) temperate grassland E) boreal forest 34) Desert and tundra both ________.

A) have relatively low precipitation B) have wide temperature variations from season to season C) lack shrubs D) lack insects E) lack keystone species

7

34)

35) Both taiga and tundra ________.

A) lack many birds B) are found in the southeastern United States C) lack trees D) have many burrowing rodents E) have comparatively low temperatures throughout the year

35)

36) What biome is highly seasonal, with mild, wet winters and warm, dry summers?

A) temperate rainforest B) grassland C) savanna D) boreal forest E) chaparral

36)

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

Human activities, including fossil fuel combustion, farming, and deforestation, are known to increase atmospheric levels of greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide. Measurable warming of Earth due to these gases can alter ecosystem dynamics. In addition to the direct climatic effects on organisms within biomes, warming can melt permafrost in the tundra and increase precipitation in arctic areas. Global warming also can increase sea surface temperatures, melting sea ice in the Arctic and increasing the intensity of hurricanes in temperate and tropical coastal areas.

Within communities, climatic change can shift interdependent species "out-of-sync," potentially causing indirect loss of species.

37) The relationship between caterpillars and flowering plants is best described as ________.

A) herbivory B) intraspecific competition C) mutualism D) parasitism E) interspecific competition

37)

38) The relationship between flowering plants and bees is best described as ________.

A) mutualism B) predation C) parasitism D) competition E) herbivory

38)

8

39) Global warming has been hypothesized to cause many plants to flower earlier. If bees and other

39)

pollinators begin the search for food earlier in response to this, this would represent ________ within the community.

A) coevolution

B) extirpation C) secondary succession D) climax E) primary succession 40) If the climate warms significantly, glaciers may melt, exposing underlying rock. This may lead to

40)

________ in the community.

A) facilitation

B) coevolution C) primary succession D) secondary succession E) climax 41) Which of the following might be first to populate an area after glaciers melt in response to global

41)

climate change?

A) grasses

B) lichens C) aspen trees D) shrubs E) hardwood trees 42) Intense hurricanes that may result from global warming can directly lead to ________ within

42)

impacted terrestrial communities.

A) primary succession

B) facilitation C) coevolution D) secondary succession E) climax 43) Some models of climate change for North America predict that the grassland regions of the prairie states will become warmer and drier. This would result in ________.

A) the need to develop varieties of agricultural crops that tolerate desert conditions

B) decreased damage from crop pests and diseases C) the need to plant temperate deciduous forest trees to shelter crops from the sun D) a shift from grassland toward chaparral and savanna E) less stress on groundwater and aquifers to irrigate crops in the area ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

44) Discuss the differences between intraspecific and interspecific competition.

9

43)

45) List the three major trophic categories in a food web. What types of organisms are found in each level? At what levels are the autotrophs and heterotrophs found? Discuss the significance of each level for the integral functioning of the food web.

46) Why do environmentalists favor the term food web as opposed to food chain?

47) Discuss the interrelationship between sea otters, sea urchins, and kelp in the Pacific Ocean.

48) Briefly describe what is meant by "pioneer species," and give examples.

49) What ecological traits do successful invasive species possess? How do these traits interact to make controlling them difficult?

50) Distinguish between an introduced species and an invasive species.

51) Give an example of how an invasive species can cause ecological or economic harm.

10

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED9

1) B 2) A 3) D 4) D 5) B 6) B 7) C 8) E 9) C 10) C 11) B 12) B 13) B 14) E 15) D 16) A 17) D 18) B 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) E 23) B 24) B 25) B 26) D 27) B 28) A 29) A 30) E 31) C 32) C 33) C 34) A 35) E 36) E 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) C 41) B 42) D

11

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED9

43) A 44) Intraspecific competition is the competition for limited resources by members of the same species. This is part of the

process of natural selection and determines which individuals are most fit and will survive to produce offspring under a given set of environmental conditions. Ultimately, this process benefits the species long-term, since unfit genetic combinations are weeded out of the population. Interspecific competition takes place between different species whose gene pools are closed to one another. This is the only ecological interaction considered to be (-/-), since all species involved have smaller populations and fewer resources than if they were not competing. The long-term result will be for the competing species to evolve different strategies for survival and different resource use patterns (resource partitioning), provided that one or more competitors is not extirpated by the stronger species.

45) The three major trophic categories are producer, consumer, and decomposers and detritivores. At the bottom level of food webs are producers, which include green plants and chemo- and photosynthetic bacteria. All organisms at this level are autotrophs. The higher levels in a food web contain consumers, including herbivores as primary consumers and carnivores as secondary, tertiary, quaternary (etc.) consumers. All organisms at these levels are heterotrophs. The final trophic category in a food web includes decomposers (bacteria and fungi) and detritivores (a wide variety of soil-based invertebrates such as millipedes, which scavenge the waste products or corpses of other community members at all trophic levels). Consumers, decomposers, and detritivores are all heterotrophs. Producers are important because they provide the energy and biomass for consumption of all other levels. The decomposers/detritivores' role is to aid in soil production and fertility, and they recycle nutrients to the producers.

The consumers are a very significant force in regulating populations of plants and prey animals. They also are important as pollinators and dispersers of plant species.

46) Ecological systems are far more complex than simple linear chains. Feeding relationships and energy flow among interacting organisms may take many paths within the community and involve hundreds or thousands of species. For instance, Figure 4.8 in the text illustrates how grasses are food for a variety of animals such as deer, mice, and rabbits.

Birds eat a variety of insects, spiders, and berries. Soil bacteria decompose a variety of dead plants and animals. It is through the analysis of food webs that ecologists can identify keystone species and study the components of phase shifts in damaged communities.

47) At one time, sea otters, sea urchins, and kelp lived as part of balanced ecosystem. The base of the food chain is kelp, a large rooted marine alga. Kelp is fed upon by sea urchins and the sea urchins are a favorite food of sea otters. When sea otters are present, they feed on sea urchins, keeping their numbers down and allowing luxuriant kelp forests to thrive. However, in the absence of sea otters, the sea urchin population explodes. Sea urchins eat kelp, so kelp beds are destroyed as the sea urchin population expands. This is devastating for the ecosystem because kelp is a habitat for many fish and invertebrates. Without kelp, the biodiversity and stability of the ecosystem is reduced significantly, and in fact, without kelp, it is more difficult for sea otters to live in an area because the otters cannot tether themselves to kelp to keep from drifting away. This story illustrates the interrelationship of organisms within ecosystems and establishes sea otters as a prime example of a keystone species.

48) Pioneer species are among the first to colonize a new substrate after a severe disturbance that creates the conditions for primary succession. Pioneer plant species usually have airborne dispersal mechanisms such as windblown seeds or spores or floating propagules for coastal ecosystems. Pioneer species such as lichens or mangroves begin the process of soil formation, paving the way for other vegetation and eventually animals to establish. Pioneer animal species would include flying or windborne insects and small birds.

49) Invasive species possess high fecundity, large dispersal ability, the tendency toward general habitat preference, and an absence of native biotic controls such as competitors, predators, and pathogens. Possessing these traits, they can be virtually impossible to eliminate. They are very adaptable to new environments and spread very rapidly once established.

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED9

50) Invasive species are a subset of introduced species. Non-native species are species that have been intentionally or

unintentionally brought into a new area by humans. If an introduced species causes or is likely to cause economic or environmental harm or harm to human health, it is considered to be invasive. Invasive species tend to be impossible to control and have clear negative consequences for the environment and human health (e.g., Norway rats spreading disease, zebra mussels clogging water pipes, Asian carp maiming motorboaters and waterskiers, Burmese pythons eating everything from frogs to alligators in the Everglades, etc.) Noninvasive introduced species include ornamental trees not native to an area but that provide environmental heterogeneity (which boosts biodiversity), shelter for wildlife, and something nice to look at. For example, Colorado blue spruce is not native to Iowa but makes for a more pleasant and diverse landscape than just rows of corn and soybeans.

51) Answers will vary. Student may choose one of any number of invasive species. Sample answer for zebra mussels: Lacking predators, parasites, and/or competitors in their new environment, invasive species can proliferate and dominate a community. Impacts of invasive species have become more extensive in recent years because of the increased mobility of humans and globalization. An example of an invasive species is the zebra mussel. As adults, zebra mussels can attach to boats and ships (they were carried to the Great Lakes on ships). In their new environment, they did not encounter the predators, competitors, and parasites that limited their population growth in Asia and Europe. Their population grew, and they spread to other areas. They clog up water intake pipes at factories, power plants, and municipal water supplies and wastewater treatment facilities. They damage boat engines, degrade docks, foul fishing gear, and sink buoys. It is estimated that they cost the U.S. economy hundreds of millions of dollars a year.

13

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) According to the figure, the basis for government policy regarding environmental issues

1)

________.

A) is primarily driven by lobbying

B) comes from both the public and the private sectors C) comes from the sciences, with additional input from the public and private sectors D) comes only from the natural and social sciences and is acted upon without bias E) comes primarily from the private sector 2) The distinction of scientific study's input into governmental solution of environmental problems is that it ________.

A) bypasses the private sector in making improvements to technology

B) bypasses the public sector in determining consumer choices and lifestyles C) is the product of both consumer advocacy and industrial goals D) is modified by consumer incentives, such as rebates and tax breaks E) is independent of any other influences in its effect on forming government policy

1

2)

3) Regarding the issue of global warming, until the hurricane season of 2005, the federal

3)

government's official stance was that the information available from the scientific community was neither conclusive nor persuasive. This governmental position was probably due to ________.

A) the private sector's reluctance to change manufacturing and land use strategies

B) lobbying efforts on the part of environmental organizations C) the consumer opinion polls D) the lack of good, measurable data from the scientific community E) laws passed by voters 4) In recent decades, a great deal of scientific research and observation has been funded and

4)

published by commercial and corporate interests. Since this science may not have to pass the peer review process and the researchers may have motives for biased reporting, such science could be included in the diagram as ________.

A) a box between "Information and analysis" and "Government"

B) a new means of establishing government environmental policies C) lobbying by the private sector D) a box above and pointing to the one titled "Science" E) lobbying by the public sector 5) Which of the following is the most accurate definition of economics?

A) the study of making money, goods, and services B) the study of tax laws, banking, and monetary policy C) the study of how humans use potentially scarce resources to meet demand D) the study of environmental systems and their monetary value E) the study of conversion of monetary units between nations

5)

6) The principle that "internal costs," which are the costs and benefits borne by the buyer and seller

6)

alone, represent the true and full economics of all transactions is a principle of ________.

A) steady-state economics

B) neoclassical economics C) ecological economics D) sustainable economies E) classical economics 7) External costs include ________.

A) wages B) raw materials C) worker's compensation and insurance D) utilities E) environmental damage

7)

2

8) Environmental damage from industry or land development has traditionally been labeled as

8)

________ by economists.

A) ecosystem services

B) free riders C) external costs D) greenwashing E) steady-state economics 9) "If domestic gas prices rise to $5 per gallon, growth will slow significantly and our quality of life

9)

will decline." This view is consistent with ________ economics.

A) anarchic

B) social C) subsistence D) environmental E) neoclassical 10) In neoclassical economics, the practice of "discounting" is used to ________.

A) encourage sustainable practices by making it more economically feasible to update sewage

10)

treatment plants and municipal landfills

B) price goods that are in low demand C) decrease the importance and value of future people and goods D) price goods that are in low supply E) dismiss viewpoints that run counter to the main tenets of neoclassical economics 11) A distinguishing feature of ecological economics is the concept of ________.

A) greenwashing to increase public acceptance of products B) the only healthy economy is one that is growing C) cost-benefit analysis D) environmental damage and also environmental benefits are external E) steady-state economies that neither grow nor shrink

11)

12) "If domestic gas prices rise to $5 per gallon, conservation will increase, alternative fuels will be

12)

developed, and energy efficiency and our quality of life will improve." This view is consistent with ________ economics.

A) social

B) environmental C) neoclassical D) subsistence E) anarchic

3

13) Which of the following is an ecosystem service?

A) erosion B) pollination of crop plants C) genetically modifying food D) creation of pollution E) global warming

13)

14) By evaluating hundreds of studies that estimated dollar values for major ecosystem services,

14)

Robert Costanza and his colleagues have shown that ________.

A) ecosystem services are valued at less than 0.5% of the U.S. GDP

B) NAFTA has had environmental benefits worth $2.7 billion in 2011 C) the value of ecosystem services is more than $125 trillion in 2017 dollars D) nutrient cycling is the least valuable of ecosystem services E) ecosystem services cannot be assigned monetary values because they are external 15) Gross domestic product (GDP) is ________.

A) the willingness of consumers to pay for ecosystem services B) the total monetary value of goods and services produced by a country C) a measure of conventional economic activity, with positive nonmonetary influences added

15)

and negative nonmonetary impacts subtracted D) all the resources necessary to produce ecosystem services

E) the cost of services minus the economic value of enhancements or degradation to the environment

16) Which of the following includes volunteer work and damage from pollution in its measure of a country's economic progress and prosperity?

A) GPI B) GAP C) GDP

D) GNP

16)

E) ATP

17) The GPI for the United States ________.

A) increases when resource consumption increases B) increases when resource extraction increases C) is far below that of the rest of the world D) has leveled off since 1975 E) has increased dramatically since 1975

17)

18) Environmental policy aims to ________.

A) use natural resources for economically important industrial products B) promote human welfare and protect natural systems by regulating resource use and

18)

reducing pollution C) preserve all present natural areas in their pristine condition

D) promote economic growth E) protect the values of landowners by regulating trade

4

19) Lobbying, legal action, and campaign funding are all means used by ________ to influence

19)

governmental environmental policies.

A) the scientific community

B) the legislative branch C) social science studies D) citizenry (public sector) E) the judicial branch of government 20) Which of the following best illustrates the tragedy of the commons?

A) A 10-year-old girl from your hometown dies of cancer.

B) A rogue wave capsizes a ferry on Lake Michigan, killing several dozen passengers.

C) A nonprofit organization does a winter clothing drive, and the first people to show up to get

20)

21) Enforcement and elaboration of U.S. legislation is given to ________.

A) the legislative branch B) watchdog groups C) oversight committees including private citizens D) administrative agencies E) the judicial branch

21)

22) The first national park in the world was ________.

A) Yosemite B) Yellowstone C) Death Valley D) Grand Canyon E) Glacier National Park

22)

23) Published in the 1960s, Rachel Carson's book Silent Spring ________.

A) awakened the American public to negative effects of artificial hormones B) warned of insect pollinator losses through pesticide use C) was concerned with birth defects in humans D) focused on chemical pollutants, including industrial chemicals E) was the beginning of the first wave of U.S. environmental policy

23)

winter clothing grab far more than they need, leaving nothing for the families that show up a few minutes later.

D) While landing at Midway Airport in Chicago, an airplane crashes through a barrier at the end of a runway and ends up plowing through a busy intersection, killing a young child in one of the vehicles.

E) A drought in Africa results in many deaths from starvation.

5

24) The social changes in the United States in the 20th century gave rise to environmental laws

24)

concerned primarily with ________.

A) management of private land

B) mining and homesteading C) preserving endangered species D) the settlement of the West E) reducing pollution caused by industry 25) What federal legislation passed in 1980 regulates the cleanup of hazardous waste sites?

A) NEPA B) Clean Water Act C) Toxic Substances Control Act D) CERCLA E) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

25)

26) The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) ________.

A) required environmental impact statements for any projects funded by the U.S. government B) was signed into law by Bill Clinton C) requires compensation to be given to anyone harmed by deliberate pollution from any

26)

business or corporate entity D) altered the amount of chemicals allowed in water as a result of industrial pollution

E) put all federal land under stringent environmental protection 27) An environmental impact statement is required ________.

A) only by executive order B) for any federal action that may affect U.S. environmental quality C) for implementation of any program funded by the World Bank D) to be put to voters on every local ballot if federal action may affect local environments E) before Congress can pass any law

27)

28) International environmental policies arise from ________.

A) environmental impact statements B) international conventions or treaties C) decisions by the United Nations Environment Programme D) informal agreements reached by multinational corporations E) distribution and use of pollution permits

28)

29) The primary role of the United Nations is to ________.

A) regulate international travel, emigration, and immigration among member states B) cooperate in solving international economic, social, cultural, and humanitarian problems C) make international laws regarding commerce and the environment D) maintain international environmental education standards E) develop international business cooperatives

29)

6

30) The World Bank ________.

A) mandates that environmental law preempt all other federal laws B) is a major source of funds for global economic development C) assists U.S. corporations to circumvent foreign nations' environmental laws D) is a U.S. NGO that funds any project that may affect the global environment E) regulates U.S. environmental administrative agencies

30)

31) The World Bank was established in 1944 to ________.

A) fund international projects for developed nations, including dams on international rivers,

31)

multicountry irrigation projects, and the spraying of herbicides and insecticides

B) fund economic development for all countries, rich and poor, including dams and irrigation in the poorest countries, for the poorest peoples C) provide ease of banking for multinational corporations

D) help weak governments by loaning money to heads of state for military infrastructure E) fund international environmental studies of issues such as pollution and global warming 32) The ________ promotes free trade by reducing obstacles to international commerce and enforcing

32)

fairness among nations in trading practices.

A) WTO

B) UN C) CITES D) World Bank E) CERCLA 33) Critics of the World Trade Organization ________.

A) complain that it frequently worsens environmental problems B) charge that the WTO's subsidy policies unfairly target poor people C) complain that it shapes environmental policy by establishing unfair international laws D) say that the international taxes that it regulates are burdensome to smaller countries E) charge that it gives too much money to environmental causes

33)

34) The entire environmental policy process ________.

A) is only accessible to wealthy individuals B) can only be completed by paid political lobbyists C) can only be completed by the major political parties D) includes more steps than the average citizen is able to accomplish alone E) can be accomplished by anyone acting alone

34)

7

35) To control pollution, industry has been given limits and been threatened with punishment if these

35)

limits are violated. This approach is called ________.

A) command and control

B) carrot and stick C) limit and manage D) end of the alley E) paddle to the bottom 36) Cap and trade is a system that ________.

A) has been repealed by Congress as useless in diminishing pollution B) rapidly brings pollution emissions to near zero for participating industries C) permits industries that pollute under the federal cap to sell credits to industries that pollute

36)

over the cap D) allows industries to set their own levels for pollution emission so trading can continue

E) specifies a certain cap on industrial pollutants that can be traded to other nations 37) ________ encourages more sustainable business practices.

A) The government providing all goods and services to citizens B) Greenwashing C) Increased economic growth D) Ecolabeling E) Abolishing permit trading

37)

38) You spend the night at a hotel and notice a sign in the bathroom asking you to place dirty towels

38)

on the floor and to hang up towels that you wish to reuse. By doing so, the hotel chain can help "save the planet" by conserving water and detergent. You recognize that the hotel chain would also save a lot of money by not having to launder so many towels, and you begin to wonder cynically whether the hotel isn't just practicing ________.

A) the externalizing of costs

B) environmental justice C) discounting D) ecolabeling E) greenwashing 39) ________ involves meeting the needs of the present without sacrificing the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

A) Ecological development

B) Sustainable subsistence C) Sustainable development D) Social justice E) Economic development

8

39)

40) Leaders striving for sustainable development aim to satisfy a triple bottom line, which involves

40)

what three goals?

A) racial equality, social equality, and political equality

B) economic development, making money, and depleting resources slowly C) economic advancement, environmental protection, and social equity D) making money, lowering taxes, and protecting the environment E) protecting animals, protecting ecosystems, and protecting the biosphere Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

Wetlands provide a multitude of ecological, economic, and social benefits. They provide habitat for many organisms and are nurseries for many saltwater and freshwater fishes and shellfish. Wetlands also hold and slowly release floodwater and snow melt, recharge groundwater, act as cleansing filters, recycle nutrients, and provide recreation. As of 2000, the contiguous United States was estimated to have about 105 million acres of wetlands remaining. Over the past 60 years, it has lost over 16 million acres of wetlands, and the loss continues at about 58,000 acres annually. Nearly one-third of the loss is due to urban development, with the rest being nearly equally divided between rural development, agriculture, and silviculture (predominantly logging). The southeastern United States is experiencing the greatest losses. The Emergency Wetlands Resources Act (EWRA) of 1986 requires the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service to conduct status and trend studies of the nation's wetlands and to report the results to Congress each decade. The overall goal is to have no more net loss of wetlands. EWRA also established Bayou Sauvage National Wildlife Refuge along Lake Pontchartrain in New Orleans, Louisiana.

41) In the United States, wetlands are primarily considered to be ________.

A) useful to develop for economic purposes B) important only for recreational purposes C) important because they provide many valuable ecosystem services D) useful for fisheries E) owned as private property, to be developed by the owner

41)

42) Wetlands in the United States ________.

A) have increased due to human development B) have decreased due to human development C) have stayed about the same over the past 40 years D) have decreased due to natural causes, such as floods and hurricanes E) have increased due to natural causes, such as floods and hurricanes

42)

43) The economic principles in play with the fate of U.S. wetlands have been governed by ________.

A) a centrally planned economy B) traditional neoclassical cost-benefit analysis, excluding environmental damage C) steady-state economics D) including the dollar value of wetlands' ecosystem services for flood control E) careful attention to the guidelines outlined by Robert Constanza and colleagues

43)

9

44) The creation of our national wildlife refuge system has been credited to what U.S. president?

A) Barack Obama B) Theodore Roosevelt C) Dwight Eisenhower D) Rutherford B. Hayes E) Richard Nixon

44)

45) According to the scenario, if the United States continues to lose wetlands at current rates, in

45)

approximately what year would the country run out of wetlands?

A) 4522 B) 2100 C) 2180 D) 2800

E) 3800

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

46) Discuss the differences between neoclassical, ecological, and environmental economics.

47) What is the main goal of environmental policy? Describe the tragedy of the commons and external costs, and explain why environmental policy would focus on these problems.

48) What is the significance of the National Environmental Policy Act? 49) What is an environmental impact statement (EIS)? What is the role of an EIS, and who is required to prepare it?

50) Discuss the three major eras of environmental law in the United States. What key events sparked each era and/or resulted from each one?

51) Political boundaries do not always match environmental boundaries. What does this mean for environmental protection in each country?

52) Briefly discuss the relationship between NAFTA and environmental protection.

53) List the economics-based approaches to environmental policy. How are these superior to the use of lawsuits for controlling pollution?

54) Differentiate between a green tax and marketable emission permits. Which is superior for U.S. markets, and why?

55) What is a subsidy? Describe the role of subsidies in natural resource management.

10

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED10

1) C 2) E 3) A 4) C 5) C 6) B 7) E 8) C 9) E 10) C 11) E 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) D 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) D 24) E 25) D 26) A 27) B 28) B 29) B 30) B 31) B 32) A 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) C 37) D 38) E 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) B

11

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED10

43) B 44) B 45) E 46) Neoclassical economics is based on the psychological factors affecting both consumer choices and seller strategies to

explain market prices for goods and services. Arising from this model is the "supply and demand" curve in which market stability is reached as a compromise between buyers wanting the cheapest price and sellers wanting the maximum profit. Decisions are often based on a "cost-benefit" analysis where expense outlays are measured against potential profits. Perhaps most important from an environmental point of view is the idea that the only relevant costs of a venture are internal, i.e., limited to the exchange of goods and services between individuals involved in the transaction. Anything else, such as environmental damage or ecosystem services, is considered external and irrelevant. A sign of health in neoclassical thinking is continuous economic growth.

Ecological economics holds that economies should mirror the principles governing natural systems, where there are no external costs. Everything must be included, since economic transactions are part of Earth's systems and depend on ecosystem services. Therefore, the principles of limiting factors and sustainability apply, and economics should pursue a steady-state, no-growth policy reflecting the availability of materials, energy, climate, and other factors that are linked to any transaction. Environmental economists take a slightly less radical stand than ecological economists.

They agree that there are no externalities and that unlimited growth is unsustainable. However, they seek to modify the neoclassical system by assigning dollar values to ecosystem services. This, they feel, adds the inescapable reality of environmental concerns to the traditional cost-benefit analysis. In addition, environmental economists seek to improve efficiency as an important goal for sustainability.

47) The goal of environmental policy is to protect the natural resources that people use while considering the values that people place on resources, and to promote equity in the use of resources. The tragedy of the commons is the idea that unless the land held in common is regulated, there will be overuse and degradation to the detriment of individuals and of society. Environmental policy is designed to limit degradation and overuse of all lands. External costs are impacts caused by market transactions that are borne by people not involved in the transaction. These impacts can be negative or positive. One role of environmental policy is to consider and deal with negative external costs in a fair manner.

48) NEPA created an agency called the Council on Environmental Quality and required that an environmental impact statement (EIS) be prepared for any major federal action. The EIS process forces government agencies, and any businesses that contract with them, to slow down and evaluate impacts on the environment before proceeding with a new dam, highway, or building project. It serves as a powerful disincentive for environmentally damaging work.

49) An environmental impact statement (EIS) is required (by NEPA) for any major federal action that might significantly affect environmental quality. It is a report from detailed studies that assess the potential environmental impacts resulting from a development project or other action undertaken or funded by the government. The EIS process forces government agencies and any businesses that contract with them to evaluate impacts on the environment before proceeding with a project. This generally does not halt such projects, but it can serve as an incentive to lessen the environmental damage.

50) The first major era addressed public land management, whereby western expansion was encouraged. It promoted settlement of the West and utilization of its resources. The end of this era saw the development of the national park system, aimed at preserving pieces of land for public use. The second major era sought to address the impacts of the first major era of environmental law and lasted through the beginning of the 20th century. Laws included declaring some areas off-limits to logging and hunting, creating wildlife refuges, and protecting forests. The third era was in response to the increasing effects of environmental pollution. Pollution policy was driven by new evidence, such as Carson's Silent Spring and the burning of the Cuyahoga River, which focused attention on the nearly nonexistent environmental standards in this country. Laws were passed regulating air and water quality and the types of pesticides that could be used.

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED10

51) Countries are often dependent upon each other to solve environmental problems because the pollution that is of

concern may originate in another country. In such cases, international cooperation is required to correct the problem.

The resolution can be exacerbated by the varying enforcement of, or even enactment of, environmental regulations in the countries involved.

52) NAFTA was set up to promote free trade among the United States, Canada, and Mexico. Yet, it is possible that if the environmental laws of any of the participating nations were viewed as a barrier to trade and development, they could be overturned. Also, there is the obvious fear that industries might relocate to whichever nations have the weakest environmental laws to increase their profit. The tri-national Commission on Environmental Cooperation (CEC) has made an exhaustive study to see if these fears are based in reality. Their findings in general have been that NAFTA has been environmentally neutral to slightly positive and that governmental regulating agencies should stay tuned to trade developments and look for ways to encourage win-win scenarios between free trade and environmental quality.

53) Economics-based approaches include green taxes and marketable emission permits. The most effective approaches offer financial incentives for "good" behavior rather than punishment for bad behavior. These are superior to the use of lawsuits because a lawsuit sets the legal precedent that if the pollution control is more expensive than the damage that the pollution causes, the pollution will be allowed to continue. These economic incentives therefore have a better chance of reducing pollution than do lawsuits.

54) A green tax is a tax on activities and products that cause undesirable environmental change. These costs are usually passed on to the consumer and do not have the desired effect on the targeted industry. Emission permits are issued to polluters, allowing holders to emit a fraction of the industry-set limit. If the holder releases less pollution than its permit total, then it can sell its remaining units to other polluters. The emission permits are a more effective way of controlling pollution because they give industries a direct financial incentive to reduce pollution per unit of a product made or item sold.

55) A subsidy is a government giveaway of publicly owned resources, or it can consist of cash or a tax break. It is intended to encourage certain activities while discouraging others. Subsidies can be used to promote sustainable activities, although more often, they have been used to prop up unsustainable ones. Subsidies for mining and coal industries and the money spent to build roads so that logging companies can harvest timber in our national forests are some examples.

13

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) Which of the following can be inferred from the age structure shown?

A) The population in Nigeria is aging rapidly.

B) The population in Nigeria has many more males than females.

C) The population in Nigeria is growing more rapidly than Canada.

D) The population in Canada is growing more rapidly than Nigeria.

E) There was a "baby boom" in Nigeria 30 years ago.

1)

2) What is the population in Canada likely to experience soon?

A) more single males B) government institution of a population control policy C) resource depletion and decreased quality of life D) more senior citizens E) exponential population growth

2)

3) According to the figure, Nigeria has a ________ population size than Canada, with a ________

3)

median age and a ________ proportion of the population at postreproductive age.

A) larger; lower; larger

B) smaller; higher; larger C) larger; higher; larger D) larger; lower; smaller E) smaller; lower; smaller

1

4) The age structure diagram of Canada suggests that its total fertility rate (TFR) is ________.

A) less than the replacement rate B) steadily rising C) over 5.0 D) less than zero E) zero

4)

5) ________ is the world's most populous nation, home to ________ of the people living on Earth.

A) The United States; one-fifth B) China; one-fifth C) China; half D) The United States; half E) India; one-third

5)

6) Which statement most accurately describes recent population control efforts in China?

A) There is minimal governmental financial support for birth control for all couples.

B) A One-Child Policy that is enforced through taxation and penalties has successfully

6)

7) There are approximately ________ people on Earth.

A) 1.5 billion B) 7.4 billion C) 6.7 billion D) 10 billion E) 15 million

7)

8) During which of the following periods did the world's population more than double?

A) 1900-1950 B) 1750-1800 C) 1800-1850 D) 1950-2000 E) 1850-1900

8)

controlled population growth.

C) Changing public attitudes about family size through communication, education, counseling, and contraceptives have reduced the population growth rates.

D) Increased child survival, elevated status and employment levels for women, and increased literacy in the general population have decreased fertility rates.

E) A One-Child Policy that requires all women to work and education for all have decreased fertility rates.

2

9) Which of the following best describes the human population from early times to the present?

A) slow, uneven growth until the 1800s, then increasingly rapid growth B) slow, steady growth throughout the period C) early rapid growth that has increased rapidly in the last 20 years D) rapid, explosive growth throughout the period E) early rapid growth that has leveled off to a nearly constant rate in the last 20 years

9)

10) A graph of world population growth over the past 500 years most closely resembles the letter

10)

________.

A) K

B) M

C) U

D) J

11) The world population growth rate is currently approximately ________%.

A) 20 B) 5 C) 10 D) 2.5

E) S 11) E) 1.2

12) If a population roughly doubles in the course of 50 years, its growth rate would be approximately ________%.

A) 20

B) 10

C) 1.5

D) 5

12)

E) 25

13) In 2016, the population of the United States was approximately 325 million people, with an annual

13)

14) In 2016, the population of the United States was approximately 325 million people, with an annual

14)

growth rate of approximately 0.7%. If the population of the United States were to continue to grow at this rate, it would double around the year ________.

A) 2096 B) 2116 C) 2136 D) 2086 E) 2066

growth rate of approximately 0.7%. If the population of the United States were to continue to grow at this rate, what would be the approximate population size of the United States in the year 2216?

A) 500 million

B) 1.3 billion C) 2.6 billion D) 975 million E) 650 million 15) Malthus was responsible for ________.

A) defining the concept of ecosystem services B) the idea that without social restrictions, increasing human population would lead to famine and war C) authoring the book The Population Bomb, which described the disastrous effects of human population growth D) the idea that population growth would lead to greater industry and prosperity

E) recognizing the demographic transition effect in developing nations

3

15)

16) The view held by both Malthus and Paul Ehrlich suggests that depletion of resource supplies due

16)

to greater numbers of people ________.

A) is not a problem because disease will limit population size

B) will result in exponential population growth C) will lead to natural selection of the most fit individuals D) is a problem because most resources are limited and can be depleted E) is not a problem because new resources can always be found to replace depleted ones 17) The most serious problem caused by population growth is ________.

A) increasing demand for resources B) crowding C) inefficient food transportation D) lack of farmland to meet food needs E) too few jobs

17)

18) IPAT stands for ________.

A) Industry, People, Attitude, and Teaching B) Industry, Population, Attitude, and Teaching C) Impact, Population, Attitude, and Technology D) Impact, People, Affluence, and Technology E) Impact, Population, Affluence, and Technology

18)

19) According to the IPAT model, technology that enhances our acquisition of minerals, fossil fuels,

19)

timber, and ocean fish ________.

A) increases sensitivity

B) increases environmental impact C) increases population D) decreases environmental impact E) decreases sensitivity 20) The "sensitivity factor" (S) that is often used in the IPAT (IPATS) model denotes ________.

A) the sensitivity of endangered species to human population infringement B) the sensitivity of an environment to human pressures C) human sensitivity to what needs to be done to protect the environment D) the sensitivity of governments to carrying capacity demands E) economic sensitivity to resource use

20)

21) The most accurate terms describing the trend over the past 50 years for human use of natural

21)

resources are ________.

A) rapidly increasing, moving from unsustainable to sustainable

B) decreasing and sustainable C) increasing and unsustainable D) steady state, no change E) from unsustainable to sustainable

4

22) All of the following are among the world's top five most populous nations EXCEPT: A) United States.

B) Japan.

C) Indonesia.

D) India.

E) Brazil.

22)

23) The United Nations predicts that the world population will be almost ________ billion in 2050.

A) 9 B) 7 C) 10 D) 5 E) 4

23)

24) Zero population growth occurs in a population when ________.

A) people have as many children as they can in the first 5 years of marriage B) the carrying capacity is larger than the ecological footprint C) birth rate equals death rate and there is no migration D) total fertility rate exceeds the average replacement rate E) the ecological footprints are larger than the carrying capacity

24)

25) Which of the following areas has the lowest total fertility rate (TFR)?

A) North America B) Latin America and the Caribbean C) Nigeria D) Western Europe E) Africa

25)

26) Which of the following countries has the highest population growth rate?

A) Nigeria B) Canada C) China D) Italy E) United States

26)

27) Nigeria's age-structure diagram ________.

A) reflects a "baby boom" in the early 1980s B) reflects a population with a high growth rate C) looks like an urn, with a narrow base and an expanded apex D) reflects unequal distribution of males and females at all age groups E) reflects an aging population

27)

5

28) Replacement fertility ________.

A) is equal to approximately 2.1 B) restores population size after a catastrophic event C) is a contraceptive technique D) is below 2 in Latin America and the Caribbean E) is below 2 in Africa

28)

29) The annual global growth rate of the human population peaked in the ________ and has been

29)

declining ever since.

A) 1960s

B) 1950s C) early 1900s D) 1990s E) year 2000 30) The term demographic transition refers to ________.

A) a requirement for a population to reach a specific size before it becomes stable B) the slowing down in the growth of a population as it approaches it biocapacity C) the decline in death rates followed by a decline in birth rates that occurred because

30)

sanitation levels in areas improved D) the slowing down in the growth of a population as it approaches the carrying capacity

E) the decline in death rates followed by decline in birth rates, occurring as a country economically develops

31) During the ________ stage of the demographic transition model, you would find high birth rates

31)

but declining death rates due to increased food production and improved medical care.

A) stabilization

B) transitional C) preindustrial D) revolutionary E) postindustrial 32) At what stage is the United States in the demographic transition model?

A) the preindustrial stage B) the postindustrial stage C) the industrial stage D) the transitional stage E) the stability transition stage

6

32)

33) The transitional stage in the demographic model is initiated by ________.

A) the increased use of contraceptives B) epidemics C) industrialization D) government intervention E) resource depletion

33)

34) In the demographic transition model, the highest population growth rate in a country is likely to

34)

occur during ________.

A) stage 1, the preindustrial stage

B) stage 2, the transitional stage C) stage 3, the industrial stage D) stage 4, the postindustrial stage E) stage 5, the stability transition stage 35) A population in the postindustrial stage would be expected to have ________.

A) lower birth rates but much higher death rates and environmental impact B) an age-distribution diagram that is pyramidal with a broad base C) birth and death rates at low stable levels D) increasing population size, birth rates, and death rates E) a sex ratio skewed in favor of females 36) The world population growth peaked at ________% in the 1960s.

A) 2.1 B) 4.8 C) 1.2 D) 5.7

35)

36) E) 100

37) The nations with the highest rate of contraceptive use (84%) are the United Kingdom and

37)

________.

A) China

B) Australia C) South Africa D) New Zealand E) United States 38) Recent research suggests that ________ has/have contributed to the large drop in fertility rates in Brazil over the past several decades.

A) laws preventing women from having more than one child

B) soap operas C) legalization of abortions D) exposure to environmental estrogens E) AIDS and malaria

7

38)

39) A country with ________ is not expected to grow quickly in the near future.

A) a female-to-male ratio of 1.2 to 1 B) growing industrialization C) high female employment and literacy D) a broad-based, pyramid-shaped age-structure diagram E) many developing regions

39)

40) Which of the following factors drives TFR down?

A) history and tradition B) poverty C) rural lifestyle D) high infant mortality E) social security

40)

41) In a country where there are increasingly more households, ________.

A) consumption should increase B) consumption should decrease C) birth rates should remain constant D) population growth rates should increase E) birth rates should increase

41)

42) Increasing levels of literacy among women are shown to ________.

A) have no effect on TFR or contraceptive use B) lower TFR C) decrease the use of contraception D) result in having children at a younger age E) raise TFR

42)

43) Declining population growth rates in poor countries can be partially attributed to ________.

A) reproducing beyond replacement fertility B) valuing the birth of a son C) the education of women D) economic disasters E) illness in infants

43)

8

44) Which of the following can be inferred from the figure?

A) For countries in which >50% of females attend secondary school, there is no relationship

44)

between TFR and the education of women.

B) Contraception is more readily available in Cambodia than in Ethiopia.

C) Females in Ethiopia do not go to school because they cannot take time off from having children.

D) TFR is lowest for those countries where all females attend high school.

E) There is no relationship between TFR and the education of women.

45) A population that is not growing will have a TFR of ________.

A) zero B) less than 1.0 C) 2.1 or lower D) 1.2 E) 5 or higher

45)

46) Most of the world population growth in the near future will be in ________.

