Behavior Modification, 10E Garry Martin Joseph Pear Test Bank & Instructor Manual

Instructor’s Manual with Tests and Practicum Exercises for

Martin and Pear

Behavior Modification What It Is and How to Do It Tenth Edition

CONTENTS Preface

vi

Part I: Thinking Levels

1

Bloom’s Taxonomy: A Modified Form Uses of the Taxonomy Parts II and III: Answers to Questions

2 3 4 Questions for Learning and Further Learning

Chapter 1.

Chapter 2.

Chapter 3.

Chapter 4.

Chapter 5.

Chapter 6.

Chapter 7.

Chapter 8.

Chapter 9.

Chapter 10.

Chapter 11.

Chapter 12.

Chapter 13.

Chapter 14.

Chapter 15.

Chapter 16.

Chapter 17.

Introduction Areas of Application: An Overview Respondent (Classical, Pavlovian) Conditioning of Reflexive Behavior Increasing a Behavior with Positive Reinforcement Increasing Behavior with Conditioned Reinforcement Decreasing a Behavior with Operant Extinction Getting a New Behavior to Occur With Shaping Developing Behavioral Persistence with Schedules of Reinforcement Responding at the Right Time and Place: Stimulus Discrimination and Stimulus Generalization Changing the Stimulus Control of a Behavior with Fading Getting a New Sequence of Behaviors to Occur with Behavior Chaining Differential Reinforcement Procedures to Decrease Behavior Decreasing Behavior with Punishment

5 10 13

Option-Based Questions 131 136 139

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24

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27

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31

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34

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45

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49

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Establishing Behavior by Escape and Avoidance Conditioning Respondent and Operant Conditioning Together Transferring Behavior to New Settings and Making It Last: Generality of Behavior Change Antecedent Control: Rules and Goals

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170

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177

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Chapter 18.

Antecedent Control: Modeling, Guidance, and Situational Inducement Chapter 19.

Antecedent Control: Motivation Chapter 20.

Behavioral Assessment: Initial Considerations Chapter 21.

Direct Behavioral Assessment: What to Record and How Chapter 22.

Doing Behavior Modification Research Chapter 23.

Functional Assessment of Problem Behavior Chapter 24.

Planning, Applying, and Evaluating a Behavioral Program Chapter 25.

Token Economies Chapter 26.

Helping an Individual to Develop SelfControl Chapter 27.

Approaches to Behavior Therapy: Cognitive Restructuring; Self-Directed Coping Methods; and Mindfulness and Acceptance Procedures Chapter 28.

Psychological Disorders treated by Behavioral and Cognitive Behavioral Therapies Chapter 29.

Giving It All Some Perspective: A Brief History Chapter 30.

Ethical Issues Part IV Practicum Exercises 1. Positive Reinforcement 2. Extinction 3. Schedules of Reinforcement 4. Stimulus Control 5. Escape and Avoidance Conditioning 6. Respondent and Operant Components of Emotions 7. Programming for Generality 8. Rule-Governed Control Over Behavior 9. Short-Cut Tactics with Stimulus Control 10. Behavioral Assessment 11. Planning a Treatment Program 12. Token Reinforcement in a Self-Improvement Program 13. Causes of Problems of Self-Control 14. Task Analysis, Behavioral Progression, and Mastery Criteria 15. Planning Coping Self-Statements

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80 83

181 184

87

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91 96

188 191

101

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104 107

196 198

112

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216 217 219 221 223 225 227 229 231 233 235 237 239 241 243 245

PREFACE Considering the extensive study aids already incorporated into the text, as well as our own experience in using the first nine editions (not to mention the pre-publication drafts) of the text during the past 37 years, we believe that the most helpful additional material we can give an instructor is our detailed answer key to all of the Questions for Learning in the text, including the Questions for Further Learning in the Notes for Further Learning (NfFL) sections. Having such an answer key available can be a tremendous time-saver for instructors and can greatly facilitate accurate and consistent grading by teaching assistants. Part II of this manual, therefore, contains answers to all Q uestions for Learning and Questions for Further Learning. The form of the suggested answers varies somewhat according to the type of question asked.

As mentioned in the Preface to the text, the NfFL sections contain information that might be used by instructors as springboards for lecture material. Our suggested answers to the Questions for Further Learning in the NfFL sections, besides being helpful to course graders, may also prove useful to instructors when elaborating or expanding on the material in the NfFL sections.

The Questions for Learning and the Questions for Further Learning w e r e p r e p a r e d b y t h e a u t h o r s o f t h e t e x t . For instructors who wish to use optionbased questions, a pool of multiple-choice and true/false questions has been provided in Part III on a chapter-by-chapter basis by Nicole Duy, Garry Martin, Nickie Martin, and Brunata Smyk.

The multiple-choice and true/false questions are a s closely related a s p o s s i b l e to the material contained in the answers to the Q uestions for Learning and the Questions for Further Learning. This was a deliberate tactic so that students who master the textual material by learning answers to the Q uestions for Learning a n d Q u e s t i o n s f o r F u r t h e r L e a r n i n g will perform well on the multiple-choice and true/false questions.

Included in the Instructor’s Manual in Part IV are fifteen in-class practica or mini-lab exercises that have been developed and field-tested. Each exercise is designed for completion by a group of two or three students during a regularly scheduled class. After students have studied and been examined on relevant chapters, completion of a practicum helps them learn to talk about and apply behavior modification principles. Feedback from students indicates that the exercises are an excellent teaching tool.

Also in this edition of the Instructor’s Resource Manual is a section (Part I) on the Thinking Levels required to fully answer the Questions for Learning and the Questions for Further Learning in the text. This information is based on research carried out by Joseph Pear using the Questions for Learning in a Computer-Aided Personalized System of Instruction approach (see www.capsi.org). As mentioned in Part I, there are a number of uses instructors can make of this information.

Garry Martin and Joseph Pear

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Part I Thinking Levels

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BLOOM’S TAXONOMY: A MODIFIED FORM One goal of education is to teach students to think at higher levels. However, this has always been a problem. One of the difficulties that instructors encounter is operationally defining higher-level thinking.

In the 1950s Benjamin S. Bloom, an educational psychologist, a n d his research team identified six major levels of questions in a book titled Taxonomy of educational objectives: the classification of educational goals1. These levels, now commonly called Bloom’s Taxonomy, are: ( 1 ) knowledge, (2) comprehension, ( 3 ) application, ( 4 ) analysis, (5) synthesis, and ( 6) evaluation. Joseph Pear and his students applied a modified form of Bloom’s taxonomy to the Questions for Learning in Behavior Modification: What It Is and How to Do It (see www.capsi.org). Table 1 shows the definitions of the levels at which the questions in the text are rated. These ratings have good inter-rater reliability.

Table 1. Modified definitions of the major categories in Bloom’s Taxonomy (Adapted from Crone-Todd, Pear, J.J., & Read, C. N. Operational definitions for higher-order thinking objectives at the post-secondary level. Academic Exchange Quarterly, 4, 99-106.)

Levels 1 and 2 The answers to these types of questions will always be found in the assigned material.

Answers may be memorized or closely paraphrased from the assigned material.

1. Knowledge 2. Comprehension

Answers must be in the student’s own words, while still using terminology appropriate to the assigned material.

Levels 3, 4, 5, and 6 These questions go beyond the textual material in that they must be inferred or extrapolated from the information in the assigned material.

May require recognition, identification, or application of a concept or principle learned at Category II in a new situation or solve a new problem. Questions in this 3. Application category may present or require examples not found in the assigned material.

1

Bloom, B.S. (Ed.), Engelhart, M.D., Furst, E.J., Hill, W.H., & Krathwohl, D.R. (1956). Taxonomy of educational objectives: The classification of educational goals. Handbook 1: Cognitive domain. New York: David McKay. 2 ..

(Table 1, continued) 4. Analysis

5. Synthesis

6. Evaluation

Requires breaking down concepts into their constituent parts, or the identification or explanation of the essential components of concepts, principles, or processes.

Questions in this category may require the student to compare and contrast concepts or explain how an example illustrates a given concept, principle, etc.

Requires the putting together of parts to form a whole. Questions may require the generation of definitions not identified in the assigned material (i.e., going from specific to general), or to explain how to combine principles or concepts in a novel way or to produce something new.

Requires the presentation and evaluation of reasons for and against a particular position, and to come to a conclusion regarding the validity of that position. The most important part of the answer is the justification or rationale for the conclusion, rather than the answer per se. A good discussion in this category involves the use of all preceding levels.

USES OF THE TAXONOMY The following are some of the uses that instructors may make of the question levels given below.

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To generate higher-order thinking in students.

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To ensure a balanced distribution of thinking levels on tests.

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To equate alternate forms of a test with regard to thinking levels required.

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To ensure that the first questions on a test are at the lowest thinking level, since the higher levels tend to be more difficult for most students.

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To ensure that earlier tests in a course have a higher proportion of lower level questions than later tests.

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To test for particular types of competencies (e.g. one would give predominantly knowledge and comprehension level questions if the primary goal is to develop knowledge of what behavior modification is as opposed to how to apply it).

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To construct tests that are appropriate for the level of the course being taught (e.g. more advanced courses should have more higher-level questions than less advanced courses).

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To provide a basis for awarding bonus points.

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To provide scales for individuals conducting research in the area of higher-order thinking.

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Part II Answers to Questions for Learning and Questions for Further Learning

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CHAPTER 1 INTRODUCTION Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: What is behavior, generally and technically? [Level 1/K] Give three synonyms for behavior. [Level 1/K] A: Generally, behavior is anything a person does or says. Technically, behavior is any muscular, glandular, or electrical activity of an organism. Synonyms include: activity, action, performance, responding, response, and reaction.

2. Q: Distinguish between behavior and products of behavior. [Level 4/An] Give an example of a behavior and a product of that behavior that are not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: Behavior is anything that a person says or does. Products of behavior are the consequences produced by the behavior. For example, studying effectively and writing the correct answers to questions on an exam are behaviors. Getting an “A” is a product of those behaviors.

3. Q: Distinguish between overt and covert behaviors. [Level 4/An] Give two examples of each that are not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: Overt behaviors are behaviors that could be observed and recorded by an individual other than the one performing the behavior. For example, walking and talking are overt behaviors. Covert behaviors are private or internal activities that cannot be readily observed by others. For example, thinking particular words to oneself or feeling nervous (increased heart rate, etc.) would be private behaviors.

4. Q: What are cognitive behaviors? [Level 1/K] Give two examples. [Level 2/C] A: Thinking in words (private self-talk) and imagining are sometimes referred to as cognitive behaviors. For example, a hockey player may think before stepping on the ice at a game, “I am going to play my best game yet” (private self-talk), or a teacher may tell the class to close their eyes and picture a beach (imagining).

5. Q: Describe two dimensions of behavior. [Level 2/C] Give an example of each. [Level 2/C] A: Any two dimensions can be described. Duration of a behavior is how long it lasts. For example, measuring how long an individual can tread water in a swimming pool.

Frequency of a behavior is the number of instances that occur in a given period of time.

For example, a figure skater counting the number of times that she or he lands a new jump in a practice session. The intensity or force of a behavior refers to the physical effort or energy involved in emitting the behavior. For example, the force of a person’s grip when shaking hands.

6. Q: From a behavioral point of view, what do terms like intelligence or creativity refer to?

[Level 1/K] Give an example of each. [Level 2/C] A: Although their meanings vary from speaker to speaker, they always refer to ways of behaving. An intelligent person, for example, solves problems quickly; a creative person frequently emits behaviors that are novel or unusual and have desirable effects.

7. Q: What are two positive reasons that summary terms for behavior patterns are used frequently in psychology and in everyday life? [Level 2/C] A: First, summary labels may be useful for quickly providing general information about how an individual might perform. For example, a ten-year old child labeled as having a severe developmental disability would not be able to read at the first grade level. Second, the labels may imply that a particular treatment program will be helpful. For example, 5 ..

someone labeled as showing road rage might be encouraged to take an anger management program.

8. Q: What are two disadvantages of using summary labels to refer to individuals or their actions? [Level 1/K] Give an example of each. [Level 2/C] A: (a) They may lead to pseudo explanations of behavior. For example, a child who inverts words while reading might be labeled as dyslexic. If we ask why the child inverts words, and we are given the answer, “Because he is dyslexic,” then the summary label for behavior has been used as a pseudo explanation for the behavior. (b) They can negatively affect the way a labeled individual might be treated. For example, suppose a teenager consistently fails to help his parents perform chores around the house. If the parents describe their son as “lazy”, that label may cause them to focus more on the problem behavior than to praise positive behaviors. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

9. Q: What is a behavioral deficit? [Level 1/K] Give two examples that are not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: Too little behavior of a particular type. For example, a child might not pronounce words clearly, nor interact with other children. Any other two appropriate examples are acceptable.

10. Q: What is a behavioral excess? [Level 1/K] Give two examples that are not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: Too much behavior of a particular type. For example, a child frequently plays with the dials on the television set, and throws food on the floor at mealtime. Any other two appropriate examples are acceptable.

11. Q: What are three reasons why the authors describe behavior problems in terms of specific behavioral deficits or excesses? [Level 2/C] A: (a) To avoid the problems of using general labels to refer to individuals; (b) because it is behavior that causes concern and behavior that must be treated to alleviate the problems; and (c) specific procedures are available to overcome behavior problems.

12. Q: Define behavior modification. [Level 2/C] A: Behavior modification involves the systematic application of learning principles and techniques to assess and improve individuals’ covert and overt behaviors in order to enhance their daily functioning.

13. Q: What are stimuli? [Level 1/K] Describe two examples that are not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: Stimuli are the people, objects, and events currently present in one’s immediate surroundings that impinge on one’s sense receptors and that can affect behavior. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

14. Q: State seven defining characteristics of behavior modification. [Level 1/K] A: First, it places strong emphasis on defining problems in terms of behavior that can be measured in some way and accepting changes in the behavioral measure of the problem as the best indicator of the extent to which the problem is being helped. Second, its treatment procedures and techniques are ways of altering an individual’s environment to help that individual function more fully in society. Third, its methods and rationales can be described precisely. Fourth, the techniques of behavior modification are often applied by individuals in everyday life. Fifth, its techniques stem from basic and applied research in the psychology of learning in general, and in the principles of operant and Pavlovian conditioning in particular. Sixth, it emphasizes scientific demonstration that a particular intervention was responsible for a particular behavior change. Seventh, it places high value on accountability for everyone involved in behavior modification 6 ..

programs: client, staff, administrators, consultants, etc.

15. Q: What is meant by the term target behavior? [Level 1/K] Give an example of a target behavior of yours that you would like to improve. [Level 3/App] Is your target behavior a behavioral deficit to increase or a behavioral excess to decrease? [Level 2/C] A: Target behavior is a behavior to be improved in a behavior modification program. A student might identify a target behavior of studying. This would be a behavioral deficit that needs to be increased. Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

16. Q: Define behavioral assessment. [Level 2/C] A: Behavioral assessment involves the collection and analysis of information and data in order to: (1) Identify and describe target behaviors; (2) Identify possible causes of the behavior; (3) Guide the selection of an appropriate behavioral treatment; and (4) Evaluate treatment outcome.

17. Q: Briefly describe Joseph Wolpe’s contribution to the early history of behavior therapy.

[Level 2/C] A: In the 1950s Joseph Wolpe, drawing heavily on Pavlovian conditioning, developed a behavioral treatment for specific phobias. In the early 1960s, when Wolpe moved to the United States, his behavior therapy approach for treating anxiety disorders gained in popularity.

18. Q: Briefly describe B. F. Skinner’s early influence on behavior modification? [Level 2/C] A: In 1953, in his book Science and Human Behavior, Skinner offered his interpretation of how basic learning principles could influence the behavior of people in all kinds of situations. In the 1950s and 60s, practitioners influenced by Skinner published papers that demonstrated applications of operant conditioning principles to help people in a variety of ways, and these applications were given the name behavior modification.

19. Q: State the four dimensions of applied behavior analysis. [Level 2/C] A: The dimensions of applied behavior analysis include: (a) a focus on measurable behavior that is socially significant; (b) a strong emphasis on the learning principles frequently referred to as operant conditioning, to develop treatment strategies; (c) an attempt to clearly demonstrate that the treatment that was applied was responsible for the improvement in the behavior that was measured; and (d) a demonstration of generalizable and long-lasting improvements in behavior.

20. Q: What was Aaron Beck referring to with respect to the term cognitive therapy? [Level 1/K] A: By the term “cognitive therapy”, Beck was referring to strategies for recognizing maladaptive thinking and replacing it with adaptive thinking.

21. Q: How is the term applied behavior analyst used in this book? [Level 1/K] A: The term “applied behavior analyst” is used to refer to individuals who specialize in applied behavior analysis or behavior modification.

22. Q: How is the term behavior therapist used in this book? [Level 1/K] A: The term “behavior therapist” is used to refer to someone who has considerable formal training in the application of behavior therapy or cognitive behavior therapy for treating psychological disorders.

23. Q: List four myths or misconceptions about behavior modification. [Level 2/C] A: Any four of the following myths or misconceptions: 7 ..

(a) Use of rewards by behavior modifiers to change behavior is bribery; (b) Behavior modification involves the use of drugs, psychosurgery,and electroconvulsive therapy; (c) Behavior modification only changes symptoms; it doesn’t get at the underlying problems; (d) Behavior modification is not applicable for changing complex problems such as low self-esteem or depression; (e) Behavior modifiers are cold and unfeeling and don’t develop empathy for their clients; (f) Behavior modifiers deal only with observable behavior; they don’t deal with thoughts and feelings of clients; (g) Behavior modification is outdated.

24. Q: List four subtopics that address ethical issues in behavior modification programs.

[Level 2/C] A: (a) Qualifications of the behavior analyst/behavior therapist; (b) definition of the problem and selection of goals; (c) selection of treatment; and (d) record-keeping and ongoing evaluation.

25. Q: State two guidelines to ensure that target behaviors for behavior modification are the most important for the client and society. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Ideally the client will be an active participant in the identification of target behaviors; and (b) where this is not possible, competent impartial third parties should be identified to act on behalf of the client.

26. Q: What is key to ensuring ethical and effective treatment programs by applied behavior analysts/behavior therapists? [Level 1/K] A: The monitoring of data of target behaviors as well as possible side effects, by concerned parties and clients.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1.Q: What is the full title of the DSM-5? [Level 1/K] Describe what it is in a sentence.

[Level 2/C] A: DSM-5 stands for Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition. It is a manual to help therapists to diagnosis or classify clients based on categories of problem behaviors obser.

2. Q: Give five reasons why many behavior modifiers use the DSM-5. [Level 2/C] A: First, it is based primarily on research. Second, individual disorders are based on categories of problem behaviors. Third, it uses a multidimensional recording system that provides extra information for planning treatment, managing a case, and predicting outcomes. Fourth, often official DSM-5 diagnoses are required by clinics, hospitals, schools, and social service agencies before treatment can be offered. Fifth, health insurance companies reimburse practitioners on the basis of the diagnoses in the DSM5.

3. Q: What is a potential disadvantage of using the DSM-5? [Level 2/C] A: A DSM-5 diagnosis may lead to an individual being labeled (e.g., autistic), and labeling can lead to several disadvantages, such as the implication that all individuals with the same label are the same, even though they are not.

4. Q: What is meant by “people first language” when describing individuals with problems?

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[Level 1/K] Illustrate with an example. [Level 2/C] A: People-first language uses terms that specify the diagnosis or label after specifying the person with that label. It t h e r e f o r e helps us to focus on the problem and to avoid labeling. Although the question does not ask for an example, an example would be identifying an individual as a child with autism rather than an autistic child.

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CHAPTER 2 AREAS OF APPLICATION: AN OVERVIEW Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: List four children’s behaviors that have been improved by parents’ application of behavior modification. [Level 1/K] A: Any four of the following: learning to walk, learning to talk, toilet training, doing household chores, decreasing nail-biting, decreasing temper tantrums, decreasing aggressive behaviors, following rules, complying with parents’ requests, and decreasing arguing. Other behaviors might also be acceptable.

2. Q: List four elementary school students’ behaviors that have been modified with behavior modification techniques. [Level 1/K] A: Any four of the following: oral reading, reading comprehension, spelling, handwriting, mathematics, English composition, creativity, science concepts, out-of-seat behavior, tantruming, aggressive behavior, and excessive socializing. Other behaviors might also be acceptable.

3. Q: Describe three characteristics common to behavioral approaches in university teaching.

[Level 2/C] A: (a) The instructional goals for a course are stated in the form of study questions and application exercises; (b) students are given opportunities to demonstrate their mastery of the course content through frequent tests (based on the study questions) or some combination of tests and assignments; and (c) students are given detailed information at the beginning of a course about what is expected of them on the tests and assignments in order to achieve various letter grades.

4. Q: What is PSI, and who was its founder? [Level 1/K] A: PSI stands for Personalized System of Instruction, which is a behavior modification approach to teaching. It was founded by Fred S. Keller.

5. Q: What is CAPSI? [Level 1/K] A: CAPSI is Computer-Aided PSI, or Computer-Aided Personalized System of Instruction.

6. Q: What is currently the preferred term for the disability previously referred to as “mental retardation”? [Level 1/K] A: Intellectual disability.

7. Q: List four behaviors of persons with intellectual disabilities that have been modified using behavior modification. [Level 1/K] A: Any four of the following: toileting, feeding, dressing, personal hygiene, social skills, communication skills, vocational skills, leisure time activities, and community survival behaviors. Other behaviors listed might also be acceptable.

8. Q: List four behaviors of children with autism that have been modified using behavior modification. [Level 1/K] A: Social behaviors, language skills, play behaviors, and (elimination of) self-stimulatory behaviors. Other behaviors listed might also be acceptable.

9. Q: List four behaviors of people with schizophrenia that have been modified using behavior modification. [Level 1/K] A: Social skills, communication skills, assertiveness, and job finding skills. Other behaviors listed might also be acceptable.

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10. Q: List four psychological problems that have been effectively treated with behavior therapy.

[Level 1/K] A: Any four of the following: anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorders, stressrelated problems, depression, obesity, marital problems, sexual dysfunction, and habit disorders. Other problems might also be acceptable.

11. Q: List four behaviors in the area of self-management of personal problems that have been modified by behavior modification techniques. [Level 1/K] A: Saving money, increasing exercise behavior, improving study habits, and controlling gambling. Other behaviors listed might also be acceptable.

12. Q: What is health psychology? [Level 1/K] A: Health psychology is the study of how psychological factors can influence or cause illness, and how people can be encouraged to practice healthy behavior in order to prevent health problems.

13. Q: List five areas of application within health psychology. [Level 1/K] A: Areas of application of health psychology include: (a) direct treatment of medical problems such as headaches; (b) establishing treatment compliance such as taking medications as prescribed; (c) promoting healthy living such as eating well-balanced meals and getting adequate exercise; (d) improving the management of caregivers, such as the behavior of nurses and other medical personnel who provide services; and (e) teaching use of behavioral strategies for coping with stress.

14. Q: List three behaviors of elderly persons that have been improved with behavior modification techniques. [Level 1/K] A: Any three of the following: coping with loss of skills, functioning independently during old age, learning new routines because it’s impossible to perform tasks in previously learned ways, overcoming anxiety or fear about possible failure to cope, learning new relationships with professional care staff, and decreasing disruptive behaviors in nursing homes. Other behaviors might also be acceptable.

15. Q: Define behavioral community psychology. [Level 2/C] A: Behavioral community psychology refers to applications to socially significant problems in unstructured community settings where the behavior of individuals is not considered deviant in the traditional sense.

16. Q: List four behaviors in the area of behavioral community psychology that have been modified by behavior modification. [Level 1/K] A: Any four of the following: littering, recycling, energy conservation, living in a cooperative housing project, and job skills training. Other behaviors listed might also be acceptable.

17. Q: Define organizational behavior management (OBM). [Level 2/C] A: Organizational behavior management is the application of behavioral principles and methods to the study and control of individual or group behavior within organizational settings.

18. Q: List four behaviors in business, industry, or government that have been modified by behavior modification. [Level 1/K] A: Any four of the following: improved productivity, decreased tardiness and absenteeism, increased sales volume, creation of new businesses, improved worker safety, reduced theft by employees, reduced shoplifting, and improved management-employee relations.

Other behaviors listed might also be acceptable.

19. Q: Define behavioral sport psychology. [Level 2/C] 11 ..

A: Behavioral sport psychology has been defined as the use of behavior analysis principles and techniques to enhance the performance and satisfaction of athletes and others associated with sports.

20. Q: List four areas of application of behavioral sport psychology related to athletes. [Level 1/K] A: Any four of the following: motivating practice and fitness training, teaching new athletic skills, controlling emotions that interfere with athletic performance, helping athletes cope with pressure in major competitions, and helping coaches to function more effectively.

Other behaviors listed might also be acceptable.

21. Q: Describe how knowledge of a cultural characteristic might be helpful for applied behavior analysts/behavior therapists working with individuals from different cultures. [Level 2/C] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: Cultural characteristics can influence the effectiveness of treatment. It is helpful, for example, for therapists to know that many Asian-American clients prefer to be told specifically what to do by the therapist (as opposed to a more non-directive approach). On the other hand, with many Hispanic-American clients, compliance with goal- directed suggestions is likely to be more effective if they are preceded by a period of familiarizing small talk.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: Describe the characteristics of discrete-trials teaching. [Level 2/C] A: Discrete-trials teaching is made up of a series of individual teaching trials that typically last 5-20 seconds each, with each trial separated by a brief inter-trial interval. On each trial, a teacher provides an antecedent, such as an instruction, the child typically responds, and the teacher provides an immediate and appropriate consequence, such as a reward for correct behavior.

2. Q: What are two important research needs in EIBI programs for children with autism?

[Level 2/C] A: Two important research needs in EIBI programs for children with autism are: (a) quality assessment systems to evaluate the effectiveness of specific components of EIBI interventions; and (b) the development of effective rapid training procedures for teaching parents and instructors to conduct discrete-trials teaching.

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CHAPTER 3 RESPONDENT (CLASSICAL, PAVLOVIAN) CONDITIONING OF REFLEXIVE BEHAVIOR Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: What are two other names for respondent conditioning? [Level 1/K] A: Pavlovian conditioning or classical conditioning.

2. Q: What are respondent behaviors? [Level 1/K] Give three examples. [Level 2/C] A: Respondent behaviors are behaviors that are elicited by prior stimuli and not affected by their consequences. Examples include salivating when smelling dinner cooking, feeling frightened when watching a scary movie, and blushing when told when your fly or blouse is undone. Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

3. Q: Define unconditioned reflex. [Level 2/C] Give three examples. [Level 2/C] A: An unconditioned reflex is a stimulus-response relationship in which a stimulus automatically elicits a response apart from any prior learning. For example: Stimulus a. food in the mouth -----------> b. pepper in the nose -----------> c. cinder in the eye -------------->

Response salivation sneezing tears

Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

4. Q: State the principle of respondent conditioning. [Level 1/K] Clearly diagram an example of respondent conditioning that is not in the text. [Level 3/App] A: If a neutral stimulus (that does not elicit a particular response) is closely followed in time by a second stimulus that elicits a particular response, then the neutral stimulus will come to elicit the response that was elicited by the second stimulus. Another name for respondent conditioning is Pavlovian conditioning, or classical conditioning. The diagram of the example should be modelled after Figure 3-1.

5. Q: Define conditioned reflex, and give an example. [Level 2/C] A: A conditioned reflex is a stimulus-response relationship in which a stimulus elicits a response because of prior respondent conditioning. For example, in Pavlov’s experiment after a tone had been paired with food (that elicited salivation) several times, the presentation of the tone along came to elicit salivation. The tone-salivation sequence was a conditioned reflex. Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

6. Q: Define and give an example of the following: unconditioned stimulus, unconditioned response, conditioned stimulus, and conditioned response. [Level 2/C] A: An unconditioned stimulus is a stimulus that elicits a response without prior learning. For example, presentation of food elicits salivation. An unconditioned response is a response that is elicited by an unconditioned stimulus, for example, salivation to food. A conditioned stimulus is one that did not previously elicit a response, but has come to do so because of appropriate pairings with another stimulus that elicits a response. For example, in Pavlov’s experiment, the bell did not elicit salivation, but it came to do so because of appropriate pairings with food. The bell was therefore a conditioned stimulus. A conditioned response is a response elicited by a conditioned stimulus. In the example of Pavlov’s experiment, when the bell eventually came to elicit salivation, salivation to the bell would be a conditioned 13 ..

response. Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

7. Q: Briefly, in a sentence each, describe five variables that influence the development of a conditioned reflex. [Level 2/C] A: (a) The greater the number of pairings of a CS with a US, the greater is the ability of the CS to elicit the CR; (b) Stronger conditioning occurs if the CS just precedes the US by up to a few seconds, rather than by a longer time or rather than following the US; (c) A CS acquires greater ability to elicit a CR if the CS is always paired with a given US, than if it is only occasionally paired with the US; (d) When several neutral stimuli precede a US, the stimulus that is most consistently associated with the US is the one most likely to become a strong CS; (e) respondent conditioning will develop more quickly and strongly when the CS or US, or both, are intense rather than weak.

8. Q: Diagram an example of higher-order conditioning. [Level 3/App] A: Conditioning of the First Order

Pairings

{

NS

(A Specific Selection of Classical Music)

US

(Food) -----------------➔ UR (Salivation)

CS1

(The Classical Music Piece) --------------➔ CR (Salivation)

Conditioning of the Second Order

Pairings N

{

NS

(Yellow Light)

CS1

(The Classical Music Piece------------➔ CR (Salivation)

CS2

(Yellow Light)

------------➔ CR (Salivation)

Other appropriate examples are acceptable 9. Q: Give three examples of conditioned reflexes, one for each of these categories: digestion, circulation, and respiration. [Level 2/C] A: Any plausible examples, such as: (a) digestion, the smell of a certain food that causes a person to feel nausea; (b) circulation, such as the smell of a certain perfume causing someone to feel sexually excited; (c) respiration, such as the appearance of a certain person causing an individual to cough and wheeze as part of an asthmatic reaction.

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10. Q: Give an example of a conditioned taste aversion. [Level 2/C] A: For example, when one of the authors was a teenager, he drank several ounces of lemon gin in a short period of time, and became violently ill approximately an hour later. Since that time, the smell or taste of lemon gin causes him to feel instant nausea. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

11. Q: Why do you suppose that we have evolved so that we are susceptible to conditioned taste aversion? [Level 4/An] A: Because it has survival value. If tasting a potentially damaging substance can cause us to be violently ill after tasting it just once, then it decreases the likelihood that we would consume such a substance again, which could have disastrous consequences.

12. Q: What is biological preparedness? [Level 2/C] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: The predisposition of members of a species to be more readily conditioned to some neutral stimuli as CSs than to others. For example, humans will more quickly learn fears to stimuli that may have posed a threat to survival, such as snakes and insects, than to stimuli that were likely non-threatening in our ancestors’ history, such as pictures of flowers.

13. Q: Discuss whether all stimuli are equally capable of becoming CSs. [Level 4/An] A: We have evolved so that some stimuli (such as snakes and insects) are more readily established as CSs for fear because they may have posed a threat to survival, as compared to stimuli that were likely non-threatening in our ancestors’ history, such as pictures of flowers. Thus, not all stimuli are equally capable of becoming CSs. 14. Q: State the procedure and result of the principle of respondent extinction. [Level 2/C] Give an example that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: If a conditioned stimulus is presented without further pairings with the unconditioned stimulus, the conditioned stimulus will gradually lose its capability of eliciting the conditioned response. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

15. Q: Describe the process of counterconditioning. [Level 2/C] Describe or diagram an example of counterconditioning that is not in the chapter. [Level 3/App] A: A conditioned response may be eliminated more effectively if a new response is conditioned to the conditioned stimulus at the same time that the former conditioned response is being extinguished. This process is called counterconditioning. For example, suppose that a young gymnast has learned to fear being on the balance beam because of a number of bad falls when attempting her routine on the beam. Extinction might involve having the gymnast stand on the beam repeatedly on numerous occasions.

Counterconditioning might involve having the gymnast lick an ice cream cone (that would elicit responses to compete with fear) while standing on the beam. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

16. Q: Define respondent stimulus generalization, and give an example. [Level 2/C] A: Respondent stimulus generalization occurs when an organism has been conditioned so that a particular CS elicits a CR, and then a similar stimulus elicits that CR. For example, suppose that while the dentist is drilling a cavity you have, you experience considerable pain, and the sound of the dentist’s drill becomes a CS causing you to cringe. Later, while visiting the meat market and hearing the sound of the butcher’s cutting machine, you feel yourself cringing. This would be an example of respondent stimulus generalization. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

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17. Q: Define respondent stimulus discrimination, and give an example. [Level 2/C] A: Respondent stimulus discrimination is when a stimulus functions as a CS to elicit a CR because that stimulus has been paired with a US that elicits that CR, but a similar stimulus does not function as a CS for that CR because that second stimulus has been paired with extinction trials. Suppose, for example, that a child learns a fear of dogs after having been bitten by the neighbor’s Scottish terrier. Later, the family buys a friendly poodle and the sight of the poodle, although it initially elicited fear in the child, it gradually does not do so after frequent exposure to the pet poodle without being bitten. The child is discriminating between the poodle and the terrier. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

18. Q: In the example of Susan learning to fear performing the double axel jump, what was the US, UR, CS, and CR? [Level 2/C] A: For Susan, the US was being on a tilt and falling, the UR was fear while falling, the CS was approaching the take-off position for the jump, and the CR was fear while approaching the take-off position.

19. Q: Describe (or diagram) how counterconditioning was involved to help Susan overcome her fear of attempting a double axel jump. [Level 3/App] A:

Example of Susan’s Counterconditioning Several Pairings

{ Result:

CSA (approaching take-off position for double axel)

CRA (feelings of fear)

CSB (relaxation technique)

CRB (feelings of relaxation)

CSA (approaching take-off position for double axel)

CRB (feelings of relaxation)

20. Q: In the respondent conditioning component for treating alcoholism, what is the US, UR, CS, and CR? [Level 3/App] A: The US was a drug called disulfiram, which elicited the UR of nausea. The CS was the sight, smell, and taste of an alcoholic drink, and the CR was nausea.

21. Q: What is aversion therapy? [Level 2/C] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: Basic procedure: repeatedly (over a number of trials) pairing an undesirable reinforcer with an aversive event. Rationale: the undesirable reinforcer becomes less reinforcing because it will come to elicit a response similar to that elicited by the aversive stimulus. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

22. Q: Describe a respondent conditioning procedure for treating constipation. [Level 3/App] Identify the US, UR, CS, and CR. [Level 4/An] A: Subjects were given a laxative (US) to elicit defecation (UR). Just before defecating, subjects stimulated themselves with a mild electrical current. Over a number of days, the laxative was gradually decreased until defecation (CR) was elicited by the electrical stimulus (CS) alone.

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23. Q: Describe a respondent conditioning component of a procedure for treating nocturnal enuresis. [Level 3/App] Identify the US, UR, CS, and CR. [Level 4/An] A: A special pad was placed on the child’s bed so that when the child urinated, the urine caused a buzzer to sound, which awakened the child. In this way, awakening was consistently preceded by the pressure of a full bladder. Eventually, the pressure of a full bladder became a conditioned stimulus eliciting the response of awakening. The child could then voluntarily urinate in the toilet. The US was the buzzer. The UR was awakening in response to the buzzer. The CS was the pressure or feeling of a full bladder after it had come to elicit awakening. The CR was awakening in response to the pressure of a full bladder.

24. Q: What is operant behavior? [Level 1/K] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: Operant behavior is behavior that affects or “operates on” the environment to produce consequences, and which is in turn, influenced by those consequences. For example, asking for directions. Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

25. Q: What is operant conditioning? [Level 1/K] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: Operant conditioning is a type of learning in which behavior is modified by its consequences. For example, we have learned to turn on a water tap to produce water as a consequence. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: What conditioned reflex occurred in a study of chemotherapy for ovarian cancer?

[Level 2/C] A: In a study in which repeated chemotherapy was done in the same room in the same hospital setting for women suffering from ovarian cancer, the women eventually displayed immunosuppression (CR) after simply being brought to that room (CS) of the hospital prior to receiving chemotherapy.

2. Q: What is the field of psychoimmunology or psychoneuroimmunology all about?

[Level 2/C] A: Psychoimmunology is the study of the effects of conditioning processes on the functioning of the body’s immune system. Such studies have the potential to use respondent conditioning to help our immune system to be more effective in battling invaders.

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CHAPTER 4 INCREASING A BEHAVIOR WITH POSITIVE REINFORCEMENT Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: What is a baseline? [Level 1/K] Give an example of a baseline. [Level 2/C] A: A baseline is a measure of behavior in the absence of a treatment program. For example, in Danny’s case, his cooperative and commanding behaviors were assessed before Danny’s mother was instructed to react to them differently than she had in the past. Other examples may be appropriate.

2. Q: Describe the baseline condition for Darren’s program. [Level 2/C] A: Darrin’s mother played with him as she did at home, and his cooperative and commanding behaviors were monitored.

3. Q: Describe the treatment condition for Darren’s program. [Level 2/C] A: Darrin’s mother supported his cooperative behavior and ignored his commanding behavior, and both types of his behavior were monitored.

4. Q: What is a positive reinforcer? [Level 1/K] A: A positive reinforcer is an event which, when presented immediately following a behavior, causes the behavior to increase in frequency.

5. Q: What is the principle of positive reinforcement? [Level 2/C] A: This principle states that if, in a given situation, somebody does something that is immediately followed by a positive reinforcer, that person is more likely to do the same thing again when he or she next encounters a similar situation.

6. Q: Give an example of positive reinforcement of a desirable behavior that you have encountered. Identify the situation, behavior, immediate consequence, and probable longterm effects (As shown in Table 4.1). The example should not be from the [Level 4/An] A: Students can describe any plausible example, such as the following: Situation: A student in class did not understand a part of a lecture of one of the authors. Response of student: Approached professor after class to request help.

Immediate consequence: Professor smiled warmly, and said, “Of course! How can I help you?” Long-term effect: Student is more likely to approach professor (and perhaps other professors) for help in the future.

7. Q: What is operant behavior? [Level 1/K] Give an example, and indicate how the example fits the definition of operant behavior. [Level 3/App] A: Operant behaviors are those that operate on the environment to generate consequences, and are in turn influenced by those consequences. For example, if a person walks into a dark room and emits the behavior of turning on a light switch, then the consequence of the light going on increases the likelihood that flipping the light switch will occur in a similar situation in the future. Flipping the light switch is therefore an operant behavior.

Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

8.Q: Define negative reinforcement and give an example that is not from this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: The principle of negative reinforcement states that the removal of certain stimuli immediately after the occurrence of a response will increase the likelihood of that response. For example, if, in the presence of bright sunlight a person puts on bright sunglasses to escape the brightness, then putting on sunglasses has been strengthened 18 ..

by negative reinforcement. Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

9. Q: How are positive and negative reinforcement similar, and how are they different?

[Level 4/An] A: Positive and negative reinforcement are similar in that both increase responses. They are different in that positive reinforcement increases a response because of the presentation of a positive reinforcer after the response, whereas negative reinforcement increases a response because of the removal of an aversive stimulus after the response.

10. Q: In what way is positive reinforcement like gravity? [Level 1/K] A: They are both laws of nature.

11. Q: Why is it necessary to be specific when selecting a behavior for a reinforcement program?

[Level 2/C] A: (a) To help increase the reliability of recording the behavior; and (b) to increase the likelihood that the reinforcement program will be applied consistently.

12. Q: List the five somewhat overlapping headings under which most positive reinforcers can be classified, and give an example of each that would be a positive reinforcer for you.

[Level 2/C] A: The five somewhat overlapping headings for classifying positive reinforcers are consumable, activity, manipulative, possessional, and social. Any appropriate example of each is acceptable.

13. Q: Describe the Premack principle. [Level 2/C] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: The Premack principle states that the opportunity to engage in a behavior that has a high probability of occurring can be used to reinforce a behavior that has a low probability of occurring. For example, a depressed student increased the frequency of positive self-statements by imagining a positive thought (a low probability behavior) just before each instance of urinating (the high probability behavior). Any appropriate example is acceptable.

14. Q: “It is always the individual’s performance that tells you whether or not you have selected an effective reinforcer.” Explain what this means. [Level 2/C (low level answer) or 6/E (higher level answer)] A: An answer at the lowest level would indicate that the statement means that, when an item is presented immediately following the behavior of an individual on a few trials, and the individual begins to emit that behavior more often, then the item is a reinforcer because it has caused the person’s behavior to increase. A higher-level answer would explain how the meaning of the statement in the question is implied by the definition of reinforcer.

15. Q: Using the definition of positive reinforcer, describe the steps to test if a particular item is a reinforcer for someone. [Level 2/C] Illustrate with an example that is not from this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: (a) Identify a behavior that occurs once in a while and record its occurrence without reinforcement over several trials; (b) then present a consequence immediately following the behavior over several trials; and (c) finally, compare the results of (a) and (b). If the behavior increases in frequency during the second phase relative to the first phase, then the consequence is a reinforcer. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

16. Q: Using the definition of positive reinforcer, how might you conduct a test to determine if the social attention of a particular adult is or is not reinforcing for a withdrawn child?

[Level 3/App] A: The same way that you test any stimulus to see if it is a reinforcer. That is, identify a 19 ..

behavior that a withdrawn child emits once in a while (e.g., glancing at an adult), and measure the frequency of this behavior during a period of time (e.g., a one-half hour period). Next, have the adult give attention to the child following each instance of the behavior that was measured (e.g., the adult should now attend to the child after each glance to an adult). If glances to adults increase, then the adult attention was a reinforcer. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

17. Q: Does extrinsic reinforcement undermine intrinsic motivation? [Level 2/C] Discuss.

[Level 4/An] A: Research indicates that the answer is no. Moreover, the notion that extrinsic reinforcers undermine intrinsic interest flies in the face of common sense. If extrinsic reinforcers undermine intrinsic motivation, for example, then those people who genuinely enjoy their jobs should refuse to be paid for fear that their paychecks will destroy their enjoyment of their work.

18. Q: What do behavior modifiers mean by the term deprivation? [Level 2/C] Give an example.

[Level 2/C] A: Behavior modifiers use the term deprivation to indicate the time during which an individual does not experience a reinforcer. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

19. Q: What do behavior modifiers mean by the term satiation? [Level 2/C] Give an example.

[Level 2/C] A: Behavior modifiers use the term satiation to refer to the condition in which an individual has experienced a reinforcer to such an extent that it is no longer reinforcing. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

20. Q: What is a motivating operation? [Level 2/C] Give two examples, one of which should not be from this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: Motivating operations (MOs) are events or conditions that (a) temporarily alter the effectiveness of a reinforcer, and (b) increase the frequency of a behavior reinforced by that reinforcer. Two examples would be food deprivation and water deprivation. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

21. Q: Should you tell an individual with whom you are using reinforcement about the reinforcement program before putting it into effect? [Level 1/K] Why or why not?

[Level 3/App] A: Yes. Instructions may speed up the learning process for individuals who already understand them. Instructions may influence an individual to work for delayed reinforcement. Instructions may also teach the individual something about instructionfollowing.

22 Q: If you instruct someone about a positive reinforcement program for his or her behavior, is that bribery? [Level 2/C] Why or why not? [Level 4/An] A: Not necessarily. Bribery is a reward or gift offered to induce one to commit an immoral or illegal act. Provided that the behavior to be reinforced does not so qualify, instructing someone about a positive reinforcement for that behavior would not be bribery.

23. Q: Distinguish between the direct- and indirect-acting effects of reinforcement. [Level 4/An] A: The direct effect of a positive reinforcer is the increased frequency of a response because of its immediate reinforcing consequences. The indirect effect is the strengthening of a response that is followed by a reinforcer even though the reinforcer is delayed (by more than approximately 30 seconds).

