Crisis Intervention Strategies 8th Edition James Test Bank

Crisis Intervention Strategies 8th Edition James Test Bank

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Chapter 1 - Approaching Crisis Intervention True / False 1. In the disequilibrium that accompanies crisis, anxiety is always present, and the discomfort of anxiety provides an impetus for change. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Transcrisis states are identical to posttraumatic stress disorder. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Transcrisis points are frequently accompanied by transcrisis states that occur during interventions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Existential crises have to do with the struggle to continue to exist after a disaster. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. The Equilibrium model of crisis intervention seeks to equalize faulty thinking. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Basic crisis intervention, while often brief, is not brief therapy. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Eclectic crisis intervention involves the intentional and systematic selection and integration of valid concepts and strategies from all available therapeutic approaches. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Crisis intervention in the United States started at about the time of the Revolutionary War. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. The first suicide intervention program in the United States was created over a hundred years ago.

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Chapter 1 - Approaching Crisis Intervention a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Crisis intervention services typically start through massive government funding to rectify some ill. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. Developmental crises involve abnormal reactions the normal flows of predictable life changes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. Chaos theory is a positive theory of crisis because it causes new, previously unknown solutions to be found. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Psychological first aid is a first-order intervention in crisis. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. The ACT Model of crisis intervention seems most appropriate for long term transcrisis intervention when the person cannot seem to get out of the crisis after a long period of time. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. Workers who have experienced the crisis a client is experiencing will undoubtedly be better able to handle it because they have overcome the crisis. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 16. The term "crisis" refers to the perception of an event or situation as an intolerable difficulty that exceeds the person's: a. ego strength. b. resources and coping mechanisms. c. ability to comprehend the crisis. d. anxiety level following the crisis.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 1 - Approaching Crisis Intervention 17. Being aware that an individual in crisis is operating in a transcrisis state provides the crisis worker with important information regarding: a. transcrisis points. b. the kind and degree of therapeutic intervention that should be provided for the client. c. multicultural perspectives that might have a significant impact on the crisis. d. brief therapy approaches to crises.

ANSWER: b 18. A crisis which is not properly dealt with may become submerged from awareness, where it forms a disease reservoir.

The phenomenon in which such a crisis reemerges later in life, causing the person's previous crisis symptoms to recur has been termed: a. acute depressive onset. b. regression. c. recidivism. d. transcrisis.

ANSWER: d 19. The Equilibrium model of crisis intervention is: a. generally useful with persons who are unable to make appropriate choices during their crisis. b. used to blend a variety of approaches equally into an eclectic whole. c. to reduce psychological balance. d. designed for use with persons who are coping effectively and able to solve problems in a state of crisis.

ANSWER: a 20. Grassroots movements are: a. always successful in changing society. b. government organizations. c. groups of individuals personally affected by a common problem. d. staffed primarily with paid staff.

ANSWER: c 21. A model of crisis intervention that reaches outside the individual and promotes change in the systems in need of change is the: a. cognitive-milieu model. b. psychoanalytic model. c. psychosocial transition model. d. disequilibrium model.

ANSWER: c 22. Transcrisis points tend to occur in: a. regular intervals. b. response to unconditioned aversive stimuli. c. unpredictable intervals. d. progressively increasing incidents.

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Chapter 1 - Approaching Crisis Intervention ANSWER: c 23. An eclectic approach to crisis intervention means: a. perceiving crisis as an internal and external state of affairs. b. that people are viewed as products of both heredity and social learning. c. not being locked into any theoretical approach in a dogmatic fashion. d. dealing with the equilibrium/disequilibrium aspects of the crisis.

ANSWER: c 24. Interpersonal theory states that: a. the total ecological system is involved in resolving the crisis. b. the crisis cannot be sustained when people believe in their ability to overcome the crisis. c. maladaptive thinking and behaving is changed to more adaptational thoughts and behaviors. d. crises result from disequilibrium in coping responses.

ANSWER: b 25. Lindemann's basic crisis theory was important because his work negated the prevailing perception that clients manifesting crisis responses should be treated as: a. abnormal or pathological. b. permanently immobile. c. mentally incompetent. d. stuck in a state of disequilibrium.

ANSWER: a 26. Characteristics of effective crisis workers must include: a. burnout. b. being of the same race, sex, religion, etc. of the person in crisis so there is some common ground. c. being older and having the experience of age. d. resiliency, poise, and flexibility.

ANSWER: d 27. ___________ theory is based on the view that the disequilibrium which accompanies crisis can be understood by gaining access to the client's unconscious thoughts and past emotional experiences is (p. 15) a. Developmental theory b. Systems theory c. Psychoanalytic theory d. Adaptational theory ANSWER: c 28. Chaos theory is really a theory of: a. evolution applied to human functioning. b. eclecticism. c. random events. d. creative problem-solving.

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Chapter 1 - Approaching Crisis Intervention ANSWER: a 29. Successful crisis work may be described as: a. curing long term pathology. b. successfully resolving long-standing trauma. c. “one man’s fruit may be another man’s poison.” d. tapping into the client’s reservoir of resiliency.

ANSWER: d 30. Of the following components of basic crisis theory, which does not apply? a. Basic crisis theory is equivalent to brief therapy. b. Crisis is a state where ordinary behaviors can't overcome the problem. c. The problem is viewed as intolerable. d. Emotional disequilibrium is always experienced.

ANSWER: a 31. Psychological First Aid involves which of the following? a. Initiating contact in a compassionate manner b. Confronting hysterical paralyzing behaviors c. Identifying long term needs d. Ignoring the immediate needs of disaster survivors in favor of resolving developmental problems ANSWER: a 32. A crisis theory that views the person’s crisis as the result of defense mechanisms that have stopped working is: a. adaptational. b. interpersonal. c. chaos. d. psychoanalytic.

ANSWER: d 33. The Contextual-Ecological Model of crisis is: a. really a disequilibrium model as well. b. contextual elements are layered and reciprocal impact occurs between the individual and the system. c. focused only on the relationship between the social environment where the crisis occurred. d. a math problem that can predict transcrisis.

ANSWER: b 34. In the United States, suicide intervention is about how many years old? a. 200 b. 100 c. 50 d. 20 ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 1 - Approaching Crisis Intervention 35. Institutionalization of crisis services usually occurs when: a. the government starts funding a project. b. the general population gets concerned and starts demanding change. c. politicians see the political necessity for alleviating the crisis. d. special-interest groups such as MADD form.

ANSWER: c 36. The major providers of crisis intervention services in the United States are: a. volunteers. b. social workers. c. psychologists. d. counselors.

ANSWER: a 37. Successful crisis work may be described as: a. positive addicting behavior for the worker. b. successfully resolving long standing trauma of the client. c. stopping transcrisis events. d. generating in the client a long term resiliency to ward off future crisis.

ANSWER: d 38. The ACT model is an acronym for what? a. Action, Cognition, Trauma b. Activation, Confluence, Transcrisis c. Assessment, Connecting, Traumatic d. Assess, Create, Treat ANSWER: c Essay 39. A crisis worker encounters a client manifesting definite symptoms of an internalized transcrisis state. Describe the typical behaviors that such a client might emit during periods of emotional stress or when encountering stressful or anxiety producing events.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

40. Compare and contrast two of the theories of crisis intervention.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

41. How is eclectic crisis intervention different from the other approaches?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

42. You are a crisis worker at a high school. Earlier in the day, a fight happened between two cultural groups who are also rivals in the community. The situation was badly handled by school administrators. How might this crisis metastasize?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 2 - Culturally Effective Helping True / False 1. The client’s past history and cultural background have little to do with the here-and-now conditions of a crisis. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. A major criticism of current multicultural practices is that current cultural competency practices are too exclusive and are backed by little research. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. A universal view of multicultural counseling relates to “visible and racial ethnic minorities.” a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Laura Brown, a renowned expert on multiculturalism and trauma doesn’t really know how people make sense of a trauma. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. People all share a common sense of what normal behavior is. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Individuals are not always the basic building blocks in societies. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Natural support systems are often more important than formal counseling systems in providing relief. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Linear thinking is critical in crisis intervention. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. It has been proven that Asian and Latino cultures have a much more collectivist world view than Americans.

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Chapter 2 - Culturally Effective Helping a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Multiculturalists in the United States are highly aware of how the competencies they promote apply outside the United States. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. A universal view of multicultural counseling looks at racial and ethnic minorities in the broadest possible sense. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. A smart crisis worker would attempt to enlist help and support from members of the indigenous community. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. The Taiwanese students in Heppner’s study have very different coping strategies than their American counterparts. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. Occupational “culture” may be a barrier to those who don’t understand it. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. Support systems are critical and they are used in much the same way no matter what the cultural background of the client is. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. Social locations are based on the racial and ethnic origins of an individual. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 17. The ADDRESSING and SAFETY models both manifest the social locations approach Brown is proposing to understand the impact of multiculturalism on trauma. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 - Culturally Effective Helping ANSWER: True 18. One of the major problems of crisis intervention in rural communities may be the local population’s fear and suspicion of outsiders. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 19. A member of a high-context culture would believe that a crisis counselor should: a. gain information about the individual’s personal status. b. gain information about the individual’s social status. c. be explicit and straightforward in language usage. d. use stories and metaphors to get a point across.

ANSWER: d 20. Of the attributes that will serve crisis workers well in a multicultural crisis world, which of the following is not helpful? a. Self-knowledge b. Alternative intervention strategies c. A unitary world view d. A variety of clients ANSWER: c 21. An effective multicultural view of a client includes a: a. universal view. b. focused view. c. crisis worker-centric view. d. wide variety of individual and group characteristics.

ANSWER: d 22. Individualism is a cultural world view that believes: a. the individual is subservient to the group. b. the group always petitions the individual for support and input. c. the exosystem has a profound impact on individual functioning. d. personal goals and uniqueness are paramount.

ANSWER: d 23. A collectivist multicultural view emphasizes the: a. group is subservient to the individual. b. group binds and mutually obligates the individual. c. individual is not part of the larger group nor subordinate to it. d. individual serves the group only to meet the individual’s needs.

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Chapter 2 - Culturally Effective Helping ANSWER: b 24. In high-context cultures: a. one’s importance is tied to individual accomplishment. b. words are paramount. c. communication is direct. d. the group is reflective of one’s worth.

ANSWER: d 25. During a crisis intervention the emic perspective is important for crisis workers to understand because it: a. represents how outside experts view the local culture. b. represents how members view their local culture. c. reflects a Hollywood version of the local culture. d. portrays a culture through the eyes of social media.

ANSWER: b 26. Of the following cultural barriers, which is not identified in the text? a. geography b. occupation c. religion d. sexual orientation ANSWER: d 27. Laura Brown uses the___________ model to delineate her social locations approach. a. ADDRESSING b. RESPECTFUL c. DEBRIEFING d. MULTICULT ANSWER: a 28. SAFETY is a developing model for understanding clients’ social locations during: a. family vacations. b. an active school shooter situation. c. routine interactions with friends. d. a Netflix watching party with a group of students.

ANSWER: b 29. Geographic locale is a cultural barrier in a crisis because: a. people may be suspicious of outsiders. b. outsiders will seek out local community leaders to gather their opinions. c. outsiders will go overboard in trying to understand community beliefs. d. people in the setting are too dependent on outside support.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 - Culturally Effective Helping 30. When a crisis worker encounters language barriers he or she should: a. move quickly into the crisis relying on nonverbal communication. b. use sign language. c. use a translator that is trained in the culture of all involved parties. d. use a family member who knows English.

ANSWER: c 31. It is of utmost importance that the recruitment, screening, orientation, training, evaluation, and retention of crisis workers deal with the reality of: a. learning the basic communication skills of the residents of the areas they are serving. b. a multicultural clientele. c. transcrisis states and points. d. having coursework in high/low context communication tactics.

ANSWER: b 32. An understanding of the ecological/cultural determinants of crisis intervention is founded on: a. how hot it is. b. the mutual and dynamic interaction of between client, local ecological/cultural factors and worker. c. broaching. d. SAFETY. ANSWER: b 33. Lauren Brown’s social locations concept of multiculturalism as it applies to trauma and crisis depicts a(n) ____ model. collective a. emic b. etic c. individualist d. collective ANSWER: a Essay 34. Compare a farmer from a low-context culture in South Dakota who has just had his crop wiped out by a flood with a farmer from a high-context culture in Afghanistan who has just had his crop devoured by locusts. How might you approach helping each of them? In helping these two people of different cultures, what would you do that was similar and what would you do that was different?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

35. Forge an argument for or against the concept of emic versus etic models of multiculturalism.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

36. How do you believe that ecological/cultural determinants play a part in your aspirations to do crisis counseling? What should you be wary of as you approach a person who is of a different age, sex, occupation, etc. (i.e., social locations)?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

37. You are a crisis worker that has been dispatched to help a woman who is being forcibly evicted from her home by the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 - Culturally Effective Helping police. She raised her children in this house, which was built with insurance funds from when her husband’s brother died in a train accident. Outline how you would apply the SAFETY model to this case.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 3 - The Intervention and Assessment Models True / False 1. The task model is mostly passive in what it attempts to do. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. The fundamental problem in client immobility is being stuck in a continuous nonproductive loop of approach, avoidance, or static behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Assessment is pretty much done at the beginning of a crisis and is a one-shot affair. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. The Triage Assessment Scale looks at affective, behavioral, and cognitive processes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Anger, fear, and sadness along with frustration are the typical emotional states assessed in crisis intervention. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. The Triage Assessment system is an in-depth rapid but systematic technique for use by crisis workers in determining the severity of a client's past and present dilemmas. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. The Affective Severity Scale of the Triage Assessment System assesses a broad spectrum of positive and adaptive client behaviors. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. The Hybrid model of crisis intervention epitomizes a stage or linear model. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Establishing a psychological connection is a critical component of Task 1.

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Chapter 3 - The Intervention and Assessment Models a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Morality and spirituality are assessed with the TAF. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. When rating behavioral severity, approach, avoidance, and immobility can be both good and bad. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. Melancholy is one of the descriptors on the Affective scale. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Alternate forms of the TAF, such as the TACKLE, are designed to deal with very specific populations of emotionally disturbed individuals who are in crisis. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. Psychobiolgical assessment is important for people in crisis because dramatic changes can occur in neurotransmitters when people are traumatized. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. It is important to determine whether a client is experiencing an acute versus a chronic crisis event to increase the utility of a crisis resolution plan. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. It is not necessary to assess for lethality in every case because all clients certainly do not present with suicidal/homicidal ideation. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 17. In Task 3 Providing support, which of the following does not belong?

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Chapter 3 - The Intervention and Assessment Models a. informational b. logistical c. technological d. social ANSWER: c 18. The default task of the Hybrid model is: a. safety. b. planning. c. psychoeducation. d. follow-up.

ANSWER: a 19. While assisting a client to examine alternatives, the crisis worker is advised to: a. beware of situational supports. b. ensure that the alternatives are workable and realistic in terms of the action steps. c. weigh alternatives chosen against future problems and goals. d. define the crisis from the worker’s perspective.

ANSWER: b 20. Assessment in crisis intervention: a. is best done under controlled conditions using Triage Assessment and other paper and pencil tests that adequately depict intellectual and personality functioning. b. is generally continuous throughout the intervention. c. generally attempts to adhere to Diagnostic and Statistical Manual-IV guidelines. d. stops the moment the client regains equilibrium.

ANSWER: b 21. The Hybrid model conceptualizes assessing as overarching: a. tasks 1, 2, and 3. b. all the tasks. c. tasks 4, 5, and 6. d. only steps 7.

ANSWER: b 22. In helping a client plan viable action steps, it is important for the crisis worker to: a. provide information about the course of the crisis and what is likely to happen to most clients. b. conduct a long term needs assessment. c. consider what types of psychotropic medication will be needed. d. make choices for the client based on the worker’s needs.

ANSWER: a 23. A rating of 9 on a specific triage A, B, or C scale would indicate: a. some overall impairment but controllable emotions.

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Chapter 3 - The Intervention and Assessment Models b. a great deal of impairment but controllable thinking. c. little impairment and no need for control of any dimension. d. a marked impairment and barely controllable behavior that is moving toward lethality.

ANSWER: d 24. Minimizing the physical and psychological danger to self and others is a simple way of defining: a. the Hybrid model. b. providing client support. c. short term plans. d. client safety.

ANSWER: d 25. Above all else, the worker's therapeutic style, choices, and strategy must reflect continuous consideration for the client's: a. safety. b. ego integrity. c. personhood. d. cultural identity.

ANSWER: a 26. In the planning phase of crisis intervention, collaboration as opposed to directive stances with clients is important because of the central issues of clients feeling a sense of: a. control and autonomy. b. long-term self-actualization. c. existential completeness. d. cognitive and affective adequacy.

ANSWER: a 27. Of the following neurological factors that may contribute to the severity of a crisis, which is not true? a. Neurotransmitter discharge during a crisis, while dramatic, is always of intense, short duration. b. Long-term, chronic changes in neurotransmitters have been linked to mental illness. c. One’s gene pool may have something to do with “catch” rates d. A client forgetting to take psychotropic drugs to control mental illness.

ANSWER: a 28. Assessment of cognitive processes in crisis intervention typically involves determining: a. the level of negative emotions felt by the client. b. how “hot” the client’s cognitions of transgression, threat, or loss are. c. how maladaptive the client is acting. d. how many of the client’s thoughts are happy.