A) North America B) developing countries C) currently uninhabited areas such as Antarctica D) developed countries E) Europe

46)

47) The richest one-fifth of the world's population possesses approximately ________ times the

47)

income of the poorest one-fifth, and the richest one-fifth uses over 85% of the world's resources.

A) 60 B) 40 C) 10 D) 80 E) 20

9

48) The global ecological footprint for humans is estimated to be ________.

A) twice what Earth can support B) less than what would be needed as an ecological reserve C) 50% greater than what Earth can support D) approximately half of what Earth can support E) roughly 5 times what Earth can support

48)

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

Population growth is at the root of many serious environmental problems. From the ancient Babylonians thousands of years ago, to Thomas Malthus two centuries ago, to present day neo-Malthusians, humans seem to possess an awareness of Earth's limitations in the face of growing populations. Today, our ability to accurately quantify and monitor population growth is very sophisticated. We can measure growth and make predictions about world growth with mathematical and computer models. Despite long-lasting, rapid global population growth that is only recently starting to show signs of slowing, we have thus far been able to avoid global catastrophe. Can we continue to avoid disaster?

49) Despite dire predictions in the past, humans still inhabit Earth. A few economists would argue

49)

that this is because ________.

A) technological developments have alleviated some of the strain on Earth's resources

B) world population growth has been slower than expected C) space exploration has revealed new frontiers D) Malthus's measurements were inaccurate E) Malthus overestimated Earth's environmental sensitivity 50) Because of the success of China's population control programs, ________.

A) China's population growth rate is much lower than it was in the 1970s B) there is a younger population in China today C) African nations have instituted similar programs D) environmental problems in China have been virtually eliminated E) European nations have instituted similar programs

50)

51) Which of the following will increase a population's growth rate?

A) increased urbanization B) increased immigration C) decreased immigration D) increased emigration E) increased industrialization

51)

52) Aside from contraception, human society and government policy can ________ to control

52)

population growth's negative effects on the environment.

A) discourage equal education, employment, and literacy for women

B) discourage emigration from Africa C) encourage consumption D) encourage emigration from Africa E) discourage population movement into sensitive environmental areas

10

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

53) Briefly describe the population control program that China instituted in the 1970s. Explain why it was instituted, how it was enforced, and why it was controversial.

54) Describe the unintended consequences of China's one-child policy.

55) Why do environmentalists such as Paul Ehrlich view unchecked population growth as a problem?

56) Explain human population growth in terms of carrying capacity. How does this differ from organisms that exist in natural ecosystems? Explain how population growth for human populations is a problem.

57) What three-factor model is used for representing the impact on environment? What is a fourth factor that could be added to this? Give a simple explanation for each factor and describe what it means in terms of human impacts on the environment.

58) How do poverty and affluence affect the environment?

59) What specific population characteristics do demographers study? Why is it important to study these things?

60) What is a demographic transition? What are its four stages? State why each stage is important and what the consequence is for population growth. Do all countries go through the demographic transition?

61) Briefly explain how the status of women affects population growth.

62) Define ecological footprint and differentiate between the ecological footprint of a developing country and that of the United States. Support or challenge the following statement: "The population problem does not lie entirely with the developing world."

63) What social and economic challenges are faced by rapidly growing populations and by aging populations?

11

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED11

1) C 2) D 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) B 7) B 8) D 9) A 10) D 11) E 12) C 13) B 14) B 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) E 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) C 25) D 26) A 27) B 28) A 29) A 30) E 31) B 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) E 41) A 42) B

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED11

43) C 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) C 49) A 50) A 51) B 52) E 53) In the 1970s, China's population swelled due to improved health and food production and distribution. At that time,

the average Chinese woman gave birth to 5.8 children. The burgeoning population and its industrial and agricultural development were eroding the nation's soils, depleting its water, leveling its forests, and polluting its air. The government instituted a population control program that precluded Chinese couples in urban areas from having more than one child. Rewards (e.g., better housing, schooling, and medical treatment) and punishments (e.g., fines, employment discrimination, and social scorn) were used to enforce the one-child limit. The "success" of the program was facilitated by China's communist government. It is unlikely that a similar policy instituted in a democratic society would have been met with as much acceptance and compliance. The policy is controversial to Westerners because it restricts personal freedoms.

54) Although China's one-child policy was successful in slowing China's population growth, the policy has resulted in a shrinking labor force, increasing numbers of old people, and too few women. Because Chinese women have been having fewer children, there are not enough workers to maintain China's growing economy and to support the older citizens who rely on government support. China cannot produce goods as cheaply as it once did and faces the risk of its industries relocating to countries with cheaper and more readily available labor. Because Chinese culture favors sons over daughters, selective abortion of female fetuses and the killing and abandonment of female infants became common practice once the policy went into effect. As a result of the skewed sex ratio, many young Chinese men cannot find brides and are forced to remain bachelors. China relaxed its one-child policy in 2015, but demographers believe that the move was too late to defuse the socioeconomic "time bomb," and in fact, most Chinese couples no longer want to have more than one child.

55) Environmentalists recognize that much of Earth's natural capital cannot be effectively replaced. Land area is one of these. We cannot expand Earth, increasing its surface area to accommodate an unlimited population. Overpopulation also leads to degradation of natural systems and loss of biodiversity. We cannot always devise a prosthesis for lost ecosystem services and cannot replicate the exact function of missing species in ecosystems. Lost species may perform vital ecosystem services, such as pollination, and also have educational, aesthetic, or medicinal value that is irreplaceable. While Ehrlich's predictions of the 1960s have not fully materialized in the 2000s, the fact remains that many ecosystem services are in a state of decline, and despite the view of some Cornucopian economists that we can safely ignore his warnings, the pressure of a growing population on essential resources and biodiversity remains unmistakable.

56) Organisms in ecosystems are limited by carrying capacity, which is the maximum population size that a given environment can sustain. Some believe that the idea of carrying capacity does not apply to the human world because humans are not passive with respect to their environment. Human beings can create resources to meet their needs.

Environmental scientists point out that many resources and ecosystem services are irreplaceable when depleted. The problem with unlimited human population growth is that higher population sizes will decrease the quality of life as resources, social systems, and the natural environment are stressed beyond their limits, especially since humans are so mobile and prefer certain types of environments such as proximity to water supplies and to coastal areas.

13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED11

57) The full equation is I = P + A + T.

The terms are as follows: I = total impact on the environment by a population of individuals; P = population, which represents the value for the size of the population; A = affluence, which represents the value for the relative standard of living or greater per capita resource consumption that accompanies greater wealth; T = technology, which represents changes in the availability of technology and can either increase or decrease impact, depending on whether the change makes resources more or less sustainable. The fourth factor that could be added is S, for sensitivity, to denote how sensitive a given environment is to these pressures.

58) Poverty sometimes results in environmental degradation. Because poor families need natural resources to survive, destructive farming techniques, deforestation, and hunting may become prevalent in poor areas. On the other hand, poor cultures may be regarded as more environmentally aware because they live closer to the land and are more appreciative of its fragility. They have a vested interest in sustainable resource use. Affluence may be associated with more environmental awareness because more affluent people are not preoccupied with meeting their basic needs.

However, affluence can be destructive. Developed nations presently consume massive and unprecedented levels of natural resources. Affluence encourages wastefulness and lack of concern for nature due to the desire to acquire more and more material possessions and the fact that wealthier people tend to live in urban areas.

59) They study population size, density, distribution, age structure, sex ratio, birth and death rates, and the immigration and emigration of humans. Data gathered by demographers help us understand how differences in population characteristics and related phenomena (for instance, decisions about reproduction) affect human communities and their environments. We can use demographic data to predict population dynamics and the potential environmental impacts of populations.

60) A demographic transition is a theoretical model of economic and cultural change proposed in the 1940s and 1950s to explain the declining death rates and birth rates that occurred in Western nations as they experienced industrialization. The first stage is a stable preindustrial stage of high birth and death rates. The second stage is a transitional stage characterized by declining death rates due to increased food production and improved medical care. Birth rates are still high, as citizens have not yet grown used to the new economic and social conditions, resulting in a surge in population growth. The third stage is the industrial stage. Widespread industrialization creates opportunities for employment outside the home. Children become less of a critical economic asset. Birth rates begin to fall. The last stage is a stable postindustrial stage of low birth and death rates.

Some countries do not go through the demographic transition. Transition may be different in developing countries as they industrialize or in countries that place greater value on childbirth or grant women fewer freedoms. Resources may also limit the ability to attain an equal standard of living in all countries. Also, it is now becoming increasingly clear that HIV/AIDS in Africa is causing many nations to move backward into what is nearly a preindustrial society and so do not follow the model for demographic transition.

61) Higher status of women in a society usually results in lower population growth. Increased female literacy is strongly associated with reduced birth rates in many nations. Studies show that educated women have better access to contraceptives, marry later, and have fewer children, keeping population growth low. In societies where females have little power, there are more unintended pregnancies and much higher TFRs. 62) An ecological footprint is the cumulative amount of land and water required to provide the raw materials that a person or population consumes and the disposal or recycling of waste that is produced. The ecological footprint of the average U.S. citizen is significantly larger than that of the average resident of a developing country and is clearly unsustainable. The population problem does not lie entirely with the developing world because the developed world's consumption is rising faster than its population (e.g., U.S. and China). A child born today in the United States has an ecological footprint 8 times higher than that of a child born in India and produces 10 times more carbon dioxide, so ultimately population growth in developed nations like the United States will have a larger negative impact on global ecosystems than will the same amount of population growth in developing nations like India.

14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED11

63) Growing populations face problems associated with depletion of resources such as fertile agricultural and grazing

land, clean water, and raw material and energy stores. Growing populations also face issues of dealing with increased pollution and waste. Aging populations face the challenges of caring for their elderly. Health care and social security programs may become stressed to the limit as there are fewer young workers to support those who are retired and reliant on government support. Economic growth may be compromised because of a lack of young workers, and there might be a weaker military. Upkeep of infrastructure such as schools and roads may become more challenging because of a decrease in tax revenue.

15

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) The figure illustrates that it requires roughly ________ times more feed input to produce 1 kg of eggs than 1 kg of milk.

A) 4 B) 50

C) 30

D) 40

1

E) 15

1)

2) Which of the following can be inferred from the figure?

A) Cows are a keystone species.

B) The same grain used to feed chickens and cows could be fed to many humans instead.

C) Grain is a renewable resource.

D) The production of beef and pork is resource-intensive.

E) We cannot survive without eating the foods pictured.

2)

3) Why do cows require a large quantity of feed, proportional to body size?

A) They take time to grow and have a low energy conversion efficiency.

B) They are genetically modified organisms.

C) They can feed more people than pigs.

D) They are the best source of high-quality protein.

E) They are raised on feedlots.

3)

4) Which of the following changes in your diet would decrease the size of your ecological footprint

4)

without causing health problems?

A) shifting your protein intake from beef and pork to eggs and dairy products

B) shifting your protein intake from eggs and dairy products to beef and pork C) shifting to beef exclusively because of the large amount of meat from a single cow D) eliminating all protein from your diet E) shifting your protein intake from adult cows and pigs to younger cows and pigs 5) For most Americans, factory farms and feedlots are their source for the foods shown in the figure.

5)

All of the following are negative impacts from factory farms and feedlots EXCEPT: A) overuse of antibiotics.

B) overgrazing.

C) water pollution.

D) the animals are fed grain, which is an energy-inefficient food source.

E) greenhouse gas emissions.

6) During the past half-century, global food production has ________ world population growth.

A) fallen to critical levels compared to B) surpassed by several orders of magnitude C) fallen behind D) stayed about even with E) grown at a faster rate than

6)

7) Globally, approximately how many people are undernourished?

A) 800 thousand B) 1 million C) 800 million D) 1 trillion E) 1 billion

7)

2

8) Which of the following is true?

A) World grain production has tripled since 1985.

B) Aquaculture has decreased significantly since 1985.

C) More than one in three adults in the United States is obese.

D) World hunger has increased significantly since 1970.

E) People are undernourished because they are not educated about proper nutrition.

8)

9) Until about 10,000 years ago, our species depended on ________.

A) cattle B) crops and cattle C) hunting and gathering D) hunting and herding E) crops

9)

10) Industrial agriculture ________.

A) was replaced by more modern farming practices during the Green Revolution B) has increased our ability to obtain more food from the same area C) has rapidly deteriorated soils, requiring continuous conversion of new areas to cropland D) has had no impact on society E) has permanently improved soils, providing more food from less space

10)

11) Monoculture ________.

A) describes diets low in protein, such as vegetarianism B) is an agricultural practice that uses no synthetic fertilizers or pesticides C) describes food that has not been genetically modified D) is the agricultural practice of growing large stands of a single species E) farming is illegal in most countries

11)

12) Monoculture farming ________.

A) is a development of industrial agriculture B) requires no artificial pesticides or fertilizers C) is always accompanied by no-till agriculture D) is typical of Native American farming techniques E) accounts for less than 1% of U.S. farmland

12)

13) Seed banks are important for ________.

A) providing farmers with the current year's genetically modified crops B) providing loans to developing countries to promote organic agriculture C) agricultural investments in developing countries D) protecting monoculture productivity E) protecting genetic diversity

13)

3

14) Roughly ________% of the food we consume comes from ________ crop species.

A) 90; 15 B) 90; 100 C) 50; 50 D) 50; 20

14) E) 10; 100

15) Green Revolution techniques ________.

A) focus on organic farming B) focus on sustainability C) focus on preserving biodiversity D) have increased crop yields but may not be sustainable E) have contributed to an increased diversity of foods in the human diet

15)

16) Normal Borlaug, who passed away in 2009, pioneered the development of ________.

A) high-yield wheat B) IPM C) organic agriculture D) monoculture farming E) GM crops

16)

17) Factors involved in soil formation include ________.

A) weathering of parent material and the addition of organic material B) erosion, level terrain, and the absence of rooted vegetation C) tropical climate, acid precipitation, and frequent wildfires D) nitrogen-fixing bacteria and grazing by herbivores E) seasonal changes in the tides

17)

18) The breakdown of large rocks into smaller pieces is ________.

A) unaffected by winds B) affected by rainfall, freezing, and thawing C) a major cause of topsoil erosion D) caused primarily by topsoil erosion E) called mineralization

18)

19) Humus is ________.

A) the organic soil component that holds soil moisture and enhances soil fertility B) one of the primary causes of desertification if it is present in excess C) the layer sometimes found in a soil horizon that is created by eluviation; it causes serious

19)

problems in agricultural fields

D) caused by agricultural runoff into waterways or into the water table E) an artificial fertilizer applied to monocultures

4

20) The O horizon is ________.

A) composed of equal amounts of bedrock and organic material B) primarily loam C) composed primarily of bedrock D) primarily composed of organic materials E) usually more sand than silt or clay

20)

21) Leaching ________.

A) is a common agricultural practice to improve soil B) adds nutrients to soil naturally C) removes water-soluble nutrients from topsoil D) can help plant growth only if done properly E) is caused by movement of water upward through soil from the water table

21)

22) Irrigation can result in the salinization of soils because ________.

A) salts in the water are deposited on the soil surface as water evaporates B) shortages of fresh water require the use of saltwater for irrigation C) many of the plants grown in these regions excrete salts into the soil D) irrigation is typically used in areas where windblown salts from sea spray can accumulate

22)

when the protective vegetation is removed

E) the irrigation water washes away soil leaving behind concentrated salts 23) Overirrigation can result in ________.

A) soil salinization and waterlogging B) higher numbers of agricultural pests C) leaching D) crop rotation E) erosion

23)

24) To make organic fertilizer by composting, you should not include ________.

A) animal manures B) crop residues C) shredded plastic and metals D) dead leaves, weeds E) wood chips

24)

25) The results of overapplying fertilizer can include ________.

A) large crop yields per acre B) very fertile soils in future years C) very large fruits and vegetables D) crops spreading rapidly into nearby areas E) eutrophication in nearby waterways

25)

5

26) ________ is the loss of more than 10% of soil productivity in arid areas due to such factors as

26)

erosion, soil compaction, overgrazing, and forest removal.

A) Climatization

B) Desertification C) Salinization D) Alkalinization E) Stratification 27) We lose 5 to 7 million hectares of productive cropland per year to ________.

A) soil conservation efforts B) recreational land use C) abandonment, feralization, and other factors D) soil degradation E) forest replanting and regeneration

27)

28) Terracing, contour farming, intercropping, and crop rotation all ________.

A) are techniques for conserving soil resources and fertility B) contribute to leaching C) contribute to erosion and desertification D) are prohibited in organic farming E) are aspects of IPM

28)

29) No-till farming would be most beneficial for farmers ________.

A) who plant a cash crop every third year B) whose cropland is in the Conservation Reserve Program C) using contour strip cropping D) with steeply sloped fields E) who typically experience minimal soil erosion

29)

30) The Conservation Reserve Program pays farmers to ________.

A) stop cultivating highly erodible land B) stop growing tobacco C) grow soybeans and other kinds of harvestable groundcover D) grow native crops such as corn and beans E) grow cattle feed instead of commercial crops

30)

31) Since 1960, pesticide use has increased ________ worldwide.

A) fourfold B) twofold C) threefold

6

31) D) sixfold

E) fivefold

32) In Queensland, Australia, cactus moths ________.

A) are raised as a food source by native Aborigines B) effectively cleared non-native prickly pear cactus from rangeland C) are an invasive species D) are examples of species that have developed resistance to pesticides E) are a keystone species

32)

33) Managing crop competitors and pests has been challenging to agronomists for centuries. One

33)

approach, integrated pest management, ________.

A) uses only natural pesticides

B) uses no pesticides of any kind C) combines synthetic chemical pesticides with biocontrol techniques D) combines a variety of pesticides to combat the pest E) uses only synthetic chemical pesticides 34) Which of the following best describes integrated pest management (IPM)?

A) continuous monoculture cropping and harvesting B) transgenic crops C) biocontrol measures, crop rotation, and habitat diversification D) major reliance on synthetic pesticides E) subsidies for pesticide use

34)

35) Insects serve what beneficial role(s) in agriculture?

A) harmful herbivores that need to be eliminated B) keystone species C) genetically modified species D) invasive species E) essential pollinators and predators

35)

36) All of the following factors are thought to contribute to colony collapse disorder EXCEPT: A) the use of Roundup to kill weeds.

B) parasites and pathogens.

C) loss of habitat such as prairie.

D) the use of insecticides.

E) abnormally harsh winters.

36)

37) The average consumer can reduce his or her ecological footprint the most by ________.

A) eating less meat and dairy products B) drinking bottled water that is high in mineral content C) eating mainly foods that are shipped in large, bulk shipments D) eating more meat and less grains E) eating more locally grown foods

37)

7

38) Raising which of the following requires the most land and water?

A) beef cattle B) goats C) chickens D) dairy cattle E) pigs 39) Of the following, ________ requires the least land to produce 1 kg of protein.

A) eggs B) milk C) beef D) chicken

38)

39) E) pork

40) It is more energetically efficient for us to eat more ________.

A) foods grown using IPM methods B) plant-based foods C) GM foods D) carnivorous animals like fish and alligator E) herbivorous animals like cattle and chicken

40)

41) All of the following are negative impacts of concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs)

41)

EXCEPT: A) the animals are fed grain, which is an energy-inefficient food source.

B) water pollution.

C) greenhouse gas emissions.

D) overgrazing.

E) overuse of antibiotics.

42) Aquaculture ________.

A) can bring economic benefits and food security to many developing regions B) frequently results in unintended catch of nontarget species C) produces less fish per unit area than ocean water harvesting D) has no real environmental disadvantages E) requires the flooding of fields to produce water-intensive crops such as cotton and rice

42)

43) Recombinant DNA ________.

A) is pollination of one plant by another of the same species B) is assembled in the lab from mononucleotides C) was part of the Green Revolution of the 1960s D) is cross-pollination of one plant by a different species E) is the merging of DNA from unrelated organisms to create new genetic varieties

43)

8

44) Place the following list of steps into the correct sequence for creating a genetically modified organism. a) The gene is transferred to the target organism. b) The bacteria containing the recombinant DNA are allowed to reproduce. c) The gene of interest is inserted into a plasmid. d) A plasmid is isolated from a strain of bacteria. e) The plasmid containing the recombinant DNA is inserted into bacteria. f) The gene of interest is isolated from the cell of an organism.

A) dfceba B) fdabce C) decfab D) fdcdab

44)

E) abcdfe

45) Bt crops ________.

A) have been given a bacterial gene that gives chemical protection against pests B) are widely grown in Europe C) have not yet been approved by the FDA D) include strawberries that are resistant to frost damage E) have seeds that will only germinate under laboratory conditions

45)

46) Your friend plants Roundup Ready seeds in her garden and several months later notices that her

46)

garden is overrun with weeds. She calls the seed company to complain. How should the customer service agent respond?

A) The customer service agent should point out that Roundup Ready crops are no longer legal and should advise your friend that any crops she is growing need to be destroyed and not eaten because they are contaminated.

B) The customer service agent should apologize, because the seeds were already treated with Roundup, which should have controlled the weeds.

C) The customer service agent should point out that the Roundup Ready plants would survive being sprayed with Roundup. Your friend never used Roundup on her garden, so the weeds overran her garden.

D) The customer service agent should put your friend on hold indefinitely.

E) The customer service agent should point out that the kind of weeds in her garden must already be resistant to the effects of the Roundup that was in the seeds.

47) ________ composes/compose just over half of all of the world's GM crops.

A) Tomatoes B) Soybeans C) Cotton D) Canola 48) Which of the following is true about GM crops?

A) They are unanimously favored by environmentalists.

B) Europe leads the world in land area dedicated to GM crops.

C) The United States leads the world in land area dedicated to GM crops.

D) Latin America leads the world in land area dedicated to GM crops.

E) They require artificial pollination methods.

9

47) E) Corn 48)

49) Organic farming ________.

A) has no state or national standards in the United States B) began in the 1960s C) and organically grown produce have not been supported by the European Union D) has increased in the United States, Canada, and Europe in recent years E) is presently limited to crops of fruits and vegetables

49)

50) The main obstacle for consumers to organic foods is ________.

A) availability B) safety C) fear D) price E) ignorance

50)

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

Despite the high cost of the technology to design genetically modified (GM) crops, American companies have invested in their development. The first genetically engineered crop was the Flavr Savr tomato, which was created by reversing the function of a normal tomato gene. It was approved by the FDA for sale in the United States in 1994. Its grower, the Calgene Corporation, maintained that it would ripen longer on the vine, taste and ship better, and last longer on supermarket shelves compared to conventional tomatoes. It is no longer marketed because of technical problems and public safety concerns.

Today, most engineered crops are modified for insect and herbicide resistance. In 1997, the Monsanto company first marketed GM corn. This Bt corn was engineered using genes from the Bacillus thuringiensis bacteria that made the corn resistant to some pests. In 1999, environmentalists were alarmed when it was reported that pollen from Bt corn could kill monarch butterfly larvae if corn pollen drifted onto milkweed plants that monarchs fed upon. Consumers feared the unknown and were concerned about potential food allergies. Presently, soybeans, corn, cotton, and canola dominate the GM food market. These crops are grown and distributed mostly in the United States, Argentina, Canada, Brazil, and China. They are used mostly for animal feed, clothing, or to make oil or other ingredients for processed food, which has helped them gain public acceptance. Although GM crops such as strawberries, potatoes, and lettuce have all been marketed in the United States, GM food field trials involving biotech fruits and vegetables have dropped significantly during the past several years, and the pace of new product introductions has fallen sharply. This narrow range of crops could mean that biotechnology may not realize its full potential in the future.

51) Which of the following was a positive environmental aspect of the Flavr Savr tomato?

A) It has a better taste.

B) It could be shipped further.

C) It is grown using less chemicals because it is less likely to rot.

D) It is available at a lower cost to the consumer.

E) It has a better appearance.

51)

52) The Flavr Savr tomato is no longer marketed because ________.

A) people were nervous about eating genetically modified tomatoes B) butterfly larvae that ate the tomato plants were poisoned C) they require too much water to grow D) genetically modified crops presently are not approved for sale in the United States E) Calgene failed to attain government approval to market it

52)

10

53) Why do soybeans, corn, cotton, and canola dominate the GM crop market?

A) They are inexpensive to produce.

B) They are the only GMO crops approved since the Flavr Savr tomato.

C) They are exempt from U.S. regulations.

D) These crops help to feed and clothe the poor.

E) They are ingredients in processed foods, so they are more easily accepted.

53)

54) Why have most bioengineered crops been modified for "resistance" traits?

A) Crops with these traits taste better.

B) These are the only traits proven safe for human health.

C) No technology exists to engineer other traits successfully.

D) These are the only traits proven safe for the environment.

E) These traits have the economic potential to save on production costs.

54)

55) If GM crops can decrease pesticide use, why are environmentalists still concerned about them?

A) Inserted genes can spread to nontarget species.

B) Trials involving biotech fruits and vegetables have increased dramatically in recent years.

C) There is no public opposition to GM crops.

D) The government funds most GM crop research.

E) The FDA does not regulate them.

55)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

56) Describe the goals and effects of industrial agriculture.

57) What was the Green Revolution, and what impact did it have on developing countries? Discuss the impact of the Green Revolution on the environment.

58) Define the term soil profile. What factors affect the development of a soil profile, and why do profiles differ?

59) Describe the American Dust Bowl and the lesson learned.

60) Discuss several practices used by farmers to protect their soils.

61) Describe and discuss the use of biological control for battling pests.

62) What are the dangers associated with pesticide use? How can biocontrol and use of crops with high genetic diversity decrease the amount of pesticides used?

63) Why is resistance of pest populations to pesticides likely to occur over time?

64) Explain the statement "The lower down in the food chain we eat, the greater percentage of solar energy we put to use, and the more people Earth can support" in terms of trophic levels and pyramids of energy.

11

65) Briefly discuss some disadvantages of aquaculture.

66) What are the arguments for and against genetically modified crops? Discuss the scientific, economic, and political issues.

67) Why is variety in crop plants important for "food security"? How is this threatened by GM food crops? What is the United States' position on GM products? How does this differ from the position of other countries?

68) What is the basic concept of sustainable agriculture?

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED12

1) A 2) D 3) A 4) A 5) B 6) E 7) C 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) A 13) E 14) A 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) A 23) A 24) C 25) E 26) B 27) D 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) E 36) E 37) A 38) A 39) D 40) B 41) D 42) A

13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED12

43) E 44) A 45) A 46) C 47) B 48) C 49) D 50) D 51) C 52) A 53) E 54) E 55) A 56) Through the use of large amounts of fossil fuels, mechanization of traditional farming techniques for growing and

transporting crops, and the development of synthetic fertilizers, herbicides, and insecticides, industrial agriculture has greatly expanded humakind's ability to produce food and keep pace with population growth. However, efficiency has dictated that crops be grown in monocultures, with huge amounts of land devoted to a single crop species. This has resulted in increased use of pesticides and chemical fertilizers, resulting in a host of negative environmental impacts. The "Green Revolution," which promised greater yields of staple crops, especially in developing nations, has indeed delivered as promised but has damaged soils in the process and, with heavy dependence on pesticides and fertilizers, has become increasingly expensive for poorer farmers to practice.

57) The need for higher quantity and better quality of food for the growing human population led in the mid- and late 20th century to the Green Revolution, wherein scientists in the developed world created methods and technology to increase crop output per unit area of existing cultivated land. In developing countries, this greatly increased agricultural production. The Green Revolution has enabled India to stop importing grain and to maintain extra grain reserves as a buffer against food shortages. However, the Green Revolution depends heavily upon chemical pesticides and fertilizers, which can be expensive and lead to pesticide resistance. Environmentally, in the short term, this was positive because it decreased the need for new areas for cultivation and reduced rates of deforestation.

Unfortunately, it also increased the use of water, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and fossil fuels, increasing pollution, salinization, desertification, and the chance of crops developing pesticide resistance and thus may not be sustainable in the long term.

58) The layers of soil found in a particular location are known as that area's soil profile. The process of soil formation can lead to characteristic aspects of soil structure. Once mechanical, chemical, and biological weathering have produced a layer of smaller particles between the parent material and atmosphere, wind and water begin to move and sort them.

Organisms migrate in and move soils as well. Eventually, distinct zones and patterns appear. Soil profiles differ from location to location due to variations in parent material, climate, and other factors. For example, dry areas with low productivity will not have much O and A horizons.

59) Homesteaders cultivated the native prairies of the Great Plains of the United States. In this area, prairie grasses had prevented erosion. Farmers removed the grass and planted wheat and raised cattle. This damaged the soil structure.

In the early 1930s, a drought exacerbated the ongoing impact of humans on soils and resulted in wind erosion of millions of tons of topsoil. Impacts of soil entrained in the atmosphere were detected as far away as New York, where black snow and rain fell. The lesson was that soil conservation had to be a priority to protect the ability to produce food in this country. With that goal in mind, the Soil Conservation Service was created.

14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED12

60) There are numerous practices used by farmers to protect their soils. Crop rotation can return nutrients to the soil and

can be used as an alternative to letting fields lie fallow, which exposes soils to erosion. Contour farming protects soils against erosion by shaping agricultural fields to minimize the possibility of water running down a hillside.

Intercropping is the planting of two types of vegetation in the same field, either overlapping the crops or planting them in alternating rows. It provides a more complete land cover by decreasing bare areas between rows. Shelterbelts provide windbreaks that slow ground wind speed across a field. No-till, or conservation, tillage decreases the plowing of soil and provides less exposure of soils to wind and water for erosion. The use of irrigation can prevent wind erosion, although used incorrectly it can cause water erosion and salinization. The final way to protect soils is by composting, returning vegetable wastes to cropland so that their fiber and minerals can promote humus development.

61) This strategy uses predators, pathogens, and parasitoids of crop pests, rather than chemicals, to control pest densities.

An organism that eats a crop pest is released into a crop; it kills the crop pest, decreasing the density of the crop pest without chemicals. The fact that many biocontrol agents are functioning parts of the ecosystem's food web greatly reduces the chances of pests becoming resistant to a predator or disease vector. It goes without saying that biological control of this type precludes using chemical sprays at the same time.

62) Pesticides are toxins that are general biocides that kill many nontarget useful species, such as pollinators and predators, and also can harm humans. Pesticide use has increased to lower crop loss due to pests and increase yield.

Increased use results in resistance developing in pest populations. When this occurs, the type of pesticide used has to be altered so that pests can be controlled. Increasing the toxicity of pesticides is often the solution. Biological control can decrease pest density by introducing enemies of the pests to the field. This decreases pest numbers without chemicals. Increasing the genetic diversity of the crop can also decrease pest numbers because pests may not be able to consume all genetic varieties in the crop. Different species also "host" predators of pests and balance nutrient use.

This will result in higher yields through healthier plants and reduction of pest populations.

63) A small fraction of large pest populations may have genes that confer some degree of immunity to a given pesticide.

If very few resistant pests survive, they may reproduce quickly and create a new population of genetically resistant pests because their population is no longer balanced by the susceptible individuals. The pesticide will not be effective against this new resistant pest population.

64) Meat is more levels from the sun in the food chain than plant material. Consuming meat decreases the amount of usable energy that is obtained directly from the sun because animals must first consume plants before they are eaten by humans. Every time energy moves from one trophic level to the next, as much as 90% of the useful energy present in the lower trophic level is lost. This occurs because the second law of energy states that entropy increases as one goes from one level to the next, and energy is lost as heat or light at each transfer. For this reason, people who rely heavily on meat as a source of food energy are less energy-efficient than people relying on fewer animal products or eating a vegetarian diet. The biomass pyramid reflects this, as each trophic level contains less biomass (energy) than the lower level.

65) Dense concentrations of farmed animals can increase the incidence of disease, which reduces food security, necessitates antibiotic treatment, and results in additional expense. Aquaculture can also produce high amounts of waste from the farmed organisms and from the large portion of feed that goes uneaten and decomposes in the water column. If farmed aquatic organisms escape where they are not native, they can cause unpredictable harm by spreading disease or outcompeting native organisms.

15

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED12

66) Proponents of GM crops stress continuity with the agricultural past, arguing that there is little reason to expect that

today's GM food is any less safe than the selectively bred food of the past. They also argue that conferring pest resistance to crops can decrease use of chemical pesticides. Critics point out that the new techniques differ from traditional breeding techniques because they mix species, create species in the lab, not the field, and deal with novel gene combinations not possible in nature. They worry about allergic reactions in people and the "spread" of inserted genes into the soil and other organisms in the ecosystem. There is also the question of maintaining the genetic diversity and integrity of the many varieties of indigenous crops such as corn. Many of these varieties have been cultivated for centuries by the indigenous farmers of Mexico and many other nations. Corn is wind pollinated, and patented GM corn has been forming transgenic hybrids with a variety of indigenous strains. Unfortunately, there is little to prevent many GM crops from spreading to non-GM crops in adjacent fields. Controversy has arisen as the corporate agribusiness developers of GM crops have been suing farmers for patent infringement because of this unintentional and often unrecognized contamination. The political debate involves labeling and an individual's right to know what is in the food they consume. Industry has a large financial stake in seeing the continued use of GM foods. Critics argue that we should adopt the precautionary principle with GM foods.

67) Varieties contain genes that, through conventional breeding, might confer resistance to disease, pests, inbreeding, and other pressures that challenge modern agriculture. Monocultures of industrial agriculture place all our eggs in one basket, so that any single catastrophe could potentially wipe out multiple crops. Wild relatives contain genetic diversity that may have ready-made solutions to unforeseen problems. The position of the United States is that GM foods are an acceptable food crop. Many nations refuse to purchase or accept food or seed crops that are GM. The European Union has been extremely outspoken against the use or trade of GM foods.

68) Sustainable agriculture is agriculture that does not deplete soils faster than they form and does not destroy the biodiversity of the area. Sustainable farming and ranching do not reduce the amount of healthy soil, clean water, genetic diversity of crop plants and animals. Maintaining as much ecological biodiversity as possible in the agro-ecosystem is essential to long-term crop and livestock production. After all, our concept of sustainability is based on the functioning of intact ecosystems, and agro-ecosystems are modified ecosystems which are governed by the same rules of stability and interdependence as their natural counterparts.

16

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) What two events led to the recovery of bald eagle numbers in the United States starting in the

1)

1970s?

A) The Sierra Club was founded, and the hunting of eagles was banned.

B) Both DDT and the hunting of eagles was banned in the United States.

C) The Environmental Protection Agency was created, and mercury was banned as an

insecticide ingredient in the United States.

D) The Endangered Species Act was passed, and DDT was banned in the United States.

E) The bald eagle was declared our national bird, and the hunting of eagles was banned.

2) There are currently approximately 15,000 pairs of bald eagles in the lower 48 states, which is a ________% increase over the number of pairs in 2006.

A) 33 B) 50 C) 133

D) 150

E) 200

3) During what period did the number of pairs of bald eagles increase by the greatest percentage?

A) 2000-2006 B) 1974-1981 C) 1986-1992 D) 1994-2000 E) 1992-1998

1

2)

3)

4) A large flock of endemic birds is discovered on a remote island. There appears to be two similar

4)

but different kinds of birds within the flock. Which of the following information is most important in deciding whether the two kinds of birds belong to a single species?

A) whether the matings between kinds produce viable offspring

B) whether both kinds mate with one another C) whether both kinds share many physical characteristics D) whether both kinds of birds eat the same range of food E) whether both kinds of males sing similar songs 5) The greatest species diversity is found in which of the following groups?

A) mammals B) fish C) flowering plants D) birds E) insects

5)

6) The greatest diversity is found in which of the following groups of organisms?

A) plants B) vertebrates C) invertebrates D) mammals E) birds

6)

7) Approximately half of all vertebrate species on Earth are ________.

A) amphibians B) mammals C) reptiles D) fishes E) birds

7)

8) Biodiversity enhances human food security because it ________.

A) reduces the number of pollinators available to any one plant species B) increases the number of available pathogens C) is a potential source of new foods or new varieties of existing foods D) decreases the number of predators E) creates genetic uniformity

8)

9) In his 2005 book, Last Child in the Woods, Richard Louv maintains that today's children ________.

A) have a better understanding of natural environments than their grandparents B) suffer psychologically and emotionally from "nature deficit syndrome" C) should not be exposed to the dangers of natural ecosystems D) should not participate in environmental education programs until high school E) develop more balanced emotions in urban compared to natural settings

9)

2

10) Removal of which of the following species will result in the greatest changes in an ecological

10)

system?

A) a keystone species

B) a competitive species C) a carnivore species D) a producer species E) a decomposer species 11) Ecotourism ________.

A) is a reasonable option only in impoverished countries B) increases biodiversity by providing income to areas that might otherwise be destroyed C) decreases biodiversity by selling souvenir organisms D) decreases biodiversity by causing increased speciation in environmentally sensitive areas E) increases biodiversity by introducing new, rare species

11)

12) A migratory bat species pollinates agave plants in northern Mexico on its way to the southwestern

12)

United States where it spends the summer eating insects and reproducing. Farmers spraying pesticides affect these bats, which eat the insects and also feed them to the baby bats. This could be the start of a story about ________.

A) an umbrella species

B) insect biodiversity C) sustainable agriculture D) threats to a keystone species E) an extirpation 13) The direct consequences of biodiversity loss include ________.

A) the loss of sources of medicines B) overharvesting C) increased human population growth D) health and social impacts E) global climate change

13)

14) Ecotourism ________.

A) maintains biodiversity by providing income to areas that might otherwise be destroyed B) increases biodiversity by introducing new, rare species C) decreases biodiversity by causing increased speciation in environmentally sensitive areas D) decreases biodiversity by selling souvenir organisms E) is a reasonable option only in impoverished countries

14)

3

15) Animals that are harmed by human modification of the environment tend to have all of the

15)

following characteristics EXCEPT: A) being a habitat specialist.

B) being large.

C) being a dietary generalist.

D) being high on the food chain.

E) having a small geographic range.

16) The loss of a particular population from a given area (but not the entire species globally) is called

16)

________.

A) evolution

B) adaptation C) emigration D) extirpation E) extinction 17) Paleontologists estimate that ________.