24. Q: When Coach Keedwell required young swimmers to show improved performance in order to earn a fun activity at the end of practice, their performance improved dramatically.

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Was this a direct-acting or an indirect-acting effect of reinforcement? [Level 2/C] Justify your choice. [Level 6/E] A: The reinforcer of the fun activity in Coach Keedwell’s program was indirect because it was delayed by more than 30 seconds following the desirable swimming behaviors that occurred earlier in the practice.

25. Q: Give an example of contingent reinforcement that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: If a teenager in a family is required to mow the lawn at the family home on Monday in order to use the family car on Friday, then use of the car is a contingent reinforcer even though it is delayed. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

26. Q: Give an example of noncontingent reinforcement that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: If a teenager is allowed to use the family car every weekend independent of behavior that the teenager emits during the week, then use of the family car is a non-contingent reinforcer. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

27. Q: What is adventitious reinforcement? [Level 1/K] What is a superstitious behavior?

[Level 1/K] Give an example of each that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: When a behavior is accidentally followed by a reinforcer, even if that behavior did not produce the reinforcer, it is referred to as adventitious reinforcement. Superstitious behaviors are the behaviors that are strengthened by adventitious reinforcement. An example of adventitious reinforcement would be a gambler winning a jackpot on a slot machine just after crossing his/her fingers. The superstitious behavior would be the finger crossing. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

28. Q: What do we mean by the natural environment? [Level 2/C] By natural reinforcers?

[Level 2/C] By programmed reinforcers? [Level 2/C] A: Natural environment: any place, other than a structured training setting, where a behavior might occur. Natural reinforcers: reinforcers that follow behavior in the natural environment without specific planning and intervention on the part of the trainer.

Programmed reinforcers are reinforcers that are deliberately manipulated by individuals in behavior modification programs.

29. Q: Describe three behavioral episodes in this chapter that involved natural reinforcers.

[Level 2/C] Justify your choices. [Level 6/E] A: Any three examples that involve natural reinforcers are acceptable. Students should justify their choices by indicating that the reinforcers occurred without specific planning by the trainer. Rather than being contrived or manipulated reinforcers, they should occur naturally in the natural environment.

30. Q: Briefly describe, in a sentence each, eight factors that influence the effectiveness of reinforcement. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Specifying a behavior precisely; (b) selecting an appropriate reinforcer; (c) depriving the individual of the reinforcer; (d) ensuring that the reinforcer is of a sufficient magnitude or amount; (e) utilizing instructions to explain the program before and during reinforcement, especially if the reinforcer is delayed; (f) presenting the reinforcer immediately following the desired behavior; (g) ensuring that the reinforcers are presented contingent upon the desired behavior, rather than being presented non- contingently; and (h) appropriately weaning the individual from the program.

31. Q: Is it correct to conclude that a withdrawn child necessarily does not like attention from other people? [Level 1/K] Explain. [Level 3/App] A: No. When an adult asks something of a child, a withdrawn reaction on the part of the child may get even more attention from the adult. If the withdrawn behavior subsequently increases, then the adult attention was functioning as a reinforcer, and it is 21 ..

reasonable to infer that the child liked the attention.

32. Q: Describe an example of the Pitfall that involves a person unknowingly applying positive reinforcement to strengthen an undesirable behavior. [Level 2/C] A: A child is noisily playing while his or her sibling is trying to study (situation); the sibling gives the child a lollipop so that he/she will be quiet (response). The child is immediately quiet and enjoys the lollipop (immediate consequence). The chance that the child will be more likely to play noisily around that sibling in the future increases (long- term effect).

Any appropriate example is acceptable.

33. Q: State the Partial-Knowledge Misapplication Pitfall. [Level 2/C] How is this pitfall exemplified by Coach Keedwell? [Level 3/App] A: Partial-knowledge-misapplication Pitfall: A person may know the principle but not realize some ramification that interferes with applying it effectively. For example, Coach Keedwell thought that providing a fun activity at the end of each swimming practice would strengthen desirable swimming behaviors. That didn’t occur, however, because the fun activity was not contingent on specific swimming behaviors.

34. Q: Consider this statement: “A college student was reinforced for studying for three hours on the weekend by getting a good grade on the test the following week.” How does this statement exemplify the Inaccurate-Explanation-of-Behavior Pitfall? [Level 3/App] A: This exemplifies the inaccurate-explanation-of-behavior Pitfall because it is an overly simplistic explanation for the college student’s behavior, as the consequence of receiving the A did not immediately follow studying. There must have been more immediate reinforcing consequences that “bridged the gap” from the time of studying (behavior) to the time of receiving the A (consequence). For example, the student may have been anxious about the test and studying (behavior) may have relieved some of the anxiety (immediate consequence).

35. Q: State the second type of Inaccurate-Explanation-of-Behavior Pitfall, and give an example.

[Level 2/C] A: The second type of inaccurate-explanation-of-behavior Pitfall states that individuals without behavioral knowledge sometimes attempt to “explain” behavior or the lack of it by inappropriately giving people a label. For example, if a teenager consistently leaves his room in a mess and never helps his parents around the house in any type of clean-up activity, his parents might “explain” his behavior by saying “he’s lazy.” Any appropriate example is acceptable.

36. Q: Ideally, what four qualities should a reinforcer have (besides the necessary quality of functioning as a reinforcer)? (See p. 42.) [Level 3/App] A: (a) Is readily available; (b) can be presented immediately following the desired behavior; (c) can be used over and over again without causing rapid satiation; and (d) does not require a great deal of time to consume.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: Discuss evidence that people’s behavior can be modified without their being aware of it.

[Level 4/An] A: (a) Greenspoon demonstrated that students could be influenced to increase the frequency with which they said plural nouns in an experimental context, even though they were not aware of such a change in their behavior when asked about the experiment afterwards. (b) Even the most profoundly intellectually disabled individuals who cannot speak have been shown to be affected by reinforcement.

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2. Q: What are three indicators that a behavior change is due to indirect-acting versus directacting effects? [Level 3/App] A: A behavior change is likely due to indirect acting effects of reinforcement if: (a) the critical response precedes the reinforcer by more than 30 seconds; (b) the behavior that is measured shows some increase in strength prior to the first occurrence of the consequence; and (c) a single occurrence of a consequence produces a large change in behavior. If the students clearly make the above three points, it’s not necessary for them to illustrate with reference to an example.

3. Q: How do some authors use the terms direct and indirect contingencies of reinforcement?

[Level 2/C] What suggestions do the authors of this make regarding that usage, and why?

[Level 2/C] A: Thompson and Iwata used the term direct reinforcement contingency to refer to a situation where a behavior modifiers hands a reinforcer to a client following a correct response, and they used the term indirect contingency of reinforcement to refer to a situation where a client’s behavior acted on the environment (such as by lifting a box) to enable the client to discover a reinforcer. To avoid confusion between direct reinforcers referring to immediate reinforcers and indirect effect of referring to delayed reinforcers, the authors suggest that the situation described by Thompson and Iwata be referred to as a reinforcement discovery contingency.

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CHAPTER 5 INCREASING BEHAVIOR WITH CONDITIONED REINFORCEMENT Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: Explain what an unconditioned reinforcer is. [Level 2/C] Give two examples. [Level 2/C] A: Unconditioned reinforcers are stimuli which are reinforcing without prior learning, or without having to be associated with any other reinforcers. Food for someone who has not eaten for several hours, or water for someone who has not had a drink for several hours, are unconditioned reinforcers. Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

2. Q: Explain what a conditioned reinforcer is. [Level 2/C] Give and explain two examples.

[Level 2/C] A: A conditioned reinforcer is a stimulus which was not originally reinforcing but which acquired reinforcing power through association with a stimulus that is reinforcing. For example, a piece of green paper that constitutes a dollar bill is not likely to be a strong reinforcer for an infant or a young child who has had no experience with money.

However, after the dollar bill is paired with a variety of backup reinforcers while making various purchases in stores, the dollar bill becomes a powerful reinforcer. Any two appropriate examples are acceptable.

3. Q: Explain what a backup reinforcer is. [Level 2/C] Give and explain two examples.

[Level 2/C] A: A backup reinforcer is a reinforcer on which a conditioned reinforcer is based. In a token system it is a reinforcer for which tokens can be exchanged in order to maintain their reinforcing power. For example, at the end of a poker game, poker chips can be exchanged for money. In this case, the money is the backup reinforcer. Any two appropriate examples are acceptable.

4. Q: What were the backup reinforcers in Erin’s program? [Level 2/C] A: The backup reinforcers included time on Facebook or YouTube.

5. Q: Describe a target behavior of yours that you would like to improve that might be amenable to a points program like Erin’s. What would you use as backup reinforcers for the points?

[Level 3/App] A: Any appropriate example is acceptable.

6. Q: What are tokens? [Level 1/K] A: Tokens are conditioned reinforcers that can be accumulated and exchanged for other reinforcers.

7. Q: Explain in two or three sentences what a token economy is. [Level 2/C] A: A token system (or economy) is a behavior modification program that uses tokens to reinforce desirable behavior. The tokens can be exchanged for more powerful reinforcers called backup reinforcers.

8. Q: Is money a token? [Level 1/K] Justify your answer. [Level 6/E] A: Yes, money is a token because it can be accumulated and exchanged for a variety of backup reinforcers (the things that money can buy).

9. Q: Give two examples of stimuli that are conditioned reinforcers but not tokens. [Level 2/C] Explain why they are conditioned reinforcers, and why they are not tokens. [Level 6/E] A: Any two appropriate examples, such as the following: praise, a call to dinner, the sight of 24 ..

a loved one, or a friendly greeting. These are all associated with more powerful reinforcers, and therefore are conditioned reinforcers. However, they are not tokens because they cannot be accumulated and exchanged for various backup reinforcers.

10. Q: Explain what a conditioned punisher is. [Level 2/C] Give and explain two examples.

[Level 2/C] A: A conditioned punisher is a stimulus which is not originally punishing, but which acquires punishing power through association with a stimulus that is punishing.

Examples might include criticism, scoldings, a failing grade, and the sight of a mugger in a dark alley. These are all typically punishers because they have been paired with other aversive events.

11. Q: Distinguish between a simple conditioned reinforcer and a generalized conditioned reinforcer. [Level 4/An] Explain why a generalized conditioned reinforcer is more effective than a simple conditioned reinforcer. [Level 2/C] A: A simple conditioned reinforcer is one that is paired with a single backup reinforcer. A generalized reinforcer is a conditioned reinforcer that is based on a number of different backup reinforcers. A generalized conditioned reinforcer is more effective because, at any given time at least one of the backup reinforcers should be powerful enough to maintain the reinforcing effectiveness of the generalized reinforcer.

12. Q: Is praise a generalized conditioned reinforcer? [Level 2/C] Defend your answer.

[Level 6/E] A: Yes, praise is likely a generalized reinforcer for most of us. That is because when people praise us, they are disposed to favor us in a variety of ways so that praise is paired with a variety of backup reinforcers. Also, positive adult attention (considered a form of praise) is provided by parents when they feed their infants, wash them, play with them, and meet their needs in other ways.

13. Q: Were the points in Erin’s program a generalized conditioned reinforcer? [Level 2/C] Defend your answer. [Level 6/E] A: The points in Erin’s program were likely a generalized reinforcer. The points were paired with two backup reinforcers, time on Facebook and time on YouTube, both of which provide a variety of conditioned reinforcers.

14. Q: List three factors that influence the effectiveness of conditioned reinforcers. [Level 2/C] A: The three factors influencing the effectiveness of conditioned reinforcers include: (a) the strength of backup reinforcers; (b) the variety of backup reinforcers; and (c) the number of pairings of the conditioned reinforcer with a backup reinforcer.

15. Q: Explain what causes a conditioned reinforcer to lose its value. [Level 2/C] A: If a conditioned reinforcer is presented a number of times without being associated with other reinforcers, it will eventually lose its reinforcing effectiveness.

16. Q: Describe two pitfalls of conditioned reinforcement, and give an example of each.

[Level 2/C] A: The unaware-misapplication Pitfall states that people who are unfamiliar with the principle of conditioned reinforcement may unknowingly misapply it in various ways. For example, if an adult scolds a child and then gives the child a treat because the adult “feels guilty,” the scolding may become a conditioned reinforcer. The partial-knowledgemisapplication Pitfall states that individuals who are not aware of the principle of conditioned reinforcement may cease to pair a conditioned reinforcer with a backup reinforcer causing the conditioned reinforcer to lose its effects. For example, a teacher who awards stars for good behavior, but fails to use effective backup reinforcers, will 25 ..

cause the stars to lose their value as conditioned reinforcers.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: How is conditioned reinforcement involved in influencing babies to babble sounds in their native language, even when no adults are around to reinforce this behavior? [Level 4/An] A: When an infant babbles a sound that has been paired with a positive reinforcer, such as the parent feeding the infant, the sound will reinforce the behavior of the babbling of the sound by the infant. Suppose, for example, that a parent says, “goo-goo-goo” frequently while feeding an infant. Because of the pairing of “goo-goo-goo” with the food reinforcement, the sound “goo-goo-goo” should become a conditioned reinforcer. Later, when the infant is in the crib alone, the infant may say “goo-goo.” Because this sound has become a conditioned reinforcer, the infant is likely to repeat that sound. Thus, conditioned reinforcement appears to be involved in strengthening babbling of babies in their native language even when no adults are around to reinforce this behavior.

2. Q: Discuss how conditioned reinforcement is involved in an addiction such as to nicotine and in making it difficult for people to quit their addiction. [Level 4/An] A: Because sensations like the smell and taste of cigarettes are paired with the reinforcing effects of nicotine in the bloodstream, the former stimuli become conditioned reinforcers.

When smokers try to quit smoking, by smoking de-nicotinized cigarettes, they still receive the powerful conditioned reinforcers of the taste and smell of cigarettes. This can interfere with the progress of treatment.

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CHAPTER 6 DECREASING A BEHAVIOR WITH OPERANT EXTINCTION Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: What are the two parts to the principle of operant extinction? [Level 2/C] A: (a) If, in a given situation, an individual emits a previously-reinforced response that is not followed by the usual reinforcing consequence, then (b) that person is less likely to do the same thing again in that situation.

2. Q: Is telling someone to stop eating candies and the person stops an example of operant extinction? [Level 1/K] Explain why or why not on the basis of the definition of operant extinction. [Level 4/An] A: No. With extinction, a behavior decreases in frequency because instances of that behavior are no longer followed by a reinforcer. With candy eating, the reinforcer is the good taste. If the child ate the candy, the good taste would still be there. Thus, the behavior (eating candies) stopped because of being told to stop, not because the reinforcer was withheld following instances of the behavior.

3. Q: Is a parent ignoring a child’s behavior an example of operant extinction? [Level 2/C] Explain why or why not on the basis of the definition of operant extinction. [Level 4/An] A: It would be extinction only if the attention of the parent was the reinforcer that was maintaining the behavior that was being ignored. However, if the child’s behavior was maintained by some other reinforcer, such as attention from another child, then ignoring the behavior by the parent would not be extinction.

4. Q: Suppose that, immediately after an instance of swearing, parents remove a portion of the child’s weekly allowance and the result is that swearing decreases. Is this an example of operant extinction? [Level !/K] Explain why or why not. [Level 4/An] A: No, this would not be extinction, as the swearing behavior was not previously reinforced by receiving an allowance. (Although not required, the student might point out that removal of the allowance contingent upon swearing is called response-cost punishment.)

5. Q: What is the difference between forgetting and operant extinction? [Level 2/C] A: Forgetting and extinction both lead to a decrease in behavior, but they do so for different reasons. In forgetting, a behavior is weakened as a function of time following the last occurrence of the behavior. With extinction, a behavior is weakened because instances of the behavior go unreinforced.

6. Q: Explain the difference, in terms of procedure and results, between the loss of value of a conditioned reinforcer (see Chapter 5) and the operant extinction of a positively reinforced behavior. [Level 4/An] A: The procedure for the loss of value of a conditioned reinforcer is presenting the conditioned reinforcer without further pairings with a backup reinforcer. The result is the loss of value of the conditioned reinforcer. The procedure of extinction is allowing a previously-reinforced behavior to occur but no longer following it with a reinforcer. The result is that the behavior decreases in frequency.

7. Q: If a behavior that was maintained by positive reinforcement is not reinforced at least once in a while, what will happen to the behavior? [Level 2/C] A: It will decrease to its level of occurrence prior to being reinforced.

8. Q: Why did the mother’s attempt to extinguish the child’s cookie eating fail (refer to Figure 6.1)? [Level 2/C] 27 ..

A: The taste of the cookies, not the mother’s attention, was the reinforcer that was maintaining the behavior.

9. Q: Examine Table 6.1. Which one of those examples involved positive reinforcement for an alternative response? [Level 3/App] For those that do not, indicate how positive reinforcement for an alternative response might be introduced. [Level 4/An] A: Example 4 appears to involve positive reinforcement for an alternative response. For the other examples, the student should describe plausible methods for reinforcing desirable alternative behavior.

10. Q: Why is it necessary to consider the setting as a factor influencing your operant extinction program? [Level 2/C] A: So as to (a) minimize the influence of alternative reinforcers for the undesirable behavior, and (b) maximize the chances that the behavior modifier(s) will persist in carrying out the program.

11. Q: Describe a particular behavior you would like to decrease in a child with whom you have contact. [Level 2/C] Would your extinction program require a special setting?

[Level 1/K] Why or why not? [Level 4/An] A: Any appropriate example is acceptable, provided that the student indicates whether or not a special setting would be required and the reason. For example: (a) Behavior to be decreased is using a spoon to throw (catapult) food around the room while sitting in a high chair. (b) To the extent that allowing the behavior to occur is not likely to be harmful to the child, a special setting would not be required. However to the extent that such behavior might be highly disruptive to others in the immediate vicinity, such as individuals in a restaurant who would likely interfere with the extinction program, a special setting would be required.

12. Q: Define continuous reinforcement and give an example that is not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: Continuous reinforcement is an arrangement in which each instance of a particular response is reinforced. For example, each time that you raise a glass of a beverage to your lips and take a sip, you experience the taste of the beverage. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

13. Q: Define intermittent reinforcement and give an example that is not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: Intermittent reinforcement is an arrangement in which a response is reinforced only occasionally rather than every time it occurs. For example, when a person is playing a slot machine at a casino, pressing the button is reinforced by winning only occasionally, not every time that it occurs. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

14. Q: What is the effect of continuous versus intermittent reinforcement on the resistance to extinction of an operant behavior? Level 1/K] A: A behavior is less resistant to extinction if it has been reinforced continuously rather than intermittently.

15. Q: What is an extinction burst? [Level 2/C ] Describe an example. [Level 2/C] A: An extinction burst is an increase in responding during extinction. For example, suppose that each time a child snapped her fingers to gain the attention of her teacher, the teacher responded, thereby reinforcing finger-snapping. Suppose further that the teacher decides to ignore that behavior on all future occasions. At the beginning of extinction, finger-snapping may increase before it begins to decrease. The increase would be an example of an extinction burst. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

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16. Q: What is spontaneous recovery? [Level 2/C] Describe an example. [Level 2/C] A: A behavior that has disappeared during an extinction session may reappear, after some time has passed, at the next session or opportunity for the behavior to occur. The reappearance of an extinguished behavior following a break or rest is called spontaneous recovery. Suppose that a child has learned to snap his fingers to gain his teacher’s attention. Suppose further that the teacher decides to extinguish that behavior. If the behavior decreases to zero during the first day of extinction, but finger-snapping reappears at the beginning of the next day, the reappearance of the behavior would be an example of spontaneous recovery. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

17. Q: In a sentence for each, describe eight general factors influencing the effectiveness of operant extinction. [[Level 2/C] A: Extinction of a particular behavior is likely to be more effective if: (a) it is combined with positive reinforcement of a desirable alternative behavior; (b) alternative possible reinforcers for the behavior that is to be decreased are controlled; (c) the setting is chosen so as to minimize potential factors interfering with the extinction program; (d) instructions are given to explain the program to the individual before implementing it; (e) behavior to decrease was on a continuous rather than an intermittent schedule of reinforcement prior to the extinction program; (f) the person applying the program is aware that the behavior being extinguished may get worse before it gets better; (g) the person applying the program is aware that extinction may produce aggression that interferes with the program; and (h) the person applying the program is aware that spontaneous recovery may occur. This is the reappearance of an extinguished behavior following a rest or the passage of time.

18. Q: Describe two examples of operant extinction that you have encountered, one involving a desirable behavior and one involving an undesirable behavior. For each example, identify the situation, behavior, immediate consequence, and probable long-term effects as is done in Tables 6.1and 6.2. (Your examples should not be from the text.) [Level 4/An] A: Any two appropriate examples involving extinction of a desirable and an undesirable behavior are acceptable.

19. Q: Briefly describe an example of a pitfall of operant extinction. [Level 2/C] Which type of Pitfall does your example illustrate? [Level 4/An] A: Suppose that, in the case of two roommates living together, one might spontaneously clean the living quarters and the other person might not think to express appreciation.

This example illustrates the unaware-misapplication Pitfall, which occurs when individuals unknowingly fail to reinforce desirable behaviors of others. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

20. Q: Operant extinction should not be applied to certain behaviors or in certain situations.

What types of behaviors and situations would these be? [Level 2/C] Give an example of a behavior to which operant extinction should not be applied. [Level 2/C] Give an example of a situation in which operant extinction should not be applied. [Level 2/C] A: Situations in which behavior is harmful to the individual or others, and situations in which extinction cannot be carried out successfully because of outside influences. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

21. Q: What are three possible reasons for the failure of an operant extinction program?

[Level 2/C] A: (a) The reinforcer you are withholding following the undesirable behavior is not the reinforcer that was maintaining the behavior; (b) the undesirable behavior is receiving intermittent reinforcement from another source; (c) the desirable alternative behavior has not been strengthened sufficiently.

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Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: Discuss whether the operant extinction program with Louise decreased her “feelings” of pain. [Level 4/An] A: The extinction program focused on Louise’s complaints of pain. Although there was no self-monitoring of actual headaches, she did report at a twelve-month follow-up that she had experienced only two headaches over the previous several months. Thus, presumably her “feelings” of pain also decreased.

2. Q: What is bootleg reinforcement? [Level 1/K] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: Unauthorized reinforcement provided for a behavior being subjected to an extinction program. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

3. Q: Describe how noncontingent reinforcement might be used to decrease challenging behavior. [Level 2/C] What is a potential limitation of this approach? [Level 2/C] A: Suppose a child with severe developmental disabilities frequently yells loudly, and suppose further that the staff unknowingly reinforces that behavior by attending to it.

One strategy for decreasing that behavior would be for staff to provide frequent staff attention (e.g., every few minutes) noncontingently. A potential limitation of such noncontingent reinforcement is that it might reduce the child’s motivation to participate in teaching sessions (since he/she would receive staff attention for essentially doing nothing).

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CHAPTER 7 GETTING A NEW BEHAVIOR TO OCCUR WITH SHAPING Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: Identify the three basic stages in any shaping procedure as presented at the beginning of this chapter, and describe them with an example (either Frank’s case [Level 2/C] or an example of your own [Level 3/App]).

A: (a) Specify the final desired behavior (e.g., Frank jogging a quarter of a mile each day); (b) Identify a response which can be used as a starting point in working toward the desired behavior (e.g., Frank walking around the outside of his house once); (c) Reinforce the starting response, and then closer and closer approximations towards the final desired response (e.g., Frank was reinforced for walking further and further, and finally for jogging, until his goal was reached). Any appropriate example is acceptable.

2. Q: Define shaping. [Level 1/K] A: Shaping is a procedure for developing a new behavior by the reinforcement of successive approximations of that behavior and the extinction of earlier approximations of that behavior until the new behavior occurs.

3. Q: What is another name for shaping? [Level 1/K] A: The method of successive approximations.

4. Q: Explain how shaping involves successive applications of the principles of positive reinforcement and operant extinction. [Level 2/C] A: Approximation 1 is reinforced for a number of trials until Approximation 2 occurs, then Approximation 1 is extinguished and Approximation 2 is reinforced until Approximation 3 occurs, and so on.

5. Q: Why bother with shaping? [Level 2/C] Why not just learn about the use of straightforward positive reinforcement to increase a behavior? [Level 2/C] A: Positive reinforcement can be used to increase behavior that already occurs once in a while.

Shaping is necessary to develop a behavior that is not yet occurring, or that occurs rarely.

6. Q: In terms of the three stages in a shaping procedure, describe how parents might shape their child to say a particular word. [Level 2/C] A: (a) The final desired behavior is saying “dog.” (b) Starting response is imitating “d.” (c) Reinforcement of successive approximations to the final desired response. Child says “d” and parents hug child (several trials). Child says “do” and parents hug child (several trials).

Child says “dog” and parents hug child (several trials). Any appropriate example is acceptable.

7. Q: List five dimensions of behavior that can be shaped. [Level 2/C] Give two examples of each. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Topography, such as shaping a child to say, “Mommy” instead of “Mama”; (b) Frequency, such as shaping the number of steps (distance) that Frank walked; (c) Duration, such as the time spent studying before taking a break; (d) Latency, such as shaping a runner to react more and more quickly to the sound of the gun at the start of a race; and (e) Force (or intensity), such as shaping the boy to use more and more force to move the pump handle.

Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

8. Q: Describe a behavior of yours that was shaped by consequences in the natural environment,, and state several of the initial approximations. [Level 2/C] A: Any appropriate example. An example from the text was the example of the increasing rust 31 ..

on the pump shaping the boy to use more and more force to move the pump handle.

9. Q: What is meant by the term final target behavior in a shaping program? [Level 2/C] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: The final target behavior in a shaping program is the final desired behavior, such as Frank’s target behavior of jogging a quarter of a mile each day, described at the beginning of the chapter. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

10. Q: What is meant by the term starting behavior in a shaping program? [Level 2/C] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: The starting behavior of a shaping program is a behavior that occurs once in awhile and that approximates the final desired behavior. For example, the starting behavior in Frank’s program was walking around the house once, described at the beginning of the chapter.

Any appropriate example is acceptable.

11. Q: How do you know you have enough successive approximations or shaping steps of the right size? [Level 3/App] A: You don’t. You simply give it your best guess and then try out the program. Two guidelines that are sometimes helpful for selecting successive approximations include: (a) the teacher might imagine what steps she herself would go through; and (b) the teacher might observe students who can already emit the terminal behavior and ask them to emit several approximations.

12. Q: Why is it necessary to avoid underreinforcement at any shaping step? [Level 2/C] A: Too few reinforcements at any one step means that the behavior will be weak, and is likely to extinguish when the trainer attempts to move on to the next step.

13. Q: Why is it necessary to avoid reinforcing too many times at any shaping step? [Level 2/C] A: Too many reinforcements at one step may over-strengthen that behavior and make the behavior persist when the trainer attempts to move on to the next step.

14. Q: Give an example of the Unaware-Misapplication Pitfall in which shaping might be accidentally applied to develop an undesirable behavior. [Level 2/C] Describe some of the shaping steps in your example. [Level 2/C] A: Any appropriate example is acceptable, such as a mountain climber being shaped to make increasingly more dangerous climbs.

15. Q: Give an example of the Pitfall in which the failure to apply shaping might have an undesirable result. [Level 3/App] A: Any appropriate example of a failure to apply shaping is acceptable, such as the following: Some parents may not be very responsive to their child’s babbling behavior. If they expect too much from the child and do not reinforce approximations to normal speech, then the child might stay at the babbling level for a long time and thereby fail to acquire normal speech.

16. Q: Give an example from your own experience of a final target behavior that might best be developed through a procedure other than shaping (see Guideline 1a, p. 69).

[Level 3/App] A: An example could be any behavior that consists of separate responses linked together in some kind of complex series, e.g., making a bed, baking a cake, etc. Shaping would not likely be effective because the problem is not one of modifying the characteristics of some behavior; rather it is a problem of linking together in a consistent sequence specific separate responses that the client can already emit individually. This is more effectively accomplished by a procedure known as chaining that is described in a later chapter.

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17. Q: State a rule for deciding when to move the learner to a new approximation(see p. 69).

[Level 2/C] A: A guideline is: move to the next step when the student performs the current step correctly in 6 out of 10 trials (usually with one or two trials less perfect than desired, and one or two trials in which the behavior is better than the current step).

18. Q: Why do we refer to positive reinforcement and operant extinction as principles but to shaping as a procedure?(Hint: See Chapter 1, p. 10.) [Level 4/An] A: Positive reinforcement and extinction would appear to be single processes that are not composed of more basic principles. Shaping clearly is composed of both positive reinforcement and extinction. In that sense, shaping is a procedure that involves two basic principles (namely, positive reinforcement and extinction).

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: Describe how Scott and colleagues used shaping to decrease the heart rate of a man suffering from chronic anxiety. [Level 2/C] A: While a man watched television, the sound was on continuously, but the video portion appeared only when the individual’s heart rate decreased by a few beats per minute from the initial baseline rate. When the subject’s heart rate remained at a new level for three consecutive sessions, the video portion was used to reinforce further change in heart rate.

In this way, the investigators shaped several decreases in the client’s heart rate below the initial level.

2. Q: Describe how computer technology might be used to shape specific limb movements in a paralyzed person. [Level 3/App] A: A TV camera could be focused on the specified limb of a paralyzed person. The camera could be hooked up to a computer that might record limb movements, set reinforcement for small shaping steps, backtrack to earlier steps if progress slows, and operate reinforcer mechanisms. Other plausible answers are acceptable.

3. Q: Describe how computer technology might be used to study shaping more accurately than can be done with the usual noncomputerized shaping procedures. [Level 3/App] A: Computers may be useful in precisely specifying shaping parameters such as step size and amount of reinforcement at the end of each step. This should be helpful in studying the relative effectiveness of various step sizes, various amounts of reinforcement at each step size, etc.

4. Q: Describe an experiment demonstrating that maladaptive behavior can be shaped.

[Level 2/C] A: Over trials, researchers reinforced laboratory rats for extending their noses further and further over the edge of a platform until eventually the rats actually fell off the platform.

(A net below the platform kept them from being injured.)

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CHAPTER 8 DEVELOPING BEHAVIORAL PERSISTENCE WITH SCHEDULES OF REINFORCEMENT Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1 Q: Define and give an example of intermittent reinforcement. [Level 2/C] A: Intermittent reinforcement is an arrangement in which a behavior is reinforced only occasionally rather than every time it occurs. For example, Jan was not reinforced after each math problem that she solved, but rather she was reinforced after every two problems sol. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

2. Q: Define and give an example of response rate. [Level 2/C] A: Response rate refers to the number of instances of a behavior that occur in a given period of time. An example would be reading 10 pages of your behavior modification text per hour. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

3. Q: Define and give an example of schedule of reinforcement. [Level 2/C] A: A schedule of reinforcement is a rule specifying which occurrences of a given behavior, if any, will be reinforced. For example, Jan’s initial schedule of reinforcement was that she would be reinforced after correctly solving two math problems. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

4. Q: Define CRF and give an example that is not in this chapter. [Level 2/C] A: CRF, continuous reinforcement, is a schedule of reinforcement in which each instance of a particular response is reinforced. For example, if Jan had received reinforcement for each math problem solved, then she would have been on a continuous reinforcement schedule. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

5. Q: Describe four advantages of intermittent reinforcement over CRF for maintaining behavior. [Level 2/C] A: (a) The reinforcer remains effective longer than with continuous reinforcement because satiation takes place more slowly; (b) behavior that has been reinforced intermittently takes longer to extinguish than behavior that has been continuously reinforced; (c) individuals work more consistently on certain intermittent schedules than on continuous reinforcement; and (d) behavior that has been reinforced intermittently persists more when transferred to reinforcers in the natural environment.

6. Q: Explain what an FR schedule is. [Level 2/C] Illustrate with two examples of FR schedules in everyday life (at least one of which is not in this chapter). [Level 3/App] A: Reinforcement occurs after a fixed number of responses. Any two plausible examples, at least one of which is not in the text, are acceptable. For example, during piece-rate pay in industry, a worker is paid for each fixed number of items produced.

7. Q: What is a free-operant procedure? [2/C] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: A free-operant procedure is one in which the individual is “free” to respond repeatedly in the sense that there are no constraints on successive responses. For example, when doing a crossword puzzle, an individual is “free” to solve the clues at any given rate (e.g., one clue per minute, one clue per 2 minutes, etc.). Any appropriate example is acceptable.

8. Q: What is a discrete-trials procedure? [Level 2/C] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: In a discrete-trials procedure an individual is “not free” to respond at whatever rate he or she chooses because the environment places limits on the availability of response 34 ..

opportunities. For example, when playing Jeopardy (on TV), individuals must wait for a clue and then must respond correctly to receive reinforcement (money). Any appropriate example is acceptable.

9. Q: What are three characteristic effects of an FR schedule? [Level 2/C] A: (a) A high steady rate until reinforcement; (b) a post reinforcement pause; and (c) high resistance to extinction.

10. Q: What is ratio strain? [[Level 1/K] A: Ratio strain refers to the deterioration of responding from increasing a ratio schedule too rapidly.

11. Q: Explain what a VR schedule is. [Level 2/C] Illustrate with two examples of VR schedules in everyday life (at least one of which is not in this chapter). [Level 3/App] Do your examples involve a free-operant procedure or a discrete-trials procedure? [[Level 3/App] A: Reinforcement occurs after a variable number of responses, where the number varies around some mean value. For example, a door-to-door salesperson is reinforced on a VR schedule in that a sale is made after some unpredictable number of responses. After a certain number of sales, the average number of houses contacted to make a sale could be determined. Any two plausible examples, at least one of which is not in the text, are acceptable.

12. Q: Describe how a VR schedule is similar procedurally to an FR schedule. [Level 4/An] Describe how it is different procedurally. [Level 4/An] A: In both FR and VR, reinforcement occurs after a certain number of responses are emitted.

In FR the number is fixed; in VR it varies.

13. Q: What are three characteristic effects of a VR schedule? [Level 2/C] A: (a) A high rate of responding; (b) little or no pausing after reinforcement; and (c) a high resistance to extinction.

14 Q: Illustrate with two examples of how FR or VR might be applied in training programs.

[Level 3/App] (By training program, we refer to any situation in which someone deliberately uses behavior principles to increase and maintain someone else’s behavior, such as parents to influence a child’s behavior, a teacher to influence students’ behavior, a coach to influence athletes’ behavior, and an employer to influence employees’ behavior.) Do your examples involve a free-operant or a discrete-trials procedure?

[Level 3/App] A: For example, a teacher might reinforce a child for correctly performing addition or subtraction problems on a VR schedule in order to generate a high rate of correct performance. As another example, a parent might reinforce a child on a VR for picking up toys and putting them away. Any two plausible examples of FR or VR are acceptable.

15. Q: Explain what a PR schedule is, and how PR has been mainly used in applied settings.

[Level 3/App] A: A PR (Progressive Ratio) schedule is like an FR schedule but the ratio requirement increases by a specified amount after each reinforcer. Eventually, the ratio requirement reaches a level called the breakpoint at which the individual stops responding completely.

The main application of PR is to determine how potent or powerful a particular reinforcer is for a particular individual.

16. Q: What is an FI schedule? [Level 1/K] A: Reinforcement is contingent upon the first instance of a specific response occurring after a fixed period of time.

17. Q: What are two questions to ask when judging whether a behavior is reinforced on an FI 35 ..

schedule? [[Level 2/C] What answers to those questions would indicate that the behavior is reinforced on an FI schedule? [Level 2/C] A: Ask: (a) Does reinforcement require only one response after a fixed interval of time? and (b) Does responding during the interval affect anything? If the answer to (a) is “yes” and the answer to (b) is “no,” this indicates that the behavior is reinforced on a fixed-interval schedule.

18. Q: Suppose that a professor gives an exam to students every Friday. The students’ studying behavior would likely resemble the characteristic pattern of an FI schedule in that studying would gradually increase as Friday approaches, and the students would show a break in studying (similar to a lengthy postreinforcement pause) after each exam. But this is not an example of an FI schedule for studying. Explain why. [Level 2/C] A: On an FI schedule, the first instance of a specific response after a fixed period of time will be reinforced. But in this case, the students can’t wait around all week, then study briefly and be reinforced. Rather, the more they study, the greater the likelihood they will receive a good grade. Their studying is probably influenced, in part, by avoidance conditioning in that they study to avoid failing.

19. Q: What is a VI schedule? [Level 1/K] A: Reinforcement is contingent upon the first instance of a specific response occurring after a variable period of time, where the time period varies around some mean value.

20. Q: Explain why simple interval schedules are not often used in training programs.

[Level 2/C] A: They generate relatively long pauses at the beginning of the interval.

21. Q: Explain what an FR/LH schedule is, and illustrate with an example from everyday life that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: In an FR/LH (fixed-ratio with a limited hold) schedule, an individual must emit a fixed number of responses within a limited time period in order to receive a reinforcer. For example, if an individual must do 30 sit-ups within 2 minutes before being allowed to get a drink of water, that would be an FR 30/LH 2 minute schedule. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

22. Q: Explain what an FI/LH schedule is, and illustrate with an example that is not in this chapter. (Hint: Think of behaviors that occur at certain fixed times, such as arriving for meals, plane departures, and cooking.) [Level 3/App] A: Reinforcement is contingent upon the first instance of a specific response occurring within a limited period of time following the expiration of a fixed interval of time. For example, waiting for a bus at a bus stop on a regular city route is probably reinforced on an approximation of an FI/LH schedule. The response is going to or being at the bus stop. The fixed interval is the length of time between bus arrivals (such as every 15 minutes). The limited hold is the amount of time the bus waits at the bus stop after it arrives. Any plausible example that is not in the chapter is acceptable.

23. Q: Describe how an FI/LH schedule is procedurally similar to a simple FI schedule.

[Level 4/An] Describe how it procedurally differs. [Level 4/An] A: In both FI and FI/LH, reinforcement is programmed to occur after the first response occurring after a fixed period of time. In FI/LH, however, the reinforcer remains available only for a limited period of time, rather than indefinitely, after it has been “set up.”

24. Q: Explain what a VI/LH schedule is. Illustrate with two examples from everyday life (at least one of which is not in this chapter). [Level 3/App] A: Reinforcement is contingent on the first response occurring within a limited period of time following the expiration of another interval of time which varies around some mean value.

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For example, watching a television program is reinforced on a VI/LH schedule.

Occasionally, at rather unpredictable intervals, something reinforcing happens and maintains our watching behavior. The limited hold aspect is present in that you will miss the reinforcer if you are not attending when it occurs. Any two plausible examples, one of which is not in the text, are acceptable.

25. Q: Give two examples of how VI/LH might be applied in training programs. [Level 2/C] A: Any two plausible applications of VI/LH are acceptable, such as the example of influencing the two boys to play cooperatively during car trips. The details of the VI/LH should be described in each case.

26. Q: For each of the photos in Figure 8.3, identify the schedule of reinforcement that appears to be operating. [Level 3/App] A: The watching for one’s luggage photo illustrates a VI/LH. After an unpredictable period of time, one’s luggage will appear on the conveyer (the VI portion), and the traveller has a certain period of time to collect it before airport employees put it in storage (the LH portion).

The child and the pegboard photo illustrates an FR schedule. After a fixed number of pieces are stacked, the reinforcer occurs. Taking the clothes out of the dryer illustrates an FI schedule. After a fixed period of time, the first response will be reinforced. Watching TV illustrates a VI/LH. After an unpredictable period of time, the response of watching TV will be reinforced by an enjoyable scene (the VI portion), but the individual must be watching at the exact time that the enjoyable scene occurs (the LH portion).

27. Q: Explain what an FD schedule is. [Level 3/App] Illustrate with two examples of FD schedules that occur in everyday life (at least one of which is not in this chapter).

[Level 3/App] A: Reinforcement occurs after the behavior has been engaged in for a continuous, fixed period of time. For example, parents might use an FD schedule to reinforce their child practicing a musical instrument by allowing the child a certain amount of TV time following a fixed duration of practice. Any two plausible examples are acceptable.

28. Q: Suppose that each time that you put bread in a toaster and press the lever, 30 seconds passes before your toast is ready. Is this an example of an FD schedule? [Level 2/C] Why or why not? [Level 4/An] Would it be an FD schedule if (a) the catch that keeps the lever down doesn’t work? or (b) the timer that releases it doesn’t work? Explain in each case. [Level 6/E] A: It is not an FD schedule because there is no behavior that must occur continuously for 30 seconds. Rather, it is a fixed interval schedule in that, after thirty seconds, the behavior of taking the bread from the toaster will be reinforced (the toast will be ready). It might be an FD schedule if you had to hold the lever down continuously for 30 seconds because of the catch not working. It would not be an FD if the catch that keeps the lever down works but the timer that releases it doesn’t. Rather, in the latter case, it would be an FI/LH. After 30 seconds the response of releasing the lever would pay off, and if you waited too long your toast would be burnt.

29. Q: Explain why FD might not be a very good schedule for reinforcing study behavior.

[Level 3/App] A: It is difficult to monitor the time spent in productive studying behavior (relative to monitoring, for example, the number of problems completed or the number of pages read).

30. Q: Give two examples of how FD might be applied in training programs. [Level 3/App] A: For example, a physical education teacher might use an FD schedule to strengthen performance of various exercises. The children who participate in the exercise program continuously during the fixed duration could be reinforced by an opportunity to participate in a game of their choice. Any two plausible applications of FD are acceptable.

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31. Q: Explain what a VD schedule is, and illustrate with an example of one from everyday life (that is not in this chapter). [Level 3/App] A: Reinforcement occurs after the behavior has been engaged in for a continuous period of time, where the specified time period varies around some mean value. For example, the behavior of waiting in line tends to be reinforced on a VD schedule in that, after a variable period of time (depending upon the length of the line and how fast it moves), the individual gets to the end of the line and can then engage in some reinforcing activity (such as purchasing a ticket to enter the theatre). Any plausible example is acceptable.

32. Q: What are concurrent schedules of reinforcement? [Level 2/C] Give an example.

[Level 2/C] A: When two or more behaviors are each reinforced on different schedules at the same time, the schedules of reinforcement that are in effect are called concurrent schedules of reinforcement. For example, a student might have the options of watching TV (which would likely be reinforced on a VI/LH) or talking on the phone (which would likely be reinforced on a VD). Any appropriate example is acceptable.

33. Q: If an individual has an option of engaging in two or more behaviors that are reinforced on different schedules by different reinforcers, what four factors in combination are likely to determine the response that the person will make? [Level 2/C] A: (a) The types of schedules that are operating; (b) the immediacy of reinforcement; (c) the magnitude of reinforcement; and (d) the response effort involved in performing the different options.

34. Q: Describe how intermittent reinforcement works against those who are ignorant of its effects. [Level 2/C] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: The inconsistent use of extinction, resulting in highly persistent undesirable behavior, is probably the most common misuse of intermittent reinforcement. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

35. Q: Name six schedules of reinforcement commonly used to develop behavior persistence (i.e., the ones described in Table 8.1). [Level 2/C] A: Fixed-ratio, variable-ratio, fixed-interval with limited hold, variable-interval with limited hold, fixed-duration, and variable-duration.

36. Q: In general, which schedules tend to produce higher resistance to extinction (RTE), the fixed or the variable schedules (see Table 8.1)? [Level 1/K] A: Variable schedules.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: Who wrote the classic authoritative work on schedules of reinforcement, and what is the title of that book? [Level 3/App] A: Ferster and Skinner: Schedules of Reinforcement.

2. Q: What may account for the failures to obtain the schedule effects in basic research with humans that are typically found in basic research with animals? [Level 2/C] A: It appears that the presence of rule-governed behavior in humans generates behavior patterns that are different from those caused by the schedules when applied to animals.