ANSWER: b 29. The psychobiology of humans in crisis is important because: a. dramatic changes in neurotransmitters have little practical effect when crises occur.

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Chapter 3 - The Intervention and Assessment Models b. abnormal changes in neurotransmitters often occur during crises, which effects clients’ rationality. c. legal drugs have no effect on the crises people encounter. d. psychobiological functioning is not important to assess during crises.

ANSWER: b 30. While assisting a client to examine alternatives, the crisis worker is advised to: a. ensure that the alternatives chosen are ones that the client can truly own and are realistic “right here” and “right now.” b. to accept the fact that clients may not be able to come up with alternatives and allow clients to suffer the natural and logical consequences of their actions. c. try to get the client to accept worker generated alternatives even if the client is resistant. d. involve random observers in problem-solving.

ANSWER: a 31. Follow-up is an important task because: a. clients will not follow through on plans without help. b. success in maintaining precrisis equilibrium is critical. c. keeping track of the client’s long term needs and re-establishing broken relationships is important in moving beyond the crisis and putting it in the past. d. crises are short-term and once the plan is made the crisis is finished.

ANSWER: b 32. If the client’s decisions were highly impulsive and irrational with the potential to harm others, her behaviors were causing the situation to worsen, and she felt the situation was unreal, she would most likely have a triage score in the: a. lower to middle teens. b. the high teens. c. the low twenties. d. the high twenties.

ANSWER: d 33. If a person received an overall score of 26, you would most likely: a. provide them with supportive counseling. b. release them in the custody of a support person. c. consider getting a crisis intervention police officer there to take them into protective custody d. do nothing until you had observed them in their ecosystem to make sure your assessment was valid.

ANSWER: c 34. If you rated a client as a 10 on any one individual A, B, or C triage scale you would be saying that s/he was: a. potentially lethal. b. in need of some counseling. c. to be released on her own resources. d. None of the answers are correct.

ANSWER: a 35. There are four major factors in assessing the client’s emotional stability. Which of the following is not one of those Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 - The Intervention and Assessment Models factors? a. Duration of the crisis b. Degree of emotional stamina or coping at the client’s disposal c. Degree of self-actualizing mobility d. Developmental stage ANSWER: c Essay 36. Describe a hybrid crisis intervention model and the tasks involved with the model presented in this book.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

37. What part does psychoeducation play in crisis intervention and why is that more true now than ever before?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

38. What does the Triage Assessment model do that few other assessment models for crisis intervention do?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 4 - Tools of the Trade True / False 1. “Why” questions are generally excellent open ended leads. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. “Tell me more “is an open lead that asks the client for expansion of the subject. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Open ended questions are designed to encourage clients to respond with fuller, more meaningful responses. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Closed ended questions should never be used because they are highly intrusive and aggressive sounding and could shut off communication. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Close-ended questions in crisis intervention are generally inappropriate. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Owning feeling is probably more important in crisis intervention because of the need to be directive. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. “We” statements are an excellent way to build collaboration. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. A good owning statement may mean making a value judgment about a client’s behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. A good owning statement can be used for setting limits on disruptive and demeaning client behavior. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 - Tools of the Trade b. False ANSWER: True 10. An important aspect of listening is to respond in ways that let the client know that the worker is hearing both the content and underlying emotional content. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Allowing clients to cathart about the issue only compounds the crisis. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. As odd and paradoxical as it may seem, expansion and focusing strategies may both be helpful in crisis intervention. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Communicating empathically means focusing exclusively on the accurate restatement of the content of verbal messages and not trying to guess at underlying meanings. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Sympathy and empathy are essentially the same thing except sympathy uses more worker owning statements to convey feelings. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. Distancing is a technique the worker can employ to step back and more objectively view the client’s dilemma. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. Monitoring and assessing body language is an as important as monitoring and assessing verbal responses in crisis work. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. One way in which a crisis worker may determine whether the client fully understands a commitment is to ask the client to summarize the action steps that he or she plans to take. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 - Tools of the Trade b. False ANSWER: True 18. Silence is also golden at times in crisis counseling. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 19. Directive counseling is culturally judgmental and demeaning and should not be used in crisis intervention because it reinforces helplessness. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 20. Communicating genuineness means talking about yourself as a way to let clients see that you understand them. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 21. Open ended questions do all but which of the following? a. Request description b. Garner specific, concrete data c. Focus on plans d. Provide for assessment ANSWER: b 22. Closed questions are useful in crisis intervention to: a. request description. b. encourage expansion. c. increase focus. d. express empathy.

ANSWER: c 23. If the client said, “I feel like I am in a giant vice that is squeezing my sides in on me, and a huge weight is on my head pressing me down.” A good worker restatement of the client’s content message would be: a. “It all goes back to your mother putting pressure on you to succeed.” b. “So you sound like you are really in need of some relaxation techniques.” c. “There appears there is no direction you can go that will give you some relief.” d. ”It sounds like you are outgrowing your body.”

ANSWER: c 24. Relational markers: a. are stop signs for reflective statements.

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Chapter 4 - Tools of the Trade b. are points to remember to make restatements. c. shorten the psychological distance between the worker and the client. d. are owning statements that help bond the relationship.

ANSWER: c 25. An owning statement does which of the following? a. Puts responsibility directly on the client to respond b. Allows the worker to safely cathart about his or her own issues c. Uses positive reinforcement to approximate a client towards a larger goal d. None of these define what an owning statement is.

ANSWER: c 26. An owning statement most generally starts with the pronoun: a. I. b. You. c. We. d. They.

ANSWER: a 27. “I want you to stop swearing or I will end this session” is an example of a(n): a. disowned statement. b. distancing statement. c. limit setting statement. d. intolerant statement.

ANSWER: c 28. Which of the following is not a disowned statement? a. Based on my own experience in this work I would say if you keep doing that you are putting yourself at grave risk. b. We believe if you keep doing that you are putting yourself at grave risk. c. Research indicates if you keep doing that you will put yourself at grave risk. d. Don’t you think if you keep doing that you will be putting yourself at grave risk?

ANSWER: a 29. A statement such as “I need for you to take a deep breath, exhale slowly, and put the gun down!” is a(n) ____________ statement. a. assertation b. closing c. genuine d. reflective ANSWER: a 30. Of the following basic strategies for crisis intervention, which one seeks to deal with warded off, shunted, and denied feelings?

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Chapter 4 - Tools of the Trade a. Allowing catharsis b. Providing support c. Creating awareness d. Promoting mobilization ANSWER: c 31. If a worker quietly sat by and allowed a client to cry for five minutes and bemoan her broken engagement, the worker would be engaging in ______ as a technique. a. sympathy eliciting b. catharsis c. empathic responding d. providing support ANSWER: b 32. Promoting expansion means: a. to have clients engage in a number of plans. b. supporting clients as they attack multiple facets of the problem. c. opening up clients tunnel vision in regard to the problem. d. mobilizing the client to stay in the crisis situation.

ANSWER: c 33. Providing protection means: a. shielding the client from potential traumatic events post crisis. b. safeguarding clients from engaging in harmful and destructive behavior. c. creating a space where the client’s thoughts and emotions will escalate. d. allowing clients to avoid talking about the reasons they are in crisis.

ANSWER: b 34. Providing guidance: a. is an archaic term that best describes school counseling in the 1960s and has little to do with contemporary counseling and particularly crisis intervention. b. means clients are incapable of helping themselves. c. means clients don’t have the knowledge or resources available to get themselves out of the crisis and need an expert in providing them with the tools to do so. d. means helping clients focus on their goals.

ANSWER: c 35. The term empathy means that the worker: a. accurately senses the client’s inner feelings and meanings. b. correctly diagnoses the client's problem or symptoms. c. is open and transparent in the relationship with the client. d. engages in funeral home counseling.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 - Tools of the Trade 36. An important component of genuineness (p. 86) a. playing a counselor role. b. being non-defensive. c. is self-disclosing for its own sake. d. is using disowning statements.

ANSWER: b 37. The level of action on the part of the crisis worker is determined largely by the assessed level of the client's: a. empathy. b. mobility. c. genuineness. d. kind of crisis.

ANSWER: b 38. The crisis worker who interacts with complete acceptance of clients demonstrates: a. an ability to reassure a client even when there is little hope of the client's dilemma being solved. b. a total understanding of the client's problem from the crisis worker's point of view. c. the utmost of confidence that the client will succeed in overcoming the crisis. d. an unconditional positive regard for clients that transcends clients' personal qualities, beliefs, problems, situations, or crises.

ANSWER: d 39. Silence as a counseling technique is best used: a. when the worker wants to put some pressure on the client to talk. b. when clients need time to think. c. when there is a gap in the dialogue. d. All of the answers are a "best use."

ANSWER: b 40. All of the following are good rules of the road for crisis workers, except: a. provide support for the client. b. crisis workers can independently handle any situation. c. clear understanding of the problem is vital to effective crisis management. d. clients’ resources are helpful to build solid crisis plans.

ANSWER: b Essay 41. Compare and contrast the use of open and closed questions as they apply to crisis intervention.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

42. Case of Mildred. Mildred is a 42-year-old white female who is recently divorced. She is not doing well in her love life and comes to you to get some immediate help because she is depressed and thinking about suicide. She spends the first ten minutes weeping uncontrollably and has a hard time putting words together. Of the nine intentional strategies depicted in your book, which ones will you employ to stabilize this very distraught woman, and why?

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Chapter 4 - Tools of the Trade ANSWER: Answers may vary.

43. You are a crisis worker that has been called in to help with a client at a small substance abuse treatment clinic. The client is agitated and unable to sit still or attend to the group conversation. The therapist on site is concerned about the safety of the client as well as the safety of others in the room. Once you have met with the client you determine that he is not a physical danger to himself or the others. How do you decide the amount of direction you will use with this client?

Which action strategies will you use to resolve this crisis ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 5 - Crisis Case Handling True / False 1. Long-term therapy models and crisis intervention models incorporate a number of similar components. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. People with personality disorders such as a borderline personality can usually overcome a crisis rather quickly if the worker assumes a compliant, accepting, and nondirective approach. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Treatment in crisis intervention is concerned mainly with the immediate, traumatized component of the person. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Even when clients successfully work their way through a crisis there may be problems with termination. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Mobile crisis teams have now been replaced by CIT officers. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. When clients have been successful in accomplishing their goals in long-term therapy and are ready to terminate, they may suddenly experience profound problems that require the therapist to use crisis intervention techniques. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. “Borderline Personality Disorder” is so called because people who have it are not really mentally ill, but just emotionally distraught. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Ground rules for therapy with difficult clients should always be used in a passive, accepting way so as to not threaten clients. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 - Crisis Case Handling 9. Community mental health clinics must provide 24-hour service, as mandated by the Community Mental Health Act of 1963. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. About the only people who typically avail themselves of a crisis walk-in facility are the chronic mentally ill who have nowhere else to turn. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. Police typically spend about half their time on maintaining order rather than fighting crime. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. “CIT” in police terminology stands for “Crime Intervention Officer.” a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. Verbal de-escalation and defusing techniques are major components to teach when training CIT officers. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. In initial diagnosis, crisis case handling always attempts a slow, methodical assessment to determine the various antecedent causes of the problem. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. In defining the problem in crisis intervention, the major focus is on understanding the major personality constructs of the person. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. Mental illness and emotional disturbance calls make up a large percentage of law enforcement calls that fall under the category of expressive crimes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. Clients in long term therapy are typically immune from crises.

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Chapter 5 - Crisis Case Handling a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 18. One of the major, distinctive differences between crisis intervention and long term therapy is the: a. radical difference in models of therapy. b. radical difference in assessment. c. use of empathy and unconditional positive regard for the client. d. the use of psychoeducation while exploring possible solutions.

ANSWER: b 19. While crisis case handling and long-term therapy models may have similarities, one major difference in crisis intervention is the emphasis on: a. self-actualizing behavior. b. comprehensive appraisal. c. personality dynamics. d. the timeline of the client-worker relationship.

ANSWER: d 20. Crisis clients that use walk–in facilities usually have problems that are not: a. existential in nature. b. chronic mental illness. c. acute interpersonal problems in their social environment. d. a combination of problems.

ANSWER: a 21. On an initial visit to a mental health clinic, which of the following is not true? a. The client is given some down time after everything is done and left to himself or herself. b. The worker may be only able to do a visual and verbal assessment. c. A person who is having a psychotic break will be asked to voluntarily commit to hospitalization. d. The worker may have to provide access to physical necessities for short-term living.

ANSWER: a 22. The mobile crisis team operates because: a. it is cheaper than maintaining an office. b. geriatric or disabled clients may not be able to get to a facility. c. CIT officers are inadequate to handle really complicated calls. d. All of the answers are correct.

ANSWER: b 23. The police Crisis Intervention Team concept has developed because: a. of the Community Mental Health Act of 1963 specifying how and where the mentally ill are treated.

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Chapter 5 - Crisis Case Handling b. of the lack of qualified mental health professionals. c. more police officers are interested in defusing techniques. d. police officers often encounter people in crisis.

ANSWER: d 24. Typical CIT training includes learning all of the following except: a. psychotropic medications and their side effects. b. fishbowl discussions with the mentally ill. c. DSM-5 diagnoses. d. family and consumer perspectives.

ANSWER: c 25. Of the following strategies, which would work best with a person with borderline personality disorder? a. Debating with them until they are exhausted b. Focusing on their talents and stressing how they sabotage themselves c. Being firm, with clear cut rules and boundaries d. Confronting their manipulative plans ANSWER: c 26. De-escalation and defusing techniques for CIT officers first start with: a. keeping clients secure without cornering them. b. exploration of the emotional disturbance. c. officer and client safety. d. how one introduces oneself.

ANSWER: d 27. One of the most difficult, manipulative types of long-term clients to deal with is the ____________ personality disorder client. a. borderline b. dependent c. narcissistic d. schizotypal ANSWER: a 28. Crises may suddenly occur even when clients are successful in overcoming the crisis because they: a. have post traumatic personality disorder (PTSD). b. are experiencing intrapersonal problems in their own personal development along with the precipitating crisis. c. are about to be terminated from therapy. d. experience a psychotic break caused by termination.

ANSWER: c 29. One of the first things a worker should do with long-term clients is: a. select compatible clients. b. select compatible crisis topics.

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Chapter 5 - Crisis Case Handling c. get a commitment to a specific plan of action prior to the meeting in an intake session. d. establish effective ground rules.

ANSWER: d 30. Of the following, which is not a major reason for community mental health centers’ decrease in service to the chronically mentally ill? a. Their inability to pay or get insurance coverage by gatekeeping HMOs b. De-emphasis of these low functioning individuals by the mental health clinics and a move toward more "normal" clients c. An inability to find qualified numbers of therapists to staff such clinics for such difficult clients d. More chronic mentally ill individuals are being returned to the community due to funding cutbacks at state hospitals and prisons.

ANSWER: c 31. A modern, full-service community mental health clinic has several options to handle crisis clients. Such options may be: a. mobile crisis teams. b. short-term, in-house therapeutic treatment facilities that include drug and electro-convulsive therapy. c. fast, direct referral into managed care facilities or state hospitals for long-term commitment. d. reliance on police intervention.

ANSWER: a 32. The difference between the goal of a long-term therapist and a crisis interventionist would be: a. comprehensive personality change versus restoring precrisis functioning. b. focusing on cognition and affect as opposed to behavior. c. setting long-term goals as opposed to short term goals. d. not dealing with crisis clients as opposed to dealing with crisis clients.

ANSWER: a 33. Crisis Intervention Team police officers are: a. trained to deal mainly with instrumental crimes. b. a replacement for mobile crisis workers. c. trained to respond to expressive acts and maintenance of order calls. d. a replacement for TAC or SWAT teams.

ANSWER: c 34. In long-term therapy, one of the times that there is a major risk of a crisis occurring is: a. at the start of therapy. b. in the middle of therapy. c. at the end of therapy. d. there is no one particular period of therapy that is more likely for a crisis to occur.

ANSWER: c 35. One of the more puzzling aspects of therapy and one that escalates to crisis proportions is: a. falling apart over some insignificant task after more difficult ones have been accomplished.

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Chapter 5 - Crisis Case Handling b. being psychotic and then taking drugs to enhance the effect. c. the inability to sort out complex past family dynamics because of enmeshment. d. having an undiscovered physical ailment that is causing the presenting psychological problem.

ANSWER: a 36. In a regularly scheduled meeting with a long-term client, while discussing an employment change, your client becomes anxious and his behavior regresses dramatically. What may be happening with the client? a. The client has Borderline Personality Disorder. b. The client requires mobile crisis team services. c. The client is experiencing a transcrisis. d. The client is having a psychotic break.