A) more than 99% of all species alive today have been discovered and described B) extinction is tied exclusively to human activities C) 99% of all species that have ever existed are now extinct D) more species are alive today than ever before E) biodiversity is evenly spread over the earth's biomes

17)

18) Changes in habitat have tremendous effects on the organisms that depend on them. These effects

18)

are ________.

A) generally negative; the changes usually cause rapid extinction of most species

B) generally positive; organisms are already adapted to the habitats in which they occur and any change is likely to render the habitat more suitable

C) generally neutral; the variations within each species allow them to adapt very quickly D) generally positive; the changes increase the habitat that is available for species to colonize E) generally negative; organisms are already adapted to the habitats in which they occur and any change is likely to render the habitat less suitable

19) We can lessen the loss of aesthetic and spiritual ties with nature if we ________.

A) do nothing to slow global climate change B) increase the rate of harvesting economically important species C) increase per capita consumption D) accelerate globalization E) decrease the rate of habitat alteration and destruction

4

19)

20) More greenhouse gas emissions will indirectly lead to ________.

A) overharvesting B) an increase in invasive species C) human population growth D) loss of ecosystem services E) globalization

20)

21) The causes of the current (sixth) mass extinction include all of the following EXCEPT: A) invasive exotic species.

B) earthquakes, tsunamis, and forest fires.

C) pollution from pesticides, eutrophication, and other causes.

D) global climate change.

E) habitat alteration and destruction.

21)

22) The IUCN's Red List is ________.

A) an identification list of known species B) a list of ecologically damaged ecosystems C) an updated list of species facing unusually high risk of extinction D) a scorecard of international failures at conservation E) a list of unidentified species

22)

23) The greatest cause of the worldwide loss of species is ________.

A) air pollution B) decreased soil nutrients C) habitat destruction D) water pollution E) anthropogenic activities

23)

24) Wildlife in the Serengeti is currently threatened by ________.

A) pollution from a nearby coal power plant B) an invasive fish that has been introduced into the major river that flows through the park C) an overabundance of elephants D) plans to build a highway that passes through the park E) plans to legalize hunting of most of the large animal species in the park

24)

5

25) The wood thrush makes its nest in woodlands in the northern and eastern United States. As

25)

patches of woods become smaller, increasing numbers of wood thrush nests have eggs laid in them by the brown-headed cowbird. Cowbirds live in open fields and are nest parasites; the female cowbird flies up to an unattended nest, quickly lays an egg in it, and leaves the host parents to raise their "adopted" young. Wood thrushes are decreasing in numbers because ________.

A) cowbirds are an invasive species that is rapidly increasing

B) pollution of the open fields has caused a change in cowbird behavior C) climate change is reducing nest site availability D) habitat fragmentation makes it easier for cowbird parasitism to occur E) overharvesting in the open fields has driven the cowbirds into the woodlands 26) The country of Belize depends on lobster for a major portion of its income, along with fishing and

26)

tourism. Over the past 30 years, the average size of an individual lobster has dropped, even as increasing numbers of Belizeans buy boats, build lobster traps, and enter the industry. This is an example of ________.

A) the effects of pollution

B) the results of an invasive species C) habitat alteration D) overharvesting E) the problems with monoculture 27) The type of species that is generally most vulnerable to human impact is the ________.

A) producer B) primary consumer C) competitive species D) decomposer E) top predator

27)

28) In general, successfully introduced nonnative species experience ________.

A) increases in limiting factors B) increased competition from other organisms C) decreased biotic potential D) increased environmental resistance E) competitive success against native species

28)

29) The introduction of ________ onto the island of Guam has resulted in the extinction of most of the

29)

endemic forest bird species on the island.

A) brown tree snakes

B) Nile perch C) European starlings D) kudzu E) cane toads

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30) Bullfrog tadpoles are often sold as fish bait, even in areas where they do not occur naturally.

30)

When people buy 10 of them and don't use them all, they often dump the remainder into the lake or river. This is an example of ________.

A) habitat destruction

B) an introduced species C) overharvesting of species from the wild D) extirpation E) inbreeding 31) European rabbits were introduced into Australia and quickly spread, reproduced, and became a

31)

terrible pest. They eat up to $600 million worth of food and pasture crops annually and have damaged the populations of many native plants and the populations of animals that eat the plants. Twice in the past 50 years, rabbit diseases have been introduced to try to control the population, with some success. This is a case where ________.

A) an invasive species has reduced the genetic diversity of native species

B) an invasive species has caused overharvesting C) an extirpation has occurred D) habitat alteration resulted in decreased biodiversity E) climate change has decreased the genetic diversity of native species 32) What is the greatest contributing factor in the loss of polar bears in arctic areas?

A) fires in the taiga and tundra B) the decline of lemmings; the primary food of the polar bear C) the tundra shifting northward D) hunting of the polar bear by the Inuit people E) decline in sea ice

32)

33) A species of lizard has gone extinct. This could be due to any of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) climate change.

B) introduction of a species that competed for food resources.

C) habitat destruction by humans.

D) inbreeding.

E) increased genetic diversity within the species.

33)

34) Of the following, only ________ can change global species diversity.

A) taxonomists B) migration C) extirpation D) extinction E) extirpation and extinction

34)

7

35) The field of conservation biology ________.

A) tries to conserve every species, everywhere B) attempts to integrate an understanding of evolution, ecology, and extinction C) tries to increase speciation events in order to increase biodiversity D) was initially viewed as too measurement-oriented, looking at details and not at the big

35)

picture

E) developed in response to government intervention 36) Contrary to popular belief, the Endangered Species Act allows ________.

A) landowners to kill endangered species for food if necessary B) landowners to harm a protected species in one area if they improve habitat for it elsewhere C) habitats of protected species to be developed or logged as long as no individuals of the

36)

37) Which of the following activities would violate CITES? A) Your friend transports firewood infested with emerald ash borer from Minneapolis to the

37)

species are killed D) endangered species to be hunted as long as records are kept of numbers and sex of individuals taken E) international trade in protected species to aid in times of economic hardship

Black Hills of South Dakota, inadvertently introducing the pest to Rapid City, where it destroys all of the ash trees in the city within a decade.

B) Your friend brings back an ivory chess set that he bought while on safari in Lesotho.

C) Your friend catches a small-mouth bass that is technically not large enough to keep, but he

keeps it and cooks it for dinner instead of releasing it.

D) Your friend shoots a bald eagle that seems to be eying the calf he has been raising for his 4-H project.

E) Your friend breaks into a California condor breeding facility and releases all of the condors being raised there because he feels sorry for them.

38) Currently, the Endangered Species Act of 1973 is ________.

A) protecting only 1300 species out of an original 3000 B) being harshly criticized by the scientific community C) being weakened in funding and enforcement D) generally supported by the public but is criticized as putting wildlife before people E) being repealed by the U.S. Congress

38)

39) The Convention on Biological Diversity has goals that ________.

A) include a set of international laws B) ensure the distribution of biodiversity's benefits to wealthy countries who can pay for them C) are designed to reduce biodiversity D) spell out future management plans for all biomes E) include using biodiversity in a sustainable manner

39)

8

40) One of the ongoing problems for wild California condors is ________.

A) that they readily succumb to sylvatic plague, which can ravage an entire colony of condors

40)

in a matter of weeks

B) that the federal government refuses to list the condor as being endangered because doing so

would have a negative impact on the oil and gas industry C) that lead shot is still used for hunting, and the lead can build up in a condor's system because condors eat dead animals that have been shot D) that there are so few of them that they cannot find mates

E) that people continue to hunt condors for sport, despite the bird's being listed as federally endangered and despite the educational campaigns that teach young people the value of having condors in an ecosystem

41) Endemic species are ________.

A) limited to just one location, such as an island B) widely distributed, found especially on large continents C) usually the dominant species within an ecosystem D) well established and show the least risk of extinction E) on the brink of extinction

41)

42) What do researchers hope to accomplish by performing genetic analyses on confiscated ivory?

A) They hope to determine how long ago each animal was killed for its ivory.

B) They hope to determine where the elephants were poached.

C) They hope to learn more about the extent of inbreeding of elephants in different areas of

42)

Africa.

D) They hope to determine whether possession of the ivory violated international treaties.

E) They hope to determine whether the ivory came from elephants or from seals.

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

Many biologists and environmental educators are interested in maintaining biodiversity in urban landscapes, where preserves or reserves are scarce unless land has been set aside for them in urban planning. Nonetheless, they have discovered that making even small changes in commercial and residential landscaping can help promote biodiversity. Some of the changes that have been recommended include using native species for street trees and for decorative landscaping, reducing pesticide use on lawns and gardens, and reducing fertilizer use through composting and mulching. Also, schools, businesses, and residents are encouraged to increase habitat diversity by creating "landscape islands" that include larger trees surrounded by shrubs and herbaceous plants. Landscape islands ideally should include native species, mixed with exotic ornamentals at the discretion of the landowners.

43) Being interested in native butterflies, you include the native caterpillar host plants of several

butterflies in your annual landscape design. You are happy to see that caterpillars and butterflies appear in your yard. However, the butterflies tend to disperse out of our yard. Which of the following could you do to keep the butterflies in your garden?

A) ask the neighbors to refrain from planting "butterfly plants" in their yards

B) introduce native flowering plants the adult butterflies need for nectar, their main food C) try to introduce predators of the butterflies D) use pesticides to kill off predators E) place pans of honey solution around your yard to feed the butterflies

9

43)

44) In addition to the butterfly project, you decide to stop spraying the pesticides that control lawn

44)

pests. Over the next year, you notice that the lawn grass doesn't grow as well, and many other species of plants invade the lawn, many of them native species. The disuse of pesticides would likely result in all of the following EXCEPT: A) competition between the lawn grass and the new species that colonize the area.

B) an increase in herbivorous insects and the small predators that eat them.

C) lower survival rates for the caterpillars and butterflies.

D) an increase in pollinating insects visiting your lawn and gardens.

E) an increase in bird species in your yard.

45) The butterflies you established in your yard are now thriving, but you notice that some of the

45)

caterpillars are suffering from predators and parasites. After some study and consultation, you would most logically decide to ________.

A) give up on the butterfly species you encouraged and try to attract new species

B) spray pesticides on the plants to control the predators C) resume spraying pesticides on the lawn D) catch and kill the predators and parasites by hand E) plant more host plants in several different areas but otherwise do nothing 46) You also decide to greatly reduce the amount of chemical fertilizers you use in your landscape

46)

and rely more on mulching and composting. This will benefit your yard "ecosystem" by ________.

A) decreasing the plant biodiversity of the yard

B) making habitats for pollinators C) decreasing the number of predatory animals and insects D) increasing the populations of butterflies E) reducing nutrient pollution in nearby areas and increasing soil organisms' biodiversity ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

47) What is the value to a species of having genetic diversity?

48) Provide several reasons why our estimates of species numbers are incomplete.

49) What is the value to humankind of biodiversity in the organisms with which we share our planet?

50) What are the major causes of the sixth mass extinction event, and why is it of particular concern?

51) Is extinction natural? How has the extinction rate changed over time? Why are extinction rates today different from past extinction rates?

52) What is the Endangered Species Act? Describe one of its successes and explain some of the current controversies surrounding it.

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED13

1) D 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) E 6) C 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) B 12) D 13) A 14) A 15) C 16) D 17) C 18) E 19) E 20) D 21) B 22) C 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) D 27) E 28) E 29) A 30) B 31) A 32) E 33) E 34) D 35) B 36) B 37) B 38) D 39) E 40) C 41) A 42) B

11

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED13

43) B 44) C 45) E 46) E 47) Species with more genetic diversity have better chances of surviving, because their built-in variation better enables

them to cope with environmental change. According to the principles of evolutionary biology, species with little genetic diversity are vulnerable to environmental change for which they are not genetically prepared. Species with depressed genetic diversity may also be more vulnerable to disease and may suffer the effects of inbreeding, which occurs when parents that are too genetically similar mate and produce weak or defective offspring. Genetic diversity in our crop plants is important for protection of our food sources.

48) One reason is that some areas of Earth remain mostly unexplored, such as the ocean depths, hydrothermal vents, and the tree canopies and soils of tropical forests. Another reason is that many species are tiny and easily overlooked; these inconspicuous organisms include species of bacteria, nematodes (roundworms), fungi, protists, and soil-dwelling arthropods. In addition, many organisms are so difficult to identify that a population thought to be a single species turns out to be two or more species on close investigation. The opposite could also be true, where two populations considered as separate species are, on close investigation, actually the same species.

49) Biodiversity provides valuable ecosystem services (e.g., pollination, new food choices, continued soil fertility and pest control for agriculture free of charge). Biodiversity provides a wide variety traditional medicines and high-tech pharmaceutical products. Biodiversity provides economic benefits through tourism and recreation. Perhaps most importantly, as E.O. Wilson and Richard Louv have insisted, people need, value, and seek out connections with nature, which offer such intangible services as creative inspiration, self-growth, the experiences of beauty, and peace of mind.

50) The most potent cause of sixth mass extinction event is human alteration and destruction of landscapes. In addition, the introduction of invasive exotic species is contributing to many extinctions and local extirpations of native species.

Pollution from pesticides, acidity and eutrophication is causing biodiversity loss in both fresh water and marine habitats. Overharvesting, poaching, and overhunting of commercially important species is causing their populations to decline to the point where many are at risk. All of these factors are worsened by the rapid growth of the human population, which directly and indirectly places stress on all natural ecosystems. Loss of biodiversity is of particular concern because the current global extinction rate is 1000 times greater than it would have been without human destruction of habitat.

51) Students should discuss some of the following. Extinction is a natural process. Extinction rates have risen higher than the background extinction rate during several mass extinction events during Earth's history. In the past 440 million years, there have been five major episodes of mass extinction. If current trends continue, the modern era may see the extinction of more than half of all species. While similar in scale to previous mass extinctions, today's ongoing mass extinction is different in two respects. First, humans are causing it. Second, humans will suffer as a result.

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED13

52) The Endangered Species Act is the primary legislation for protecting biodiversity in the United States. It forbids the

government and private citizens from taking actions (such as developing land) that would destroy endangered species or their habitats and also forbids trade in products made from endangered species. The aim is to prevent extinctions, stabilize declining populations, and, when possible, to enable populations to recover to the point where they no longer need protection.

The ESA has had a number of notable successes; students might mention any of the following. After the banning of DDT and years of management programs, birds such as the peregrine falcon, brown pelican, and bald eagle have recovered and been taken off the endangered list. Intensive management efforts with other species such as the red-cockaded woodpecker have held formerly declining populations steady in the face of continued habitat degradation. Roughly 40% of declining populations have been held stable. While most Americans support endangered species protection, some have opposed provisions of the ESA. Some of the resentment results from the perception that the ESA is focused only on single species and values the life of an endangered species over the life or livelihood of a person. Most of the concern over the ESA, however, is basically economic and has stemmed from worries of landowners that federal officials will restrict the use of private land if threatened or endangered species are found on it.

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Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) This figure shows population growth over time for a harvestable resource. The point on the curve

1)

at the top right of the graph indicates the ________.

A) point of maximum sustainable yield

B) point of fastest growth C) stable population size when selective harvesting is occurring D) population size where births in the population exactly offset deaths E) extinction point 2) This figure shows population growth over time for a harvestable resource. Most forest resource managers aim to maintain resource populations ________ of the pictured curve.

A) to the right

B) to the left C) at the bottom D) at the top E) in the middle

1

2)

3) This figure shows population growth over time for a harvestable resource. Forest resource managers generally aim to maintain a resource population at the level where it ________.

A) delivers the maximum sustainable timber yield

B) represents the point just before dieback of the population C) best protects predators D) best protects habitat E) represents the carrying capacity

2

3)

4) This figure shows population growth over time for a harvestable resource. Which of the following graphs depicts the population growth rate for this population?

A) Figure A

B) Figure B

C) Figure C

3

D) Figure D

E) Figure E

4)

5) This figure shows population growth over time for a harvestable resource. At what two

5)

population sizes would this population be experiencing the same population growth rate?

A) at carrying capacity and 1/2 of the carrying capacity

B) Growth rate is unique to a single population size, so there are no two population sizes that would experience the same growth rate.

C) at carrying capacity and twice the carrying capacity D) at 1/2 and twice the carrying capacity E) at 1/4 and 3/4 of the carrying capacity 6) Most of the world's forests are ________.

A) temperate rainforest and mangrove forest B) tropical dry forest and montane forest C) savanna and pine barrens D) boreal forest and rainforest E) temperate deciduous forest and chaparral

6)

7) About ________% of Earth's land area is currently covered by forest.

A) 50 B) 30 C) 40 D) Less than 5 E) 5-10

7)

8) Which of the following is a consequence of clearing forests for agriculture purposes?

A) Biodiversity increases because of habitat diversification.

B) Water runoff decreases because crops will take up more of the moisture.

C) Soil erosion increases because the tree roots and other vegetation that stabilize the soil have

8)

been removed.

D) CO2 levels in the atmosphere drop to dangerously low levels.

E) The soil becomes richer and retains moisture better because there are few trees to take up the water and soil nutrients.

9) The U.N. FAO's Global Forest Resources Assessment of 2015 concluded that ________.

A) there will be no forest ecosystems left by 2040 B) to protect forest biodiversity, forested public lands should be closed to recreation C) deforestation is now in equilibrium with new planting D) all nationally owned forests should be managed by clear-cutting E) deforestation has slowed but we are still losing forests at a rapid rate

4

9)

10) Most commercial logging today takes place in ________.

A) Europe and Canada B) Canada, Russia, Indonesia, and Brazil C) Australia, New Zealand, China, and Greenland (Denmark) D) the United States, Lesotho, Australia, and China E) Mexico, Belize, Costa Rica, and Nicaragua

10)

11) In the United States, most logging takes place in ________.

A) conifer forests in the west and pine plantations in the south B) the northern Midwest C) Pennsylvania and New York D) national parks E) New England

11)

12) Second-growth forests ________.

A) are those forests in the National Parks that are protected from logging B) are forests whose timber has second-rate value C) become established after virgin timber has been removed from an area D) are less abundant on Earth today than they were 500 years ago E) in North America are found mainly in British Columbia and Alaska

12)

13) ________ are replacing primary forests in much of southeast Asia.

A) Oil palm plantations B) Invasive exotic species C) Reserves for indigenous peoples D) World heritage sites E) Walmarts

13)

14) Why do developing nations impose few or no restrictions on logging?

A) There is an infinite supply of timber because wood is a renewable resource.

B) They are desperate for economic development.

C) No ancient forests remain in developing nations.

D) Most timber is extracted by local corporations that support the government.

E) Local residents use most of the timber, and the government does not want to impose

14)

15) Concessions granted by developing nations allow ________.

A) the establishment of national parks B) establishment of wilderness areas C) timber extraction by foreign multinational corporations D) restoration of deforested regions E) timber extraction according to strictly sustainable forestry principles

15)

restrictions on its citizens.

5

16) Many environmental advocates believe that biofuel made from palm oil is not an appropriate

16)

replacement for fossil fuels such as petroleum because ________.

A) it is better to use palm oil in snack foods

B) human rights are being violated because of the palm oil slave trade C) tropical forests must be cleared to plant oil palms D) oil palm plantations take land away from coffee growers E) burning palm oil actually puts more carbon dioxide into the atmosphere than burning gasoline

17) The program Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) ________.

A) seeks to reduce the 30% of global carbon emissions caused by primary forests B) supports research to develop trees which permanently sequester carbon C) combats unsustainable forestry practices through controlled burning programs D) was passed unanimously by the Copenhagen Conference (2010) on global climate change E) gives wealthy nations carbon-offsets if they pay poorer nations to conserve forests

17)

18) Ecosystem-based timber harvesting uses methods that ________.

A) are very popular with timber companies B) are the most cost efficient in the short term C) leave seed-producing or mature trees uncut to provide for future forests D) are ecologically harmless E) have the greatest impacts on forest ecosystems

18)

19) Which of the following accurately describes a benefit or a drawback of managing an even-aged

19)

tree plantation?

A) Even-aged stands create a more complex groundcover habitat.

B) Even-aged stands are less vulnerable to disease and insect outbreaks.

C) Even-aged stands possess more structural complexity than natural forests.

D) Even-aged stands are more vulnerable to pests such as bark beetles.

E) Even-aged stands are unpopular because they are difficult to harvest and replant.

20) Clear-cutting ________.

A) restricts timber harvesting to mountaintops B) removes all trees from an area C) is a form of violent protest favored by radical environmental organizations D) involves elimination of subsidies to farmers E) is harvesting trees from coastal areas only

6

20)

21) The ________ system of timber harvesting involves leaving small numbers of mature trees in place

21)

to provide shelter for seedlings as they grow.

A) "cherry-picking"

B) single-tree selection C) shelterwood D) clear-cutting E) nursery-tree 22) The National Forest Management Act ________ national forest land.

A) was passed to set up the formation of land trusts on B) was passed in 1976 with the intent to ensure multiple use and sustainable yield of C) was passed by the Bush administration in 2004 to loosen environmental protections and

22)

restrict public oversight of D) offers subsidies to timber companies for road building on

E) directs timber companies to remove small trees, underbrush, and dead trees to reduce fires in

23) Fire history in an open pine woodland ecosystem would be best determined by ________.

A) charcoal in the soil B) the density of vegetation C) ambient air temperature D) tree ring scars E) soil chemistry

7

23)

24) This figure shows annual totals for area burned by wildfires in the United States from 1983 to

24)

2015. Which of the following accounts for the trend shown?

A) There is no consistent trend in the figure. More forests burn during dry years than wet years.

B) Arsonists are starting more wildfires than they did 30 years ago.

C) Fire suppression has resulted in an accumulation of kindling for larger and more

catastrophic wildfires during dry years.

D) Forest cover has been increasing in the United States since the 1980s, so we see an associated trend in the amount of forest burned annually.

E) We now fight fires more aggressively than we did in the 1980s, and the annual number of acres burned reflects these efforts.

25) Salvage logging is most likely to do which of the following?

A) eliminate wildfires B) provide additional food and habitat for many types of wildlife C) cause more wildfires D) decrease long-term timber yield by more than 60% E) increase soil erosion

25)

26) Prescribed burns would be used in forests ________.

A) that have heavy recreational use to warn people about the dangers of fires B) plagued with insects as a cheaper alternative to pesticides C) that are subject to severe wild fires to remove fuel load and stimulate new growth D) to convert primary forests into secondary forests E) that have high densities of endangered species, such as tropical rain forests

26)

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27) In recent years, global climate change has caused more severe droughts in the western United

27)

States, resulting in ________.

A) fewer problems with diseases

B) extended growing seasons that benefit the trees C) the loss of western tropical rainforests D) trees being weakened and stressed, making them more susceptible to bark beetle infestation E) lower occurrence of forest fires 28) Since the 1990s, ________ have killed tens of billions of conifers in the western United States.

A) foresters B) pine shoot beetles C) ladybird beetles D) invasive fungi E) bark beetles

28)

29) In the western United States, bark beetle outbreaks have become much worse than in the past for

29)

all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) Warmer climate has resulted in increased reproductive output for the beetles.

B) Catastrophic wildfires have resulted in the increased growth of the kinds of trees that the bark beetles prefer.

C) Beetles are attacking the myriad even-aged forests throughout the West, which are the

perfect age for infestation.

D) Milder winters caused by climate change are enabling beetles to spread northward.

E) Long-term droughts have stressed trees, making them vulnerable to attack.

30) The Forest Stewardship Council ________ national forest land.

A) was passed to set up the formation of land trusts on B) was passed in 1976 with the intent to ensure multiple use and sustainable yield of C) offers subsidies to timber companies if they replant areas of D) has rigorous standards to certify that forest products are produced sustainably on E) restricts the use of snowmobiles on

30)

31) The forests in the Upper Peninsula of Michigan from which your text book was made are

31)

________.

A) harvested by clear-cutting

B) plantation forests of pine and spruce C) suffering from erosion and heavy pesticide use D) being salvage logged after the catastrophic wildfire of 2008 and subsequent pine beetle infestation E) harvested using ecosystem-based management

9

32) The first national park was ________.

A) General Grant (King's Canyon) B) Yosemite C) Mount Rainier D) Sequoia E) Yellowstone

32)

33) Wilderness areas ________.

A) are biosphere reserves managed by UNESCO B) were set up under the administration of George W. Bush in the early 2000s C) allow hunting, so long as proper permits are acquired D) were set up under the wise-use movement of the 1980s and 1990s E) are off-limits to development of any kind but are open to low-impact recreation

33)

34) ________ are federal lands that are off-limits to development but are open to hiking, nature study,

34)

and other low-impact public recreational activities.

A) National forests

B) State parks C) Bureau of Land Management lands D) Wilderness areas E) Biosphere reserves 35) Paper parks are ________.

A) parks established where timber harvesters formerly harvested wood for paper mills B) portions of the national parks where timber harvesting is permitted C) areas protected on paper but not in reality due to lack of funding D) land trust areas where timber harvesting is permitted E) portions of the wilderness areas where timber harvesting is permitted

35)

36) Land trusts are ________.

A) private nonprofit groups B) municipal government entities C) state government entities D) federal government entities E) corporations

36)

37) Which of the following is a land trust?

A) Texas A&M University B) Grand Teton National Park C) Long Island, New York D) The Nature Conservancy E) DeSoto National Wildlife Refuge

37)

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38) "Edge effects" become particularly problematic when ________.

A) wildlife corridors are developed in urban landscapes B) preserves have a very large area and a roughly circular shape C) formerly large habitats are reduced to small fragments D) forests undergo biodiversity changes as a result of climate change E) trying to manage and protect island biodiversity

38)

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

The western United States contains a series of tall mountain ranges that also extend far down into Mexico. Two of the largest of these ranges are the Rockies and the Sierra Madres, but they are all part of the same mountain-building event that occurred many millions of years ago, and they all have similar features. Much of the vegetation on these mountaintops is the same, or very similar, and they are often referred to as the "Sky Islands" because of their similarity to each other and their isolation from the lower, drier areas surrounding them. With global climate change producing increasingly visible effects, conservation biologists fear that these mountaintop ecosystems will undergo major changes in temperature and humidity and that the many endemic species that live there may literally have no place to go.

39) There are groups of tropical birds, such as trogons and parrots, that are usually considered to live

39)

in Central America and the mountains of southern and central Mexico. Small populations of these birds migrate into the United States each year. It is probably true that ________.

A) these birds have higher genetic diversity in the U.S. populations than in the populations in Central America B) more of these birds are found in the taller mountains of Colorado than in the shorter mountains in southern Arizona, even if the relative area of the mountains is the same C) more of these birds are found in the mountains of New Mexico and Arizona than in the mountains of Colorado, Utah, or Nevada D) these birds migrate to the United States in the winter because it is warmer here

E) these birds can live in the lower, drier elevations in the United States as well as in the mountain ranges

40) Large predators and omnivores, such as mountain lions and bears, roam these mountain ranges.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Because of immigration and emigration, the individual populations of these Sky Islands have more biomass than they did in the past.

B) Because of immigration and emigration, the individual populations of these Sky Islands have less biodiversity than they did in the past.

C) Because of extirpation, many of these individual populations have more biodiversity than they did in the past.

D) Because of habitat fragmentation, the individual populations of these Sky Islands have less genetic diversity than they did in the past.

E) Because of habitat fragmentation, the individual populations of these Sky Islands have more biodiversity than they did in the past.

11

40)

41) The tendency of humans to want to live in these Sky Islands, visit them for recreation, and use

41)

them for lumber or for wood pulp causes ________.

A) increased buffer zones

B) increased transitional areas C) increased habitat fragmentation and alteration D) increased genetic diversity E) major changes in local climate 42) If the Sky Islands become warmer and drier, the species that live at lower elevation will ________.

A) move into and dominate the altered sky islands B) become extinct C) move even farther down the slopes D) create a helpful buffer zone between themselves and the "sky island" species E) strengthen the biodiversity of the islands by adding many new species

42)

43) If the Sky Islands become rapidly warmer and drier, the endemic species there will ________.

A) be forced to interbreed with other species to preserve genetic diversity B) successfully adapt to changing conditions C) probably suffer a high extinction rate D) move farther into the core area of the "sky island" E) move down the mountain slopes and displace species living at lower elevations

43)

44) An effective strategy for protecting the endemic species of the Sky Islands could be to ________.

A) introduce drought tolerant species into all the Sky Islands B) prevent immigration and emigration between the Islands C) protect one large Sky Island at each end of the mountain chain and allow logging and

44)

development in the others D) protect the smallest Sky Islands and leave the rest open to logging and development

E) protect as many adjacent Sky Islands as possible, giving wildlife corridors to move between mountaintops

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

45) What aspect of American history makes it difficult for us to suggest halting deforestation in the tropical rain

forest? How did deforestation proceed in the United States? How and why is deforestation in the tropical rain forest different than it was in the United States?

46) Briefly discuss the components of a sustainable forestry program and the meaning of FSC certified forest products.

47) How has the Smokey the Bear campaign, which attempted to eliminate wildfires from forested areas

altogether, damaged forest health? What is the importance of fire in ecosystem management? What is the cost of fire suppression for ecosystem health? What is the alternative to fire suppression?

12

48) Who owns the forest land that is home to timber harvesting? Why was the national forest system established, what was its mission, and who specifically directed its development? How did the political climate in the United States aid the formation of a system that incorporated the theme of conservation?

49) Explain salvage logging.

50) Why do we need stretches of uninhabited and undeveloped land?

51) What are the traditional reasons for the development of parks and protected areas? What other reasons have been added recently?

13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED14

1) D 2) E 3) A 4) E 5) E 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) E 10) B 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) E 18) C 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) E 26) C 27) D 28) E 29) B 30) D 31) E 32) E 33) E 34) D 35) C 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) C 40) D 41) C 42) A

14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED14

43) C 44) E 45) Timber harvesting propelled the growth of the United States throughout its phenomenal expansion across the

continent in the 19th century and into the 20th. Cities of the Atlantic seaboard and the Midwest were built with timber felled in the vast pine and hardwood forests of the East. Those forests were virtually stripped of their trees in the 19th century and were replaced largely by small farms. Logging operations then moved south to harvest more wood for the growing nation. The pine woodlands of the South were logged, and many of them were converted to pine plantations. When the largest, most valuable trees had been removed from these areas, timber companies moved west, cutting the continent's biggest trees in the Rockies, the Sierras, the Cascades, and the Pacific Coast ranges. By the mid-20th century almost no virgin timber was left in the lower 48 states. The patterns of deforestation in the United States are being paralleled internationally, but some developing nations, such as Brazil, are in the position the United States faced a century or two ago, having a vast frontier to conquer. However, in these countries, deforestation can proceed more quickly because of newer technology. Furthermore, much of the cutting is being done not by the people of those countries but through concessions to multinational corporations that export the products elsewhere.

46) Sustainable forestry implies not only the capacity of a harvesting system to provide timber on a continuing basis, but also to conserve the biodiversity and ecosystem services of the harvested forest to the greatest extent possible. The principle of ecosystem-based management includes these goals. Specific strategies would be to remove trees in such a way that the understory suffers minimal damage, to leave enough mature trees to support the biodiversity that depends on them and to minimize erosion. All aspects of the timber preparation or pulping process (for paper) would need to be energy-efficient and to employ non-toxic biodegradable chemicals at all stages. Effluents from sawmills or paper mills should not contribute to eutrophication of receiving lakes or rivers. If all of the steps from tree to marketed product meet the Forest Stewardship Council's standards for sustainable forestry, the process should earn an FSC certification.

47) For over a century, the Forest Service and other land management agencies have suppressed fire whenever and wherever it has broken out. Yet ecological research now clearly shows that many ecosystems depend on fire to maintain themselves. Certain plants have seeds that germinate only in response to fire, and researchers studying tree rings have documented that many ecosystems historically experienced fire with some frequency. Ecosystems dependent on fire are adversely affected by its suppression; open pine woodlands become cluttered with hardwood understory that ordinarily would be cleared away by fire, for instance, and animal diversity and abundance decline in such cluttered habitats. In addition, fire suppression increases the likelihood of catastrophic fires that truly do damage forests and that destroy human property and threaten human lives. This is because fire suppression allows the buildup of years' worth of limbs, logs, sticks, and leaf litter on the forest floor–excellent kindling for a catastrophic fire. Such fuel buildup helped cause the 1988 fires in Yellowstone National Park and thousands of other fires across the continent, and it is why catastrophic fires have become more of a problem than in the past. To reduce this fuel load and improve the health and safety of forests, the Forest Service and other agencies have in recent years been burning areas of forest under carefully controlled conditions. These prescribed burning programs have worked where they have been applied, but they require so much time and effort that a relatively small amount of land has been treated. Sometimes controlled burns can get out of control, as happened in 2000 in New Mexico. Efforts at controlled burns also have been complicated by public misunderstanding and by interference from politicians who have not taken time to understand the science behind the approach.

15

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED14

48) Most timber harvesting in the United States takes place on private land, including that owned by timber companies,

but some takes place on public lands, notably the national forests. The national forest system, managed by the U.S. Forest Service, covers over 8% of the nation's land area. The depletion of the eastern forests and the fear of a "timber famine" spurred the formation of the Forest Service in 1905, under Gifford Pinchot. Pinchot and others developed the concept of resource management and conservation during the Progressive era in American politics, a time of social reform when people had confidence that the application of science and education to public policy could greatly improve society. In line with Pinchot's conservation ethic, the Service aimed to manage the forests for "the greatest good of the greatest number in the long run." Pinchot believed the nation should extract and use resources from its public lands, so timber harvesting was from the start the goal of the national forests. But conservation meant planting trees as well as harvesting them, and the Forest Service would seek restrained use and wise management of timber resources, which are not renewable if not given time to grow back.

49) Salvage logging is the removal of dead trees, or snags, following a natural disturbance. From an economic standpoint, salvage logging may seem to make good sense. However, ecologically, snags have immense value; the insects that decay them provide food for wildlife, and many birds, mammals, and reptiles depend on holes in snags for nesting and roosting sites. Opponents of salvage logging point out that conducting timber removal operations on recently burned land can cause severe erosion and soil damage.

50) Large stretches of undeveloped land provide natural resources such as timber and food. Areas of natural land provide ecosystem services, including purification of water and air, nutrient cycling, waste treatment, and escape from the stresses of urban life. They provide open space, greenery, scenic beauty, and places for recreation. They also provide habitat for wildlife, which satisfies our natural affinity for contact with other organisms. In addition to the utilitarian reasons cited above, many people feel an ethical obligation to preserve wild landscapes and biodiversity for the sake of nonhuman organisms and/or the integrity of ecological systems.

51) First is the belief that enormous, beautiful, or unusual features such as the Grand Canyon, Yosemite, and Mount Rainier should be protected. Second, parks have been created at sites lacking economically valuable material resources; land that holds little monetary value is easy to set aside because no one wants to buy it. A third reason we have set aside parks is for utilitarian purposes. A watershed protected from development provides cities with clean drinking water and a buffer against floods. A fourth reason for the creation of protected areas has been their recreational value to tourists, hikers, fishers, hunters, and others. The preservation of biodiversity is a fifth reason that has been increasingly prioritized in recent years. Human impact alters habitats in myriad ways and has led to countless population declines and species extinctions. A park or reserve is widely viewed as a kind of Noah's ark, an island of habitat that can, scientists hope, maintain species that might otherwise disappear. In addition, forests are valuable protection against global climate change. Deforestation accounts for as much as 25% of global carbon emissions.

16

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) Figures such as these ________.

A) are used by scientists in determining which organs are damaged by a toxicant B) allow scientists to determine the exact quantity of a toxicant that will harm humans C) are used by epidemiologists in the assessment of a toxicant's effect D) are used to report the effects of a toxicant on wildlife populations E) represent typical dose-response curves for endocrine disruptors

1)

2) The LD50 indicates the ________.

A) lowest dose that kills 50 out of 1000 members of the population B) lowest dose required to cure half of the population C) lowest dose that kills any member of the population D) lowest dose required to cure the entire population E) amount of toxicant it takes to kill half the population

2)

3) Assume that the scales for graphs (a) and (b) are identical. Compare the graphs. Which of the

3)

following statements is true?

A) The toxicant shown in (b) has a higher toxicity than the toxicant shown in (a).

B) The toxicant shown in (b) has a lower toxicity than the toxicant shown in (a).

C) The toxicant shown in (b) has a lower LD50 compared to the toxicant shown in (a).

D) Graphs (a) and (b) show results for the same toxicant, but graph (a) shows a higher dose

than graph (b).

E) Graphs (a) and (b) show results for the same toxicant, but graph (b) shows a higher dose than graph (a).

4) The flat line at the left in (b) probably represents ________.

A) that no data were collected for the flat line area B) the fact that there is no biological effect of the toxicant at low doses C) the fact that no toxicant was introduced until the response line begins to rise D) competing effects of some other substance whose effect wasn't measured E) no visible effect because the body's physiological processes can cope with low doses of a

4)

5) The curve shown in (c) is most similar to which of the following effective dose responses?

A) the effect of ultraviolet radiation on skin cells B) the effect of asbestos on human lungs C) the effect of lead on children's brains D) the effect of radon on human lungs E) the effect of an estrogen mimic on the reproductive system of fish

5)

toxicant

2

6) A ________ is an organism, such as a mosquito, that transmits a disease-causing organism to a

6)

host.

A) bacterium B) vector C) fungus D) vehicle E) virus 7) ________ are examples of naturally occurring biological hazards.

A) Phthalates and bisphenol A B) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas C) Viruses and Salmonella D) Crude oil seeps and radon gas E) DDT and DDE

7)

8) Which of the following is a cultural hazard?

A) a high-fat diet B) UV radiation from the sun C) flooding D) Zika virus E) an earthquake

8)

9) Infectious disease accounts for ________% of deaths globally.

A) 30 B) less than 1 C) 17 D) 40 E) almost 50

9)

10) A person is more likely to die of ________ than any other cause.

A) infectious disease B) old age C) starvation D) cancer E) cardiovascular disease

10)

11) ________ is a naturally occurring substance that seeps up from the ground and is potentially toxic

11)

to people.