3. Q: Describe how FR schedules may be involved in writing a novel. [Level 3/App] A: Completing each chapter of a novel appears to be reinforced on a fixed ratio schedule, in that a specific number of responses must be made before a chapter is finished. In the 38 ..

case of Irving Wallace, he typically stopped writing immediately after completing each chapter of the book he was working on. After a brief pause of a day or so, he resumed writing at a high rate, which he maintained until the next chapter was completed. In addition, longer pauses typically occurred after a draft of a manuscript was completed.

Thus, it appears that completed chapters and completed drafts of manuscripts are reinforcements for novel writing that occur according to an FR schedule.

4. Q: Might it be better to reinforce a child for dusting the living room furniture for a fixed period of time or for a fixed number of items dusted? Explain your answer. [Level 6/E] A: Evidence indicates that when FR and FD both appear to be applicable, the former schedule is preferable in that it generates more (and higher quality) work. For example, it has been shown that students who are required to read for a fixed period of time and to answer questions on what they have read do not perform as well as students who are required to read a fixed number of pages and then to answer questions on what they have read.

5. Q: Briefly describe how schedules of reinforcement can help us understand behavior that has frequently been attributed to inner motivational states. [Level 3/App] A: Sometimes we postulate motivation as some sort of thing within us that explains differences in the rate of behavior between two individuals, such as between a student who studies a great deal (whom we might describe as highly motivated) as compared to one who studies very little (whom we might describe as not motivated). But it may be that the first student initially received frequent reinforcement for academic behavior from parents and teachers, and the reinforcers may have been gradually shifted to intermittent schedules that continue to maintain high rates. The second student may not have experienced the same history of reinforcement. Studying behavior in the second individual may not have been reinforced adequately initially; the schedule may have shifted abruptly, causing ratio strain, or other possibilities might account for the lack of studying. Thus, differences in rate of responding are not necessarily due to inner motivational states.

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CHAPTER 9 RESPONDING AT THE RIGHT TIME AND PLACE: STIMULUS DISCRIMINATION AND STIMULUS GENERALIZATION Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: What is a stimulus? [Level 1/K] Give two examples that are not from the text.

[Level 3/App] A: A stimulus is any physical event or object in the environment that can be detected by one’s sense receptors and can affect behavior. For example, the sound and sight of an airplane passing overhead are stimuli. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

2. Q: What is an ABC assessment? [Level 1/K] A: An ABC assessment involves the identification of the antecedents and consequences of a behavior.

3. Q: Define stimulus control. [Level 1/K] A: Stimulus control refers to the degree of correlation between an antecedent stimulus and a subsequence response.

4. Q: What is good stimulus control? [Level 1/K] Give an example that is not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: Good stimulus control refers to a strong correlation between the occurrence of a particular stimulus and the occurrence of a particular response. For example, good stimulus control would be displayed if a driver consistently stops the car at red traffic lights. Any plausible example is acceptable.

5. Q: Define SD, and give an example that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] Identify both the SD and the response in the example. [Level 4/An] A: An SD is a stimulus in the presence of which a response will be reinforced. For example, when two people are eating dinner, the request by one person, “Please pass the salt” would be an SD for the other person to emit the response of passing the salt. Any plausible example is acceptable.

6. Q: Define SΔ, and give an example that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] Identify both the SΔ and the response in the example. [Level 4/An] A: An SΔ is a stimulus in the presence of which a response will not be reinforced. For example, an “out-of-order” sign on a vending machine is an SΔ for the response of putting in money. Any plausible example is acceptable.

7. Q: What is the difference between a stimulus and a discriminative stimulus? [Level 4/An] A: A stimulus is anything that can be detected by one’s sense receptors and can affect behavior. A discriminative stimulus is a stimulus in the above sense, but it is also a cue that a response will pay off.

8. Q: Give an example (not from this chapter) of a stimulus that is an SD for one behavior and an SΔ for a different behavior. [Level 3/App] A: If you ask someone, “What time is it, please?” that would be an SD for the person to check their watch and tell you the time; it would be an SΔ for that person to tell you the date of that particular day. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

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9. Q: Describe the stimulus discrimination training procedure, and give an example that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: Stimulus discrimination training refers to the procedure of reinforcing a response in the presence of an SD and extinguishing that response in the presence of an S Δ. For example, when teaching a child to correctly name the colors of objects, you would reinforce saying “Red” when you point to a red object, but you would not reinforce saying “Red” after you have pointed to a green object. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

10. Q: State the two effects of stimulus discrimination training. [Level 1/K] A: After sufficient stimulus discrimination training, the effects are: (a) stimulus control—a high correlation between a stimulus and a response; and (b) a stimulus discrimination—a response occurs to an SD and not to an S Δ.

11. Q: Define stimulus generalization, and give an example that is not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: Stimulus generalization occurs when a behavior becomes more probable in the presence of one stimulus or situation as a result of having been reinforced in the presence of another stimulus or situation. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

12. Q: In a sentence, state the difference between an instance of stimulus discrimination and an instance of stimulus generalization. [Level 4/An] A: In stimulus generalization, an individual makes the same response to two different stimuli, while in stimulus discrimination, an individual makes a different response to two different stimuli.

13. Q: What do we mean by common-element stimulus class? [Level 2/C] By conceptual behavior?

[Level 2/C] Give an example of each that are not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: A stimulus common-element class is a set of stimuli, all of which have some physical characteristic in common. For example, red objects would constitute a stimulus commonelement class. Conceptual behavior is emitting an appropriate response to all the members of a stimulus common-element class, and not emitting that response to stimuli that do not belong to the class. For example, when faced with several red objects and several green objects, a child would be showing conceptual behavior if the child identified only the red objects when asked, “Which ones are red?” Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

14. Q: Describe how you might teach the concept of honest to a child. [Level 2/C] Would your program teach a child to be honest? Why or why not? [Level 4/An] A: To teach the concept “honest,” you might reinforce a particular response (such as the word “honest”) to many different examples of honest behavior and extinguish that response (and perhaps reinforce a different response, such as “dishonest”) to examples of dishonest behavior. This procedure teaches a child to recognize instances of honest and dishonest behavior. It does not necessarily teach a child how to “be honest.” For example, a child might have been taught that lying is dishonest, but still lie (and be fully aware that he or she is doing so). Any appropriate example is acceptable.

15. Q: What do we mean by stimulus equivalence class? [Level 2/C] Give an example that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: A stimulus equivalence class is a group of stimuli that are physically different, but all control the same behavior. For example, for individuals for whom the word “three,” the numeral “3,” and the Roman numeral “III” all control the same behavior, those three stimuli would constitute an equivalence class. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

16. Q: What is a primary distinction between stimulus generalization involving common-element stimulus classes and stimulus generalization involving stimulus equivalence classes?

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[Level 4/An] A: With stimulus generalization involving a stimulus common-element class, the stimuli to which generalization occurs have at least one physical characteristic in common with the original SD. With stimulus generalization involving a stimulus equivalence class, the members of the equivalence class are physically different from one another.

17. Q: When you are considering the selection of a stimulus to be set up as an SD, what four questions might you ask yourself about that stimulus? (See p. 90.) [Level 2/C] A: (a) Is the stimulus sufficiently different from other stimuli on more than one dimension?(b) Can it be presented primarily on occasions on which the response should occur? (c) Is there a high probability the person will attend to it? (d) Does it currently control any undesirable responses?

18. Q: Describe a stimulus that you would like to establish as an S D for a behavior of yourself or a friend, and describe the behavior. Then, for that stimulus, answer the four questions that you asked yourself in Question 17. [Level 3/App] A: Suppose that you want to teach your neighbor’s child to understand the significance of a “Block Parent” sign that you have in your window. A “Block Parent” sign is different from other stimuli in the window in both shape and color; it can be presented in the window when adults are home to respond to children in the streets who may knock on the door as a function of the sign; it is quite distinctive and therefore is likely to be attended to by children who have been instructed about its function; and it is not likely to control any undesirable responses. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

19. Q: What do we mean by an error in stimulus discrimination training? [Level 1/K] A: (a) A response to an S∆ or (b) no response or an incorrect response to an SD. 20. Q: In general, what is a contingency? [Level 1/K] Give an example that is not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: In general, a contingency is an “if-then” type of arrangement. For example, if you press the button on the water fountain, then a stream of water will appear. Any appropriate example that was not in the chapter.

21 Q: What is a three-term contingency of reinforcement? [Level 1/K] Give an example that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: A three-term contingency of reinforcement describes both the antecedents and consequences of a behavior. For example, at the dining room table during dinner, a person says “Pass the salt please” (the antecedent), another person passes the salt (the response), and the first person says “Thank you” (reinforcer). Any appropriate example is acceptable.

22. Q: From a behavioral perspective, what is a rule? [Level 1/K] A: A rule is a verbal statement that describes a situation in which a behavior will lead to a consequence.

23. Q: With examples that are not in this chapter, distinguish between rule-governed and contingency-shaped behavior. [Level 4/An] A: Contingency-shaped behavior is behavior that has been strengthened simply because it has been immediately followed by reinforcement. For example, if little Johnny swears while playing with friends in the street and his friends laugh at his swearing, swearing would likely be strengthened. Rule-governed behavior is behavior that occurs to a rule that describes a contingency of reinforcement. For example, if Johnny’s parents say, “If you talk without swearing all day long, you can stay up for an extra half-hour tonight,” and if as a result little Johnny talks without swearing during the day (at least in their presence), then Johnny would be showing rule-governed behavior. Any appropriate examples are 42 ..

acceptable.

24. Q: Was the children’s high on task behavior to the posted rule in the Auckland classroom likely rule governed or contingency shaped? Justify your choice. [Level 6/E] A: The high on-task behavior to the posted rule in the Auckland classroom was likely rulegoverned behavior. The reason is that the children showed high on-task behavior during the very first session after the teacher explained the new set of rules, whereas contingencyshaped behavior usually takes a number of trials before a sizeable change in behavior occurs.

25. Q: Give an example of how ignorance of stimulus discrimination training may lead parents or other caregivers to develop an undesirable behavior in a child or adult in their care.

[Level 3/App] A: One might reinforce responses in the presence of highly inappropriate stimuli. For example, parents with a child who has just learned to walk might follow the child around closely when they visit someone else’s house and pick the child up each time the child attempts to grab ornaments or other breakable objects. The parents may in fact be teaching the child to immediately walk towards and grab ornaments in other people’s houses. Any plausible example is acceptable.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: Using examples, explain what is meant by reflexivity, symmetry, and transitivity.

[Level 2/C] A: Reflexivity involves matching two exemplars of an object or event, such as matching a 3 to a 3. Symmetry refers to bi-directional matching of two objects, such as matching A to B and then matching B to A. Transitivity occurs when an individual has learned to match A to B and B to C, is then able to match A to C without specific training to do so.

2. Q: How have studies of stimulus equivalence provided support for a behavioral view of language development? [Level 4/An] A: Psycholinguists have argued that children appear to learn more about language than is directly reinforced, or that can be explained through stimulus generalization due to physical similarity. That is, children learn that physically different sounds can mean the same thing as other sounds, even though some of those sounds have not been directly paired with each other. However, stimulus equivalence enables us to account for this phenomenon and thereby provides support for a behaviorist view of language development.

3. Q: What is meant by the term contextual control? [Level 2/C] Illustrate with an example.

[Level 3/App] A: Contextual control is a complex type of stimulus control in which the general setting or context may alter the manner in which an individual responds to particular stimuli. For example, in North America the left side of the car is an SD for the designated driver to open the door and sit down. In Britain, the right side of the car is an SD for the designated driver to open the door and sit down. In this example, the country in which driving occurs is the context.

4. Q: Just before starting to cross a street, a pedestrian from England visiting Canada observed that the street was clear to the right, stepped into the street, and was struck by a car.

Explain how lack of contextual control was involved in this accident. [Level 2/C] A: In England, car drivers drive on the left side of the road. Just before stepping onto the street, therefore, the closest approaching car would come from the right. In Canada, however, car drivers drive on the right side of the street. Thus, just before stepping onto the 43 ..

street, the closest approaching car would be at one’s left. In this example, the country that the pedestrian was visiting was the context, and in the context of Canada, stepping onto a street should be preceded by looking left. Unfortunately, the pedestrian was not under the contextual control of the country, and looked right.

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CHAPTER 10 CHANGING THE STIMULUS CONTROL OF A BEHAVIOR WITH FADING Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: Define fading , and give an example of it. [Level 2/C] A: Fading is the gradual change, on successive trials, of a stimulus that controls a response, so that the response eventually occurs to a partially changed or completely new stimulus.

For example, a parent might teach a child to hold a pencil and make a line on a piece of paper by physically guiding the child’s hand. Over successive trials, the physical guidance might gradually be lessened to the point where the child will be able to draw a line without any help whatsoever. Any plausible example is acceptable.

2. Q: Define errorless discrimination training. [Level 2/C] A: Errorless discrimination training (errorless learning) is the use of a fading procedure to establish a stimulus discrimination so that no errors occur.

3. Q: Why is establishing a stimulus discrimination without errors advantageous? [Level 2/C] A: (a) Errors consume valuable time; (b) If an error occurs once, it tends to occur many times even though it is being extinguished; (c) The absence of reinforcement when errors are being extinguished often produces emotional side effects (e.g., tantrums, aggressive behavior) and/or attempts to escape from the situation.

4. Q: What is meant by a dimension of a stimulus? [Level 1/K] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: A dimension of a stimulus is any characteristic that can be measured on some continuum.

For example, the loudness of a particular sound. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

5. Q: Identify three stimulus dimensions along which fading occurred in the examples cited in the first two sections of this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: Any three, such as: (a) intensity of an auditory stimulus (“Peter”); (b) the amount of pressure exerted by a teacher to physically guide a student during tracing; or (c) the number of dots on a piece of paper for tracing.

6. Q: Give an example from this chapter in which the training situation remained constant but a specific stimulus dimension was faded. [Level 2/C] A: Any appropriate example, such as teaching Peter to say his name. The training room and situation did not change, but the intensity of the auditory stimulus was faded.

7. Q: Give an example from this chapter in which the general training situation was faded.

[Level 2/C] A: Any appropriate example, such as teaching children appropriate “classroom” behavior. The physical characteristics of the classroom (the number and location of desks and chairs and students, etc.) were gradually changed.

8. Q: Describe how one might use fading to teach a pet to perform a trick. [Level 3/App] A: Any appropriate example, such as the following: To teach a dog to raise a paw upon command, a trainer might present the command to a dog, physically guide a paw-raising response, and then provide reinforcement (such as a small piece of dog biscuit). After several trials, the trainer might raise the paw about three-quarters of the way and require the dog to raise the paw the rest of the way on each trial in order to be reinforced. After a number of reinforced trials at that level, the guidance of the paw-raising might be gradually decreased until the dog raises the paw on command with no physical guidance from the 45 ..

trainer. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

9. Q: Assume that you have an 18-month-old child who imitates the word chip. Describe in detail how you might use fading to teach your child to correctly identify a chip (e.g., a potato chip) when you point to it and ask, “What’s that?” [Level 3/App] A: We will assume that the child likes to eat potato chips. The procedure to be used would be essentially the same as the procedure described in this chapter to teach Peter to say “Peter” when asked, “What’s your name?” Specifically, you might hold up a potato chip, and say to the child very quietly, “What’s this?” and then, very loudly and quickly before the child can respond, say “chip!” When the child mimics the word “chip,” you would reinforce the child by handing the child the potato chip and allowing the child to eat it. Then, over several trials, you would begin asking the question, “What’s this?” more loudly and begin supplying the answer “chip” more quietly. Eventually, the child should correctly respond “chip” when asked, “What’s this?” while you hold up a potato chip.

10. Q: What do we mean by final target stimulus? [Level 2/C] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: The final desired stimulus is the stimulus that you want to eventually control the target behavior in a fading program. Any plausible example is acceptable.

11. Q: What do we mean by starting stimulus? [Level 2/C] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: The starting stimulus is the initial stimulus that reliably evokes the desired behavior at the start of a fading program. Any plausible example is acceptable.

12. Q: Define prompt. [Level 2/C] Give an example that is not from this chapter. [Level 2/C] A: In a program to develop stimulus control, such as a fading program, supplemental stimuli may initially be used to help control the desired behavior. The supplemental stimuli are called prompts. For example, a parent may want to teach a young child to fill a sink approximately 1/4 full with water before the child washes her hands. A felt marker might be used to place a mark in the sink to initially indicate the appropriate level. The mark would be a prompt. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

13. Q: Define the four major categories of teacher-behavior prompts. [Level 2/C] Give an example of each. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Physical prompts—the teacher touches the student to guide him. (b) Verbal prompts— verbal hints or verbal cues that the teacher presents to evoke the correct response; (c) Gestural prompts—gestures or motions that the teacher makes (without touching the student) in order to evoke the desired behavior; (d) Modelling prompts—the teacher demonstrates (i.e., models) the correct behavior. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

14. Q: Define environmental prompt, and give an example that is not from this chapter. [ [Level 3/App] A: Environmental prompts are alterations to the physical environment in a manner that will evoke a desired behavior. For example, someone who is focusing on getting into shape may place pictures around his or her home of people lifting weights or doing other physical activity to serve as motivation or reminders for getting into shape. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

15. Q: Define within-stimulus prompt, and give an example that is not from this chapter.

[Level 2/C] Does your example involve a teacher-behavior prompt or an environmental prompt? [Level 2/C] A: A within-stimulus prompt is an alteration in the characteristics of an SD or an SΔ to make them more noticeable, and therefore easier to discriminate. For example, suppose that a teacher has placed several brown objects and several blue objects in front of a child.

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When teaching the child to respond correctly when the teacher asks, “brown or blue,” the teacher might initially exaggerate the difference in the words by saying “brown” in a loud, high- pitched voice, and saying “blue” in a soft, low-pitched voice. This is a teacher-behavior prompt. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

16. Q: Define extra-stimulus prompt, [and give an example that is not from this chapter.

[Level 3/App] Does your example involve a teacher-behavior prompt or an environmental prompt? [Level 2/C] A: An extra-stimulus prompt is something that is added to the environment to make a correct response more likely. For example, suppose that a teacher is attempting to teach a child to discriminate between brown and blue objects when the teacher says, “brown or blue.” On successive trials, the correct object (e.g., a brown object when the teacher says “brown” could be placed closer to the child, and the incorrect object could be placed farther away).

The position prompt (of the objects) in this case would be an extra-stimulus prompt, and could be faded across trials. This is an environmental prompt. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

17. Q: How many reinforced trials should occur at any given fading step before the stimuli of that particular step are changed? (Hint: What suggestions were made in the examples in this chapter?) [Level 2/C] A: The number might vary with the step, the behavior being taught, and the student being taught. For example, several reinforced trials at each step were used when teaching Peter to say his name. There is no definitive answer since fading is still somewhat of an art.

18. Q: Distinguish between fading and shaping. [Level 4/An] A: Fading involves the gradual change of a stimulus while the response stays about the same; shaping involves the gradual change of a response while the stimulus stays about the same.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1 Q: Describe a plausible example in which use of physical guidance in a teaching program might require ethical approval. [Level 3/App] Why would ethical approval be required?

[Level 4/An] A: Suppose a staff member in an agency for persons with developmental disabilities decides that it would be desirable to take a person with severe developmental disabilities on a walk outside the agency on a warm summer day. Suppose further that the client resists going on a walk. Suppose further that the staff decides to use physical guidance to influence the client to go on a walk. But perhaps such an intrusive procedure is not necessary to prompt the desired behavior. Perhaps simply showing the client a photograph of the outside scene in which walking will occur might be sufficient to prompt the desired behavior. Such an environmental prompt would be considered less restrictive than physical guidance. Because it is generally agreed that behavior modifiers should use the least intrusive and restrictive interventions wherever possible, use of physical guidance in the above instance might require ethical approval. Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

2. Q: Which of the prompt-removal procedures fit the definition of fading given at the beginning of this chapter, and which do not? [Level 2/C] Explain. [Level 6/E] A: The definition of fading given at the beginning of the chapter is: the gradual change on successive trials of a stimulus that controls a response so that the response eventually occurs to a partially changed or completely new stimulus. Decreasing assistance is the only prompt-removal procedure that fits this description. In increasing assistance the “starting” stimulus—a stimulus that consistently evokes the response—is not presented at the beginning of the procedure. In graduated guidance, the level of prompting is changed 47 ..

within rather than across trials. In time delay, the starting stimulus is not changed; instead, the time interval between the final desired stimulus and the starting stimulus is gradually increased.

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CHAPTER 11 GETTING A NEW SEQUENCE OF BEHAVIORS TO OCCUR WITH BEHAVIOR CHAINING Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: Briefly describe the chaining procedure used to teach Steve to perform a consistent preputt routine. [Level 2/C] A: First, Steve’s pre-putt routine was divided into 7 sequential steps. Second, over a series of 10 trials, Steve was required to perform each of the 7 steps in the appropriate sequence.

Third, on each trial, a friend of his checked off the steps as they were performed, and prompted him to perform any missing steps before continuing. Fourth, a friend of Steve’s prompted him to perform each step of the pre-putt routine on every putt during a practice round of golf. Finally, during tournament rounds, his caddy frequently reminded him to follow his pre-putt routine.

2. Q: Describe or define behavior chain, and give an example other than those in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: A sequence of SDs and Rs, in which each R produces the SD for the next R and the entire sequence, is typically followed by a reinforcer. Any example in which the sequence of behaviors and the reinforcer are briefly described.

3. Q: Why do you suppose a behavior chain is called a chain? [Level 2/C] A: Because it is a sequence of responses that consists of stimulus-response “links” that are connected or “chained” together.

4. Q: Distinguish between a behavior sequence that is a chain and one that is not a chain.

[Level 4/An] A: A behavior chain is a consistent series of stimuli and responses in which each stimulus (except the last) is a conditioned reinforcer for the previous response and serves as an SD for the next response. The sequence also typically terminates in a reinforcer. Other general sequences might consist of a series of responses that tend to occur in the same order on successive occasions, but such general sequences are not specific behavior chains because there are many variations to each response on successive occasions, and there are frequent “breaks” in between responses.

5. Q: Give an example of a behavior sequence (that is not in this chapter) that is not a chain, and explain why it is not one. [Level 2/C] A: A sequence that would not be a chain would be studying for an exam, writing the exam, and attending the next class to get the mark back from the professor. The latter sequence is not a chain because of variations in each response, and frequent “breaks” in between responses. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

6. Q: Briefly describe the total-task presentation chaining method. [Level 2/C] A: Total task presentation: the client is required to attempt each of the steps in the chain from the beginning to the end on each trial, and to continue with total task trials until all steps are mastered.

7. Q: Briefly describe the backward-chaining method. [Level 2/C] A: Backward chaining: the last step is established first, then the next to the last step is taught and linked to the last step, then the third from the last step is taught and linked to the last two steps, and so on, progressing backward toward the beginning of the chain.

8. Q: Briefly describe the forward-chaining method. [Level 2/C] 49 ..

A: Forward chaining: the initial step of a sequence is taught first, then the first and second steps are taught and linked together, then the first three steps, and so on until the entire chain is acquired.

9. Q: Describe how each of the three major chaining methods could be used to teach bed making. [Level 3/App] A: First, bed-making would be task analyzed into a number of steps, the specific number depending upon the level of functioning and skills of the person to be taught how to make beds. The task analysis might produce the following steps: (a) put on the bottom sheet; (b) straighten the bottom sheet; (c) tuck in the bottom sheet; (d) put on the top sheet; (e) straighten the top sheet; (f) tuck in the top sheet; (g) put on the spread; (h) straighten the spread; (i) pull the top of the spread back for the pillow; (j) put the pillow on the bed and (k) pull the spread over the pillow and smooth the wrinkles. In total task presentation, the client would be required to go through each of the above steps on every trial. Correct performance of a step would be reinforced with praise. If a client performed a step incorrectly, assistance would be provided to correct that step, but praise would not be provided. Praise would also be presented following the completion of the chain. In backward chaining, training would start with the bed completely made except for the last step. Over several trials, the client would be taught to perform step (k), pulling the spread over the pillow and smoothing the wrinkles. As with total task presentation, praise would be used to reinforce correct performance and incorrect responses would be corrected but would not be praised. When the client had mastered step (k), the client would be taught to perform steps (j) and (k) using the same procedures. When the last two steps had been mastered, the client would be taught to perform steps (i), (j), and (k). In this way, teaching would progress backwards until the entire chain had been mastered. In forward chaining, training would start with the first step of the sequence and the client would be taught to perform step (a), putting on the bottom sheet. As with the previous two procedures, correct responses would be reinforced while incorrect responses would be corrected, but not reinforced. When step (a) had been mastered, steps (a) and (b) would be taught. When these were performed together and correctly, training would progress through steps (a), (b), and (c). In this way, training would progress through the steps until the entire chain had been mastered.

10. Q: In a chain, a given stimulus is both an SD and a conditioned reinforcer. How can this be?

[Level 2/C] Explain with an example. [Level 2/C] A: Consider the chain for teaching a person with developmental disabilities to put on a pair of slacks (described in Figure 11-2). After doing up the snap in Step 6, the last step was to do up the zipper, which was followed by a reinforcer. Therefore, the “snap done up” became an SD for “doing up the zipper” (i.e., “snap done up” was a cue in the presence of which “doing up the zipper” would be reinforced). Also, across a number of trials, “snap done up” was paired with receiving a reinforcer and would become a conditioned reinforcer for the preceding response of “doing up the snap.” In other words, “snap done up” was the stimulus, which when presented after a response (doing up the snap), served to strengthen that response, and “snap done up” had that effect because of appropriate pairings with the reinforcer at the end of the chain. Thus, “snap done up” was both an SD and a conditioned reinforcer. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

11. Q: Which of the major chaining methods do the authors recommend for teaching persons with developmental disabilities, and for what four reasons? [Level 3/App] A: The authors recommend that the total task presentation method be used. This recommendation is based on four considerations. First, it requires the trainer to spend less time in partial assembly or disassembly to prepare the task for training; second, it appears to focus on teaching response topography and response sequence simultaneously and therefore should produce results more quickly; third, it appears to maximize the 50 ..

learner’s independence early in training, especially if some steps are already familiar to the learner; fourth, several studies demonstrated that total task presentation was at least as good as, or better than, backward chaining or forward chaining for teaching assembly tasks to persons with severe developmental disabilities persons.

12. Q: Distinguish among the types of target behavior typically established by shaping, fading, and chaining. [Level 4/An] A: In fading, the target behavior is some new stimulus control of a particular behavior. In shaping, the target behavior is some new behavior along some physical dimension, such as topography, amount, or intensity. In chaining, the target behavior is a new sequence of responses, with a “clear-cut” stimulus signalling the end of each response and the start of the next.

13. Q: Suppose that you want to teach someone to change a tire on a car. Would you use shaping or chaining? [Level 2/C] Justify your choice. [Level 6/E] A: Changing a tire involves performing an appropriate series of steps including getting the jack out of the car, inserting the jack at the appropriate place on the side of the car, raising the side of the car so that the tire can be removed, etc. In other words, changing a tire on a car is a sequence of responses with a “clear cut” stimulus signalling the end of each response and the start of the next response. Therefore, chaining would be used.

14. Q: What is meant by the term task analysis? [Level 2/C] Describe a plausible task analysis appropriate for teaching a 3-year-old child the chain of tying a knot in a shoelace.

[Level 3/App] A: Task analysis refers to the process of breaking a task down into smaller steps or component responses to facilitate training. For example, you might require the child to be seated at a desk with a completed laced shoe facing away from her. The child might then be guided through the following steps: (a) The child takes the end of a lace in each hand; (b) the right end of the lace is placed on the desk pointing straight out from the child; (c) the left end of the lace is laid across the right end; (d) the child’s left hand grabs the laces where they form a loop, and her right hand puts the top lace around and through the loop from behind; (e) both ends of the lace are now pulled, thus forming a knot. Any plausible task analysis of tying a shoelace knot is acceptable.

15. Q: Briefly describe three strategies to help individuals use prompts independently to guide the mastery of a chain of behaviors. [Level 3/App] A: (a) Prepare a written task analysis of the chaining steps; (b) For individuals who are unable to read, use a series of picture prompts to guide completion of the chain(s); (c) Teach individuals to recite self-instructions to prompt correct performance of chaining steps.

16. Q: What is an adventitious chain? [Level 2/C] A: An adventitious chain is a chain that has subcomponents that are functional in producing the reinforcer, and at least one component (called a superstitious component) that is not functional in producing the reinforcer.

17. Q: Give an example of an adventitious chain that is not from this chapter. [Level 3/App] Clearly identify the superstitious component. [Level 4/An] A: For example, a pitcher in baseball might consistently engage in the following sequence: watch the catcher for the signal; tug on his belt buckle; wind up, and throw the pitch.

Tugging on his belt buckle would not be necessary for the reinforcer of throwing a strike.

Any appropriate example is acceptable.

18. Q: Give an example of an Unaware-Misapplication Pitfall of chaining other than an adventitious chain. [Level 3/App] Explain how this pitfall could be avoided. [Level 2/C] A: For example, a behavioral chain manifested by some overweight people consists of watching 51 ..

TV until a commercial comes on, going to the kitchen during a commercial, getting a snack, and returning to the TV program where the snack is eaten (and reinforced by the events in the program). This chain could be broken by requiring the individual to separate the two activities and to eat only in the kitchen and watch TV only in the TV room without combining the two.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: Explain how the theory that the stimuli in a behavior chain are conditioned reinforcers for the preceding responses and SDs for the subsequent responses is an oversimplification.

[Level 6/E] A: It’s an oversimplification because, in a long behavioral chain with many components, the stimuli at the beginning of the chain are a considerable distance in time from the primary reinforcer at the end of the chain, and their property as SDs decreases and they begin to take on the property of SΔs.

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CHAPTER 12 DIFFERENTIAL REINFORCEMENT PROCEDURES TO DECREASE BEHAVIOR Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: What is the difference in the use of the schedules of reinforcement in Chapter 8compared to the differential reinforcement procedures in this chapter? [Level 4/An] A: The schedules of reinforcement in Chapter 8 are used to increase and maintain operant behavior, while the schedules of reinforcement in Chapter 12 are used to decrease operant behavior.

2. Q: Describe briefly, point by point, how Tommy’s talking out in class was reduced.

[Level 3/App] A: (a) Tommy received instructions about a procedure. (b) According to the procedure, 5 minutes of play at the end of the day was made available to Tommy for each 50-minute session where he had 3 or fewer “talk-outs.” Thus, frequent talk-outs were not consequated by a special reinforcer. Infrequent talk-outs were consequated by a special reinforcer.

3. Q: Explain, in general, what a DRL schedule is. [Level 2/C] Give an example of one that occurs in everyday life, and that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: DRL is a schedule of reinforcement where the reinforcer is presented only if a behavior occurs at a low rate, and not if the behavior occurs at a higher rate. For example, a student visiting a professor in his office is likely to be reinforced by the professor if such visits occur at a reasonably low rate but not if they occur at such a high rate as to amount to pestering.

Any plausible example is acceptable.

4. Q: Define limited-responding DRL, and give an example. [Level 3/App] A: In limited responding DRL, an individual is reinforced if fewer than a certain number of responses occur during a session, or during a separate interval within a session. Thus, from zero to the maximum allowable number of responses might occur and the subject will still be reinforced. For example, in Tommy’s case, an interval of 50 minutes was specified, and reinforcement occurred at the end of the interval if it contained three or fewer talk-outs

by Tommy. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

5. Q: Define spaced-responding DRL, and give an example. [Level 3/App] A: In spaced-responding DRL, an instance of a behavior must occur for reinforcement, and that instance must be separated from a previous instance of that behavior by a specified period of time. For example, this type of schedule might be used with a child who asks a parent for a drink of water every few minutes. The child might be put on a spacedresponding DRL one response per hour schedule, meaning that a request for a drink will be reinforced only if it has not occurred during the preceding hour. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

6. Q: How is a spaced-responding DRL procedurally similar to and different from an FI schedule? [Level 4/An] A: In spaced-responding DRL and on an FI schedule, the first response following some interval of time is reinforced. In spaced-responding DRL, the interval of time is measured from the previous response, whereas in FI it is measured from some other event, usually the previous reinforcer. Spaced-responding DRL is different from an FI schedule in that in the former responding before the specified interval has passed causes a recycling of the time interval. On an FI schedule, responding by the individual before the time interval has 53 ..

passed has no programmed consequence.

7. Q: What is a procedural difference between a spaced-responding DRL and an FD schedule?

[Level 4/An] A: In spaced responding DRL, a fixed time must pass in which the response does not occur in order for a response to produce a reinforcer. On an FD schedule, the response must occur continuously for a fixed period of time in order for reinforcement to occur.

8. Q: Give in some detail an example, which is not in this chapter, of how DRL would be useful in treating a behavior problem. [Level 6/E] Indicate which type of DRL is to be used.

[Level 3/App] A: For example, suppose that a young couple with a two-year-old child is entertaining guests. Suppose further that the child runs into the room where the adults are talking every few minutes with a different toy, saying, “See my new toy!” With cooperation from the guests, it might be appropriate for the parents to place the child on a 15-minute spaced-responding DRL in order to retain some interaction between the child and the guests, but to reduce them to a more reasonable frequency. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

9. Q: Explain what a DRO schedule is. [Level 2/C] Give an example of one that occurs in everyday life. [Level 3/App] A: A reinforcer is presented if a specified period of time passes and a particular behavior does not occur during that time. For example, a child is allowed to watch a particular TV program, providing that he does not argue with his siblings for a half-hour period prior to the program. Any plausible example is acceptable.

10. Q: Give in some detail an example, which is not in this chapter, of how a DRO might be useful in treating a behavior problem. [Level 6/E] A: For example, a staff member in a group home for developmentally disabled persons might provide praise and edibles contingent upon a 10-minute period of zero self-abusive behavior of a client who is periodically self-abusive. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

11. Q: What two words does the O in DRO stand for? [Level 3/App] Explain your answer.

[Level 6/E] A: For other responding, in which case a DRO might be thought of as reinforcing any behavior other than the specified response; or zero responding, in which case the DRO might be thought of as a schedule for reinforcing no responding of a particular type.

12. Q: Explain what a DRI schedule is. [Level 2/C] Give an example that is not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: DRI is a schedule for decreasing a response by withholding reinforcers for it and reinforcing an alternative response that is incompatible with the response to be eliminated. For example, if a teacher wanted to eliminate the hand-waving behavior of a child in the classroom, she might ignore hand-waving and reinforce the incompatible response of keeping the hands on the desk. Any plausible example is acceptable.

13. Q: Why might a DRI schedule sometimes be chosen instead of a DRO schedule? [Level 4/An] A: When using a DRO schedule to decrease a problem behavior, the problem behavior might be replaced by an incompatible behavior that is also undesirable. A DRI would prevent this possibility by specifying the incompatible behavior that is to be reinforced.

14. Q: What is the difference between DRI and DRA? [Level 4/An] A: DRI involves decreasing a target behavior by withholding reinforcers for it and reinforcing an incompatible response to the target behavior. DRA involves extinction of a problem 54 ..

behavior combined with reinforcing a behavior that is topographically dissimilar to, but not necessarily incompatible with, the problem behavior.

15. Q: What happens if the frequency of reinforcement on DRL, DRO, DRI, or DRA is too low or is decreased too rapidly? [Level 4/An] A: The behavior is likely to increase in frequency to its level of occurrence prior to the introduction of the schedule.

16. Q: Describe a pitfall of DRL for people who are ignorant of its effects. [Level 3/App] Give an example. [Level 3/App] A: People sometimes inadvertently reinforce on a DRL schedule a behavior that is highly desirable and that they would prefer to maintain at a high rate. An example is students giving correct answers in class. Although teachers typically prefer that students are always prepared to give the correct answers, they inevitably reinforce correct answers on a DRL (in order that all students might have a chance to respond). Any other plausible example is acceptable.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: What immediate consequence might account for the effectiveness of the delayed reinforcement contingency applied to Tommy’s talk-outs? [Level 4/An] A: First, praise from the teacher when she informed Tommy about the free play that he had earned may have been presented immediately following the 50-minute session, and may have helped to reinforce Tommy’s behavior that was incompatible with talking out. Second, rule-governed behavior may account to some extent for the effectiveness of the delayed reinforcement contingency. That is, Tommy might have spent a good deal of time thinking something like, “If I don’t have very many talk-outs, I’m going to have lots of fun during my extra play time.” This rule describing the contingency may have helped evoke some desirable behavior of Tommy that was incompatible with talking out.

2. Q: Describe how saying a rule to himself may have influenced Tommy’s decreased talk-outs.

[Level 4/An] A: Tommy’s saying of the rule to himself was likely reinforced on a continuous reinforcement schedule with the reinforcer being the excitement that Tommy felt when he thought about how much fun he was going to have, a conditioned reinforcer.

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CHAPTER 13 DECREASING BEHAVIOR WITH PUNISHMENT Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: Briefly describe how Ben’s aggressive behavior was eliminated. [Level 2/C] A: A punishment program was used with Ben and was implemented by the teacher and teacher aids at the public school he attended. The punisher for Ben’s aggressive behavior consisted of contingent exercise. When Ben hit someone else, an adult said, “Ben, no hitting. Stand up and sit down 10 times.” The adult then held Ben’s hand above his head to prompt him to stand up, and then pulled his upper body forward to prompt him to sit down. After the first day, only verbal reminders were necessary to prompt Ben to perform the contingent exercise following aggressive behavior. The program was highly successful.

2. Q: How was stimulus control an important part of the punishment contingency for Ben? [Level 3/App] A: The punisher for Ben was a behavior that Ben had to engage in (namely, exercise). Because it was necessary that the exercise occur immediately following an undesirable aggressive behavior, it was important that the exercise be under the stimulus control of the verbal commands and prompting by the staff, (e.g., “stand up, sit down”).

3. Q: What is a punisher? [Level 2/C] Give an example that you experienced, and identify both the response and the punisher. [Level 4/An] A: A punisher is an event which, when presented immediately following a behavior, causes the behavior to decrease in frequency. For example, if you speed while driving your car and you get a traffic ticket (the punisher) for speeding (the response), you are less likely to speed.

Any appropriate example is acceptable.

4. Q: State the principle of punishment. [Level 2/C] A: The principle of punishment states: If, in a given situation, somebody does something that is immediately followed by a punisher, then that person is less likely to do the same thing again when he or she next encounters a similar situation.

5. Q: How does the meaning of the word punishment for behavior modifiers differ from three meanings of that word for most people? [Level 4/An] A: First, in many instances for laypersons, punishment is not immediate, such as when a person goes to jail for committing a crime. Second, many laypersons believe that punishment should involve retribution, as in the saying “the punishment must fit the crime.” Third, in the general culture, punishment is applied, in part, as a deterrent to potential “wrongdoers.” For behavior modifiers, however, punishment is simply a technical term referring to the application of a consequence immediately after a response that has the effect of decreasing the likelihood of future instances of that response.

6. Q: Define unconditioned punisher, and give an example that illustrates the complete definition. [Level 3/App A: An unconditioned punisher is a stimulus that is punishing without prior learning.

Examples include spankings and pinches. For example, without prior learning, if a child spits on a younger sibling and is spanked for doing so, the child is less likely to spit on the sibling in the future. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

7. Q: Describe or define four different types of punishers, and give an example of each.

[Level 3/App] A: (a) Pain-inducing punishers (also called physical punishers): this category includes all 56 ..

punishers that activate pain receptors or other sense receptors that typically evoke feelings of discomfort; (b) Reprimands: these consist of strong negative verbal stimuli; (c) Time out: this is a period of time immediately following a particular behavior during which an individual loses the opportunity to earn a reinforcer; (d) Response cost: this involves the removal of a specified amount of a reinforcer. Any appropriate examples are acceptable in all of the above categories.

8. Q: Under which of the four categories of punishment would you put the type of punishment used with Ben? [Level 3/App] Justify your choice. [Level 6/E] A: Arguments could be made for considering it to be either physical punishment or time out.

It might be considered to be physical punishment in that exercise often produces feelings of discomfort. It might be considered to be time out in that exercising was probably a less reinforcing state for Ben than whatever he was doing when he was not exercising. (Other arguments might also be acceptable; the student should justify his or her choice.)

9. Q: Define conditioned punisher, and give an example that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: A conditioned punisher is a stimulus that was not originally punishing, but that acquired punishing power through association with other punishers. For example, the verbal stimulus “No!” is probably not a punisher for an infant or a very young child. However, it acquires punishing value because it is paired with other punishers, such as the loud sound of the parent’s voice when saying “No!” Any appropriate example is acceptable.

10. Q: Distinguish between an exclusionary and nonexclusionary timeout. [Level 4/An] A: Exclusionary time out consists of removing the individual from the situation in which reinforcement is occurring for a short time. Non-exclusionary time out consists of introducing into the situation a stimulus associated with less reinforcement.

11. Q: What is an example of response-cost punishment that parents commonly apply to their children? [Level 3/App] A: Any appropriate example is acceptable, such as taking away a child’s allowance, suspending TV-watching privileges, etc.

12. Q: State the procedures for extinction, response cost, and exclusionary timeout. [Level 2/C] A: Extinction involves withholding a reinforcer following a previously reinforced response.

Response cost involves taking away a reinforcer (that is already in the client’s possession) following a response. Exclusionary time-out involves removing the individual for a short period of time, contingent upon a response, from a situation in which reinforcement was occurring (or could be earned).

13. Q: Distinguish between the direct-acting and indirect-acting effects of punishment.

[Level 4/An] Give an example of each. [Level 3/App] A: The direct-acting effect of punishment is the decreased frequency of a response because of its immediate punishing consequence (within 30 seconds). The indirect-acting effect of punishment is weakening of a response that is followed by a punisher even though the punisher is delayed. An example of the direct-acting effect of punishment would be learning not to tease dogs because doing so is immediately followed by being bitten. An example of the indirect-acting effects of punishment would be an individual decreasing the time in the sun after developing a severe sunburn following a day spent in the sun. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

14. Q: What are three reasons that could explain the effectiveness of a delayed punisher in decreasing a behavior? [Level 2/C] A: Delayed punishers may be effective in decreasing a behavior because: (a) there may be instructions about the behavior that lead to the punisher, (b) self-statements (thoughts) may intervene between the behavior and the delayed punisher, or (c) there may be 57 ..

immediate conditioned punishers that intervene between the behavior and the back-up punisher.

15. Q: If you do a good job of attending to the first two factors influencing the effectiveness of punishment, you may not have to apply punishment. Discuss. [Level 4/An] A: The first factor influencing the effectiveness of punishment consists of presenting SDs prior to, and providing reinforcement following, a desirable alternative response. This alternative response hopefully is incompatible with, and will decrease the probability of, the undesirable behavior. The second factor influencing the effectiveness of punishment consists of minimizing the causes of the response to be punished. This is typically done by eliminating the SDs that prompt the undesirable behavior and identifying and eliminating reinforcement contingencies that have been maintaining it. Careful attention to these first two factors may yield some desirable alternative behavior that competes so strongly with the behavior to be decreased that punishment will never have to be used.

16. Q: What are two conditions under which a mild punisher can be effective? [Level 2/C] A: A mild punisher can be effective if the reinforcer for the undesirable behavior is withheld following instances of the behavior, and if a desirable alternative behavior is reinforced with a strong reinforcer.

17. Q: What steps might you follow to experimentally determine whether a verbal reprimand is a punisher for a particular child? [Level 4/An] A: Stimuli are identified as punishers on the basis of an experimental test. To determine if a verbal reprimand is a punisher for a particular child, you would choose a behavior of that child that occurs once in a while and keep track of it during a period of time when the verbal reprimand is not presented. Once a baseline rate of that particular behavior has been obtained, the verbal reprimand would then be introduced as a consequence of the behavior each time it occurs. After several such trials, when the behavior has been given a consequence by the verbal reprimand, the performance will tell you if the verbal reprimand is a punisher. If the behavior preceding the verbal reprimand has decreased relative to the base rate, then the verbal reprimand is a punisher for that particular child.