ANSWER: c Essay 37. In outline form, indicate the differences between long term therapy and crisis intervention.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

38. A new client has just arrived at the community mental health clinic where you function as the crisis worker. She tells you about all of her problems, including a history of mental health treatment and homelessness. What will you tell her about the process of how your clinic will help her?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

39. You are the supervisor of a mobile crisis team in a rural area of the state. You have been invited to help train local law enforcement personnel as first responders for people in crisis. What do you want to include in the training program?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 6 - Telephone and Online Crisis Counseling True / False 1. One reason telephone counseling works is because clients can remain unknown or unseen by the crisis interventionist. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Volunteers who work crisis hotlines are actually pretty effective in helping people. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. The best method of dealing with a sexually explicit caller is to stay on the line and establish a trusting relationship. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. One of the advantages of telephone counseling is that crisis workers can have back-up consultation and quickly access needed services. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. One of the major disadvantages to telephone counseling is that the worker may have to refer to ready-made lists of feeling words, questions on the topic, and worst of all, keep reference notes, which can all be distracting to the intervention process. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. The possibility of secondary victimization is an excellent reason for using telephone counseling because the client is in complete control of the process. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Telephone and online counseling pose far fewer ethical dilemmas because the worker is not face-to-face with the client and doesn't know the client's identity. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Telephone crisis counseling is cheap, but generally ineffective due to staffing by volunteers. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 - Telephone and Online Crisis Counseling 9. Telephone crisis centers have ready access to a variety of support systems. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Because establishing psychological contact is so important when conducting telephone crisis counseling it is the first thing that a phone crisis counselor does. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Because the telephone worker is not on the scene, exploring alternatives and making plans need to be simple and clear-cut, and slowly and carefully mapped out. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. One of the major problems in a community telephone crisis line is that workers have to be “expert” in a large variety of areas. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. Lots of times complaining callers who question the callers’ credentials are really wondering whether they can trust the worker. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. One of the techniques for dealing with severely disturbed callers is to reflect their disturbed feelings and share their delusions. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. One way of deescalating severely disturbed callers is to humor them by “going along” with their hallucinations as a calming technique. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. The disinhibition effect means that people tend to open up earlier with more distressing issues over the Internet than they do face-to-face. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 - Telephone and Online Crisis Counseling ANSWER: True 17. Because the Internet is international in scope there is no need to carry liability insurance if you are offering professional counseling services over it because there are no international ethical standards. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 18. An iron-clad rule is that the worker checks with every caller to determine if their medication may be contributing to the problem. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 19. Pranksters should be hung up on immediately to clear the lines for legitimate calls. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 20. At times the telephone worker may have to provide sexual information and resources regarding sexual behavior to a caller. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 21. Predispositioning is one of the most important tasks when using the Internet for crisis intervention. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 22. It is extremely important to be careful in word choice and to use brevity when doing crisis intervention over the Internet. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 23. Because conflict can occur more online than in face-to-face intervention, communication constantly needs to be clarified. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 24. Font type has little to do with what is going on with a client. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 - Telephone and Online Crisis Counseling ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 25. Call-in clients like crisis lines because: a. they can remain anonymous. b. the crisis counselor is in control of the situation and can tell them what to do. c. crisis lines are usually staffed by professional counselors. d. callers can build on-going relationships with one worker.

ANSWER: a 26. Of the following statements, which does not apply to the disturbed caller? a. Behavior is always purposeful and serves conscious or unconscious motives. b. Behavior is comprehensible and has meaning even though the language may not. c. Behavior needs to be differentiated as to whether it is biochemically or psychologically based. d. Behavior is used to keep a person safe and free of anxiety.

ANSWER: c 27. Handling problem callers who become abusive is best done by: a. leaving time limits open so they finally run down. b. terminating them after a clear warning. c. posing close-ended questions to specify the problem. d. establishing loose and unclear administrative rules.

ANSWER: b 28. Dealing with a sexually explicit caller may be done by: a. covert modeling by planting the idea that they have a problem. b. flooding to extinguish their thoughts by sexual responses from the worker. c. reflection of their feelings and thoughts so as to show empathy and understanding of their dilemma. d. asking if they have some physical ailment that is causing the presenting psychological problem.

ANSWER: a 29. Hotlines may: a. be time limited or continuous depending on the issue. b. use answering machines to screen callers. c. be set up only by government agencies. d. can never be used with minors due to the need for parental permission.

ANSWER: a 30. One of the major problems with behavioral telehealth and specifically crisis lines over the Internet is: a. accessibility. b. confidentiality and anonymity c. cost. d. there are no problems with telehealth.

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Chapter 6 - Telephone and Online Crisis Counseling ANSWER: b 31. Volunteers are effective crisis line workers because they: a. don’t have preconceived notions about what to do. b. are seen as having more credibility because they do it out of the goodness of their hearts. c. are highly trained in one particular modality of counseling. d. can direct callers to the most useful local resources.

ANSWER: b 32. Of the following reasons for the use of telephone crisis lines, which is not valid? a. Provides services isolated areas b. Avoids dependency issues c. Has vast support and referral systems d. Uses comprehensive appraisal systems ANSWER: d 33. Crisis lines work because they: a. allow callers to control the interaction. b. provide easy assessment of client functioning. c. create dependency. d. are staffed by professional counselors.

ANSWER: a 34. In telephone crisis intervention, providing support to the client is critical because: a. the client typically has no support system and needs to establish psychological contact with someone. b. it does little good to attempt any behavioral change early on. c. volunteers are not trained to do much more than that. d. the worker will need to buy time to cool the crisis off.

ANSWER: a 35. Which of the following is appropriate in dealing with a self–defeating personality? a. Getting expert help for immediate consultation with such tough customers b. Caringly confront their rejected attempts to help them c. Stressing their talents and the behavioral consequences of sabotaging themselves d. Interpreting their defense mechanisms and caringly break through their denial ANSWER: c 36. In dealing with dependent callers the worker would: a. indicate that a time limit has been set and will be adhered to. b. immediately terminate the call because of transference issues. c. let the caller cathart until he or she is exhausted. d. reinforce strengths, support concerns, and promote taking responsibility for themselves.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 - Telephone and Online Crisis Counseling 37. A person who was identified as schizotypal would typically need to: a. have an immediate call to 911 for a call out for a mobile crisis team. b. have a police CIT member go to the residence because of the danger s/he could be to others. c. have the worker focus on reality checks in a slow paced supportive manner. d. express themselves to someone supportive of their odd behaviors and thoughts.

ANSWER: c 38. Of the following strategies, which would work best with callers experiencing mania? a. Debating with them until they are exhausted b. Focusing on their talents and stressing how they sabotage themselves c. Slowing them down and pacing with them d. Confronting their grandiose plans ANSWER: c 39. Which of the following strategies would not be recommended by the authors for an abusive, sexually explicit caller? a. Termination b. Covert modeling c. Switching d. Staying on the line and building a trusting relationship with the caller ANSWER: d 40. One of the first things a crisis line worker does is: a. make psychological contact. b. ensure safety. c. define the problem. d. provide support.

ANSWER: a 41. Regular crisis line callers should be: a. terminated quickly so others can use the line who are in need. b. traced and told not to call again because they jam phone lines and block others from calling when they call repeatedly. c. classified as problem callers and staff should not try to help them. d. set up with ground rules and have calls limited because they are calling for some good purpose no matter how weird or inappropriate they may seem.

ANSWER: d 42. Of several techniques for handling severely disturbed callers, which is not appropriate? a. Slow them down b. Determine if they are on any medication c. Avoid placating or sympathizing d. Go along with delusions, to calm them down and gain their trust ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 - Telephone and Online Crisis Counseling 43. A technique for handling pranksters and silent callers is to: a. wonder aloud whether it is difficult to say what the caller really needs or say nothing. b. hang up if they don’t respond in one minute. c. ask them if they are on drugs or are having a psychotic break. d. there is no good response to these two types of difficult callers.

ANSWER: a 44. With many types of disturbed callers, the center’s focus should be on: a. reflecting feelings so that catharsis may occur. b. bringing staff together to discuss these callers, plan strategies to handle them and voice concerns. c. proposing the disastrous consequences that can occur from such thinking. d. engaging callers so that they continue to make inappropriate calls and improve the center’s numbers reported to funders.

ANSWER: b 45. Netiquette is important because if I MAKE A TYPO AND HIT THE CAPS KEY IT WOULD MEAN TO A SAVVY NET USER THAT I was: a. shouting at them. b. deemphasizing previous statements. c. signifying I needed a time out to think things over. d. All of the answers are correct.

ANSWER: a 46. Which of the following is not a legal and ethical issue in Internet crisis intervention? a. The technology that allows one to identify, block, and trace callers b. Linguistic and cultural differences c. The client’s ability to control the content of the session d. How emergency services are contacted over vast distances ANSWER: c 47. Disinhibition effect: a. means that the crisis worker disinhibits the client’s suicidal/homicidal ideation. b. is a common psychological malady of sex callers. c. means that clients open up faster and with more personal information when they are on the Internet. d. means the worker must immediately attempt to anchor the client in concrete reality because of the disinhibiting effects of a psychotic episode.

ANSWER: c 48. Which of the following statements are good netiquette for a worker to practice? a. Don’t worry about typos. Get the message and get it out fast. This is a crisis! b. If you don’t understand an acronym, be patient. You’ll figure it out and you won’t look stupid or offend the client. c. Choose a font style that lets the client get a glimpse of your personality so you come across as more human. d. Brevity in your responses is a good thing, so use standard, clear, counseling responses.

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Chapter 6 - Telephone and Online Crisis Counseling ANSWER: d Essay 49. You are the clinical director of a startup crisis line service. How do you want to prepare volunteers to manage difficult callers? What types of calls should they expect, and how should they handle those calls?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

50. You are a volunteer crisis worker at a local domestic violence support center. You routinely correspond with callers via text and instant messaging. What are some important netiquette considerations you will make with every client?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

51. You are a routine, but not regular, user of telephone crisis counseling. What makes this type of counseling attractive to you? What process do you expect the call center to use to help you?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 7 - Posttraumatic Stress Disorder True / False 1. Support groups are an important component for treating PTSD. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. PTSD is different for children and adults. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. There is little reason to believe that the war in Iraq will produce PTSD casualties among U.S. soldiers as did the war in Vietnam. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Man-made and natural disasters are equivalent in their ability to produce PTSD. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Eye movement desensitization/reprocessing (EMDR) works because the strobe light or finger movement interrupts abnormal neural activity. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Flooding works well as a safe therapeutic intervention with children because it allows them to expunge intrusive thoughts. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. “Railway spine” was a historical precursor of what is now known as PTSD. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Child abuse and rape victims experience PTSD very differently than other victims of PTSD. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. There is evidence that intense and continuous stress can cause permanent physical changes to occur in the brain.

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Chapter 7 - Posttraumatic Stress Disorder a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Terr's studies of children differentiate PTSD into two distinct types depending on traumatic event duration. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. SUDS is a term identified with EMDR. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. Children who suffer a traumatic experience are likely to have problems with “narrative coherence,” which is the ability to organize material into a beginning, middle, and end. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. In childhood Type II traumas, children rarely misperceive or distort the trauma once brought to awareness. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. An example of a childhood Type II trauma would be a one-time stranger rape of a child. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. A SUDS and VOC rating that both went down after an EMDR session would mean that the client felt some relief from the trauma. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. One of the major reasons for PTSD counseling groups is to let the members cathart about their experiences and thus get rid of the bad memories. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 17. Psychotropic medications are widely effective with all trauma types and should be used conjointly with psychotherapy a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 - Posttraumatic Stress Disorder ANSWER: False 18. EMDR should not be used with children because it is very intrusive and may reignite the trauma. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 19. Nondirective play therapy is ill advised because restitutive play may become increasingly destructive if left ungoverned. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 20. Because their mission is to save lives, survivors’ guilt is one of the negative emotions that affects emergency medical personnel. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 21. In the outcry phase, the focus of treatment should be on finding support groups whose members have responses associated with the trauma. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 22. Moving beyond the trauma means survivors need to come to understand the negative aspects of PTSD and that the physiological responses they may have are common to the experience. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 23. The Army’s Comprehensive Soldier Fitness program does not include a component to help families. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 24. The Master Resilience Trainer course will require thousands of psychologists, social workers, and licensed professional counselors to implement across the whole army. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 25. Structured Interviews such as the CAPS-1 are the best way of diagnosing PTSD if time is available to conduct the interview. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 - Posttraumatic Stress Disorder ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 26. Which of the following has not been a historical label for PTSD? a. Combat fatigue b. Hysterical neurosis c. Railway spine d. Acute intrapsychic trauma ANSWER: d 27. PTSD may be developed following exposure to uncommon stressful life events such as: a. physical or sexual assault. b. earthquakes. c. car accidents. d. All of the answers are correct.

ANSWER: d 28. Which of the following is not one of the diagnostic criteria for PTSD? a. Constricted affect b. Hyperalertness c. Heightened social interaction d. Memory impairment ANSWER: c 29. One of the reasons the Vietnam War was a fertile breeding ground for PTSD was: a. the war was always ideologically unacceptable. b. the country was in a patriotic frenzy and couldn’t accept defeat. c. there were no front lines and one had to be alert at all times. d. average age of combat participants was 26.5.

ANSWER: c 30. Which of the following is a common reaction to traumatic stress? a. Psychotic breaks b. Numbing c. Catharsis of emotions d. Traumagrams ANSWER: b 31. Support groups are important to victims of PTSD because: a. sharing experiences gives group members a common bond. b. increased stigma comes from sharing experiences. c. people with PTSD rarely use support groups. d. groups are not emotionally safe for people with PTSD. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 - Posttraumatic Stress Disorder ANSWER: a 32. There is a great deal of psychophysiological assessment evidence that indicates that stimulus presentation of sights, sounds, and smells associated with the long-past traumatic event in PTSD sufferers may cause: a. hypervigilence. b. physiological responses such as increased heart rate, blood pressure, triglycerides, and cholesterol levels, and decreased blood flow to the extremities. c. higher outputs of impulsive behavior. d. denial/numbing during the recovery phase of treatment.

ANSWER: b 33. Young children who suffer from PTSD are likely to: a. continuously reenact the event through play. b. immediately become very passive. c. become suicidal. d. have symptoms much like those of adults, but of briefer duration.

ANSWER: a 34. Assessment of PTSD may be best accomplished by: a. structured interviews specifically related to PTSD criteria. b. personality tests with special PTSD scales like the MMPI and Mississippi Combat Scale. c. complete medical work-ups to determine degree and kind of neurobiological involvement. d. incidence of drug use and criminal acts.

ANSWER: a 35. Neat and orderly progression for the PTSD sufferer through the recovery phase is: a. indicative of emotional numbing and denial. b. indicative of integration taking place. c. indicative that the intervention is working. d. the exception rather than the rule.

ANSWER: d 36. The police, fire, and emergency services support group provide all but one of the following in their support groups? a. Restoration of self-pride b. Mutual respect c. Shared experiences of traumatic events d. Integration with others kinds of PTSD ANSWER: d 37. A somewhat controversial treatment method for PTSD requires the client to maintain awareness of one or more of (1) an image of the memory, (2) a negative self-statement or assessment of the trauma, (3) the physical feelings of the anxiety-provoking event. What is this particular treatment method called? a. Flooding b. EMDR c. Thought stopping Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 - Posttraumatic Stress Disorder d. CISD ANSWER: b 38. Gestalt techniques such as the "empty chair" can be used for PTSD clients to effectively: a. dispute irrational thoughts that take over thinking. b. reduce the guilt of "unfinished business" of past traumatic events. c. generate positive addicting behaviors. d. interpret psychodynamic drives.

ANSWER: b 39. An inappropriate technique for therapeutic intervention with children who suffer from PTSD involves: a. EMDR. b. therapeutic play with sand trays and puppets. c. flooding. d. emotional catharsis through music, computer art, painting.

ANSWER: c 40. Terr (1995) proposed a division of childhood trauma into two categories that she called Type I and Type II traumas.

What is the difference? a. Type I targets very young children and Type II targets adolescents. b. Type I results from natural causes and Type II results from man-made causes. c. Type I derives from sudden, distinct, traumatic experiences and Type II derives from long standing, repeated ordeals. d. Type I stems from childhood sexual or physical abuse and Type II stems from environmental catastrophes.

ANSWER: c 41. Affective State Dependent Retention is important to PTSD because it theorizes that: a. a calm, tranquil state is needed to treat PTSD. b. no one is immune from PTSD given the right circumstances. c. traumatic memories are stored under different physiological states. d. a preexisting maladjusted personality pattern is retained in memory.

ANSWER: c 42. Of the following, which is not a common dynamic pattern of PTSD? a. Exaggerated social interaction b. Survivor's guilt c. Death imprint d. Emotional enmeshment ANSWER: a 43. Of the following phases of recovery in PTSD, which does not belong? a. The calm, tranquil "before the storm" phase b. The emotional numbing phase c. The intrusive-repetitive phase Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 - Posttraumatic Stress Disorder d. The reflective-transition phase ANSWER: a 44. Treatment for PTSD can best be described as: a. multimodal/multiphasic. b. atheoretical. c. stress inoculation. d. eclectic.

ANSWER: d 45. The original principal physical technique of an EMDR therapist is: a. rapid hand movements called saccades. b. deep muscle massage called rolfing. c. body manipulation called kinesthetics. d. no physical movements are made, only imagery is used.

ANSWER: a 46. All of the following were involved in the classification of PTSD as a diagnosable mental illness, except: a. the Veterans Administration supported its inclusion. b. Iraq war veterans began to develop psychological problems after returning from combat. c. Freud's earlier work on hysteria was "rediscovered" by the American Psychiatric Association. d. the National Organization of Women pushed for legislation mandating treatment.

ANSWER: b Essay 47. Explain why the Vietnam War was a major breeding ground for PTSD. ANSWER: Answers may vary.