A) DDE

B) Salmonella C) Bisphenol A D) Crude oil E) Radon gas

3

12) ________ are examples of indoor chemical hazards.

A) Wastewater toxicants B) Radon and asbestos C) BPA and PCBs D) DDT and DDE E) Petroleum and pesticides

12)

13) Rachel Carson's book Silent Spring focuses primarily on the environmental problems associated

13)

with ________.

A) aquifer depletion

B) deforestation C) overpopulation D) invasive species E) pesticide toxicity 14) ________ are substances that cause cancer.

A) Neurotoxins B) Allergens C) Carcinogens D) Teratogens E) Vectors

14)

15) Carcinogens may be difficult to identify because ________.

A) most are invisible B) there is no way to measure the carcinogenic potential of a substance C) they are rare in nature D) there is a long lag time between exposure to the agent and disease E) they are the least common toxicants

15)

16) The effect of toxicants on fetuses and young children ________.

A) has not raised concern among environmental health professionals B) is less than for adults because their metabolism is higher C) has been thoroughly evaluated for every chemical released into both indoor and outdoor

16)

environments D) is greater because of their developmental immaturity, rapid growth, and smaller biomass

E) is generally the same for adults 17) ________ are substances that cause birth defects.

A) Allergens B) Teratogens C) Carcinogens D) Vectors E) Neurotoxins

17)

4

18) Toxicants that cause harm by triggering overactivation of the immune system are called ________.

A) neurotoxins B) antibiotics C) hormones D) teratogens E) allergens

18)

19) All of the following statements are true of allergens EXCEPT: A) Asthma can be triggered by allergies.

B) Synthetic chemicals may trigger allergic reactions.

C) Everyone is affected by an allergen at a high enough dose.

D) A person's response to an allergen does not necessarily correlate with the degree of

19)

exposure.

E) Allergens trigger an immune response when one is not necessary.

20) ________ are toxicants that interrupt essential biochemical processes in organisms by blocking one

20)

or more steps in important biochemical reactions.

A) Carcinogens

B) Pathway inhibitors C) Insecticides D) Mutagens E) Neurotoxins 21) Bisphenol A is ________.

A) an estrogen mimic used in plastic manufacturing B) released from aerosol spray cans C) a currently used herbicide D) a banned insecticide E) produced when fossil fuels are burned

21)

22) Acute exposure to an environmental toxin ________.

A) involves low levels of exposure over long periods of time B) is the case with chronic alcohol and nicotine abuse C) is usually untreatable and fatal D) makes it difficult to associate the symptoms with a cause E) is a high exposure over short times and associated with a specific cause

22)

5

23) Which of the following statements about chronic versus acute exposure is true?

A) A person getting an x-ray is experiencing chronic exposure to radiation, whereas the

23)

radiologist is trying to minimize levels of acute exposure.

B) Acute exposure to a toxicant is more difficult to study than chronic exposure.

C) A person has experienced acute exposure if the exposure was at high levels for a long

period of time.

D) Safe levels for chronic exposure to a toxicant are lower than safe levels for acute exposure.

E) Chronic levels of a toxicant are assessed for individuals with chronic conditions such as arthritis.

24) Why are many contaminants found at higher concentrations in polar bears and people living in

24)

25) Transport of airborne toxicants, a specific problem in agricultural environments, is called pesticide

25)

Greenland than they are in bears and people living in temperate and tropical areas?

A) There are fewer regulations regarding the release of toxic pollutants in Greenland than in other regions of the world.

B) Polar bears and people living in Greenland eat penguins, which are naturally high in toxic contaminants.

C) Most of Greenland's GDP comes from importing toxic chemicals for disposal deep beneath its ice sheets.

D) The ice sheets in Greenland, which provide both people and polar bears with fresh water, were contaminated as a result of the Chernobyl nuclear accident.

E) Global atmospheric circulation carries airborne toxins toward the poles, where their deposition exceeds evaporation.

________.

A) run-off

B) drift C) leaching D) transposition E) globalization 26) Which of the following describes a scenario involving pesticide drift?

A) Pesticides are copied by companies producing generic varieties, but the generic varieties have greater toxic effects than the original pesticides.

B) Pesticides being used in a mountain valley are carried by air currents into the surrounding hills, killing amphibians living in the hills' streams.

C) Pesticides leach into groundwater aquifers, sickening those who use the aquifers for

drinking water.

D) Pesticides contain carcinogens that cause cancer in the workers using the chemicals.

E) Pesticides run off into a local waterway that flows into a nearby fishing lake, killing some of the sensitive species of fish that live in the lake.

6

26)

27) Aquatic animals such as fish and frogs are especially good indicators of water pollution because

27)

________.

A) the metabolism of these organisms is most like ours

B) these organisms are the most abundant on Earth C) all chemical toxicants are found in water D) they are easy to catch E) most chemicals are water soluble so they enter these organisms through drinking or skin absorption

28) ________ is/are biodegradable and known to have (a) short persistence time(s).

A) DDE B) PBDEs C) PCBs D) DDT

28) E) Bt toxin

29) DDT, DDE, PCBs, and PBDEs are all ________.

A) teratogens B) toxic at the organism level but not at the ecosystem level C) nonbiodegradable and subject to bioaccumulation and/or biomagnification D) biodegradable and do not persist in the environment E) approved for use as pesticides by the EPA

29)

30) What are the properties of toxicants that are likely to build up in animals through

30)

bioaccumulation?

A) They are gases that are readily carried by pesticide drift.

B) They are nonbiodegradable and lipid soluble.

C) They contain nitrogen and sulfur.

D) They are carcinogenic and mutagenic.

E) They are biodegradable and water soluble.

31) The concentration of DDT in a certain lake is 0.0000003 ppm (parts per million), while the

31)

concentration of DDT in the tissues of a nearby osprey (a fish-eating bird) is 25 ppm. This is an example of ________.

A) bioremediation

B) biodegradation C) bioreduction D) biomagnification E) biotruncation 32) The bald eagle, osprey, and peregrine falcon all are ________.

A) extinct B) U.S. invasive species C) found only in Florida D) top consumers susceptible to eggshell damage caused by DDT E) overhunted for their feathers

7

32)

33) Alligators in polluted lakes in Florida have been shown to have a higher prevalence of ________

33)

than alligators in uncontaminated lakes.

A) mercury poisoning

B) lung cancer C) suicide D) lead poisoning and poaching E) reproductive abnormalities

34) Your friend is somehow convinced that water is toxic and wants to test the toxicity of water on

34)

35) Synergistic effects of toxicants ________.

A) are greater than the sum of the effects of the components B) have effects of individual toxicants that tend to cancel one another out C) are not numerous in the natural environment D) typically exhibit additive effects of the individual toxicants E) always involve synthetic toxicants

35)

36) Studies of endocrine disruptors have shown that they are closely associated with all of the

36)

corn plants. After providing different amounts of water to different groups of corn plants for the duration of a growing season, your friend graphs the results. The graph is most likely to look like which of the dose-response curves depicted above?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

following EXCEPT: A) thyroid hormone abnormalities.

B) erectile dysfunction.

C) male feminization.

D) lung cancer.

E) gonadal abnormalities.

8

37) The book Our Stolen Future was important because it ________.

A) was the first book to focus on the impacts of endocrine-disrupting chemicals B) was the first book that discussed water pollution problems in Lake Apopka C) was the first book to dispute claims in Rachel Carson's book Silent Spring D) was the first book that discussed environmental problems with DDT E) is credited with starting the environmental movement in the United States

37)

38) A risk manager would do which of the following?

A) determine the level of exposure of farm workers to a new herbicide B) establish rules restricting the use of a new herbicide C) assess the LD50 level of a new herbicide D) set the purchase price of a new herbicide E) determine the neurological effects of a new herbicide

38)

39) According to the precautionary principle, we should ________.

A) do extensive government scientific testing before restricting a chemical for use B) levy large fines against companies that manufacture toxic substances C) allow industry to do their own research to determine if a chemical is safe D) restrict any chemical that is suspected of toxicity until it is demonstrated to be safe E) halt the manufacture and use of synthetic chemicals

39)

40) Pesticides in the United States are registered through the ________.

A) USDA B) BLM C) PRA D) FDA

40) E) EPA

41) The Toxic Substances Control Act regulates ________.

A) industrial chemicals B) drugs C) pesticides D) cosmetics E) food additives

41)

42) Of the chemicals that fall under the Toxic Substances Control Act, ________ have been tested for

42)

toxicity and ________ have been tested for endocrine, nervous, or immune system damage.

A) 75%; 10%

B) 33%; 22% C) half; 25% D) half; 10% E) a small percentage; even fewer

9

43) Initiated in 2007, the REACH program ________.

A) replaced the Toxic Substances Control Act with a policy that was more strict regarding

43)

chemical safety

B) regulates the chemicals used in hydraulic fracturing C) was passed by the European Union to protect its citizens from unsafe chemicals D) protects European companies that have patented trade secrets from revealing the chemical information about their products

E) requires all chemicals imported into the United States to have a material safety data sheet 44) The first goal of the Stockholm Convention is to ________.

A) reduce global warming by preventing the manufacture of HFCFs B) reduce exposure to allergens and teratogens in developing countries C) prevent the spread of AIDS D) end the use and release of 12 POPs shown to be the most dangerous E) educate women about birth control in developing countries

44)

45) The "dirty dozen" POPs targeted by the Stockholm Convention include ________.

A) BPA and radon B) Roundup and glyphosate C) PCBs D) Dr. Pepper and Mountain Dew E) Bt toxin and isopropyl alcohol

45)

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

Mercury is a heavy metal that occurs naturally in minerals and rocks. Release of mercury from natural sources has been relatively constant over time. However, anthropogenic release of mercury has increased significantly in recent years primarily due to increased fossil fuel mining and combustion. Mercury that is released into the air eventually ends up in soils or surface water. Once in water, microbes convert mercury into methyl mercury, which is absorbed quickly and concentrated in the tissues of predatory fish such as shark and swordfish. Large fish typically concentrate more mercury than small fish.

People who eat fish with high methyl mercury concentrations can show tremors, deafness, muscle dysfunction, and attention deficits. Pregnant women and children are especially sensitive to methyl mercury's toxic effects. Learning disabilities and developmental delays are common in children who have been exposed to significant levels of methyl mercury.

46) Based on the specific health effects described above, mercury would be best classified as a(n)

46)

________.

A) carcinogen

B) neurotoxin C) allergen D) endocrine disruptor E) synergist 47) Mercury is to methylmercury as DDT is to ________.

A) PCB B) DDE C) POP

10

47) D) DEP

E) PBP

48) Mercury is not readily excreted. Instead, it is stored and concentrated in mammalian body tissues

48)

through a process called ________.

A) toxification

B) biomagnification C) bioaccumulation D) synergism E) distillation 49) As a result of ________, concentrations of methyl mercury are higher in large fish relative to

49)

concentrations in smaller fish.

A) toxification

B) bioaccumulation C) synergism D) biomagnification E) distillation 50) Pregnant women and children are warned not to eat certain kinds of fish that have high mercury

50)

content. Why do some fish tend to have higher mercury levels than other fish?

A) Fish that are high in the food chain eat prey that already have biomagnified levels of methylmercury, thus further biomagnifying the pollutant.

B) The high levels of mercury are an adaptation to avoid predation by humans.

C) Some species of fish live in areas that are more contaminated with methylmercury. The species of fish living in those areas should be avoided.

D) Fish that are high in the food chain eat prey that already have bioaccumulated levels of methylmercury, thus further bioaccumulating the pollutant.

E) Some fish tend to thrive in habitats near factories that release high levels of mercury.

51) Which of the following U.S. agencies is primarily responsible for addressing issues regarding mercury pollution?

A) EPA

B) OSHA

C) BLM

D) DOE

E) USDA

52) Prior to 2005, no rules regulating mercury emissions from coal-fired power plants existed in the United States. This represents the ________.

A) innocent-until-proven-guilty approach

B) Ames approach C) dose-response initiative D) case-study approach E) precautionary principle ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

53) What does the field of environmental health encompass?

11

51)

52)

54) Debate over the use of DDT to control malaria is likely to continue. However, over the past several decades, much has been learned about how this insecticide works and why its extensive use poses an environmental concern. Discuss three characteristics of this chemical that cause it to be problematic.

55) Explain what endocrine disruptors are, and give examples. Explain why endocrine disruptors are a problem for humans, and discuss why they have not been banned.

56) Briefly comment on the research to determine the toxicity of bisphenol A (BPA). Also, explain why this topic

represents a challenge to scientific integrity and credibility and the implications for national and international policies on this compound that depend on the research.

57) Describe the environmental factors and chemical properties that determine the rate of degradation of toxicants.

58) Explain and give an example of biomagnification. Identify two key characteristics of toxins that become biomagnified.

59) What are epidemiological studies, and what is their value? Are there any disadvantages to epidemiological studies?

60) Briefly explain dose-response analysis.

61) Explain risk assessment and risk management. Discuss how risk management combines science and other social factors.

62) How is the precautionary principle used in environmental health? What is an alternative philosophical approach?

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED15

1) C 2) E 3) B 4) E 5) E 6) B 7) C 8) A 9) C 10) E 11) E 12) B 13) E 14) C 15) D 16) D 17) B 18) E 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) E 23) D 24) E 25) B 26) B 27) E 28) E 29) C 30) B 31) D 32) D 33) E 34) A 35) A 36) D 37) A 38) B 39) D 40) E 41) A 42) E

13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED15

43) C 44) D 45) C 46) B 47) B 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) The field of environmental health assesses environmental factors that influence human health and quality of life. It

seeks to prevent adverse effects on human health and on ecological systems essential to environmental quality and long-term human well-being. The field encompasses four types of hazards: (1) physical, which includes blizzards, hurricanes, earthquakes, fires, and floods; (2) chemical, which involves exposure to natural and synthetic substances; (3) biological, which involves exposure to pathogenic organisms and viruses; and (4) cultural, which includes occupational, social, and behavioral exposure such as coal mining, driving, and smoking cigarettes.

54) DDT is a synthetic chemical, developed in the mid-1940s as an insecticide to be used against malaria. This chemical has many critical characteristics causing it to be particularly harmful to a wide array of warm-blooded organisms, including humans. Its persistence, transport in the environment, and uptake by many nontarget organisms contribute significantly to its environmental health concerns. DDT is not easily broken down in the environment, and even its by-products are toxic. DDT's environmental persistence is estimated to vary between 30 and 100 years. Because it is sprayed over wide areas, it easily gets into water supplies and affects aquatic food webs. Because it is taken up by insects and other small organisms found in lower trophic levels, its ability to bioaccumulate in higher organisms in the food chain is dependent on its fat-solubility characteristic. That is, DDT is able to be stored in the tissues of living organisms without breaking down, and this characteristic leads to its biomagnification in the food web. Organisms that feed on other organisms whose tissues have stored DDT are likely to store an even higher concentration. Some of the most well-documented environmental effects of DDT have been egg-shell thinning in birds of prey; however, cancer and developmental abnormalities have also been documented in amphibians and other higher vertebrates.

55) Endocrine disruptors are toxicants that interfere with the body's hormones. Examples include DDT and bisphenol A. Endocrine disruptors are problems for humans because human reproduction, growth, and development can be affected by hormone mimics. They have not been banned because scientific evidence for the problems they cause has been slow in coming. Research documenting endocrine disruptor effects is controversial because it is relatively new.

Research poses economic threats to chemical manufacturers as well, such as the manufacturer of atrazine.

56) Bisphenol A (BPA) has been implicated as a hormone (estrogen) mimic and disruptor in various species of mammals and in humans. Used in the manufacture of many plastic products, it is liable to leach out of the products, especially drinking bottles, and be ingested along with food, water, baby formula, etc. There is more than a 90% chance of the presence of BPA in any American's body. Research has shown that BPA is a potent hormone disruptor in mice.

Recently, BPA has been implicated as a correlative factor in diabetes and cardiovascular disease. European studies have shown that BPA is also harming numerous wildlife species. Yet, there are different opinions, presumably based upon whether you look at peer-reviewed scientific studies or the opinions of industry, which tell us that unless you have human-based evidence, we are perfectly safe. This once again warns us to be sure to enquire about the funding sources of research where the profit motive is strong. Canada and many European countries have banned the use of many kinds of phthalates, and in 2012, the FDA banned the use of BPA in baby bottles. With conflicting information from industry and federally sponsored research, the EPA and FDA are in the process of trying to formulate policy for managing the risk from BPA.

14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED15

57) Environmental factors such as temperature, moisture, available oxygen, and sun exposure can affect the rate of

degradation of toxicants. The chemistry of the toxicant would determine how it is degraded and to what extent these environmental factors affect its degradation. Atrazine is an example of a toxicant that has variable persistence, depending on environmental conditions. Biodegradable toxicants are quickly broken down under conditions that favor the sustenance of the organisms degrading them. DDT, PCBs, and toxicants used in the manufacture of plastics, however, resist breakdown under most environmental conditions, and often, they are specifically designed not to degrade.

58) When one organism ingests a toxicant, the toxicant may become concentrated within its tissues. When the higher level consumer feeds, it eats multiple organisms at the lower trophic level, consuming magnified quantities of toxin with each feeding. Thus, with every step up the food chain from primary producer to top predator, concentrations of toxicant increase. An example of biomagnification in nature is when birds of prey consume toxic amounts of DDT because they eat big fish that have eaten small fish that have eaten zooplankton that have eaten algae that have ingested small amounts of DDT from polluted water. Another example of biomagnification in nature is seen in polar bears of Svalbard Island in Arctic Norway. Polar bears fed on seals that have already experienced biomagnification of toxicants such as PCBs. Properties that biomagnified toxins have in common are that they are lipid soluble and nonbiodegradable or slowly degradable.

59) Epidemiological studies involve large-scale comparisons among groups of people, usually contrasting a group known to have been exposed to a toxicant with a group that has not. They allow for the risk of exposure to a toxicant to be determined. They are realistic, but a long time is required for the results of the studies to be determined.

Furthermore, they do not address future effects of new products. Results of epidemiological studies must be interpreted cautiously because many factors affect health, and results do not determine cause and effect; they only measure statistical association.

60) Dose-response analysis allows scientists to quantify the toxicity of a given substance by measuring how much effect a toxicant produces at different doses or how many animals are affected by different doses of the toxic agent. Dose is the amount of toxicant the test animal receives, and the response is the type or magnitude of negative effects the animal exhibits as a result. The relationship between dose and response can vary from one kind of toxicant to another.

Some toxicants are only harmful at high concentrations, while others may have a more unusual dose-response relationship and be more harmful at low or intermediate doses.

61) The first step in risk assessment determines whether a substance has toxic effects by measuring dose-response effects of toxicant exposure. The second step assesses the likely exposure that an individual will have to the toxicant including frequency, concentration, and time of exposure. Risk management consists of decisions and strategies to minimize risk. Federal agencies charged with managing risk consider findings in light of economic, social, and political needs and values. Costs and benefits are addressed with regard to both scientific and nonscientific concerns.

While economic benefits are generally known, easily quantified, and of a definite and stable amount, health risks are hard-to-measure probabilities that impact a small percentage of people that will suffer greatly. For example, if a pesticide is used, people may suffer, but if it is not used, people may not have enough to eat. Both costs must be considered before banning the pesticide.

62) The precautionary principle states that substances, such as potential toxicants, are assumed to be harmful until shown to be harmless. This approach allows us to identify troublesome toxicants before they are released into the environment, but it may also significantly impede the pace of technological and economic advance. Thoroughly testing every existing substance for its effects is long, complicated, and expensive. So some may favor the innocent-until-proven-guilty approach. This approach assumes that substances are harmless until shown to be harmful. This approach may lead to putting substances into wide use that may later turn out to be dangerous.

15

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) The data in this figure indicate that ________.

A) using current technology, the prices of lead and zinc will decline in the next century B) at current rates of consumption, metals will become scarcer C) if consumption rates of these metals rise, the price should come down D) metals are renewable resources E) all the metals will be available at current prices for between 100 and 400 years

1)

2) All else being equal, increased recycling will ________.

A) cause a sharp rise in the price of metals B) increase the lifetime of economically recoverable metals C) result in discoveries of new metal deposits D) increase the amount of economically recoverable metals E) shift extraction and mining methods to technically recoverable metals

2)

3) Increasing consumption of metals will ________.

A) force prices lower as nations compete for limited resources B) increase the lifetime of economically recoverable metal deposits C) raise prices as nations complete for limited resources D) have no effect on price E) have the smallest effect on the price of lead, zinc, and copper, but largest for titanium

3)

1

4) We can conclude from the data in the figure that ________.

A) our collective use of metal resources is unsustainable B) known global reserves are increasing to keep pace with consumption C) we are currently using metals sustainably D) recycling, reducing consumption, and finding alternative materials will not keep prices

4)

from rising

E) after 400 years, all the metals shown will have entirely disappeared from Earth 5) The data in the figure indicate that all of the metals shown will ________.

A) be available for at least 500 more years B) be easily replaced by other metals C) eventually become unavailable, even with current technological capabilities D) become less expensive to extract over time E) never be exhausted

5)

6) Coltan ore contains ________.

A) aluminum B) tantalum C) coal D) uranium E) cobalt

6)

7) Tantalum is used primarily for the manufacture of ________.

A) electronics, such as cell phones, computers, and digital cameras B) plastics C) high-quality steel D) aerospace engines and aircraft hulls E) pesticides, fertilizers, and biodiesel fuel

7)

8) Earth's mantle ________.

A) is composed of molten metals B) surrounds the core as a thick, elastic rock formation C) is the outermost part of the earth's crust D) is formed by plate boundaries E) is located in Pangaea

8)

9) The lithosphere consists of ________.

A) magma and molten metal B) the uppermost mantle and the continental and oceanic crust C) the upper part of the asthenosphere D) the upper mantle and core E) soils and vegetation

9)

2

10) Minerals are components of ________.

A) sedimentary rocks B) the lithosphere C) organic components of Earth's crust D) the troposphere E) soil horizons

10)

11) Plate tectonic movement results from ________.

A) high surface winds and erosion B) molten materials from the core escaping to the surface C) convective movements of rock in the underlying mantle D) unstable surface rock formations E) mass wasting

11)

12) At ________ plate boundaries, tectonic plates are pushed away from each other when magma rises

12)

to the surface, creating new crust.

A) subvergent

B) divergent C) convergent D) trench E) transform 13) A ________ is a naturally occurring solid chemical element or inorganic compound with a distinct composition and a crystal structure.

A) mineral B) sediment

C) horizon

D) rock

13)

E) nutrient

14) A(n) ________ is a solid aggregation of ________.

A) rock; minerals B) crystal; rocks C) element; crystals D) mineral; crystals E) mineral; rocks

14)

15) ________ forms when magma or lava cools.

A) Sedimentary rock B) Igneous rock C) A subduction zone D) Metamorphic rock E) Deposition

15)

3

16) Sedimentary rock is formed ________.

A) by the melting of metamorphic rock B) from the vaporization of organic material by magma C) as sediments are pressed together and infiltrated by minerals D) from the heating of igneous rock by the heat of Earth's core E) when igneous rock cools

16)

17) The Pacific "ring of fire" is a volcanic area where ________.

A) there is severe coastal erosion B) pyroclastic flow has caused landslides C) there are many earthquakes and active plate boundaries D) there is a great deal of mass wasting E) sedimentary rock is being formed from igneous rock

17)

18) Earthquakes are likely to occur ________.

A) where the mantle and the crust make contact B) where there is movement along tectonic plate boundaries C) in areas far from tectonic plate boundaries D) as a result of volcanic activity E) at the boundaries of igneous and sedimentary rock

18)

19) Volcanoes are formed ________.

A) where Earth's crust is especially thick B) after earthquakes have damaged Earth's crust C) as a result of water seeping into the core from the surface D) when Earth's core erupts onto the surface E) in subduction zones and rift valleys

19)

20) Tsunamis are caused by ________.

A) abrupt changes in temperature of seawater B) global climate change C) hot water entering the oceans from undersea faults D) the displacement of sea water by volcanoes, earthquakes or coastal landslides E) abnormally high and sustained winds

20)

21) If a mineral is opaque, lustrous, malleable, and can conduct heat and electricity, it is a(n) ________.

A) gemstone B) radioactive element C) crystal D) element E) metal

21)

4

22) Most metals, such as iron and copper, do not occur in a pure state in Earth's crust, but occur

22)

within ________.

A) igneous rocks

B) the O horizon of the soil C) sediments D) ores E) organic materials 23) Smelting of iron ore involves ________.

A) washing the ore with acid to extract iron B) oxidizing iron to ferric oxide and then adding silicon and boron C) crushing and heating the ore at its melting point D) heating beyond iron's melting point and combining the material with carbon E) dissolving the ore in hot water to separate iron and aluminum

23)

24) Examples of valuable nonmetallic minerals extracted by mining include ________.

A) radon, radium, and sodium B) gold, platinum, and copper C) lead, cadmium, and mercury D) nitrogen, hydrogen, and neon E) sand, gravel, and phosphates

24)

25) If you want to avoid buying a "blood diamond," you should avoid purchasing ________.

A) a diamond that has been manufactured from mercury via alchemy B) a diamond mined from a subsurface mine in the Ukraine C) any rose-colored diamonds D) a synthetically produced diamond E) a diamond from Sierra Leone

25)

26) Many types of mining, such as for coal, produce a specific type of water pollution called ________.

A) acid drainage B) sludge C) chlorinated pesticides D) suspended limestone particles E) eutrophication

26)

27) Subsurface mining is used extensively in the extraction of ________.

A) limestone, natural gas, and peat B) coal, diamonds, and gold C) coltan D) oil sands E) organic soils for landscaping

27)

5

28) Heavy landscape damage and water pollution have occurred in ________ as a result of ________.

A) Florida; open pit mining of limestone B) San Francisco; placer mining for gold C) Mississippi; strip mining for uranium D) Canada; subsurface mining for oil sands E) Appalachia; mountaintop removal mining for coal

28)

29) Placer mining involves the use of ________.

A) draglines and heavy dump trucks B) a pickaxe and rock hammer C) screens or pans and running water D) explosives and support beams E) seismic activators and thermal couplers

29)

30) Placer mining is environmentally damaging because most placer mining methods ________.

A) create large open pits that fill up with groundwater and react with sulfides to form sulfuric

30)

acid B) inject toxic solutions deep into the ground

C) wash large amounts of sediments into streams, making the streams uninhabitable for many forms of aquatic life

D) remove large amounts of surface soil and rock, leading to wide-scale erosion E) lead to acid drainage that affects nearby streams and rivers 31) The U.S. Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 requires ________.

A) all mined minerals to be processed and sold only within the United States B) mining companies to post bonds to cover restoration of mined areas before permits are

31)

granted C) 20% of sales revenues to be donated to national park maintenance

D) restoration of the identical ecosystem and biodiversity present before mining began E) no remediation of water pollution, except in the case of uranium mining 32) The General Mining Act of 1872 ________.

A) requires remediation and reclamation of areas damaged by mining operations B) legalized the mining for gold in California C) was named after a Civil War general who died at the Battle of Gettysburg D) encouraged the prospecting for minerals on federal lands E) officially legalized mountaintop removal

32)

33) According to critics, the U.S. General Mining Act of 1872 ________.

A) made mining unprofitable except for the largest corporations B) allowed mining in urban centers with dense commercial development C) opened mining rights to foreign nations that staked claims on U.S. land D) had pollution and remediation clauses that were too strict E) practically gave away resources located on public land

33)

6

34) At today's rate of consumption, the world's known reserves of tantalum will last about ________

34)

35) The mining of coltan in Congo and coal in Appalachia has produced issues of ________.

A) environmental damage and socioeconomic injustice B) black market activity for stolen and poached minerals C) job losses and air pollution D) economic prosperity for local residents, but high prices for everyone else E) industrial smog

35)

36) Longer projected lifetimes for scarce minerals can be achieved with all of the following, EXCEPT: A) exploring for new mineral reserves.

B) recycling.

C) lowering prices for products using these minerals.

D) researching more efficient extraction techniques.

E) finding more available substitutes for these minerals.

36)

37) The newest bonanza for recycling scarce and toxic metals is to recover them from ________.

A) construction dump sites B) compact discs, LPs, and 8-track tapes C) car batteries D) closed landfills E) e-wastes

37)

38) The dwindling supplies of rare strategic metals such as indium, tantalum, and platinum may be

38)

more years, but if everyone in the world began consuming tantalum at the rate of U.S. citizens, then it would last for only ________ years.

A) 377; 5 B) 2,016; 131 C) 56; 7 D) 129; 31 E) 314; 159

extended if we rigorously ________.

A) relax environmental requirements for mining

B) reduce demands for social and economic justice C) increase demand for the products in which they are used D) exploit known deposits more efficiently E) recycle existing supplies 39) In 2010, geologists from the U.S. military discovered nearly $1 trillion worth of minerals in ________.

A) Peru

B) Vietnam C) Afghanistan D) Iraq E) Nevada

7

39)

40) Recycled tantalum accounts for approximately ________ of its availability for use in manufacturing.

A) 87%

B) half

C) 20-25%

D) one-third

41) All of the following metals are found in cell phones EXCEPT: A) silver.

B) copper.

C) platinum.

D) gold.

40) E) 5-10% 41) E) sodium.

42) It takes ________ energy to produce aluminum from ore than to obtain it from recycled sources.

A) 7 times more B) roughly the same amount of C) 20 times more D) 7 times less E) 20 times less

42)

43) Bauxite ore is a source of ________.

A) tantalum B) coal C) lead D) aluminum E) coltan

43)

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

In 2010, geologists working for the U.S. military operations in Afghanistan discovered a literal treasure trove of mineral deposits with a preliminary estimated value at nearly U.S. $1 trillion. So far, no proposals have been made for extracting these resources, but already parallels have been drawn to the many dimensions of human rights issues that have plagued coltan production in the Congo, oil drilling in Nigeria, and the "blood diamonds" of Sierra Leone.

The U.S. Agency for International Development (USAID) manages a program called the Mining Investment and Development for Afghanistan Sustainability (MIDAS) project, whose goal is to assist the Afghan government in responsibly developing the nation's mining industry.

44) You have been appointed as a chief advisor for the MIDAS project. As far as costs of restoration and reclamation of mining sites, you should strongly recommend that ________.

A) the U.S. military should take responsibility for all costs incurred

B) the Afghan central government should take responsibility for all costs incurred C) any corporation wishing to invest should post a bond for reclamation and hire Afghans to

do the work D) the U.S. EPA should oversee the operation and pay for it

E) the costs be shared by the Afghan central government and also by the most powerful tribal leaders

8

44)

45) USAID is likely to do or support all of the following actions EXCEPT: A) train Afghanis to become mining technicians.

B) encourage international mining corporations to regulate mining activities in Afghanistan.

C) deploy mineral exploration teams of Afghani geologists and engineers to search for mineral

45)

deposits.

D) provide technical assistance to Afghanistan's Ministry of Mines and Petroleum.

E) aid in environmental protection and help plan future reclamation of mined areas.

46) For the Afghan people, which of the following would be the most useful benefit from mining profits?

A) permanent enclaves of foreign scientists and mine managers located near mining sites

B) training for Afghan mining technicians and establishment of Afghan mining institutes C) establishment of high-end tourist hotels for visiting foreign mine executives and their

families D) creation of improved roads into and around mining sites for corporate transport and mining machinery E) use of the U.S. military to provide security at mines

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

47) Briefly discuss the relationship between plate tectonics, volcanic activity, earthquakes, and tsunamis.

48) Discuss the major environmental impacts of mining operations.

49) Briefly discuss the economic and social justice issues that can arise from mining operations.

50) Discuss the facets of sustainable mineral use.

9

46)

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED16

1) B 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) B 10) B 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) E 20) D 21) E 22) D 23) D 24) E 25) E 26) A 27) B 28) E 29) C 30) C 31) B 32) D 33) E 34) D 35) A 36) C 37) E 38) E 39) C 40) C 41) E 42) C

10

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED16

43) D 44) C 45) B 46) B 47) The earth's crust and mantle are not completely solid and stationary. Heat from the core melts the overlying mantle

rocks to produce magma or lava. The mantle moves in slow convective currents as hot rock rises, cools, and sinks back toward the core to be heated again. The semi-fluid upper mantle moves against the outer crust, producing movements called plate tectonics. Where plates collide and one dives under another (subduction), diverge and spread apart (rift valleys), or slide past one another, the movements can cause shock waves that we feel as earthquakes. Or, crust movements in faults may expose the underlying liquid mantle, which erupts upwards, creating a volcano.

When earthquakes and volcanic activity occur under the ocean, there may be a sudden displacement of enormous amounts of sea water. The force of the displacement may travel hundreds or thousands of kilometers until it reaches a shoreline, producing a tsunami. It was an underwater earthquake that caused the devastating tsunami that struck northern Japan in April 2011.

48) Because mineral resources are solids that are part of the Earth's crust, extracting them can involve serious ecological disruptions, landscape alteration, and sometimes large-scale pollution of water and air. Mountaintop removal is a technique of coal extraction in which more than 100 vertical meters of a mountaintop are blasted and removed to expose deposits. This causes debris to rain down the hillsides, clogging and polluting stream sources and thus water supplies, destroying wildlife habitats, and causing the loss of biodiversity. In the case of mining in Appalachia, physical destruction of homes and other buildings also occurs. Smelting of iron and other ores may produce large of amounts of sulfur oxides, which cause acid precipitation and ecosystem destruction. In mining operations that require extraction and washing techniques, streams and groundwater are likely to become contaminated by sulfates (acidification) and soluble toxic metal ions such as aluminum, manganese, cadmium, and nickel. In addition, other chemicals used in the extraction process may be present in mine tailings and cause further water pollution. The operations of strip mining and open-pit mining remove extensive areas of native vegetation, damage fertile soils, and increase rates of erosion. They also can cause acid drainage, when sulfide ores are exposed to and oxidized by atmospheric oxygen. The sulfates thus formed are mixed with rainwater and cause the same sorts of damage to soils and plants found in acid deposition from coal-fired industries and electrical generating plants.

49) We live in a global and interdependent economic system. Materials for manufacturing can easily be drawn from several continents before the item in question (for example, cellular telephones) comes off the conveyor belt. With costs of extraction, processing, transportation, refining, marketing, and finally assembly of product, international corporations are constantly looking for ways to keep costs low and make their product competitive. That said, often the nations or domestic regions that actually extract minerals are not given the humane and environmental consideration they deserve. Furthermore, when minerals are extracted from areas that are in the process of civil war or have weak central governments, workers may be mercilessly exploited and the in-region profits co-opted by militias, government officials, or war lords. The result of these mining operations can be the direct financing of war, slavery, ethnic strife, and the economic disenfranchisement of the field workers, most of whom are desperately poor.

This has been the case of petroleum extraction in Nigeria, coltan mining in the Democratic Republic of Congo, and "blood" diamond mining in Sierra Leone. Even in the United States, the plight of people living in the Appalachians under control of large coal-mining corporations have suffered from the results of mountaintop removal mining techniques. Hope may dawn on this grim scene as public awareness and outrage at these events are prompting action by several developed nations as well as the United Nations.

11

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED16

50) Minerals are nonrenewable resources and therefore need to be mined and utilized efficiently. Otherwise, scarce

minerals such as indium, copper, gold, and tantalum will rapidly reach the depletion point, past which their extraction and processing will be prohibitively expensive. A cornerstone of sustainable mineral use is recycling. The greater the volume of recycled scarce mineral and the more efficient the recycling process, the longer the supplies will last and the longer we will have to discover more available, cheaper, and more renewable replacements. Practical goals are those already attained for gold, where more metal is recycled than consumed, and lead, where most of U.S. lead consumed comes from recycled items such as car batteries. Finally, new deposits need to be sought, and more efficient extraction technologies need to be developed.

12

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) Most of Earth's liquid fresh water is found ________.

A) in lakes B) in the atmosphere C) in the oceans D) underground E) in ice caps and glaciers

1)

2) Approximately ________% of Earth's water is found in ice caps and glaciers.

A) 2 B) 2.5 C) 79 D) 1 3) What percentage of Earth's water is found in lakes?

A) 52% B) 0.013% C) 97.5%

2) E) 20 3)

D) 0.52%

E) 1%

4) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Most of Earth's fresh water is frozen.

B) Soil and atmospheric moisture comprise the majority of Earth's surface fresh water.

C) Most of Earth's fresh water is found within 100 miles of densely populated areas.

D) Most of Earth's fresh water would require desalination in order to make it suitable for consumption.

E) The majority of Earth's fresh surface water is found in rivers.

1

4)

5) What percentage of Earth's fresh water is found in oceans?

A) 2.5% B) 97.5% C) 79% D) 0% E) Cannot be determined from the information in the figure 6) What percentage of Earth's fresh water is found in rivers?

A) 0% B) 0.001% C) 0.1%

5)

6) D) 0.01%

E) 1%

7) Which of the following statements about Earth's fresh water is true?

A) Most of Earth's fresh water is in underground aquifers.

B) Most of Earth's fresh water is in large, freshwater lakes.

C) Most of Earth's fresh water is in polar ice caps, glaciers, and underground aquifers and thus

7)

is not easily accessed for human use.

D) Over half of Earth's fresh water is in wetlands near coastlines.

E) Over half of Earth's fresh water is extremely hard water and is largely unusable for drinking or agriculture.

8) One-fifth of Earth's total fresh water supply is in ________.

A) ponds B) the tundra C) the ocean D) estuaries E) groundwater

8)

9) Precipitation that falls on Earth's surface ________.

A) is usually already unusable because of acid rain B) is mostly taken up by plants or other organisms C) may take a variety of pathways through surface water or groundwater flow D) almost entirely filters down into the underground aquifers E) mostly runs off into salt marshes or the ocean

9)

10) An artesian aquifer occurs where ________.

A) granite is overlain by a sandy substrate, allowing percolation into the aquifer B) a water-bearing, porous layer of rock, sand, or gravel has accumulated groundwater over a

10)

long period of time

C) an aquifer is trapped under pressure between two layers that are less permeable D) a well is dug through layers of sand and gravel into the water table E) there are several aquifers that have merged

2

11) A watershed is ________.