18. Q: Compare SD to SDp. [Level 4/An] Give an example of each from your own experience.

[Level 3/App] A: An SD is a stimulus in the presence of which a response will be reinforced. For example, a good report card received by a child is an SD that showing it to a parent will be reinforced with praise. An SDp is a stimulus in the presence of which response will be punished. For example, seeing the red and blue lights from a police car behind you on a highway is an SDp that behavior of speeding will be punished by receiving a speeding ticket. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

19. Q: Compare S to SDp. [Level 4/An] Give an example of each from your own experience.

[Level 3/App] A: An SΔ (“ess-delta”) is a stimulus in the presence of which a response will not be reinforced.

For example, an “out-of-order” sign on a vending machine is an SΔ for the behavior of inserting money. An SDp is a stimulus in the presence of which response will be punished.

For example, seeing the red and blue lights from a police car behind you on a highway is an SDp that the behavior of speeding will be punished by receiving a speeding ticket. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

20. Q: What are four guidelines in regard to delivering a punisher? [Level 2/C] A: (a) The punisher should be presented immediately following of the response to be decreased; (b) the punisher should be presented following every instance of the undesirable 58 ..

behavior; (c) the individual administering the punisher should do so in a calm and matterof-fact manner; (d) the administering individual should take care not to pair punishment with reinforcement during instances when a punisher is delivered.

21. Q: We suggested that if behavior modifiers are unable to detect most instances of a behavior to be punished, they should have serious doubts about the value of implementing a punishment procedure. a. Give two reasons to support this suggestion. [Level 4/An] b. What alternative means for decreasing behavior are available to the behavior modifier (see Chapters 6and 12) [Level 2/C] A: (a) First, intermittent punishment is less effective than continuous punishment. Second, unless the teacher can deliver the punisher on each occasion, those occasions where the punisher is not present may be ones where the behavior is followed by positive reinforcement. This would make the procedure even less effective. (b) The teacher can apply extinction (i.e., present SDs for desirable alternative behavior and present SΔs for the behavior to be decreased), reinforce the client on a DRL for the response to be decreased, reinforce the client on a DRO for the response to be decreased, or reinforce the client on a DRI or a DRA with respect to the response to be decreased.

22. Q: In two or three sentences, describe either the case of the lemon juice therapy with Sandra or the ice cube therapy with Gerri. [Level 3/App] A: Lemon Juice Therapy: Sandra, a six-month-old baby, consistently brought up the milk that was given to her. During treatment, Sandra’s mouth was filled with lemon juice immediately following an instance of rumination. After 16 feedings with lemon juice punishment, the rumination decreased to a very low level. Ice Cube Therapy: Jerry was a 16-year-old girl with profound intellectual disability who consistently ground her teeth.

During treatment, following an instance of teeth grinding, a staff member touched her face with an ice cube for a few seconds. Within a few days of treatment, her teeth grinding had almost completely ceased.

23. Q: What is pica? [Level 2/C] What factors influencing the effectiveness of punishment did Johnston et al. incorporate into their treatment for pica? [Level 3/App] A: Pica is the ingestion of inedible objects or non-nutritive substances. The program by Johnson et al. included the following factors that influenced the effectiveness of punishment: (a) Maximizing the conditions for a desirable alternative response; they did this by presenting SDs (edible food on the yellow placemat) and providing reinforcement (both the taste of the food and staff praise for eating the edible items). (b) Selecting an effective (but humane) punisher; the client’s face was washed with a cool damp cloth for 15 seconds. (c) Delivering the punisher immediately following each instance of a problem behavior; items that were ingested that were not on the placemat were immediately punished.

24. Q: Briefly describe the procedure that Mathews et al. taught mothers to decrease dangerous behaviors of their 1-year-old children. [Level 2/C] Was the timeout component exclusionary or nonexclusionary? [Level 3/App] Justify your choice. [Level 6/E] A: Mathews et al. taught mothers to use reprimand combined with time-out to decrease dangerous behaviors (e.g., touching an electrical cord outlet) of their one-year-old children.

A mother would praise her child for playing appropriately, and say “No” and place the child in a playpen for a brief period immediately contingent on the occurrence of a dangerous behavior. Placing the child in the playpen would be considered an exclusionary time-out because it removed the child for a short time from the situation in which reinforcement was occurring to another situation.

25. Q: Cite six potential harmful side effects of the application of punishment. [Level 2/C] 59 ..

A: (a) Punishment may elicit undesirable emotional behaviors that interfere with desirable behavior to be developed; (b) Punishment may elicit aggressive behavior; (c) Anything associated with punishment may become a punishing stimulus so that the child will learn to avoid stimuli associated with punishment (such as educational materials, if the individual is punished often in situations associated with education); (d) Punishment does not establish new behavior, it only suppresses old behavior; (e) Children often model or imitate adults. If adults supply punishment frequently, children might use it on others. (f) Because punishment results in quick suppression of undesirable behavior, it can tempt the user to rely heavily on it and neglect the use of positive reinforcement for desirable alternative behaviors.

26. Q: Briefly describe the right-to-effective-treatment and freedom-from-harm positions in regard to the deliberate use of punishment treatment procedures. [Level 2/C] A: The “right to effective treatment” position is that a client’s right to effective treatment, might, in some cases, require the use of quicker-acting punishment procedures rather than slower-acting procedures involving reinforcement of alternative behavior. The “freedom from harm” position is that non-aversive methods for eliminating unacceptable behavior are always at least as effective as punishment and that, therefore, there is never any justification for using pain-inducing punishment.

27. Q: Give an example of functional communication training. [Level 2/C] A: A child was taught a simple communicative response (e.g., ringing a bell) as an alternative to self-abuse in order to obtain staff attention. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

28. Q: List six conditions that should be met for behavior modifiers to design punishment programs. [Level 2/C] A: (a) The behavior is very maladaptive and it is in the client’s best interest to bring about rapid behavior change; (b) clear steps are taken to maximize the conditions for a desirable alternative response and to minimize the causes of the response to be punished before resorting to punishment; (c) the client or the client’s parent or guardian provides informed consent; (d) the intervention meets ethical standards; (e) punishment is applied according to clear guidelines; and (f) the program includes safeguards to protect the client.

29. Q: In view of the controversy regarding the use of punishment, do you agree with the way punishment was used with Ben? [Level 4/An] Defend your answer. [Level 6/E] A: Students may take different positions on this. Issues they might consider in their answers are: (a) Was a procedure that did not involve punishment attempted first, and if not, why not? (b) Was the use of a punishment procedure justified by the seriousness of the problem? (c) How aversive was the contingent exercise procedure? (d) Was the procedure carried out in a humiliating or demeaning manner to Ben, and if so, could it have been made less so (e.g., by telling Ben that the purpose of the contingent exercise was to calm him down)? (e) Could the positive effects of the procedure have been achieved just as well or better with a non-aversive procedure? (How the student approaches these issues will probably determine the position he or she takes.)

30. Q: Give an example of how punishment is applied by people who are not aware that they are doing so. [Level 2/C] A: For example, parents with good intentions might say to their teenage child, “That was good, but...” and then proceed to find fault with the behavior. Although they probably hope to be instructional, they are likely applying punishment. Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

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Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: Identify three areas where more research is needed on the use of timeout with children.

[Level 3/App] A: More research is needed to: (a) evaluate the relative efficacy of exclusionary vs. nonexclusionary time-out; (b) examine how to best teach children how to comply with timeout when it is applied to them; (c) examine how to best teach parents and treatment staff to implement time-out effectively and within acceptable ethical guidelines.

2. Q: Do you think parents should use punishment? [Level 2/C] Discuss. [Level 4/An] A: Parents may have to use punishment at times if a child’s behavior is so severe that he/she may hurt themselves or someone else (e.g., siblings or playmates). If parents use punishment, however, they should be aware of the effects and the most appropriate methods for using punishment. Moreover, use of punishment by parents does not necessarily imply administering spankings or other forms of pain-inducing punishers.

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CHAPTER 14 ESTABLISHING BEHAVIOR BY ESCAPE AND AVOIDANCE CONDITIONING Answers to to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: Define escape conditioning, and describe how it was used with Joanne. [Level 3/App] A: In escape conditioning, the removal of stimuli immediately after the occurrence of a response increases the likelihood of that response. When the tone came on, Joanne could escape it by displaying good posture.

2. Q: How is escape conditioning similar to punishment? [Level 4/An] In what two procedural ways do they differ? [Level 4/An] How do their effects differ? [Level 4/An] A: They are similar in that both involve an aversive stimulus. Differences in procedure: (a) with regard to antecedents, in escape conditioning, the aversive stimulus must be present prior to a response, whereas the aversive stimulus is not present prior to a response that is punished; (b) with regard to consequences, in escape conditioning the aversive event is removed immediately following a response, whereas in punishment the aversive stimulus is presented immediately following a response. Their effects differ in that punishment leads to a decrease in the punished response, whereas escape conditioning leads to an increase in the target response.

3. Q: Describe two examples of escape conditioning in everyday life, one of which is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: Any two appropriate examples, such as a person squinting to escape from the aversiveness of bright sunlight.

4. Q: What is another name for escape conditioning, and why is it called that? [Level 2/C] A: Another name for escape conditioning is negative reinforcement. The term reinforcement indicates that the procedure is analogous to positive reinforcement in that both strengthen behavior. The term negative indicates that the strengthening effect occurs because the response leads to the removal (the taking away or subtraction) of an aversive stimulus.

5. Q: In what two procedural ways is negative reinforcement different from positive reinforcement? [Level 4/An] How are their effects similar? [Level 4/An] A: Differences in procedure: (a) In negative reinforcement, an aversive stimulus is present prior to the response being conditioned, whereas in positive reinforcement, the reinforcer is not present prior to the response; (b) In negative reinforcement, the stimulus is removed contingent on the target response, whereas in positive reinforcement, the stimulus is presented contingent on the response. Similarity in effects: Both procedures increase the likelihood of the target response.

6. Q: Define avoidance conditioning, and describe how it was used with Joanne. [Level 3/App] A: Avoidance conditioning states that a behavior will increase in frequency if it prevents an aversive stimulus from occurring. In the presence of the ticking sound (a warning stimulus), Joanne quickly learned to show good posture in order to avoid the backup aversive stimulus, the loud tone.

7. Q: Give another name for warning stimulus. [Level 1/K] A: Warning stimulus can also be referred to as a conditioned aversive stimulus.

8. Q: What is the name of the type of avoidance conditioning that involves a warning stimulus?

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A: Discriminated avoidance conditioning.

9. Q: How is a warning stimulus different than an SDp (see Chapter 13)? [Level 4/An] A: A warning stimulus is a cue that an appropriate response will enable an individual to avoid an aversive event. An SDp is a cue that the occurrence of a response will be followed by a punisher.

10. Q: What are two procedural differences between escape conditioning and avoidance conditioning? [Level 4/An] A: (a) In avoidance conditioning, the aversive stimulus is not present prior to the occurrence of the response, while in escape conditioning it is. (b) In avoidance conditioning the response prevents (or postpones) the aversive stimulus rather than removing it as in escape conditioning. Also, avoidance conditioning usually involves a warning signal, whereas escape conditioning does not.

11. Q: Describe two examples of avoidance conditioning in everyday life, one of which is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: Any two appropriate examples, such as a person dressing warmly in the winter in order to avoid getting cold, after observing on the television weather report that the temperature is below freezing.

12. Q: Describe three types of immediate consequences that might maintain avoidance responses.

[Level 2/C] A: One possibility is that the avoidance response is strengthened because it terminates the warning stimulus. A second possibility is that the warning stimulus causes an individual to feel anxious, and immediately following an avoidance response, the individual feels less anxious. A third possibility is that the warning stimulus causes an individual to think unpleasant thoughts about the possible forthcoming punisher, and following a successful avoidance response, these thoughts cease.

13. Q: Briefly illustrate how people unknowingly strengthen others’ undesirable behavior by allowing such behavior to lead to escape or avoidance of aversive stimuli. [Level 4/An] A: For example, one study indicates that parents of children labelled as antisocial frequently strengthened aggressive behavior by “giving in” when the aggressive behavior occurred.

Any appropriate example is acceptable.

14. Q: Give an example of the inadvertent establishment of conditioned aversive stimuli, which then causes individuals to avoid or escape those stimuli. [Level 3/App] A: For example, if a coach frequently criticizes athletes, the athletes may show improved skills to avoid the wrath of the coach, but they are now also likely to avoid the coach off the athletic field. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

15. Q: Explain with an example of your own why an individual might unknowingly positively reinforce the undesirable behavior of another individual. (Hint: See the first example in Table 14.1.) [Level 3/App] Clearly identify the behavior principles invol. [Level 4/An] A: The undesirable behavior is an aversive event that reinforcement terminates (for awhile).

For example, in the first case illustrated in Table 13-1, it is aversive to the adult when the child screams, “Candy! Candy!” The adult is reinforced through escape conditioning for giving the screaming child a candy in the sense that when the child receives the candy, the child stops screaming (and the adult escapes from the aversive noise). Unfortunately, the candy serves as a reinforcer for the screaming response. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

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16. Q: Explain how escape conditioning might influence an adult to unknowingly positively reinforce a child’s extreme social withdrawal. [Level 2/C] A: A child’s extreme social withdrawal is likely to be aversive to an adult. Therefore, when a child shows this behavior in the presence of an adult, the adult may shower the child with attention in the hope of influencing the child to be less withdrawn. If the child does begin to show more appropriate interactions with the adult in that situation, then the adult has escaped the aversiveness of the child’s withdrawal behavior. Unfortunately, the extra attention may serve to reinforce social withdrawal in the long run.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: What is Sidman avoidance conditioning? [Level 2/C] A: Briefly, it is an avoidance schedule in which occasional aversive events are postponed by the emission of a response, and in which no warning stimulus signals the impending occurrence of an aversive event.

2. Q: Explain how applying sunscreen or insect repellent might be an example of Sidman avoidance. [Level 2/C] Give another example from everyday life. (Hint: Some common computer applications have built-in timers that fit the definition of Sidman avoidance conditioning.) [Level 3/App] A: Suppose that you are about to start a game of golf. There are no mosquitoes buzzing around on the first tee that might serve as a warning stimulus. However, you apply insect repellent anyway. This would enable you to avoid being bitten by a mosquito later on during the round. Another example from every day life might be returning to check your parking meter (assuming that you were not wearing your watch or had forgotten to check the time when you parked your car) to avoid a parking ticket. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

3. Q: Describe how avoidance conditioning has been demonstrated in the hermit crab.

[Level 2/C] Did this study also demonstrate escape conditioning? [Level 3/App] Explain.

[Level 6/E] A: Escape conditioning occurred when a hermit crab that had received a small electric shock in its original shell left that shell. Avoidance conditioning was demonstrated in that the crab would subsequently select another shell rather than returning to its original shell.

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CHAPTER 15 RESPONDENT AND OPERANT CONDITIONING TOGETHER Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: Diagram an example of respondent conditioning that is not in this chapter. [Level 5/S] A: Any appropriate example is acceptable. The diagram should have the following form or equivalent: ______________________________________________________________________________________________ NS (Classical Music) N Pairings

{

US

(Food) ---------------➔ UR (Salivation)

CS1 (Classical Music) ---------------➔ CR (Salivation) _____________________________________________________________________________________________ 2. Q: Describe three differences between operant responses and respondent responses.

[Level 3/App] A: Any three of the following: Respondent Responses

Operant Responses

1. Occur automatically to prior stimuli

1. Controlled by consequences

2. Said to be involuntary

2. Said to be involuntary

3. Said to be elicited

3. Said to be emitted

4. Involve smooth muscles and glands

4. Involve skeletal muscles

5. Important in the functioning of internal bodily processes

5. Important in enabling us to interact with the external environment

3. Q: Describe the conditioning procedures and the results of conditioning for operant conditioning (positive reinforcement. [Level 3/App] A: Respondent Reinforcement

Operant Reinforcement

Procedure: Pairing of a previously neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus

Procedure: Presentation of a positive reinforcer following a response (or the removal of an aversive stimulus following a response)

Result: Neutral stimulus acquires capability of eliciting a conditioned response

Result: Behavior increases in frequency

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4. Q: Describe the extinction procedure and the results of extinction for operant conditioning and respondent conditioning. [Level 3/App] A: The answer should contain the information in this table: Respondent Extinction

Operant Extinction

Procedure: Conditioned stimulus is presented without further pairings with the unconditioned stimulus

Procedure: Reinforcement is withheld following a previously reinforced response

Result: Conditioned stimulus loses capability of eliciting conditioned response

Result: Response decreases in frequency

5. Q: Explain why, for most of us, an approaching deadline likely functions as a CS eliciting anxiety as a CR. [Level 2/C] A: For most of us, we have a history of being punished for failing to meet deadlines. As a consequence of prior pairings with punishment (which elicits feelings of anxiety), stimuli associated with missing a deadline are likely to be CSs eliciting anxiety as a CR. 6. Q: Describe how respondent and operant conditioning interacted to influence Janice to get her term paper done by the deadline. [Level 4/An] A: As a consequence of prior pairings of missing deadlines with punishment, stimuli associated with missing a deadline were likely CSs eliciting anxiety as a CR in Janice. As the deadline approached, and Janice began to emit relevant operant responses (looking up references, taking notes, etc.) to meet the deadline, his anxiety likely decreased.

Thus, stimuli associated with the deadline likely caused Janice to feel anxious, a respondent response, and responding to meet the deadline, operant responses, were maintained by escape conditioning related to the decrease in Janice’s anxiety.

7. Q: Describe a behavior sequence that involves an aversive stimulus and that includes both respondent conditioning and operant conditioning. [Level 3/App] Diagram the respondent conditioning and the operant conditioning components. [Level 5/S] A: The answer should be modeled after Figure 15-2.

8. Q: Describe a behavioral sequence that involves a positive reinforcer and that includes both respondent and operant conditioning. [Level 3/App] Diagram the respondent conditioning and the operant conditioning components. [Level 5/S] A: The students should reproduce the behavioral sequence, the diagram of respondent conditioning, and the diagram of operant conditioning presented in Figure 15-3, or they should model their answer after Figure 15-3.

9. Q: Describe several physiological activities that we experience in a moment of great fear.

[Level 2/C] A: Students might list any of the physiological activities described in the text under the topic “The Respondent Component: Our Feelings.”

10. Q: Describe three unconditioned reflexes that are shown by newborn infants, and that normally do not disappear as the child grows older. [Level 2/C] A: Any three of the following: a blink reflex, which involves blinking in response to the eyes being touched or a bright light; a cough reflex, which involves coughing when the airway to the lungs is stimulated; a gag reflex, which involves gagging when the throat or back of the throat is touched; a sneeze reflex, which involves sneezing when the nasal passage is 66 ..

irritated; and a yawn reflex, which involves yawning when there is a decrease in oxygen intake.

11. Q: Describe the procedures that are major causes for each of the emotions of joy, anger, anxiety, and relief. [Level 2/C] A: Presentation of reinforcers produces the emotion called joy. Withholding or withdrawing reinforcers produces the emotion called anger. The presentation of aversive stimuli produces the emotion called anxiety. Withdrawal of aversive stimuli produces an emotion called relief.

12. Q: In a sentence for each, summarize three important components that make up our emotions, and name the type of conditioning involved in each component. [Level 5/S] A: Emotions include: (a) the autonomic reaction that you feel inside during the experience of an emotion (and which is typically accompanied by visible signs), which is influenced by respondent conditioning; (b) the way that you learn to overtly express an emotion, which is influenced by operant conditioning; and (c) the way that you become aware of, and describe your emotions, which is also influenced by operant conditioning.

13. Q: Give an example of respondent thinking involving visual imagery that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: Any appropriate example, such as the words “at the beach”, causing you to visualize waves splashing on a sandy shore.

14. Q: Give an example of operant thinking that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: Any appropriate example, such as thinking to yourself, “This behavior modification book is fun to read.”

15. Q: When behavior modifiers speak of private behavior, to what are they referring?

[Level 1/K] A: An individual’s private self-talk and/or imagery and/or the autonomic reactions that make up our feelings.

16. Q: What basic assumption do the authors of this text make about public and private behavior? [Level 1/K] A: Except for being more difficult to “get at,” private behavior is the same as public behavior, i.e., the principles and procedures applicable to private behavior are fundamentally the same as those that apply to public behavior.

17. Q: Give an example, which is not discussed in this chapter, that illustrates how operant thinking might function as a CS to elicit the respondent component of an emotion.

[Level 3/App] A: Any appropriate example, such as a person thinking, “If I win a multi-million dollar lottery, I will buy a condo on the ocean in Florida,” which causes the respondent components of excitement such as increased heart rate, etc.

18. Q: Discuss whether behavior modifiers deny the existence and importance of thoughts and feelings. [Level 4/An] A: No they do not. They recognize that people engage in private verbal behavior (i.e., they talk silently to themselves), they experience imagery (i.e., covert seeing and other types of covert sensing), and they experience feelings (the respondent component of emotions). They also recognize that such covert behavior often influences overt behavior, for example, when a person solves a problem by privately verbalizing and imagining certain aspects of the problem.

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Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: What is the rationale of covert sensitization? [Level 3/App] A: It is assumed that if a client imagines an undesirable reinforcer and then imagines it being paired with an aversive stimulus, then thoughts of the undesirable reinforcer will come to elicit the unpleasant reactions elicited by thoughts of the aversive stimulus. It is further assumed that after such respondent conditioning occurs, the negative reactions now elicited by the imagined undesirable reinforcer will generalize to the real stimuli.

2. Q: Describe in some detail a plausible example of covert sensitization. [Level 5/S] A: Any appropriate example is acceptable, such as imagining smoking a cigarette, and then imagining becoming violently ill and vomiting over several people in the immediate vicinity.

It is assumed that, after several such pairings, nausea will occur when an individual attempts to smoke a real cigarette.

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CHAPTER 16 TRANSFERRING BEHAVIOR TO NEW SETTINGS AND MAKING IT LAST: GENERALITY OF BEHAVIOR CHANGE Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: When discussing programming of generality of behavior, what do we mean by the training situation versus the target situation? [Level 1/K] A: The training situation is the situation in which a behavior is initially strengthened. The target situation is a situation to which we want the behavior to occur.

2. Q: When is a behavior change said to have generality? [Level 2/C] A: A behavior change is said to have generality to the extent that: (a) the behavior transfers from the training situation to the target situation (stimulus generalization); (b) training leads to the development of new behavior that has not been trained (response generalization); and (c) the trained behavior persists in the target situation over time (behavior maintenance).

3. Q: Briefly describe how Carole’s honors presentation demonstrated behavioral generality.

[Level 2/C] A: Carole’s Honors presentation showed stimulus generalization in that she practiced in an empty classroom and was then able to perform her presentation well in that classroom with other students and the instructor present. We do not know if she showed response generalization to other presentations in other classes, and we do not know if her presentation skills were maintained over time.

4. Q: Define stimulus generalization, and give an example that is not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: Stimulus generalization occurs when a behavior becomes more probable in the presence of one stimulus or situation as a result of having being reinforced in the presence of another stimulus or situation. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

5. Q: List four tactics for programming operant stimulus generalization. [Level 2/C] Give an example of each. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Train in the test situation. (b) Vary the conditions of training. (c) Program common stimuli. (d) Train sufficient stimulus exemplars. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

6. Q: How might the teaching of a rule facilitate operant stimulus generalization? [Level 2/C] State the general factor for programming for generalization that seems to be operating, and illustrate with an example. [Level 3/App] A: If a behavior is brought under the control of a rule that a person can rehearse in each novel situation where the behavior is desirable, then the rule rehearsal will facilitate stimulus generalization to those novel situations. A general factor that is operating is “program common stimuli.” For example, in teaching self-protection of children to strangers’ lures, a child might be taught the rule, “If someone approaches me who I don’t know, I should tell them that I have to go to my teacher, and then run to the school building.” Rehearsal of that rule by the child when approached by strangers will increase the likelihood that the child will show stimulus generalization and run to the school building whenever approached by a stranger nearby. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

7. Q: Describe the example of a self-generated mediator of generalization involving the figure skater. [Level 3/App] 69 ..

A: To help her to land her double axel consistently at both practices and competitions, she said the word “easy” just before stepping onto her take off foot, as a prompt to control the speed of the takeoff.

8. Q: Describe the generalization strategy referred to as general case programming. [Level 3/App] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: In general case programming, a teacher identifies a range of relevant stimulus situations to which a learner will be expected to respond, and the response variations that might be required. During training, the learner’s behavior (and acceptable variations) is brought under the control of samples of the range of relevant stimuli. For example, to teach a student driver proper behavior at all 4-way stops, the teacher should expose the student driver to all possible 4-way stop situations (i.e., in different locations, etc.) and require appropriate behavior from the student. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

9. Q: Define response generalization. [Level 2/C] A: Response generalization refers to the procedure of reinforcing a response in the presence of a stimulus or situation, and the effect of another response becoming more probable in the presence of that or similar stimuli or situations.

10. Q: Describe an example of unlearned response generalization that is not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: For example, if you learn a forehand shot in racquetball, you could likely show unlearned response generalization and be able to perform a forehand shot in squash. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

11. Q: Give an example of learned response generalization that occurs when different responses share a common characteristic. [Level 2/C] A: For example, when a child learns to add “s” to the end of words pertaining to an object in order to express plurality, the child will likely show response generalization and add “s” to describe several examples of a new object. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

12. Q: Give an example of learned response generalization due to functionally equivalent responses. [Level 2/C] A: If you are asked to pass a message along to a friend, for example, you might send that person an email, call them on the phone, send them a text message, etc. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

13. Q: List three tactics for programming operant response generalization. [Level 2/C] Give an example of each. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Train sufficient response exemplars. (b) Vary the responses that are acceptable during training. (c) Capitalize on behavioral momentum. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

14. Q: What is the meaning of the term behavioral momentum? [Level 2/C] Give an example.

[Level 2/C] A: Behavioral momentum is a momentary increase in the probability of some response occurring as a result of one or more functionally equivalent responses having been reinforced. For example, to increase the probability that a child will follow an instruction that the child normally does not follow, it is often effective first to give the child an instruction that the child is likely to follow, and to reinforce compliance with that instruction. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

15. Q: Define behavioral trap,, and give an example. [Level 2/C] A: In a behavioral trap, reinforcers in the natural environment maintain a behavior that was initially developed by programmed reinforcers. For example, during mealtimes, if you use 70 ..

extra reinforcers to teach a child to respond appropriately when somebody at the table asks the child to “Please pass me the (an item such as salt),” then once the passing behavior has been established, it is likely to be maintained by the requestor saying “thank you” after the child responds to the request. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

16. Q: Briefly describe four tactics for programming operant behavior maintenance.

[Level 2/C] Give an example of each. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Use behavioral trapping to ensure that the target behavior comes under the control of reinforcers in the natural environment. (b) Teach people in the natural environment to maintain the target behavior of the subject. (c) Use an intermittent schedule of reinforcement in the target situation. (d) Teach the individual behavioral self-control to maintain the target behavior in the natural environment. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

17. Q: Suppose a manager at a local fast-food restaurant has encouraged staff to show frequent desirable customer service behaviors. Describe the details of a plausible VI/LH schedule that the manager might use to maintain the desirable service behaviors at a high rate.

[Level 3/App] A: During a shift, the manager might use a quiet wrist alarm and set it to go off at varying intervals. Each time it goes off, the manager might check the nearest staff member to see if that staff is showing desirable customer service behavior. If so, the person would be praised as soon as the customer has been ser. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

18. Q: What is meant by “recruitment of reinforcement”? [Level 2/C] Illustrate with an example that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: Recruitment of reinforcement is when an individual emits a desirable behavior and then tells someone about it in order to receive positive feedback. For example, at a basketball practice when players are practicing on their own, a young player might make three foul shots in a row, and then tell the coach about it. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

19. Q: Briefly explain why considerations regarding generality of respondent behavior differ from those regarding operant behavior. [Level 4/An] A: When programming for generality of operant behavior, we often want the behavior to occur to new stimuli (stimulus generalization), we want improvements to transfer to related behaviors (response generalization), and we want the behavior to be maintained over time.

For most treatments involving respondent conditioning, however, we are typically concerned only with maintenance of a conditioned reflex over time. For example, in the example in the text in which adults suffering from chronic constipation were conditioned to have a bowel movement at a particular time of day as a CS, it would have been very inconvenient if bowel movements generalized to a variety of different times (stimulus generalization) or if there was an increase in a variety of bowel movements such as diarrhea (response generalization). Rather, they were simply concerned with maintaining that particular time of day as a CS for a bowel movement.

20. Q: Give two examples of the Unaware-Misapplication Pitfall involving stimulus generalization; (a) one of which involves generalization of a desirable behavior to an inappropriate situation; and (b) the other of which involves generalization of an undesirable behavior. [Level 3/App] A: (a) For example, a child is taught to say “Isn’t this fun?” at family gatherings, and then says it at a family funeral. (b) For example, a child is taught to use swear words when playing with friends on the street, and then emits those swear words when talking to grandma and grandpa.

21. Q: Give an example of the Unaware-Misapplication Pitfall involving response generalization.

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A: Any plausible example is acceptable, such as the case of a young child who, after getting his own way with his parents by yelling in a restaurant, yells even more loudly the next time they are in a restaurant.

22. Q: State the Failure-to-Apply Pitfall, and give an example of it that involves failure to program for desirable generalization. [Level 2/C] A: For example, some parents of a young child might ignore their child’s temper tantrums at home, but they give into the tantrums if they occur in stores or restaurants (perhaps because they don’t want to seem like mean parents), thereby failing to program for stimulus generalization of desirable behaviors. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: What rule for programming stimulus generalization is exemplified by the study in which object and picture names were taught to children with developmental disabilities?

[Level 3/App] Explain. [Level 6/E] A: Welch and Pear found that developmentally disabled children showed better stimulus generalization for naming objects in their natural environment when they were trained with the objects rather than with pictures or photographs of the objects. It might be argued that this exemplifies the third rule for programming stimulus generalization, namely program common stimuli, in that the objects were present in both the training environment and in the test setting. However, it also might be argued that this is an example of the first rule for programming stimulus generalization, training in the target situation, in that the actual object to be named was the target stimulus.

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CHAPTER 17 ANTECEDENT CONTROL: RULES AND GOALS Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: Define rule behaviorally and give an example that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: A rule describes a situation in which a behavior will lead to a consequence. For example, the statement by a parent to a child, “If you do your homework from 6 to 7 P.M., then you can watch TV,” is a rule. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

2. Q: Give an example of a rule that was stated by the figure skater just before competing.

[Level 2/C] A: The skater said to herself, “If I take it one step at a time, and if I focus on the things that I do when I’m skating well at practices, I will skate well here.”

3. Q: A teacher complains to you, “When I tell the children to stay at their desks and work, they never listen to me.” Describe the contingencies that are likely operating with respect to that rule given by the teacher to the kids in the class. [Level 4/An] A: It is likely that following the rule by the children is not reinforced, and emitting behavior contrary to the rule is reinforced and/or not punished. Other plausible answers are also acceptable.

4. Q: Give an example of a partial rule that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] What aspects of the three-term contingency does your partial rule identify? [Level 4/An] What are the missing parts that the partial rule implied? [Level 4/An] A: A partial rule would be “Look both ways!” The antecedent (crossing the street) and the consequence (to avoid getting hit by a vehicle) are implied. The behavior is to look both ways, which is identified. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

5. Q: Define contingency-shaped behavior, and give an example that is not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: Contingency-shaped behavior is behavior that has been strengthened by immediate consequences. For example, a person might learn to drink coffee after it has cooled off rather than when steam is rising from the cup, through trial and error. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

6. Q: Define rule-governed behavior, and give an example that is not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: Rule-governed behavior is behavior that is controlled by the statement of a rule. For example, if someone tells you, “Don’t drink that coffee until it cools off,” and if you wait for a few minutes before drinking the coffee, your behavior is rule- governed. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

7. Q: Describe two common differences between rule-governed and contingency-shaped behavior. [Level 2/C] A: Contingency-Shaped Behavior Rule-Governed Behavior a. Strengthened by immediate b. Frequently involves delayed consequences consequences a. Typically strengthened gradually b. Frequently occurs on the first through trial and error opportunity after the rule is presented 8. Q: Give an example of an indirect effect of a reinforcer for your behavior. [Level 3/App] A: For example, a student living at home cleans her room, and an hour later a parent 73 ..

notices it and says, “Your room looks great. Good job,” and this strengthens the student’s room cleaning. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

9. Q: Briefly describe four situations in which the addition of rules to a behavior modification program might be especially helpful. [Level 3/App] Give an example of each. [Level 3/App] A: (a) When rapid behavior change is desirable; (b) when consequences that one might provide for a behavior are too delayed to directly reinforce that behavior; (c) when one would like to maintain a behavior for which natural reinforcers are immediate but highly intermittent; and (d) when a specific behavior will lead to immediate and severe punishment, and therefore some alternative behavior is desired. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

10. Q: Describe, using examples, three explanations for why we might follow rules that identify very delayed consequences. [Level 4/An] A: (a) Although the reinforcer identified in a rule might be delayed for an individual, other people might provide immediate consequences if the individual follows (or does not follow) the rule. (b) An individual might follow a rule and then immediately make reinforcing statements to him or herself. (c) Because of our history of being punished for failing to follow rules with deadlines, rehearsal of the deadline may cause us to feel anxious, and responding to a rule to beat the deadline will then make us feel a lot better (through escape conditioning). Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

11. Q: Explain (in terms of contextual stimulus control, as described in Note 3of Chapter 9) why the tone of voice of someone giving you instructions might determine whether you will follow the instructions. [Level 2/C] A: When individuals give us instructions, the content of the instructions usually determines our instruction-following behavior. But sometimes the tone of voice of the person giving the instructions provides a context that will determine whether or not we will do as they say.

That’s because people who give instruction in a pleasant tone of voice are more likely to positively reinforce compliance. We are less likely to follow the instructions given in a neutral or harsh tone (although possible punishment contingencies operating in the latter case may cause us to follow the instructions, if the person giving them is in a position to administer such punishment).

12. Q: How might we explain the behavior of someone who fails to wear a helmet when riding a bicycle even though that person knows that wearing a helmet could prevent brain damage from an accident? [Level 2/C] A: There are two reasons. First, there may be immediate mild punishers for wearing a helmet (e.g., it may be hot and uncomfortable). Second, rules are very ineffective if they identify a behavior that has a low probability of being associated with consequences.

13. Q: How might we account for the relative ineffectiveness of such rules as “I’m going to stop eating sweets”? [Level 5/S] A: There are two reasons. First, there are immediate consequences for behavior that are incompatible with the behavior specified by the rule (e.g., extra deserts are very reinforcing and flossing one’s teeth is likely to be mildly aversive). Second, the consequences for complying with the rule are too small to be effective on any one instance, and are only cumulatively significant (it takes many extra deserts to have hazardous health effects, and many missed instances of flossing one’s teeth to be harmful).

14. Q: In a couple of sentences, distinguish between rules that are often effective versus rules that are often weak or ineffective in controlling behavior. [Level 4/An] A: Rules that describe specific circumstances and deadlines for specific behavior that will lead to sizeable and probable outcomes are often effective, even when the outcomes are delayed.

On the other hand, rules that describe behavior and the circumstances for it vaguely, that 74 ..

do not identify a deadline for the behavior, and that lead to small or improbable consequences for the behavior are often ineffective.

15. Q: In general, what do we mean by the word goal? [Level 2/C] Give an example of a behavioral goal that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] Give an example of an outcome goal that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: A goal describes a level of performance towards which an individual or group should work.

For an example of a behavioral goal, a student might set a goal of studying two hours each day. For an example of an outcome goal, a person might set a goal of losing 2 pounds in a week. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

16. Q: Is goal setting different from using rules? [Level 1/K] Discuss. [Level 4/An] A: No. Goal setting is essentially rule-governed control over behavior. Most goals might be viewed as partial rules in that they typically identify the desired behavior, while the circumstances and consequences are usually implied.

17. Q: Briefly list six of the eight conditions that summarize effective versus ineffective goal setting as a behavior modification strategy. [Level 2/C] A: Any 6 of the following: (a) Specific goals are more effective than vague goals; (b) goals with respect to learning specific skills should include mastery criteria; (c) goals should identify the circumstances under which the desirable behavior should occur; (d) realistic, challenging goals are more effective than “Do your best” goals; (e) public goals are more effective than private goals; (f) goal setting is more effective if deadlines are included; (g) goal setting plus feedback is more effective than goal setting alone; and (h) goal setting is most effective when individuals are committed to the goals.

18. Q: What is a mastery criterion? [Level 2/C] Give an example that is not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: A mastery criterion is a specific guideline for performing a skill such that if the guideline is met, the skill is likely to be mastered. For example, a mastery criterion for shooting foul shots in basketball might be to make 10 in a row. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

19. Q: From a behavioral perspective, why might realistic, challenging goals be more effective than do-your-best goals? [Level 4/An] A: If you set a realistic goal for an individual, you are more likely to consistently provide backup reinforcers for meeting that goal than when you simply tell someone to “Do your best.”

The reason is that, with a specific goal, you and the individual will agree on whether or not the goal has been met. But you may not always agree that the individual has done their best, and may therefore be less likely to reinforce that person’s behavior in such situations.

20. Q: From a behavioral perspective, why might public goals be more effective than private goals? [Level 4/An] A: Public goals may be more effective than private goals because public goals result in a public standard against which performance can be evaluated, and they imply social consequences for achieving or not achieving the goals.

21. Q: What do the authors mean by commitment in the context of goal setting? [Level 2/C] A: Commitment refers to statements or actions by the learner that indicate that the goal is important to the learner, that the learner will work toward it, and that the learner recognizes the benefits of doing so.

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Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: List five rules that are a part of a behavioral treatment for insomnia. [Level 2/C] A: Five rules that are part of behavioral sleep therapy include: (1) exercising regularly, but not in the late evening; (2) relaxing before going to bed; (3) not consuming caffeine or alcohol in the late evening; (4) going to bed only when feeling tired; (5) if not tired within 10 minutes of going to bed, leave the bedroom and read a book until sleepy.

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CHAPTER 18 ANTECEDENT CONTROL: MODELING, GUIDANCE, AND SITUATIONAL INDUCEMENT Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: Define modeling. [Level 2/C] How was it incorporated into the therapy sessions with James? [Level 3/App] A: Modeling is a procedure whereby a sample of a given behavior is demonstrated to an individual to induce that individual to engage in a similar behavior. With James, the therapist modeled the behavior of “feeling the soles of his feet,” smiling, and then walking away from the situation.

2. Q: List four strategies that you might follow to influence the effectiveness of modeling as a behavior modification technique. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Arrange for peers (of the person to be influenced) to be models; (b) Model both the behavior and its consequences; (c) Use more than one model; and (d) Combine modeling with rules.

3. Q: Describe two recent situations in which you were influenced by modeling to emit a behavior. [Level 3/App] For each instance, describe which of the four factors that influence the effectiveness of modeling were present. [Level 5/S] A: Any two appropriate examples are acceptable. For each example, students should indicate which of the following were present: (a) Were peers used as models? (b) Did the model show both the behavior and its consequences? (c) Were multiple models used? and (d) Were both modeling and rules involved?

4. Q: Describe the specific steps you might go through in using modeling to overcome the extreme withdrawal behavior of a nursery school child who never interacts with other children. [Level 3/App] Identify the basic principles and procedures being applied in your program. [Level 5/S] A: Any appropriate modeling procedure is acceptable, such as the following: Have the child observe a model (either in vivo or symbolic) who initially exhibits extreme withdrawal (of course, “withdrawal” has to be precisely defined). Next, the model begins to gradually interact with other children (the desired behavior) and is strongly reinforced (e.g., by peers, adults, etc.) for doing so.

5. Q: In the dialogue between the client and the therapist concerning the client’s difficulty in asking for a date, briefly describe [Level 3/App] a. how modeling was involved b. how instructions were involved c. how shaping was involved A: The therapist: (a) modeled appropriate phrases; (b) instructed the client to practice similar behavior; (c) reinforced successive approximations to the desired behavior (e.g., saying “That was better,” when the client expressed himself better).

6. Q: Define or describe behavioral rehearsal (or role-playing), and give an example. [Level 2/C] A: In behavior rehearsal, a client plays a role that enables him or her to practice particular behaviors in a practice setting, in order to increase the likelihood that those behaviors will occur appropriately in the real world. In the example in the text, a client rehearsed the behavior of asking for a date in the presence of the therapist.

7. Q: What does the term physical guidance mean? [Level 2/C] How does it differ from gestural 77 ..

prompting(see p. 98)? [Level 4/An] A: Physical guidance: applying physical contact to guide someone through the appropriate behavior. It differs from gestural prompting in that the latter does not involve physical contact.

8. Q: Identify a behavior that you were influenced to perform as a result of physical guidance.

[Level 3/App] Describe how physical guidance was invol. [Level 2/C] A: Any appropriate example involving physical guidance, plus a brief description of how guidance was invol.

9. Q: What is generalized imitation? [Level 2/C] Describe an example. [Level 2/C] A: Generalized imitation - after having been reinforced for imitating a number of behaviors, an individual emits a completely new behavior, without reinforcement, the first time that the behavior is modeled. For example, using prompting, shaping, fading, and reinforcement procedures, a child might be taught to imitate several behaviors (such as raising the left arm) when the teacher says, “Do this.” Generalized imitation would be demonstrated if the child then correctly imitated a new response (such as tapping the arm of a table) the first time it was modeled, even though that response had not been previously reinforced. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

10. Q: What do we mean by the term situational inducement? [Level 2/C] Which term given previously in this book has essentially the same meaning(see p. 98)? [Level 2/C] A: “Situational inducement” involves influencing a particular behavior by using situations and occasions that already exert control over the behavior. A close synonym is “environmental prompting.”

11. Q: Describe each of the four categories of situational inducement. [Level 2/C] A: Rearranging the surroundings; moving the activity to a new location; relocating people; changing the time of the activity.

12. Q: Give an example from your own experience of each of the four categories of situational inducement. [Level 3/App] A: Any four appropriate examples that are not from the text.

13. Q: For each of the following examples, identify the category of situational inducement in which it might best be placed and indicate why. [Level 6/E] a. On Saturday afternoon, an exercise buff can’t seem to get the energy to lift weights. To increase the likelihood of weight lifting, the exercise buff places the weights in the center of the exercise room, turns on the TV to a sporting event, and opens a copy of Muscle Beach magazine to the centerfold showing a famous bodybuilder. b. It is said that Victor Hugo, a renowned writer, controlled his work habits in his study by having his servant take his clothes away and not bring them back until the end of the day (Wallace, 1971, pp. 68–69). c. To stop drinking, an alcoholic surrounds herself or himself with members of Alcoholics Anonymous and stops seeing her or his old drinking buddies. d. A couch potato has decided to jog a mile every night before going to bed. Alas, “the road to hell [or perhaps to heart attack] is paved with good intentions.” Late nights, good TV, wine with dinner, and other delights take their toll. Three months later, the couch potato is still overweight and out of shape because of many missed jogging nights. The couch potato takes a friend’s advice to change the routine and begins jogging each day immediately upon arriving home and before eating dinner. e. After many interruptions while working on this bookat the university, the authors began working at one of their homes.

A: (a) Rearrange the surroundings; (b) rearrange the surroundings; (c) relocate people; (d) 78 ..

change the time of the activity; (e) move the activity to a new location. In each case, it should be indicated why that category is appropriate.

14. Q: According to the proposed guidelines for the use of rules, modeling, and physical guidance, a. what behavior principle is used with all three procedures? [Level 3/App] b. what two other behavioral procedures are likely to be used with all three procedures?