48. What are the behavioral differences between Terr's Type I and Type II childhood trauma?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

49. Wage an argument for or against EMDR. ANSWER: Answers may vary.

50. Assume EMDR does have potential to work. Why do you think there is so much resistance to it? Is this any different than the views of new and unexplained phenomena in other fields?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

51. Name the DSM-5 indicators necessary for a diagnosis of PTSD and discuss how they might look in an adult or a child.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 8 - Crisis of Lethality True / False 1. According to Shneidman's concept of situational characteristics of suicidal people, the common stimulus in suicide is unendurable psychological pain and the common stressor in suicide is frustrated psychological needs. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Seung-hui Cho’s rampage really does not fit Shneidman’s characteristics of suicidal people. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. The suicide rate among children and adolescents has been essentially stable since 1950. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Each suicide is idiosyncratic, and there are no absolute or universal characteristics which portray all suicides. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Research has established that suicide runs in families. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. A recently suicidal person who begins to show generosity and share possessions is showing signs of renewal and recovery. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Suicide is almost always an impulsive act. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. In assessing for suicidal risk, a history of previous attempts is high on the list of factors to consider. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. Suicidal clients may emit behavioral clues which range from purchasing a grave marker for themselves to slashing their wrists as a "practice run."

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Chapter 8 - Crisis of Lethality a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Many times the suicidal person is also homicidal. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Discussing suicide with a client will usually cause the person to move toward doing it. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. There is basically little difference in how one goes about assessing a client for suicidal or homicidal ideation. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. Suicide is the leading cause of death of adolescents in the United States. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Assisted suicide and euthanasia are invariably synonymous terms. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. There is essentially no difference country by country in the number of people per capita that commit suicide. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. Clients who threaten suicide may well do it. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. Crisis management of suicidal behavior is essentially no different than crisis intervention. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 18. Seung-Hui Cho’s egoistic murder/suicidal rampage at Virginia Tech is characteristically marked with unendurable Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 - Crisis of Lethality psyche ache. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 19. One of the very first things the CIT officer does to get Deborah off the bridge is to simply tell her in a kind but authoritative voice to climb down. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 20. On a worldwide basis, about a million people kill themselves each year. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 21. According to Shneidman's concept of situational characteristics of suicidal people, the common stimulus in suicide is unendurable psychological pain and the common stressor in suicide is frustrated psychological needs. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 22. Most people who are suicidal feel a high level of ambivalence or inner conflict. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 23. In working with suicidal clients, even when they admit their lethal thoughts, confidentiality and privileged information make it legally, ethically, and morally difficult for the crisis interventionist to break confidence. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 24. All of the following statements about statistics on suicide are true, except: a. Native Americans kill themselves about 1.5 times more than other Americans. b. the second leading cause of death among children and teens (behind accidents). c. a serious problem in men over age 65 because that segment of the population kills themselves at a rate four times the national norm. d. the true number of people who commit suicide is well established.

ANSWER: d 25. The type of suicide by which a person chooses death in the face of a serious, incurable illness is: a. dying with dignity.

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Chapter 8 - Crisis of Lethality b. anomic. c. egoistic. d. hari-kari.

ANSWER: a 26. Which one of the following is not listed as a myth about suicide? a. Clients who threaten suicide don't necessarily mean it. b. Persons who commit suicide are insane. c. Talking about their desire to kill themselves decreases the danger that suicidal individuals will do it. d. Suicide is always an impulsive act.

ANSWER: c 27. Which of the following is not a category of assessment dynamics which is of concern to workers who deal with suicidal clients? a. Risk factors b. Warning signs c. Suicidal clues d. Clinical interview ANSWER: d 28. Suicidal persons may emit clues including all of the following, except: a. syndromatic. b. behavioral. c. situational. d. geographical ANSWER: d 29. Almost all suicidal persons reveal: a. the same characteristics. b. some kind of clues. c. some kind of pathological behaviors. d. nothing, people who want to die will not tell anyone.

ANSWER: b 30. People with strong death wishes are invariably: a. impulsive. b. ambivalent, confused, and gasping for life. c. venting their desire to kill themselves. d. suicidal for as long as they live.

ANSWER: b 31. Which one of the following indicators should not be considered high-risk in terms of suicide potential? a. The suicide plan is definite. b. There is a family history of suicide.

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Chapter 8 - Crisis of Lethality c. Previous "minor" suicide attempts have been made. d. A frantic call to a crisis line to discuss depressed feelings.

ANSWER: d 32. IS PATH WARM is: a. an acronym for suicidal warning signs. b. a standard warning code in a mental health clinic for a potential suicide/homicide. c. suicidology language indicating the degree to which a person is following a path to self-destruction. d. an acronym of intervention steps to be taken with homicidal/suicidal clients.

ANSWER: a 33. Whenever a suicidal person, who is not previously known by the crisis worker, is emotionally overwhelmed and immobile, one effective way to break through that immobility is to: a. shock the person into reality through shame and guilt or threat of punishment. b. personalize the communication by establishing a first-name basis if possible. c. create a diversion. d. gather enough information so as to establish a close and friendly relationship.

ANSWER: b 34. The Reasons for Living Scale is different than other lethality scales in that: a. it focuses only on homicidal ideation. b. it poses questions about why people would not kill themselves. c. it is a faster visual assessment form than the Triage scale. d. it is a highly reliable predictor of the who, when, where, how, and why of lethal behavior.

ANSWER: b 35. Research indicates that suicide attempts that "succeed": a. increase with the age of the person. b. decrease with the age of the person. c. are not correlated with age. d. are correlated more by race than age.

ANSWER: a 36. A postvention method of helping people to either gain a better understanding of why a suicide happened or to feel less guilt and responsibility for the deceased's death is: a. debunking the myths about suicide. b. assessing for survivor lethality via the Triage Assessment Form. c. establishing a crisis response team. d. the psychological autopsy.

ANSWER: d 37. In crisis intervention, the possibility of dealing with suicidal or homicidal clients is: a. really pretty rare. b. ever present.

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Chapter 8 - Crisis of Lethality c. specific to certain groups. d. dependent on the interventionist.

ANSWER: b 38. The suicidal/homicidal person who engages in an expressive act of harming self or others is: a. engaging in an act designed to reduce psychological pain. b. expressing a specific behavioral tendency towards euthanasia. c. demonstrating one or more of the common myths about client lethality. d. manifesting acts that are characteristic of Shneidman's cognitive characteristics.

ANSWER: a 39. An analysis of the Seung-Hoi Cho suicide/homicide videotape indicates that, immediately prior to his suicide: a. he was experiencing helplessness, hopelessness, and abandonment b. he was experiencing unendurable psychological pain and frustrated psychological needs. c. he demonstrated constricted thinking in that he was apparently unable to engage in alternative thought patterns or optional behaviors and lived in logic tight compartments. d. All of the answers were indicated in Seung’s suicide/homicide videotape.

ANSWER: d 40. In an assisted suicide, someone else provides the means (lethal agent) but the person who is dying administers it. In euthanasia: a. the person who is dying provides both the means and the administration of the agent. b. someone else does the administration. c. the Hemlock Society provides the necessary support and expertise. d. an attending physician provides the necessary support and expertise as legally sanctioned by the state.

ANSWER: b 41. Seung-Hui Cho’s videotape manifested which characteristic of Schneidman’s typology of the classic suicidal person? a. Situational b. Relational c. Motivational d. Cho manifested all of the characteristics.

ANSWER: d 42. Durkheim called a suicide type in which the person felt estranged and alienated from society a ________ suicide. a. egoistic b. mental deficiency c. kari-kari d. chaos ANSWER: a 43. One of the most effective means of worldwide suicide prevention appears to be: a. getting crisis workers to use the Triage Assessment Form regularly and correctly. b. analyzing the suicide/homicide notes left behind.

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Chapter 8 - Crisis of Lethality c. tempering the sensationalism of press reports on it. d. educating the general public, mental health professionals, and other agency and institutional personnel regarding the characteristic thinking and behaving of suicidal/homicidal persons.

ANSWER: c 44. Considering the myth that when a person has attempted suicide and pulls out of it the danger is over, a crisis worker should remember that if such a client seemed unusually serene and nonlethal toward self: a. an important danger signal for that client would be a period of euphoria following the depressed or suicidal episode. b. then, in case the client committed suicide, it would definitely be an impulsive act. c. then, the crisis worker would probably have misinterpreted the client's score on The Triage Assessment Scale. d. All three of the statements are valid.

ANSWER: a 45. The impact of having failed to save a person who was a client, or the victim of the client, can be overwhelming and can cause the crisis worker to experience what is called: a. vicarious traumatization. b. PTSD. c. traumatic reminiscence episodes. d. countertransference.

ANSWER: a 46. Sometimes crisis workers are devastated and vulnerable to permanent emotional wounds whenever they wrongly believe that they could have or should have prevented a suicide or homicide. The procedures that appropriately counters the guilt, grief, and loss and help crisis workers begin to heal and return to their own previous level of equilibrium and normalcy are: a. getting close supervision in future cases like it from a trusted other professional. b. conducting a debriefing. c. reminiscing about the person and event with the client's friends and family. d. using cognitive restructuring to normalize the event.

ANSWER: b 47. The crisis worker who deals with Deborah, the chronic, suicidal, bridge jumper uses: a. flooding to blow away her catastrophic all-or-none thinking. b. dynamic interpretation of past events to ferret out the underlying reasons. c. rewards alternative to suicidal behavior and minimizes short term reinforcements for it. d. an eclectic set of techniques with this complex case.

ANSWER: c Essay 48. Why does a crisis worker need to have a thorough knowledge of the risk factors that suicidal/homicidal clients might portray? In your response, list several of the risk factors that are considered most serious in times of the client's vulnerability to lethality.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 8 - Crisis of Lethality 49. Discuss the issue of suicide prevention compared to the societal "right to die with dignity" movement. How might cultural values impact on this issue?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

50. What goes into a "Stay Alive" contract?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

51. What are some of the "Don'ts" in managing suicidal clients?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

52. What is the purpose of the psychological autopsy? Why can it be helpful to survivors?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 9 - Sexual Assault True / False 1. There is abundant evidence indicating that crises resulting from sexual abuse are no different in nature, intensity, and extent than other forms of crisis. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Rape can happen to anyone and rapists come from all segments of society. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Enticement and entrapment are no longer used by child molesters in favor of threats and coercion. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. There appear to be at least four major causes of rape. They are: gender inequality, pornography, social disorganization, and legitimatization of violence. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Taking "control over women" is one of the myths of rape. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Rape is used by some men to control women though sexual conquests but they are really afraid of them. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Some men use rape to “punish” women who have done them “wrong.” a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Crisis workers should encourage rape victims to change jobs or places of residence to distance themselves from the trauma. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Inappropriate and persistent sex play with peers is a good indication that a child has been sexually abused.

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Chapter 9 - Sexual Assault a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Date rape survivors are more likely to have experienced sexual abuse and negative home environments during childhood. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Rape education programs are effective in preventing rape. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. Research data clearly dispels the notion that most women are raped by strangers. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Societal attitudes about rape and sexual assault have long enhanced survivor advocacy. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Alerting people of the role that alcohol has in date rape is a primary educational goal to combat this problem. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. Therapeutic grounding means putting one’s feet on the ground and getting stable again. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. Intergenerational transmission of sexual abuse is a sad but true fact. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. Secrecy is the first stage the perpetrator carries out when he or she sexually abuses a child. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 - Sexual Assault 18. Child rapists are different than other child molesters in that they typically use threat of harm either to the child or a significant other. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 19. One of the critical issues in counseling sexually victimized children is teaching them boundaries about sexual behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 20. False memories can be planted through mental health professional who themselves have experienced abuse. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 21. Residual effects of sexual assault may have characteristics of: a. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder. b. an unresolved Electra or Oedipal complex. c. hysterical conversion neurosis. d. love addiction.

ANSWER: a 22. Later in their lives, adult survivors of childhood sexual abuse do not usually experience victimization: a. on the conscious level. b. because of their beliefs derived in large part from social myths. c. because of their feelings of blame and guilt. d. due to the fear that the victimizer may reappear and revictimize the victim.

ANSWER: a 23. Female date rape survivors in college have been found to be more likely to have experienced: a. false memories of sexual abuse in childhood than college women who reported no date rape experience. b. more gender inequality throughout their lives than college women who reported no date rape experience. c. stress, maltreatment, and negative home environment/neglect during childhood than women who reported no date rape experience. d. no date rape risk training and education during freshman orientation.

ANSWER: c 24. The recovery of sexual assault victims is enhanced by: a. a comprehensive medical exam to rule out pregnancy, social diseases, or AIDS. b. seeking criminal prosecution of the assailant. c. as soon as possible engaging in sexual activity with a trusted and caring significant other.

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Chapter 9 - Sexual Assault d. empathy and acceptance by the person's support system.

ANSWER: d 25. From a feminist standpoint, rape occurs because the perpetrator: a. is sexually overactive. b. needs to have power and control. c. is psychotic or otherwise mentally disturbed. d. has severe relationship problems.

ANSWER: b 26. Anger and grief are emotional by-products in the lives of children who have been sexually abused. Venting of these feelings should be encouraged, particularly when: a. adults are uncomfortable with such venting and attempt to repress such feelings when children exhibit them. b. such venting provides legal evidence and data for court action against perpetrators. c. play therapy, relaxation techniques, and stress reduction measures fail to produce positive results. d. children's developmental immaturity impedes the therapeutic process.

ANSWER: a 27. Male sexual offenders may be characterized as: a. angry. b. impotent. c. oversexed. d. fixated on mother images.

ANSWER: a 28. The female victim of rape may exhibit many responses, including: a. acting promiscuously. b. becoming vindictive to significant others who have let her down. c. appearing unaffected. d. going on with her life unchanged.

ANSWER: c 29. Of the following, which is not a myth about rape? a. Only promiscuous women get raped. b. Men who rape are weird, psychotic loners. c. Women cry rape to exact revenge. d. Rape is an expression of power and control.

ANSWER: d 30. The behavior of the child abuser may be traced through phases of: a. secrecy, suppression, sexual interaction, and fulfillment. b. threat, coercion, sexual interaction, and termination. c. engagement, sexual interaction, secrecy, disclosure, and suppression. d. invitation, acceptance, acknowledgement, sexual interaction, repression, and termination.

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Chapter 9 - Sexual Assault ANSWER: c 31. In the immediate aftermath of an assault and rape of an adult, the crisis worker's response to the survivor should be: a. providing core facilitative conditions of trust, empathy, and unconditional positive regard. b. providing factual information about disease, pregnancy, and other health issues. c. preparing the survivor to make a police report. d. assessing the victim’s sexual history.

ANSWER: a 32. The recommended treatment of choice for sexually abused children is: a. Gestalt therapy. b. psychoanalytic. c. play therapy. d. psycho-education about abusers.

ANSWER: a 33. Regarding the disclosure phase in which the child sexual abuser's molestation is accidentally discovered, sometimes the abuse is disclosed by the child or someone else and intentional disclosure enormously complicates crisis intervention related to the abuse because: a. the abuser was also a victim during childhood. b. the disclosure phase itself is characterized by myth. c. parents or significant others are in denial, refuse to face it, and don't believe the facts. d. most therapists have little knowledge in this area and abhor the work.

ANSWER: c 34. Researchers have found that added physical violence during the rape of children was predictive of ___________ when they reached adulthood. a. increased false memories b. chronic PTSD c. legitimized violence for them in their adult sexual relationships d. females who grew up to be aggressive and became sexual abusers themselves ANSWER: b 35. Adult survivors of childhood sexual abuse may have: a. been hospitalized for a variety of psychological disorders. b. symptoms that are quite different than those of Vietnam veterans. c. suffered increased incidence of rape, assault, and battering as adults because they actively seek out such relationships as a way of punishing themselves for their "sins" of childhood. d. decided to become homosexuals because they can no longer stand the opposite sex.

ANSWER: a 36. Suppression of child sexual abuse may be attempted by any of the following except: a. the abuser. b. the child's parents or family members. c. the community.

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Chapter 9 - Sexual Assault d. advocates for prosecution of abusers.

ANSWER: d 37. The "false memory" concept applied both to work with adults who were abused as children and to perpetrators of abuse has: a. proven that false memories as a concept are valid. b. proven that false memories as a concept are invalid. c. much to do with the interviewer, the way particular questions are asked, the context of the setting, and the emotional state of the client. d. more to do with unresolved Electra and Oedipal complexes.

ANSWER: c 38. If you had just been raped and were at the hospital you would want a _______ as a first responder. a. SANE nurse b. licensed clinical social worker c. medical doctor d. RAPE nurse ANSWER: a 39. “Grounding” childhood sexual abuse survivors means: a. they are “in the wind” psychologically and literally need a place to land. b. are planted by a crisis worker using hands-on techniques. c. using flashbacks and traumatic memories as a way to process a current crisis situation. d. is a parental punishment for disclosing the abuse.

ANSWER: a 40. An intrusive but effective method for extinguishing PTSD in adult survivors of childhood sexual abuse is______ of the event. a. psychoanalytic processing b. behavioral conditioning and desensitization c. prolonged exposure through flooding and cognitive restructuring d. mindfulness and acceptance therapy ANSWER: c 41. Support groups are important for adult survivors of childhood sexual abuse because they: a. can try out new behaviors and discuss them with peers. b. allow for reconciliation between the victim and the abuser. c. help with dependency needs. d. destroy old pathological scripts and replace them with new healthy ones.