A) the area of land that drains into a river or lake B) the water held in the atmosphere prior to returning to Earth in the form of rainfall C) an inland basin that connects to another inland basin D) a term used to describe water stored underground E) a river that drains into the sea

11)

12) Emergent vegetation such as cattails and reeds grow in the ________ zone of a lake.

A) aphotic B) limnetic C) profundal D) benthic E) littoral

12)

13) Which of the following best describes a floodplain?

A) an area that is periodically flooded because humans have altered the landscape B) a region of land that is periodically flooded when a river overflows C) an area where flood irrigation of crops is used, such as a rice paddy D) an area that is incidentally flooded when farming or mining operations change the course of

13)

rivers

E) a region of land that has been deliberately, permanently flooded due to human disturbance, such as in dam building

14) Freshwater wetlands provide important ecosystem services, including ________.

A) slowing runoff B) recharging aquifers C) filtering pollutants D) reducing flooding E) all of the above

14)

15) Upwelling ________.

A) brings benthic nutrients to the ocean surface promoting high primary productivity B) occurs when winds blow at right angles to a coastline C) transports oxygen from deep to surface waters D) occurs in areas where there are no currents E) is the flow of warm water upward toward the ocean surface

15)

16) Water in the surface zone of the ocean is, for the most part, ________.

A) depleted of oxygen B) well-mixed C) the densest D) the saltiest E) the coldest

16)

3

17) The area that underlies the shallow water bordering continents is called the ________.

A) benthic zone B) water table C) groundwater aeration zone D) pelagic zone E) continental shelf

17)

18) In thermohaline circulation of global current systems, surface water is ________.

A) cold and dense B) saltier and colder C) less salty, less dense, and warmer D) driven by winds from north to south E) warm and dense

18)

19) The rapid melting of Greenland's ice cap could disrupt the NADW formation by ________.

A) adding huge amounts of less-dense fresh water to the surface of the system B) acidifying ocean water C) adding heat and salt to deep ocean waters D) reversing the El Niño-La Niña cycle E) adding excess nutrients to cold northern waters

19)

20) The exceptionally strong warming of the eastern Pacific is referred to as ________.

A) downwelling B) El Niño C) the Coriolis effect D) cyclonic storm formation E) La Niña

20)

21) Which of the following statements is true regarding the future risks of decadal (11-year) and

21)

multidecadal (35-year) droughts in the southwestern United States and Great Plains?

A) Although the future risks of decadal droughts are low for both regions, multidecadal droughts are expected to occur in both areas during the latter half of the 21st century.

B) Models indicate that both regions are more likely to experience decadal and multidecadal droughts in the latter half of the 21st century than during the latter half of the 20th century.

C) Models indicate that the southwestern United States, including California, is more likely to experience these long-term droughts in the latter half of the 21st century, and much of the agricultural loss in that region will have to be offset in the Great Plains, where models indicate a very low probability of long-term drought.

D) Although El Niño patterns have caused short-term droughts in California and the Great Plains, neither region is expected to experience long-term droughts during the latter half of the 21st century.

E) Fewer multidecadal droughts are likely, but more decadal droughts are expected to occur during the latter half of the 21st century.

4

22) Water bodies where rivers flow into the oceans, mixing fresh water with saltwater, are called

22)

________.

A) upwellings

B) mangroves C) estuaries D) littoral ecosystems E) salt marshes 23) Salt marshes are ________ ecosystems, while mangroves are ________.

A) dominated by kelp; found in coral reefs B) tropical intertidal; found on temperate shorelines C) benthic; freshwater tropical ecosystems D) freshwater; pelagic E) temperate intertidal; found on subtropical and tropical shorelines

23)

24) Zooxanthellae are ________.

A) an invasive kelp species in the Indian Ocean B) symbiotic algae that provide energy to many species of corals C) an endangered species of fish in the Aral Sea D) bacteria that fix nitrogen in ocean sediments E) used in the treatment of wastewater

24)

25) Humans use more fresh water for ________ than for any other purpose.

A) industrial processes B) irrigating crops C) producing hydrogen fuel D) cooking and drinking E) household use

25)

26) Humans allocate approximately 70% of their annual freshwater use for ________.

A) mining and industrial processes B) washing and home use C) agricultural irrigation and providing water for livestock D) drinking and cooking E) electrical production

26)

27) Data indicate that the present rate of freshwater consumption in most developed countries is

27)

________.

A) irrelevant, as water is not currently limiting

B) sustainable for the foreseeable future C) only a problem in areas not on the coast D) increasing groundwater storage and decreasing surface water storage E) unsustainable

5

28) Why was the irrigation of Soviet cotton farming operations a problem?

A) There was governmental opposition that limited water access, killing crops.

B) It drained the Aral Sea and increased the salt content of soils.

C) It angered local resort communities, which did not want farming in the region.

D) Irrigation water came from rivers feeding into one of the largest lakes on Earth and resulted

28)

in major contamination of that source.

E) It was, for the most part, not a problem.

29) The resource allocation of the Colorado River's water is being complicated by ________.

A) sinkhole collapses in Arizona and southern California B) the rapid growth of vegetable farms in southern Arizona C) saltwater intrusion into the Colorado estuary near San Diego D) the rapid growth of Las Vegas E) the large numbers of people moving out of Nevada

29)

30) Why is grain production in the Great Plains considered largely unsustainable?

A) So many pesticides are needed for grain production that streams in the Great Plains are

30)

becoming dead zones.

B) The energetics of crop production in the Great Plains are such that more energy is needed to grow the crops than can be gotten from the crops.

C) The Ogallala aquifer is being depleted for irrigation water.

D) Competition with cattle ranching is resulting in a decline in crop production.

E) More and more people are becoming gluten intolerant, so there will be less and less demand for wheat, barley, and rye.

31) The initial consequence of falling water tables would be the loss of ________.

A) mammals that thrive in dry habitats B) deep lakes C) agricultural irrigation water D) trees that do best with low precipitation E) birds that live in upland areas

31)

32) Sinkholes can result from ________.

A) building on floodplains B) poorly drilled wells in soft soils C) overconsumption of water from aquifers D) flood damage and chemical erosion E) substrates that become weak following rain

32)

6

33) Recent research that analyzed the content of commercial bottled water indicates that ________.

A) all surveyed brands had information about the source of the water and how the water was

33)

treated

B) bottled water consumes less fossil fuel in reaching the consumer than does tap water C) bottled water is no safer or purer than most samples of tap water D) bottled water is generally much safer and purer than tap water E) bottled water has no contamination from hormone mimic plasticizers 34) Levees are used ________.

A) to transport water from a river to an urban center B) to prevent flooding and facilitate shipping C) to block water flow and hold water in a reservoir D) to pump water from an aquifer E) along scenic byways so drivers can get a better view of a river

34)

35) We build dams to ________.

A) control the spread of water borne diseases B) improve habitat for native fish C) generate electricity, prevent flooding, and provide irrigation and drinking water D) transform watersheds into farms, towns, and recreational areas E) drain wetlands for urban development

35)

36) Dam removal in the United States ________.

A) will probably increase rapidly as we move to a more fossil-fuel-dependent society B) is controversial because dams provide such good habitats for native species C) will probably continue because the environmental impacts of dams are reviewed

36)

periodically

D) will assist with our transition to more natural forms of renewable energy E) provides many new jobs and opportunities and so is economically beneficial 37) Xeriscaping can save water by ________.

A) replacing landscaping plants with rocks, sand, and sculpture B) replacing lawns with artificial turf and gravel parking areas C) collecting rain water and storing it in cisterns or tanks D) planting native or drought-resistant landscaping plants E) creating wetlands instead of landscaping

37)

38) Which of the following will contribute to water conservation?

A) watering lawns during peak sunlight hours, when plants need water most B) washing dishes by hand C) planting nonnative wetland plants for landscaping D) using aerial sprays for crop irrigation E) watering lawns at night and landscaping with native plants

38)

7

39) All of the following are examples of point sources of pollution EXCEPT: A) an overturned tanker truck that spills into a creek.

B) a car repair shop dumping waste oil into the storm drain.

C) a large farm.

D) a sewer pipe.

E) a factory discharging wastes into a lake through a large outlet.

39)

40) You want to maintain a healthy pond at your school site. Last year, another pond became

40)

eutrophic; to avoid that, you want to ________.

A) increase the carbon-based fertilizers in the littoral zone

B) decrease the calcium available in the profundal zone C) provide nitrogen for good nutrient mixing in the benthic zone D) avoid increasing phosphorus runoff into the limnetic zone E) increase the ozone in the littoral zone 41) The fish in the lake at the local park are dying, and a professor from the local college comes to

41)

investigate. First, she measures the levels of dissolved oxygen in order to check for ________.

A) hypoxia

B) the presence of bacteria C) the presence of heavy metals D) the influence of acid precipitation E) aquatic biodiversity 42) A key characteristic of aquatic dead zones is ________.

A) a lack of water B) a high concentration of urban development C) low concentrations of nitrogen and phosphorus D) a low concentration of oxygen E) a low concentration of keystone species

42)

43) The primary effect of thermal pollution on aquatic ecosystems is ________.

A) causing a large increase in plant productivity B) depleting dissolved oxygen C) lowering the water table D) lowering the pH of the water E) increased evaporation

43)

44) Which of the following is one of the major pollutants of groundwater?

A) acid rain B) radon C) treated sewage from cities D) agricultural chemicals E) pathogenic microbes

44)

8

45) "Blue-baby" syndrome is a consequence of excess ________ in the water supply.

A) chlorine B) carbonation C) phosphates D) E. coli E) nitrates

45)

46) Pathogens and waterborne diseases enter drinking water supplies from ________.

A) oil and chemical spills B) excess nitrogen and phosphorus as agricultural runoff C) pesticides entering groundwater D) poorly treated wastewater and animal wastes from feed lots E) upwelling

46)

47) A septic system is ________.

A) an early version of a wastewater treatment plant B) the use of natural wetlands to cleanse wastewater C) a rural method of processing wastewater D) a second level mechanism to remove bacteria at a wastewater treatment plant E) a toxic or badly polluted waterway

47)

48) In a municipal wastewater treatment plant, the primary treatment step consists of ________.

A) chlorinating the sewage B) micro-filtering the sewage C) adding bacteria to the sewage D) letting sewage sit in large tanks so suspended solids settle out E) stirring the sewage to increase oxidation

48)

49) Wastewater that is stirred and aerated so that aerobic bacteria consume most of the small pieces of

49)

organic matter in the wastewater is being subjected to ________.

A) primary treatment

B) tertiary treatment C) basic treatment D) secondary treatment E) pretreatment 50) "Biosolids" produced at a wastewater treatment plant are often ________.

A) used as part of the "fill" to develop wetlands into agriculture or housing areas B) loaded onto barges and sent to underdeveloped countries to use as fertilizer C) placed in deep injection wells to keep them out of the water table D) used as crop fertilizer E) trucked to special biohazard landfills for disposal

9

50)

51) Artificial wetlands ________.

A) are created using xeriscaping methods B) can help purify water and also provide recreational opportunities C) are the major program for replacing lost natural wetlands D) are a source of arsenic contamination in Bangladesh E) purify water for use as bottled drinking water

51)

52) Currently, the greatest ecological crisis facing marine food webs is ________.

A) oil spills B) plastic dumping C) radiation D) abandoned fishing nets E) overharvesting

52)

53) Bycatch ________.

A) is the practice of returning female and young fish back to the ocean B) is fishing only at the surface of the ocean C) refers to the accidental capture of animals D) is fishing only at deep levels of the ocean E) is fishing for two species of fish concurrently

53)

54) A 2003 study reported that ________% of large-bodied fish and sharks were lost since the advent

54)

of industrialized fishing.

A) 10 B) 20

C) 50

D) 90

E) 40

55) Many present-day fishery managers ________.

A) favor short-term solutions to marine ecosystem problems B) wish to set aside areas of ocean where systems can function without human interference C) want all laws regarding fishing to be abolished D) favor protection of commercially valuable species and not others E) favor taxes on commercial fishing boats

55)

56) Most marine protected areas ________.

A) prohibit the installation if oil pipelines and fiber-optic cable lines within them B) are in the open oceans C) are along the coastlines of developed nations D) ban fishing and extractive activities E) have been established without the consent of the United States

56)

10

57) Oceans have absorbed approximately one-third of the excess carbon dioxide that humans have

57)

added to the Earth's atmosphere so far. This has slowed the progression of global climate change, but it has led to ________.

A) growth of oyster populations worldwide

B) increases in growth of coral reefs C) loss of oxygen from the oceans D) a decrease in the pH (ocean acidification) E) an increase in the pH of the world's oceans Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

The formation of sinkholes has become a fairly common phenomenon in the state of Florida. Most sinkholes are small, but some sinkholes have led to catastrophic property damage and loss of life. One September day in 1999, folks began to notice that Lake Jackson in the panhandle region was shrinking. Within a few days, it was almost gone. A sinkhole had opened beneath the lake and drained it, along with all of the fish and alligators. Another sinkhole formed just 10 miles from Walt Disney World in August 2013, swallowing a 48-unit villa at Summer Bay Resort.

As aquifers lose water, their substrates can become weaker and less capable of supporting overlying strata and any human structures built upon them. In such cases, the land surface above may subside. Sometimes subsidence can occur locally and suddenly, in the form of sinkholes, areas where the ground gives way with little warning. Once the ground subsides, soil becomes compacted, losing the porosity that enabled it to hold water. Recharging a depleted aquifer may therefore become more difficult.

58) Sinkholes can occur when ________.

A) the water in an artesian aquifer is under sufficient pressure that it breaks through to the

58)

surface

B) excessive water use lowers a water table and weakens the substrate C) too much weight above an aquifer causes it to cave in D) the water level in an aquifer rises, pushing through to the surface E) nonconsumptive use lowers an aquifer 59) Sinkholes are an extreme form of ________.

A) consumptive use B) aquifer C) water table D) subsidence E) artesian aquifer

59)

60) A serious problem that results from excessive water being withdrawn from aquifers is that

60)

________.

A) the aquifer increases in size, draining a larger surface area and leaving less water in rivers, streams, and lakes B) the aquifer decreases in size and new aquifers form

C) the soils contaminate the aquifer, making it unfit for human use D) the water tends to overflow and flood the entire area E) subsidence can occur, reducing the size of the aquifer

11

61) One reasonable way to prevent sinkholes might be to ________.

A) install supports to maintain the shape of the underground aquifer B) pump wastewater and sewage directly into the aquifer to maintain the water table C) have the local water company regularly transfer water from one local aquifer to the next,

61)

62) According to the Federal Emergency Management Agency, the number of human-induced

62)

maintaining the average water level D) pump sand and gravel into the aquifer to fill in the bottom levels, thus raising the water table E) increase groundwater recharge by constructing artificial wetlands that use treated municipal wastewater

sinkholes has doubled since 1930. Insurance claims increased 1200% from 1987 to 1991, costing nearly $100 million. A major reason for this is ________.

A) increased water consumption through development and urbanization

B) global warming C) roadway construction, leading to increased runoff D) increased rainfall, raising the water level E) decreases in agriculture 63) In July 2001, the town of Spring Hill, Florida, about 45 miles north of Tampa, had 18 sinkholes

63)

appear in a single day. The largest holes were nearly 100 feet deep. This is an indication that ________.

A) agriculture had increased, and the water table rose with irrigation recharge

B) prolonged rainstorms had recently occurred, and the water table rose C) hurricanes had recently occurred, and the water table rose D) a drought had recently occurred, along with increased development and groundwater use E) earthquakes had recently occurred, and the water table sank 64) Besides drought and water removal, which of the following might also cause the water level of an

64)

aquifer to drop?

A) creating artificial wetlands along a creek

B) paving large areas of land C) placing rain gardens where water can run off into creeks D) removing levees along a river to allow for seasonal flooding of the floodplain E) removing water-loving invasive species such as Russian olive trees ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

65) Explain the NADW in the context of global climate change.

66) Explain how warmer coastal waters resulting from global climate change may affect coral reefs.

67) Use the example of the Three Gorges Dam on China's Yangtze River to illustrate the benefits and costs associated with building dams.

12

68) Discuss the environmental, quality, and economic issues associated with the manufacture and consumption of bottled water.

69) It is estimated that by 2035 half of the people in the world will live under severe water shortages. Discuss three specific strategies for conserving water.

70) How can agricultural irrigation practices be altered to decrease loss of fresh water?

71) Define water pollution, point source pollution, and non-point-source pollution. Which of the two (point source or non-point-source) is easier to identify? Which is easier to legislate? Which currently poses the greatest threat to fresh water?

72) How can algal growth be a problem in a freshwater system?

73) Describe the benefits of artificial wetlands.

74) Discuss the impacts of human-made pollution on ocean ecosystems.

75) Summarize some of the positive effects of establishing marine reserves.

13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED17

1) D 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) C 8) E 9) C 10) C 11) A 12) E 13) B 14) E 15) A 16) B 17) E 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) C 23) E 24) B 25) B 26) C 27) E 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) C 32) C 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) D 38) E 39) C 40) D 41) A 42) D

14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED17

43) B 44) D 45) E 46) D 47) C 48) D 49) D 50) D 51) B 52) E 53) C 54) D 55) B 56) C 57) D 58) B 59) D 60) E 61) E 62) A 63) D 64) B 65) The North Atlantic Deep Water Circulation Pattern is a sort of conveyor belt that moves less salty (fresher), less dense

warmer water from the equatorial zones northward, carrying heat to higher latitudes in the Atlantic Ocean, thus moderating Europe's climate. Recently, scientists have realized that interrupting the NADW could trigger climate change. If global warming causes large portions of the Greenland ice sheet to melt, freshwater runoff into the North Atlantic would increase. Surface waters would become less dense from the dilution and warming because warm freshwater is less dense than cold saltwater. This could stop the northward flow of warm equatorial water, whereby the entire North Atlantic region, including much of Europe, could cool rapidly as a result.

66) If water temperatures increase many species of coral will eject their zooxanthellae, subsequently bleaching and dying.

Also, global climate change is strongly correlated with rising carbon dioxide levels, increasing amounts of which will dissolve in ocean waters. This produces acidification of ocean waters, and increased acidity increases the conversion of limestone, which comprises the corals' skeletal material, into soluble bicarbonate, i.e., increases the mortality of corals. On the other hand, corals may be able to colonize waters that were previously too cold for them and also move into low-elevation areas that may become flooded by expanding oceans.

67) Dams generate hydroelectric power, enable boats and barges to travel farther upstream, and provide flood control and water for irrigation. The power generation may be enough to replace dozens of large coal or nuclear plants. One of the costs of the Three Gorges Dam, aside from its $39 billion construction price tag, is that its reservoir flooded 22 cities and the homes of 1.2 million people, requiring the largest-ever resettlement project. The reservoir behind the dam also inundated archaeological sites that were 10,000 years old and submerged productive farmlands and wildlife habitat. In addition, the reservoir slows the flow of the river so much that suspended sediment settles and begins to fill the reservoir, rather than being carried to tidal marshes at the mouth of the Yangtze River. Other scientists worry about water quality, saying that the Yangtze's many pollutants will be trapped in the reservoir, making the water even more undrinkable than it already is, but the Chinese government plans to invest $5 billion into building hundreds of sewage treatment and waste-disposal facilities.

15

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED17

68) First, let's discuss some of the data on the U.S. consumption of bottled water. The average American drinks 36 gallons

of bottled water annually and pays collectively over $14 billion per year. They pay more per gallon for water than for gasoline. In 2009, a study of the energy outlays for bottled water showed that 1000 to 2000 times the energy was expended than for an equivalent amount of tap water. Most of the energy involved with bottled water is used in manufacturing the product and transporting it, and both the material for the bottlers and the energy used to transport it require fossil fuels. After use, only one in four bottles is recycled. Second, there is a measurable environmental impact from the extraction of water used for bottling. A few large corporations account for the vast majority of the manufacturing, and the withdrawal of already limited ground water is drawing public opposition from many communities. Finally, recent chemical analyses of bottled water have shown that these products are no healthier or purer than most tap water and also contain many pollutants, some of them hormone mimic plasticizers leached into the water from the bottles themselves.

69) Since approximately 70% of the water that humans use goes to irrigate agricultural crops, improved technologies that can reduce evaporation and runoff from agricultural lands are essential. Drip irrigation, a process of delivering water to the roots of individual plants through a network of perforated tubes at the soil surface, has made a significant impact in reducing evaporation and runoff. A second strategy might be to reuse municipal wastewater, recycling it to irrigate crops and/or for landscape watering. An essential consideration is to ensure that this wastewater is not contaminated with industrial by-products (heavy metals) if it is to be reused for human agriculture. Since wastewater is naturally high in nitrogen and other nutrients, using it to irrigate crops reduces the need for additional fertilizers.

Along those lines, one could also use gray water to water landscaping plants. A third strategy involves personal water conservation approaches, such as reducing shower time, using a low-flow shower head, and for home yards, using native plants that are adapted to the region where one lives, rather than exotic grasses that require large amounts of water in order to thrive.

70) Farmers can use technology to improve efficiency in a number of ways, including lining irrigation canals to prevent leaks and leveling fields to minimize runoff. Furthermore, some methods of applying irrigation water are more efficient than others. We can increase irrigation efficiency by using low-pressure spray irrigation that sprays water downward toward plants and by using drip irrigation systems that target individual plants and introduce water directly onto the soil. Both methods reduce the amount of water lost to evaporation and surface runoff. In addition, choosing crops to match the land and climate in which they are being farmed can save huge amounts of water.

Presently, crops that require a great deal of water, such as cotton, rice, and alfalfa, are often planted in hot and arid areas where irrigation is government subsidized. The true cost of water, therefore, is not taken into account as part of the costs of growing the crop. Eliminating subsidies and growing crops in climates that provide adequate rainfall could greatly reduce water use in many parts of the world. In addition, the selective breeding and/or genetic modification of crops is resulting in some varieties that require less water.

71) The term pollution describes any matter or energy released into the environment, whether from human activity or from natural sources, that causes undesirable impacts on the health and well-being of humans or other organisms.

Water pollution can be emitted from point sources single locations such as a pipe from a factory or can consist of non-point-sources multiple cumulative inputs over larger areas, such as farms, city streets, and residential neighborhoods. Point sources are easy to identify but sometimes difficult to regulate, especially if owners or supporters of industrial plants lobby politicians to pressure agencies not to enforce regulations. Non-point-source pollution is difficult to pinpoint and presents a different type of societal challenge, requiring public education and the willingness of citizens to change certain behaviors. It is non-point-source pollution that poses the greatest threat to water quality in the United States. Many common activities give rise to non-point-source water pollution, including applying fertilizers and pesticides to lawns, applying salt to roads in winter, and changing automobile oil. These activities are difficult to monitor and legislate, and they have a serious cumulative effect on our water resources.

16

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED17

72) Algae that grow too rapidly can cover the water's surface, harming the deeper-water plants that depend on sunlight

for survival. As algae die off, they provide food for decomposing bacteria. Because decomposition of organic matter requires oxygen, the increased bacterial activity drives down levels of dissolved oxygen. These levels can drop too low to support fish and shellfish, leading to dramatic changes in aquatic ecosystems and loss of biodiversity. Also, the increasing turbidity and anaerobic metabolism have a destructive effect on coastal marine communities, especially coral reefs, making these eutrophic systems unappealing to fishermen and recreational users.

73) Artificial wetlands can do the same tasks that natural wetlands perform. First, using wetlands as filtering devices helps to cleanse wastewater and some types of agricultural runoff. Wastewater treatment engineers are now manipulating wetlands and even constructing wetlands to employ them to cleanse wastewater. At the same time, these wetland areas serve as havens for wildlife and areas for human recreation. The artificial marshes can be constructed adjacent to a conventional sewage treatment plant, to filter contaminants from partially treated municipal wastewater and also to provide a wetland oasis that provides habitat for birds and wildlife. Treated water is used to irrigate city parks, schoolyards, golf courses, and median strips. Water is channeled from the marshes into recharge basins, where it is allowed to infiltrate the soil. This can help to recharge the water table in an area where groundwater has been depleted by overpumping. The practice of treating wastewater with artificial wetlands is growing fast; today over 500 artificially constructed or restored wetlands in the United States are performing this service.

74) Oceans have long been a sink for human wastes. Even into the mid-20th century, it was common for coastal cities in the United States to dump trash and pump untreated sewage onto mudflats and into embayments. Coastal dumping practices have left a toxic legacy around the United States, but marine pollution continues today including oil, plastic, industrial chemicals, sewage sludge, excess nutrients, and abandoned fishing gear. Pollutants such as crude oil are also a problem. The majority of oil pollution in the oceans comes not only from catastrophic large spills, such as the Exxon Valdez and BP's Deepwater Horizon blowout of 2010, but from cumulative small sources, including leakage from small boats and runoff from human activities on land. In addition, the amount of petroleum spilled into the oceans each year is equaled by the amount that seeps into the water from naturally occurring seafloor deposits. Pollution from petroleum products is extremely detrimental to the marine environment and the human economies that draw sustenance from that environment. The extent of this damage is only now being appreciated in the case of the Deepwater Horizon event in the Gulf of Mexico. Petroleum can physically coat and kill intertidal and free-swimming marine organisms, and ingested chemical components in petroleum can poison marine life. Plastic bags and bottles, fishing nets, gloves, fishing line, buckets, floats, abandoned cargo, and nearly everything else that humans transport on the sea or dispose into it can present problems for marine organisms and for people who depend upon the sea.

Because most plastic is not biodegradable, it can drift for decades before washing up on beaches. Some marine animals, including seabirds, fish, and endangered sea turtles, can mistake floating plastic debris for food (such as mistaking clear plastic for jellyfish), and many die as a result. Artificial pollution from fertilizer runoff or other nutrient inputs can also have dire effects on marine ecosystems, as we saw with the Gulf of Mexico's dead zone. The release of excess nutrients into surface waters can spur unusually high growth rates and population densities of phytoplankton, causing eutrophication in both freshwater and saltwater ecosystems, particularly highly productive coral reefs and coastal shallows.

75) Continuing studies of marine reserves such as those off the coast of Florida and in St. Lucia's Soufriere Marine Management Area have shown the clear benefits to fish and other marine wildlife. Besides boosting fish biomass and total catch and producing record-sized fish, marine reserves were found to produce rapid and long-term increases in abundance, diversity, and productivity of many marine organisms. They decreased mortality and habitat destruction, lessened the likelihood of extirpation of species, and "seeded the seas" because protected species spread outside the reserve area. Establishing marine reserves is challenging because marine reserves are inherently more open than terrestrial systems, making them difficult to manage and patrol, and it is clear that reserves need to be backed up by other management tools such as restrictions of commercial and sport fishing.

17

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) The figure shows that ________.

A) peak ozone levels in the stratosphere correlates with rising temperature B) ozone concentration reaches its highest level in the thermosphere C) the mesosphere and troposphere are at the same altitude D) temperature increases uniformly throughout the atmosphere E) temperature decreases uniformly throughout the atmosphere

1

1)

2) In the troposphere, ________.

A) warmest temperatures reflect an absence of ozone B) temperatures never dip below freezing C) ozone levels increase with altitude D) temperature decreases nearly linearly with altitude E) ozone levels decrease with altitude

2)

3) In the stratosphere, ________.

A) temperature and ozone concentration are inversely correlated B) ozone appears to be evenly distributed at all altitudes C) the average temperature is much lower than for the troposphere D) increases of temperature and ozone levels are strongly correlated E) temperature continues to decrease with altitude as in the troposphere

3)

4) What gas composes the largest portion of Earth's atmosphere?

A) sulfur B) argon C) nitrogen D) oxygen

4) E) ozone

5) The Earth's atmosphere is composed mostly of ________.

A) nitrogen and carbon dioxide B) water and carbon dioxide C) water and oxygen D) nitrogen and oxygen E) oxygen and carbon dioxide

5)

6) Weather occurs in the ________.

A) biosphere B) mesosphere C) lithosphere D) troposphere E) stratosphere

6)

7) Air near Earth's surface tends to be ________.

A) warmer; it rises as it is displaced by Coriolis forces B) cooler and wetter; then it rises, is warmed by the sun, and sinks again C) warmer and wetter; then it rises, expanding and cooling D) warmer and drier; then it rises, condensing and gathering moisture E) cooler and drier; it rises when it is displaced by sinking warm air

7)

2

8) Ozone in the ________ is important for absorbing and scattering much of the UV radiation coming

8)

into Earth's atmosphere from the sun.

A) mesosphere

B) clouds C) troposphere D) thermosphere E) stratosphere 9) If all of the stratospheric ozone suddenly disappeared, ________.

A) Earth's surface would warm considerably B) insects would be the only organisms to survive C) plants would flourish because of the extra solar energy reaching Earth's surface D) most life on Earth would cease to exist because of the amount of UV radiation penetrating

9)

10) Temperature increases with altitude through most of the stratosphere because ________.

A) water vapor levels are high and store heat B) sunlight is more intense in the stratosphere C) heat is released when oxygen and ozone absorb the sun's UV radiation D) greenhouse gases warm the air E) jet stream winds produce frictional heat

10)

11) Typical patterns of atmospheric conditions in a specific location over years, decades, and longer

11)

the atmosphere E) there would be a dramatic decrease in skin cancers

time periods are described by ________.

A) alignment of planets

B) sunspots C) weather D) the moon E) climate 12) Occasionally, a layer of cool air forms under a layer of warmer air in the troposphere. This change from the normal temperature profile in the troposphere is called a ________.

A) cold front

B) tornado or supercell C) temperature or thermal inversion D) temperature or thermal subversion E) low-pressure system

3

12)

13) Near the equator, the patterns of convection currents are called ________.

A) Coriolis cells B) high-pressure cells C) El Niño events D) Hadley cells E) Ferrel cells

13)

14) The Coriolis effect ________.

A) is caused by the moon B) results in seasonal periods of 24-hour darkness at the poles in winter C) is caused by Earth's rotation D) keeps the wind circulating at constant speed around the planet E) keeps Earth from spinning too fast

14)

15) The Coriolis effect contributes to ________.

A) a reduction in eutrophication B) global warming C) global wind patterns D) an increase in eutrophication E) increased acidic deposition

15)

16) Natural sources of air pollution include ________.

A) internal combustion engines B) soil dust, wildfires, and volcanic dust C) evaporation of solvents D) coal-fired electrical plants E) birds

16)

17) The huge dust storms that took place in the United States in the 1930s ________.

A) were the result of poor farming techniques B) were the result of ozone depletion C) were triggered by tornados, worsened by global climate change D) were the result of glacier melt E) were the result of polar cells

17)

18) Residence time is the ________.

A) chemical change that occurs with time, when substances are altered by the sun or

18)

metabolized by microorganisms B) length of time it takes to produce toxic chemicals in the environment

C) length of time it takes for chemicals to be stored in the tissues of living organisms D) chemical change that occurs with time, when substances alter the growth and development of humans

E) length of time a pollutant spends in the environment

4

19) Which of the following pollutants has the longest residence time?

A) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) B) SO2 C) NO D) NO2 E) CO

19)

20) Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?

A) nitrogen oxide B) carbon monoxide C) sulfur dioxide D) ozone E) radon

20)

21) Carbon monoxide ________.

A) is a major component of the atmosphere B) blocks oxygen transport in human blood C) is consumed by plants for photosynthesis D) is produced by plants during photosynthesis E) causes ozone depletion

21)

22) Lead pollution is a problem because lead ________.

A) is a precious metal and it is being lost to the atmosphere B) causes excess nutrification of waterways, resulting in eutrophication C) causes central nervous system damage in humans D) will cause the ozone hole to increase E) can become attached to radon

22)

23) In 1970, ________ was/were the source of most of the airborne lead emissions in the United States.

A) gasoline B) pencil factories C) coal-burning power plants D) paint E) water pipes

23)

24) In the United States, which of the following has decreased since 1980?

A) air pollution emissions B) energy consumption C) vehicle miles traveled D) gross domestic product (GDP) E) population

24)

5

25) A(n) ________ is a device designed to remove airborne pollutants from smokestack emissions.

A) boiler B) scrubber C) coal washer D) tall stack E) air filter

25)

26) The decrease in NOx emissions in the United States from 1970 to 2014 can be partially attributed

26)

to which of the following?

A) the use of catalytic converters in motor vehicles

B) the use of scrubbers in motor vehicles C) a decrease in the amount of nitrogen in the atmosphere D) a decrease in vehicle miles traveled E) a decrease in the amount of energy consumed 27) Tropospheric ozone ________.

A) is caused by poor farming techniques B) is a primary pollutant C) binds with hemoglobin, preventing binding with oxygen in red blood cells D) is produced through the interaction of heat and UV light, with nitrogen oxides and

27)

carbon-containing compounds

E) protects Earth from most of the harmful UV radiation 28) When coal or oil is burned, some part of it is completely combusted, forming CO2; another part is

28)

partially combusted, forming CO (carbon monoxide); and some remains unburned and is released as soot. Along with sulfur dioxide, these are the main components of ________.

A) industrial smog

B) particulates C) CFCs D) photochemical smog E) ozone 29) The most obvious cause of industrial smog is ________.

A) fires for heating food B) generation of nuclear power C) burning fossil fuels D) burning trash E) indoor air pollution

6

29)

30) Photochemical smog differs from industrial smog in that it ________.

A) is primarily composed of carbon monoxide B) is formed only in the presence of sunlight C) consists of primary pollutants D) is an unhealthy mixture of pollutants E) has large quantities of soot

30)

31) ________ is/are not yet regulated by the EPA. A) Ozone B) Carbon dioxide C) Sulfur and nitrogen oxides D) Carbon monoxide E) Lead

31)

32) You have been hired by a rapidly growing small city to improve the air quality, which has

32)

deteriorated in the past 10 years. Which of the following is most likely to be your first suggestion?

A) investigate the large city downwind whose factories produce large amounts of pollution

B) remove the hydroelectric dam on the river C) decrease the amount of CFCs used locally D) move or close the cattle feed lots near the river E) improve transportation options, including carpool lanes, buses, and light rail 33) In the 1970s, sources of CFC pollution in the United States included all of the following EXCEPT: A) aerosol spray cans.

B) coal-burning power plants.

C) air conditioners.

D) refrigerators.

E) polystyrene manufacturing plants.

33)

34) One of the problems that occur as a consequence of CFC pollution is ________.

A) increased rates of skin cancer in humans B) accelerated damage to human red blood cells C) the eutrophication of waterways D) increased rates of respiratory irritation and lung cancer E) the movement of toxins into lakes and rivers, poisoning fish

34)

35) The Montreal Protocol ________.

A) is an example of a failed attempt to reduce international air pollution B) addressed transnational movement of acid-forming pollutants C) developed the international treaty for eliminating sulfur emissions from nuclear power

35)

plants

D) resulted in significant reduction in the production of CFCs by signatory nations E) developed the framework for reduction of carbon dioxide in the United States and Canada

7

36) The goal of the Montreal Protocol was to ________.

A) micromanage the actions of the United States B) prevent tropospheric ozone depletion C) prevent global warming D) prevent stratospheric ozone depletion E) slow global climate change

36)

37) The primary cause(s) of acid deposition is/are ________.

A) soil dust and sand B) sulfur and nitrogen oxides C) tropospheric ozone D) carbon monoxide and formaldehyde E) radon gas and fuel wood smoke

37)

38) Which of the following is a consequence of acidic deposition?

A) It results in offshore eutrophication, damaging coral reefs.

B) It leaches out important minerals from soils.

C) It creates rainwater that can damage skin cells or cause cancers.

D) It increases the likelihood of low-lying ground fogs.

E) It is increasing the rate of global warming.

38)

39) The Acid Rain Program established under the Clean Air Act of 1990 has been successful in

39)

reducing emissions of sulfur dioxide and ________.

A) lead

B) nitrogen oxides C) CFCs D) carbon monoxide E) carbon dioxide 40) Today, ________ has the worst acid deposition problem, primarily because of ________.

A) Sweden; methane emissions from cattle and natural gas heating B) China; coal-fired electrical and industrial plants C) Tehran; burning fuel wood D) European Union nations; tropospheric ozone E) the United States; soil dust aerosols

40)

41) In developed countries, the two most deadly sources of indoor pollution are ________.

A) radiation from electronic equipment and pesticides B) radon and cigarette smoke C) pesticides and cigarette smoke D) synthetic furniture materials and radiation from electronic equipment E) pesticides and cleaning agents

41)

8

42) ________ is a naturally occurring radioactive gas that may cause lung cancer.

A) Radon B) Carbon monoxide C) Helium D) Secondhand smoke E) Hydrogen sulfide

42)

43) Radon ________.

A) is formed by the breakdown of the ozone layer B) may cause lung cancer when inhaled C) contributes to the breakdown of the ozone layer D) in the atmosphere limits the availability of sunlight for plants E) binds with hemoglobin, preventing binding with oxygen

43)

44) Bacteria and fungal spores can be included as ________.

A) a cause of high pesticide use in the home B) problems in degrading the ozone layer C) VOCs and POPs D) sources of radon in the home E) causes of building-related illness

44)

45) A great deal of indoor air pollution comes from ________.

A) cooking with natural gas stoves B) washing dishes C) carpets, furniture, and laser printers D) outdoor pollution E) carbon monoxide

45)

9

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

Thousands of young families moved "over the hills" and into the San Fernando Valley, a suburb of Los Angeles, after World War II. New neighborhoods were springing up, replacing orange groves and open space; roads and schools quickly sprang into existence, trying to keep pace with the rapid population growth. Ringed by beautiful mountains, the entire Los Angeles basin looked like a new, green, sun-filled paradise to the families seeking a fresh start. In the early 1950s, one of the common family chores in Los Angeles was to carry the trash out to the stone incinerator behind the garage where each family burned all of their dry trash. "Wet" garbage was collected and taken to a city dump, where it was burned by the city. Everyone throughout the city either used an incinerator or burned things in an open trash pile; there were over 400,000 backyard trash incinerators. On warm afternoons, eyes would sometimes sting and burn. People would stop, close their eyes, and let the cleansing tears refresh irritated eyes. They accepted this as a normal part of life in sunny California.