[Level 3/App] A: (a) Positive reinforcement; (b) fading and shaping.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: Describe five processes by which imitative behavior might be learned, and give an example of each. [Level 3/App] A: (a) Other people’s actions become SDs for engaging in similar actions (because the response of imitating often results in reinforcement); (b) other people’s actions are often paired with reinforcement for us, so that those actions acquire conditioned reinforcing properties; hence, we may receive conditioned reinforcement when we perform the same actions; (c) individuals may learn (perhaps by the above processes) to imitate simple responses; later, they can imitate more complex responses, which are composed of these simple responses; (d) imitative behavior is (in itself) an operant class that can be learned, and reinforcement for imitating some behaviors increases the probability of imitating in general; (e) it is possible that once a child is reinforced for imitating some behaviors, imitating functions like an operant response and the child will tend to imitate other behaviors even though they contain no elements in common with the previously reinforced behaviors. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

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CHAPTER 19 ANTECEDENT CONTROL: MOTIVATION Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: How do many people who are not behaviorists or behavior modifiers conceptualize motivation? [Level 2/C] Illustrate with an example. [Level 3/App] A: Many people who are not behaviorists or behavior modifiers conceptualize motivation as some “thing” inside us that causes our actions. For example, Brittany’s hockey coach says that she is highly motivated because she puts forth a great effort at practice, shows up on time, and is eager to practice more than the other players. The coach is conceptualizing motivation as the cause of Brittany’s behavior. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

2. Q: What is a conceptual problem with the traditional view of motivation? [Level 2/C] Illustrate with an example. [Level 3/App] A: A conceptual limitation of the traditional view of motivation is that it involves circular reasoning. The causal “thing” (drive, motivation, etc.) is inferred from the behavior that it is supposed to explain (e.g., Why does Brittany put forth a lot of effort at hockey practice?

Because she is a motivated player. How do we know she is a motivated player? Because she puts forth a great effort.). Any appropriate example is acceptable.

3. Q: Describe three practical problems with conceptualizing motivation as an internal cause of behavior. [Level 2/C] A: (a) The idea that the cause of our behaviors is within us may cause us to ignore the behavioral principles for changing behavior and the data that supports the effectiveness of those behavioral principles; (b) it may influence some people to blame individuals for inferior performances (e.g., “Shawn is just not motivated enough to play baseball”), vs. trying to help individuals improve their performance; (c) it may influence some to blame themselves for failure to emit certain behaviors (e.g., “I am just not motivated enough to get an A+ in this course”) rather than examining self-management strategies for improving performance.

4. Q: If by “motivating someone to do something” we mean nothing more than manipulating antecedent conditions to influence that person to behave in a certain way, list each of the strategies presented in Chapters 17and 18to accomplish that task. [Level 3/App] A: Rules, goals, modelling, guidance, and situational inducement. Some discussion of each of these should also be provided.

5. Q: Define motivating operation. [Level 2/C] Give an example that illustrates both aspects of the definition. [Level 4/An] A: Motivating operations (MOs) are events or operations that (a) temporarily alter the effectiveness of consequences as reinforcers or punishers (value-altering effect), and (b) influence behaviors that normally lead to those reinforcers and punishers (behavioraltering effect). For example, depriving someone of food increases the effectiveness of food as a reinforcer and increases the likelihood of behaviors that have produced food in the past. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

6. Q: In what two ways are motivating establishing operations and motivating abolishing operations different? [Level 4/An] A: Motivating establishing operations (MEOs) increase the effectiveness of a consequence as a reinforcer or punisher, and increase behavior (for reinforcers) or decrease behavior (for punishers) that has produced that consequence. Motivating abolishing operations (MAOs) have the opposite effects.

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7. Q: Are the value-altering and behavior-alternating effects of unconditioned motivating operations learned or innate? [Level 2/C] Discuss with reference to an example.

[Level 4/An] A: The value-altering effect of a UMO is innate. For example, deprivation of food is a UMO that increases the effectiveness of food as a reinforcer without prior learning. The behavioraltering effects of a UMO are learned. For example, when someone is hungry, the behaviors of looking in the refrigerator or going to a fast food outlet are learned. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

8. Q: Are the value-altering and behavior-alternating effects of CMOs learned or innate?

[Level 2/C] Discuss with reference to an example. [Level 4/An] A: The value-altering effect of a CMO is learned. For example, Coach Dawson’s announcement of the points program for the basketball players established points as conditioned reinforcers because of prior learning. The behavior-altering effects of CMOs are learned. For example, the hard work of the basketball players and the praising of each other were learned behaviors that occurred as a result of the CMO. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

9. Q: Would you describe Coach Dawson’s explanation of the points program to the basketball players as a UMEO or a CMEO? [Level 3/App] Justify your choice. [Level 6/E] A: The explanation of the points program by Coach Dawson was a CMEO. It established the points as reinforcers and it influenced the players to work for points, both because of prior learning.

10. Q: Suppose that a football team has been practicing for an hour in the hot sun without water. The coach says to one of the players, “Here are the keys to my car. Get the bottles of water from the trunk.” Would this request be classified as an S D or a CMEO for getting the water? [Level 3/App] Justify your choice. [Level 6/E] A: The football coach’s request to get the water is an SD because the players are already thirsty and want water. The coach’s request is a cue that tells the players what to do (go to the car) to get what they already want (water).

11. Q: Suppose that a pianist sets a goal for practicing a piece: “Before I can stop practicing, I have to play this piece through 10 times in a row without making a mistake.” Is that goal best conceptualized as an SD or a CMEO? [Level 3/App] Justify your choice.

[Level 6/E] A: The rule that the pianist sets for herself is more like a CMEO than an SD because the rule temporarily alters the value of the conditioned reinforcer of playing the piece without making a mistake, and increases practice behavior that will lead to that reinforcer.

12. Q: Define echoic , and give an example that is not in the book. [Level 3/App] A: An echoic is a vocal imitative response that is typically reinforced by a social reinforcer. For example, when a mother is teaching her baby to say “Mama” she might say to her child, “Say Mama.” If later the child mimics “Mama,” the mother would praise the child by hugging him or her and saying “Yeah, that’s right, Mama!” Any appropriate example is acceptable.

13. Q: Define tact, and give an example that is not in the book. [Level 3/App] A: A tact is a naming response that is typically reinforced by a social reinforcer. For example, a preschool teacher is teaching a student shapes and points to a square saying, “What’s that?” If the child answers correctly, “square,” he or she will be praised by the teacher.

Any appropriate example is acceptable.

14. Q: Define mand], and give an example that is not in the book. [Level 3/App] 81 ..

A: A mand is a verbal response that is under the control of a motivating operation, and is reinforced by the corresponding reinforcer (or removal of corresponding aversive stimulus).

A mand is a request or demand for something that a person “wants,” and the person is reinforced by receiving whatever it is that he/she wants. For example, a child who is very hungry and has limited speech says “food please,” and is given a snack. The child’s saying “food please” was a mand. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

15. Q: Using an example, describe how a motivating operation might be incorporated into mand training with a child. [Level 3/App] A: For example, in teaching verbal behavior to a child with disabilities, training may begin with having the child mand for a reinforcer that has high motivational value (i.e., candy).

The child is given a piece of candy on the first trial and then in full view of the child, the teacher may hide the candy and ask the child “What do you want? Say candy.” If the child says “candy,” he is given another piece of candy. On subsequent trials, the teacher asks, “What do you want?” and reinforces asking for “candy.” It’s hoped that after a certain amount of such training, the child will generalize manding for “candy” to other situations (e.g., at the store, in the kitchen, etc.). Any appropriate example is acceptable.

16. Q: How was a CMEO used to motivate seat belt use among senior drivers? [Level 4/An] A: The signs “Buckle Up Stay Safe” that were placed around the town of Pleasant Oaks were a CMEO that increased the reinforcing value of wearing a fastened seatbelt, and increased the behavior of buckling up.

17. Q: How was an MAO applied to decrease the self-injurious behavior of a woman with profound intellectual disability? [Level 4/An] A: Brenda’s staff introduced a schedule of non-contingent reinforcement in which they gave Brenda attention every 10 seconds. This served as an MAO for staff attention because it satiated Brenda on attention, and her self-injurious behavior that had been previously reinforced by attention immediately dropped to a low level.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: Give an example illustrating that a given MO may affect the value of more than one reinforcer and may influence the occurrence of many behaviors. [Level 3/App] A: For example, not only does food deprivation increase the reinforcing value of food and lead to various food-seeking behaviors, it also increases the reinforcing value of water and increases the likelihood of water-seeking behavior.

2. Q: Give an example that illustrates how a drug might function as an MO. [Level 3/App] What subtype of MO would it be (see Figure 19.1)? [Level 4/An] Justify your answer. [Level 6/E] A: For example, amphetamines may function as UMAOs, decreasing the reinforcing effectiveness of food.

3. Q: Distinguish between a mand and an intraverbal. [Level 4/An] Illustrate each with an example that is not in the text. [Level 4/An] A: An intraverbal is a verbal response under the control of a preceding verbal stimulus, and there is no point-to-point correspondence between the stimulus and the response. For example, an adult asks a child, “Where do you live?” and the child responds, “Winnipeg.”

An echoic is also a verbal response, but there is point-to-point correspondence between the stimulus and the response. For example, if the adult says, “Say Winnipeg,” and the child responds correctly, “Winnipeg.” Any appropriate example is acceptable.

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CHAPTER 20 BEHAVIORAL ASSESSMENT: INITIAL CONSIDERATIONS Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: What does the term target behavior mean? [Level 2/C] Illustrate with an example from an earlierchapter. [Level 3/App] A: A target behavior is a behavior to be improved in a behavior modification program. For example, in the lead case in Chapter 4, the target behavior was Darren’s cooperative behavior towards his mother. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

2. Q: Define behavioral assessment. [Level 2/C] A: Behavioral assessment involves the collection and analysis of information and data in order to identify and describe target behavior, identify possible causes of the behavior, select appropriate treatment strategies to modify the behavior, and evaluate treatment outcome.

3. Q: List the four phases of a behavior modification program. [Level 2/C] A: (a) A screening or intake phase, for clarifying the problem and determining who should treat it; (b) a pre-program assessment phase, to assess the behavior to determine its level prior to the introduction of a program, and to analyze the individual’s current environment to identify possible controlling variables of the problem behavior; (c) a treatment phase to bring about the desired behavior change; (d) a follow-up phase to evaluate the persistence of the desirable behavioral changes following termination of the program.

4. Q: What are the five functions of the intake phase of a behavior modification program?

[Level 2/C] A: The 5 functions of the intake phase are to: (a) determine if a particular agency is the appropriate one to deal with the individual’s behavior; (b) inform the client about the agencies or practitioners’ policies and procedures regarding service provision; (c) screen for the presence of a crisis condition; (d) gather sufficient information to diagnose the client; and (e) determine which behaviors should be baselined.

5. Q: What two things typically occur during the assessment phase of a behavior modification program? [Level 2/C] A: The behavior modifier (a) assesses the target behavior to determine its level prior to the introduction of treatment, and (b) analyze the individual’s current environment to identity possible controlling variables of the behavior to be changed.

6. Q: In what types of settings are the terms training program, and intervention strategy or therapy program typically used? [Level 2/C] A: The term training program is typically used in educational settings, and the terms therapy program and intervention strategy are typically used in community and clinical settings.

7. Q: What is the purpose of the follow-up phase of a behavior modification program?

[Level 2/C] A: The purpose of the follow-up phases is to determine whether the improvements achieved during treatment are maintained after the termination of the program.

8. Q: What is prerequisite to the design and implementation of a behavior modification program? [Level 2/C] A: Defining target behaviors clearly, completely, and in measurable terms is an important prerequisite to the design of a behavior modification program.

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9. Q: Briefly distinguish between direct and indirect assessment procedures. [Level 4/An] A: Direct assessment procedures involve direct observation and measurement of some aspect of a behavior as the behavior occurs. The concern is to produce a record of what a client is doing. With indirect assessment, the behavior modifier typically relies on a verbal description of the behavior of a student. The description may come from the client and/or others through interviews and/or formal questionnaires.

10. Q: Describe two circumstances that might lead to the use of indirect assessment procedures.

[Level 2/C] A: (a) It may be impractical for you to observe your clients regularly in the situations in which the target behaviors occur; (b) Some clients may want to change some of their thoughts and feelings that others can’t observe.

11. Q: Briefly describe the advantages and disadvantages of indirect assessment procedures.

[Level 2/C] A: Advantages of indirect assessment procedures: (a) they are convenient; (b) they don’t require a substantial amount of time; (c) they can be used to provide information about covert behaviors.

Disadvantages of indirect assessment procedures: (a) the person providing the information may not remember the observations accurately; (b) the person providing the information might have particular biases that would influence that individual to provide inaccurate data.

12. Q: List the five main types of indirect assessment procedures. [Level 2/C] A: Interview with the client and significant others, questionnaires, role-playing, information from consulting professions, and client self-monitoring.

13. Q: List and describe briefly four types of questionnaires used in behavioral assessments.

[Level 2/C] A: (a) Life history questionnaires: these provide background data such as work, sexual, and educational histories. (b) Problem checklists: these have the client indicate which problem applies to him or her among detailed lists of problems. (c) Survey schedules: these are designed to provide specific information needed to implement a particular program with a client. (d) Third party rating scales: these are used by a therapist to ask significant others or professionals involved with a client to indicate on a checklist the frequency and/or quality of certain behaviors that the client may emit.

14. Q: Briefly describe the advantages and disadvantages of direct assessment procedures.

[Level 2/C] A: The main advantage of direct assessment procedures is that they are likely to be more accurate than indirect assessment procedures. The disadvantages are: (a) they are timeconsuming; (b) they require that observers be appropriately trained; and (c) they cannot be used to monitor covert behaviors.

15. Q: Give six reasons for collecting accurate data during an assessment or baseline phase and throughout a program. [Level 2/C] A: (a) An accurate behavioral assessment provides a description of the problem that will help the behavior modifier to decide whether or not he or she is the appropriate one to design a treatment program; (b) an accurate Baseline will sometimes indicate that what someone thought was a problem is actually not a problem;(c) the initial assessment process often helps the behavior modifier to identify possible causes of the problem behavior and the best treatment strategy; (d) accurate baseline data provides means for clearly determining whether the program has produced or is producing the desired change in behavior; (e) 84 ..

publicly posted results can be both prompts and reinforcers for the behavior modifier for carrying out a program; (f) the displayed data may lead to improvements apart from any further treatment program.

16. Q: What error does the case of Dr. Caldwell and the door slammer’s mother exemplify?

[Level 3/App] Explain how accurately recorded data counteracted this error. [Level 2/C] A: Assuming that the procedure was not working, when in fact it was. Careful assessment of collected data enabled Dr. Caldwell to point out to the mother that the behavior has decreased from a baseline of 123 door slams to 87 door slams during the first three days of the program.

17. Q: What error does the case of the boy who went around pinching adults exemplify?

[Level 3/App] Explain how accurately recorded data counteracted this error. [Level 2/C] A: Assuming that a procedure is working, when in fact it is not. Harris et al. used the data collected to convince the teachers that the level of pinching during the initial program was at the same level as during baseline.

18. Q: What does reactivity mean in behavioral assessment? [Level 2/C] Illustrate with an example. [Level 3/App] A: Reactivity refers to the observation that displayed data of the behavior of an individual may lead to improvements in that behavior apart from any further treatment program. That is, when people know their behavior is being observed, their observed behavior may change.

Any appropriate example is acceptable.

19. Q: Briefly describe the details of the clever graphing system devised for the child who got the rabbit to the carrot patch. [Level 2/C] A: A chart was prepared showing a picture of a rabbit moving toward a carrot patch. With days depicted across the bottom and the amount of time spent in the cloakroom up the side of the chart, decreases in time spent in the cloakroom by the child were signified by moving the rabbit down the green grass on the chart toward the carrot patch at the bottom.

20. Q: Briefly describe how Ernest Hemingway and Irving Wallace used self-recording to help them maintain their writing behavior. [Level 2/C] A: Each of the authors kept daily records of the number of pages written when working on books. Trollope and Hemingway also kept track of the number of words written daily. While Trollope recorded his output in a diary, Hemingway and Wallace maintained charts of their output. In all three cases, their daily self-recordings helped to maintain their work output at what they considered to be reasonable levels.

21. Q: How does a behavioral approach differ from a traditional approach to assessment in terms of a basic assumption about performance on a test or a checklist? [Level 2/C] A: A behavioral approach assumes that performance on a checklist is a sample of a person’s response to specific stimuli. Traditional approaches view test performance as a sign of an enduring, intrapsychic trait, or person variable.

22. Q: Describe two differences in the goals of a behavioral approach to assessment compared to a traditional approach. [Level 4/An] A: Behavioral Goals of Assessment Traditional Goals of Assessment 1. To identify behavioral excesses or deficits 1. To diagnose or classify individuals 2. To identify causes of current problem 2. To identify intrapsychic or trait behaviors causes of behavior 23. Q: Describe a difference between the method of a behavioral approach compared to a traditional approach to assessment. [Level 4/An] 85 ..

A: Methods of Behavioral Assessment Preference for direct observation of specific behaviors

Methods of Traditional Assessment Direct assessment is impossible (by definition)

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: What is the major purpose of sport-specific behavioral checklists? [Level 2/C] A: To provide information necessary to design effective interventions for remediating behavioral deficits or excesses in specific situations with individual athletes.

2. Q: What are two differences between behavioral checklists and traditional psychological tests? [Level 2/C] A: Unlike traditional psychological tests, behavioral checklists do not have norms and they are not designed to measure character or personality traits.

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CHAPTER 21 DIRECT BEHAVIORAL ASSESSMENT: WHAT TO RECORD AND HOW Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: What does the topography of a behavior mean? [Level 2/C] Give an example that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: Topography refers to the form or specific movements involved in a particular response. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

2. Q: Name two common measures of the overall amount of a given behavior. [Level 2/C] A: Frequency and duration.

3. Q: What does the frequency of a behavior mean? [Level 2/C] Give an example that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: Frequency: the number of instances of a behavior that occur in a given period of time, such as the frequency of foul shots in a basketball practice. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

4. Q: Describe three ways to keep track of the number of times a certain response occurs during a day. [Level 2/C] A: The four mentioned in the text are: (a) Have a helper record the data; (b) Use a wrist counter; (c) Use an electronic calculator; (d) Use a hand-held computer.

Other plausible examples are also acceptable.

5. Q: Make a frequency graph and a cumulative graph of the following instances of a behavior that were observed during successive sessions: 3, 7, 19, 0, 0, 0, 27, 12, 12, 6.

[Level 3/App] A: Consecutive data points on the cumulative graph would correspond to the following numbers on the vertical axis: 3, 10, 29, 29, 29, 29, 56, 68, 80, 86.

6. Q: Describe at least four ways in which a cumulative graph of a set of data differs from a frequency graph of the same data. [Level 2/C] A: Differences that might be mentioned: (a) Each point on a cumulative graph indicates the sum of all the data obtained up to and including that point, whereas each point on a frequency graph indicates only the data obtained at that point; (b) Each point on a cumulative graph can never be lower than the corresponding point on a frequency graph; (c) A cumulative graph can never decrease, whereas a frequency graph can; (d) Changes in rate of behavior are indicated by changes in the slope of the line connecting data points on a frequency graph; (e) The vertical scale on a cumulative graph must necessarily be smaller than that for the corresponding frequency graph.

7. Q: On a cumulative graph, what can you infer from the following? a. a high or steep slope; b. a low slope; c. a flat line [Level 1/K] A: (a) A high rate (or frequency); (b) a low rate; (c) a zero rate.

8. Q: What two characteristics do behaviors recorded in terms of frequency usually show?

[Level 1/K] A: (a) Successive occurrences of the given behavior are relatively distinct and easy to count; (b) the amount of time it takes to perform the behavior is relatively similar from one occasion to the next.

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9. Q: What do we mean by the relative duration of a behavior? [Level 1/K] Give and explain an example in which relative duration might be more appropriate than frequency.

[Level 2/C] A: The relative duration of a behavior is the length of time the behavior occurs within some period. For example, duration is more appropriate than frequency when measuring how long a child is attentive to a story being read by the teacher. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

10. Q: What is another word for the intensity of a response? [Level 1/K] Give an example in which it would be important to measure the intensity of a behavior. [Level 2/C] A: Force. For example, force is measured in various sporting events, such as inferring force from the amount of weight that is lifted in a weightlifting competition. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

11. Q: Define stimulus control, and give an example. [Level 2/C] A: Stimulus control refers to the degree of correlation between a stimulus and a response. For example, if a driver always stops at an intersection when the traffic light shows red, then the red light exerts good stimulus control over the behavior of stopping. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

12. Q: Name the six levels that the ABLA-R assesses. [Level 2/C] A: Imitation, position discrimination, visual discrimination, visual identity match-to-sample discrimination, visual nonidentity match-to-sample discrimination, and auditory-visual combined discrimination.

13. Q: Describe the details of the stimulus control assessed by ABLA-R Level 4, visual identity match-to-sample discrimination. [Level 2/C] A: When assessing Level 4 of the ABLA-R, a client is allowed to view a yellow can and a red box in randomized left-right positions, and is presented sequentially with either a yellow cylinder or red cube. Stimulus control is demonstrated when the client consistently places the yellow cylinder in the yellow can and the red cube in the red box.

14. Q: Describe the details of the stimulus control that the ABLA-R test assesses with Level 6, auditory-visual combined discrimination. [Level 2/C] A: To assess ABLA-R Level 6, a client is presented with a yellow can and a red box in randomly- alternated left-right positions, and is given a non-matching object. Stimulus control is demonstrated if the client puts the object in the appropriate container when the tester randomly says “red box” or “yellow can.”

15. Q: What do we mean by the latency of a response? [Level 2/C] Give an example that is not in this chapter. [Level 3/App] A: Latency refers to the amount of time an individual takes to begin to respond to a particular stimulus after it is presented. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

16. Q: Using an example, explain how the quality of a behavior is a refinement of one or more of the other dimensions of behavior. [Level 2/C] A: Topography, amount, intensity, stimulus control, and latency can all be used to assess quality in that a “good” response is a somewhat arbitrary designation of one or more of the other characteristics. In terms of topography, a figure skating jump that is landed on one foot is considered better than one that is landed on two feet. With respect to frequency, a student who shows a high frequency of studying and answering test questions correctly is likely to be considered as a better student than one who shows a low frequency of such behaviors. Appropriate examples might be given for the other characteristics.

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17. Q: Define continuous recording. [Level 2/C] Give an example that is not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: Continuous recording is recording every instance of a particular behavior during a specified time segment, for example, counting each instance that a person swears during a one-hour interval. Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

18. Q: Define interval recording. [Level 2/C] Distinguish between the partial-interval recording system and the whole-interval recording system. [Level 4/An] A: With interval recording, a behavior is recorded as either occurring or not occurring during short intervals of equal duration (e.g., intervals of 10 seconds) during the specified observation period (e.g., 30 minutes). With partial interval recording, the target behavior is recorded a maximum of once per interval regardless of how many times the behavior occurs during each interval and regardless of the duration of the behavior. With whole interval recording, the target behavior is recorded as occurring during an interval only if it persists throughout the entire interval.

19. Q: When would one likely select a continuous recording system? [Level 2/C] A: A continuous recording system is commonly used when successive responses are quite similar in duration.

20. Q: When would one likely select an interval-recording system over a continuous recording system? [Level 2/C] A: One would likely select an interval recording system over a continuous recording system if successive responses are of variable duration.

21. Q: Define time-sampling recording. [Level 2/C] Give an example that is not in this chapter.

[Level 3/App] A: Time-sampling recording scores a behavior as occurring or not occurring during very brief observation intervals, each of which is separated from the others by some longer period of time. For example, a parent might check whether or not a child is watching TV by observing the child for a few seconds each hour on the hour throughout a day. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

22. Q: Briefly describe momentary time-sampling recording. [Level 2/C] A: With momentary time-sampling, a special case of time-sampling, a behavior is recorded as occurring or not occurring at specific points in time, such as every hour on the hour, rather than during specific brief intervals.

23. Q: Describe five categories of error that can affect the accuracy of observations. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Response definition might be vague, subjective or incomplete; (b) the behavior might be difficult to detect because it is very subtle or complex, or because of distractions or other obstructions to the observing process in the observational situation; (c) the observer might be poorly trained, unmotivated, biased, or generally incompetent; (d) data sheets might be poorly designed; and (e) recording procedures might be cumbersome.

24. Q: List and briefly describe five sources of bias and artifact that can influence an observer.

[Level 2/C] A: (a) Reactivity, which refers to the fact that accuracy of the observations is a direct function of the observer’s belief that he or she is being monitored; (b) observer drift, which is the tendency of an observer’s definition of the target behavior to gradually drift away from the definition the observer was originally given; (c) observer expectancy, which refers to the tendency of the observations to inaccurately show improvement in the target behavior as a function of the observer expecting the target behavior to improve; (d) feedback, which refers to the tendency of the observations to be influenced by positive or negative feedback 89 ..

inadvertently provided to the observer by his or her supervisor; (e) complexity of the observations, which refers to the tendency for observations to be less accurate if the definition of the target response has many parts or the observer is required to observe multiple behaviors at the same time.

25. Q: In a sentence or two, explain what we mean by interobserver reliability. (Describe the process, but don’t give the procedures for calculating IORs.) [Level 2/C] A: Interobserver reliability refers to the amount of agreement between independent observers (i.e., observers who do not influence each others’ judgments) on the occurrence of specific instances of a particular behavior.

26. Q: Using the procedure described in the text for computing IORs with interval data, compute an IOR for the data of vocalizing as recorded by observers 1 and 2 (Figure 21.6). Show all of your computations. [Level 3/App] A: IOR = 7 x 100% = 32% 7 + 15 27. Q: According to convention, what is an acceptable IOR in a behavior modification program?

[Level 1/K] What does convention mean? [Level 3/App] A: 80–100%; “by convention” means that it is an arbitrary but generally accepted standard.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: What is the difference between obtrusive and unobtrusive observations? [Level 4/An] A: Observations are obtrusive when the observational method affects the behaviors being obser. Observations are unobtrusive when the observational method does not cause those being observed to deviate from their typical behavior.

2. Q: When is it especially misleading to include agreement on blank intervals in computing the IOR? [Level 2/C] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: When very few instances of the behavior have been recorded. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

3. Q: When might it be acceptable to include agreement on blank intervals in your computation of an IOR? [Level 2/C] Why would this be acceptable? [Level 2/C] A: It would be acceptable when one is interested in decreasing a behavior, because then one would like to have agreement that the behavior did not occur.

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CHAPTER 22 DOING BEHAVIOR MODIFICATION RESEARCH Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1.Q: Briefly name and describe the four minimal components of a behavior modification program. [Level 2/C] A: A screening or intake phase for clarifying the problem and determining who should treat it; an assessment phase for determining the causes of the problem behavior and the initial level of the behavior prior to the program; a treatment phase, in which the intervention strategy is initiated; and a follow-up phase in order to evaluate the persistence of the desirable behavior changes following termination of the program.

2. Q: In two or three sentences, explain why we cannot necessarily claim that a change in behavior during a minimal behavior modification program was due to the treatment.

[Level 2/C] A: In any program where a treatment phase is introduced to modify some behavior, it is quite possible for some uncontrolled variable or influence to occur concurrently with the treatment such that the change in behavior is due to the uncontrolled variable rather than the treatment itself. A minimal behavior modification program does not enable one to conclude if the above has occurred.

3. Q: In two or three sentences, distinguish between a minimal behavior modification program and behavior modification research. [Level 4/An] A: A minimal behavior modification program demonstrates that, during treatment, behavior improves as compared to baseline (and hopefully persists during follow-up). In behavior modification research, additional phases are conducted to demonstrate that the behavior improvement was indeed due to the particular treatment that was applied.

4. Q: Define dependent variable, and give an example. [Level 2/C] A: The dependent variable is a measure of the behavior being studied or treated. For example, in Billy’s program, the dependent variable was his rate of correctly solving math problems.

Any appropriate example is acceptable.

5. Q: Define independent variable, and give an example. [Level 2/C] A: The independent variable is the treatment or intervention applied to bring about a change in the dependent variable. In Billy’s case, for example, the independent variable was the reinforcement of an extra minute of recess for each math problem correctly sol.

Any appropriate example is acceptable.

6. Q: Define internal validity. [Level 2/C] A: A finding is said to be internally valid if the independent variable did, in fact, cause observed changes in the dependent variable.

7. Q: Define external validity. [Level 2/C] A: A finding is said to be externally valid to the extent that it can be generalized to other behaviors, individuals, settings, or treatments.

8. Q: With reference to an example, briefly describe the four components of the reversalreplication design. [Level 2/C] What is another name for this design? [Level 2/C] A: (a) A baseline phase to determine the initial level of the behavior being studied; (b) a treatment phase in which the intervention strategy is first introduced; (c) a reversal phase in which the treatment is withdrawn and the baseline conditions are 91 ..

reinstated; and (d) replication of the treatment phase in which the treatment is once again applied, in order to confirm its effects as compared to the baseline and reversal phases. Any appropriate example is acceptable. This design is also called an ABAB design.

9. Q: Ideally, how long should the baseline phase of the reversal-replication design continue?

[Level 1/K] A: Ideally, until the pattern of performance is stable or until it shows a trend in the direction opposite to that predicted when the treatment is introduced.

10. Q: In a sentence or two each, describe why Baselines 1, 2, and 3 from Figure 22.2 are inadequate. [Level 3/App] A: (a) Baseline 1 is not stable; (b) Baseline 2 shows a trend in the same direction as that observed during the independent variable phase; a continuation of that trend cannot be reliably attributed to the independent variable; (c) Baseline 3 is too brief to allow conclusions about stability or trends to be drawn.

11. Q: What scientific, practical, and ethical considerations might lead someone to lengthen or shorten a baseline? [Level 2/C] A: (a) Scientific: one might accept shorter baselines for dependent variables that have been thoroughly explored in other studies, than for dependent variables that might have received little or no consideration. (b) Practical: baselines might be shortened because of limitations on the time of the experimenter, availability of observers, availability of individuals being studied, etc. (c) Ethical: baselines of behaviors of critical importance to the individual might be lengthened or shortened for ethical reasons, such as shortening a baseline of selfabusive behavior because of potential harm that an extended baseline might cause to the subject.

12. Q: How many reversals and replications are necessary in a reversal-replication design?

[Level 2/C] A: If a very large effect is observed when the independent variable is introduced, and if the area is one that has been explored before, then one replication may be sufficient. However, other combinations of factors might influence one to conduct several replications in order to convincingly demonstrate a cause-effect relationship.

13. Q: Identify two limitations of the reversal-replication design, and give an example of each.

[Level 3/App] A: (a) Conducting a reversal might be undesirable for ethical reasons, if it might hinder the individual being studied; (b) it might not be possible to obtain a reversal. Any appropriate examples are acceptable.

14. Q: State an advantage of a multiple-baseline design over a reversal-replication design.

[Level 2/C] A: It is not necessary to revert back to baseline conditions following the assessment of a treatment.

15. Q: With reference to an example, briefly describe a multiple-baseline-across-behaviors design.

[Level 2/C] A: First, a baseline is taken concurrently on two or more behaviors. Second, the treatment is introduced to one of the behaviors while the other behavior(s) continues on baseline.

Third, the first behavior continues on treatment and the treatment is introduced to the second behavior. In this way, the design calls for the introduction of the treatment sequentially across two or more behaviors. An example is shown in Figure 22-3, or any other appropriate example is acceptable.

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16. Q: What are three potential limitations of a multiple-baseline-across-behaviors design?

[Level 2/C] A: (a) If two or more behaviors are not independent, so that the introduction of the treatment to one of the behaviors generalizes to the other behaviors that are still on baseline (which makes it impossible to conclude a cause-effect relationship between the treatment and the dependent variable); (b) if it is not possible to find two or more suitable behaviors; or (c) if there are insufficient observers to gather the necessary data on several behaviors.

17. Q: With reference to an example, briefly describe a multiple-baseline-across-situations design.

[Level 2/C] A: First, baseline a behavior of an individual across two or more situations. Second, introduce the treatment for that behavior in one of the situations while continuing the baseline on the behavior in the other situations. Third, continue with the treatment for the behavior in the first situation and apply the treatment to the behavior in the second situation. In this way, the design calls for the introduction of the treatment of a behavior sequentially across situations. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

18. Q: What are three potential limitations of a multiple-baseline-across-situations design?

[Level 2/C] A: (a) When the introduction of the treatment to the behavior in one situation causes the behavior to improve in other situations (which makes it impossible to conclude a causeeffect relationship between the treatment and the dependent variables); (b) when the behavior occurs in only one setting; or (c) if there are insufficient observers to gather the necessary data.

19. Q: With reference to an example, briefly describe a multiple-baseline-across-people design.

[Level 2/C] A: First, take a baseline of a particular behavior in two or more individuals. Second, introduce the treatment to the behavior on one person while continuing the baseline on the other(s). Third, while continuing the treatment on the behavior of the first person, begin the treatment for that behavior with the second person as well. In this way, the treatment is introduced on a particular behavior sequentially across two or more individuals. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

20. Q: What are three potential limitations of a multiple-baseline-across-people design?

[Level 2/C] A: (a) When the individuals involved might deliberately communicate or otherwise influence other individuals who are being baselined, and thereby cause each other to show a change in behavior prior to the introduction of the treatment program (which makes it impossible to conclude a cause-effect relationship between the treatment and the dependent variables); (b) when there is only one individual who shows the problem or target behavior; or (c) if there are insufficient observers available to monitor the behavior of all individuals.

21. Q: With reference to an example, briefly describe the changing-criterion design. [Level 2/C] A: First, take a baseline of a behavior to be changed. For example, DeLuca and Holborn assessed a boy’s pedaling rate on a stationary bicycle during several 30-minute exercise sessions. Next, set a criterion for application of treatment. For example, DeLuca and Holborn reinforced the boy if the pedaling rate on the stationary bicycle increased approximately 15% above baseline. Third, introduce successive changes in the behavioral criterion for treatment. For example, in the DeLuca and Holborn study, each time the pedaling rate stabilized at the new level, the criterion for reinforcement was increased by approximately another 15%. In this way, if the behavior changes in a consistent direction each time a change is made in the criterion for application of the treatment, then we can 93 ..

conclude that the treatment was responsible for the change in behavior. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

22. Q: With reference to an example, briefly describe an alternating-treatments design.

[Level 2/C] What is another name for this design? [Level 1/K] Explain when and why that name might be preferred. [Level 2/C] A: (a) First, identify two different treatments to be compared. Second, identify a behavior that occurs at some frequency for which both increases and decreases in frequency of the behavior are possible. Third, apply the two separate treatments to the behavior in randomly alternating sessions. In this way, the effects of the treatment can be compared directly on a single behavior of a single individual. Any appropriate example is acceptable. (b) Multielement design. This name is sometimes preferred when two different treatments are applied to two different behaviors or “elements,” or when the conditions compared are not actually therapeutic treatments.

23. Q: Briefly describe a potential problem with the alternating-treatments design. [Level 3/App] A: The two treatments may interact; i.e., one of the treatments may produce an effect either because of a contrast to the other treatment in alternating sessions or because of generalization of treatment across conditions.

24. Q: In a sentence or two each, explain the scientific and practical criteria for evaluating the effects of a particular treatment. [Level 2/C] Be sure to distinguish between the two in your answer.

A: Scientific criteria: guidelines used to evaluate whether or not there has been a convincing demonstration that a particular treatment was responsible for producing a reliable effect on the dependent variable. Practical criteria: subjective values used to judge whether or not a particular treatment has significantly improved the client’s life as judged by the personal satisfaction of the client or those responsible for caring for the client.

25. Q: Describe why it is difficult to draw conclusions about the effects of the treatments in Graphs 3, 4, and 5 in Figure 22.6. [Level 3/App] A: In graph 3, the first treatment appears to be simple continuation of the trend observed in baseline. The effects of the reversal and second treatment do not sufficiently counteract this possibility. In graph 4, the baselines are not stable and there are many overlapping data points in the baseline and reversal phases as compared to each of the two treatment phases, so that one cannot reliably conclude that the treatment produced a significant change from the baselines. In graph 5, effects of the treatment are questionable because there is only one data point shown for each of the baseline conditions and the treatment conditions.

26. Q: What seven criteria would give you maximum confidence that the treatment in an ABAB design had produced an effect on the dependent variable? [Level 2/C] A: (a) The greater the number of replications of an effect; (b) the fewer the overlapping data points between baseline and treatment phases; (c) the sooner effects are observed following introduction of a treatment; (d) the larger the effects observed when comparing treatment effects to baseline; (e) the more precisely the treatment procedures are specified; (f) the more reliable the response measures; and (g) the more consistent the findings with the existing data and accepted behavioral theory.

27. Q: What are the three levels of social validation, and why are they important? [Level 2/C] A: (a) To examine the extent to which target behaviors identified for treatment programs are really the most important for the client and/or society; (b) to examine the acceptability to the client of the particular procedures used, especially when alternative procedures can accomplish approximately the same results; (c) to ensure that the consumers (the clients and/or their caretakers) are satisfied with the results of treatment. These levels of social 94 ..

validation are important to ensure that behavior modifiers do the best job that they can in helping individuals function fully in society.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: List four reasons why many behavior modifiers prefer single-case designs to group designs.

[Level 2/C] A: (a) Single-case designs focus on repeated measurement of an individual’s performance across a number of sessions, and therefore provide potentially valuable information on individual variation in performance. Group designs, with their emphasis on the average performance of groups, typically gather data at a single point in time, and do not focus on continuous monitoring of individual clients over time. (b) Because experiments using single-case designs typically include three to five individuals, a researcher needs to locate only a few individuals with the same performance problem in order to evaluate an intervention. With group designs, it is often difficult to locate enough individuals with the same performance problem to form the different groups. (c) Because all individuals in a single-case design receive the intervention at one time or another, an applied researcher is not faced with resistance from clients (or their significant others) to participate in a notreatment control group. (d) Because single-case designs rely on replication logic rather than the sampling logic of the group design, they are not hampered by some of the assumptions required of group designs, such as the assumption that the dependent variable is normally distributed in the population, or that the samples are randomly selected.

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CHAPTER 23 FUNCTIONAL ASSESSMENT OF PROBLEM BEHAVIOR Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: A functional assessment of the causes of a problem behavior involves asking what two questions? [Level 1/K] A: (a) What are the antecedents of the behavior, and (b) what are the immediate consequences of the behavior?

2. Q: What does the term functional assessment refer to? [Level 1/K] A: Functional assessment refers to a variety of approaches for attempting to identify antecedents and consequences for problem behaviors.

3. Q: Define the term functional analysis. [Level 2/C] A: Functional analysis refers to the systematic manipulation of environmental events to experimentally test their role as antecedents or as consequences in controlling and maintaining specific problem behaviors.

4. Q: Briefly describe the four conditions in the multielement design that Iwata et al. (Iwata, Dorsey, Slifer, Bauman, & Richman, 1982, 1994) used in the functional analysis they carried out on self-injurious behavior. [Level 2/C] A: (a) In an attention condition, a child and an adult were in a room with toys available and the adult pretending to do paperwork, and the adult only interacted with the child following instances of self-injurious behavior. (b) In a demand condition, the adult and child were in a room together and the adult prompted the child to perform a task that was difficult for the child. If the child engaged in self-injurious behavior, the adult stopped making demands on the child for 30 seconds. (c) In an alone condition, the child was alone in a room with a one-way mirror and with toys available. (d) In a control condition, the child and an adult were in a room together, toys were available, and the adult reinforced the child’s appropriate play behavior.

5. Q: Briefly discuss, with examples, what the results of Iwata et al.’s research suggest for the treatment of severe self-injurious behavior. [Level 4/An] A: Iwata et al.’s results suggest that even though the form of self-injurious behavior may be very similar from one individual to another, the treatment should be based on the function of the behavior, not on the form. For example, if a functional analysis indicates that a child’s problem behavior is maintained by adult attention, then the recommended treatment would be withholding attention following instances of the behavior and providing attention for desirable behavior. On the other hand, if a functional analysis indicated that a problem behavior was maintained by escape from demands, then the recommended treatment would include more or longer non-demand periods when working with that individual and perhaps persisting with demands if a problem behavior occurred to a demand.

6. Q: Describe three limitations of functional analyses. [Level 2/C] A: (a) If the problem behaviors occur at low frequencies, experimental functional analysis requires a great deal of time before sufficient data can be obtained to draw valid conclusions; (b) it cannot be applied to extremely dangerous behaviors, such as suicide threats; (c) because they require a number of observational sessions, the expense and manpower requirements may be prohibitive.

7. Q: Briefly describe how each of the three limitations of functional analyses has been addressed in attempts to overcome these limitations. [Level 2/C] 96 ..

A: (a) One way to reduce the time required for functional analysis is to use only one or two repetitions of each condition and/or to decrease session length. A second option, if sensory reinforcement is suspected, is to use an alone condition as a screening phase. If the problem behavior persists during sensory reinforcement, then further testing may be omitted. (b) If functional analysis cannot be applied because the problem behaviors are extremely dangerous, then it is possible to look for harmless precursor behaviors to the dangerous behaviors, to do a functional analysis of these precursors, and to then treat and eliminate the precursors to see if the severe behavior is also eliminated. (c) If a problem behavior occurs rarely such that a typical functional analysis would take many days or weeks to complete, then waiting for a problem to behavior to occur and initiating a functional analysis at that moment might yield meaningful results.

8. Q: Briefly describe three approaches to functional assessment, that is, three ways of identifying controlling variables of problem behavior. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Ask people familiar with the client a series of relevant questions to try and discover antecedents and consequences that control the client’s problem behavior (a questionnaire assessment); (b) Observe a client’s problem behavior in its natural settings and describe the antecedents and immediate consequences that occur (an observational assessment); (c) Experimentally assess which antecedents and consequences have a direct influence on the problem behavior of a client (an experimental functional analysis).

9. Q: What are three indicators that a problem behavior is probably maintained by the social attention that follows it? [Level 2/C] A: (a) Attention reliably follows the behavior; (b) the individual looks at or approaches a caregiver just before engaging in the behavior; and (c) the individual smiles just before engaging in the behavior.

10. Q: What were the results of the functional analysis of the causes of excessive delusional statements made by Mr. Jones, and what was the treatment of the delusional statements based on the results of the functional analysis? [Level 2/C] A: The results with Mr. Jones showed that far more delusional statements occurred in the attention condition than in the alone, demand, or control conditions. Therefore the treatment involved reinforcing Mr. Jones with attention when he said reasonable things, and when he made a delusional statement he was ignored for approximately 10 seconds.

11. Q: What is another name for “sensory reinforcement,” and what assumption is the other name based on? [Level 2/C] A: Another name for sensory reinforcement is automatic reinforcement, because it is assumed that the behavior itself is automatically reinforcing without producing any consequence that another person can detect or control.

12. Q: What is an indicator that a problem behavior is being maintained by self-stimulatory reinforcement? [[Level 2/C] A: An indicator that a problem behavior is being maintained by self-stimulatory reinforcement is that the behavior continues unabated at a steady rate although it has no apparent effect on other individuals or the external environment.

13. Q: Describe how Rincover and Devaney applied extinction to a problem that appeared to be maintained by self-stimulatory reinforcement. [Level 2/C] A: Rincover and Devaney applied extinction to a face-scratching problem that was maintained by internal sensory positive reinforcement by eliminating the tactile sensations produced by the scratching. The young girl’s hands were covered each day with rubber gloves that did not prevent her from scratching, but eliminated sensory stimulation (and skin damage).

There was an immediate decrease in scratching rate (and it was eliminated in 4 days).

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Follow up consisted of removing the gloves for 10 minutes a day, then for longer and longer periods of time until they were no longer needed.