ANSWER: a 42. Of the following behaviors that will help a crisis worker know whether a child is being sexually abused, which one does not belong? The sexually abused child may: a. come to school early and stay late. b. act out by hurting oneself rather than other children.

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Chapter 9 - Sexual Assault c. be hypervigilent of others and surroundings. d. be sexually shy and appear ignorant of sexual matters.

ANSWER: d 43. Researchers have found that adult male survivors of child sexual abuse who were abused by men fair no better and report the same or similar symptoms as adult women survivors. In addition, they often: a. have unfounded paranoid fears of male or transgendered sexual assault. b. abuse alcohol and drugs. c. are homophobic, have body image disturbances, and sexual orientation ambiguity. d. act aggressively towards women in order to prove themselves.

ANSWER: c Essay 44. Discuss the societal myths regarding rape and sexual assault and how they are so detrimental?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

45. Discuss the long term effects of childhood sexual abuse in adults, and how these effects can be treated in both the immediate and the long-term.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

46. What are the reasons men commit rape and some ways that society supports rape?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

47. Discuss the clinical indicators that a child may have been sexually abused.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

48. Discuss the intergenerational family dynamics often found when sexual abuse is present.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 10 - Partner Violence True / False 1. There are legal precedents that condone spouse abuse. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Battering is a phenomenon closely associated with the lower socio-economic class. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Paternalism is the keystone dynamic of most battering. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Nested ecological theory proposes that no single factor effectively explains battering. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Learned helplessness proposes that women stay in abusive relationships because they have been conditioned to believe they cannot predict their own safety and nothing they do will change the situation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. There is evidence that psychopathology and neurophysiological disorders play a part in the reason some perpetrators batter. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. There is little domestic violence in same-sex relationships. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Intake interviews for women who are battered are best done in a hospital or police station with the batterer present so the assaulted person can feel safe and secure in naming the perpetrator. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Once a woman decides to leave the battering relationship, comes to an abuse shelter, and regains some psychological Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Partner Violence equilibrium, the crisis worker's first job is to provide immediate practical advice on such issues as finding a place to live, child care, financial aid, etc. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Based in psychoanalytic theory, the idea of erotic masochism remains relevant as the research evidence supports the idea battering is sexy. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. Exchange theory purposes that batterers hit people because they can. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. Alcohol abuse causes battering. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. While court-mandated treatment programs have been mandated for batterers, the evidence that they work to reduce future violence is mixed. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. One of the reasons that same-sex partners do not report battering is the fear they will be "inned." a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. Conjugal terrorism as described by Morgan is akin to brainwashing and political terrorism. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. Learning theory proposes that battering occurs in generational patterns as parents teach relationship skills to their children. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. One of the major components of treatment program for batterers is to start understanding they have choices.

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Chapter 10 - Partner Violence a. True b. False ANSWER: True 18. According to Walker, much of battering occurs on a random basis. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 19. While gay and lesbian partners report domestic violence, statistically it is a good deal less than what heterosexual partners report. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 20. U.S. Department of Justice statistics probably underestimate the magnitude of domestic violence for all of the following reasons, except: a. cultural norms tolerate and in some instances condone family violence. b. confidentiality and shame keeps violence a family secret. c. poor and non-English speaking women are underreported and women who are institutionalized or hospitalized are not included. d. same-sex domestic violence is counted multiple times in the research.

ANSWER: d 21. A batterer’s psychological factors have all but which one of the following characteristics? a. Possessiveness with rigid rules for everyone in the family b. Poor communication skills c. Unrealistic expectations of spouse d. Actively and aggressively confront personal problems ANSWER: d 22. Women who stay in a battering relationship may: a. have a self-concept that is dependent on the relationship. b. attempt to exert a great deal of subtle control over the relationship. c. use the relationship to express their personal power. d. enjoy many elements of the relationship.

ANSWER: a 23. Walker's schema for a battering relationship is: a. calmness, tension, violence, crisis. b. stress, violence, reconciliation, violence. c. violence, crisis, intervention, reconciliation. d. love, stress, anger, violence.

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Chapter 10 - Partner Violence ANSWER: a 24. Following a violent episode: a. the victim may become remorseful. b. the abuser may offer forgiveness. c. resolution of the problem will finally occur. d. the relationship may be renegotiated so that the victim gains more control.

ANSWER: d 25. All of the following are myths associated with battering, except: a. alcohol abuse is a prime reason for battering. b. "problem" families are mainly involved in battering. c. battering relationships are more prominent in the lower socio-economic classes. d. older couples have violent relationships, which include high risk for lethality.

ANSWER: d 26. Many women stay in battering relationships because they: a. are co-dependent. b. have little education and few career opportunities. c. will be embarrassed if the secret gets out. d. are enablers.

ANSWER: c 27. Extensive reviews of the characteristics of battered women reveal that the only common characteristic was that the women had: a. codependent personalities. b. witnessed or been victims of personal violence as children. c. a history of emotional/ psychological instability. d. specific personality profiles on personality tests that typed them as dependent and other-controlled.

ANSWER: b 28. When women finally decide to end the relationship and leave they will have: a. to find ways to support their abuser. b. grief reactions to the loss of their relationship dreams. c. achieved the promise of the relationship. d. an indifferent attitude toward the relationship.

ANSWER: b 29. Learned helplessness is: a. a dependent response to rational action statements the worker makes. b. a ploy of histrionic personality types. c. a concept the worker teaches the client who is faced with extreme danger. d. making choices to minimize harm in an ongoing unpleasant situation.

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Chapter 10 - Partner Violence 30. Which of the following should the crisis worker do when working with a battered person? a. Allow the person to talk through the pain and "freak out" if necessary b. The task model's action steps need to be pushed aggressively c. Confront the person's inability to leave the relationship d. Bring the abuser into the conversation to make sure that all sides are fairly heard.

ANSWER: a 31. Crisis workers need to understand that battered persons: a. tend to see such incidents as isolated. b. have little will power and must be directly guided in making decisions. c. have few financial resources and will always need financial help. d. have such fragmented thinking that a great deal of assessment will need to be made before a behavioral plan is implemented.

ANSWER: a 32. In helping a battered person decide whether to stay or leave, the crisis worker should: a. call the police if the abuser is coming back. b. offer to go and pick up the victim. c. determine how dangerous the situation is. d. do all of these or whatever else is necessary to get the woman to leave.

ANSWER: c 33. Research indicates that the greater the number of times a person leaves an abusive relationship the more likely the individual will: a. attempt to salvage the domestic relationship and suffer through it. b. go to battered women's support groups and seek individual therapy for her problems. c. leave permanently. d. experience increasing grief and depression over the loss of the relationship.

ANSWER: c 34. Common client problems that shelter workers must deal with is not: a. grieving over the "death" of the relationship. b. terror attacks. c. manipulation of the worker by dependent clients. d. the presence of emotional support.

ANSWER: d 35. Most groups for batterers have all but which of the following as part of their curriculum? a. Restructuring irrational thinking b. Self-actualization c. Sex-role resocialization d. Stress reduction ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Partner Violence 36. A number of researchers have attempted to create typologies of batterers. Which of the following is not one of those types? a. Antisocial types that are narcissistic and care little for the consequences of their actions and are generally violent to everyone a great deal of the time. Extremely dangerous with no conscience. b. Estranged types who are socially isolated and violent only to family when rules are disobeyed. Very rigid militaristic bearing. Do not suffer insubordination from anyone considered inferior in rank to them which includes all of the family. c. Borderline types who come from dysfunctional families. May be very volatile and alternately depressed.

Batter family members when they feel unloved or abandoned, which may be often. Low remorse and may batter outside the family. d. Family batterer. Typical batterer with poor communication skills and high dependency needs. Situational stressors spark an angry confrontation. Most representative of Walker's cycle.

ANSWER: b 37. Children who live in a battering relationship: a. commonly rebel at the violence and become much more passive and as adults restrained. b. are often lost in the shuffle of the domestic violence. c. will become batterers if male and battered if female. d. generally have increased appropriate behavior and higher self-esteem immediately after leaving a battering relationship.

ANSWER: b 38. Which of the following statements are true of courtship violence? a. Good students are more likely to have violent relationships. b. One quarter of victims and one third of offenders in one study believed violence is a sign of love. c. Having one steady dating partner increases the odds of violence the longer the relationship lasts. d. Strict monitoring and conservative sexual attitudes of parents is a risk factor for dating violence.

ANSWER: b 39. Individual experience, family systems, the community, peers, and society all are mediating variables for domestic violence under what theory? a. Sociobiology b. Nested Ecological c. System d. Exchange ANSWER: b 40. The Duluth model can best be characterized as: a. a cognitive-behavioral treatment for batterers. b. providing support to women across a range of issues. c. an integrated, systemic intervention coordinated between a variety of agencies. d. a biased program that seeks to give batterers what that dished out.

ANSWER: c 41. One reason partners do not report violence in same-sex relationships is under reported because: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Partner Violence a. there is a fear they will be "outted" by the violent partner. b. there is less physical but more psychological violence in these relationships. c. same sex couples simply are less violent. d. power and control are resolved by the non-hierarchical nature of same-sex relationships.

ANSWER: a 42. The therapeutic modality for most programs for batterers relies on: a. an empathic listening and responding approach to assure clients they are heard and cared for. b. a confrontational approach to catch minimizing and projecting of inadequate and insecure behaviors onto significant others. c. a cognitive-behavioral approach that changes irrational thinking, self-sabotaging, selective forgetting, setting oneself up for violence, and other maladaptive cognitions. d. a dynamic approach that helps achieve insight into present behaviors by interpreting and understanding past behaviors from childhood.

ANSWER: c Essay 43. Walker's theory of learned helplessness has been hotly debated. Walker sees it as a sophisticated coping mechanism that allows women to survive a potentially lethal relationship while many feminists see it as demeaning of women in that they fit into the stereotype of "helpless females." Take a position for or against learned helplessness in battering relationships.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

44. With all of the publicity, laws, funding, and other resources that have been devoted to domestic violence, the problem still is endemic to our society. Why is that so?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

45. Choose one of the domestic violence models discussed in the book. Wage an argument as to why it is the BEST model.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 11 - Family Crisis Intervention True / False 1. Crises test families’ structural integrity. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. The Family Distress Model states that families typically use the same strategies they always have used, but just work harder at them. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Pile up crises for families occur when stressors accumulate over many months. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. When a crisis occurs, the person in the family who generally cooks meals may change. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Family crises always cause alliances in families to strengthen. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Developmental crises for families can be anticipated and planned for. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Crises always cause a perceptual shift in families and causes them to re-examine life choices. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Perpetual crises for families are the same as metastasizing crises. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Families may disagree with ways to handle crises. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Family Crisis Intervention b. False ANSWER: True 10. Follow-up can happen at any time in crisis intervention. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Reliving the crisis often happens after a crisis as family members tell and retell their story several times. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. Setbacks are not typical once families reach the adjustment phase of recovery. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. Families that do not adapt to crises are said to be experiencing bonadaptation. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. According to the contextual model only considers internal factors as influencing families’ reaction to crisis. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. Culture influences the ways families communicate about crises and recovery. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 16. An example of procedural rules for families is: a. no use of electronic devises during meals. b. giving a family member a hug before they leave the house. c. saying good night to everyone before going to bed. d. taking off your shoes when entering the house.

ANSWER: a 17. A family's goals may be impacted by crisis because: a. resource allotment is altered. b. morale is changed.

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Chapter 11 - Family Crisis Intervention c. because education is important. d. due to the negativity around the resolving the crisis.

ANSWER: a 18. The letter "C" in the ABCX model for crisis intervention with families stand for: a. families interpretation of the event. b. cognitions of individual family members. c. case impressions of the crisis worker. d. communication within the family.

ANSWER: a 19. In a crisis which of the following is not tested in families: a. structural integrity and relationships. b. problems solving skills and communication. c. resilience and support systems. d. economic necessity.

ANSWER: d 20. The contextual model for family crisis intervention recognizes: a. families are very similar. b. family members might manipulate communications. c. families have control of external factors influencing a crisis. d. families react predictably.

ANSWER: b 21. Predispositioning in crisis intervention with families does not involve: a. placing yourself in a helpful place with the family. b. beginning after you have heard the families story. c. revisiting it periodically throughout the crisis intervention process. d. rapport building with families.

ANSWER: b 22. Families in the adaptation stage of recovery typically focus on: a. physical needs. b. search for explanations. c. get back on their feet quickly. d. have no trouble staying focused.

ANSWER: b 23. Which of the following is not true for family crisis intervention? a. Family goals will not be examined following a crisis. b. Family roles remain relatively stable following a crisis. c. The morale of a family may change following a crisis because what is important may be questioned. d. The exchange of information among family members can be effected by a crisis.

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Chapter 11 - Family Crisis Intervention ANSWER: a 24. Which of the following statements is true? a. As a family adjusts in the weeks following a crisis event they must mostly be aware of caring for their own. b. In the aftermath of a crisis event a family must first concentrate on staying together. c. Adaption after a crisis involves family learning to depend on themselves. d. Individual family members continue to make meaning in their lives without interruption.

ANSWER: a 25. Crisis intervention with families involves: a. using structured family therapy since that is most often effected. b. using a genogram to understand the family. c. assessing a family's functioning prior to the crisis. d. understanding a family from a perspective that allows a flexible approach.

ANSWER: d 26. Which of the following in not a type of family crisis? a. Developmental b. Pile Up Crisis c. Bolt from the Blue d. Identity ANSWER: d 27. Which is generally the most visible change in family characteristics when a crisis occurs? a. Roles b. Boundaries c. Goals d. Rules ANSWER: a 28. An example of family values changing in the wake of a family crisis is: a. the family member responsible for cleaning bathrooms changes. b. family members may begin talking more with non-family members about what is happening. c. family members struggle to make sense of the situation. d. the family member that caused the crisis will be held accountable.

ANSWER: c 29. Problem exploration in family crisis intervention involves all but which one of the following? a. Focusing on the ability of the family to function b. Identifying a family’s strengths and resources as a way to address the crisis c. Attending to the influence of the crisis on family dynamics d. Listening to the one family member who seems to be most coherent for solutions ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Family Crisis Intervention 30. When listening to families talk about a crisis you should: a. avoid details. b. be patient. c. attend to adults first. d. suppress exaggerations.

ANSWER: b Essay 31. You are a crisis worker for a small family support center. A family has been assigned to you following the loss of their teenage son in a house fire. Describe the stages through which you can expect to guide the family.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

32. Provide a comparison and contrast of two family crisis models.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

33. You are working with a family that recently learned the father has been living a double life with a parallel family in another city. Discuss ways the family will be challenged as they are confronted with this situation.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 12 - Personal Loss True / False 1. The death of a spouse, although traumatic has no effect on the surviving spouse’s mortality rate. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. The Adaptive model of grieving is about how a survivor copes with loss. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. The Texas Grief Inventory can determine the progress of grief resolution. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. The Schneider model of grief is a comprehensive integration of physical, cognitive, emotional, behavioral, and spiritual components of living. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. The dual process model is an approach-avoidance model that includes restoration and loss orientation. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Peer deaths for adolescents can be particularly traumatic for them because the deaths are not normative, unexpected and shouldn’t happen much like adults in handling grief. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Only children suffer serious feelings of loss when a pet dies. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Short-term grief work is more concerned with support in terms of "being there" rather than "doing things" for the bereaved's psychological well-being. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. Disputing negative self-talk a bereaved divorced person has about the break-up of a marriage may be effective because Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Personal Loss emotional energy can then be directed toward dealing constructively with real, contemporary issues. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Narrative therapy is particularly important in grief work because it involves the thematic meaning of the loss. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. In prolonged grief and mourning the person both denies or represses the loss and will not give up the lost loved one. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. Research has shown that because of a lack of cognitive development, young children grieve little, if any. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. The more contemporary Dutro model of grieving is a fixed, linear stage model that proposes that people all grieve in about the same way. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. The Kubler-Ross model of loss is probably the most well known and most useful model of understanding loss in the present day. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. Culturally, there seem to be three general patterns of response to death: death accepting, death denying, and death defying. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. In Bowlby’s attachment model it is important to emotionally “attach” to the loss so as to integrate it into one’s personality and move forward. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 17. AIDS may be defined as a disease of crisis events.

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Chapter 12 - Personal Loss a. True b. False ANSWER: True 18. Complicated grief occurs because there are very few clues to identify it. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 19. Cultural and social norms have a lot to do with disenfranchised grief. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 20. Bereavement overload is real and can be extremely detrimental to workers a. True b. False ANSWER: True 21. Because of the traumatic nature of death, young children should most generally be shielded from it so they do not become overly traumatized. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 22. About the best one can hope for after a hard loss is, in time to get back to some semblance of equilibrium and homeostasis. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 23. Restoration orientation occurs when grievers experience full blown emotional catharsis. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 24. The Kubler-Ross model proposes that individuals go through common stages as they experience a loss. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 25. A common practice of going through a family album after a deceased’s death would be most characteristic of an intuitive type griever. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Personal Loss ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 26. Reformulating loss in a context of growth in the grieving process means: a. numbing oneself to future crisis because of familiarity with the experience. b. resolving the loss of a loved one. c. emerging from the crisis with greater strength. d. obtaining help from a support group.