46) Part of the reason that people's eyes would sting was ________.

A) the plastics and chemicals in the burning trash B) the carbon monoxide from the burning trash C) the smoke and particulates from the burning trash D) the lead emissions from the burning trash E) the excess water vapor from the burning trash

46)

47) In the 1950s, Los Angeles became famous for its smog. Which of the following contributed to the

47)

smog problem?

A) heavy industry along the coastline

B) pollution from the dams on the Colorado River C) natural gas leaks from wells D) dust from inland farms E) the increase in the number of automobiles 48) One key to the puzzle of Los Angeles's smog is the fact that ________.

A) the Hadley cell for that area drops cool air, and pollution, right over Los Angeles B) Los Angeles and its suburbs are all ringed by mountains C) incoming tides in the harbor push air pollution ahead of them D) there are so many rainy days, increasing the acidic deposition E) the offshore breezes carry inland pollution to coastal Los Angeles

48)

49) The Los Angeles smog problem is made much worse by ________.

A) the onshore breezes, which prevent pollution from dispersing B) the high cloud levels, which deplete the local ozone layer C) the convection cells, which bring pollutants from other cities D) the foggy climate, which leads to acidic deposition E) nearby mountains and the warm sunshine, which cause inversion layers

49)

10

50) A combination of events and situations, including Los Angeles' smog problem, led to Congress

50)

passing the ________ in 1963. This legislation and its major amendments in 1970 and 1990 fund research into pollution control, set standards for air quality, and encourage emissions standards for automobiles and point sources such as industrial plants. They also impose limits on emissions from new sources, fund a national air quality monitoring system, and enable citizens to sue parties violating the standards.

A) California Air Act

B) Air Pollution Control Act C) Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act D) Clean Air Act E) Environmental Protection Act 51) In 1958 trash collection programs were established, and backyard incinerators were banned in the

51)

hope of reducing smog. However, it was estimated that massive amounts of gasoline were evaporating from storage tanks, fuel pump nozzles, and delivery trucks. This was also considered a serious contributor to smog, and over the next 20 years, several new rules and several new devices were put in place to alleviate it. There was still a great deal of smog, now identified as photochemical smog, despite the changes. The major remaining problem was ________.

A) the large distances driven daily by solitary commuters

B) the influx of new manufacturing, with new chemicals C) backyard trash incineration D) too many coal-fired power plants along the coast E) insufficient city funding to improve waste dumps ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

52) Using the examples of Tehran and Los Angeles, discuss the special problems that vehicles create for urban outdoor air pollution.

53) Discuss the objective, and the success, of the 1987 Montreal Protocol. To what factors do scientists attribute its success?

54) Define acid deposition, and explain its causes and effects.

55) Why is indoor pollution still such a large problem in developed nations? What are the most dangerous indoor pollutants in developing and developed nations?

11

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED18

1) A 2) D 3) D 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) C 8) E 9) D 10) C 11) E 12) C 13) D 14) C 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) E 19) A 20) D 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) D 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) B 32) E 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) B 39) B 40) B 41) B 42) A

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED18

43) B 44) E 45) C 46) C 47) E 48) B 49) E 50) D 51) A 52) Tehran and Los Angeles are cities that have one important thing in common, photochemical smog. Photochemical

smog is a mixture of primary (nitrogen oxides and VOCs) and secondary pollutants (tropospheric ozone and more than 100 different toxic derivatives from their interaction in the presence of solar UV light). Both cities have geographic conditions that promote the formation of thermal inversions which can trap the smog near the ground for long periods of time and produce dangerously high concentrations of pollutants. The result is an assault of human respiratory systems that in both cities causes thousands to die premature deaths.

Los Angeles has greatly improved the levels of smog by developing mass transit and by requiring strict pollution control technologies on vehicles. Expensive gasoline has made fuel-efficient vehicles popular. In Tehran, until recently, very cheap gasoline was available to all, and millions of inefficient, gas-guzzling vehicles, most without any pollution control devices, produce smog that was typical of the Los Angeles area 30 years ago. Tehran city leaders now require vehicle inspections, regulate traffic into the city center, and pay drivers to turn in old, polluting cars for newer, cleaner ones. They reduced sulfur in diesel fuel and converted buses to run on natural gas. To raise public awareness, electronic billboards were installed around the city, displaying current pollutant levels. All these efforts helped reduce pollution, but stronger measures became necessary, so officials lowered gasoline subsidies, rationed fuel, and began expanding the subway.

53) The objective of the Montreal Protocol was to reduce the use of CFCs, which were contributing to the growth of the ozone hole, and which, subsequently, would increase the probability of humans developing skin cancer. The world community came together in 1987 to craft the Montreal Protocol, which has now been signed by over 180 nations. At this convention, nations agreed to cut CFC production in half. Today, the production and use of ozone-depleting compounds has fallen 95% since the late 1980s, and scientists can discern the beginnings of long-term recovery of the ozone layer. For these reasons, the Montreal Protocol and its follow-up amendments are widely considered to be the biggest success story thus far in addressing a global environmental problem. Environmental scientists have attributed this success primarily to scientific research that proceeded rapidly and used the latest technologies and to government and industry working together to develop technological fixes and replacement chemicals. Finally, the process successfully followed an adaptive management approach, which allowed for changing strategies midstream in response to new scientific data, technological advances, or economic figures.

54) Acidic deposition refers to the wet or dry deposition of acidic or acid-forming pollutants. This can take place either by precipitation (primarily acid rain, but also including acid snow, sleet, and hail), by fog, by gases, or by the deposition of dry particles. Acidic deposition comes primarily from sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, pollutants produced largely through fossil fuel combustion by automobiles, electric utilities, and industrial facilities. Once emitted into the troposphere, these pollutants can react with water, oxygen, and oxidants to produce compounds of low pH. Droplets of these acids may travel hundreds or thousands of kilometers. Acidic deposition can have wide-ranging, cumulative, detrimental effects on ecosystems and on our built environment. It leaches basic minerals such as calcium and magnesium from the soil, changing soil chemistry and harming plants and soil organisms.

Streams, rivers, and lakes may become significantly acidified from runoff. Some forests in eastern North America have experienced widespread tree dieback from these conditions. Acidic precipitation also may damage stone buildings, eat away at cars, and erase the writing from tombstones.

13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED18

55) Indoor air pollution was not recognized as a problem until fairly recently. The 1970 U.S. Clean Air Act did not even

mention indoor air pollution; rather, indoor spaces were assumed to be safe havens from outdoor pollution. Even smoke from indoor fires was viewed merely as a nuisance, in the absence of data showing it to cause health problems.

Furthermore, actions to seal buildings to improve energy efficiency have resulted in decreased ventilation of indoor air pollutants to the outdoors. Some of the biggest indoor air pollution problems come from dust, dander, and mites, as well as toxins given off by furniture and rugs. The two most dangerous indoor pollutants in developed nations are cigarette smoke and radon, but VOCs and microorganisms also play significant roles. In developing nations, the biggest problems are soot and carbon monoxide resulting from burning fuelwood. International health research estimates that 7% of all deaths in developing nations are attributed to these factors.

14

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the above figure to answer the following question(s).

1) The best fit between observed and model data is shown by the model that ________.

A) incorporates only natural factors B) emphasizes natural factors over anthropogenic factors C) incorporates observed global temperature changes D) incorporates both natural and anthropogenic factors E) reflects both observed and predicted temperature changes

1)

2) On average, how much warmer were global temperatures in the year 2000 than temperatures

2)

predicted by the climate change model that incorporates only natural factors?

A) Average global temperatures were about the same as temperatures predicted by the model.

B) 0.2C C) 0.6C D) 0.9C E) 1.1C

1

3) If anthropogenic factors continue to increase, then in the future ________.

A) the lines for all three models should level out B) all of the lines will look more like the line for observed data C) the observed temperature trends shown in the figures should continue D) the lines for all three models and for observed data should show marked decreases E) the lines for all three models should show decreases while the observation line would be

3)

4) According to the graph, how much warmer on average were global temperatures in the year 2000

4)

expected to increase

than in the year 1900?

A) Average global temperatures were about the same both years.

B) 0.3C C) 0.6C D) 0.9C E) 1.2C

5) What proportion of incoming solar radiation reaches Earth's surface?

A) 7% B) 47% C) 54% D) 67%

2

5) E) 77%

6) The greenhouse effect involves warming of Earth's surface and the ________.

A) thermosphere B) mesosphere C) troposphere D) ionosphere E) stratosphere

6)

7) The atmosphere around Earth can cause global warming because ________.

A) fossil fuels release heat B) warm air cannot escape, as in a greenhouse C) plants release CO2 D) plants absorb CO2 E) molecules in the atmosphere are warmed by radiation from Earth and retain that heat

7)

Use the above figure to answer the following question(s).

8) Which of the following greenhouse gases has/have experienced at least a 50% increase in

8)

atmospheric concentration since 1750?

A) carbon dioxide only

B) carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide C) nitrous oxide only D) methane only E) carbon dioxide and methane 9) Of the following greenhouse gases, ________ concentrations have increased by the greatest percentage since 1750.

A) carbon dioxide

B) ozone C) nitrous oxide D) water vapor E) methane

3

9)

10) Carbon dioxide is ________.

A) more potent (per molecule of gas) than methane B) produced during the combustion of fossil fuels C) the most abundant greenhouse gas D) the only greenhouse gas presently increasing in the atmosphere E) the most potent (per molecule of gas) of the greenhouse gases

10)

11) Carbon-based fuels in the lithosphere ________.

A) are readily lost from Earth's surface in the absence of humans B) have been slowly sequestered over many millions of years C) will be lost before the end of the decade D) are formed from the deposition, partial decay, and compression of inorganic matter E) cannot be lost to the atmosphere by human processes once stabilized on Earth's surface

11)

12) Human sources of nitrous oxide in the atmosphere include all of the following EXCEPT: A) chemical manufacturing plants.

B) synthetic nitrogen fertilizers.

C) feedlots.

D) automobiles.

E) burning fuel wood.

12)

13) Growing rice results in the release of ________ into the atmosphere.

A) methane B) sulfur oxides C) ozone D) sulfate aerosols E) nitrous dioxide

13)

14) All of the following are anthropogenic factors contributing to climate change EXCEPT: A) the combustion of fossil fuels.

B) raising livestock.

C) deforestation.

D) breathing.

E) growing rice.

14)

15) Soot particles ("black carbon aerosols") generally cause ________ of Earth's atmosphere by

15)

________ solar energy.

A) cooling; radiating

B) cooling; absorbing C) warming; reflecting D) cooling; reflecting E) warming; absorbing

4

16) The oceans hold ________ carbon than the atmosphere.

A) 5 times more B) 1000 times less C) 50 times more D) 10,000 times more E) 10,000 times less

16)

17) Which of the following may result in a positive feedback mechanism that would intensify climate

17)

change?

A) At higher temperatures, trees increase rates of photosynthesis.

B) A large volcano emits huge quantities of sulfate aerosols into the atmosphere.

C) An increase in rainfall results in increased plant growth.

D) Warmer temperatures result in increased evaporation of water, leading to an increase in cloud cover.

E) Warmer temperatures result in the melting of permafrost.

18) Milankovitch cycles ________.

A) describe the timing of the northern lights in the thermosphere B) refer to shifts in the temperature of surface water in the middle latitudes of the Pacific

18)

Ocean C) are changes in Earth's rotation and orbit that may trigger climate variation

D) describe upwelling and downwelling in the ocean E) describe the transpiration, evaporation, and precipitation of Earth's water 19) Recent research indicates that the variation in solar output ________.

A) is the major factor driving temperature change B) is more than 20 watts/m2 C) is greater than all the anthropogenic factors affecting climate change D) is less than any of the anthropogenic factors affecting climate change E) will increase by a hundredfold over the next century

19)

20) The most recent analyses of polar ice cores have given us the ability to profile global climate

20)

change as far back as ________ years.

A) 800,000

B) 1000 C) 100,000 D) 300,000,000 E) 50,000 21) Evidence from polar ice core analysis shows that, until now, carbon dioxide levels have never exceeded ________ ppm in the last several hundred thousand years.

A) 25 B) 200 C) 300 D) 1000

5

E) 500

21)

22) Keeling's reports from Mauna Loa demonstrated ________.

A) that as distances from cities decreased, CO2 concentrations increased B) an increase in tropospheric CO2 from the 1950s to present C) that CO2 levels have been stable over the last 40 years D) the presence of El Niño E) that sediments deposited on the seafloor can yield clues about past climates

22)

23) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change is an international panel that ________.

A) could not achieve its objectives because of lack of popular support B) performed the research included in the climate change findings C) fines companies that pollute D) constructed the Kyoto Protocol E) reports on how climate change influences wildlife, ecosystems, and society

23)

24) Which of the following states is expected to experience the greatest increase in temperature by the

24)

year 2100?

A) Hawaii

B) California C) Alaska D) Iowa E) Florida 25) Small island nations such as the Maldives are in the international spotlight because they ________.

A) are the largest emissions producers in their respective areas B) are accepting climate change refugees from other nations C) have exceeded the emissions reductions set by the Kyoto Protocol D) opposed China's proposals for global carbon neutrality at the Copenhagen Conference in

25)

2009

E) may be among the first nations to be completely flooded by rising sea levels 26) Roughly ________% of U.S. citizens live in coastal counties and are thus vulnerable to rises in sea

26)

level.

A) 10

B) 95

C) 83

D) 50

27) Rising sea levels result in all of the following EXCEPT: A) more dangerous storm surges.

B) saltwater contamination of drinking water supplies.

C) ocean acidification.

D) increased flooding from hurricanes.

E) increased beach erosion.

6

E) 20 27)

28) Which of the following is an adaptation response to climate change?

A) increasing fuel efficiency of new automobiles B) replacing incandescent light bulbs with LED bulbs C) replanting a tropical rainforest D) a Pacific island nation building higher seawalls E) building a nuclear power plant to replace an outdated coal-burning power plant

28)

29) Which of the following technologies is currently allowing us to decrease carbon emissions from

29)

automobiles?

A) the internal combustion engine

B) wind-powered vehicles C) solar cars D) hydrogen fuel cells E) nuclear cars 30) Hydrogen fuel cells, biodiesel, and long-term electric batteries are potential solutions to ________.

A) carbon sequestration B) reducing carbon emissions from cars and trucks C) cutting back the carbon emissions from hydroelectric plants D) replacing coal as a major fuel for generating electricity E) cap-and-trade emission control

30)

31) Over ________% of the fuel you pump into your automobile does something other than move

31)

your vehicle down the road.

A) 85 B) 45

C) 65

D) 25

E) 55

32) Hydroelectric power generation ________.

A) uses fuel cells to generate electricity B) produces high quantities of greenhouse gases C) is an alternative to fossil fuels that produces fewer greenhouse gases D) produces pollutants that contribute significantly to acid precipitation E) has no undesirable environmental effects

32)

33) Which of the following are market mechanisms for addressing climate change?

A) carbon neutrality and carbon aggression policies B) international treaties from global conferences C) mitigation and adaptation D) carbon taxes and fee-and-dividend benefits E) cap-and-trade and carbon offsets

33)

7

34) The U.S. Senate has so far opposed emissions reductions on the grounds that ________.

A) it might hurt the economy B) no other nations have pledged reductions C) the United States already has reduced its emissions by 68% as agreed in the Copenhagen

34)

treaty D) President Obama rejected the scientific basis of global climate change

E) the United States does not emit significant amounts of greenhouse gases 35) The Kyoto Protocol ________.

A) required equal concessions from all countries involved in greenhouse gas emission B) would have resulted in overall increases in greenhouse emissions C) increased federal funding for controlling greenhouse gas emissions from U.S. power plants D) required increases in nuclear power generation E) was intended to reduce emissions of six greenhouse gases to levels lower than those of 1990

35)

36) The Kyoto Protocol uses the 1990 emission levels of each nation as a baseline target for greenhouse

36)

gas reductions. Which of the following countries showed the greatest increase in greenhouse gas emissions from 1990 to 2014?

A) Japan

B) Australia C) Canada D) United States E) Russia 37) The Kyoto Protocol is to carbon dioxide as the Montreal Protocol is to ________.

A) halocarbons B) carbon monoxide C) ozone D) nitrous oxide E) methane

37)

38) In the wake of the U.S. failure to ratify the Kyoto Protocol ________.

A) dozens of other nations pulled out of the Protocol B) oil exporting nations have refused to sell to the United States C) the United States has shown that it is a leader in carbon emission reduction without having

38)

signed the Protocol D) many nations have severed diplomatic relations with the United States

E) U.S. cities and states are setting their own programs for reducing greenhouse gas emissions

8

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change reports that physical, biological, and economic evidence exists confirming global climate change due to human-produced greenhouse gases. Although the United States emits most of Earth's carbon dioxide, its policies do not reflect concern over its environmental effects. The United States failed to ratify the Kyoto Protocol, an international agreement signed by other developed nations to reduce carbon dioxide emissions. Requested voluntary reductions of carbon dioxide emissions have not been effective in reducing greenhouse gases. Revisions to the 1970 Clean Air Act, called the "Clear Skies Initiative," were proposed to limit mercury, nitric oxides, and sulfur oxide emissions from power plants. Nicknamed by Robert F. Kennedy, Jr., as the "Clear Lies Initiative," this proposal did not specifically address emission of carbon dioxide, and its loopholes precluded older power plants from modernizing, seemingly supporting polluting industries with political influence.

Environmentalists are arguing for immediate action, including stricter laws to limit power plant carbon dioxide emissions and subsidies for renewable energy. They favor "portfolio standards," requiring electric companies to provide clean energy alternatives to consumers and "green tags," "wind certificates," and "green pricing" to support the use of alternative fuels.

39) The United States should enact laws slowing global climate change because ________.

A) no other nations have initiated efforts to slow global climate change B) U.S. industry supports the legislation C) the United States is a major source of the problem D) effects of global climate change are most significant in the United States E) the United States is the most populous nation on Earth

39)

40) Environmentalists and scientists advocate immediate intervention regarding global climate

40)

change because ________.

A) they are concerned about future global economic losses that will result from climate change

B) most are Cornucopians C) they fear the consequences of inaction caused by lack of full scientific certainty D) most live in areas that are already seriously affected by global climate change E) they favor anthropocentric ethical principles 41) One factor contributing to U.S. resistance to legal intervention regarding global climate change is

41)

________.

A) the precautionary principle

B) lack of support from other developed nations around the world C) political influence of the petroleum, coal, and automobile industries D) the success of voluntary reductions of carbon dioxide emissions by U.S. power plants E) lack of scientific evidence supporting global climate change 42) Why do environmentalists and scientists advocate stricter laws to limit power plant carbon dioxide emissions and subsidies for renewable energy?

A) These industries export goods to all other nations on Earth.

B) Fossil fuel industries produce the most greenhouse gases.

C) No laws currently exist to regulate these industries.

D) Power companies do not have labor unions that oppose legal restrictions.

E) Environmentalists do not want to anger farmers, even though agriculture produces the most carbon dioxide.

9

42)

43) Which of the following is an alternative fuel that could decrease carbon dioxide emissions in the

43)

transportation sector?

A) gasoline

B) nuclear fuel rods C) coal D) vaporized water E) compressed natural gas ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

44) Briefly explain why water vapor may either contribute to or slow global warming.

45) Why is the concept of radiative forcing critical to understanding the causes of global climate change?

46) Distinguish between the terms weather and climate, and briefly discuss how the understanding of these terms can affect public understanding about climate change.

47) How can scientists learn about climatic history?

48) Explain how climate change can affect agriculture and forestry.

49) Describe how freshwater ecosystems face challenges of global climate change.

50) Explain how human health may be positively and negatively affected by global climate change.

51) How certain are scientists that humans are causing global climate change? Describe the language used by

scientists and some of the particular climate trends they have identified. Why is there still debate about global climate change?

10

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED19

1) D 2) C 3) C 4) D 5) C 6) C 7) E 8) D 9) E 10) B 11) B 12) E 13) A 14) D 15) E 16) C 17) E 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) E 24) C 25) E 26) D 27) C 28) D 29) D 30) B 31) A 32) C 33) E 34) A 35) E 36) B 37) A 38) E 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) B

11

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED19

43) E 44) If temperatures continue to rise, the oceans and other water bodies could transfer increasingly more water vapor into

the atmosphere. This positive feedback could amplify the greenhouse effect. Alternatively, increased atmospheric water vapor could increase cloudiness, which could slow global warming by reflecting more incoming solar radiation back into space.

45) Radiative forcing is the amount of change in thermal energy units (watts/square meter on the earth's surface) caused by a given factor. This allows a quantitative scientific evaluation of the many variables that make up the equation of the earth's heat balance. The variables include solar output, ocean absorption, ocean circulation, changes in albedo, Milankovitch cycles, aerosols and anthropogenic factors. Positive values indicate a warming effect, while negative values have a cooling effect. This analytical approach strengthens the scientific conclusions drawn about the relative importance of each variable contributing to climate change.

46) Weather describes short-term atmospheric conditions such as temperature, moisture content, wind, precipitation, barometric pressure, solar radiation, and other characteristics. Climate is an area's long-term pattern of atmospheric conditions. Confusion of these two concepts leads to a great deal of public misconception about the nature of global climate change. Thus, a cold winter in New England or Florida may be reported as proof that global climate change is not a valid concept, or an unusually hot summer may exaggerate the long-term processes of climate change.

47) Scientists can directly measure gases known to change climate. They also can use models such as coupled general circulation models. They can drill into Earth's ice caps and glaciers to extract cores of ice, which contain trapped air bubbles of the ancient atmosphere. Atmospheric gases, temperature trends, precipitation, and solar activity can be determined from these bubbles. Scientists also collect cones of sediments at lake bottoms, which contain pollen and other plant remnants that can indicate regional climate. Plant fossils of cones, tree stems, and bark indicate vegetational and climatological history of local areas. Charcoal indicates where forest fires may have occurred. Ice core analysis has given information about climate more than 800,000 years ago, while sediment, charcoal, and other plant remains give data about more recent times.

48) The overall effect of a warmer climate on agricultural productivity is difficult to predict because the effect will vary regionally. Productivity might increase in some areas and decrease in others. Some croplands already stressed by heat and water availability could be pushed beyond their ability to produce food. If average temperatures increase by more than a few degrees, most tropical and subtropical areas will likely see decreased crop production, and farmlands in mid-latitudes may begin to see significant declines. Conversely, warmer temperatures could potentially lead to longer growing seasons and increase agricultural productivity at higher latitudes. In addition, temperate areas that begin to experience a more subtropical climate may see the invasion of more tropical crop pests into regions that have not experienced them before. Plants need warmth and carbon to grow. Forests may become more productive because additional carbon dioxide can act as a fertilizer, although the data from the FACE projects suggest that this may be less than previously expected. The frequency and intensity of drought and forest fires could increase. Forest communities could in general move northward and upward in elevation as temperature and moisture levels change.

Finally, both agricultural and forest systems may experience changes in pollinator populations that could affect the abundance and distribution of many plant species.

49) In regions where climate change increases precipitation and stream flow, erosion and flooding could threaten the structure and function of aquatic systems. Where human activities have altered the landscape, flooding could bring increased pollution. In regions where precipitation decreases, water bodies could shrink, affecting organisms in these habitats, as well as human health and well-being. Also, low-lying coastal wetlands, such as the Florida Everglades and Gulf coast marshlands, will very likely make a transition either to brackish water ecosystems or even marine ecosystems as seal levels rise.

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED19

50) People may face increased likelihood of exposure to some health risks due to global climate change. These risks

include heat stress, infectious diseases resulting from flooding and failed sewage systems, the movement of disease vectors such as malarial mosquitoes into new warmer and wetter areas, and injuries due to increased storm frequency and intensity. A warmer world might, however, present fewer cold-related diseases and injuries such as hypothermia and famine. In addition, there are the obvious health problems that will arise as agriculture and water supplies gradually fail in some populated areas, producing refugees who will need to be supplied with food, water, and medical treatment.

51) Nearly all environmental scientists agree that Earth's atmosphere and climate are changing. Most environmental scientists have concluded that human activity, particularly the emission of greenhouse gases, is the primary reason for this change. Scientists express conclusions as probabilities, so reports are often written in language that the lay public may interpret as uncertain. Particular climate trends include changes in surface temperature, snow and ice cover, rising sea level and warmer oceans, and alterations to precipitation intensity and patterns. Scientists debate some of the exact mechanisms, how the mechanisms interact in making predictive models, and the extent of the effects of global climate change on humans. The debate continues over how to address climate change in political and economic arenas. There is sometimes discourse among scientists, economists, business leaders, policymakers, and others over these issues because some critics of human-induced global climate change have a vested interest in continuing the widespread use of fossil fuels, and they may purposively cast doubt on scientific findings.

Furthermore, some greenhouse skeptics and scientists are funded by industries such as the coal, petroleum, and auto industries that benefit from fossil fuel use. Some of these skeptics have considerable sway over policymakers, particularly in the United States. Finally, there is continuing confusion, often in popular media, between short-term "weather" events and the long-term processes of climate change. So, for example, an unusually cold winter in some areas is often reported as a contradiction to scientific evidence for anthropogenic factors contributing to global climate change.

13

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) Of the five countries shown, ________ have essentially no domestic oil production.

A) Japan and Germany B) the United States and Germany C) Iran and Saudi Arabia D) Germany and the United States E) Japan and the United States

1)

2) The country with the greatest differential between domestic production and total consumption is

2)

________.

A) the United States

B) Germany C) Saudi Arabia D) Japan E) Iran

1

3) The country with the largest amount of domestic oil available for sale on the international market

3)

is ________.

A) Iran

B) Germany C) the United States D) Japan E) Saudi Arabia 4) Of the following countries, ________ would be affected most severely by another OPEC oil

4)

embargo.

A) the United States

B) Germany C) Saudi Arabia D) Japan E) Iran 5) When assessing energy resources, it is helpful to use a measure called EROI, which is ________.

A) energy returned minus energy invested B) money invested in extraction and processing minus income from sales C) amount of energy invested minus heat released into the environment D) energy returned divided by energy invested E) energy returned plus energy invested

5)

6) All of the following, are forms of renewable energy EXCEPT: A) coal.

B) geothermal.

C) solar.

D) tidal.

E) wind.

6)

7) All of the following are fossil fuels EXCEPT: A) tar sands.

B) coal.

C) oil.

D) uranium.

E) natural gas.

7)

8) The world's most abundant fossil fuel is ________.

A) biodiesel B) methane C) coal D) oil E) natural gas

8)

2

9) Natural gas is primarily composed of ________.

A) sulfur dioxide B) methane C) nitrite D) oxygen E) nitrogen

9)

10) Crude oil is ________.

A) formed less than 100 yards below the surface; in deeper places with more pressure, coal is

10)

formed

B) formed in a wide range of temperature and pressure circumstances C) refined to separate the chemicals used for gasoline, lubricants, plastics, and other products D) composed of less than ten different hydrocarbon molecules E) usable in its raw form 11) What happens at an oil refinery?

A) Oil is heated to high temperatures to evaporate off harmful impurities such as radon.

B) Oil is microfiltered to remove small dirt and rock particles.

C) Oil is separated into its component compounds.

D) Oil is turned into a cleaner-burning material called synfuel.

E) Oil is made more viscous by evaporating off most of the water.

11)

12) All of the following are standard steps at a coal-fired power plant in the United States EXCEPT: A) heating.

B) cooling.

C) carbon capture.

D) rotation of a turbine.

E) pulverization of coal.

12)

13) Which of the following is the most cleanly burning fossil fuel available, producing the least carbon

13)

dioxide per unit of energy released?

A) natural gas

B) kerosene C) petroleum D) nuclear energy E) coal 14) Which country leads the world in coal production and consumption by extracting and consuming approximately half of the world's annual coal yield?

A) Russia

B) China C) India D) United States E) Canada

3

14)

15) Coal continues to be the main fuel used to generate electricity in the United States. This is partially

15)

because ________.

A) the country has such large reserves of coal

B) coal causes almost no air pollution when burned C) compared to natural gas and oil, coal contains very few impurities, such as sulfur D) the quality of coal in the United States is very consistent from deposit to deposit E) coal deposits in the United States lie very close to the surface and are easily extracted 16) Secondary extraction of petroleum ________.

A) allows the oil to be extracted to the last drop B) is less expensive than primary extraction C) uses solvents, water, or steam D) occurs immediately after primary extraction E) causes less environmental damage than tertiary extraction

16)

17) Natural gas ________.

A) will be depleted by 2030 at current usage rates B) was discovered by M. King Hubbert in 1885 C) has octane as its primary component D) is transported primarily by truck and rail E) can be extracted via hydraulic fracturing

17)

18) The oil spill resulting from the 2010 Deepwater Horizon disaster ________.

A) was quickly cleaned up, preventing loss of wildlife and damage to fisheries along the Gulf

18)

Coast

B) is considered a minor incident compared to other oil spills C) resulted in a permanent ban on all offshore drilling in U.S. coastal waters D) is the largest accidental oil spill in world history E) eclipsed all non-point oil spills by 500% 19) Scientists currently assessing the environmental impacts of the 2010 Deepwater Horizon oil spill in

19)

the Gulf of Mexico report that ________.

A) it may take years or decades before the full impacts are known

B) Gulf productivity has already returned to normal and no further effects will be felt C) the damage was limited to wildlife kills immediately after the spill D) the coastal marshes of Louisiana suffered no measurable damage E) the entire Gulf food web will eventually collapse 20) Which of the following would be put at risk by the Keystone XL pipeline?

A) the Nebraska Sandhills B) the American bison C) Yellowstone National Park D) the Ogallala Aquifer E) Lake Michigan

4

20)

21) The Keystone XL pipeline ________.

A) carries natural gas from gas fields near Keystone, South Dakota, to the eastern United States B) carries petroleum from northern Alaska to the Gulf of Alaska C) was a hotly debated oil pipeline that would have passed through Montana, Idaho, Utah,

21)

22) What was the primary cause of the decline in oil prices in 2016 to only one quarter of the prices in

22)

Nevada, and Arizona D) was a hotly debated pipeline that would have carried petroleum from Canada to the southern United States E) would have allowed Canada to import more oil from Brazil

2008?

A) energy conservation and the use of renewable technologies B) a prolonged peace in the Middle East C) the war against ISIS D) the oil supply glut caused by fracking E) a typographical error in a Black Friday sale ad 23) When we burn fossil fuels, ________.

A) the greatest environmental impact is increased greenhouse gases B) the greatest environmental impact is the local damage from extraction C) we liberate carbon back into the carbon cycle, increasing the amount available for plant

23)

growth, causing plants to flourish D) the greatest environmental impact is the impact on the ozone layer

E) the resulting carbonic acid leads to acid rain 24) Carbon sequestration ________.

A) has been used by U.S. electrical plants since 1955, converting carbon dioxide to limestone B) permanently removes captured carbon from the environment C) involves capturing carbon emissions and then releasing them into the stratosphere D) has proved to be more dangerous to the environment than releasing carbon emissions E) is an unproven technology first used in 2008 in Germany

24)

25) What is the current status of carbon capture and storage (CCS) in the United States?

A) The U.S. government is currently requiring all coal power plants to institute carbon capture

25)

and storage technologies by the year 2025.

B) Many coal power plants are currently voluntarily retrofitting their systems to capture

carbon emissions.

C) Technologies are not sufficiently reliable, and it is currently too energetically expensive for coal power plants to capture and store their carbon emissions.

D) Carbon is now captured and converted to plastics at most coal power plants in the United States.

E) The rejection of Yucca Mountain as a carbon storage site has resulted in coal power plants storing carbon on-site until a permanent storage location can be approved.

5

26) All of the following are aspects of the technology of "clean coal" EXCEPT: A) injecting captured carbon dioxide into rock formations deep underground.

B) removing sulfur oxides from the emissions.

C) capturing and sequestering carbon emissions.

D) converting coal to syngas (natural gas).

E) removing carbon content from coal before combustion.

26)

27) Alaskans benefit from the trans-Alaska pipeline because Alaska's state constitution requires

27)

approximately 25% of state revenues associated with the oil industry to be placed into a monetary fund called the Permanent Fund, which ________.

A) is used for social infrastructure, such as hospitals, roads, and schools

B) pays yearly dividends to all Alaska residents C) is used as a main source of funds to reduce environmental damage D) pays for education of native Alaskans through scholarships E) is divided equally among the politicians in the state for running their offices 28) One of the problems with finding new fossil fuel deposits in developing countries is that

28)

________.

A) their governments seldom allow extraction of the deposit without imposing huge taxes to fund new social benefits for the country B) their governments seldom allow extraction of the deposit without meeting expensive environmental regulations C) those countries tend to keep the resource for themselves, not sharing with other countries

D) it is very expensive to transport the deposit elsewhere E) multinational corporations often move in to harvest the new deposit, and very little money or resource remains in the country

29) U.S. oil production ________.

A) is sufficient to meet national needs thanks to major conservation efforts B) will peak out in 2100, requiring for the first time imports to meet growing demand C) is now high enough for us to export nearly 50% D) falls far short of U.S. oil consumption E) has to fit the quotas imposed by OPEC

29)

30) Organizations like OPEC have formed ________.

A) to develop technologies to conserve nonrenewable energy resources B) in order to take maximum advantage of developed nations dependence on imported oil C) as a military alliance to protect developed nations' energy reserves D) to protect their national members' petroleum reserves for their own use E) to ensure that developing nations get their fair share of fossil fuels

30)

6

31) The practice of reducing wasteful or unnecessary energy use is called ________.

A) cogeneration B) energy efficiency C) energy conservation D) energy switching E) technology reduction

31)

32) Energy conservation in the United States ________.

A) can be accomplished only through changes in environmental laws B) is unlikely to ever occur C) becomes more difficult during times of war D) can be accomplished by changes in tax laws E) can be achieved through personal actions and more efficient technologies

32)

33) In the United States, per capita energy use ________, and energy intensity ________.

A) has been increasing since 1950; has been declining since 1950 B) was stable from 1950 to 1970 but has since increased sharply; has been increasing since 1950 C) increased sharply from 1950 to the 1970s but has since declined; has been declining since

33)

1970

D) has been increasing since 1950; has also been increasing since 1950 E) increased sharply from 1950 to the 1970s but has since declined; decreased from 1950 to the 1970s but has since increased

34) Efficiency of coal-fired power plants can be nearly doubled by ________.

A) using cogeneration B) using household wastes along with the coal C) using coal with higher sulfur content D) switching to oil E) adding wood chips to the coal

34)

35) Energy can be conserved by ________.

A) using cogeneration in automobiles, especially in SUVs B) using heat from a power plant to heat nearby homes C) replacing compact florescent bulbs with tungsten bulbs D) replacing mass transit with more and larger roads for cars and trucks E) repealing the law of entropy

35)

36) In 2007, Congress mandated strict Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE) standards that called

36)

for automakers to raise average fleet fuel efficiency to ________ mpg by the year ________.

A) 54.5; 2030 B) 48; 2025 C) 25; 2025 D) 35; 2020 E) 35; 2035

7

37) Nuclear energy in power plants is created via ________.

A) fusion of electrons B) bombarding radioactive elements with electrons C) the fission of uranium atoms by bombarding them with neutrons D) ionic transformation of atoms E) extraction of energy from the nucleus of cells

37)

38) First developed in the ________, nuclear power showed the most growth during the ________.

A) 1930s; 1950s B) 1940s; 1950s C) 1950s; 1970s and 1980s D) 1980s; 1990s E) 1960s; 1990s

38)

39) Which of the following countries leads the world in nuclear power capacity?

A) France B) Sweden C) Canada D) United States E) Russia

39)

40) Which of the following countries has the highest percentage of electricity generated from nuclear

40)

power plants?

A) France

B) Sweden C) Russia D) United States E) Canada 41) Nuclear power plants in use today rely on ________.

A) fission reactions to directly generate electricity B) fusion reactions to directly generate electricity C) fission reactions to generate heat to boil water to generate electricity D) fusion reactions to generate heat to boil water to generate electricity E) fusion reactions to create a flow of electrons to generate electricity

41)

42) In a nuclear power plant, the amount of electricity generated is regulated by ________.

A) moving control rods into or out of spaces between the fuel rods B) moving the nuclear fuel in and out of water C) the Federal Trade Commission D) releasing surplus heat out of cooling towers that are always part of nuclear power plants E) changing the water levels that surround the control rods

42)

8

43) When uranium-235 atoms undergo fission, ________ are produced.

A) moderators and water B) large amounts of CO2 C) larger atoms such as plutonium D) large amounts of energy, as all mass has been converted and lost, E) smaller atoms (fission fragments), free neutrons, and energy

43)

44) All of the following are advantages of nuclear power EXCEPT: A) uranium mines cause less environmental damage than coal mines because less uranium is

44)

needed to generate power.

B) nuclear power plants generate no nitrogen oxides and sulfur dioxide.

C) the power-generating process is emission-free.

D) uranium generates far greater amounts of energy than coal by weight or volume.

E) nuclear wastes can be safely disposed of.

45) Effects attributed to Chernobyl ________.

A) include serious respiratory illnesses but no fatalities B) have not been extensively documented C) include increased incidence of emphysema D) were contained within 40 km of the plant E) include increased incidence of thyroid cancers

45)

46) All of the following contributed to the nuclear disaster at Fukushima Daiichi EXCEPT: A) the location of emergency generators.

B) terrorism.

C) an earthquake.

D) a power outage.

E) a tsunami.

46)

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

In Johannesburg, South Africa, the South West Township (Soweto) was one of several areas established early in the last century for blacks to live away from the white ruling minority. On the hills surrounding Soweto, the company that provides South Africa's electricity, Eskom, built a large coal-burning power plant. The electricity was for white areas of Johannesburg, miles away from the plant. The residents of Soweto had no electrical connections.

47) The fact that there is a high sulfur content of the coal burned in South African power plants means that the ________.