14. Q: What is an indicator that a problem behavior is being reinforced by nonsocial external sensory stimulation? Give an example illustrating this indicator. [Level 3/App] A: The behavior continues undiminished even though it appears to have no social consequences over numerous occasions. For example, in the case of the child who flushed jewelry down the toilet, she appeared to enjoy doing so even when she was alone. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

15. Q: What were two plausible explanations of the behavior of the child flushing jewelry down the toilet? [Level 2/C] How did the treatment procedure take both possibilities into account? [Level 2/C] A: (a) It may have been maintained because of external sensory positive reinforcement (i.e. the appearance of the jewelry swirling around the toilet bowl may have functioned as a sensory reinforcer). It may have been maintained as a link in a behavioral chain that was reinforced by the mother’s attention when the child told the mother about flushing the jewelry down the toilet. (b) The treatment procedure accounted for both possibilities in that it established a new chain that included taking jewelry and placing it in a jar in the kitchen (instead of flushing it down the toilet), which produced an audible tinkling sound as a sensory reinforcer, and the new chain was highly reinforced by the mother’s attention.

16. Q: What is a strong indicator that a problem behavior is being maintained as a way of escaping from demands? [Level 2/C] Give an example illustrating this indicator.

[Level 3/App] A: The individual engages in the behavior only when certain types of requests are made of him or her. For example, Suzy was self-abusive when staff requested her to do things, but not when she was left alone. Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

17. Q: Suppose that a nonverbal child screams loudly as a way of escaping from demands by adults in various training settings. Describe two alternative strategies that the adults might follow to deal with the problem behavior. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Remove the escape function of the behavior by continuing to place demands on the child until the child stops screaming; and (b) teach the child an alternative way of communicating (such as by hand raising) that the task is aversive and that she does not want to perform it.

18. Q: Briefly describe how a functional analysis indicated that Susie’s self-injurious behavior was likely maintained because it enabled her to escape from demanding adults.

[Level 2/C] How did the treatment condition confirm the functional analysis?

[Level 2/C] A: In Susie’s case, the staff directly compared the rate of Susie’s self-abusiveness under three conditions: (a) when it was followed by attention from well-meaning adults; (b) when it enabled Susie to escape from performing various tasks; and (c) when there were no programmed consequences. Susie’s self-abusiveness was highest when it allowed her to escape from a demand condition. The conclusion that her abusiveness was maintained by escape conditioning was confirmed through an escape extinction program. Instead of backing off from demands placed on Susie following instances of self-abuse, staff continued to require Susie to respond to the demands. Under these conditions, self-abuse decreased to near zero.

19. Q: Describe how internal sensory negative reinforcement might be a cause of some cases of binge eating. [Level 2/C] A: Researchers have provided evidence that some cases of binge-eating can be maintained because it leads to a decrease (at least temporarily) in unpleasant emotional responses.

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20. Q: Describe an example of how external sensory negative reinforcement could produce undesirable behavior. [Level 2/C] A: For example, a child might repeatedly remove her shoes because they squeeze her toes too tightly. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

21. Q: What are the two main indicators that a problem behavior is respondent behavior that is elicited by prior stimuli vs. operant behavior being maintained by reinforcing consequences? [Level 2/C] Give an example illustrating these indicators. [Level 3/App] A: The behavior consistently occurs in a certain situation or in the presence of certain stimuli and is never followed by any clearly identifiable reinforcing consequence. An example might be an individual who consistently shows signs of nervousness when asked a question in a wide variety of settings and irrespective of the consequences of doing so. Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

22. Q: Describe the main components in the treatment of Joel’s anger. [Level 2/C] A: The main component in the treatment of Joel’s anger was counterconditioning. Joel was taught how to relax, and in a state of relaxation, a CS for anger from one of the several categories was presented. A second component was that, within each of several categories, the CSs that elicited anger were arranged in a hierarchy ranging from those that caused least anger to those that caused the most anger, and the CSs were counterconditioned in hierarchical order.

23. Q: What is behavioral diagnostics? [Level 2/C] In what sense is this term broader than functional assessment? [Level 2/C] A: Behavioral diagnostics is an approach to behavioral assessment in which the therapist diagnoses the problem after examining antecedents, consequences, and medical and nutritional variables as potential causes of problem behaviors. This concept is broader than functional assessment because it not only includes the external environment, but also internal medical factors.

24. Q: In a sentence for each, outline the six major causes of operant problem behaviors described in this chapter. [Level 2/C] A: Problem behaviors might be increased and maintained by: (a) attention from others (social positive reinforcement); (b) internal sensory positive reinforcement (positively reinforced self-stimulation); (c) external sensory positive reinforcement (external nonsocial environmental consequences); (d) escape from demands (social negative reinforcement); (e) escape from internal sensory events (internal sensory negative reinforcement); and (f) escape from external sensory aversive stimuli (external sensory negative reinforcement).

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: State the two meanings of the term functional analysis of behavior. [Level 2/C] A: The narrow meaning of functional analysis is that it refers to discovering specific antecedents and reinforcers for a given behavior of an individual. A broader meaning of functional analysis is scientifically finding the relationship between two variables – an independent variable and a dependent variable.

2. Q: Describe a behavior principle other than respondent conditioning that fits the second sense of functional analysis of behavior and explain how it fits the second sense but not the first. [Level 4/An] A: For example, the principle of operant extinction states that if, in a given situation, an individual emits a previously reinforced behavior and that behavior is not followed by a 99 ..

reinforcer, then that person is less likely to emit that behavior when next encountering a similar situation. This principle fits the second meaning of functional analysis in that it refers to a relationship between an independent variable (withholding a reinforcer following a response) and a dependent variable (the response decreases). The principle does not fit the first meaning of functional analysis in that it does not identify the withholding of a reinforcer following the specific behavior of a specific individual that leads to a decrease in that behavior. Appropriate statements for any behavioral principle can be used.

3. Q: Discuss how and why the functional analytic approach of applied behavior analysts and behavior therapists differs from the approach of many traditional psychologists and psychiatrists. [Level 4/An] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: Many traditional psychologists and psychiatrists focus on the form or topography of a problem behavior, rather than the cause of that behavior. The functional analysis approach is advantageous because it identifies the controlling variables of a problem behavior, and the topography of a behavior typically tells us little or nothing about its cause. For example, two individuals may be exhibiting similar self-injurious behavior and yet the underlying cause is completely different. The traditional approach would likely lead to the same treatment for the two individuals, while behavior analytic treatment for the two individuals would be different even though the topography of their behaviors are the same. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

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CHAPTER 24 PLANNING, APPLYING, AND EVALUATING A BEHAVIORAL PROGRAM Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: How does a behavior modifier evaluate the importance of a problem? [Level 2/C] A: On the basis of answers to such questions as: Will solving the problem lead to less aversiveness or more positive reinforcement for the client or others? Will solving the problem likely stimulate other desirable behaviors, either directly or indirectly?

2. Q: What does a behavior modifier do when given a vague problem such as “aggression” to work on? [Level 2/C] Illustrate with an example. [Level 3/App] A: Specifies component behavior(s) that can be assessed behaviorally and determines whether dealing with the component(s) will solve the problem to the satisfaction of the referring agent or agencies. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

3. Q: How does a behavior modifier evaluate the ease with which a problem might be solved?

[Level 2/C] A: If it is an undesirable behavior to be decreased, the behavior analyst should consider its stimulus control (narrow or broad), its schedule of reinforcement (degree of intermittency), the length of its history, and whether there are desirable behaviors that can replace it. If the problem is to teach a new behavior, does the client have the prerequisite skills? The answer to such questions will determine whether or not the problem will be easily manageable.

4. Q: How does a behavior modifier evaluate the ease with which the desired behavioral change might be generalized to and maintained in the natural environment? [Level 2/C] A: Consider whether the improved behavior can be managed in the natural environment, whether it is possible to devise a special training setting that can be faded easily into the natural environment, whether there are natural contingencies that will likely maintain the behavioral objective after it has been achieved, whether the behavior modifier can change the people in the natural environment so that they will help maintain the desired behavior, and whether it is possible for the client to learn a self-control program.

5. Q: Assume that you are a professional applied behavior analyst or behavior therapist. List four possible conditions under which you would not treat a behavior problem that has been referred to you. [Level 2/C] A: An answer of “no” to any of the 8 questions listed under the subsection “Deciding Whether to Design a Program Following a Referral.” Student should list at least four of these, and state them in a way that indicates that the referral would not be accepted.

6. Q: What five variables should an appropriate baseline procedure enable you to monitor or identify? [Level 2/C] A: An appropriate Baseline procedure should enable you to: (a) monitor the problem behavior, (b) identify its current stimulus control, (c) identify its maintaining consequences, (d) monitor relevant medical/health/personal variables, and (e) identify an alternative desirable behavior.

7. Q: What six questions should a behavior modifier answer during the pretreatment assessment phase? [Level 2/C] A: (a) What daily times can the mediators schedule for this project? (b) Will others in the situation help or hinder data collection? (c) Will the surroundings make your assessment difficult? (d) How frequent is the problem behavior? (e) How rapidly should the behavior 101 ..

change? (f) Is the presenting problem a behavioral deficit or can it be reformulated as such?

8. Q: You are about to design a treatment program. After defining the target behavior and identifying its desired level of occurrence and stimulus control, what six questions should you answer before proceeding to the design? [Level 2/C] A: (a) Is the description precise? (b) On what grounds was the goal chosen, and how is that in the client’s best interests? (c) Has the client been given all possible information about the goal? (d) Have steps been taken to increase the client’s commitment to accomplish the goal? (e) What are potential side effects of accomplishing the goal, for both the client and others? (f) Do the answers to the above questions suggest that you should proceed? If so, then continue.

9. Q: If you are thinking of capitalizing on antecedent control, what six categories should you consider? [Level 2/C] ] A: Rules, goal setting, modelling, physical guidance, situational inducement, and motivating operations.

10. Q: If you are decreasing a behavioral excess, what five questions should you ask?

[Level 2/C] A: (a) Can you remove SDs for the problem behavior? (b) Can you withhold reinforcers that are maintaining the problem behavior, or present abolishing operations (MAOs) for those reinforcers? (c) Can you apply DRL to reduce the rate of the behavior to a low, but acceptable rate? (d) Can you apply DRO, DRI, or DRA?(e) Should punishment be used?

11.Q: List five considerations for programming stimulus generalization. [Level 2/C] A: Can you apply any of the following? i) training in the test situation ii) varying the training conditions iii) programming common stimuli iv) training sufficient stimulus exemplars v) establishing a stimulus equivalence class 12. Q: List three considerations for programming response generalization. [Level 2/C] A: Can you apply any of the following? i) training sufficient response exemplars ii) varying the acceptable responses during training iii) using behavioral momentum to increase low probability responses within a response class 13. Q: List four considerations for programming behavior maintenance. [Level 2/C] A: Can you apply any of the following? i) using natural contingencies of reinforcement ii) training the people in the natural environment iii) using schedules of reinforcement in the natural environment iv) giving the control to the individual 14. Q: What is a behavioral contract? [Level 2/C] A: A behavioral contract provides a clear statement of what behaviors of what individuals will produce what reinforcers and who will deliver those reinforcers.

15. Q: What is a treatment contract, and what should it clearly outline? [Level 2/C] A: A treatment contract is a written agreement between the client and behavior analyst that clearly outlines the objectives and methods of treatment, the framework of the service to be provided, and contingencies for remuneration that may be forthcoming to the therapist.

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16. Q: What five questions should be answered affirmatively to increase the client’s commitment to the program? [Level 2/C] A: (a) Does the client fully understand and agree with the goals of the program? (b) Is the client aware of how the program will benefit him or her? (c) Has the mediator spent sufficient time with the client so as to gain the client’s trust and confidence? (d) Has the program been designed so that the client will experience some success early? and (e) Will the client come into contact with reinforcers early in the program?

17. Q: After a program has been implemented, what three things should be done to determine whether it is producing satisfactory results? (See Guidelines 1, 2, and 3.) [Level 2/C] A: Main points: Monitor the data, consult people who must deal with the behavioral handicap, and consult the behavioral journals and experienced behavior analysts concerning related cases. (See guidelines 1, 2, and 3 under “Program Maintenance and Evaluation.”)

18. Q: Describe in detail the steps that should be followed if a program is not producing satisfactory results (see Guidelines 5, 6, and 7). [Level 2/C] A: Answer the following questions and make the appropriate adjustment for any “yes” answer: (a) Have the reinforcers lost their effectiveness? (b) Are competing responses being reinforced? (c) Are the procedures being applied correctly? (d) Is there outside interference disrupting the program? (e) Are there any subjective variables (e.g., staff enthusiasm) that might be adversely affecting the program? If none of the answers is “yes,” then check to see if additional programming steps need to be added or remo. Another option is to consult with a colleague and to consider redesigning a major aspect of the program.

19. Q: If a program is producing satisfactory results, what two things should be done prior to successfully terminating it? (See Guidelines 8 and 9.) [Level 2/C] A: Main points: Identify a strategy to maintain desired behavior and conduct follow-up observations and social validity assessments. (See guidelines 8 and 9 under “Program Maintenance and Evaluation.”)

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: How might the geographic setting affect your decision as a behavior modifier to accept a referral? [Level 2/C] A: In an urban setting, there are likely to be a number of behavior analysts available to help clients. In a rural setting, however, although you might not be the ideal person to treat the problem, you may be the best person available.

2. Q: How did Israel and colleagues demonstrate that utilizing significant others in a program can enhance generality? [Level 3/App] A: They introduced two groups of overweight children to a behavioral weight reduction program. At the end of the eight-week treatment program, both groups of children had lost approximately the same amount of weight. However, after a one-year follow-up, the children whose parents had been introduced to the child management procedures showed better maintenance of improved weight status.

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CHAPTER 25 TOKEN ECONOMIES Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: What are tokens? [Level 2/C] A: A token is an object or symbol that can be accumulated and exchanged for goods and services.

2. Q: What is a token economy? [Level 2/C] A: A token economy is a behavioral program in which a group of individuals can earn tokens for a variety of desirable behaviors, and can exchange the tokens earned for backup reinforcers.

3. Q: What are two major advantages to using tokens as reinforcers? [Level 2/C] A: (a) They can be given immediately after a desirable behavior occurs and cashed in at a later time for a backup reinforcer. This helps to “bridge” long delays between the target response and a backup reinforcer that is difficult to present immediately after the behavior. (b) Tokens are generalized conditioned reinforcers and therefore do not depend on a specific motivating operation for their strength. This makes it easier to administer consistent and effective reinforcers when dealing with a group of individuals who may be in different motivational states.

4. Q:. List at least five settings in which token economies have been used. [Level 2/C] A: Classrooms, homes for pre-delinquents, prisons, in the military, in nursing homes (or any other appropriate settings).

5. Q: List at least five behaviors that token economies have been designed to develop.

[Level 2/C] A: To decrease littering, increase recycling of wastes, increase energy conservation, decrease noise pollution, increase self-help behaviors in developmentally disabled persons (or any other appropriate behaviors).

6. Q: In a sentence, describe the type of individual whom Achievement Place was designed to help. [Level 2/C] A: Achievement Place was designed to help boys from 10 to 16 years of age who were typically from difficult home environments and who had been referred by the courts for committing minor crimes such as petty theft and fighting.

7. Q: List and briefly describe five initial steps involved in setting up and managing a token economy. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Deciding on the target behaviors: these are the specific behaviors to be reinforced with tokens, and they depend on both the short range and the long range objectives for the individuals in the token economy and on the specific behavior problems that should be decreased with those individuals. (b) Taking baselines: one should obtain baseline data on the specific target behaviors before initiating a token economy. (c) Selecting the type of tokens to use: the tokens to be used will depend mainly on the type of client involved and must be appropriate for the client who will participate in the token economy. (d) Selecting backup reinforcers: one must select backup reinforcers for the token system and also plan a simple store for aiding in dispensing them. (e) Managing the backup reinforcers: a system for storing and dispensing the backup reinforcers is an essential feature of token economies.

8. Q: Identify four target behaviors for the youths at Achievement Place: two desirable and two 104 ..

undesirable behaviors. [Level 3/App] A: Two desirable behaviors were doing dishes and performing homework. Two undesirable behaviors were disobeying and using poor grammar.

9. Q: What six characteristics should a token have? [Level 2/C] A: Tokens should be attractive, lightweight, portable, durable, easy to handle, and not easy to counterfeit.

10. Q: What is the recommended number of tokens per child for a teacher to have on hand when starting a token economy in a classroom? [Level 1/K] A: 100 11. Q: List two backup reinforcers used at Achievement Place. [Level 2/C] A: Permission to stay up past bedtime for a week, and access to games for a week.

12. Q: Explain how a “fine” in a token economy fits the definition of response-cost punishment (you may want to review Chapter 13). [Level 2/C] A: Response-cost punishment involves the removal of a specified amount of a reinforcer immediately following a behavior. A “fine” in a token economy fits this definition because a fine would involve taking away a certain number of tokens from an individual because of an unacceptable behavior.

13. Q: What is a token economy store? [Level 2/C] Give examples. [Level 2/C] A: This is a place in which to keep backup reinforcers and from which they can be dispensed.

For example, the store in a classroom might be a box located on the teacher’s desk. In a large token economy in a mental institution, a store might occupy one or more rooms.

Other appropriate examples are also acceptable.

14. Q: How often should store time be held in a token economy for schoolchildren? [Level 2/C] A: Stainback, Payne, Stainback, and Payne (1973) recommend that store time be held once or twice per day for the first three or four days and then decreased gradually until it is held only once a week (e.g., Friday afternoon).

15. Q: What are three considerations for deciding the token price of each backup reinforcer?

[Level 2/C] A: (a) The monetary cost of each backup reinforcer, with high cost reinforcers requiring more tokens. (b) Supply and demand, with the price being higher for items whose demand exceeds the supply, and less for items whose supply exceeds the demand. (c) The therapeutic value of the backup reinforcers, with reinforcers that have therapeutic value requiring fewer tokens to purchase.

16. Q: Identify four sources of potential help for managing a token economy. [Level 3/App] A: (a) Members of civic organizations and community action groups, friends and acquaintances, university students; (b) Volunteers (e.g., senior citizens); (c) Behaviorallyadvanced individuals within the institution where the token economy is being developed, teacher aides or teaching assistants or other workers who may be employees of the institution who could participate as part of their job; (d) the clients themselves.

17. Q: What are two ways help has been obtained to manage PSI courses? [Level 2/C] A: (a) Students who master an assignment can help evaluate the performance of other students who subsequently mastered that assignment. (b) Another option is to give the students a test during the first part of the course, and those students who do well can be put in charge of a small group of students whom they can tutor.

18. Q: How should tokens be delivered? [Level 2/C] 105 ..

A: Tokens should always be presented in a positive and conspicuous manner immediately following a desired response. Also, smiling approval should be administered at the same time the token is given, and the client should be told (at least in the initial stages) why he or she is receiving the token.

19.,Q: Describe five potential problems that are likely to occur during the initial days of a token economy. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Confusion, especially during the first few days; (b) staff or helper shortages; (c) attempts by individuals to get tokens that they have not earned or backup reinforcers for which they do not have enough tokens; (d) individuals manipulating tokens in distractible ways; and (e) failure to purchase backup reinforcers.

20. Q: State two general methods of weaning individuals from tokens when transferring behavior to the natural environment. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Gradually eliminate the tokens. (b) Gradually decrease the delay between the target behavior and token delivery.

21. Q: If one decides to wean an individual from tokens by eliminating tokens gradually, what are three ways that might be accomplished? [Level 2/C] A: (a) Gradually making the schedule of token delivery more and more intermittent. (b) Gradually decreasing the number of behaviors that earn tokens. (c) Gradually decreasing the delay between the target behavior and token delivery.

22. Q: If one decides to wean an individual of tokens by decreasing the value of the tokens gradually, what are two ways that might be accomplished? [Level 2/C] A: (a) Gradually decreasing the amount of backup reinforcement that a given number of tokens can purchase (i.e., programming inflation). (b) Gradually increasing the delay between token acquisition and the purchase of backup reinforcers.

23. Q: What is one precaution to help ensure high ethical standards for a token economy?

[Level 2/C] A: Make the system completely open to public scrutiny, provided that such openness is subject to the approval of clients or their advocates.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: What is a classroom mini-economy? [Level 1/K] Describe its features. [Level 2/C] A: A classroom mini-economy is a token economy for children in a classroom that prepares the children to engage in the economy of the natural environment. In such a minieconomy, the children earn play money for desired academic behaviors and various classroom work behaviors (e.g., cleaning bookshelves), and they can later spend the earned play money in a class store.

2. Q: Would you expect children in a classroom mini-economy to show more or less generalization to the natural environment than if they had not participated in the minieconomy? [Level 1/K] Explain. [Level 6/E] A: More, because in a classroom mini-economy the children learn about making money for various work activities, and they then get to spend the play money that has been earned.

3. Q: Describe a token program in which individuals in a sheltered workshop administered tokens to themselves. [Level 2/C] A: Each time a buzzer rang in the work setting, the workers marked an “X” on a sheet of paper if they were on-task. The buzzer rang at six random times during a half-day. When a worker earned six “X”s, they could be exchanged for a token. The tokens could be cashed in for items in the workshop cafeteria.

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CHAPTER 26 HELPING AN INDIVIDUAL TO DEVELOP SELF-CONTROL Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: What do people mean when they talk about willpower? [Level 2/C] Is willpower a useful concept? [Level 2/C] Why or why not? [Level 4/An] A: For many people, “will power” seems to refer to some sort of a magical force within us that makes it possible to show self-restraint and refrain from behaviors that have immediate gratification (such as excessive eating), or to show an increase in behaviors (such as studying) that lead to delayed reinforcers. It does not appear to be a useful concept because the persons using it typically don’t tell us how we can get more of so-called will power.

(Other appropriate answers might also be acceptable.)

2. Q: Describe a problem of a behavioral excess in which an immediate reinforcer wins out over a delayed punisher for the behavior. [Level 2/C] A: For example, for many university students, the immediate reinforcer of fun with friends for excessive alcohol drinking wins out over the delayed punisher of a hangover. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

3. Q: Describe a problem of a behavioral excess in which an immediate reinforcer wins out over a cumulatively significant punisher for the behavior. [Level 2/C] A: For example, the immediate reinforcer of the good taste for excessive eating of junk food often wins out over the delayed punisher of weight gain that occurs only from the cumulatively significant effects of excessive eating many times. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

4. Q: Describe a problem of a behavioral excess in which an immediate reinforcer (for the problem behavior) wins out over a delayed reinforcer (for an alternative desirable behavior). [Level 2/C] A: For example, for many students, the immediate reinforcers of enjoyable scenes from spending time on Facebook win out over the delayed reinforcer of a good grade for the alternative behavior of studying. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

5. Q: Describe a problem of a behavioral deficiency that occurs because the behavior leads to immediate small punishers that win out over cumulatively significant reinforcers for the behavior. [Level 2/C] A: For example, the immediate small punishers (getting hot and sweaty and tired) from exercising often win out over reinforcers (e.g., being in good shape) that occur only after exercising many times. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

6. Q: Describe a problem of a behavioral deficiency that occurs because immediate small punishers for the behavior win out over immediate but highly improbable major punishers if the behavior does not occur. [Level 2/C] A: For example, the immediate small punishers (being hot and uncomfortable) from wearing a helmet while bicycle riding might win out of over the improbable punisher of brain injury from a serious accident. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

7. Q: Describe a problem of a behavioral deficiency that occurs because an immediate small punisher for the behavior wins out over a delayed major punisher if the behavior does not occur. [Level 2/C] A: For example, the immediate small punisher (such as the dentist’s drill hurting your teeth) for having a dentist repair you teeth often wins out over the delayed major punisher (your 107 ..

teeth fall out) if dental check-ups do not occur. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

8. Q: Describe the behavioral model of self-control. [Level 2/C] A: The model consists of doing something (emitting controlling behavior or applying techniques of behavior change) to increase the chances that you will do something else (change a behavior to be controlled, such as a problem behavior). Thus, the model involves emitting a controlling behavior to effect a change in a behavior to be controlled.

9. Q: Consider the model of self-control illustrated in Figure 26.1. In that model, what controls the controlling behavior? [Level 2/C] Discuss. [Level 4/An] A: We assume that the society in which we live teaches us various controlling behaviors such as setting goals for ourselves, giving ourselves reminders to meet those goals, and keeping track of our progress in doing so. If such controlling behaviors are successful, the natural consequences of success will maintain them.

10. Q: List the steps that Mager recommends to unfuzzify a vaguely stated problem or self-control goal. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Write out the goal; (b) make a list of the things that you should say or do that clearly indicate that you’ve met the goal; (c) given a number of people with the same goal, how would you decide who had met the goal and who hadn’t? (d) if your goal is an outcome, (rather than something that you do) such as achieving a certain weight, then make a list of specific behaviors that will help you to achieve that outcome.

11. Q: How does this book define commitment? [Level 2/C] A: Commitment refers to your statements or actions that indicate that it is important to change your behavior, that show you will work toward doing so, and that you recognize the benefits of doing so.

12. Q: Describe five steps that you could take to strengthen and maintain your commitment to a program of self-control. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Make your commitment public by reminding many people about your goal and your program; (b) arrange your environment to provide frequent reminders of your goal; (c) remind yourself often of the positive benefits of reaching your goal; (d) prepare a list of statements related to your investment of time and energy in your project, and use your statements about your investment to help maintain commitment; (e) plan ahead for various ways to deal with temptation.

13. Q: Describe two strategies for increasing the likelihood of keeping records of a problem behavior to be changed. [Level 2/C] A: Any two of the following:(a) Give your friends control over some of your reinforcers (such as your spending money) and request them to return it to you only if you take data consistently; (b) frequently tell your friends about your self-modification project and ask them if they would like to see the data;(c) keep your recording chart or graph in an obvious place to increase the likelihood of feedback from friends; and (d) frequently tell your friends about your progress.

14. Q: Give an example that illustrates how recording and graphing of a problem behavior was all that was needed to bring about improvement. [Level 3/App] A: For example, recording and graphing instances of repetitive scratching by a 52-year-old woman was sufficient to eliminate the scratching (and the unsightly lesions that occurred because of it). Any of the other cases described in the chapter are acceptable.

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15. Q: Describe how Al was inadvertently reinforced for eating numerous times throughout the day. [Level 2/C] A: Because Al ate in a wide variety of situations in which he encountered naturally reinforcing events, those natural reinforcers frequently immediately followed eating (although the relationship was accidental). For example, taking a bite of a potato chip while watching TV might be immediately followed by seeing something interesting or exciting. This might inadvertently reinforce eating of potato chips.

16. Q: List seven major classes of antecedents that you might consider when planning how to manage the situation in a self-control program. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Instructions; (b) desirable behavior modelled by others; (c) physical guidance; (d) immediate surroundings or circumstances that prompt particular desirable behaviors; (e) the presence of other people who typically behave appropriately and desirably; (f) the time of day at which desirable behavior on your part is highly probable; (g) motivating operations.

17. Q: Give an example that indicates how the manipulation of a motivating operation was an effective self-control strategy. [Level 2/C] A: For example, to decrease his donut consumption when having coffee with Mary in the campus cafeteria, Al ate a couple of carrots before going to the cafeteria. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

18. Q: Define mastery criterion, and give an example that is not in the text. [Level 2/C] A: A mastery criterion is a performance requirement for practicing a skill such that if the criterion is met, the skill has been learned. For example, a novice basketball player might practice shooting foul shots until she can make 5 in a row. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

19. Q: Give an example that illustrates how the manipulation of energy expenditure or effort needed to perform a behavior is an effective self-management strategy. [Level 3/App] Would you say that the example involved the manipulation of a motivating operation?

[Level 3/App] Why or why not? [Level 4/An] A: For example, because of the effort in locating a water fountain throughout the day, David did not consume as much water as he would like. To solve the problem, he purchased a water bottle and carried water in the bottle with him during the day. His water consumption increased. This would be a motivating operation that decreased the punishing aspects of getting water. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

20. Q: List the five steps that characterize many programs of self-control (they start on p. 265).

[Level 2/C] A: (a) Specify the problem and set goals; (b) make a commitment to change; (c) take data and analyze causes of the problem; (d) design and implement a program; and (e) prevent relapse and make your gains last.

21. Q: Describe three different strategies for manipulating consequences in self-control programs in a sentence or two for each. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Eliminate certain reinfocers that may inadvertently strengthen a particular undesirable behavior in a particular situation; (b) self-record and self-graph the target behavior; (c) arrange for specific reinforcers to be earned for showing improvement or even for just sticking to the program.

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22. Q: Describe three different ways of arranging for reinforcers to be received in a self-control program, in a sentence or two for each. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Asking others to manage them for you; (b) reminding yourself of delayed natural reinforcers that will occur if you emit the target behavior; and (c) managing reinforcers yourself.

23. Q: Is self-reinforcement an effective self-control strategy? [Level 1/K] Discuss. [Level 4/An] A: If you decide that you will apply self-reinforcement in the sense that you will emit some behavior and then allow yourself to have a reinforcer, it is always possible for you to consume the reinforcer without emitting the behavior. Because of this possibility, some researchers have questioned the effectiveness of self-reinforcement. When it does seem to be effective, it is likely that other contingencies are operating.

24. Q: What is the meaning of relapse in a self-control program? [Level 2/C] A: By relapse, in a self-control program, we mean going back to the unwanted behavior at approximately the same level it was at before the individual started the self-control program.

25. Q: Briefly describe four possible causes of relapse in situations, and indicate how each might be handled. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Failure to anticipate avoidable set-back situations where one is at risk for returning to earlier unwanted behavior patterns. The solution is to plan for such situations and to avoid them. (b) Failure to anticipate unavoidable set-back situations and to take steps to cope with them. These can be handled by anticipating such situations and preparing to deal with them in a reasonable manner. (c) Overreaction to occasional set-backs, such as quitting a self-control program altogether because of a set-back. These can be handled by treating them as occasional set-backs, setting new goals, and making a renewed commitment to stick with the program. (d) Counterproductive self-talk. This can be handled by identifying the types of self-talk that exacerbate a problem and may lead to a relapse, and planning alternative self-talk to take its place.

26. Q: Briefly describe three possible causes of relapse in the specification of the response, and indicate how each might be handled. [Level 2/C] A: (a) A fuzzy or vague target behavior. This can be handled by following the steps for “unfuzzifying” a target behavior as described in the self-control chapter. (b) Having a target behavior or goal that is too long term or delayed. This can be handled by setting up a series of short-term goals to provide progress checks toward the long-term goal. (c) Trying too much too soon. This can be handled by prioritizing one’s goals, and dealing with them in order of priority.

27. Q: Briefly describe two possible causes of relapse in consequences, and indicate how each might be handled. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Failure to incorporate everyday rewards into programs. This can be solved by linking everyday natural reinforcers to aspects of the self-management program. (b) Failing to recognize that some consequences are only cumulatively significant. These might be handled by setting specific dates for meeting with a friend to monitor progress and to identify strategies to follow if progress is unfavorable.

28. Q: What is a behavioral contract (see pp. 243, 267-268)? [Level 2/C] A: A behavioral contract is a clearly written statement of what behaviors of what individuals will produce what reinforcers, and who will deliver those reinforcers.

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29. Q: What important stimulus–control functions does a behavioral contract serve? [Level 2/C] A: The SD functions of a contract help to: (a) ensure that all parties agree on the goals and procedures; (b) ensure that all parties agree throughout the program on how close they are to the goals; (c) provide a realistic estimate of the cost of the program in terms of time, effort, and money; (d) ensure that all parties who sign the contract will faithfully follow the specified procedures.

30. Q: Is it plausible to suggest that many individuals can become their own behavior therapists?

[Level 1/K] Justify your answer. [Level 6/E] A: Yes. Many people can learn how to take data, design a program, and apply behavior modification principles and techniques to many of their own problems.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: What is correspondence training? [Level 2/C] Briefly describe how generalized correspondence was demonstrated in kindergarten children. [Level 2/C] A: Correspondence training is training that establishes a correspondence between what a person says he or she is going to do and what he or she does in fact do at a later time. It was demonstrated in kindergarten children by: (a) first teaching one group of children to play at the workbench after being prompted to say that this is what they were going to do; and (b) then showing that compared with a group that did not receive correspondence training, the group that received correspondence training showed more instances of following through on stated intentions to engage in another activity.

2. Q: With which behavior problems are self-help manuals most effective and least effective?

[Level 2/C] A: Self-help manuals have been most successful for treating poor study habits, depression, parenting skills, social skills, and overcoming anxiety and fears. Self-help manuals have been less effective for treating alcohol drinking, smoking, and overeating.

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CHAPTER 27 APPROACHES TO BEHAVIOR THERAPY; COGNITIVE RESTRUCTURING; SELF-DIRECTED COPING METHODS, AND MINDFULNESS AND ACCEPTANCE PROCEDURES Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: What are cognitive processes? [Level 2/C] A: Cognitive processes refer to covert verbalizations and/or imagery that are frequently called “believing,” “thinking,” “expecting,” or “perceiving.”

2. Q: What do the letters ABCT stand for? [Level 1/K] A: Association for Behavioral and Cognitive Therapies.

3. Q: What are the three waves or generations of behavior therapy? [Level 2/C] A: The first wave: Behavioral Approaches to Therapy The second wave: Cognitive-Behavior Therapy The third wave: Therapeutic approaches based on behavior analysis that incorporate concepts of “mindfulness,” “acceptance,” and “values” 4. Q: What are the two major assumptions of cognitive therapy? [Level 2/C] A: (a) Individuals interpret and react to events by forming cognitions (e.g., beliefs, expectations, attitudes) on the basis of the perceived significance of those events; (b) defective and maladaptive cognitions can cause emotional and behavioral disorders.

5. Q: Stated simply, what do some cognitive therapists believe to be the cause of emotional and behavioral problems, and what is the primary focus of their approach to therapy?

[Level 2/C] A: Stated simply, cognitive therapists believe that faulty thinking is the cause of emotional and behavioral problems, and thus the primary focus of the cognitive approach to therapy is to help clients recognize and change faulty thinking.

6. Q: In a sentence, what is cognitive restructuring? [Level 2/C] A: Cognitive restructuring refers to strategies for recognizing maladaptive thinking and replacing it with adaptive thinking.

7. Q: What are the three main phases of rational-emotive behavior therapy and who developed it? [Level 2/C] A: Rational-emotive therapy (developed by Ellis) involves three steps: (a) First, the therapist helps the client identify troublesome thoughts that are based on irrational beliefs, such as an individual thinking that he/she “always screws up.” (b) Second, in an argumentative and confrontational way, the therapist challenges the individual’s irrational thoughts that the therapist believes are the source of problematic self-talk. (c) Third, the client is taught to replace the irrational thoughts (through modelling and homework assignments) with statements based on rational beliefs.

8. Q: Why did Ellis change the name of his therapy from RET to REBT? [Level 2/C] A: Because he frequently gives behavioral “homework” assignments to clients.

9. Q: According to Beck, what causes problems for individuals with neuroses? [Level 2/C] Describe three examples. [Level 2/C] A: According to Beck, neurotic individuals engage excessively in aberrant, fallacious, 112 ..

dysfunctional thinking, and this is what causes their problems. Examples include dichotomous thinking, which is thinking in obsolete terms, such as assuming that one is a failure if one gets any grade less than an “A”; arbitrary inference, which is drawing a conclusion on the basis of inadequate evidence, such as misinterpreting a frown on the face of a passer-by to mean that the passer-by disapproves of him or her; overgeneralization, which is reaching a general conclusion on the basis of too few instances, such as assuming that a single failure means that one can not succeed at anything; and magnification, which is exaggerating the meaning or significance of a particular event, such as believing that it is catastrophic not to obtain something that one wants very badly. Any three appropriate examples are acceptable.

10. Q: Describe the three major components of Beck’s cognitive therapy. [Level 2/C] A: (a) To have the client identify clearly dysfunctional thoughts that are causing the problem; (b) Once the debilitating thought has been identified, to use one or more of several methods to counteract the thought and alleviate the problem. A major technique is reality checking or hypothesis testing. If, for example, a client believes that everyone he meets turns away from him in disgust, the therapist might help him to devise a system for judging other people’s facial expressions and body language so that the client can determine objectively whether or not the thoughts behind his problem are indeed accurate. (c) Beck also uses behavioral homework assignments to develop various desirable daily activities.

11. Q: Describe three similarities and three differences between the approaches of Beck and Ellis.

[Level 4/An] A: In terms of similarities, (a) both approaches assume that a client’s difficulty is caused by some type of inappropriate thought pattern, such as the client’s tendency to exaggerate unpleasant things; (b) both focus on changing a client’s irrational thinking; and (c) both use homework assignments involving some behavior modification procedures. The differences between Beck’s approach and Ellis’ RET are that (a) Beck does not emphasize the tendency for clients to exaggerate unpleasant things as much as Ellis does, (b) Beck takes a less confrontational approach than does Ellis to changing clients’ irrational beliefs; and (c) Ellis attempts to change irrational beliefs by disputing them aggressively with logical arguments, while Beck attempts to change the client’s irrational beliefs by using homework assignments to test them experimentally.

12. Q: Describe the types of homework assignments Beck uses in his cognitive therapy.

[Level 2/C] A: Beck’s homework assignments contain liberal doses of behavior modification procedures to help clients develop various desirable daily activities. For example, depressed individuals would be given homework assignments to re-establish neglected routine tasks such as showering or bathing, and bed-making.

13. Q: Briefly list the five steps of self-instructional training that Meichenbaum and others used with children. [Level 2/C] A: (a) An adult demonstrates a simple task to a child while self-instructing and self praising; (b) the child performs the simple task while the adult instructs and praises; (c) the child performs the task while self-instructing and self-praising; (d) over several trials, the child performs the task while saying the self-instructions and self-praise more and more softly;(e) the child performs the task while self-instructing and self-praising to him or herself so that the teacher can’t hear the child doing so.

14. Q: Briefly describe the three phases of Meichenbaum’s stress inoculation training.

[Level 2/C] A: (a) Reinterpretation phase – clients are taught that it is not the stressor that is the cause of their nervousness or stress reaction, but the way that they view it.

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(b) Coping training phase – clients learn a variety of appropriate coping strategies (e.g., relaxation, self-instruction, self-reinforcement). (c) Application phase – clients practice their self-talk and coping skills to stressful stimuli.

15. Q: Does self-instructional training rely largely on contingency-shaped behavior or rulegoverned behavior? [Level 23/App] Justify your choice. [Level 6/E] A: Self-instructional training relies largely on rule-governed behavior. When a child selfinstructs himself/herself for performing a task, the child is following self-stated rules.

16. Q: In a sentence each, outline the six steps of problem-solving therapy. [Level 2/C] A: (a) General orientation, in which the client is encouraged to recognize problems and to realize that it is possible to deal with them by acting systematically; (b) problem definition, in which the client is encouraged to define the problem precisely; (c) generation of alternatives, in which the client is helped to brainstorm possible solutions to the problem; (d) decision-making, in which the client is encouraged to consider the pros and cons of the various alternative solutions, and to select the best alternative; (e) implementation, in which the client devises a plan for carrying out the best solution to the problem; and (f) verification, in which the client evaluates the effectiveness of the solution and tries an alternative solution if the first attempt is not satisfactory.

17. Q: What is mindfulness as Buddhists and behavior therapists use the term? [Level 2/C] A: “Mindfulness” involves awareness, observation, and description of one’s covert and overt behaviors, as they occur, in a non-judgmental way, as well as (in some cases) observation of the antecedents and consequences of those behaviors.

18. Q: What is acceptance as cognitive behavior therapists use the term? [Level 2/C] A: “Acceptance” refers to a set of behaviors in reaction to mindfulness activities, including refraining from judging one’s sensations, thoughts, feelings, and behaviors as good or bad, pleasant or unpleasant, useful or useless, etc.

19. Q: Briefly describe the three phases of ACT. [Level 2/C] A: Three phases of ACT are: (a) use of metaphors, paradoxes, stories, and other verbal techniques by a therapist so the client learns that past attempts to control troublesome thoughts and emotions have not only been unsuccessful but have led to more of the same thoughts and emotions; (b) mindfulness training and acceptance exercises to teach the client to experience thoughts and emotions non-judgmentally (including those that are troublesome); and (c) clients are encouraged to identify values in various life domains (i.e., work, family, health) and translate these values into achievable goals and identify behaviors needed to achieve the goals (commitment).

20. Q: What are three differences between cognitive therapy and ACT? [Level 4/An] A: Three differences between Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT) and Cognitive Therapy (CT) are: (a) CT assumes that troublesome thoughts are the primary source of disturbing emotions, while ACT considers both thoughts and emotions simply as responses and assumes that both are caused by various environmental contingencies; (b) CT focuses on using cognitive restructuring to directly change troublesome thoughts, while ACT uses mindfulness and acceptance to teach clients to embrace and accept various thoughts/emotions, rather than judging them as troublesome and trying to directly change them; and (c) CT focuses on behavioral assignments to help someone overcome distorted thinking, while ACT uses behavioral assignments to build larger and larger patterns of effective action in the pursuit of valued goals.

21. Q: Briefly explain one of the assumptions of the philosophy of dialectics. [Level 2/C] A: One assumption is that opposing arguments – thesis and antithesis – lead to a new thesis 114 ..

and antithesis, and the process continues until truth is reached.

22. Q: What are two of the reasons that Linehan added the term dialectical to her approach to behavior therapy? [Level 2/C] A: (a) Because the therapeutic relationship often involves opposing views of the therapist and the client that must eventually come together. (b) The client initially has very negative views about him or herself and important others that eventually must be mindfully viewed and accepted so that the client can learn to take constructive action in spite of such views.

23. Q: 23. Briefly describe several of the therapeutic phases of DBT. [Level 2/C] A: (a) The early part of therapy focuses on helping the client express what he/she hopes to get out of therapy. (b) A client is encouraged to non-judgmentally observe and describe his/her overt and covert behaviors, especially those that are potentially harmful to the client or others, or that might interfere with treatment. During therapy, the client learns to identify, label, and accept various troubling emotions and thoughts. (c) Interpersonal skills are eventually targeted so that clients learn to say no, ask for what they need, and appropriately interact with others in their lives. (d) After clients have learned to accept aspects of their lives without distortion, judgment, or evaluation, then they are much more likely to be able to learn to follow specific behavioral strategies for achieving their therapeutic goals.

24. Q: Give an example that illustrates how a person’s self-statements (operant thinking) can function as CSs to elicit the respondent components of an emotion. (You might want to review Chapter 15.) [Level 3/App] A: Any appropriate example, such as a person thinking, “If I win a million dollar lottery, I will buy a condo on the ocean in Florida,” which causes the respondent components of excitement such as increased heart rate, etc.

25. Q: Give an example that illustrates how a person’s self-statements might exert rule-governed control over that person’s behavior. (You might want to review Chapter 17.) [Level 3/App] A: For example, when deciding what to have for dinner, a person might say to himself, “I haven’t had pasta for awhile. I think I’ll go to the Italian restaurant just down the street.”

That rule might influence the person to go to the Italian restaurant. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

26. Q: Give an example that illustrates how cognitive therapists capitalize on rule-governed behavior to help their clients. [Level 3/App] A: Suppose that a client frequently makes such irrational statements as “I can’t do anything right.” A therapist might teach such a client to rehearse rules such as “I do some things quite well. I make an excellent spaghetti sauce and I will do so tonight,” etc. If the client follows these latter rules, doing so will likely be reinforced in the natural environment and the experience may counteract the prior irrational self-talk. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

27. Q: From a behavioral point of view, summarize why cognitive restructuring techniques might be effective. [Level 5/S] A: Some cases of cognitive restructuring might be effective because the therapist teaches the client to rehearse rules that identify specific behaviors that are likely to be maintained in the natural environment. Cases of cognitive restructuring are likely to be ineffective if the rules provided by the therapist do not identify specific behaviors that lead to environmental consequences, or if the client is deficient in the behaviors specified by the rules.

28. Q: What is one explanation of why both self-instruction and problem-solving training might 115 ..

be effective therapeutic techniques? [Level 2/C] A: Self-instruction and problem solving training might be effective because they teach the client to emit rule-governed behavior that leads to effective consequences.