ANSWER: c 27. Kubler-Ross believes that our culture sees death as: a. a transition into a greater eternal life. b. defeatable through modern medical science. c. an unspeakable issue, more so than sex or violence. d. a resolvable issue through erecting monuments and memorials.

ANSWER: c 28. The stages of dying in the Kubler-Ross model are more or less: a. pain, shock, remorse, coping, healing. b. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance. c. anxiety, terror, bargaining, faith, resignation. d. None of the answers are correct.

ANSWER: b 29. In dealing with children who have suffered loss, an adult should: a. shield and protect the child. b. be truthful and consistent. c. be concerned if the child seems uncaring. d. push the child to talk about the loss.

ANSWER: b 30. Loss through separation and divorce may feature all of these, except: a. is correlated with major mental illness. b. can be healing and constructive. c. even if desired, may be filled with a sense of frustration, loss, and mourning. d. a sense of calm and relief for children.

ANSWER: d 31. Grief in the elderly: a. may be more prolonged than with younger people. b. is easier because the elderly have suffered loss before. c. is much the same as with small children. d. may be easier due to the fewer peers with whom they have to deal.

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Chapter 12 - Personal Loss ANSWER: a 32. A basic, personal resource (as opposed to professional skill) of the human service worker who deals with bereavement and loss is: a. coming to grips with one's own issues about death. b. reading extensively in the death and dying literature. c. attending workshops and classes on the subject of death. d. All of the answers are equally important.

ANSWER: a 33. Of the following, which is not a reason that human service workers should have their own loss issues resolved? a. Over-investment in the client b. Transference of one's own unresolved feelings to the client c. Burning out on the subject d. The strength of shared emotional pain brings worker and client closer together ANSWER: d 34. An appropriate example of providing immediate, short-term, and brief crisis intervention with the bereaved following a sudden death would be: a. working through long buried guilt feelings. b. planning new relationships now that the loved one is gone. c. referral to a support group. d. providing referral sources to make arrangements for the funeral, and information about autopsy and donor rights.

ANSWER: d 35. Disenfranchised grief occurs: a. only in illicit, “forbidden” relationships. b. when a loss is experienced and it cannot be openly acknowledged. c. when the person doesn’t acknowledge it to him- or herself. d. when the person doesn’t acknowledge it to the deceased.

ANSWER: b 36. According to Schneider, all crises can eventually be: a. reformulated within a context of growth. b. classified under one of the three patterns of responses of death accepting, death defying or death denying. c. viewed within a multicultural context. d. classified under the Kubler-Ross model of the stages of grief and bereavement.

ANSWER: a 37. Which of the following is not found in complicated grief and mourning? a. Severe separation anxiety and distressed yearning b. Denial, repression and avoidance of the loss c. Intense intrusive thoughts about the deceased Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Personal Loss d. Reformulation of loss in a context of growth ANSWER: d 38. In the Schneider Model of Grief, the stage called gaining perspective on the loss is described as the griever reaching the point of accepting the loss, which is characterized by: a. reaching a point of accepting that “what is done is done.” b. providing time to make peace with the past. c. both a and b above are characterized by this particular stage of grief. d. neither a or b above are characterized by this particular grief stage.

ANSWER: c 39. In the Dutro Model, the concepts of grief and loss are purported to be more dynamic, moving from the medical or pathological theories to more interactive models. This model refutes many of the older theories of grief. Which of the following is not an example? a. The common assumptions concerning the stages of grief are not supported. b. Placing time limitations on grief is inappropriate. c. Suppression of sadness being viewed as pathological is an error. d. Loss orientation is a post-trauma growth factor.

ANSWER: d 40. Regardless of the age of parents or children, the death of a child is always a major loss that is affected by: a. parental anger and denial. b. the child's age, suddenness of death, circumstances of death, and the family situation. c. cultural dynamics. d. the parents’ attachment style.

ANSWER: b 41. From a Piagetian standpoint, the preoperational child's egocentric view of death may be: a. laced with magical thinking and fantasy with no clear view of death's finality. b. programmed to follow the parental view of death. c. related to the unique and particular relationship with the deceased. d. subject to social influence that is accompanied by numerous negative cultural messages about death.

ANSWER: a 42. A DIVORCE map is a way of getting at: a. previous unseparated attachments. b. finding and disputing the client’s irrational beliefs. c. restoration activities. d. loss orientation.

ANSWER: b 43. Loss and bereavement in a HIV+ client might include all of these, except: a. continuing transcrises events. b. being depressed, anxious nervous, and angry.

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Chapter 12 - Personal Loss c. numerous secondary losses a such as one’s job. d. Piagetian.

ANSWER: d 44. The stage theories of grief are no longer considered very valid because: a. one size fits all models don’t work. b. Kubler-Ross’s theory applied only to death. c. Bowlby’s theory applied only to childhood. d. stage models are flexible and provide little structure for grieving people.

ANSWER: a 45. The Dual process model involves: a. emotional resource allocation to new modes of living. b. release of emotional attachment of the loss object. c. movement at one’s own pace between a loss orientation and a restoration orientation. d. the bi-polar dilemma of death avoiding and death approaching.

ANSWER: c 46. If you were a survivor and were moving on the Adaptive model continuum 6 months after your partner’s death, you might be: a. at the restoration end. b. in between the two ends. c. still at the loss end. d. anywhere on the continuum.

ANSWER: d 47. Assessment tools such as the Texas Revised Inventory of Grief generally look for: a. how much the person lost and what it meant. b. what the person lost and what it meant. c. where the person lost and what it meant. d. what the course of the grief is and how it is progressing.

ANSWER: d 48. When using the dual process model you should: a. attempt to determine early attachments as they impact the loss. b. determine what Kubler-Ross stage the client is in. c. not push clients toward resolution. Let the oscillation work. d. deeply empathize with the person’s grief but do not let vicarious traumatization occur.

ANSWER: c Essay 49. Compare the Adaptive model and the Dual Process model. What are the similarities and differences? Which seems to fit best to your style of counseling? Why is that so?

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Chapter 12 - Personal Loss ANSWER: Answers may vary.

50. Assume that you have been retained as a paid consultant with an agency that is in the process of establishing an AIDS/HIV-positive crisis intervention center. Make a list of the initial start-up services and components that you will recommend in order to best serve this unique and special clientele.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

51. Discuss the case of Ann Marie and what purpose the suggestion to go to the cemetery and talk to her dead mother served?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

52. Discuss the pros and cons of stage models of grief. Provide an argument for a stage model of grief.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 13 - Crisis in Schools True / False 1. Grossman proposes that one reason for the upsurge in school violence is unsupervised behavioral conditioning. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Schools are generally very safe places to be. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. The Crisis Response Coordinator in a school CRT does not need to have considerable in crisis intervention skills or techniques. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. The NOVA model of crisis intervention in schools should be one of the first responses implemented when a crisis occurs. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Schools should not be in the memorial business. That’s the job of funeral homes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. The EVJO can be partitioned into categories based on mental status. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. The EVJO typically has a long history of contact with juvenile authorities because of delinquent acts. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. The mentally ill adolescent has a high probability to commit a violent act. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. One of the problems of making a threat assessment of the EVJO is that his motives for violence are often muddled, unclear, and easily dismissed as inconsequential by adults.

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Chapter 13 - Crisis in Schools a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Modeling is not a very effective way to teach violent behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. Many school resource police officers may do a good deal of crisis counseling and have the skills to do so through their training. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. Seung-Hui Cho fits the characteristics of a SVJO. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. Interviewing potential EVJOs should start by asking them if they have a plan to carry out their threats. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. If the worker determines the student is carrying a weapon it should be forcibly confiscated by the worker immediately. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. Going on hunches or suspicions that a student is suicidal is generally not a good idea. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. Contagious suicide by adolescents is a reality. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. The school psychologist or social worker should always be appointed head interventionist because he or she has the most knowledge about crisis intervention. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Crisis in Schools 18. Schools should consider holding large-scale memorials to honor the deceased and help resolve grief. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 19. When a child learns that there is a great deal of gratification in tearing the heart out of a villain in a video game, that child is being subjected to: a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. social learning. d. a combination of learning models.

ANSWER: b 20. Of the following members of a school CRT, who does not belong? a. Crisis intervention coordinator b. Crisis response coordinator c. Media liaison d. Memorial director ANSWER: d 21. Of the following, which member of a school CRT is most responsible for the general control and decision making? a. Crisis intervention coordinator b. Crisis response coordinator c. The superintendent of schools d. The principal of the affected school ANSWER: b 22. Of the following approaches to gang intervention, which has been the most successful? a. Peer counseling and mediation b. "Get tough" c. Individual and group counseling d. Intervention programs have low rates of effectiveness ANSWER: d 23. Counseling a gang member in regard to violence reduction is best done by: a. taking an approach that targets behavior and its consequences. b. using a passive, person-centered approach to build trust. c. using a zero-tolerance, consequences-of-actions approach. d. involving the whole family in a social systems model.

ANSWER: a 24. Schools grapple with crisis response in all of the following ways, except: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Crisis in Schools a. voluminous state crisis plans that don’t apply to them and are never used. b. how to coordinate more effectively with other agencies. c. funds and time to practice different crises. d. the availability of planning guidance from the federal government.

ANSWER: d 25. Seung-Hui Cho best fits the description of a(n): a. EVJO. b. SARA. c. SVJO. d. DARE. ANSWER: a 26. The EVJO is most characterized by his/her: a. affiliation with other youth who band together for mutual protection. b. poor grades and truancy. c. bullying behavior. d. isolation (they have no allegiances).

ANSWER: d 27. The SVJO can be characterized by his/her: a. loner status. b. need for instant gratification. c. academic success. d. stable home environment.

ANSWER: b 28. Initial screening for EVJOs is best done by reviewing: a. personal writings and drawings. b. personality and mental ability tests. c. past violent acts. d. academic achievement.

ANSWER: a 29. One of the major problems of using peer referral for screening for potential violence is: a. students readily speak to authority figures about peers’ troubles. b. dismissal of threats as " just talk." c. there are no potential drawbacks with using peer referrals. d. peer referrals are usually attempts at retribution for past wrongs and can be dismissed.

ANSWER: b 30. Initial counseling for screening a potential EVJO should start with: a. open-ended leads and deep reflective responses about personal issues with peers. b. clearly framed questions about intent to do harm.

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Chapter 13 - Crisis in Schools c. nondirective approaches that let the client choose what he wants to talk about. d. directive information about consequences of actions for violent behavior.

ANSWER: a 31. Threat assessment for lethality goes up as the EVJO's: a. anger becomes more ventilated. b. affect becomes more depressed. c. motive and plan become more concrete. d. thinking becomes more disjointed.

ANSWER: c 32. When the decision is made that threat level is high and parents and authorities must be notified, the EVJO may become extremely upset. The best thing the crisis worker generally can do is: a. use "I understand" and "broken record" statements to continuously assure the client is cared for. b. empathically tell the student to get control of himself/herself. c. state clearly and empathically what the consequences will be if you (the worker) don't take action. d. extract a promise that if the client goes willingly, no disciplinary action will be taken.

ANSWER: a 33. If during a screening interview the client indicates he/she has a weapon, the crisis worker should: a. forcibly confiscate the weapon, business end first. b. exit the room and get help if the client is resistant to voluntarily surrendering the weapon. c. be extra polite to the client and get them a snack d. do nothing; any mention of weapons automatically becomes a police problem.

ANSWER: b 34. When a crisis worker has a good hunch that a child is contemplating suicide, the best thing to do is: a. express shock and amazement that such thoughts would occur and speak to the child about what he or she has to live for. b. become passive and accepting and let the child vent his or her feelings. c. confront the child's irrational thinking and counter propagandize the "crazy" thoughts. d. provide support and develop a safety plan with the client.

ANSWER: d 35. When a crisis worker is faced with a potentially violent student, which of the following is not generally a good idea? a. Consulting with another professional because this would break confidence b. Keeping precise notes and records because they might be subpoenaed c. Making different decisions and taking different actions based on individual situations because it is important to focus on the individual’s strengths d. Breaking confidence and telling the child's parents and the authorities ANSWER: c 36. A crisis response plan should: a. cover every conceivable contingency in depth.

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Chapter 13 - Crisis in Schools b. be practiced regularly. c. be developed by outside consultants who have the expertise and objectivity to not be influenced by local biases. d. be dusted off annually when teachers return to school in the fall.

ANSWER: b 37. Of the following principal roles on a crisis response team, which one does not belong? a. Crisis response coordinator b. Triage assessor c. Media liaison d. Crisis intervention coordinator ANSWER: b 38. In responding to a crisis in a school, the order of action is: a. get the facts, assess the impact, conduct triage, administer psychological first aid, do crisis intervention. b. issue an alert, coordinate staff, inform significant others, do crisis intervention, provide for follow-up. c. respond to crisis, link resources, implement crisis plan, get feedback. d. initiate action plan, integrate internal and external resources, monitor and coordinate resources, do psychological autopsy, assess for transcrisis states.

ANSWER: a 39. The case of Josh and the brown recluse spiders best illustrates a: a. NOVA intervention. b. SCRT intervention with individual supportive therapy. c. PTSD intervention. d. SVJO intervention.

ANSWER: b 40. Of the following statements, which would be most true about current gang membership in the United States? a. Gangs operate mainly in bigger cities. b. Most gangs have national affiliations. c. Gangs are composed mainly of ethnic minorities. d. Gangs come from all geographic locales, all socioeconomic classes, and all ethnicities.

ANSWER: d 41. What did the crisis worker use with Josh because it gave him control over what he thought was an uncontrollable situation? a. Implosion and flooding b. Drawing and toy figures c. Sculpting and painting d. Behavior modification ANSWER: b 42. The best peer helper programs will include: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Crisis in Schools a. a broad cross-section of students. b. other gang members. c. students who have potential to be good counselors. d. none, since research has shown peer helper programs to be ineffective.

ANSWER: a Essay 43. Describe the steps you would take if a teacher asked you to speak to a child he/she considered to be dangerous.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

44. Describe the difference between a crisis intervention coordinator and a crisis response coordinator. Why are both of these positions needed on a crisis response team?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

45. Discuss risk assessment and intervention with an EVJO student.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 14 - Violent Behavior in Institutions True / False 1. Workplace violence has become so bad that the National Center for Disease Control views it as a national health problem. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. There is no clear way to predict when, where, and which clients will become violent, but the pooled clinical judgment of experienced human service workers is one of the better prediction tools. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Drug use has not been found to be associated with violent behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. The first step in preventing client-initiated violence in an institution is to obtain expert consultants to teach staff to physically control agitated persons. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. The safest way to monitor and control new clients for potential violence in a clinic or institution is for the admissions worker to check the client in and monito the client closely while waiting for unit staff to collect the client. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. A counseling office should be arranged so the therapist can keep the client confined if necessary. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. When making a home visit where a potentially violent client may reside, once the door is opened it is best to stride purposively into the room stating clearly who you are and why you are there. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Staying physically close, within an arm’s length of a client is safer because it psychologically anchors the client to the worker. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Violent Behavior in Institutions ANSWER: False 9. When threatening conditions occur, at times, doing nothing may be the best approach. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Workers who use validation therapy with the elderly believe that its use may resolve past issues and reduce stress even though the client may not make sense. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. One of the best predictors of violence is past violence. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. A past family history of violence is not a very good predictor of violence that a client may have in a larger, community, social context. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. The major reason to conduct a security analysis is to determine what kind of alarm systems will be needed. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Education of a client is the first stage of violence prevention in institutions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. Females are becoming more violent and in some studies have been found to be as likely to assault staff as males. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. While the potential for people diagnosed with a mental illness to become violent is not high, there are some diagnoses, such as organic brain disease, that are associated with higher risk for violent actions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Violent Behavior in Institutions 17. University counseling centers are prone to sacrifice safety concerns in an attempt to create a warm, caring, confidential atmosphere. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 18. Denial by both staff and institutions contributes to institutional violence. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 19. Reminiscence therapy allows clients to reflect on their lives and restore credibility to them. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 20. Sun-up syndrome is so called because people become violent as they wake up in institutions, are not sure of their surroundings, and become confused and agitated. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 21. One of the best and simplest questions to determine if the client may be violent is to ask, "Have you ever lost your temper in a violent manner?" a. True b. False ANSWER: True 22. About the only major difference in safety considerations between a crisis worker in an office building and a crisis worker who makes home visits is that the worker who goes out to homes needs to be acutely aware of her or his surroundings. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 23. While both validation and reminiscence therapy are used extensively with the elderly, they are actually two very different approaches. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 24. Workers who experience a physical assault are best supported by giving them time off, giving staff new safety tips based on the incident, and moving beyond the incident compassionately but quickly. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Violent Behavior in Institutions Multiple Choice 25. Factors contributing to increased violence against human service workers are increased numbers of: a. drug abusing clients. b. hyperactive, attention deficit disordered clients. c. clients in poverty. d. clients seeking quick solutions.

ANSWER: a 26. Research indicates that which of the following is generally not an antecedent to violent behavior? a. Distraught family members who do not believe the client's needs are being met b. Certain times of day such as bedtime c. Release from a mental health treatment facility d. A history of violent behavior ANSWER: b 27. The human service worker who wishes to deescalate a potentially violent confrontation with a client will: a. treat the client in a permissive fashion so as to avoid an incident. b. take an offensive posture that lets the client know the worker will not be intimidated. c. obtain support staff as a show of strength. d. stay calm and relaxed while monitoring the client’s movements and validating the client’s perspective.