A) power plants contribute to acidic deposition

B) power plants emit high levels of radioactive pollution C) power plants burn cleanly, with little pollution D) coal is very expensive, forcing most poor people to go without electricity E) coal is very inexpensive, leading to an improved economy

9

47)

48) The heavy levels of soot from the electrical plant upwind of Soweto, along with dust from gigantic

48)

gold and coal mines, created particulate pollution more than three times the recommended level.

This would be expected to result in ________.

A) enriched agricultural fields and increased crop yields

B) increased incidence of lung disease C) problems with running local automobiles and other machinery D) high levels of birth defects E) high levels of heart disease 49) Along with many other governmental reforms that began in 1994, the electrical plant just outside

49)

Soweto was closed in 2000, and other plants were brought into use. Some parts of Soweto were then wired for electricity. It is estimated, however, that only about 30% of the more than 1.2 million black inhabitants have electricity in their homes; the remainder either cannot afford the costs involved or live in areas that have no electrical access. These inhabitants probably use ________ for fuel.

A) natural gas and backyard windmills

B) charcoal and candles C) wood and coal D) gas-powered home generators E) natural gas and solar cells 50) In the year 2000, the worst air pollution levels in the region were in downtown Johannesburg and

50)

Soweto. The probable explanation is that in downtown Johannesburg ________, while in Soweto ________.

A) coal-fired electrical plants were the cause; automobile traffic in overcrowded areas was the problem B) trash incinerators were a problem; gasoline-powered electrical generators were the cause

C) automobile traffic was the cause; ozone depletion was also the cause D) gasoline-powered electrical generators were the cause; trash incinerators were a problem E) automobile traffic was the cause; the burning of fuels in each home for heating, light, and cooking was a major contributor to indoor and outdoor air pollution

51) The high demand for electricity in South Africa has resulted in years of scheduled blackouts.

Which of the following pricing scenarios is most likely to INCREASE the demand for electricity and make the blackouts worse?

A) flat-fee pricing, where every household pays the same regardless of how much electricity is used B) allotting a small amount of free electricity to each household to provide just enough electricity for the needs of the poorest households, with a premium price charged per kilowatt-hour used beyond the amount provided for free C) charging each household a different rate based on annual income and amount of electricity used D) charging each household a rate based on the amount of electricity used and what time of day it is used E) charging each household a rate based solely on the amount of electricity used

10

51)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

52) Identify and explain the ultimate sources of all of Earth's energy.

53) Discuss the three types of energy sources and give examples of each.

54) Compare and contrast the three patterns of energy use in developing and developed countries, including the amount of use, the type of energy used, and the major uses.

55) What are some of the alternative, unconventional resources for oil and natural gas?

56) Why is it that in most parts of the world local people do not benefit from the removal of fossil fuels from their local environment? Discuss the economics, politics, and environmental reasons that locals may not benefit.

57) Explain the process of nuclear fusion, and describe its role in commercial power generation.

58) Explain the reactions that occur in a nuclear power plant.

59) Why is waste disposal a significant problem in nuclear power generation? Discuss Yucca Mountain.

60) Compare the events at Three Mile Island, Chernobyl, and Fukushima Daiichi nuclear power plants.

61) Compare the environmental effects of coal and uranium as power sources.

11

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED20

1) A 2) C 3) E 4) A 5) D 6) A 7) D 8) C 9) B 10) C 11) C 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) E 18) D 19) A 20) D 21) D 22) D 23) A 24) E 25) C 26) E 27) B 28) E 29) D 30) B 31) C 32) E 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) C 38) C 39) D 40) A 41) C 42) A

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED20

43) E 44) E 45) E 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) C 50) E 51) A 52) Most of Earth's energy comes from the Sun. We can harness energy from the sun's radiation directly, but solar

radiation also makes possible several other energy sources. Solar radiation drives wind patterns and the hydrologic cycle, and plant growth gives us wood to burn. A great deal of energy also emanates from Earth's core, enabling us to harness geothermal power. A much smaller amount of energy results from the gravitational pull of the moon and Sun. An immense amount of energy resides within the nuclei of atoms, and this energy provides us with nuclear power.

53) Renewable resources are those that will always be plentiful on a human time scale. This includes solar, wind, geothermal, and tidal energy, for instance. Other resources are renewable if we do not overharvest them. For example, trees for wood fuel and charcoal will always be plentiful if we do not log too many too rapidly, and if we allow regrowth to occur. Finally, there are nonrenewable sources of energy, primarily the fossil and nuclear fuels that we are extracting and using, and that are not being replaced.

54) Citizens of developed nations generally consume much more energy than do those of developing nations. Per person, the most-industrialized nations use up to 100 times more energy than do the least-industrialized nations.

Industrialized nations rely more on equipment and technology, so they use more fossil fuels. People in developing countries often rely on manual or animal energy sources, and use much more wood as a fuel source. Developing nations devote a greater proportion of energy to subsistence activities such as food preparation, home heating, and food growing, whereas industrialized countries use a greater proportion for transportation and industry.

55) Both oil shale and oil sands (tar sands) are potential major and largely untapped resources for petroleum, and marine deposits of methane hydrate may have large supplies of natural gas. Oil shale and tar sands have not been cost effective until recently. Canada is now producing a major fraction of its petroleum from oil sands. Oil shale may become more economically attractive as conventional supplies are depleted and retail prices rise. The technology for safely extracting methane hydrate has yet to be developed. Methane is a potent greenhouse gas, and accidental release of large quantities might significantly accelerate global climate change.

56) In most parts of the world where the oil industry has extracted oil, local residents have not seen great benefits. To the contrary, in many instances, they have experienced disruption and harm to their way of life. This has occurred repeatedly when multinational corporations have extracted oil in developing countries, paying those countries' governments' concessions for access to the oil. All too often, the money has not trickled down to residents of the region from which the oil is extracted. Furthermore, oil-rich developing countries such as Ecuador and Nigeria often have few environmental regulations, and existing regulations may be infrequently enforced if a government does not want to risk losing the large sums of money associated with oil development. Some critics accuse multinational oil corporations of furthering environmental degradation and political repression in developing countries by funding dictatorships and by threatening to withdraw investment and development money if environmental protection regulations are enforced.

13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED20

57) Nuclear fusion is the process responsible for the immense amount of energy that the sun generates and the force

behind hydrogen and thermonuclear bombs. It involves forcing together small nuclei of lightweight elements under extremely high temperatures and pressure. For example, the hydrogen isotopes deuterium and tritium can be fused to form helium, releasing a neutron and a tremendous amount of energy. Because fusion requires extremely high temperatures, researchers have not successfully developed nuclear fusion for use in commercial power generation. If we find a way to control fusion in a reactor, we could produce vast amounts of energy using water as a fuel; the potential payoffs would be immense. We could produce vast amounts of energy using water as a fuel, and the process would create only low-level radioactive wastes, without air pollution or the risk of dangerous accidents, sabotage, or weapons proliferation. A prototype reactor (International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor) is slated for completion in 2019, but even if this project succeeds in unlocking the secrets to commercial power generation using nuclear fusion, we will not see commercial production of electricity via nuclear fusion in the foreseeable future.

58) A nuclear power plant is fueled by uranium rods containing 3% radioactive uranium-235. When an atom of U-235 is hit by a neutron, it splits into two smaller atoms, such as barium and krypton. "Extra" neutrons are also released, along with energy in the form of heat. The released neutrons strike other atoms of uranium-235, creating a chain reaction and continuing the process. Control rods control the rate of the reaction by absorbing neutrons and slowing the process.

59) Nuclear fission uses uranium-235 as fuel, leaving most of the remaining uranium-238 as waste. The half-lives of the isotopes that make up the fragments of fission are physical constants that cannot be altered or shortened. Because uranium has a long half-life, wastes emit dangerous radiation for thousands of years. It must be placed in a stable, secure location where the radiation cannot escape and harm the public by contaminating air or water supplies. It must also be protected from terrorist attack. The U.S. DOE estimated that by 2010, 75% of U.S. nuclear power plants would have no room left for waste storage. In 2002 Congress recommended that nuclear wastes be stored deep underground at Yucca Mountain, Nevada. Although geological and hydrological studies revealed that the site posed minimal earthquake and groundwater contamination risk, concerned Nevadans have expressed dismay and challenged these findings. Although Yucca Mountain was in an unpopulated area, there would have been risks of sabotage or accidents en route. In 2009, heeding the opposition to the site, President Obama withdrew federal support from the project. Therefore, the United States currently has no long-term plan to deal with the pressing problem on nuclear waste storage.

60) Three Mile Island, Chernobyl, and Fukushima Daiichi were catastrophic nuclear power plant accidents that spawned a great deal of public anxiety over nuclear power. As a result of mechanical failure and human error, Three Mile Island experienced a partial reactor core meltdown. Most of the radiation remained within the containment building.

The incident at Chernobyl was much more extensive and harmful than Three Mile Island. When engineers turned off safety systems to conduct tests, human error and unsafe reactor design caused an explosion that completely destroyed the reactor and released radioactive debris and fallout into surrounding areas for up to 10 days. The accident directly killed 31 people and sickened many more. Atmospheric currents carried radioactive fallout across much of the Northern Hemisphere, and radioisotopes were detected as far away as Sweden. The Soviet government did not admit to the accident until days later. Many cases of thyroid cancer resulted from exposure to radiation from Chernobyl.

The nuclear accident at Fukushima Daiichi resulted from a catastrophic earthquake and tsunami. The earthquake shut down power, and the tsunami flooded the plant's emergency power generators. The tsunami overtopped the seawall, and the generators were located in the basement of the plant and were thus flooded. Without electricity, workers could not use moderators and control rods to cool the uranium fuel, and the fuel began to overheat as fission proceeded. Several explosions and fires occurred over the next few days, and eventually three reactors experienced full meltdowns. The amount of radioactivity released during and after these events was about one-tenth of that released from Chernobyl. Much of the radioactivity spread by air or water into the Pacific Ocean.

14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED20

61) Coal and uranium are both mined, which creates landscape damage and harmful tailings that can contaminate

waterways. Uranium generates more power than coal by weight or volume, so less of it needs to be mined.

Combusting coal for electricity emits sulfur and nitrogen oxides that contribute to acidic deposition. Coal burning also emits particulate matter, which threatens human health and creates carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases that contribute to global climate change. Even considering all the steps involved in building plants and generating power, researchers from the International Atomic Energy Agency calculated that nuclear power lowers emissions 4 to 150 times below fossil fuel combustion. Because of safety regulations, nuclear power plants are safer for workers than coal-fired power plants. However, uranium from nuclear power plants creates radioactive waste that must be disposed of and sequestered for centuries. Also, people fear the catastrophic consequences of accidents and sabotage to nuclear power plants.

15

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) The United States generates more electricity from ________ than from any other renewable energy source.

A) hydropower

B) wind energy C) solar energy D) bioenergy E) geothermal energy

1

1)

2) The United States consumes more ________ than any other renewable energy source.

A) bioenergy B) geothermal energy C) hydropower D) wind energy E) solar energy

2)

3) Electricity from hydropower composes approximately ________% of the total electricity produced

3)

in the United States.

A) 24.7

B) 13.6

C) 6.5

D) 2.4

E) 44.2

4) The smallest amount of electricity generation is from ________.

A) hydropower B) wind energy C) solar energy D) bioenergy E) geothermal energy

4)

5) Which of the following is most likely to be used for purposes other than the production of

5)

electricity?

A) wind energy

B) nuclear energy C) hydropower D) solar energy E) bioenergy 6) Worldwide, the most widely used renewable energy resource is ________.

A) wind B) solar C) hydroelectric D) nuclear E) bioenergy

6)

7) The major renewable energy source for electricity in the United States is ________.

A) nuclear B) hydropower C) fossil fuels D) wind E) bioenergy

7)

2

8) Which of the following represents the proper ranking of total primary energy consumed in the

8)

United States from the greatest to least used?

A) fossil fuels, hydropower, solar, nuclear

B) fossil fuels, nuclear, hydropower, solar C) nuclear, fossil fuels, hydropower, wind D) renewables, fossil fuels, nuclear, hydropower E) fossil fuels, hydropower, nuclear, geothermal 9) A major advantage of solar power is that ________.

A) the only emissions are carbon dioxide and water B) there is a lack of knowledge on long-term impacts C) all regions are sunny enough to provide adequate power with current technology D) solar systems provide local, decentralized control over power E) it is inexpensive compared to other renewable energy sources

9)

10) Passive solar power involves using ________.

A) mirrors to concentrate the sun's rays on a tower or a series of pipes holding water B) photovoltaic cells to produce light energy C) mechanical devices to heat water and buildings or electrical devices to generate electricity D) the energy of sunlight without relying on electrical or mechanical devices E) silicon wafers to generate light energy

10)

11) Designing buildings to maximize absorption of sunlight during winter and to keep the interiors

11)

cool during summer is referred to as ________.

A) active solar energy collection

B) wind energy collection C) geothermal energy collection D) nuclear energy collection E) passive solar energy collection 12) Which of the following methods would be considered a type of passive solar energy collection?

A) rooftop flat-plate solar collectors B) rooftop solar panels C) photovoltaic cells D) ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) E) using heat-absorbing construction materials

12)

13) Solar power—generating facilities that generate electricity at large centralized facilities and

13)

transmit that power to homes and businesses through the electric grid are called ________.

A) passive solar energy collection systems

B) dispersed solar collection facilities C) diffuse solar energy collection systems D) concentrated solar power facilities E) photovoltaic systems

3

14) Photovoltaic technology is best described as ________.

A) using mirrors to concentrate sunlight, in order to heat water and produce steam for

14)

electricity generation

B) using the sun's energy to warm a room without mechanical devices C) trapping the sun's heat and storing it for various uses D) a passive solar technology E) using sunlight to directly generate electricity 15) Photovoltaic cells ________.

A) rely on the electrical current produced when silicon is struck by sunlight B) are increasingly costly to produce, which precludes major commercial application C) have small rotational generators built into every cell D) are the major form of renewable energy produced in the United States E) require an outside source of electricity to generate electricity on their own

15)

16) Although photovoltaic electricity is considered a "clean" power source, one issue with this

16)

electricity is that it ________.

A) is less efficient than fossil fuels

B) will be replaced shortly with other sources of power for homes C) cannot be stored easily in large quantities D) is not sufficiently understood E) is dangerous if stored too long 17) The rotational energy of the blades of a wind turbine ________.

A) is so expensive to produce that no commercial development has been possible B) is used to generate hydrogen from water C) will not occur unless electricity is provided to generate the motion D) drives a generator inside the nacelle compartment to produce electricity E) generates as much greenhouse gases as burning natural gas

17)

18) As of 2011, the nation leading in generating wind power is ________.

A) China B) Canada C) India D) the United States E) Germany

18)

19) ________ built the first offshore wind farm in 1991.

A) France B) Denmark C) The United States D) Mexico E) Spain

19)

4

20) More and more wind farms are being located ________ because winds are stronger there.

A) offshore B) in deserts C) in densely populated urban areas D) in the Arctic E) in mature forests

20)

21) A major obstacle to the establishment of wind farms near populated and scenic areas is ________.

A) we-want-solar-power (WASPY) syndrome B) the lack of large land areas needed to construct wind farms C) the lack of infrastructure to support wind-generated electricity D) the lack of financial support for the construction of wind farms E) not-in-my-backyard (NIMBY) syndrome

21)

22) Compared to the use of fossil fuels for generating electricity, wind energy ________.

A) produces no exhaust pollutants and contributes little to global climate change B) is more consistent C) requires very little investment D) is less renewable E) is more widely used in the United States

22)

23) The form of energy delivered to an electrical generating turbine in a geothermal facility is in the

23)

form of ________.

A) molten magma

B) heated hydrogen gas C) hot water or steam D) warm soils and crushed rock E) radioactive isotopes 24) In the United States, geothermal energy is most available in ________.

A) the Northeast B) Texas C) the Florida Keys D) the Southeast E) the West

24)

25) Ground-source heat pumps ________.

A) require nearby volcanic activity to be effective B) are an increasing source of small-scale electricity generation C) heat and cool houses and buildings more efficiently than conventional methods D) produce pollution of groundwater E) have been known to cause minor earthquakes

25)

5

26) The best locations to install tidal electrical generating stations are places where ________.

A) differences in height between low and high tides are large B) the water is frozen for half of the year C) there are forests along the coast D) differences in height between low and high tides are small E) there is very little wind

26)

27) A potential energy source from oceans is ________.

A) lightning strikes in salt water B) ocean thermal energy C) solar reflection D) magnetic field generators E) chemiluminescent bacteria

27)

28) The only energy sources from ocean water so far put into commercial production are ________.

A) tidal electrical generators B) tidal and ocean wave generators C) OTEC and ocean wave generators D) tidal and OTEC generators E) OTEC

28)

29) ________ strongly influences the amount of energy generated from hydropower.

A) The volume of water released and the height of the fall B) The phase of the moon C) The temperature of water in the boiler and turbine D) The temperature of reservoir water E) Latitude

29)

30) Which of the following are documented negative impacts of dams?

A) acid deposition B) alteration of river salinity C) flooding, habitat destruction, alteration of river sediment deposition D) increased carbon monoxide emissions, decreased rainfall E) increased atmospheric carbon dioxide and CFCs

30)

31) The run-of-river approach to hydropower describes ________.

A) the most expensive type of dams to build and maintain B) dams that run all the way across a river C) the purchase of state-run dams by major corporations D) diversion of a portion of a river's flow through pipes E) impounding water in reservoirs behind concrete dams

31)

6

32) Ultimately, all biofuels are ________, because they are the product of ________.

A) synthetic; chemical manipulation of hydrocarbons B) solar; photosynthesis C) geological; sedimentation D) polymers; biological metabolic processes E) inefficient; decomposition by microorganisms

32)

33) Biofuels ________.

A) produce no greenhouse gases when burned B) require fossil fuel input to produce C) can be created by microbial action or burned directly as wood or dung D) could not supply an alternative fuel to gasoline E) are a form of fossil fuel

33)

34) Harvesting fuelwood at unsustainably high rates often leads to ________.

A) higher levels of plant biodiversity B) removal of pest insect species C) soil erosion and desertification D) increases in soil fertility E) more land being available for corn fields

34)

35) Ethanol produced from bioenergy starts with ________ produced by ________.

A) CO2 ; burning fossil fuels B) methane; sewage sludge C) starch; corn or sugar cane D) ammonia; anaerobic bacteria E) hydrogen gas; wind turbines

35)

36) E-85 ________.

A) was an international summit of 85 nations that met to restrict CFC use B) is an isotope of uranium used to generate electricity C) was an international summit of 85 nations that met to determine vehicle fuel efficiency

36)

standards D) was an international summit of 85 nations that met to restrict greenhouse gas emissions

E) is an ethanol-gasoline mixture used in flexible-fuel vehicles 37) All of the following are drawbacks of corn-based ethanol production, EXCEPT: A) the inability to store the product.

B) increased use of fertilizers.

C) inputs of fossil fuel energy.

D) increased use of pesticides.

E) depletion of fresh water.

7

37)

38) Ethanol made from corn ________.

A) does not require inputs of fossil fuel energy B) does not produce greenhouse gases when burned C) cannot be mixed with other fuels D) yields more than 10 times the energy required to produce it E) results in higher food prices for corn and corn products

38)

39) Bagasse- and sugarcane-based ethanol are major items in the energy resources of ________.

A) Mexico B) the Maldives C) China D) the United States E) Brazil

39)

40) Biodiesel ________.

A) can be used in vehicles with diesel engines without engine modification B) is produced from sugarcane C) is the most common type of diesel in the United States D) produces more pollution than conventional diesel E) is twice as expensive as conventional diesel

40)

41) Biodiesel is to ________ as ethanol is to gasoline.

A) conventional diesel B) vegetable oil C) petroleum D) gasohol E) glycerin

41)

42) With regard to bioenergy, B20 represents ________.

A) a new vitamin recently isolated from sugarcane bagasse B) a bacterial strain used to ferment corn to make ethanol C) diesel containing 20% biodiesel D) a variety of broccoli used in the production of cellulosic ethanol E) a synthetic compound that can be mixed with fossil fuel to give more energy

42)

43) To determine whether using a food crop as a source of biofuels is environmentally sustainable,

43)

one would have to consider all of the following EXCEPT: A) the amount of fertilizers used and their impact on aquatic ecosystems.

B) the amount of water and land necessary for the crops.

C) the corporate profits that would be made.

D) the impact on food supplies and prices.

E) the amount of pesticides used and their impact on biodiversity and groundwater.

8

44) Pyrolysis is a way of producing ________ from ________.

A) hydroelectric fuel; coal B) biodiesel; limestone C) a liquid fuel; biomass D) pesticides and fertilizers; bioenergy E) coal; bioenergy

44)

45) The first stage in generating power from a hydrogen fuel cell is to ________.

A) react water with CO2 B) split hydrogen atoms into hydrogen ions (H+) and electrons C) split methane (CH4 ) into hydrogen atoms and carbon D) reduce water to hydrogen and oxygen gases E) convert water into a hydrocarbon

45)

46) The chemical product produced by a hydrogen fuel cell is ________.

A) acid B) carbon monoxide C) carbon dioxide D) nontoxic ash E) water

46)

47) One difficulty with the process of using hydrogen as a power source is that it ________.

A) first needs to be converted to helium through nuclear fission B) requires a fuel that is a nonrenewable resource C) is less efficient than fossil fuels D) requires a substantial energy investment to produce the fuel E) has highly volatile and explosive components

47)

48) Whether a hydrogen-based energy system is environmentally cleaner than a fossil fuel system

48)

depends on ________.

A) the source of energy used to produce the hydrogen

B) the amount of fossil fuels that are invested in long-term storage C) governmental incentives for research D) the car driven E) the source of oxygen used for the process

9

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

The oldest wind farm in Pennsylvania is Humboldt Industrial Park, in Luzerne County, which went online December 31, 1999. The two 65-kilowatt wind turbines were predicted to generate 200,000 kilowatt-hours of wind energy each year, replacing conventional electric generation that would otherwise annually produce 140 tons of carbon dioxide–the primary source of global climate change. Wind energy from these first two turbines also avoids the annual production of 800 pounds of nitrogen oxides and 1900 pounds of sulfur dioxide.

The local community in Luzerne County had mixed reactions to the news that another wind farm was being installed in 2005.

Some were excited about the possibility of lower energy bills, some were concerned about the effects on the environment, and others wondered if there was enough local wind (average wind speed = 10 miles per hour) to make such an investment worthwhile. An average wind speed of 9 to 13 mph is sufficient for most sizes of wind turbines. The power available in the wind is proportional to the cube of its speed, which means that doubling the wind speed increases the available power by a factor of eight.

49) If the wind speed averages 11 mph on Ashley Hill and 12 mph on Genevie Hill, then a turbine

49)

50) Using wind turbines to produce electricity avoids the production of nitrogen oxides and sulfur

50)

operating on Genevie Hill could, in theory, generate about ________% more electricity than a turbine on Ashley Hill.

A) 20 B) 50 C) 10 D) 30 E) 1

dioxide, which are the major pollutants ________.

A) damaging the ozone layer

B) that trigger asthma and other respiratory ailments C) causing eutrophication of waterways D) in acid rain E) in fertilizers 51) An average household uses about 10,000 kilowatt-hours of electricity annually. The first two

51)

52) An average household uses about 10,000 kilowatt-hours of electricity annually. How many tons

52)

turbines installed at Humboldt Industrial Park provide enough electricity to completely provide for the needs of approximately how many households?

A) 200,000 B) 200 C) 20 D) 20,000 E) 2000

of carbon dioxide would be produced if the household's electricity were generated using only conventional energy sources?

A) 2,800,000 B) 7 C) 70 D) 700 E) 1,400,000

10

53) The production and consumption of electricity are most commonly measured in kilowatt-hours

53)

(kWh). A kilowatt-hour is 1 kilowatt (1000 watts) of electricity produced or consumed for 1 hour.

A 10-kW wind turbine can generate about 10,000 kWh annually (enough to power a typical household) at a site such as Spirit Lake, Iowa, with wind speeds averaging 12 miles per hour. The 250-kW turbine installed at the elementary school in Spirit Lake provides about ________ of electricity annually.

A) 250 kWh

B) 250,000 kWh C) 2,500 kWh D) 25,000 kWh E) 250 mWh 54) Using wind as a power source to do work ________.

A) began over 40,000 years ago in Australia B) originated in Asia over 5000 years ago C) is a process that has been worked on for over 50 years D) began in Europe over 800 years ago E) is something that has been developed only in the past 10 years

54)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

55) Discuss the conventional alternatives to fossil fuels. Why are we not using more renewables?

56) Compare and contrast passive solar collection and active solar collection.

57) Briefly discuss environmental impacts and economics of solar energy.

58) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of wind power.

59) What is geothermal power? What are the advantages and disadvantages of the use of geothermal power?

60) Briefly discuss the pros and cons of hydropower.

61) Is the use of biofuels for power generation economically feasible and sustainable? Why or why not?

62) What are some of the benefits and obstacles to using hydrogen as a fuel?

11

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED21

1) A 2) A 3) C 4) E 5) E 6) E 7) B 8) B 9) D 10) D 11) E 12) E 13) D 14) E 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) A 21) E 22) A 23) C 24) E 25) C 26) A 27) B 28) A 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) C 36) E 37) A 38) E 39) E 40) A 41) A 42) C

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED21

43) C 44) C 45) B 46) E 47) D 48) A 49) D 50) D 51) C 52) B 53) B 54) D 55) Many renewable energy sources depend on technologies that are not yet fully developed and are more costly than

fossil fuel use in the short term. Wind power, hydroelectric power, and energy from bioenergy are three conventional alternative energy sources that are currently the most developed and widely used. These alternatives currently play substantial roles in the energy and electricity budgets of many nations. They exert considerably less environmental impact than fossils fuels, and wind, an example of the "new renewable" alternatives, exert still smaller environmental impacts. Finally, in some nations, particularly the United States, corporate interests with heavy investments in fossil fuels have used political pressure and media campaigns to delay the development of renewable energies.

56) Passive solar energy collection features buildings that are designed, and building materials that are chosen, to maximize direct absorption of sunlight in winter, even as they keep the interior cool in the heat of summer. One passive solar design technique involves installing low, south-facing windows (in the Northern Hemisphere) or north-facing windows (in the Southern Hemisphere) to maximize sunlight capture in the winter. Overhangs that block light from above can shade these windows in the summer when the sun is high in the sky and when cooling, not heating, is desired. Strategically placed deciduous trees can likewise shade windows in the summer but let light pass through in the winter. Passive solar techniques also include the use of heat-absorbing construction materials.

Often called thermal mass, these materials absorb heat, store it, and release it later. Thermal mass (of straw, brick, concrete, or other materials) most often makes up floors, roofs, and walls, but also can comprise portable blocks. Any of these may be strategically located so that in cold weather the mass receives a great amount of sunlight and can radiate heat in the interior of the building. In warm weather, the mass should be located away from sunlight so that it absorbs warmed air in the interior to cool it. Passive solar design can also involve using vegetation planted in particular locations around a building. By heating buildings in cold weather and cooling them in warm weather, passive solar methods help conserve energy and reduce energy costs.

This approach contrasts with active solar energy collection, which requires some outside energy input and makes use of technological devices to focus, move, or store solar energy. One active method for harnessing solar energy involves using solar panels or flat-plate solar collectors, which are most often installed on rooftops. These panels generally consist of dark-colored, heat-absorbing metal plates mounted in large, flat boxes covered with glass panes. Water, air, or antifreeze solutions are run through tubes that pass through the collectors, transferring heat throughout a building. Heated water can be pumped to tanks designed to store the heat for later use and through pipes designed to release the heat into the building. Such systems have proven especially effective for heating water for residences.

13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED21

57) Solar energy is one of the fastest growing and diverse sources of alternative energy.

Photovoltaic cells are rapidly increasing in production and deployment while at the same time the production costs are falling. Germany is leading the way with its "100,000 Rooftops" solar panels program that has already exceeded its goal. Some solar projects use mirrors to concentrate solar power for large-scale electricity production. Two such large arrays are in the planning stage, one in the U.S. Mojave Desert and another in the Sahara Desert being constructed by Germany. One of the low-key but highly effective solar sources is "passive solar systems." Passive solar takes advantage of the heat-retaining qualities of building materials to gain, radiate, or reflect heat. Using these physical properties as design components, buildings can be heated or cooled and provided with a source of solar-heated water. Although the United States is a leader in the production of solar photocells, only a tiny fraction of the research and development budget goes to solar and other renewable energies. The economic and policy leadership belongs mainly to European Union nations, especially Germany. The environmental impacts are clearly less severe than using fossil fuels or nuclear power. No emissions are directly produced by solar technology. The carbon footprint for solar technology is very low in comparison; it is not zero because some fossil fuels must still be used in the manufacture and installation of solar systems. Because the collection areas needed for homes and especially for large solar collection systems are very large, large amounts of space are required, but when weighed against the damage from greenhouse gases, acid precipitation, and landscape alteration from mining and drilling activities that are associated with fossil fuels, the impacts are much, much less. Finally, the long-term economic prospects are very bright. The costs of manufacturing solar technology are rapidly dropping with continuing research and development, and soon solar systems will be as affordable as fossil fuels.

58) Advantages: Wind produces no emissions once the necessary equipment is manufactured and installed. As a replacement for fossil fuel combustion in the average U.S. utility generator, running a wind turbine can prevent the release of carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, and mercury. Wind power appears considerably more energy-efficient than conventional power sources. Wind farms also use less water than do traditional generating plants. Wind turbine technology can be used on many scales, from a single tower for local use to fields of thousands for utilities to supply large regions. Small-scale turbine development can help make local areas more self-sufficient.

Currently, start-up costs of wind farms are considerable, but they incur fewer expenses once up and running.

Disadvantages: We have no control over when wind will occur; it is an intermittent resource. This poses little problem if wind is one of several sources contributing to a utility's power generation. Moreover, several available technologies can help address the problem. For example, batteries or hydrogen fuel can store energy generated by wind and release it later when needed. Some areas are windier than others. Global wind patterns combine with local topography–mountains, hills, water bodies, forests, and cities–to create local wind patterns. Good wind resources are not always near population centers. Thus, transmission networks would need to be greatly expanded. Moreover, when wind farms are proposed near population centers, local residents sometimes oppose them. Many people object to wind farms for aesthetic reasons. Wind turbines also pose a threat to birds and bats, which can be killed when they fly into the rotating blades. Studies estimate that the number of birds killed this way is far less than the millions already being killed annually by other human causes. The key for protecting birds seems to be selecting sites for wind farms that are not in the midst of prime habitat.

14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED21

59) Definition: Geothermal energy involves the radioactive decay of elements deep in Earth, generating heat that rises to

the surface through magma and through fissures and cracks. Where this energy heats groundwater, natural spurts of heated water and steam are sent up from below. Terrestrial geysers and submarine hydrothermal vents are the surface manifestations of these processes. Geothermal power plants use the heat energy of natural hot springs to generate electricity.

Advantages: Like other renewable sources, geothermal power greatly reduces emissions relative to fossil fuel combustion. Geothermal sources currently used produce no nitrous oxides or sulfurous gases and only one-sixth of the carbon dioxide produced by natural gas-fueled plants. Geothermal developments using the latest technology produce virtually no emissions. Recently, experiments with enhanced geothermal systems (EGS) have developed the technology to drill very deep into the earth and then inject cold water. The water is heated geothermally and then pumped back to the surface to generate power. The amount of heat energy available beneath the United States has been estimated to be enough to supply the world's energy needs for several millennia.

Disadvantages: Geothermal sources may not always be truly sustainable, such as when a power plant uses heated groundwater faster than it can be replenished. In addition, the water of many hot springs is laced with salts and other minerals that corrode equipment and can pollute the soil and air, so these may shorten the lifetime of plants and increase maintenance costs. Like solar and wind power, geothermal power involves substantial development costs but low operations costs compared to fossil-fuel-fired processes. Adopting the technology will likely save money in the long run. Finally, geothermal power is limited to being used in certain areas where it occurs. Nonetheless, many more hydrothermal resources remain unexploited around the world, awaiting improved technology and economic and policy encouragement by governments. EGS, although holding enormous promise as a source of renewable energy, has been plagued because the process can trigger earthquakes. We await the technical means to use EGS safely before application can proceed at full speed.

60) Hydropower is renewable and clean; it produces enormous amounts of energy with little air pollution. The EROI of hydroelectric plants are on the order of 10:1, among the highest of any energy process. Fossil fuels are used in the construction and maintenance of dams, however, and recent evidence suggests that reservoirs release some methane, a greenhouse gas. Damming rivers destroys habitat because it floods areas above dam sites and reduces water flow below dam sites. Also, any extensive hydroelectric project will cause the displacement of human settlements. Dams disrupt flooding cycles of rivers, affect the dynamics of estuaries, and prevent floodplains from receiving nutrient-laden sediments. Dams also cause thermal pollution that kills native fish. They block the passage of fish and other aquatic organisms within the ecosystem, fragmenting rivers and reducing biodiversity. These concerns require that extensive environmental impact studies be made prior to undertaking a hydropower project.

61) Biofuels include wood from trees, charcoal from burned wood, combustible animal waste (used directly for biopower), and products such as ethanol, methanol, and biodiesel, which are derived from processing once-living matter. Captured landfill methane can be used as fuel as well, which consequently reduces methane gas emissions.

Using bioenergy can be energy and cost efficient and is an inexpensive fuel for combustion in power plants. Although combustion of bioenergy releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, emissions are lower than through burning fossil fuels. There is no net addition of carbon to the atmosphere (carbon neutrality) because bioenergy is the product of recent photosynthesis–the carbon output of its combustion is balanced by the carbon input of the photosynthesis that created it. Where waste costs money to dispose of, using waste for fuel can save money. Liquid fuels made from bioenergy are competitive in price with petroleum gasoline. Gas-ethanol mixtures and biodiesel successfully fuel vehicles, stoves, and heaters, and these biofuels burn cleaner than conventional gasoline and conventional diesel. The technology used to process bioenergy is important, however, because processing bioenergy into biofuels can be energy-intensive. Growing crops exclusively for energy is not sustainable if monocultures are grown on land that could otherwise be preserved and if farmers apply petroleum products, such as pesticides, herbicides, and fertilizers, to their crops to increase yields. In addition, these agrochemicals cause damage to biodiversity, promote eutrophication, and contaminate water supplies. Overharvesting wood and crops is also unsustainable because it can lead to deforestation, soil erosion, and desertification, which damages landscapes, eliminates biodiversity, and impoverishes human societies dependent on an area's resources. Careful long-term planning and analysis are necessary to decide what level of crop-produced biofuels can be sustainable in a given area.

15

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED21

62) Hydrogen fuel is clean, nontoxic, and produces few pollutants. It is comparatively safe to transport and store and is

energy-efficient. The basic source for hydrogen is water, which can be broken down to component hydrogen and oxygen gases either by electrolysis or high-temperature pyrolysis. Both of these processes require large amounts of energy inputs. If the power needed is from nonrenewable fossil fuels, there is a question of whether it can be sustainable and not contribute to global climate change and other sorts of air pollution. If the power can be provided by solar technologies, then large-scale hydrogen usage has a clearer future. Both Iceland and Germany are planning large-scale hydrogen transportation projects by converting bus fleets to hydrogen. However, the general economic downturn since 2008 has delayed the progress of establishing the hydrogen infrastructure.

16

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1) From the 1960s to 2005, the trend was that ________ over time.

A) less overall waste was produced B) there have been equal ratios of land disposal, combustion, and recovery C) less waste was sent to landfills D) more overall waste was produced E) less waste was recovered for recycling

1)

2) According to the figure, which of the following trends occurred from 1960 to 2000?

A) an increase in the number of functioning landfills B) a decrease in the amount of waste produced C) a decrease in the amount of waste sent to landfills D) an increase in the amount of waste being recycled E) a decrease in the amount of waste being combusted

2)

3) In which of the following years was the greatest volume of material recycled?

A) 1970 B) 1980 C) 2010 D) 1990

3)

1

E) 2000

4) Which decade was associated with the greatest percentage increase in the amount of waste disposed of in landfills?

A) 1980s B) 1970s

C) 1960s

D) 2000s

4)

E) 1990s

5) According to the figure, which of the following trends has occurred since 1990?

A) an increase in the amount of waste being composted B) an increase in the amount of waste being combusted C) an increase in the amount of waste being landfilled D) a decrease in the amount of waste being recycled E) a decrease in the amount of waste produced

5)

6) In 2013, how many millions of tons of U.S. municipal solid waste were either recycled or

6)

composted?

A) 250

B) 90

C) 20

D) 130

E) 160

7) Of the following, the ________ demonstrated the greatest rate of increase in total municipal solid waste generated.

A) 1960s

B) 1970s

C) 1980s

D) 1990s

E) 2000s

8) The amount of waste sent to landfills leveled off around ________.

A) 1965 B) 1995 C) 1970 D) 1985

E) 2009

7)

8)

9) Volume of waste recovered by composting was insignificant until ________.

A) 2009 B) 2000 C) 1980 D) the late 1980s E) the early 1960s

9)

10) The best solution to the solid waste problem is to ________.

A) increase the number of WTE facilities B) increase the number of oceanic burial sites C) subsidize WTE facilities D) reduce the amount of material that enters the waste stream E) increase the number of sanitary landfills

10)

11) The average American generates approximately ________ lbs. of solid waste per day.

A) 9 B) 4.4 C) 40 D) 1.5 E) 13.7

11)

2

12) ________ is the conversion of organic waste into mulch or humus.

A) Reusing B) Cogeneration C) Injecting D) Compacting E) Composting

12)

13) The earthworms, fungi, and bacteria in your compost pile will NOT be happy if you give them

13)

________.

A) paper

B) grass clippings C) food scraps D) autumn leaves E) plastic 14) Approximately ________% of all U.S. residents are served by curbside recycling programs, and

14)

15) Recycling aluminum cans saves ________% of the energy needed to make the same amount of

15)

the part of the U.S. waste stream that is recycled (not including composting) is currently about ________%.