29. Q: Briefly describe three behavioral explanations that might explain why mindfulness and acceptance-based procedures are therapeutic. [Level 2/C] A: Mindfulness and acceptance procedures might be effective because: (a) non-judgmentally observing ongoing sensations displaced the behavior of irrational thinking and the negative emotions elicited by it; (b) when a client can accept the sensations characteristic of troublesome thoughts and emotions as experiences to be embraced, then exposure to natural contingencies is more likely to modify the behavior characteristic of troublesome thoughts and emotions; and (c) once the sensations characteristic of troublesome thoughts and emotions are accepted as simply responses, then the client may be more amenable to the identification of various life values, the articulation of goals or rules that represent those values, and the commitment to specific behavior to achieve those goals.

30. Q: Discuss whether reputable behavior modifiers deny the existence and importance of thoughts and feelings. [Level 4/An] A: They do not. They recognize that people engage in private verbal behavior (i.e., they talk silently to themselves), they experience imagery (i.e., covert seeing and other types of overt sensing), and they experience feelings (the respondent component of emotions). They also recognize that such covert behavior often influences overt behavior, as for example, when a person solves a problem by privately verbalizing and imagining certain aspects of the problem.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1.Q: With an example, illustrate the bidirectionality aspect of relational framing. [Level 3/App] A: Relational frames exhibit bi-directionality (or mutual entailment). It is involved in all relational frames (i.e., smaller than and bigger than, slower than and faster than, duller than and brighter than, etc.). For example, if you know that two nickels equals one dime, you also know that one dime equals two nickels.

2. Q: With an example, illustrate the combinatorial entailment aspect of relational framing.

[Level 3/App] A: Relational frames show combinatorial entailment. For example, if a child learns that two is larger than one and three is larger than two, he will also know that three is larger than one.

3. Q: With an example, illustrate how relational framing involves transformation of stimulus functions among related stimuli. [Level 3/App] A: Relational frames display transformation of stimulus function. That is, if a child learns the equivalence class for bear (i.e., knows the spoken word “bear,” the written word “bear,” and an actual bear), and then witnesses a bear in the woods and is frightened, the spoken word and written word “bear” will then elicit fear in the child.

4. Q: Briefly describe the three steps that a therapist might follow in teaching a client to use thought-stopping to terminate distressing thoughts. [Level 2/C] A: The basic steps are: (a) the therapist instructs the client to think a particular thought and then suddenly yells, “Stop!”; (b) the client is then taught to yell “Stop!” while thinking a particular thought; (c) over trials, the self-instruction (by the client), “Stop!” is faded to the private level so that eventually silently yelling “Stop!” will cause the thoughts to cease.

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CHAPTER 28 PSYCHOLOGICAL DISORDERS TREATED BY BEHAVIORAL AND COGNITIVE BEHAVIORAL THERAPIES Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: What are empirically supported therapies (ESTs)? [Level 2/C] A: Empirically supported therapies (ESTs) are therapies that have been proven to be effective in scientifically conducted clinical trials.

2. Q: Why do empirically supported therapies often turn out to be behavioral or cognitive behavioral therapies? [Level 2/C] A: ESTs typically are behavioral or cognitive-behavioral treatments because the behavioral approach emphasizes basing treatments on well-established principles, measuring the outcomes of treatments in objectively-defined behaviors, and altering treatments that are not producing satisfactory results.

3. Q: What is a specific phobia? [Level 1/K] A: A specific phobia is an intense, irrational, incapacitating fear of a stimulus class.

4. Q: List three classes of specific phobias, and give two examples of each. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Animal type (e.g., fear of spiders, birds); (b) situational type (e.g., fear of small spaces, going outside of one’s home); and (c) natural environment type (e.g., fear of floods, thunder).

Other types are acceptable.

5. Q: What is a fear hierarchy? [Level 2/C] A: A fear hierarchy is a list of fear-eliciting stimuli arranged in order from the least-to-themost fear-eliciting.

6. Q: Define systematic desensitization. [Level 2/C] A: Systematic desensitization is a procedure for overcoming a phobia by having a client in a relaxed state successively imagine the items in a fear hierarchy.

7. Q: Using an example, briefly describe the three phases of systematic desensitization of a specific phobia. [Level 2/C] A: Systematic desensitization for arachnophobia (fear of spiders): (1) therapist helps individual to develop a fear hierarchy, of 10-25 stimuli related to the feared stimulus that are ordered from least feared to most feared (e.g., from being outside to actually seeing a spider); (2) client learns deep muscle relaxation: tension-relaxation applied to muscles of all areas of the body that allows the individual to be able to relax deeply in minutes (after several training sessions); (3) actual therapy: the client relaxes and imagines the least fearinducing scene on the list (being outside), then relaxes for 15-30 seconds. This continues from least-to-most fear-inducing scenes on the list unless the client experiences anxiety, then the therapist returns to the previous scene. By the last scene (seeing an actual spider), the client should be able to encounter a spider without distress.

8. Q: Describe the fundamental difference between flooding and systematic desensitization.

[Level 2/C] A: The model for systematic desensitization is counterconditioning, establishing a relaxation response to the feared stimuli, whereas the model for flooding is extinction. With flooding, the assumption is that if an individual is exposed to the feared stimuli and is not allowed to 117 ..

escape from them, and no aversive event follows, then the fear response to the stimuli will extinguish.

9. Q: Briefly illustrate an example of how in vivo flooding might be used to treat a specific phobia. [Level 3/App] A: In vivo flooding may be used to treat agoraphobia by placing a person in a crowd where he or she will be safe and should not incur any aversive stimuli. The individual’s fear will be elicited at full intensity and when nothing bad happens, his or her fear will hopefully decrease or extinguish. Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

10. Q: Briefly illustrate an example of how participant modeling might be used to treat a specific phobia. [Level 3/App] A: Participant modelling may be used to treat arachnophobia by the therapist modelling an approach to the feared stimulus (spider). The modelling may occur in a graded fashion. For example, the therapist models approaching a spider in a cage, then places it closer to the client, then removes the spider and holds it near the client and eventually asks the client to touch or hold it. At each step the client is praised for modelling the therapist. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

11. Q: What is the defining characteristic of exposure-based therapies? [Level 2/C] Give an example of a nonexposure therapy? [Level 3/App] A: A defining characteristic of exposure-based therapies is that they involve exposure—either in imagination or in vivo—of the client to the feared stimulus or stimuli. Cognitive therapy (i.e. helping a client to overcome irrational thinking that is thought to cause problems) would be an example of a non-exposure based therapy. ACT, another non-exposure therapy, has also been used in the treatment of specific phobias.

12. Q: List and briefly describe four types of anxiety disorder. [Level 2/C] A: Any four of the following: (a) Specific phobia: a persistent, irrational fear of a circumscribed stimulus or stimuli organized around some theme, such as fear of heights. (b) Panic Disorder: attacks that may include heart rate abnormalities, sweating, trembling, shortness of breath (smothered feeling), choking feeling, chest pain, nausea, dizziness, feeling of unreality, numbness or tingling, chills/hot flashes, fear of going crazy, losing control or fear of dying. These attacks seem to come “out of the blue.” (c) Agoraphobia: which literally means fear of the marketplace, and is an intense fear of going out in public or leaving the confines of one’s home. (d) Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD): constant worry and feeling anxious over things that most people consider trivial, unimportant, or unlikely.

Individuals are so consumed by anxiety that it interferes with normal functioning, often including inability to sleep at night. (e) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD): unwanted, intrusive thoughts (obsessions) or feeling impelled to engage in repetitive, unproductive behaviors (compulsions). The obsessive thoughts and compulsions tend to go together. For example, obsessive thoughts about germs are relieved by compulsive hand-washing. (f) Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD): Impaired functioning due to an attempt to avoid thinking about a traumatic event or events (e.g., accident, sexual abuse, etc.) and avoidance of stimuli that are reminders of the event(s).

13. Q: Briefly describe an effective treatment for panic disorder with agoraphobia. [Level 2/C] A: An effective treatment for panic disorder with agoraphobia typically includes a behavioral component involving exposure to feared situations, and a cognitive component to help change the client’s misconceptions about panic attacks.

14. Q: What is the distinction between obsessions and compulsions, and how might they be related? [Level 4/An] A: The distinction between obsessions and compulsions is that obsessions are repetitive 118 ..

thoughts which tends to evoke anxiety and compulsions are repetitive overt actions that tend to reduce anxiety. Obsessions and compulsions tend to go together in that obsessions seem to cause anxiety that can only be reduced by engaging in compulsive behavior.

15. Q: Briefly describe an effective treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder. [Level 2/C] A: An effective treatment for obsessive compulsive disorder is in vivo exposure and response prevention (the client is encouraged to engage in a behavior that leads to an obsession, while the compulsive behavior is prevented). For example, an obsession about leaving the stove on when leaving the house is evoked and the individual is allowed to only check once before leaving.

16. Q: Briefly describe, with reference to an example, how cognitive therapy might be used in the treatment of an obsessive-compulsive disorder. [Level 2/C] A: Cognitive therapy can be used in treating obsessive compulsive disorder by changing an individual’s self-statements. For example, if someone has obsessive thoughts about turning off the stove every time they leave the house, they may tell themselves, “The stove is off, I didn’t even use it today.” Any appropriate example is acceptable.

17. Q: Briefly describe, with reference to an example, how acceptance procedures might be used in the treatment of an obsessive-compulsive disorder. [Level 2/C] A: Acceptance procedures may also be used in the treatment of obsessive-compulsive behavior by helping an individual to accept that thoughts are not controllers of behavior. The individual may learn to think of thoughts such as worrying about germs as “mental garbage” which has no bearing on how clean they are or their worth as a person. Any appropriate example is acceptable.

18. Q: In several sentences, describe an effective treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder.

[Level 2/C] A: An effective treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder is long-term vicarious exposure to the event or events that caused the problem. This may be done through imagination, talking about the event with a therapist, or writing about it. This way, the emotions elicited by the stimuli related to the trauma will extinguish and the debilitating attempts to avoid those stimuli will decrease.

19. Q: Briefly describe the behavioral characteristics of clinical depression. [Level 2/C] A: For individuals suffering from clinical depression, their appetite is usually reduced, they experience decreased energy and increased fatigue, and they report an impaired ability to think, concentrate, or make decisions, and they often experience a sense of worthlessness or guilt.

20. Q: What is the behavioral theory of depression referred to as behavioral activation?

[Level 2/C] In a sentence, state what is behavioral activation treatment for depression designed to do? [Level 2/C] A: The behavioral theory of depression referred to as behavioral activation states that “individuals become depressed when there is an imbalance of punishment to positive reinforcement in their lives.” Behavioral activation treatment of depression is designed to block avoidance behaviors that prevent the individual from coming into contact with reinforcers, and to encourage the client to engage in activities identified as reinforcing in a functional analysis.

21. Q: What are the components of Sobell and Sobell’s program for problem drinkers.

[Level 2/C] A: The Sobell and Sobell program teaches problem drinkers to use goal-setting to drink in moderation, to control “triggers” for drinking, to learn problem-solving skills to avoid high 119 ..

risk situations, to engage in self-monitoring to detect controlling cues and maintaining consequences of drinking behaviors, and to practice all of the above with various homework assignments.

22. Q: Briefly describe four components of a behavioral treatment for alcohol dependency.

[Level 2/C] A: (a) A motivational interview, in which the therapist asks the client questions about the problem, the answers to which act as motivational establishing operations for change; (b) coping skills training to teach clients to deal with stressors that are thought to cause excessive alcohol consumption; (c) contingency contracting to provide reinforcers for work, social, and recreational activities that do not involve alcohol; and (d) strategies to prevent relapse.

23. Q: Briefly describe four types of eating disorders. [Level 2/C] For which has behavior therapy been most effective? [Level 2/C] A: Four types of eating disorder include: (a) bulimia nervosa, in which the client is malnourished, obsessed with being thin, and engages in frequent binges followed by purging or taking laxatives; (b) anorexia nervosa, in which the client rarely eats or eats very little; (c) binge eating disorder in which the client binges but may be normal weight or greater than normal weight; and (d) obesity, in which the client is sufficiently overweight to cause a health risk. Behavioral therapy has been most effective for obese clients in weight reduction (whether they binge or not). Bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa have proven to be very resistant to treatment.

24. Q: List and briefly describe four behavioral strategies for treating obesity? [Level 2/C] A: (a) Self-monitoring of foods eaten, daily caloric intake, and body weight; (b) stimulus control of eating by restricting eating to specific locations; (c) reducing eating rate by applying one or more procedures; (d) signing behavioral contracts in which clients agree to lose a certain amount of weight in order to obtain positive consequences and/or avoid negative consequences.

25. Q: List and briefly describe four components of behavioral couples therapy. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Instigation of positive exchanges in which each spouse increases behaviors that are pleasing to the other partner; (b) communication training to help couples express to each other what they like and don’t like; (c) problem-solving training to help spouses identify and solve problems in their relationship; and (d) programming for generality of treatment by having clients monitor critical aspects of their relationship, and encouraging clients to continue using problem-solving and other techniques.

26. Q: Describe a general behavioral approach to the treatment of sexual dysfunction.

[Level 2/C] A: On the assumption that anxiety is an important factor in many cases of sexual dysfunction, behavioral treatment usually involves exposure programs in which couples engage in pleasurable stimulation of each other in a relaxing atmosphere without expectation of, or pressure to, engage in intercourse. Both partners shift the goal from performance to that of experiencing pleasure.

27. Q: Describe the three components of habit reversal used to treat a habit disorder.

[Level 2/C] A: (a) The client learns to describe and identify the problem behavior; (b) the client learns and practices a behavior that is incompatible with or competes with the problem behavior; (c) for motivation, the client reviews the inconvenience of the problem behavior, and has a family member provide reinforcement for engaging in treatment.

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Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: What are two criticisms of the current emphasis on ESTs? [Level 4/An] A: For treatments to be well-established, they must meet the following criteria: (a) at least two well-controlled studies with random assignment of participants demonstrating that the treatment is better than a pill or psychological placebo (either a therapeutically ineffective pill or a psychological procedure) or is equivalent to an existing established treatment; (b) the treatment is described precisely in a manual; (c) client characteristics in the research were clearly specified; and (d) research was conducted in at least two independent research settings.

2. Q: What is virtual reality therapy? [Level 2/C] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: Virtual reality therapy consists of a method for presenting fear-producing stimuli through computer-generated virtual reality technology in which clients wear a head-mounted display that provides a computer-generated view of a virtual reality environment. This technology makes it possible to present fear-producing stimuli in therapy that are difficult to arrange for in-vivo exposure to them, such as violent thunderstorms.

3. Q: In applications of CM approaches to nicotine and opiate addictions, how is substance-use measured? [Level 2/C] A: Analysis of CO levels in the breath is used as a measure of whether an individual has refrained from smoking. Urine samples are used to measure abstinence from opiate drugs.

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CHAPTER 29 GIVING IT ALL SOME PERSPECTIVE: A BRIEF HISTORY Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: Describe how Pavlov demonstrated Pavlovian conditioning with dogs. [Level 2/C] A: Pavlov paired a bell with food presented to a dog several times, and each time the food caused the dog to salivate. After several pairings, the presentation of the bell by itself caused the dog to salivate.

2. Q: What are two other names for Pavlovian conditioning? [Level 1/K] A: Respondent conditioning, classical conditioning.

3. Q: Describe how Watson and Rayner demonstrated Pavlovian conditioning of a fear response in an 11-month-old infant. [Level 2/C] A: Watson and Rayner first demonstrated that the presentation of a white rat to the child did not cause fear. Then after several pairings of the white rat with a loud noise which caused the infant to shown signs of fear, the child then exhibited fear to the rat when presented by itself.

4. Q: How did Joseph Wolpe extend the principle of reciprocal inhibition? [Level 2/C] A: Wolpe extended the principle of reciprocal inhibition by postulating that if a response that is incompatible with a learned fear or anxiety can be made to occur to a stimulus that had been conditioned to produce that fear, then that stimulus would cease to elicit the fear reaction.

5. Q: What did Wolpe call his procedure for using relaxation to inhibit a learned fear?

[Level 1/K] A: Systematic desensitization.

6. Q: What role did Hans Eysenck play in the development of behavior therapy in the 1950s?

[Level 2/C] A: He criticized traditional Freudian psychoanalytic treatment procedures, and advocated behavior therapy procedures as an alternative. In addition, he helped popularize Wolpe’s work in a book of readings entitled Behavior Therapy and Neuroses.

7. Q: What is operant conditioning? [Level 2/C] A: Operant conditioning is a type of learning in which behavior is modified by its consequences.

8. Q: In what way was the Keller and Schoenfeld book Principles of Psychology unlike other introductory psychology texts of its day? [Level 2/C] A: Their text differed from other introductory psychology texts in that it discussed traditional topics in psychology, such as motivation and emotion, in terms of operant and respondent conditioning principles.

9. Q: How did Skinner’s Science and Human Behavior influence the initial development of behavior modification? [Level 2/C] A: In 1953, Skinner published Science and Human Behavior. Although there was very little supporting data for Skinner’s generalizations to humans, his interpretation influenced others to begin examining the effects of reinforcement variables on human behavior in a number of experimental and applied settings. The results of these efforts led to the development of the operant approach to behavior modification.

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10. Q: Many of the early reports in the operant tradition in the 1950s were straightforward experiments that demonstrated that consequences influence human behavior. Briefly, describe two such experiments. [Level 2/C] A: Fuller demonstrated that a bed-ridden, profoundly developmentally disabled adult could be taught to raise his right arm to a vertical position when arm movements were appropriately shaped, using a sugar-milk solution as the reinforcer. Greenspoon demonstrated that simple verbal consequences could influence college students to say certain types of words.

Other appropriate examples are also acceptable.

11. Q: Briefly describe one of the first published reports (a very influential one) that concerned practical applications within the operant tradition. [Level 2/C] A: One such report was that by Ayllon and Michael, which demonstrated that staff in a mental institution could utilize reinforcement procedures to modify such patient behaviors as delusional talk, refusals to eat, and various disruptive behaviors.

12. Q: The publications of the early 1960s within the operant orientation seem to have been characterized by two features. What were they? [Level 2/C] A: (a) Much of it was done with very resistant populations (such as severely developmentally disabled persons) that had not received a great deal of successful input from traditional psychology. (b) Many of the applications took place in institutional or highly controlled settings.

13. Q: Was the influential book Case Studies in Behavior Modification strictly within the operant orientation? [Level 1/K] Why or why not? [Level 2/C] A: No. It also included many studies and discussions of Pavlovian-Hullian orientation.

14. Q: Distinguish between the behavioral model and the medical model of abnormal behavior.

[Level 4/An] A: The behavioral model of abnormal behavior suggests that abnormal behavior is a function of specifiable environmental causes, and that it is possible to rearrange the environment so that the behavior can be changed or impro. The medical model of abnormal behavior considers abnormal behavior as a symptom of an underlying disturbance in a personality mechanism, with the implication that one must treat the underlying personality disturbance through Freudian psychoanalysis, rather than treating the observed symptoms by rearranging the environment.

15. Q: What is another name for the operant orientation? [Level 1/K] A: Applied behavior analysis.

16. Q: What are the names of two major behavior modification/behavior therapy journals first published in the 1960s (see Table 29.1)? [Level 1/K] A: Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis, Behavior Research and Therapy.

17. Q: What does the term cognitive processes mean? [Level 2/C] A: Cognitive processes refer to things that we say to ourselves or imagine, which are frequently called, “believing,” “thinking,” and “expecting.”

18. Q: Briefly, how did cognitive therapists Ellis and Beck explain emotional problems, and how did they propose to treat them? [Level 2/C] A: They believed that faulty cognitive processes (i.e. faulty thinking) causes emotional and behavioral problems. Their approaches to therapy focused on helping clients recognize and change faulty thinking.

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19. Q: What is a major emphasis of social learning theory, and who was its most influential proponent? [Level 2/C] A: Social learning theory placed great emphasis on the social contexts in which behavior is acquired and maintained. Its most influential proponent was Albert Bandura (although he has renamed it social cognitive theory).

20. Q: Who first used the term behavior therapy and in what context? [Level 2/C] A: Lindsley, Skinner, and Soloman were the first to use the term behavior therapy, and they did so in a report describing some research in which psychotic patients in a mental hospital were reinforced with candy or cigarettes for pulling a plunger.

21. Q: Describe four differences in the usage of the terms behavior therapy/cognitive behavior modification versus behavior modification during the 1960s and 1970s (Table 29.2).

[Level 5/S] A: See Table 29-2.

22. Q: In a sentence for each, distinguish between the terms cognitive behavior therapy, applied behavior analysis, and behavior modification as they tend to be used today. [Level 4/An] A: Cognitive behavior therapy is behavior modification carried out on dysfunctional behavior, generally in a clinical setting. Applied behavior analysis emphasizes the application of operant conditioning principles in which there is often an attempt to analyze or clearly demonstrate controlling variables of the behavior of concern. Behavior modification is a broader term that includes both cognitive behavior therapy and applied behavior analysis.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: How did Aristotle’s view of the soul differ from that of Plato’s? [Level 2/C] A: Plato viewed the soul as the source of behavior; he called it the “psyche,” and he believed it was separate from the body and continues after we die. His student, Aristotle, differed in that he thought the soul was simply a “form” of functioning of the body (including behavior). Plato’s view had a greater influence on Western European theologians and philosophers.

2. Q: Briefly state a contribution each of the following made to the behavioral approach: [Level 2/C] a. Descartes b. the British empiricists c. the Russian reflexologists d. the functionalists A: (a) Descartes was the first to articulate a clear distinction between the body and the soul.

He described the body as a machine operating on the basis of reflexes and guidance from a soul comprised of an immaterial, non-spatially extended substance. (b) The British Associationists replaced the word “soul” with the more scientific word “mind,” which came from an Old English word pertaining to memory or thought. (c) The Russian Reflexologists performed experiments on establishing new reflexes (“association reflexes” [Bechterev] or “conditional reflexes” [Pavlov]). They based their ideas on Descartes’ concept of reflexes.

Their basic ideas were later incorporated into the behavioral approach. (d) The Functionalists (William James) based their theory on Darwin’s theory of evolution and advocated studying the mind’s role in the adaptation of the individual to its environment.

They studied both animal and human learning.

3. Q: Name three countries that were important in the development of behavior modification in the 1950s and the person most associated with this development in each of these countries. [Level 2/C] A: South Africa; Joseph Wolpe; England: Hans Eysenck; United States: B. F. Skinner.

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4. Q: Cite three of Skinner’s contributions other than his basic research and theoretical writings. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Wrote a Utopian novel; (b) Worked on a project to teach pigeons to guide missiles during the Second World War; and (c) Developed the concept of programmed instruction and teaching machines.

5. Q: In what Latin American country did Keller accept an academic position in 1961, and what contribution did he make to behavior modification while there? [Level 2/C] A: Brazil. While there, Keller established the first operant conditioning course, worked with Brazilian colleagues to develop PSI, and contributed to the development of behavior modification.

6. Q: To which of the two major orientations did Hull and his followers Dollard and Miller mainly contribute, and briefly what were their contributions? [Level 2/C] A: Hull developed a learning theory that meshed together operant and respondent conditioning into a theory that did not distinguish between the two types of conditioning.

Dollard and Miller translated Freudian psychodynamic concepts into the language of Hull’s learning theory. Their book had an influence in the early days of behavior modification, but mostly in the respondent and Wolpean orientation.

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CHAPTER 30 ETHICAL ISSUES Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Learning 1. Q: Describe in behavioral terms how the history of civilization is a story of the continuous abuse of power. [Level 5/S] From your knowledge of history or current events, give an example of this abuse. [Level 3/App] A: Throughout the ages, various groups have used the reinforcers and punishers at their disposal to control the behavior of less powerful groups (groups who had fewer reinforcers and punishers to deliver, or who lacked the means to deliver them contingent on selected target behaviors). Examples might include the subjugation or exploitation of one nation by another, U.S. and Soviet imperialism as in Vietnam and Eastern Europe, and the exploitation of one group by another within a nation (e.g., exploitation of slaves by masters).

Any appropriate example is acceptable.

2. Q: From your knowledge of history or current events, give an example of what often happens when the reinforcements occurring to one group in a society fall below a certain critical level relative to the reinforcements occurring to another group in that society. [Level 5/S] A: Any appropriate example in which a group with fewer reinforcers revolted against a group controlling more reinforcers, or undertook other action to bring about a more equal distribution of the reinforcers. Examples might include national revolutions, the labor movement, strikes, black power, red power, Chicano power, women’s liberation, gay liberation, and the French separatist movement in Canada.

3. Q: From a behavioral point of view, how might we account for constitutions, bills of rights, and related political documents of modern states? [Level 4/An] A: Political documents can be seen as formal specifications of contingencies designed to control the behavior of those who control the behavior of others.

4. Q: Explain why we tend to react negatively to all overt attempts to control our behavior.

[Level 2/C] A: Because of a cultural history in which power has often been abused and because of our personal experiences with people who have abused their power (i.e., used it for their own benefit and to the disadvantage of those over whom they exerted control).

5. Q: Why and how do people who would control our behavior disguise their aims? [Level 5/S] Give an example of this that is not in the text. [Level 3/App] A: They disguise their aims by making it appear that they are not controlling our behavior, because if their aims were too obvious, people would strongly resist them. An example that is not in the text might be a politician pretending that he or she is not interested in becoming president or prime minister, while at the same time doing things to help make this happen. Other plausible examples are also acceptable.

6. Q: State two propositions on which behavior modification is based. [Level 2/C] A: (a) Behavior can be controlled; and (b) it is desirable to do so in order to achieve certain objectives.

7. Q: Why is extreme wariness a healthy reaction to any new development in science or technology? [Level 4/An] Discuss an example of this. [Level 4/An] A: Extreme wariness can lead people to take appropriate precautions to prevent a new technology from “getting out of hand” and being abused. Students may give any example in which technology has “gotten out of hand” because people did not take appropriate 126 ..

precautions when it was first developed, or may be on the verge of “getting out of hand.”

8. Q: From a behavioral point of view, what does the term ethics mean? [Level 2/C] A: From a behavioral point of view, the term “ethics” refers to certain standards of behavior that are developed by a culture and promote the survival of that culture.

9. Q: Describe how ethics has evolved as a part of our culture. [Level 3/App] A: Within a culture, certain ways of behaving evolved that were accepted and reinforced, whereas other ways of behaving evolved that were not accepted and/or were punished. For example, many cultures evolved that reinforced non-stealing behavior and punished stealing. Presumably, cultures in which honest behavior toward material possessions was not reinforced and stealing not punished tended not to survive. This may have been for many reasons. Whatever the reasons, many cultures consider non-stealing to be ethical or right, and stealing unethical or wrong. Other behavioral practices (ethics) presumably evolved similarly.

10. Q: In a sentence explain when, from a behavioral point of view, ethical guidelines represent an important source of behavioral control. [Level 2/C] A: Ethical guidelines are an important source of behavioral control when immediate reinforcers influence an individual to behave in a way that leads to aversive stimuli for others.

11. Q: Using an example, explain how ethical guidelines involve rule-governed control over behavior. [Level 2/C] A: Consider the ethical guideline “Thou shalt not steal.” That guideline might imply a rule specifying legal contingencies (e.g., “If you steal another’s possessions, you will be fined or sent to jail.”), and sometimes that guideline implies a rule based on religious beliefs (e.g., “If you steal, you will go to hell, rather than heaven, when you die.”). In either instance, the guideline is likely to exert rule-governed control over behavior (and minimize stealing).

Other appropriate examples are acceptable.

12. Q: Explain why all helping professions are involved in the control of behavior whether or not their practitioners realize it. [Level 2/C] Give an example. [Level 2/C] A: All social help professions are involved in helping people solve their problems and/or improve themselves. This necessarily implies changing their behavior, which means “controlling” behavior. An example might be teaching someone to read, which requires bringing that person’s behavior under the appropriate control of printed or written words.

Any other appropriate example is acceptable.

13. Q: Discuss the relative merits of planning versus not planning for behavior change.

[Level 4/An] A: Unless one is lazy or is interested in “spontaneity” for its own sake, there seems to be little merit in not planning for behavior change. On the other hand, one is much more likely to achieve desirable behavior changes if one plans for them. Conversely, lack of planning may result in the introduction of contingencies that produce undesirable behavior.

14. Q: Discuss countercontrol. [Level 4/An] Why is it important? [Level 6/E] A: Countercontrol is the reciprocal of control. It is the influence that the controllee has on the controller by virtue of access to suitable reinforcers. For example, in a therapeutic relationship, countercontrol would refer to the amount of control that the client can exert over the therapist (such as by direct social contact, by withholding fee for service, or by some other means). It is important because it is one way of ensuring ethical behavior on the part of the therapist or the controller in a given situation.

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15. Q: What was a primary conclusion of the comprehensive report by Stolz qnd Associates on the ethical issues involved in behavior modification? [Level 2/C] A: That persons engaged in any type of psychological intervention should subscribe to and follow the ethical codes and standards of their profession.

16. Q: What steps can be taken to help ensure that an applied behavior analyst or behavior therapist is appropriately qualified? [Level 2/C] A: The client should ensure that the behavior modifier describes clearly his or her credentials, and that he or she is a member of the local state, or provincial Psychological Association.

Clients might also check to see if the behavior modifier is a member of ABAI or ABCT (although these associations do not assess a behavior modifier’s competencies), or if the behavior modifier is certified by the Behavior Analysis Certification Board, or the American Board of Behavioral Psychology.

17. Q: State two countercontrol measures regarding the definition of problems and selection of goals. [Level 2/C] A: (a) The client can require the behavior modifier to clearly specify his or her values relating to the client’s problems. (b) The client should be an active participant in the selection of goals and identification of target behaviors (or have a competent impartial third party to do so).

18. Q: In a sentence, what should be the characteristics of the intervention methods used by behavior modifiers? [Level 2/C] A: Behavior analysts should use the most effective, empirically validated interventions with the least discomfort and fewest negative side effects.

19. Q: Discuss three possible meanings of intrusive and restrictive interventions. [Level 4/An] A: (a) Interventions based on positive reinforcement are considered to be less intrusive than interventions based on aversive control. (b) Interventions where clients are given choices and allowed freedom of movement in a therapeutic environment are considered less intrusive and restrictive than interventions where there are fewer choices or less freedom of movement. (c) Interventions that capitalize on natural reinforcers are generally considered to be less intrusive and restrictive than those that capitalize on contrived or deliberatelyprogrammed reinforcers.

20. Q: Describe a mechanism to facilitate informed consent. [Level 2/C] A: A mechanism to facilitate informed consent is the signing of a client-therapist contract that clearly outlines the objectives and methods of treatment, the framework for the service to be provided, and the contingencies of remuneration that may be forthcoming to the therapist.

21.Q: What constitutes the cornerstone for ensuring ethical and effective treatment programs by behavior modifers? [Level 2/C] A: (a) Defining problems in terms of behavior that can be measured in some way; (b) using changes in the behavioral measure of the problem as the best indicator of the extent to which the problem is being helped; (c) sharing the data (from a and b) with all concerned parties and with periodic peer evaluations.

22. Q: Briefly explain why it should be difficult to use behavior modification to the detriment of any group whose members are well versed in the principles and tactics of behavior modification. [Level 2/C] A: A group of people who are well-versed in the principles and tactics of behavior modification can recognize when behavior modification is being used to their disadvantage, and can take appropriate countermeasures, such as using behavior modification against their 128 ..

controllers.

Answers to [and Levels of] Questions for Further Learning 1. Q: Discuss Skinner’s view that we must go “beyond freedom and dignity” if civilization is to solve some of its most difficult problems. [Level 4/An] A: Skinner argued that in the 18th century, the concept of freedom was a valuable rallying cry to spur people to break away from aversive forms of control used by dictators and tyrants.

However, the concept of freedom may prevent us from seeing how our behavior is controlled by positive reinforcement. It may also influence us to give undue credit (more “dignity”) to those who are successful and to attribute undue blame to those who aren’t (given the assumption that we are all free to be masters of our own destiny), rather than recognizing that one’s achievements or failures are due to one’s conditioning history and genetic predispositions. Thus, we must go “beyond freedom and dignity” to recognize that we are all products of our environments.

2. Q: Give an example illustrating how governments use positive reinforcement to control behavior without citizens feeling that they are being controlled. [Level 3/App] A: Most people who happily buy tickets in a government-run lottery feel that they are “free” to do so, and they fail to recognize that their behavior is being controlled to the same extent as it would be if they were being “forced” to pay the same amount in taxes. It’s just that in one case the control is through positive reinforcement and in the other it is through aversive control.

3. Q: Discuss Prilleltensky’s approach for how psychologists can best help their clients.

[Level 4/An] A: Prilleltensky argued that psychologists can best help their clients by focusing on three levels: (a) the presenting problem of the client; (b) how to influence members of the community with whom the client interacts; and (c) the political level that consists of the laws and regulations that affect the client. He argues that focusing on all three levels will help the client function more fully in society.

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Part III Option-Based Questions

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OPTION-BASED QUESTIONS Chapter 1. Introduction Multiple Choice Questions On Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. A behavioral deficit is: * a) too little of a particular type of behavior b) too much of a particular type of behavior c) an appropriate behavior occurring to the wrong stimulus d) an appropriate behavior occurring at the wrong time or place Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual 2. A behavioral excess is: * a) too much of a particular type of behavior b) too little of a particular type of behavior c) an appropriate behavior occurring to the wrong stimulus d) an appropriate behavior occurring at the wrong time or place Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual 3. Which of the following is an example of behavior? a) hair color b) the color of someone’s eyes c) the clothes someone is wearing *d) dressing in the morning Difficulty: Medium

Type: Factual 4. In behavior modification, motivation and intelligence refer to: a) inner mental processes * b) ways of behaving c) causes of behavior d) major sources of abnormality Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual 5. In behavior modification, the term “environment” refers to: a) the neighborhood in which a person is raised b) the natural habitat of an organism * c) the specific physical variables in one’s immediate surroundings d) the general situation where one happens to be Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual 6. A child does not pronounce words clearly and does not interact with other children.

These are examples of: a) behavioral excesses b) behavioral abnormalities * c) behavioral deficits d) behavioral characteristics Difficulty: Medium

Type: Conceptual 7. Behavior modifiers stress the importance of defining problems in terms of specific behavioral deficits or behavioral excesses because: a) therapists can then focus on the individual’s problem behaviors rather than on his or her strengths * b) it is behavior that causes concern, and there are specific procedures now available to change behavior 131 ..

c) labeling an individual implies that a particular treatment program will be helpful d) labeling an individual is useful for quickly providing general information about how that individual might perform Difficulty: Hard

Type: Applied 8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of behavior modification? a) It defines problems in terms of behavior. b) Its treatment procedures and techniques are ways of rearranging an individual’s environment. c) Its techniques draw extensively from the principles of operant and Pavlovian conditioning. * d) It emphasizes the use of summary labels for classifying individuals.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Applied 9. Which of the following is an example of covert behavior? * a) a skier thinking, “I hope I don’t fall” b) a pitcher throwing a ball c) a student drinking coffee d) a child talking to her dog in the backyard Difficulty: Medium

Type: Conceptual 10. Which of the following is an example of overt behavior? a) feelings of nervousness * b) yelling at someone c) a boy on a date thinking, “I like this girl” d) imagining a beautiful sunset Difficulty: Medium

Type: Conceptual 11. Which of the following is an example of an outcome of behavior? a) throwing a baseball b) lifting a heavy weight *c) scoring a goal in ice hockey d) standing at the free throw line in basketball Difficulty: Medium

Type: Conceptual 12. Behavior therapy was first used to refer to: a) behavior modification in which there is typically an attempt to analyze or clearly demonstrate controlling variables b) the scientific study of laws that govern the behavior of human beings and other animals *c) Joseph Wolpe’s behavioral treatment for specific phobias d) behavior modification that focuses on overt behaviors that are of social significance Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual 13. Behavior modifiers are cautious about using summary labels to refer to individuals or their actions because: a) the label for the behavior is often used as a pseudo-explanation for the behavior b) labels can negatively affect the way an individual might be treated c) labeling may influence us to focus on an individual’s problem behaviors rather than on his or her strengths * d) all of the above 132 ..

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 14. The people, objects, and events that make up a person’s environment are called: * a) stimuli b) conditioned stimuli c) unconditioned stimuli

d) reinforcing stimuli

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual Type: 15. Which of the following is not a characteristic of behavior modification? a) Its treatment procedures are ways of altering an individual’s environment. b) Its methods and rationales can be described precisely. * c) Its techniques stem primarily from cognitive psychology. d) Its techniques are often applied by individuals in everyday life.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual 16. Behavioral assessment seeks to: a) determine the underlying mental disturbance responsible for behavioral symptoms b) identify the type of mental disorder assumed to underlie particular patterns of abnormal behavior * c) identify potential controlling variables of problem behaviors, and select behavioral treatment d) determine the necessary intelligence level of potential clients as a prerequisite to behavior modification programs Difficulty: Medium

Type: Applied 17. Which of the following is not a misconception about behavior modification? a) Behavior modifiers only deal with the observable and they don’t deal with the thoughts and feelings of clients. * b) Behavior modification involves the systematic application of learning principles to improve covert and overt behaviors. c) Behavior modification involves the use of drugs, psychosurgery, and electroconvulsive therapy. d) Behavior modification only changes symptoms; it doesn’t get at the underlying problems.

Difficulty: Hard

Type: Applied 18. Which of the following is an example of cognitive behavior? a) a child reading out loud for a parent b) a baseball player talking to her coach * c) a person on a hot day imagining that he is sitting at the ocean d) a student writing with a pen Difficulty: Medium

Type: Conceptual 19. Behaviors to be improved in a behavior modification program are frequently called: a) overt behaviors b) covert behaviors c) cognitive behaviors * d) target behaviors Difficulty: Easy 133 ..

Type: Conceptual 20. Behavior Analysis refers to: a) behavior modification in which there is typically an attempt to analyze or clearly demonstrate controlling variables * b) the scientific study of laws that govern the behavior of human beings and other animals c) behavioral treatment carried out on dysfunctional behavior d) behavior modification that focuses on overt behaviors that are of social significance Difficulty: Easy

Type: Applied 21. involves the systematic application of learning principles and techniques to assess and improve individuals’ covert and overt behaviors in order to enhance their daily functioning. a) Behavioral assessment b) Behavior analysis * c) Behavior modification d) Cognitive behavior therapy Difficulty: Easy

Type: Applied 22. Classical conditioning was developed by: a) B.F. Skinner c) Joseph Wolpe Difficulty: Easy

* b) Ivan Pavlov d) Aaron Beck

Type: Factual 23. In the 1950s, ____________ developed a behavioral treatment for specific phobias. a) Hans Eyesenck b) Aaron Beck c) Albert Ellis *d) Joseph Wolpe Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual 24. The term “cognitive therapy” was used by ___________ to refer to strategies for recognizing maladaptive thinking and replacing it with adaptive thinking. * a) Beck b) Ellis c) Wolpe d) Skinner Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 25. Behavior modification accepts changes in a behavior as the indicator of the extent to which a problem is being helped.

Difficulty: Medium

Type: Conceptual F 26. One of the defining characteristics of behavior modification is that it does not emphasize scientific demonstration that an intervention was responsible for a particular behavior change.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual T

27. Behavior is, essentially, anything a person does or says.

Difficulty: Easy 134 ..

Type: Factual F 28. Behavior modifiers deal only with observable behavior, and discount subjective events such as thoughts and feelings.

Difficulty: Medium

Type: Factual F

29. The color of a person’s eyes is an example of behavior.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual T

30. Studying for a course is an example of a behavior.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual F

31. Remembering the feelings of your first kiss is an example of overt behavior.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 32. Thinking “I hope I pass this course” while sitting in class, is an example of covert behavior.

Difficulty: Medium

Type: Conceptual F 33. To a behavior modifier, intelligence is something that you were born with, a sort of “inherited capacity for learning.”

Difficulty: Medium

Type: Factual T

34. Hyperactivity is a label for certain behaviors.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 35. According to the authors of the text, the term behavior modification has a broader meaning than the term behavior therapy.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual F 36. A teenager frequently interrupts conversations between his parents. That’s an example of a behavioral deficit.

Difficulty: Medium

Type: Factual T 37. A golfer often thinks negatively just before important shots. That’s an example of a behavioral excess.

Difficulty: Medium

Type: Factual F 38. Behavior modification can only be applied by experts, and not by individuals in everyday life.

Difficulty: Medium

Type: Conceptual 135 ..

T 39. Environmental events that impinge on one’s sense receptors and that can affect behavior are called stimuli.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual F

40. Cognitive behavior is another term for overt behavior.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 41. Behavior analysis refers to the scientific study of laws that govern the behavior of human beings and other animals.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual F 42. The term behavior therapy is typically used to refer to behavior modification where there is an attempt to clearly demonstrate controlling variables of the behavior of concern.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual T 43. Characteristics of behavior that can be measured are called dimensions of behavior.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual T 44. In 1960 the British psychologist Hans Eysenck used the term “behavior therapy” to refer to the treatment procedure developed by Joseph Wolpe.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual F 45. In a landmark experiment in 1920, Mary Cover Jones demonstrated Pavlovian conditioning of a fear response in an 11 month-old infant.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual F 46. Strategies for recognizing maladaptive thinking and replacing it with adaptive thinking were referred to by Beck as behavior therapy.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual T 47. The terms behavior therapy and cognitive behavior therapy are often used interchangeably.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual Multiple Choice Question on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 48. Behavior modifiers made little use of the first three DSMs because: a) they were based primarily on research rather than on Freud’s theory b) individual disorders were based on categories of problem behaviors c) they used a multidimensional recording system 136 ..

*

d) they were based on Freud’s theory of abnormal behavior

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 49. To avoid problems associated with labeling, in the case of autism, for example, we should describe the client as an autistic child rather than as a child with autism.