ANSWER: d 28. Typical feelings of most clients who are "first timers" in a residential treatment facility might be: a. angry, but feeling that they are in control of the situation because they are tough. b. angry, frightened, and feeling that they are out of control. c. frightened, but compliant to treatment if dealt with fairly. d. psychotic, out of touch with reality, and out of control.

ANSWER: b 29. In assessing for potential violence, the admissions worker in an institution should first: a. make a fast visual assessment of the client’s behavior. b. give the client a battery of psychological tests. c. ask the client what the problem is. d. obtain biographical data.

ANSWER: a 30. A primary component of option therapy is: a. deciding what medication will be used. b. deciding who will have control over the client's behavior. c. that it is only used in emergencies. d. that it is completely up to the worker as to when it will be used.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Violent Behavior in Institutions 31. An appropriate response to a severely agitated client would include: a. "the staff is right, you've got to accept their judgment. They are professionals and know what is best for you." b. "I'll see what can be done about the problem. Just calm down!" c. "it's clear somebody has messed up. They have no right to treat you that way. You've a right to complain." d. "I understand how angry you must be. Before I can do anything though, I need to hear you calmly and clearly tell me what's bothering you so I can determine what needs to be done."

ANSWER: d 32. Confronting an agitated client: a. will only make the situation worse. b. is a therapeutic action to teach clients their place. c. should be done in a problem-solving manner. d. should be avoided at all costs.

ANSWER: c 33. Shifting away from angry feelings to less threatening topics is: a. validation. b. reminiscence. c. deflection. d. avoidance.

ANSWER: c 34. Appeasement is most appropriate: a. if client behavior is so bad that time out is necessary. b. if all else has failed. c. in emergency situations where the worker knows little about the client. d. when the client has previously been friendly with workers.

ANSWER: c 35. Deflection of angry feelings may be accomplished by: a. physical activity and writing down feelings. b. going to time out and considering consequences. c. understanding such feelings are transitory in nature. d. moving to less threatening topics.

ANSWER: a 36. Validation therapy is used to indicate that the client: a. has valid concerns. b. is lucid and in touch with reality. c. affirms what s/he is saying even though it may have little basis in reality. d. is about to become violent.

ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Violent Behavior in Institutions 37. Reality orientation is: a. indicating what the consequences of clients' actions will be. b. reflecting clients' concerns about current problems. c. apprising clients of the rules of the institution. d. anchoring clients as to who they are, where they are, and why they are there.

ANSWER: d 38. After a violent incident, the institution may want to: a. do a disciplinary investigation to determine if there was negligence. b. conduct both Critical Incidents Stress Debriefing and a psychological autopsy. c. use flooding procedures to immediately get the staff member back on the job. d. immediately return to business as usual and ignore this rare event.

ANSWER: a 39. Institutional culpability for poorly controlling violent behavior may be attributed to: a. much stronger client rights. b. a fear of being sued. c. too much publicity about violent events which are then "copycatted" by others. d. restricted monetary expenditures.

ANSWER: d 40. Legal liability for the consequences of a violent act by an institutionalized client: a. may be commenced against a human service worker even if the worker was the one hurt. b. cannot be commenced if "Informed Consent" is issued and acknowledged. c. is generally only against the institution and seldom against the worker. d. may happen only when the behavior is viewed as potentially lethal.

ANSWER: a 41. Of the following drugs, which has been associated with more than half the violence in Emergency Rooms? a. Alcohol b. Barbiturates c. Cocaine and crack d. Amphetamines ANSWER: a 42. An adequate and comprehensive security plan for an institution should: a. be simple enough to use. b. cover every possible contingency. c. ignore the needs and concerns of staff. d. identify who, what, and where for disasters.

ANSWER: a 43. The best predictor of violence is: a. mental illness.

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Chapter 14 - Violent Behavior in Institutions b. history of earlier violent behaviors. c. time frames, such as during a full moon. d. an understanding of each clients’ personality.

ANSWER: b 44. Of the following intervention strategies, which would be least likely to help prevent violence? a. Management’s commitment to budgetary efficiency b. Management’s commitment to security planning c. Doing a work-site analysis to boost staff morale d. Providing inconsistent staff training in de-escalation ANSWER: b 45. Of the following assumptions about the potential for violence, which does not belong? Assume that the individual: a. understands and conforms when negative contingencies are stated and used. b. feels a number of debilitating emotions. c. needs to have limits set and provide options that define consequences for violence. d. is experiencing disconnectedness and rootlessness.

ANSWER: a 46. When doing outreach, the best place to park your car for safety’s sake would be: a. directly in front of the house. b. in the driveway of the house. c. just beyond the front of the house. d. across the street and down the block.

ANSWER: c 47. One of the best ways to assess for violent behavior when face-to-face with a client is to: a. monitor motoric cues. b. obtain a family history of violent acts. c. find out about drug use. d. determine if he or she is mentally ill.

ANSWER: a 48. The two critical building areas to consider when checking for safety problems in an institution are: a. day rooms and hallways. b. admission areas and offices. c. client rooms and bathrooms. d. parking lots and recreation areas.

ANSWER: b Essay 49. You are a member of a mobile crisis unit. You have been dispatched to visit with a client in their home. What are the ways you will protect yourself in the field that are different from when you see clients in the hospital emergency Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Violent Behavior in Institutions department?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

50. You have been tabbed by your boss to create a comprehensive institutional safety plan. Discuss how you will go about this task and what needs to be included in the plan.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

51. You are a worker in a residential treatment program for behaviorally disruptive adolescents. Briefly describe the stages of intervention with a potentially violent individual.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 15 - Legal and Ethical Issues True / False 1. Ethical codes provide specific guidance to address the unique circumstances encountered while providing crisis or disaster services. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. There is one single appropriate way to ethically handle crisis or disaster situations. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Ethically, crisis intervention workers are encouraged to prepare for crisis or disaster situations before, during the crises or disaster, and the period of post crisis recovery. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Context, emotions, and perceptions influence ethical decision-making during a crisis or disaster. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Heuristics refers to the process a person uses to problem-solve and learn. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. The terms ethics and law are synonymous. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Ethical codes or guidelines are developed proactively. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. In those states that allow privileged communication, the right to privilege belongs to the client. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. The term “foreseeable” refers to what an average practitioner would expect to occur given similar client actions, behaviors, and context.

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Chapter 15 - Legal and Ethical Issues a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Negligence is the result of the intentional breach of duty that one person owes another. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. Mental health professionals who are considering serving as a volunteer in disaster situations should determine whether their professional liability policy will be in effect while serving as a volunteer rather than as part of their employment. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. An ethical dilemma exists when two more ethical principles conflict. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. According to the author, crisis intervention workers do not need to be concerned with the autonomy of their clients’ decision making. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. A crisis or disaster worker can be effective without attending to one’s own self-care. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. Reflective practice involves thinking about both your reasons for entering crisis and disaster work, as well as your actions during a crisis response, and how that response could be improved. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 16. Which of the following is a legal or ethical topic that is unique to crisis intervention? a. There are no ethical codes that specifically address crisis interventions or disaster responses. b. Informed consent is required before providing mental health services. c. The principle of nonmaleficence d. Disclosure of client records is not allowed.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Legal and Ethical Issues 17. Specialized ethics training is needed for crisis workers because: a. offering food and drink to a family following a natural disaster will cause dependency. b. cowboy ethics may not consider all the ethical blind spots. c. completing confidentiality forms during a crisis requires special counseling skills. d. there are different cultural values around how to resolve an ethical dilemma.

ANSWER: b 18. Which of the following is not a misconception about ethical decision-making? a. There is always time to consult. b. There is always a correct answer to resolve an ethical dilemma during a crisis situation. c. A systems approach to crisis intervention can help resolve ethical issues during a crisis event. d. There is always time to review an ethical decision-making model before acting.

ANSWER: c 19. When considering how to respond in a specific situation, it can be helpful to listen to: a. soothing music. b. your heartbeat. c. the sound of cars on a busy street. d. your personal values.

ANSWER: b 20. One difference between ethics and law is that: a. laws are proactive while ethics are reactive. b. ethical codes are often aspirational while laws are mandatory. c. ethical codes are mandatory while laws offer guidance. d. laws are reactive while ethics are proactive.

ANSWER: b 21. Privacy is a difficult concept to put into practice during a disaster response, while confidentiality: a. does not have to be respected in a crisis situation. b. does not have a place in the crisis workers’ toolkit. c. does have to be maintained regardless of the setting. d. does have to be established as a legal and ethical issue in crisis response.

ANSWER: c 22. The crisis worker may need to break client confidentiality when which of the following criteria as met? a. Protect self or others, serious threat, the average practitioner, vague timeline b. Protect self or others, vague timeline, peer/lay counselor, mild threat c. Protect self or others, serious threat, foreseeable future, reasonable practitioner d. Protect self or others, mild threat, reasonable practitioner, foreseeable future ANSWER: c 23. Which of the following is not a guideline for crisis workers to follow in a potential duty to warn situation?

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Chapter 15 - Legal and Ethical Issues a. Consultation with a supervisor or colleague b. Be clear about the limits of confidentiality c. Develop contingency plans for different client reactions ahead of time d. You must take action to protect a client or potential victim, unless the patient threatens legal action.

ANSWER: d 24. A crisis worker was on the scene of an apartment fire and failed to talk with a victim, who subsequently sustained emotional harm because of the worker’s unintentional omission. The worker has committed: a. liability. b. proximate. c. negligence. d. counseling.

ANSWER: c 25. To protect themselves from liability for malpractice while responding as a volunteer to a man-made disaster, mental health professionals should not: a. practice within their liability insurance. b. practice within their scope of training. c. practice without identifying themselves or obtaining informed consent. d. practice with the clear guidance of their supervisor.

ANSWER: c 26. The idea that persons in crisis are able to make decisions is related to the ethical idea of: a. beneficence. b. autonomy. c. justice. d. nonmaleficence.

ANSWER: b 27. The idea that cultural views on good and harm is related to the ethical idea of: a. beneficence. b. autonomy. c. justice. d. nonmaleficence.

ANSWER: d 28. The idea that truthfulness is thought and action is a test of morality is related to the ethical idea of: a. fidelity. b. autonomy. c. justice. d. nonmaleficence.

ANSWER: a 29. The idea that crisis services be delivered based upon need and resource availability is related to the ethical idea of: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Legal and Ethical Issues a. fidelity. b. autonomy. c. justice. d. nonmaleficence.

ANSWER: c 30. When decisions are made based upon how much we relate to, or like, another is known as: a. discernment. b. vicarious liability. c. affect heuristic. d. justice.

ANSWER: c 31. Crisis workers who review their interactions with clients and consider the impact of their interventions on themselves, their clients, and the ecology of the intervention are engaging in: a. self-care. b. ethical decision-making. c. affect heuristic. d. reflective practice.

ANSWER: d 32. One model for ethical self-care is reflection upon a critical counseling event using a recovery model that includes all of the following, except: a. recognition of an error. b. using negative self-talk. c. evaluation of possible restitution. d. rehabilitation to prevent reoccurrence.

ANSWER: b Essay 33. Choose one of the hypothetical cases presented in this chapter or draw from your personal experiences responding to a crisis or disaster. Discuss the ethical dilemmas that arose in responding to the situation and whether the ethical, legal, moral, or political contexts took precedence.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

34. Consider the ethical principles within the context of your personal values and your reasons for entering crisis or disaster intervention. Explain which of the ethical principles you are likely to prioritize in responding to a crisis or disaster. Why? Discuss how this ethical principle can be both an advantage and a disadvantage to the people in crisis that you serve.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

35. Following a disaster a survivor is standing in line waiting to enter a dining room tent. The survivor begins speaking with you, a crisis intervention worker, about a deeply traumatic and personal issue. Other survivors are standing in line and could easily over hear the conversation. The client asks the disaster worker to keep their conversation confidential.

How would you proceed? What are the ethical principles, legal, moral, or political issues involved?

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Chapter 15 - Legal and Ethical Issues ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 16 - Burnout, Vicarious Traumatization, and Compassion Fatigue True / False 1. Burnout equally affects both individuals and institutions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Burnout encompasses not only the work setting, but also all other environments of the individual. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Highly motivated human service workers are generally immune to burnout. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Being over-involved in client problems may cause crisis workers to attempt dramatic cures on impossible cases and become panic stricken when plans go awry. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Burnout may lead to both personal and professional growth. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Human service workers who do crisis work experience negative effects more than other types of human service workers. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Organizational cultures that have high power distance between bosses and subordinates have high burnout rates. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. “Deadwood” is a term given to workers who cope with personal burnout by moving into management positions. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Stress occurs when there is a substantial imbalance between the demands of the environment and the capabilities of the worker and is always negative in its outcome.

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Chapter 16 - Burnout, Vicarious Traumatization, and Compassion Fatigue a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. The term burnout comes from mental patients who were burned out physically and mentally. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Burnout and stress are synonymous. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. Pearlman and Saakvitne believe that, contrary to universal admonitions against countertransference, it is a necessary evil when working with trauma victims. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. The Maslach Burnout Inventory is an excellent tool for examining stress points and problems in an organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Organizations should be assessed for burnout along with individuals. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. Burnout is a cross-cultural phenomenon, and has causes that are common across cultures. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. The first stage of burnout is Enthusiasm. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. Vicarious traumatization is to compassion fatigue as countertransference is to burnout. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Burnout, Vicarious Traumatization, and Compassion Fatigue 18. Vicarious traumatization occurs when the worker begins to see significant others in his or her own life as resembling those who have traumatized the client. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 19. Compassion satisfaction can be an extremely effective buffer against burnout. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 20. While important for effective intervention, consultation and supervision have little to do with stopping burnout. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 21. The Professional Quality of Life Scale (ProQOL) measures compassion satisfaction along with compassion fatigue and burnout and is particularly designed for first responders such as EMTs. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 22. So far work environment and its relationship to burnout have been difficult to measure in any reliable way. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 23. Burnout-proofing an agency is almost impossible to do. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 24. Having fun is a critical part of burnout-proofing oneself. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 25. One of the critical issues of intervention with a burned-out worker is the ethical issue of keeping the worker’s clients from harm. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 26. Burnout may have which of the following consequences, except ____________ .

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Chapter 16 - Burnout, Vicarious Traumatization, and Compassion Fatigue a. behavioral b. interpersonal c. financial d. spiritual ANSWER: c 27. Burnout may be characterized by what levels? a. Person, place, and time b. Worker, institution, and environment c. Trait, state, and activity d. Past, present, and future ANSWER: c 28. The chronological stages of burnout are: a. zealotry, assuredness, doubt, anxiety. b. romanticism, idealism, pragmatism, realism. c. industry, lethargy, condemnation, purposelessness. d. enthusiasm, stagnation, frustration, apathy.

ANSWER: d 29. A critical component in treating burnout is: a. satiation. b. substitution. c. revitalization. d. positive reinforcement.

ANSWER: c 30. An effective way of counteracting burnout would be to: a. promote devotion to more leisure time activities. b. confront the problem with specific work tasks. c. teach better coping skills. d. shift jobs.

ANSWER: a 31. Selye's General Adaption Syndrome means that: a. overstimulation and excessive wear of target organs leads to stress-related dysfunction and disease. b. the organism adapts to stressors and compensates through increased output of endocrine, neurological, and neuroendocrine systems. c. the person reframes stressors and overcomes the noxious stimulus. d. a clinical relaxation technique is used to diminish stress.

ANSWER: a 32. Burnout means that: a. the person is stressed out by the job.

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Chapter 16 - Burnout, Vicarious Traumatization, and Compassion Fatigue b. the person doesn't know how to handle stress. c. there are no buffers to ease unrelenting job stress. d. the organization is healthy and emotionally safe for employees.

ANSWER: c 33. One of the major causes of burnout for human service workers is: a. dealing with large amounts of paperwork. b. working with uncooperative staff. c. ambiguous job roles. d. loss of control over decision-making about clients.

ANSWER: c 34. Of the following statements about burnout, which is not true? a. It is event rather than process-oriented. b. It varies in severity and duration. c. It is infectious. d. It has no known specific personality traits.

ANSWER: a 35. When an assessment of the client indicates he or she is burned out, the worker should: a. find out what has happened in the past that caused the problem. b. take a directive approach until the client has some equilibrium restored. c. use an assessment device to see if burnout really is present or if something else is wrong. d. take a passive-accepting approach and let the client cathart.

ANSWER: b 36. One of the initial assessments the worker should make in a case of burnout is degree of: a. stress. b. anger. c. commitment. d. lethality.

ANSWER: d 37. The assessment device(s) used to ascertain the degree of burnout in an agency might be: a. the 16 Personality Factor. b. the California Psychological Inventory. c. Moos’ Work Environment Scale. d. the Compassion Fatigue Self-Test.

ANSWER: c 38. Private practitioners suffer burnout: a. despite their low-demand schedules. b. partially due to working in extreme isolation. c. from dealing with more difficult cases.

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Chapter 16 - Burnout, Vicarious Traumatization, and Compassion Fatigue d. because they enjoy the challenges of building a business.

ANSWER: b 39. Support groups within the institution: a. use social events to take the stress out of work. b. are readily available if one takes the time to find them. c. function to provide both technical and emotional support. d. spend an equal amount of time discussing personal and workplace problems.