A) 30; 30 B) 70; 73 C) 70; 25 D) 30; 90 E) 50; 50

aluminum from virgin bauxite.

A) 95 B) 25

C) 50

D) 80

E) 70

16) Bottle bills ________.

A) have not effectively increased recycling rates in states that have them B) are fees paid by beverage companies in certain states.

C) have been passed in just over half of the states in the United States.

D) usually involve consumers paying a nickel deposit on a beverage container E) have been passed in all 50 states and Puerto Rico

16)

17) The first bottle bills were ________.

A) designed to provide incentives to industry B) a consequence of landfill regulations C) initiated in the 1990s D) designed to provide glass for road construction E) designed to cut down on litter

17)

3

18) Lining a landfill with a thick tough plastic barrier is a strategy to address problems related to

18)

________.

A) mudslides and trash slides

B) leachate C) incomplete decomposition D) settling E) methane production 19) To safeguard against groundwater contamination, sanitary landfills are ________.

A) located on slopes so water runs downhill B) located on industrial sites where groundwater is not used for drinking or agriculture C) located in unpopulated areas D) lined with cement E) lined with plastic and compacted clay

19)

20) Decomposition in a landfill will happen faster if there is more ________.

A) sunlight B) natural gas C) garbage D) moisture E) methane

20)

21) Which of the following is produced by anaerobic decomposition in landfills?

A) methane B) nitrogen oxides C) methylmercury D) ozone E) carbon dioxide

21)

22) The Fresh Kills Landfill ________.

A) is a Superfund site located in Philadelphia B) will remain open until late 2020 C) is New York's first and only modern sanitary landfill D) collapsed onto a residential neighborhood because it had been filled to too great a height E) is being converted into a public park

22)

23) Industrial ecologists ________.

A) advocate for taxes on green industries B) redesign industrial systems to maximize physical and economic efficiency C) favor an economy that moves linearly rather than circularly D) primarily analyze industrial inputs E) urge an emphasis on internal manufacturing costs rather than external costs

23)

4

24) Life-cycle analysis ________.

A) examines the life of products to increase efficiency B) defines how different organisms interact within ecosystems C) is the study of statistical changes in the human population D) is an environmental movement designed to reduce municipal traffic and encourage

24)

alternative forms of transport

E) examines the cycling of carbon in the environment 25) Which of the following represent the categories of hazardous waste?

A) ignitable, corrosive, reactive, and toxic B) municipal, industrial, and agricultural C) solid, liquid, and gaseous D) nonbiodegradable and biodegradable E) inorganic and organic 26) All of the following are considered to define types of hazardous waste EXCEPT: A) corrosive.

B) toxic.

C) ignitable.

D) reactive.

25)

26) E) inert.

27) Of the following, ________ produce(s) the largest amount of hazardous waste.

A) utilities B) building demolitions C) industry D) agriculture E) households

27)

28) In the United States, which of the following produce(s) the largest amount of unregulated

28)

hazardous waste?

A) military

B) agriculture C) utilities D) industry E) households 29) Of the following, ________ are classified as hazardous heavy metals.

A) all nonbiodegradable materials B) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen C) lead, mercury, and cadmium D) nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium E) aluminum, iron, and silicon

5

29)

30) Heavy metals ________.

A) bioaccumulate in animal tissues B) are not harmful unless they are directly ingested C) are unregulated by the U.S. government D) become less hazardous after incineration E) become less hazardous over time as they degrade chemically

30)

31) E-wastes are a source of ________.

A) acid corrosives B) heavy and precious metals C) radioactive materials D) compostable organic compounds E) ignitables

31)

32) E-waste often leaches hazardous levels of which of the following metals?

A) lead B) silver C) gold D) platinum

32) E) uranium

33) In the 2010 Vancouver Winter Olympics, the metals in the winners' medals were ________.

A) recovered from surface impoundments B) recovered from local MRFs C) recovered from local landfills D) produced from mining wastes in Vancouver E) made partly from precious metals recovered from recycled e-waste

33)

34) The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act is a U.S. law enacted in the 1970s to ________.

A) regulate how hazardous waste is handled B) protect endangered species C) restrict use of off-road vehicles in national parks D) regulate greenhouse gas emissions from power plants E) reduce environmental levels of the 12 most toxic chemicals, called the "dirty dozen"

34)

35) Deep-well injection ________.

A) has been banned as unsafe by the Department of the Interior B) involves putting hazardous wastes into layers of porous rock deep beneath human water

35)

supplies

C) is a method of disposing of hazardous wastes in deep aquifers D) is the EPA-approved method of disposing of low-level radioactive wastes E) is a pool of strong acids on the land surface used for breaking down e-waste

6

36) The Superfund, established to clean up hazardous waste sites in the United States, is a part of

36)

what legislation?

A) Superfund Authority Act

B) The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act C) Hazardous Waste Management Act D) Superfund Management and Liability Act E) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act 37) The EPA is charged with cleaning up brownfields, which are ________.

A) agricultural lands polluted by acid and heavy metals B) urban areas contaminated by acid drainage from mining C) lands whose reuse or development is complicated by the presence of hazardous materials D) desert regions used for unsafe nuclear waste disposal E) coastal sea grass beds damaged by industrial dumping

37)

38) What do the town of Times Beach, Missouri, and the Love Canal neighborhood of Niagara Falls,

38)

New York, have in common?

A) Both were evacuated because of contamination by toxins.

B) Both were built on closed municipal landfills.

C) Both have municipal programs for dealing with e-waste.

D) Both have banned the use of plastic grocery bags.

E) Both recently won presidential recycling awards.

39) As of 2014, under the jurisdiction of the EPA, approximately ________% of hazardous sites identified under CERCLA as a national priority have been cleaned up.

A) 40 B) 3 C) 60 D) 50

40) Funding for superfund toxic waste sites ________.

A) is no longer necessary because by 2010 all sites had been cleaned and restored B) has been eased because the costs of cleanup have diminished C) has become the responsibility of taxpayers since 2004 D) is a portion of the EPA's budget E) is currently paid by polluting industries

7

39)

E) 30 40)

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

A "throwaway mentality" and increased packaging have amplified the consumption of paper and plastic in our society.

Disposable plates, cups, and utensils are convenient, sanitary, and inexpensive, and packaging preserves freshness, prevents breakage, protects against tampering, provides information to consumers, and allows shipment of products over long distances. However, paper and plastic do not degrade readily in sanitary landfills. Garbologist William Rathje found legible newspapers in landfills decades after disposal. Because trees used to make virgin paper and petrochemicals used to make plastics may soon become depleted, source reduction is the best solution to the waste dilemma. Denmark has banned the use of nonrefillable beverage containers, and McDonald's restaurants in Austria and Sweden have been using biodegradable, compostable cutlery. Recycling has value as well, as long as the recycling loop is closed and people purchase recycled items.

Bottle bills and municipal curbside collection provide recycling incentives. Paper recycling is profitable if waste is properly sorted. All kinds of paper and cardboard are recyclable. Food and paperboard (noncorrugated thin coated board such as cereal boxes) can contaminate collections, however, reducing their value. After processing, paper and cardboard are used to make paper towels and paperboard for packaging cereal, shoes, and toys. Uncapped, washed, and flattened plastic is recycled into carpets, pillows, and new bottles. Although low-density polyethylene (LDPE), from which grocery bags are made, is the most widely used plastic, beverage bottle polyethylene terephthalate, or PET(E), and high-density polyethylene, or HDPE, are the most widely recycled plastics. Containers from toxic substances such as motor oil, pesticides, and solvents are not usually accepted with collected plastic because of contamination. Methods to reuse and recycle polystyrene are in development, although presently, Styrofoam is not collected with other plastics and is considered a contaminant as well.

41) The best way to reduce plastic in landfills is to ________.

A) urge the government to pass more bottle bills B) use biodegradable plastic items C) increase use of recycled items D) buy products produced locally with minimal packaging E) reuse beverage bottles

41)

42) Closing the recycling loop refers to ________.

A) purchasing items made from recycled materials B) composting of biodegradable plastic C) finding ways to recycle all plastics, including polystyrene D) covering landfills once they have outlived their usefulness and converting the sites to public

42)

parks

E) avoiding contamination of plastic and paper collectables during sorting 43) Plastic ________.

A) not made from recyclables is made from renewable raw materials B) from grocery bags is labeled with recycling symbols #1 and #2 C) containers from motor oil are recycled with beverage bottles to make new bottles D) from beverage containers is easily recyclable if uncapped, washed, and flattened E) polystyrene is considered a plastic contaminant

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43)

44) ________ can contaminate wastepaper and decrease the value of collected paper and cardboard.

A) Paper shopping bags B) Office papers C) Newspapers D) Cereal boxes E) Corrugated cardboard boxes

44)

45) Paper and plastic waste share which of the following characteristics?

A) They readily degrade in landfills.

B) They are both made from petrochemicals.

C) Both are more than 90% recycled in the United States.

D) Their increased consumption leads to increased waste.

E) They cannot be incinerated to produce energy.

45)

46) LDPE is ________.

A) a toxin found in most plastics B) the most widely recycled plastic C) banned in Denmark D) not currently recycled E) the plastic used to make grocery bags

46)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

47) Briefly describe the three main components of waste management. Which method is preferred?

48) Describe the advantages of composting.

49) What are the three basic steps in the recycling loop? What is the step that needs the most attention if the recycling loop is going to work?

50) Briefly describe the pros and cons of curbside recycling.

51) Identify steps that can be taken to reduce the size of the waste stream.

52) What are the benefits and drawbacks of incinerating trash? How have these problems been dealt with in most developed countries?

53) Discuss the benefits and disadvantages of modern-day landfills in the United States.

54) If reducing waste can increase efficiency, why is the output of industrial waste still so great? What is the application of industrial ecology and life-cycle analysis to these problems?

55) Describe the growing problems in dealing with e-waste.

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56) Describe what environmentalists mean when they say that RCRA deals with waste streams by life-cycle analysis ("from cradle to grave").

57) There are three main disposal methods for hazardous waste. One is landfills. Describe how hazardous waste landfills differ from ordinary sanitary landfills. Briefly discuss the other two ways that hazardous waste is contained.

10

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED22

1) D 2) D 3) C 4) C 5) A 6) B 7) C 8) D 9) D 10) D 11) B 12) E 13) E 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) E 18) B 19) E 20) D 21) A 22) E 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) E 27) C 28) E 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) E 34) A 35) B 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) E 40) C 41) D 42) A

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED22

43) D 44) D 45) D 46) E 47) The preferred approach to waste management is minimizing waste at its source. This is called source reduction. It

includes the more efficient use of resources by manufacturers, reduced consumption, and the promotion of reuse, which includes purchasing used and durable goods and products with less packaging and donating unwanted items.

The second best strategy is recovery, which includes recycling and composting. Paper, cardboard, glass, metal, plastic, and e-wastes have all become increasingly recyclable as new technologies have developed and as markets for recycled materials grow. Biological decomposition or composting effectively recycles organic waste. Third, safe and effective disposal of what remains is typically accomplished through incineration and/or internment in landfills.

48) In natural systems, there is no solid waste. All organic waste is used for food by other organisms. Conversion of organic waste into mulch or humus through the natural biological processes of decomposition reduces landfill waste, enriches soil and helps it retain water and resist erosion, encourages soil biodiversity, makes for healthier plants and more pleasing gardens, and reduces the need for irrigation and chemical fertilizers.

49) The first step is collection and processing of recyclable goods and materials after they have been used. Items collected are taken to materials recovery facilities where they are sorted and processed, often with the help of automated machinery. The facilities clean the materials, shred them, and prepare them for reprocessing into new items. Once readied, these materials are used in manufacturing new goods. In the third step, consumers and businesses must purchase the products made from recycled materials if the recycling loop is to work and become economically sustainable. Some items currently made from recycled materials include plastic benches and bridges in city parks, "glassphalt" for paving roads and paths, and books.

50) People take satisfaction in recycling, and municipalities see it as a way to reduce waste. Recycling saves a great deal of energy expended in making products from virgin materials and offers entrepreneurs opportunities to start new businesses and save money. Sometimes the expense of collecting, sorting, and processing recycled goods is more than recyclables are worth on the market. Furthermore, the more people recycle, the more glass, metals, paper, and plastic are made available to manufacturers for purchase, driving prices down. Recycling advocates argue, however, that conventional supply-and-demand economics and market prices do not account for external costs.

51) Industry can decrease waste by making their practices more efficient with regard to wastes produced and by minimizing packaging. Consumers can minimize waste by purchasing fewer goods, choosing products with minimal packaging (e.g., buying a case of toilet paper that does not contain individually wrapped four-packs), reusing goods they already own, buying used items, and donating unwanted items rather than disposing of them. Consumers can also recycle items such as cardboard, newspaper, metals, glass, and plastics, and they can compost yard waste and food scraps.

52) Incinerating waste reduces its weight by up to 75% and its volume by up to 90%. Most North American incinerators today also generate electricity in a process called waste-to-energy (WTE). The remaining ash is generally shipped to hazardous waste landfills. Although high-temperature incineration can destroy certain pollutants such as PCBs, it does not always eliminate all toxins, and such combustion actually can create new hazardous chemicals. Particulates, acids, dioxins, and heavy metals may be contained in incinerator smoke. Early incinerators did not include mechanisms for mitigating air pollution, and many citizens still fear the health effects of released incinerator gases.

Most developed nations now regulate incinerator emissions, and some have banned incineration outright. Scrubbers have been installed in some incinerators to remove hazardous combustion by-products and neutralize acidic gases.

Baghouse filters have been installed to reduce particulate emissions. Most incinerators are required to test their emissions to ensure that discarded ash meets safety standards.

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED22

53) In contrast to open landfills, modern-day sanitary landfills are lined and covered to prevent waste from

contaminating the environment and threatening public health. They are regulated by state or local governments and must meet federal standards. U.S. regulations specify that landfills must be located away from wetlands and earthquake-prone faults and be 20 feet above the water table. The bottom and sides must be lined with heavy plastic and clay to prevent aquifer contamination. Leachate must be collected in pipes, treated, and monitored. Anaerobic bacteria that decompose landfill waste produce methane, which can be captured and used as an energy source. If this landfill gas is not captured, however, it can contribute to smog and global climate change. It also can explode. Many experts believe leachate escapes from landfills due to liner breakage. The dry state of landfills precludes rapid waste decay because decomposers thrive in wet conditions. Paper has been found to survive intact for decades. It has become increasingly difficult to find areas to locate new landfills. Most communities do not want large landfills in their midst for aesthetic reasons and for fear of potential health risks. In North America, as a result of the NIMBY syndrome, landfills are rarely sited in wealthy, educated, and politically powerful neighborhoods, but instead are disproportionately sited in poor and minority communities. Besides the obvious injustice of this pattern, an uneven distribution of landfills decreases efficiency, requiring waste shipments over long distances.

54) Physical efficiency is not always equivalent to economic efficiency. Often it is cheaper for industry to generate waste than to avoid it. Market prices drive industry's decisions, even though market prices do not reflect external societal and ecological costs. Possible solutions to decrease waste and increase physical efficiency include the following: raising corporate waste-disposal costs and offering tax incentives to corporations that reduce waste; creating market systems that internalize ecological costs into the production process; and encouraging consumers to purchase recycled goods through price supports on recycled goods or taxes on goods not made from recycled raw materials.

The most recent progress is coming through the field of industrial ecology and its life-cycle analysis of waste.

Companies that subscribe to life-cycle analysis concentrate on every category of waste and try to identify other companies that may be able to use their wastes as a resource or try to recycle materials. The Swiss Zero Emissions Research and Initiatives (ZERI) have sponsored many such innovative projects of this type all over the world.

55) E-wastes include cell phones, computer components, FAX machines, televisions, VCRs, and other electronic equipment. Many are turning up in landfills. These items contain heavy metals and flame retardants, which make them candidates for hazardous waste designation. This designation would keep them out of ordinary landfills. Many discarded electronic devices can be disassembled for recycling. There are many businesses and nonprofit groups that collect items for recycling. Because of the toxic materials risk, guidelines for the recycling industry need to be developed. Although recycling rates have improved in the last decade, more than half of all e-waste is still ending up in landfills and incinerators.

56) RCRA requires large generators of hazardous waste to obtain permits and track the path of hazardous materials and to prevent illegal dumping and encourage the use of reputable waste carriers and disposal facilities. As hazardous waste is generated, transported, and disposed of, the producer, carrier, and disposal facility must each report to the EPA the type and amount of material generated. They must document the location, origin, and destination of the hazardous material and document the way it is handled.

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED22

57) There are three primary means of hazardous waste disposal in the United States and most other developed countries:

landfills, surface impoundments, and injection wells. Secure landfills store hazardous waste so that it is isolated from people, wildlife, and ecosystems. The standards for landfills that receive hazardous waste are higher than those of ordinary sanitary landfills. They must have several impervious liners and leachate removal systems and must be located far from aquifers. Another method for storing hazardous waste, particularly liquid hazardous waste or waste in dissolved form, is in ponds or surface impoundments. To create a surface impoundment, a shallow depression is dug and lined with plastic or an impervious material such as clay. Water containing small amounts of hazardous waste is placed in the pond and allowed to evaporate, eventually leaving a residue of solid hazardous waste on the bottom. The dry material is removed and transported elsewhere for permanent disposal. Surface impoundments may leak waste, and some toxic material may evaporate, blow away, or travel in floodwater to surrounding areas.

Therefore, impoundments are usually used only for temporary storage. The third disposal method is deep-well injection. In this long-term disposal method, a well is drilled deep beneath an area's water table. The well must reach below an impervious soil layer and must enter into porous rock. Wastes are injected into the well with the idea that they will be absorbed into the porous rock and remain deep underground, isolated from groundwater and human contact. Sometimes wells become corroded and leak waste into soil and aquifers.

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Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure above to answer the following question(s).

1

1) Which of the following can be inferred from the data shown in parts (a) and (b) of the figure?

A) Most cities would be better served by having both a bus system and a commuter rail system.

B) In most cities, public mass transit systems are too expensive to be a viable long-term

1)

strategy for decreasing greenhouse gas emissions.

C) Pickup trucks are more energy efficient than SUVs.

D) Pickup trucks are only about half as energy efficient as SUVs. E) Buses are inefficient when there are few people riding on them.

2) The operating costs for transportation ________.

A) show that bus transport is the least expensive when all costs are included B) take into account the costs to public health and to the environment of vehicle emissions C) indicate that city planners should invest more in parking lots D) clearly show the economies of scale, with large cities costing less per automobile than small

2)

cities

E) indicate that, when all operating costs are included, rail is the most sensible means of transport

3) Given the energy consumption and operating costs per passenger-kilometer, one of the best

3)

overall strategies for cities to consider is ________.

A) to create or improve a convenient, affordable rail transit system

B) to create carpool lanes on all major routes C) to increase affordable, high-rise parking sites in multiple locations throughout the city D) to improve and increase city bus routes by providing affordable, pleasant buses E) to create more suburban communities with work, shopping, and housing in central locations

4) It costs less to operate an automobile in a small city than in a large city because ________.

A) parking costs more in a large city than in a small city B) people generally drive fewer miles to and from work in a small city than in a large city C) people in smaller cities tend to use mass transit more than they do in large cities D) people tend to drive smaller cars in small cities than in large cities E) automobiles generally cost less to purchase in a small city than in a large city

4)

5) An SUV uses approximately ________% more fuel energy than a sedan.

A) 50 B) 100 C) 33 D) 0.9

5) E) 25

6) Worldwide, the fastest growing cities today are mostly ________.

A) in developing nations, such as Delhi, India B) cities in the northern United States, such as Chicago, Illinois, and Portland, Oregon C) the megacities such as Tokyo, Mexico City, and New York City D) large cities worldwide, such as Paris, London, and Los Angeles E) small cities in the southern United States, such as Austin, Texas, and Raleigh, North Carolina

2

6)

7) In developing nations, such as India and Nigeria, ________.

A) very little change has occurred in the past 40 years regarding where people live B) rural people are moving to the cities in large numbers C) more people are moving to the suburbs than to the city centers D) most of the population is moving to the suburbs from the city centers E) small numbers of people have moved into the cities

7)

8) The world's urban populations are ________.

A) shrinking in developing nations B) growing at a faster rate than the global population as a whole C) shrinking, compared to rural populations D) growing at about the same rate as the rural populations E) growing most rapidly in the developed nations

8)

9) Historically, large cities have tended to develop ________.

A) their own agricultural areas within city limits B) within walking distance of hunting and gathering grounds C) in locations where explorers first landed D) along trade routes E) away from large bodies of water that might cause flooding during storms

9)

10) Over the past 60 years, most U.S. citizens who could afford to do so ________.

A) migrated into the cities B) moved into high-rise condominiums C) left the cities for the suburbs D) moved into "downtown" city center areas E) improved the cities

10)

11) What is the major factor driving the move to the suburbs from cities?

A) desire to have a garden B) desire to live in less crowded, more peaceful conditions C) desire for close-knit communities D) concern over demographic transitions E) availability of more jobs in suburbs

11)

12) All of the following factors have contributed to movement of people to suburbs EXCEPT: A) more space.

B) better economic opportunities.

C) lower crime rates.

D) better schools.

E) greater availability of mass transit.

12)

3

13) American cities in the northern United States, such as Chicago, Philadelphia, and Detroit,

13)

________.

A) have increased their rate of growth dramatically in the past 20 years

B) grew very rapidly in the 19th and early 20th centuries C) have steadily lost population over the past 100 years D) have maintained a steady-state population since the 1970s E) have always grown rapidly and continue to do so

14) This figure shows the population of Portland, Oregon, from 1850 to 2015. What is the explanation

14)

for the population trend from 1950 to 1980?

A) the exodus of residents to the suburbs

B) growth driven by the shipping trade C) the downturn of Portland's economy caused by the crash of the stock market D) the preservation of sensitive habitat within Portland's borders E) the adoption of urban growth regulations that prohibited population growth 15) Air travel, the Internet, cheap fossil fuels, and television all have allowed people to ________.

A) return to an agricultural society B) remain connected while living in less centralized locations C) consume less energy and materials D) live more densely packed into urban areas E) live within the UDBs demanded by smart city design

4

15)

16) Urban sprawl typically results in ________.

A) narrower highways B) decreased reliance on automobiles C) high-density housing outside of the central city D) increased commuting distances E) increased population densities

16)

17) Suburban living encourages ________.

A) increased use of automobiles B) increased agricultural activities C) investment in and improvement of downtown centers D) driving electric cars E) walking, riding bicycles, and other kinds of physical activity

17)

18) Any consideration of the true costs of sprawl must include ________.

A) increased use of fossil fuels B) the restoration of natural areas to inner cities C) increased use of pesticides D) more time for families to be together E) the problems of decreased water use and decreased energy consumption

18)

19) Pat and Terry are considering moving from near the center of a large city into the suburbs. Which

19)

of the following discussion points is valid?

A) If they move to the suburbs, it will cost much less for transportation.

B) If they stay in the city, they'll probably get less exercise.

C) They will experience more stress if they move to the suburbs.

D) If they stay in the city, they will contribute more to local pollution.

E) It will be easier to have a place for a vegetable garden if they move to the suburbs.

20) L'Enfant's 1791 Plan of the U.S. capital represented the first ________.

A) effort to plan for agriculture in city areas B) attempt to address biodiversity concerns C) effort to address urban sprawl D) effort to design a freeway E) thorough city planning program

20)

21) The practice of classifying areas for different types of development and land use is referred to as

21)

________.

A) urbanism

B) green-washing C) zoning D) boundary-setting E) deregulation

5

22) The role of zoning is to ________.

A) classify areas for different types of urban development and land use B) promote taxation according to land use C) promote urbanization D) integrate agriculture with urban land use E) run city governments like the federal government

22)

23) An urban growth boundary (UGB) is intended to ________.

A) ensure that businesses do not locate in residential areas B) provide guidelines for city development to separate areas desired to be urban from areas

23)

desired to be rural C) maintain low housing costs for the average homeowner

D) enforce certain restrictions within neighborhoods E) help an area retain its distinctive character 24) The requirement in Oregon for every metropolitan area to establish an urban growth boundary is

24)

intended to ________.

A) take away incentives for renewal of urban areas

B) force people to move elsewhere C) increase the size of suburbs D) reduce urban sprawl E) reduce the size of natural areas adjacent to cities 25) Oregon's strong policy of enforcing UGBs (urban growth boundaries) to create livable cities has

25)

been exemplary for many years, but between 2004 and 2007, voters ________.

A) passed legislation forbidding the construction of any new single-family homes

B) chose to remove UGBs and allow unregulated development throughout the state C) approved rules relinquishing private property rights in areas outside the area of Portland's

UGBs D) have gone further by passing a bill capping population in all major cities

E) passed a bill giving property owners some exceptions from UGB rules 26) In 2010, the Portland area's Metropolitan Service District (Metro) made a historic agreement between landowners and citizens that ________.

A) preserved all undeveloped land as natural ecosystems

B) removed UGBs because they were deemed unconstitutional C) prohibited agriculture on any undeveloped land in the region D) included a regional plan to identify exactly where urban growth would be allowed over the next 50 years E) put up undeveloped land at auction to be sold to the highest bidders, public or private

6

26)

27) A city undergoing gentrification is experiencing ________.

A) urban decay B) the loss of working-class people from traditional neighborhoods as housing prices become

27)

too expensive C) an increase in violent crimes and an increase in vacancy and abandonment of homes

D) an aging population and a declining tax base E) white flight 28) The original purpose of parks in eastern U.S. cities was to ________.

A) provide wildlife sanctuaries within cities B) provide open places for picnics and games, such as football, cricket, and lawn tennis C) provide a European-style experience of the beauty and intimacy of formal landscapes D) provide protected places for hunting foxes, birds, and deer E) protect passenger pigeons, Carolina parakeets, and other rapidly declining species

28)

29) New urbanism seeks to ________.

A) keep business in a central location, near transportation centers B) use tiered taxation to maintain inner cities as vibrant, livable communities C) provide low-cost, long-distance, mass transit systems D) use zoning to keep small neighborhoods intact E) develop walkable neighborhoods, with homes and businesses close together

29)

30) Which of the following is a method that governments use to improve urban transportation?

A) provide bicycle lanes on freeways B) make some public buildings and some communities accessible only by public transportation C) designate lanes as carpool-only D) give tax rebates to people who use only public transportation E) provide motorcycle lanes in the center of rail lines

30)

31) Mass transit systems include all of the following EXCEPT: A) subways.

B) light rail.

C) buses.

D) commuter rail.

E) taxicabs.

31)

32) Curitiba, Brazil, has shown us that ________.

A) a walkable city center and expanded bus system can solve a large city's traffic congestion B) traffic flows smoothly once pedestrians and bicycles are eliminated C) prohibition of all motorized vehicles within cities reduces pollution and saves energy D) once roads are widened, traffic congestion decreases E) unregulated urban sprawl produces severe air pollution

32)

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33) Greenways ________.

A) are links that provide pathways for wildlife to travel between parks and preserves B) contain parks that are large enough to harbor populations of exotic flora and fauna C) prohibit hiking and biking or recreational opportunities D) are waterways within city parks E) are urban golf courses

33)

34) Which of the following is a benefit of green buildings?

A) minimal adverse health effects on occupants B) being built from sustainable materials C) reduced use of energy and water D) pollution control E) All of these are benefits of green buildings.

34)

35) All of the following are landscaping features of green buildings EXCEPT: A) planting deciduous trees to allow light to pass in the winter and shade buildings in the

35)

summer.

B) rain gardens that absorb runoff.

C) landscaping with AstroTurf in dry environments.

D) the use of plants that are native to the area where the building is being constructed.

E) rooftops planted with vegetation.

36) Which of the following approaches would earn points toward LEED certification?

A) building with mahogany imported from Brazil B) building a children's cancer hospital C) recycling all construction wastes D) building near a school E) building on a golf course

36)

37) LEED-certified buildings could be described by all of the following EXCEPT: A) Their construction usually costs less than for conventional buildings.

B) They have a reduced ecological footprint.

C) They are built with sustainable materials.

D) They limit pollution and recycle wastes.

E) They are energy efficient.

37)

38) The urban heat island effect is caused by ________.

A) green buildings B) street lighting and burning of wastes in landfills C) air warmed over adjacent oceans blowing into urban areas D) nuclear power plants venting excess heat into the urban landscape E) heat-generating buildings and dark, heat-absorbing surfaces

38)

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39) In the study of urban ecology in Baltimore and Phoenix, how do the two cities differ in their

39)

40) People who seek to improve resource sustainability of our cities urge us to ________.

A) use zoning and taxation to promote livable cities B) maintain a steady pattern of growth and development C) find a balance between imports and exports of resources D) use renewable energy sources and recycle materials E) oppose strict limits on growth (UGBs)

40)

citizens' exposure to toxic chemicals?

A) In Phoenix, ethnic minorities are more likely to be exposed to such hazards, whereas in Baltimore, those living in working-class white neighborhoods are more likely to be exposed.

B) Minorities in both cities are more likely to be exposed to such hazards than white citizens, but minorities in Phoenix are provided with better health care to offset the costs related to exposure.

C) Baltimore has taken a zero-tolerance approach to polluters, so its citizens are much less exposed to toxic chemicals than the citizens of Phoenix.

D) Phoenix has largely eliminated exposure to toxic chemicals, whereas the citizens of Baltimore suffer from extreme exposure to such hazards.

E) Baltimore was built before building codes and zoning laws prohibited building homes on contaminated sites, so all of the citizens of Baltimore are exposed to high levels of toxic chemicals, whereas Phoenix has been built more recently and so does not have problems related to toxic chemical exposure.

Read the following scenario and answer the question(s) below.

A military base a few miles from a medium-sized city is being decommissioned. The base is a large one, sited along a coastline, and includes some small hills, pristine woodlands and wetlands, streams, a river, and a small lake. There is a railroad spur that connects the base with the nearby city, as well as a four-lane highway. The base contains housing, schools, a hospital, shops, and recreational areas for a population of 10,000. The city's options for using, selling, or leasing the land are numerous, and many groups come forward with proposals.

41) One group proposes to convert the base to a new city suburb, with low-cost housing for several thousand of the current inner-city residents. A possible major problem with this might include ________.

A) the lack of jobs and lack of transportation to jobs

B) that the inner-city residents may not be able to fully appreciate the natural areas and miss the inner-city quality of life C) that there is no guarantee that the buildings are in good condition

D) insufficient recreational opportunities for the new suburb E) the highway traffic to and from the city

9

41)

42) A development group wishes to turn the area into a recreational facility, including an RV resort, a

42)

major-league sports arena, a small-craft harbor for water sports, a hunting lodge, and off- road activities, including motocross racing and dune buggy areas. An important ecological concern about this proposal would be ________.

A) a need to widen the highway to sustain the increased traffic

B) habitat disturbance C) that the parking facilities would need to be increased D) that the proximity of hunting activities to the other new development would increase the likelihood of accidental shooting

E) that the developer's fees might not be enough to justify the long-term lease 43) Members of several local environmental groups propose that nearly all of the buildings be

43)

removed and the area turned into a regional hiking, fishing, and camping area, with very limited vehicle access. This will preserve the natural areas while providing recreation for the city dwellers. The most likely issue raised by opponents is whether ________.

A) anyone will be interested in that kind of recreation

B) revenue generated from users will pay for the changes and the maintenance of such a facility

C) water sports will be accessible to all D) there will be sufficient space for RV camping E) such activities would irreparably harm the sensitive ecosystems 44) As an ecological resource manager, your preliminary environmental studies should include

44)

inquiry into whether ________.

A) a new housing development just outside the city limits may increase traffic on the connecting highway B) the wetlands include oyster beds and shallow estuaries that are habitats for shrimp, crabs, and fish that support many local industries C) the city needs to obtain a great deal of revenue from the final choice

D) the lake should be provided with docks and a marina for sport fishermen E) the financial situation of some potential investors is shaky ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

45) List some of the reasons that urban dwellers move to the suburbs.

46) What are some of the reasons for the development of parks and protected areas in and around U.S. cities?

47) Summarize the sometimes conflicting historical goals that motivated the establishment and design of American city parks.

48) Explain at least three of the principles of smart growth.

49) Why do urbanized societies need stretches of uninhabited and undeveloped land?

10

50) Discuss four of the findings that urban ecologists have described from their intensive analysis of Baltimore and Phoenix.

11

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED23

1) E 2) E 3) A 4) B 5) A 6) A 7) B 8) B 9) D 10) C 11) B 12) E 13) B 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) A 19) E 20) E 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) E 26) D 27) B 28) C 29) E 30) C 31) E 32) A 33) A 34) E 35) C 36) C 37) A 38) E 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) B

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED23

43) B 44) B 45) Global interconnectedness makes communication easy. Location on a river or seacoast is not vital because we have jet

planes, television, cell phones, and the Internet. Fossil fuels make it easy to commute, as well as to import and export resources, goods, and waste. All of these make it easy to live farther apart from people and places with whom you need to interact. Other reasons why urban dwellers move to the suburbs include the desire to escape the stress, noise, pollution, crime, and traffic of a crowded city.

46) First and most important, these areas keep ecological processes functioning by regulating climate, producing oxygen, and filtering out air and water pollutants. Second, parks have been created in and near cities to satisfy our desire to be in contact with other organisms. A third reason we have set aside parks is for tranquility, enjoyment of lush greenery, and escape from the pollution and stress of the urban setting. A fourth reason for city parks (one of the earliest purposes) is as a pleasure ground for the wealthy and a place to relax. Fifth, many of the poverty-stricken immigrants who came to our cities wanted active recreation, as do modern city dwellers, and places to play ball games, and needed open spaces to get away from overcrowded living conditions.

47) American city parks were originally modeled on the western European parks and formal gardens meant to bring an experience of beauty, relaxation, and intimacy. New York's Central Park, designed by Frederick Olmstead, is one example of this vision still in use today. On the other hand, parks were needed to alleviate congestion and allow some escape for the many poverty-stricken immigrants who lived in America's cities at the time. These park users were more interested in active recreation, such as ball games, than in carriage rides and formal landscaping. In an ecological sense, parks preserve portions of original ecosystems and their services, support wildlife, and offer city dwellers of all backgrounds the chance to experience nature.

48) Students should discuss three of the 10 principles of smart growth: 1. Mixed land uses; providing for easy access within walking distance of homes, businesses, schools, and shopping 2. Compact building design; building up rather than out 3. Ranges of housing choices; large and small family units available at reasonable cost 4. Walkable neighborhoods to improve health by increasing activity levels 5. Distinctive communities with a strong sense of place; minimize grass lawns on mountaintops and in deserts, don't bring tropical plants to the northern United States, and enjoy what is distinctive about where you live 6. Preservation of open spaces, farmlands, and critical environmental areas, all needed to provide resources, goods, and services, and to absorb and neutralize the wastes produced by cities 7. Development and strengthening of existing communities; spending money to maintain and improve what is present now, rather than focusing on new growth and allowing current communities to languish and decline 8. Varied transportation choices; having flexible, low-cost, timely bus service, light rail, subways, or other systems to discourage automobile traffic and improve congestion, lowering pollution 9. Predictable, fair, cost-effective development decisions, with development fees and taxes for trucks, factories, and other sources that create wastes and damage resources. Don't spend money on new resources without recycling and maintaining what is already available 10. Encouraging community and stakeholder collaboration in development decisions; don't leave decisions to business people, whose major consideration may be short-term profits, or to politicians, who may not consider all their constituents. All voters need to be informed and to provide input to their regulatory bodies when new decisions are being made.

49) Large stretches of undeveloped land outside cities provide natural resources needed to support urban populations.

This includes providing city dwellers with timber, food, and other resources. Areas of natural land of all sizes close and far from urban centers provide ecosystem services, including purification of water and air, nutrient cycling, and waste treatment. Natural lands provide escape from the stresses of urban life. They provide open space, greenery, scenic beauty, and places for recreation. They also provide habitat for wildlife, which serves to satisfy biophilia, our natural affinity for contact with other organisms. In addition to the utilitarian reasons cited above, many people feel an ethical obligation to preserve wild landscapes and biodiversity for the sake of nonhuman organisms and/or the integrity of ecological systems.

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED23

50) Using old maps, aerial photos, and remote sensing satellite data, urban ecologists have discovered the following:

1. In Baltimore, the amount of forest has remained the same for the past 100 years, but development has fragmented the forest into smaller patches.

2. In Baltimore, studies revealed that soil compaction and rooftop drainage result in poor infiltration into soils and rapid runoff into streams. The rapid flow cuts streambeds deeply into soils while at the same time leaving the soil drier. This has resulted in wetlands-adapted plants being replaced by more dry-adapted species.

3. In Baltimore, because wetlands have dried up in many areas, nutrient rich runoff from lawns is not broken down and metabolized as it should be in a healthy riverine ecosystem. Instead, the Chesapeake Bay receives high loads of nutrients and has become eutrophic with a large hypoxic dead zone.

4. When roads are salted in Baltimore, the salt makes its way into streams where concentrations can be as much as 100 times normal, killing organisms and impairing the streams' capacity to remove nitrogen.

5. In both cities, residents import nonnative plant species for landscaping, which have become far more common than native species. Also, soil compaction and other factors have favored weedy generalist species rather than the more specialized native species of plants.

6. In Phoenix, food webs and relationships between species have been altered by several factors. Food is available to wildlife because of bird-feeders and garbage. Watering boosts primary productivity, and the urban heat island effects tends to moderate the climate, especially in the cool seasons. The result is that there are higher densities of animals, but with decreased biodiversity, as generalists replace specialists.

7. In both cities, researchers found that sources of industrial pollution tend to be located in neighborhoods that are less affluent and that contain racial and ethnic minorities. Mapping of air pollution and toxic chemical releases showed that children in these areas suffered from abnormally high rates of asthma.

8. In both cities, it was found that residences near urban parks had a higher value, unless the robbery rates were very high (as in Baltimore), in which case the property value decreased if it was close to a park.

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