ANSWER: c 40. High use of the uncertainty avoidance principle and high power distance would mean that: a. there was high potential for burnout. b. there was low potential for burnout. c. there was high potential for vicarious traumatization. d. there was high potential for compassion fatigue.

ANSWER: a 41. Of the following, which is not a building block for burnout? a. Role ambiguity b. Incompetence c. Inconsequentiality d. Isolation ANSWER: b 42. Many of the myths that engender burnout are supported by what Albert Ellis calls the _____________ thoughts people tell themselves about their work. a. unhealthy b. self-actualizing c. demeaning d. conflicted ANSWER: a 43. Countertransference is the: a. attributing traits and behaviors of significant others and events in the worker's past to the client. b. attributing traits and behaviors of significant others and events in the client's past to the worker. c. instigating agent of acute traumatic stress disorder. d. displacement and externalization of negative feelings onto significant others in the life of the crisis worker.

ANSWER: a 44. Vicarious traumatization and compassion fatigue: a. are the result of the worker allowing clients to become dependent. b. are the inability of the worker to engage in leisure time activities. c. result from accumulated experiences across therapies and clients. d. typically have an immediate onset in the face of an overwhelming catastrophe in which the worker has little Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Burnout, Vicarious Traumatization, and Compassion Fatigue time for proper rest, eats poorly, and is faced with dozens of clients in need of immediate assistance with little hope of obtaining help for them.

ANSWER: c 45. Golembiewski's phase model of burnout proposes that: a. vicarious traumatization leads to compassion fatigue and then burnout. b. depersonalization occurs first, sense of personal accomplishment diminishes, then emotional exhaustion occurs. c. personality factors weaken, maladaptive traits predominate, stress occurs, burnout happens. d. bureaucracy predominates, services are impaired, workers are frustrated, apathy occurs.

ANSWER: b 46. If you were using the Professional Quality of Life Scale (ProQOL) you would not be assessing for: a. compassion satisfaction. b. compassion fatigue. c. burnout. d. organizational support.

ANSWER: d 47. Social support systems can provide: a. material support and a sense of belonging. b. ways for burned out workers to avoid change. c. organizations with informal snitches to keep track of malcontents. d. maximum support if they have a home based component.

ANSWER: a 48. In the case of Jane, the worker uses an eclectic BASIC IDS approach because: a. the ID suffers most when compassion fatigue occurs. b. no component of Jane’s life is immune from burnout, it has become so pervasive. c. it is psychoanalytic in nature and will get at unconscious motivators of burnout. d. she is suicidal and her Id is erupting out of control with no superego to govern it.

ANSWER: b 49. Vicarious traumatization and compassion fatigue are endemic to crisis work because: a. many crisis workers have severe transference issues before they ever get in the work due to their own trauma. b. crisis workers get addicted to the adrenaline high of traumatic dilemmas and won’t walk away when they need to. c. it is easy to "catch" the awful symptoms clients have. d. it is a compensatory behavior for burned-out workers.

ANSWER: b 50. The “who told you?” technique is used on Jane by the worker to: a. point out how she deludes herself. b. give her a rationale for starting new behaviors that lead to compassion satisfaction.

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Chapter 16 - Burnout, Vicarious Traumatization, and Compassion Fatigue c. as a way of safely projecting her anger onto significant others through the countertransference phenomenon. d. All of the answers are good reasons the technique is used.

ANSWER: a Essay 51. Explain the difference between vicarious traumatization, countertransference, and burnout.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

52. Why does compassion satisfaction appear to be a buffer against burnout?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

53. You are the supervisor of several teams of crisis workers covering a large geographical region. Discuss a plan to prevent worker burnout.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

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Chapter 17 - Disaster Response True / False 1. At a minimum an ecosystemic crisis may pervade an entire community. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. An ecosystemic crisis can create victims far away from the actual event. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. The NOVA model is an example of governmental efforts to develop proactive and preventive strategies for crises. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. The honeymoon period is characterized by an outcry for help from the federal government. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Overarching all other local service providers of crisis intervention in a disaster is the Local Emergency Management Agency (LEMA). a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Facebook is not a critical ingredient in disaster communication. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. There are people in the world who see the western world’s mental-health-type disaster mitigation as useless and contrived. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. The Federal Emergency Management Agency’s Emergency Management Institute is so comprehensive it even includes mortuary services and hazardous materials courses. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. The mesosystem measures the time element across which a disaster develops.

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Chapter 17 - Disaster Response a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. A local emergency management agency’s response in such disasters as a hurricane largely hinges on a “wait and see” approach. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. The microsystem encompasses the individual and his or her family only. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. The super mesosystem links the macrosystem with all interior systems. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. At about one year the chronosystem predicts that a pathogenic shift will occur. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. The disillusionment phase occurs about three months into the chronosystem of a disaster’s aftermath. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. Directors of local emergency management agencies are a new breed of government technocrat. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. Successful disaster systems relief must be multitheoretical. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. Professional organizations such as the National Association of School Psychologists’ NEAT Teams deal mainly with school disasters such as Columbine. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Disaster Response 18. As strange as it may seems, LEMAs may devote a lot of attention to animals following a disaster. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 19. The decision stage in a LEMA plan is the point in time in which the decision is of whether to declare an emergency is made. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 20. The birth of disaster mental health delivery systems can be traced to 9/11. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 21. Disasters have their worst effects on people who are poor, old, sick, and otherwise disenfranchised from societal benefits. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 22. Psychological First Aid delivered on a massive scale following large scale disasters is sufficient to deal with most disaster-related mental health issues. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 23. Mental health workers who made the scene after Katrina were immediately plunged into intensive therapy with victims and survivors. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 24. Mental health workers often work with disaster relief workers. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 25. The Midville tornado response typifies an integrated horizontal and vertical disaster relief approach. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 26. A formal debriefing follows an introduction, facts, thoughts, reactions, symptoms, teaching, and reentry model.

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Chapter 17 - Disaster Response a. True b. False ANSWER: True 27. Mandatory debriefing is not necessary for all workers and in fact may be demeaning and dehumanizing. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 28. Getting enough food and rest is not as important for crisis workers as debriefing at the end of every shift. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 29. At about one year the chronosystem predicts that individuals may be subject to the onset of transcrisis or delayed onset of PTSD even though they have done fairly well until that time. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 30. There is little opportunity to carve a career out of crisis intervention because of its minor status as a player in the mental health business. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 31. A satellite in orbit would be part of the: a. chronosystem. b. super macrosystem. c. primary mesosystem. d. super mesosystem.

ANSWER: d 32. Crisis workers who go to the scene of a disaster may not: a. debrief victims. b. debrief themselves. c. debrief other emergency personnel. d. assist in locating relatives and survivors.

ANSWER: b 33. National crisis response teams (NCRT's) rapidly go out and assist communities following: a. community-wide disasters. b. manmade disasters only.

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Chapter 17 - Disaster Response c. failure of local crisis agencies. d. All of the answers are correct.

ANSWER: a 34. Which of the following describes a metastasizing crisis? a. Affect entire countries or the world b. Starts small but turns into a large-scale crisis c. The communication systems used during a crisis. d. Is localized in the community ANSWER: b 35. Systemic and comprehensive intervention in a large scale or mega crisis by the United States government is about how many years old? a. 30 b. 50 c. 100 d. 150 ANSWER: a 36. The mesosystem is a: a. rapid response system. b. national response system. c. communications system. d. local emergency management system.

ANSWER: c 37. The microsystem includes all but which of the following? a. Family members b. Social clubs and churches c. Co-workers and neighbors d. Local social media groups ANSWER: d 38. The super mesosystem is a: a. Bureau of Homeland Security systems and networks. b. communication link between macrosystems and the exo- and microsystem. c. extralocal social networks. d. pattern of events over the lifespan of the members of a microsystem.

ANSWER: b 39. The National Organization for Victim Assistance (NOVA) evolved on a national level in order to respond to the needs of: a. isolated rural communities. b. deinstitutionalized mental patients.

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Chapter 17 - Disaster Response c. victims of violent crime. d. victims of natural or manmade disasters.

ANSWER: c 40. The exosystem includes: a. communications created by word-of-mouth, cell phones, and local newspapers. b. timelines for easing or exacerbating the crisis. c. the community and even state or regional entities. d. federal agencies such as NIMH and FEMA. ANSWER: c 41. The chronosystem includes: a. both individual and system timelines. b. communication links and their timeline development. c. changing from mainly reactive programs to mainly proactive ones. d. FEMA, SEMA, and LEMA timelines.

ANSWER: a 42. When groups of crisis workers experience "parallel processing" at a disaster site, it means they: a. are experiencing many of the dynamics of the victims they are sent to help. b. process feelings and thoughts at the same time as survivors. c. work simultaneously with victims and other emergency relief workers. d. use triage assessment simultaneously with multiple victims to see who gets help first.

ANSWER: a 43. On a chronosystem, disillusionment in the system may first occur: a. as the community pulls together to address disaster recovery. b. when survivors perceive a transcrisis point. c. as problems in the pace of recovery occur. d. as survivors begin to transform their grief in growth.

ANSWER: c 44. A salutogenic shift on a crisis chronosystem means that: a. people have mourned their losses and are starting to rebuild their lives with renewed hope. b. people are becoming more prone to transcrisis events. c. people are more prone to have ASD turn into PTSD. d. salutogenic shifts occur only with systems and not individuals.

ANSWER: a 45. The chronosystem is important because it: a. assesses how well FEMA is doing. b. assesses what outcomes may be expected. c. sets a disaster clock in motion that may have lethal ramifications. d. provides benchmarks when certain phases of recovery should occur.

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Chapter 17 - Disaster Response ANSWER: d 46. Of the following rules about crisis response teams working in a disaster, which is not true? a. It is important to work in teams. b. It is important to get sleep and food. c. Debriefing should be held away from the scene. d. Workers should debrief one another ANSWER: d 47. Mental health assistance for widespread disasters (both natural and manmade) such as hurricanes, mass murders, plane crashes, and tornadoes are often handled by: a. crisis stabilization units. b. acute traumatic stress disorder organizations. c. rapid response teams. d. EMDR teams.

ANSWER: c 48. A critical aspect to working with the Benefield family in Midville is: a. knowing that they will have to come to grips with reality after the honeymoon period. b. keeping them from becoming disillusioned by the bureaucracies that control disaster relief. c. being culturally sensitive to their accents and deep spiritual beliefs. d. stopping ASD from turning into PTSD. ANSWER: c 49. Following a disaster, the debriefing of the crisis workers themselves helps such workers deal with the: a. controversy surrounding CISD. b. individual crisis worker's personal/professional response to the survivors. c. different religious beliefs of the microsystem. d. anticipated stages of the chronosphere.

ANSWER: b 50. The disaster recovery phase that is defined as “We are all in this together” is known as the _________ phase. a. honeymoon b. euphoric c. adaptation d. emergency ANSWER: a 51. The Nassau County Emergency Management Agency’s chronosystem clock starts running: a. the day of hurricane landfall. b. the day after landfall. c. prior to hurricane landfall. d. depending on conditions.

ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Disaster Response 52. Professional organizations such as the American School Counseling Association provide all of these, except: a. counseling assistance after disasters. b. information and psycho-educational materials for the public. c. formats for discussion of theory and practice of crisis intervention. d. disaster relief services for adults.

ANSWER: d 53. Local EMA directors typically: a. have degrees in emergency management. b. are mental health professionals. c. come from a variety of occupations but take many training courses. d. are assigned by FEMA after completing training at the Gaithersburg, MD, FEMA center.

ANSWER: c 54. According to Freeman, a natural disaster and crisis is over when: a. FEMA declares it over. b. everyone’s dog has come home and Aunt Nellie has been found. c. the dead and wounded have all been found. d. federal disaster aid impact areas are declared.

ANSWER: b 55. Time frames for delivery of mental health services in a disaster may be divided into: a. pre-, during, and post-crisis event. b. trans-disaster and post-disaster. c. standard chronosystem time frames. d. no known time frame exists for mental health disaster recovery.

ANSWER: b 56. One of the critiques of Katrina disaster relief that is not valid is that: a. people had to be coerced into volunteering to help. b. money and staff had been diverted to counterterrorism activities. c. there was a lack of efficient communication. d. there were ambiguous authority relationships.

ANSWER: a 57. Dr Branthoover’s overriding comment when interviewed about her post-Katrina work in Louisana was that: a. you need to have comprehensive therapy skills. b. listening skills are the most important component of doing therapy. c. expect to sweat and get dirty while doing anything but therapy. d. debriefing every night is critical.

ANSWER: c 58. The Benefield family’s crisis may best be viewed by the crisis worker in a(n): Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Disaster Response a. ecosystemic context. b. mesosystem context. c. transcrisis context. d. family system context.

ANSWER: c 59. It is believed that CISD: a. is absolutely helpful. b. is absolutely awful. c. is somewhere in the middle. d. has ardent believers on both sides of the issue.

ANSWER: d 60. In a CISD facts are first discussed because: a. they need to be determined to fix the causes. b. they are easiest to discuss. c. they are less conflicted than feelings and thoughts. d. everyone has about the same view of the events, so it is the easiest place to start.

ANSWER: b Essay 61. Think about how your own cultural and class biases might or might not be reflected if you worked with the Benefields.

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

62. What part do national organizations, such as NOVA and the American Red Cross, play in crisis intervention?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

63. You are a disaster mental health crisis worker assigned to debrief crisis responders before they leave the scene. A couple of grizzled disaster veterans are resistant to the debriefing. What would you tell them about the debriefing?

ANSWER: Answers may vary.

64. Describe how disaster mental health started in the United States.

ANSWER: Answer may vary.

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Chapter 18 - Chemical Dependency True / False 1. A scatter plot is a simple plot graphically depicting the corresponding values of variables onto one another in a Cartesian plane. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Measure of association is a general term that refers to causality. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Covariance is the extent to which a change in one variable corresponds systematically to a change in another. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. A Spearman correlation is more appropriate for interval and ratio data than is the Pearson product-moment correlation. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. If r = -.88, this indicates a weak relationship between the two variables under study. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. The symbol for the Pearson product-moment correlation coefficient is r. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. A correlation coefficient indicates the magnitude of the linear relationships but not the direction of that relationship. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Correlation coefficients are sufficient to establish that a causal relationship exists between the two variables under study. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. The square of the correlation coefficient indicates the part of the total variance of Y that can be accounted for by X. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Chemical Dependency a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. In a correlation matrix, the main diagonal contains correlations of zero. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. The statistical significance of a correlation can be tested using the t-test. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. One way to determine the relationship between X and Y is to simply visually draw the best-fit straight line through the points in the figure. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. The ordinary least-squares method of regression analysis is based on the logic of how much better a regression line can predict values of Y compared to simply using the mean as a prediction. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. The least-squares regression line minimizes the sum of the squared deviations of the actual values from the predicted values in the regression line. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. The coefficient of determination reflects the proportion of variance that can be explained by the regression line. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. Marketing metrics are qualitative benchmarks. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 17. A correlation coefficient equal to +1.0 indicates a perfect positive relationship. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Chemical Dependency ANSWER: True 18. A correlation coefficient equal to -1.0 indicates an extremely weak relationship. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 19. Standardized variables are often called G-scores. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 20. Standardized variables are generated by subtracting the mean of a variable from each observation and multiplying the result by the standard deviation of that variable. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 21. A negative relationship means that as one variable decreases in value, the other also decreases. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 22. A covariance matrix contains the covariance for every pair of variables among a set of metric variables. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 23. A correlation matrix is a standardized covariance matrix. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 24. Control variables are predictor variables not involved in any causal assertion or hypothesis but are included to better understand the true effect of hypothesized causal variables on dependent variables. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 25. The coefficient of determination reflects the proportion of variance that can be explained by the regression line. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Chemical Dependency 26. A bivariate statistical technique that is used to measure the strength of the relationship between two variables is also called a ____. a. one-group t-test b. two-group t-test c. measure of association d. correlation matrix ANSWER: c 27. Which term refers to the absolute amount of association between two variables, determined by how a change in one variable corresponds systematically to a change in another? a. spurious association b. significance c. covariance d. standardized coefficient ANSWER: c 28. The Pearson product-moment correlation requires that the data be measured on at least a ____ scale. a. nominal b. interval c. ordinal d. non-numeric ANSWER: b 29. The Pearson product-moment correlation coefficient ranges between: a. zero and +1.0 b. -1.0 and zero c. -1.0 and +1.0 d. -2.0 and +2.0 ANSWER: c 30. If there is no relationship between two variables, the correlation coefficient between them would be: a. -1.0 b. 0.0 c. +0.50 d. +1.0 ANSWER: b 31. If the correlation between two variables is - 0.75, this means that there is a ____. a. weak positive relationship between the variables b. strong inverse relationship between the variables c. weak negative relationship between the variables d. strong positive relationship between the variables ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Chemical Dependency 32. When the correlation between two variables is +.92, this means that as one variable ____, the other variable ____. a. decreases; increases b. increases; decreases c. increases; increases d. decreases; stays the same ANSWER: c

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Chapter 19 - Crisis/Hostage Negotiation True / False 1. A hypothesis represents a much more comprehensive explanation than does a theory. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Linear models play a minor and discretionary role in testing hypotheses. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. A hypothesis should be stated in as few words as possible. a. True b. False ANSWER: True

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