Difficulty: Hard

Type: Factual

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Chapter 2. Areas of Application: An Overview Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. PSI stands for: *

a) popular standards of instruction

b) personalized systems of information

c) personalized system of instruction

d) personalized students’ instruction

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of behavioral approaches to university teaching? a) It identifies the instructional goals for a course in the form of study questions. b) It has frequent tests in which students are required to demonstrate their knowledge to the answers of study questions. c) Students are given detailed information at the beginning of a course about what is expected of them on tests and assignments to achieve various letter grades * d) It emphasizes multiple-choice items and examinations as an objective scoring strategy ideally suited for large classes.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Applied 3. Studies with clinical populations have shown behavior therapy to be: a) significantly inferior to the alternative treatment to which it was compared, which was usually some form of verbal psychotherapy * b) demonstrably superior to other forms of psychotherapy in certain problem areas (e.g., phobias) c) used as the main mode of therapy for treating adults by approximately 60% of practicing therapists d) used about as often as psychodynamic therapy in the treatment of children by pediatric psychologists Difficulty: Medium

Type: Applied 4. The characteristics of impaired communication, impaired social behavior, and repetitive selfstimulatory behaviors during the first few years after birth are shown by individuals diagnosed as: a) moderately developmentally disabled b) schizophrenic c) severely intellectually disabled * d) autistic Difficulty: Medium

Type: Conceptual 5. A broad interdisciplinary field concerned with the links between health, illness, and behavior is referred to as: a) health psychology b) stress management * c) behavioral medicine d) behavioral health Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual 6. Organizational behavior management refers to: * a) the application of behavior modification techniques to individual or group performance within an organizational setting 138 ..

b) an emphasis on the use of non-professionals in human service programs c) use of behavior modification to help individuals adhere to a healthy lifestyle d) seeking out intervention strategies at the organizational level rather than at the individual level Difficulty: Easy

Type: Applied 7. Behavior modifiers have begun to pay more attention to issues of race, gender, ethnicity, and sexual orientation because: a) the Association of Behavior Analysis is now an international organization b) culturally diverse individuals now make up 30% of the American population * c) these variables can influence the effectiveness of treatment d) there are no dangers of overgeneralizing about any particular cultural group Difficulty: Medium

Type: Applied 8. Which of the following is not a general area in which behavior modification has been applied in behavioral sport psychology? a) Teaching new athletic skills * b) Selecting athletes for Olympic programs on the basis of those with the personality most suited to sacrifice and dedication to winning c) Motivating practice and fitness training d) Helping athletes to cope with pressure at major competitions Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual 9. In the 1960s and 70s, ___________ developed early intensive behavioral treatment programs for children with autism. a) B.F. Skinner * b) Ivar Lovaas c) Fred Keller d) Joseph Pear Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual 10. The American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities now prefers the term to refer to individuals characterized by significant limitations in intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior. * a) intellectual disability b) mental retardation c) developmental disability d) mentally handicapped Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual 11. Which of the following is not a sub-area of the application of behavioral principles in health psychology? a) establishing treatment compliance b) promotion of healthy living c) stress management * d) psychological testing of personality disorders Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual 12. “Applications to socially significant problems in unstructured community settings where 139 ..

the behavior of individuals is not considered deviant in the traditional sense” is the definition of: a) organizational behavior management b) health psychology * c) behavior community psychology d) behavior therapy Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual 13. PSI (Personalized System of Instruction) was developed by: a) Lovaas b) Bellack *c) Keller d) Skinner Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual 14. Helping the elderly to function independently during old age is part of the field referred to as: * a) gerontology b) behavioral medicine c) behavioral community psychology d) behavior management Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual 15. The study of how psychological factors can influence or cause illness, and how people can be encouraged to practice healthy behavior so as to prevent health problems, is referred to as: a) Cognitive behavior therapy b) Stress therapy c) Treatment compliance * d) Health Psychology Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 16. Behavior modification has been successfully applied within each of the following areas: education, social work, rehabilitation medicine, industry, and sports.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual T 17. Personalized System of Instruction, or PSI, was developed by Fred Keller and his colleagues.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual T 18. Behavioral sport psychology has been defined as the use of behavior analysis principles and techniques to enhance the performance and satisfaction of athletes and others associated with sports.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual F 19. Many studies have demonstrated that there are psychological problems (e.g., anxiety disorders, depression, habit disorders) for which specific behavioral procedures have been demonstrated to be about equally effective with other forms of psychotherapy.

Difficulty: Medium

Type: Conceptual T 20. One of the areas of health psychology involves the use of behavior modification procedures to directly treat certain diseases that were previously thought to require medical treatment.

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Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 21. The application of behavior modification techniques to individual or group performance within an organizational setting defines the area referred to as community behavioral psychology.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual T 22. Littering, recycling, energy conservation, and job skills training are all sub-areas that have been dealt with successfully by behavior modification in the area of behavioral community psychology.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Conceptual F 23. Issues of race, gender, ethnicity, and sexual orientation are variables that do not influence the effectiveness of behavioral treatment.

Difficulty: Medium

Type: Factual T 24. CAPSI stands for Computer-Aided Personalized System of Instruction.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual T 25. The person who initially developed behavioral treatments for children with autism is Ivar Lovaas.

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Factual Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 26. A common strategy for delivering early intensive behavioral intervention with children with autism is referred to as: a) behavior management b) developmental teaching * c) discrete-trials teaching d) behavior analysis

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

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Chapter 3. Respondent (Classical, Pavlovian) Conditioning of Reflexive Behavior Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1.

That behavior can be modified by its consequences is the basic tenet of: a) respondent conditioning b) respondent extinction * c) operant conditioning d) aversion therapy Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 2.

If a stimulus (that does not elicit a particular response) is closely followed in time by a second stimulus that elicits a particular response, then the first stimulus will come to elicit the response that was elicited by the second stimulus. This is the definition of the principle of: a) positive reinforcement b) operant conditioning c) counterconditioning * d) respondent conditioning Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 3.

If a conditioned stimulus (CS) is presented without further pairings with the unconditioned stimulus, the CS will gradually lose its capacity to elicit the conditioned response. This is the definition of: a) respondent conditioning * b) respondent extinction c) counterconditioning d) operant extinction Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 4. *

A stimulus that elicits a response without prior learning or conditioning is called a(n): a) unconditioned stimulus b) discriminative stimulus c) conditioned stimulus d) establishing stimulus Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual

5. *

When a person salivates at the sight of food, the response of salivating is classified as a(n): a) conditioned response b) conditioned reflex c) unconditioned response

d) unconditioned reflex

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 6.

Over several meals, classical music is played at the dinner table. Eventually, classical music is played without pairing it with food, and the person who ate at that dinner table begins salivating. In this example, the sound of classical music became a: * a) conditioned stimulus b) conditioned reflex c) conditioned response d) conditioned reinforcer Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 7.

Repeatedly pairing an undesirable reinforcer with an aversive event, such as pairing alcohol with a drug that elicits vomiting, is the basic procedure of: a) operant conditioning * b) aversion therapy c) respondent extinction d) counterconditioning 142 ..

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 8.

In Pavlovian conditioning, the CS acquires greater ability to elicit a CR if: a) the CS is occasionally paired with the US b) the CS follows the US by a few seconds * c) the CS is always paired with the US d) the CS is occasionally paired with a strong US Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 9.

A new response is conditioned to the conditioned stimulus at the same time that the former conditioned response is being extinguished. This process is called: a) respondent extinction b) operant extinction c) aversion therapy * d) counterconditioning Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 10. A conditioned stimulus (e.g., the sound of a bell) is no longer followed by the taste of food.

After several trials, the conditioned response of salivating no longer occurs at the sound of the bell. This is referred to as ? a) spontaneous recovery b) respondent conditioning * c) respondent extinction d) response generalization Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 11. When you open the cupboard door to get cat food, your cats come running to the kitchen, where they are typically fed. This illustrates the effect of: a) respondent conditioning * b) operant conditioning c) counterconditioning d) modeling Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 12. When food is presented to a dog, the dog salivates. We would say that the stimulus has the response. a) evoked b) emitted c) cued * d) elicited Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 13. In Pavlovian conditioning, the CS acquires greater ability to elicit a CR if: a) the CS consistently follows the US by a few seconds b) the CS is occasionally paired with the US * c) the CS consistently precedes the US by a few seconds d) the CS is occasionally paired with a strong US Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 14. If an organism has been conditioned so that a particular CS elicits a CR, and then a similar stimulus elicits that CR, the latter is referred to as: a) Respondent stimulus discrimination * b) Respondent stimulus generalization c) Counterconditioning d) Respondent extinction 143 ..

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 15. The loud barking of a dog causes a child to experience fear. If sight of the dog now elicits fear, then the sight of the dog is called a , and the fear is called the . a) US, CR b) CS, UR c) US, UR * d) CS, CR Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 16. Suppose that an adult has a chronic problem with constipation. During treatment, each morning the adult inserts a suppository, reads the morning paper, and in a few minutes experiences a bowel movement. After a month of this procedure, the bowel movement occurs after reading the paper. In this example, the CS is: * a) reading the paper b) the bowel movement to the suppository c) the suppository d) the bowel movement to reading the paper Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 17. For children who suffer from enuresis (chronic bedwetting), the pressure from a full bladder when the child is asleep is not sufficient to cause the child to awaken. An apparatus is wired to the child’s bed such that when the child urinates during the night, a tone sounds to awaken the child. Eventually the child learns to awaken to pressure on the bladder, and can then urinate in the toilet. In this example, the CR is: a) awakening to the tone b) urinating in the bed c) urinating in the toilet * d) awakening to pressure on the bladder Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 18. In one type of aversion therapy with alcoholics, a drug is added to an alcoholic beverage so that sipping the beverage causes nausea. Eventually, just the sight and smell of the beverage causes nausea, which hopefully decreases excessive drinking of alcohol. In this treatment, the CS is: a) the drug that causes nausea b) the nausea that occurs to the smell of the drink * c) the smell of the drink d) the nausea that occurs to the drug Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 19. Behaviors that are elicited by prior stimuli and are not affected by their consequences are called: a) operant behaviors * b) respondent behaviors c) unconditioned behaviors d) conditioned behaviors Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 20. A stimulus-response relationship in which a stimulus automatically elicits a response 144 ..

apart from any prior learning defines a) a conditioned reflex b) operant conditioning c) respondent conditioning * d) an unconditioned reflex Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 21. Respondent conditioning will develop more quickly and strongly when: * a) the CS or US or both are intense rather than weak b) the CS follows the US by about a half a second, rather than preceding it c) both the CS and the US are weak rather than intense d) the CS is paired with the US just once rather than many times Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 22. A conditioned response may be eliminated more effectively if a new response is conditioned to the conditioned stimulus at the same time that the former conditioned response is being extinguished.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied F 23. Behaviors that are controlled by their consequences are called respondent behaviors.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 24. A conditioned stimulus is said to evoke a conditioned response.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 25. A stimulus that elicits a response without prior learning is called an unconditioned stimulus.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 26. Stronger conditioning occurs if the CS just follows the US by up to a few seconds, rather than by preceding the US. Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 27. When several neutral stimuli precede a US, the stimulus that is most consistently associated with the US is the one most likely to become a strong CS. Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 28. It is possible to demonstrate that a neutral stimulus like saccharine can be conditioned to suppress immune system functioning through Pavlovian conditioning procedures.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 145 ..

Chapter 4. Increasing a Behavior with Positive Reinforcement Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. A positive reinforcer is defined as: a) an event which, when presented immediately following a behavior, causes the behavior to decrease in frequency b) an event which is preferred by a subject c) an event which the subject finds rewarding * d) an event which, when presented immediately following a behavior, causes the behavior to increase in frequency Difficulty: Easy Type:Conceptual 2. The principle of positive reinforcement states that: a) if, in a given situation, an individual is given a choice of two or more items, the item chosen will be the positive reinforcer * b) if, in a given situation, somebody does something that is immediately followed by a positive reinforcer, then that person is more likely to do the same thing again c) if, in a given situation, an individual is positively reinforced, then that individual will select that situation in future opportunities d) a reinforcer can be used to strengthen behavior Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 3. The best way to determine if something is reinforcing is to: a) ask the individual what they prefer for a reinforcer b) watch others perform the same behavior and find out what reinforces them and then use that with the individual of concern * c) conduct an experimental test in which you present an item following some behavior on several trials to see if the frequency of that behavior increases d) provide a choice situation in which the “something” is presented along with known reinforcers to see if it will be chosen by the subject instead of the known reinforcers Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 4. In training programs in which reinforcers are dispensed frequently, it’s best to use a small amount of the reinforcer on any one trial in order to: a) let the client know that there’s more to come * b) minimize satiation and maximize the number of trials in a training session c) ensure that the program is cost-effective d) prevent the client from becoming greedy Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 5. developed the principle that states: For any pair of responses, the more probable one will reinforce the less probable one. a) Skinner b) Michael * c) Premack d) Greenspoon Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 6. Unprogrammed reinforcers that occur in the normal course of everyday living are called: 146 ..

* a) natural reinforcers c) contrived reinforcers Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

b) arbitrary reinforcers d) rewards

7. If a response increases in frequency because of its immediate reinforcing consequences, this is known as: * a) the direct-acting effects of positive reinforcement b) a functional response-reinforcer relationship c) the indirect-acting effects of positive reinforcement d) natural reinforcement Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 8. A parent tells a child, “If you pick up the toys in your room, then I’ll take you to buy your favorite ice cream after dinner.” This is an example of: a) direct acting reinforcement b) the Premack principle c) a natural reinforcer * d) indirect acting reinforcement Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 9. Which of the following is not one of the reasons for explaining a reinforcement program to the individual whose behavior is to be reinforced? a) Instructions may speed up the learning process for individuals who already understand them. * b) Instructions increase the effects of deprivation for making a reinforcer more effective. c) Instructions may influence an individual to work for delayed reinforcement. d) Instructions about reinforcement programs may help to teach individuals (such as young children) to follow instructions.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 10. Eating is reinforced by the taste of food. This is an example of: a) indirect acting reinforcement b) arbitrary reinforcement * c) natural reinforcement d) the Premack principl Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 11. A coach of young hockey players always has a scrimmage at the end of each practice, something that the players really enjoy. This is an example of: * a) noncontingent reinforcement b) direct acting reinforcement c) contingent reinforcement d) indirect acting reinforcement

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 12. Giving a person salty foods, or depriving that person of water are examples of: a) discriminative stimuli b) unconditioned stimuli c) direct-acting reinforcers * d) motivating operations Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 147 ..

13. Behaviors that operate on the environment to generate consequences, and are in turn influenced by those consequences, are called: a) behaviors b) respondent behaviors c) reflexive behavior * d) operant behaviors Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 14. Strengthening a response by adding an event immediately following that response is referred to as: * a) positive reinforcement b) negative reinforcement c) escape conditioning d) the Premack principle

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 15. Events or conditions that temporarily alter the effectiveness of a reinforcer, and increase the frequency of behavior reinforced by that reinforcer, are called: a) positive reinforcers b) direct-acting events c) indirect-acting events * d) motivating operations Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 16. If a reinforcer is presented at a particular time, irrespective of the preceding behavior, we say that the reinforcer is: * a) noncontingent b) contingent c) direct-acting d) indirect-acting

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 17. When a behavior must occur before a reinforcer will be presented, we say that the reinforcer is upon that behavior. a) noncontingent * b) contingent c) direct-acting d) indirect-acting Difficulty: M Easy Type: Factual 18. When reinforcers are manipulated deliberately in a behavior modification program, we say that they are reinforcers. a) direct-acting b) indirect-acting c) natural * d) programmed Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 19. Behaviors that act on the environment to generate consequences and are in turn influenced by those consequences, are called behaviors. * a) operant b) reflexive c) covert d) overt Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

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20. The principle of states that there are certain stimuli whose removal immediately after the occurrence of a response will strengthen that response. a) positive reinforcement b) non-contingent reinforcement * c) negative reinforcement d) motivating operations

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 21. A behavior that is strengthened because it accidently precedes a reinforcer, even though it did not actually produce the reinforcer, is called: a) operant behavior * b) superstitious behavior c) respondent behavior d) reflexive behavior Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 22. Technically speaking, a stimulus is defined as a reinforcer only by its effects on behavior.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 23. Explaining a reinforcement program to a client is necessary before a reinforcer can be used to increase the frequency of a particular behavior of that client.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 24. Natural reinforcers are those deliberately presented following a particular behavior in a training program.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 25. The terms positive reinforcement and reinforcement are often used interchangeably.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 26. Consumable, activity, manipulative, possessional, and social are categories of reinforcers.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 27. Giving a child her favorite candy following a desirable behavior is an example of a motivating operation.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual T 28. Food deprivation is a type of motivating operation.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

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F 29. The increased frequency of a response because of its immediate reinforcing consequences is referred to as the indirect-acting effect of reinforcement.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 30. When a behavior must occur before a reinforcer will be presented, we say that the reinforcer is contingent upon that behavior.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 31. Unprogrammed reinforcers that occur in the normal course of everyday living are called arbitrary reinforcers.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 32. Persons with developmental disabilities learn certain discriminations better when the correct response reveals a reinforcer hidden inside a container, rather than when a reinforcer is simply handed to the individual for a correct response. Martin and Pear suggest that such a contingency should be described as: a) a direct-acting contingency b) an indirect-acting contingency * c) a reinforcer-discovery contingency d) a response equilibrium contingency

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 33. Suppose that a single occurrence of a consequence produces a large change in the behavior that preceded that consequence. This is a clue that the results are due to: * a) indirect-acting reinforcement b) direct-acting reinforcement c) the Premack principle d) response disequilibrium

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 34. Suppose that a critical response precedes the reinforcer by more than 30 seconds. This is a clue that the results are due to: a) the Premack principle b) direct-acting reinforcement * c) indirect-acting reinforcement d) response disequilibrium

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 35. A behavior change is likely due to indirect acting effects of positive reinforcement if the behavior that is measured shows some increase in strength prior to the first occurrence of the consequence.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 36. Animals can learn even though they are not able to verbalize an understanding or an awareness of their behavior.

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Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

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Chapter 5. Increasing Behavior with Conditioned Reinforcement Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. A stimulus which is not originally reinforcing but which acquires reinforcing power through association with a stimulus that is reinforcing is called: * a) a conditioned reinforcer b) a conditioned stimulus c) a natural reinforcer d) a back-up reinforce Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 2. A dollar bill may not be reinforcing for a young child who has had no experience with money.

However, after the dollar bill is paired with a variety of back-up reinforcers while making various purchases in the store, the dollar bill becomes a powerful reinforcer. This is an example of the development of a: a) extrinsic reinforcer * b) generalized conditioned reinforcer c) simple conditioned reinforcer d) primary reinforce Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 3. A reinforcer for which tokens can be exchanged in order to maintain their reinforcing power is called a(n): a) secondary reinforcer b) conditioned reinforcer * c) back-up reinforcer d) primary reinforce Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 4. Stimuli which are reinforcing without prior learning are called: a) conditioned reinforcers b) back-up reinforcers c) intrinsic reinforcers * d) primary reinforcers Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 5. For someone who has not eaten for several hours, food would be a as it is naturally reinforcing in and of itself. * a) primary b) conditioned c) back-up d) secondary Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual

reinforcer,

6. Conditioned reinforcers that can be accumulated and exchanged for other reinforcers are known as: a) adventitious reinforcers * b) tokens c) back-up reinforcers d) extrinsic reinforcers Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 7. Which of the following is a stimulus that is a conditioned reinforcer (i.e., associated with more powerful reinforcers) but is not a token? a) gold stars on an improvement chart b) coupons for food products * c) the sight of a loved one d) money Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 152 ..

8. In a behavior modification token system, tokens can be exchanged for more powerful reinforcers called: a) extrinsic reinforcers b) primary reinforcers c) intrinsic reinforcers * d) back-up reinforcers Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 9. A stimulus which is not originally punishing but which acquires punishing power through association with a stimulus that is punishing is called a(n): * a) conditioned punisher b) warning stimulus c) unconditioned punisher d) conditioned stimulus Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 10. A reinforcer that is based on a number of different back-up reinforcers is called a(n): a) natural reinforcer * b) generalized reinforcer c) intrinsic reinforcer d) extrinsic reinforce Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 11. At the end of a poker game, poker chips that you have obtained can be exchanged for money. In this case, money can best be described as a(n): * a) back-up reinforcer b) unconditioned reinforcer c) natural reinforcer d) conditioned reinforce Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 12. In Erin’s program, the time on Facebook or YouTube are examples of: a) tokens * b) back-up reinforcers c) unconditioned reinforcers d) intrinsic reinforcers Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 13. Which of the following is most likely to be a primary reinforcer? a) a toy b) money * c) a candy bar Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 14. Which of the following is a conditioned reinforcer? a) a drink of water b) a candy bar c) warmth from a fireplace Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 15. Praise is best referred to as a(n): a) natural reinforcer c) intrinsic reinforcer Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

d) poker chips

*d) money

* b) generalized reinforcer d) back-up reinforce

16. Conditioned reinforcers that can be accumulated and exchanged for other reinforcers are called: a) backup reinforcers * b) tokens 153 ..

c) natural reinforcers Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

d) intrinsic reinforcers

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 17. Back-up reinforcers are stimuli that are naturally reinforcing in and of themselves, such as food for someone who has not eaten for several hours.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 18. A primary reinforcer is a reinforcer that is based on a number of different back-up reinforcers.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 19. A conditioned reinforcer that is a generalized reinforcer is more effective than one that is not.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 20. Conditioned reinforcers that can be accumulated and exchanged for other reinforcers are called tokens.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 21. A stimulus that is paired with punishment becomes a conditioned punisher.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual

True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 22. Automatic conditioned reinforcement enables us to explain why babies babble a great deal, even when no adults are around.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 23. Research shows that, although the smell and taste that occurs while smoking cigarettes are paired with the reinforcing effects of nicotine in the bloodstream, the smell and taste of cigarettes do not become conditioned reinforcers for regular smokers.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual

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Chapter 6. Decreasing a Behavior with Extinction Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. If, in a given situation, an individual emits a previously reinforced response that is not followed by the usual reinforcing consequence, then that person: * a) is less likely to do the same thing again in that situation b) will stop emitting that behavior immediately in that situation c) is more likely to do the same thing again in that situation d) will become very aggressive in that situation Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 2. When observing an undesirable behavior prior to introducing an extinction program, you would take into account: * a) events that may be reinforcing the behavior b) ways to minimize the number of trials for the extinction program c) punishers that may be used to decrease the behavior that is to be extinguished d) how to implement the program without the client’s knowledge Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 3. An extinction program may fail because: a) spontaneous recovery did not occur * b) a desirable alternative behavior was not appropriately strengthened c) instructions were not given to the client prior to the program d) prior to the extinction program, the behavior was on a continuous rather than an intermittent schedule of reinforcement Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 4. The reappearance of an extinguished behavior following a rest is called: a) intermittent reinforcement b) an extinction burst * c) spontaneous recovery d) indirect reinforcement

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 5. It is important to consider the setting in which extinction will be carried out in order to: a) capitalize on use of instructions * b) minimize the influence of alternative reinforcers on the undesirable behavior c) put the undesirable behavior on intermittent reinforcement before introducing extinction d) minimize spontaneous recovery Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 6. Which of the following is not a potential problem of an extinction program? a) The behavior may get worse before it gets better. b) The program may produce aggression by the person whose behavior is being extinguished. c) Spontaneous recovery may occur. * d) Other reinforced behaviors will also decrease in frequency.

Difficulty: Hard 155 ..

Type: Applied 7. It is important to consider the setting in which extinction will be carried out in order to: a) capitalize on use of instructions b) put the undesirable behavior on intermittent reinforcement before introducing extinction * c) maximize the chances of the behavior modifier persisting with the program d) minimize spontaneous recovery Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied 8. A behavior is likely to extinguish very slowly if: * a) that behavior was reinforced intermittently prior to the extinction program b) that behavior was reinforced continuously prior to the extinction program c) an alternative desirable behavior is reinforced d) there is no aggression as a side-effect Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied 9. If you tell someone to stop eating candies, and the person stops, that is an example of: a) extinction b) the Premack principle * c) instructional control over behavior d) indirect-acting reinforcement Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 10. If a parent ignores the behavior of a child, that is an example of extinction if: a) the child listens to the parent * b) the parent’s attention was reinforcing the child’s behavior c) the child is obedient d) the child’s behavior was annoying to the parent Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 11. Behavior that extinguishes slowly is said to be: a) reinforced intermittently b) showing spontaneous recovery * c) resistant to extinction d) exhibiting extinction bursts

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 12. An increase in responding during extinction is commonly referred to as: * a) an extinction burst b) spontaneous recovery c) an establishing operation d) a pitfall of extinction

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 13. Extinction and forgetting are similar in that both involve: a) weakening a behavior as a function of that behavior being emitted without being reinforced b) weakening a behavior as a function of time following that behavior c) weakening a behavior as a function of intermittent reinforcement * d) weakening of behavior 156 ..

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 14. Suppose that, following instances of a child swearing, the parents said to the child, “You have just lost 25 cents of your weekly allowance.” This is an example of: a) extinction c) reprimand punishment b) forgetting * d) response cost punishment Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 15. An example of extinction is when you tell someone to stop smoking cigarettes, and the person stops.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual T 16. A possible reason for the failure of an extinction program is that the undesirable behavior is receiving reinforcement from another source.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual F 17. Ignoring the behavior of a person is always an example of extinction.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 18. Extinction may be quicker after continuous reinforcement than after intermittent reinforcement.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual T 19. If a behavior is not reinforced at least once in a while, it will gradually extinguish.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual F 20. Research has shown that extinction can be successfully applied in any setting.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 21. Behavior that has been reinforced on a continuous reinforcement schedule is more persistent during extinction than behavior that has been reinforced on an intermittent reinforcement schedule.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 22. Unauthorized reinforcement provided for a behavior being subjected to an extinction program is the definition of: a) continuous reinforcement b) functional reinforcement * c) bootleg reinforcement d) intrinsic reinforcement

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Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 23. After Susie appeared to display frequent tantrums that usually led to adult attention, the treatment program involved giving Susie adult attention once every 30 seconds regardless of Susie’s behavior. This treatment program would be referred to as: a) Intermittent reinforcement b) Extinction * c) Noncontingent reinforcement d) Bootleg reinforcement Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied

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Chapter 7. Getting a New Behavior to Occur With Shaping Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1.

Shaping is referred to as the method of: a) intermittent reinforcement * b) successive approximations c) contingency adjustment d) self-instruction Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 2.

The form or spatial configuration of a behavior is referred to as: a) latency of behavior b) amount of behavior c) frequency of behavior * d) topography of behavior Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 3.

The procedure used for developing a new behavior by successively reinforcing closer approximations and extinguishing preceding approximations to achieve a final desired behavior is called: a) intermittent reinforcement * b) shaping c) fading d) discrimination training Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 4.

Shaping is a procedure that involves two basic principles, namely: a) intermittent reinforcement and extinction b) continuous reinforcement and instructions * c) positive reinforcement and extinction d) reinforcer sampling and Premack principle Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 5.

A guideline for effective application of shaping is to: * a) never move to a new approximation until the student has mastered the previous approximation b) overtrain at each approximation to ensure mastery c) reinforce each approximation about 4 times before moving on to the next approximation d) make each approximation somewhat difficult to avoid boredom Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 6.

Which of the following is not one of the three stages of a shaping program? a) specify the final desired behavior b) identify a starting response to work toward the final desired behavior * c) extinguish behaviors that interfere with the shaping program d) reinforce the starting response, and then closer and closer approximations to the final desired behavior Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 7.

A child is reinforced for saying “wa-wa,” then “watah,” and finally, “water.” In this example, has been shaped.

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a) frequency Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual

*b) topography

c) amount

d) intensity

8.

Across several golf practices, a golfer is reinforced for hitting five shots, then seven shots, then ten shots, and then fifteen shots. This is an example of shaping. a) topography b) duration c) intensity * d) frequency Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 9. Across several practices, a swimmer is reinforced for starting more and more quickly to the sound of the starter’s pistol. This is an example of shaping. a) duration b) intensity * c) latency d) topography Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 10. Shaping would not be the procedure of choice for: a) changing the topography of a behavior * b) linking a series of responses together c) increasing the frequency of a behavior d) decreasing the latency of a behavior Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 11. Another name for shaping is the method of spontaneous recovery.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 12. In starting a shaping procedure, it’s difficult to know if you have enough successive approximations, so you simply give it your best guess and then try out the program.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied F 13. Although it is necessary to avoid under-reinforcement at any step in a shaping program, it is not necessary to worry about reinforcing too many times at any step.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied T 14. The time between the occurrence of a stimulus and the beginning of a response is referred to as latency.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 15. Gradually lengthening the time of studying before taking a break would be an example of frequency shaping.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual T 16. The intensity of a response refers to the physical effect the response has on the environment.

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Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 17. The amount of a particular behavior refers to either its frequency or its intensity.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 18. Shaping appears to be useful in modifying not only external behavior but also internal behavior.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 19. Research has demonstrated that it is not possible to use shaping to influence animals to engage in behavior that is harmful to them.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied

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Chapter 8. Developing Behavioral Persistence with Schedules of Reinforcement Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: *indicates the correct answer) 1. When reinforcement occurs after some but not all responses, a(n) schedule of reinforcement is being used. a) continuous b) duration c) interval * d) intermittent Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 2. Each time you turn on the TV, a picture appears. This is an example of: a) fixed-ratio reinforcement b) variable-ratio reinforcement * c) continuous reinforcement d) fixed-interval reinforcement

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 3. During piece-rate pay in a sewing factory, a worker is paid $10.00 for every ten pairs of pants. This is an example of: * a) a fixed-ratio schedule b) a fixed-interval schedule c) continuous reinforcement d) a fixed-duration schedule Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 4. A pause after reinforcement followed by a high rate of responding until the next reinforcement is the characteristic effect of: a) FI schedule b) VI schedule * c) FR schedule d) FR/LH schedule Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 5. “Reinforcement occurring after a variable number of responses, where the number varies around some mean value” defines the schedule. * a) variable-ratio b) variable-interval c) variable-ratio-with-limited-hold d) variable-interval-with-limited-hold Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 6. The advantage of VR over FR in training programs is that: a) reinforcement occurs after a certain number of responses are emitted b) a reinforcer is no longer presented following each response c) the VR generates longer pauses and a steady rate of responding * d) the VR generates less pausing and can maintain a high rate with fewer reinforcements Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 7. “Reinforcement contingent on the first response occurring after a fixed period of time” is the definition of a(n) schedule. a) FR b) VR *c) FI d) FD 162 ..

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 8. “Reinforcement contingent on the first response occurring within a limited period of time following the expiration of a fixed interval of time” is the definition of: * a) FI/LH b) FR/LH c) VR/LH d) VI/LH Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 9. An FI/LH is similar to a simple FI schedule, procedurally, in that in both FI and FI/LH: a) long pauses occur at the beginning of the interval followed by steady responding b) reinforcement remains available for only a limited period of time * c) reinforcement is programmed to occur after the first response after a fixed period of time d) reinforcement occurs after a certain number of responses are emitted Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 10. A fairly steady or uniform rate of responding between reinforcements is a characteristic effect of: *

a) an intermittent schedule c) a VI schedule

b) an FR schedule d) an FI schedule

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 11. When reinforcement that is contingent on the first response occurs within a limited period of time following another interval of time, which varies around some mean value, a(n) schedule is in effect. * a) variable interval with limited hold b) fixed interval with limited hold c) variable interval d) fixed interval

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 12. A characteristic effect of a VI/LH schedule is: a) intermittent responding with very little pausing * b) steady responding with very little pausing c) very occasional responding with very frequent pausing d) steady responding with no pausing Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 13. A practical advantage of a VI/LH schedule over an FI/LH schedule is that on a VI/LH schedule: a) the behavior is not influenced by outside distractors b) there are very frequent although small pauses spread uniformly throughout the interval c) it is easy to monitor the amount of time spent producing the desirable behavior * d) there is little or no pausing at the beginning of each interval

Difficulty: Type: Conceptual 163 ..

14. When reinforcement occurs after the behavior has been engaged in for a continuous period of time, where the specified time varies around some mean value, there is a(n) schedule in effect. a) VR * b) VD c) FR d) VD/LH Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 15. At home, checking the clothes dryer for dry clothes will eventually be reinforced by the clothes being dry. This would be an approximation of a schedule. a) fixed-ratio * b) variable-interval c) variable-interval-with-limited-hold d) variable-duration Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 16. A child pounds pegs into a peg board and is reinforced by getting the pegs level with the board. This is an approximation of a schedule. a) fixed-duration b) fixed-ratio c) variable-interval * d) variable-ratio Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 17. If parents reinforce their child’s practicing of a musical instrument by allowing the child a certain amount of TV time following a fixed amount of practice, this is an approximation of a(n) schedule. * a) FD b) FI c) FI/LH d) VI/LH

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 18. The statement “The time devoted to an activity in a concurrent situation is proportional to the rate of reinforcement of that activity relative to the rates of reinforcement on the other concurrent activities,” describes: a) performance on a VI/LH b) the concurrent schedule law c) the rate of reinforcement law * d) the matching law Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 19. The response chosen in a concurrent schedule depends on: a) the relative immediacy of reinforcement b) the relative magnitude of reinforcement c) the relative response effort * d) all of the above Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 20. The behavior of hitchhiking (thumbing to obtain a ride) is reinforced on: a) a VR * b) a VI/LH c) a VD d) a VI Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 21. In a procedure, a distinct stimulus is presented prior to an opportunity for a response to occur and be followed by a reinforcement, and the next response cannot occur 164 ..

until another stimulus is presented, and so on. a) free operant b) reinforcement * c) discrete trials d) natural reinforcement Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 22. A fixed-duration schedule would be a very good schedule for reinforcing study behavior.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 23. The inconsistent use of extinction often results in highly persistent undesirable behavior.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 24. The behavior of repeatedly dialing a telephone to call a friend whose line is busy is reinforced on an approximation of a VI/LH schedule.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual F 25. A teacher might suggest that those students who remain in their desks continuously for a half-hour interval will be allowed ten minutes to read a book of their choice. This is an approximation of VI/LH in a training program.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied T 26. In both VD and FD schedules, reinforcement is contingent on engaging in the behavior for a continuous time period.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 27. A door-to-door salesperson is reinforced on a VI schedule in that a sale is made after some unpredictable number of responses.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 28. Catching a ride on a bus at a bus stop on a regular city route is probably reinforced on an approximation of an FI/LH schedule.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 29. Limited hold in an FI/LH schedule can be exemplified by the amount of time a passenger waits at a bus stop for a bus to arrive.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual F 30. A VI/LH would not be used to teach students to sit at their desks, as it would generate sitting down and standing up at a high rate.

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Type: Conceptual Multiple Choice Question on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 31. Who wrote the classic authoritative work on schedules of reinforcement? a) Martin and Pear b) Keller and Skinner c) Keller and Watson * d) Ferster and Skinner Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 32. It appears that the presence of rule-governed behavior in humans influences them to make interpretations about schedules of reinforcement that generate behavior patterns that are different from those caused by the same schedules when applied to animals.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied F 33. Students are likely to complete less class work and make fewer correct responses when reinforced according to a fixed page condition than a fixed time condition.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied T 34. Humans often do not show decreased response rates and pauses in responding where animals typically do on certain schedules of reinforcement.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 35. Preverbal infants show quite different response patterns on certain schedules of reinforcement than do animals on those same schedules.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 36. Schedules of reinforcement can help us in understanding the causes of pathological gambling that some might attribute to “inner compulsions.”

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied

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Chapter 9. Responding at the Right Time and Place: Stimulus Discrimination and Stimulus Generalization Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. A is defined as any physical event or object in one’s immediate surroundings that impinge on one’s sensory receptors and that can affect a behavior. * a) stimulus b) positive reinforcer c) discriminative stimulus d) natural reinforce Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 2. A (n) is that which is correlated with the availability of reinforcement for a particular response. a) conditioned stimulus * b) discriminative stimulus c) warning stimulus d) controlling stimulus Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 3. When a particular behavior is likely to occur in the presence of a particular stimulus and not others, we say that exists. a) behavior persistence b) stimulus generalization * c) stimulus control d) stimulus discrimination training Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 4. Reinforcing a response in the presence of a particular stimulus and extinguishing that response in the presence of some other stimulus is known as: a) an intermittent schedule b) a shaping procedure c) a reinforcer sampling procedure * d) stimulus discrimination training Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 5. If a child is reinforced for swearing in front of other kids, but not for swearing in the presence of his parents, we would say that the parents are for swearing. * a) an S∆ b) a reinforcer c) an SD d) a punisher Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 6. A stimulus that is correlated with the availability of reinforcement for a response is known as: a) a cue b) a controlling stimulus * c) an SD d) an S∆ Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 7. When two people are eating dinner, the request by one person to pass the salt would be a(n) for the other person to pass the salt. a) S∆ b) controlling stimulus * c) SD d) effective SD Difficulty: Medium 167 ..

Type: Conceptual 8. A stimulus that is correlated with extinction trials for a particular response is known as: a) an SD b) a controlling stimulus c) a cue * d) an S∆ Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 9. An “Out of Order” sign on a vending machine is a(n) for the response of putting in money. * a) S∆ b) ineffective SD c) SD d) controlling stimulus Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 10. Which of the following questions are you not likely to ask yourself when you are considering the selection of a stimulus to be set up as an SD for the behavior of another person? a) Can the stimulus be presented primarily on occasions on which the response should occur? b) Is there a high probability that the person will attend to it? * c) Are there a wide variety of reinforcers available that are sufficiently different from one another? d) Is the stimulus sufficiently different from other stimuli on more than one dimension?

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 11. What do the authors mean by “an error in discrimination training”? a) failing to respond to the S∆ b) not responding at all c) responding to the SD * d) responding to the S∆ Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 12. In the case of a man who inadvertently enters the women’s washroom, the printed sign on the door “Women” is a(n) for the response of entering, on the part of the man. * a) ineffective S∆ b) effective S∆ c) effective SD d) ineffective SD

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 13. If a child’s swearing when playing with friends in the street increases as a function of the friends’ natural reactions, then swearing exemplifies: * a) contingency-shaped behavior b) rule-governed behavior c) extrinsic reinforcement d) intrinsic motivation

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 14. The people, objects, and events currently present in one’s surroundings that can be detected by one’s sense receptors are referred to as: a) SDs * b) stimuli c) S∆s d) antecedents Difficulty: Easy 168 ..

Type: Conceptual 15. The procedure by which we learn to emit a specific behavior in the presence of some stimuli and not in the presence of other stimuli is called: a) shaping b) stimulus control training * c) stimulus discrimination learning d) contextual control training

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 16. If a father were to tell his 16-year-old son, “You can use the family car on Saturday if you mow the lawn on Friday,” and if the son mows the lawn on Friday, we would describe the son’s lawn-mowing as: a) contingency shaped behavior b) intrinsically motivated behavior * c) rule-governed behavior d) self-managed behavior Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 17. When behavior becomes more probable in the presence of one stimulus or situation as a result of having been reinforced in the presence of another stimulus or situation, we say that has occurred. * a) stimulus generalization b) stimulus discrimination c) response generalization d) stimulus control Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 18. If teaching a child to say “red” in the presence of red objects increases the chances that the child will also say “red” to pink objects, we say that has occurred. a) response generalization * b) stimulus generalization c) stimulus control d) stimulus discrimination Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 19. Recognizing objects that are red and discriminating them from objects that are green is an example of: * a) conceptual behavior b) response generalization c) a stimulus class d) stimulus generalization Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 20. A child learns that a small green Volkswagen and a large white limousine are both cars, because they share some common features, even though they are very different in many respects. This represents: a) stimulus generalization due to considerable physical similarity b) stimulus generalization due to stimulus equivalence classes c) stimulus generalization due to behavioral momentum * d) stimulus generalization involving a stimulus common-element class Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 21. As a result of learning to match a golf ball to a golf club, and a golf club to a golf bag, a 169 ..

child is now able to match a golf bag to a golf ball without specific training to do so. In this example, the golf ball, the golf club, and the golf bag constitute a(n): a) stimulus class * b) stimulus equivalence class c) stimulus common-element class d) response class Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 22.

When a particular behavior is likely to occur in the presence of a particular stimulus and not others, we say that stimulus generalization exists.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 23.

A man walking toward a door with his arms full of purchases is typically an SD for another person to open the door for him.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 24.

An Out of Order sign on a vending machine is an SD for the response of putting in the money.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 25.

An apple, a banana, and a grape are members of a stimulus-equivalence class called food.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 26.

A stimulus common-element class is made up of stimuli that are physically different but functionally similar.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 27. As a result of learning to match A to B and B to C, an individual can now match A to C without specific training. This is called: a) stimulus equivalence * b) transitivity c) reflexivity d) symmetry Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 28. When the general setting alters the manner in which an individual responds to a particular stimulus, then has been demonstrated. a) stimulus control b) stimulus equivalence * c) contextual control d) stimulus discrimination Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual

True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) 170 ..

T 29. Stimulus equivalence requires the demonstration of reflexivity, symmetry, and transitivity.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 30. Contextual control refers to a situation where a single stimulus controls a single response in all settings or contexts.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual

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Chapter 10. Changing the Control of a Behavior with Fading Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1.

The gradual change, on successive trials, of a stimulus that controls a response so that the response eventually occurs to a partially changed or completely new stimulus, is known as: * a) fading b) stimulus discrimination training c) shaping d) SD - S∆ training Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 2.

If a parent tries to teach a child to hold a pencil and make a line on a piece of paper by physically guiding the child’s hand, and if over successive trials the physical guidance is gradually lessened to the point where the child will be able to draw a line without any help whatsoever, the parent is using: a) an extinction procedure * b) a fading procedure c) SD - S∆ training d) stimulus discrimination training Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 3.

Which of the following is not an advantage of establishing stimulus control without errors? a) Errors consume valuable time. b) If an error occurs once, it tends to occur many times even though it is being extinguished. * c) Establishing a mastery criterion without errors leads to increased generalization. d) The absence of reinforcement when errors are being extinguished often produces emotional side effects.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 4.

A stimulus that you want to eventually control a target behavior is called a(n): a) effective stimulus b) training stimulus c) starting stimulus * d) final target stimulus Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 5.

The initial stimulus that reliably evokes the desired behavior at the start of a fading program is known as the: a) effective stimulus *b) starting stimulus c) discriminative stimulus d) target stimulus Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 6.

George teaches his dog to bring him the morning newspaper by first reinforcing the dog for sniffing at the paper, then for picking it up in its mouth, then for carrying it a few steps, and finally for bringing it all the way to him. George’s procedure exemplifies: a) fading b) stimulus discrimination training c) intermittent reinforcement * d) none of the above Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 7.

When a teacher alters the characteristics of the SD or the S∆ to make them more noticeable and therefore easier to discriminate during discrimination training with a child, the teacher is using a(n): a) extra-stimulus prompt b) physical prompt 172 ..

*

c) within-stimulus prompt

d) modelling prompt

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 8.

Which of the following is not a major category of prompts? a) verbal prompts * b) psychological prompts c) gestural prompts d) physical prompts Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 9.

The procedure in which the response remains the same over trials while the controlling stimulus is gradually changed is called: a) method of successive approximation b) shaping c) stimulus discrimination training * d) fading Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 10. Susan praises her child for saying “please” before being given a treat and for saying “thank you” after receiving the treat. Susan’s procedure exemplifies: * a) stimulus discrimination training b) extinction c) fading d) intermittent reinforcement Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 11. When a teacher demonstrates a correct behavior, the teacher is using a(n): a) physical prompt b) environmental prompt c) verbal prompt * d) modelling prompt Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 12. While teaching a child to obtain the appropriate colored object when the teacher said either “blue” or “green,” the teacher’s pointing to the correct object on a trial would be an example of: a) a physical prompt b) an environmental prompt * c) a gestural prompt d) a modeling prompt Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 13. When teaching a child the correct position of the knife, fork, and spoon at a place setting at a dinner table, the teacher initially draws the location of the utensils on a place mat, and then fades out the drawing over trials. The drawing on the place mat is a(n): * a) extra-stimulus prompt b) within-stimulus prompt c) physical prompt d) time-delay prompt Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 14. It is advantageous to establish stimulus control without errors because errors consume valuable time.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 173 ..

F 15. In fading, the response gradually changes, while the general stimulus situation remains essentially the same.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 16. Movements a teacher makes without touching the student in order to evoke a desired behavior are called “gestural” prompts.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 17. No more than 4 reinforced trials should occur at any given fading step before the stimuli of that particular step are changed.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 18. Fading is a gradual change on successive trials of a stimulus that controls a response, so that the response eventually occurs to a partially changed or completely new stimuli.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 19. Another name for errorless learning is shaping.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 20. Any characteristic of a stimulus that can be measured on some continuum is referred to as a dimension of a stimulus.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 21. The method of removing prompts in which a starting stimulus that reliably evokes the response is gradually changed until the response is evoked by the final desired stimulus is known as the method of: a) increasing assistance * b) decreasing assistance c) graduated guidance d) time delay Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 22. The method of removing prompts in which the time interval between the final desired stimulus and the starting stimulus is gradually increased from a very small starting value is called the method of: a) increasing time b) decreasing time c) graduated guidance * d) time delay Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual

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Chapter 11. Getting a New Sequence of Behaviors to Occur with Behavior Chaining Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1.

A sequence of SDs and Rs in which each R produces the SD for the next R with the entire sequence followed by a reinforcer is referred to as: * a) a behavioral chain b) shaping c) fading d) stimulus discrimination training Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 2.

You pour a cup of coffee. You add sugar and then cream. You stir the coffee and then take a sip. The taste of the coffee with the cream and sugar is the reinforcer. This is an example of: a) fading b) shaping c) a stimulus discrimination * d) a stimulus-response chain Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 3.

In a behavioral chain, a given stimulus is both: a) an S∆ and a generalized reinforcer * b) an SD and a conditioned reinforcer c) a stimulus and a target stimulus d) a primary reinforcer and a conditioned reinforce Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 4.

A chaining method in which the client is required to attempt each of the steps in the chain from the beginning to the end on each trial is referred to as: a) forward chaining * b) total task presentation chaining c) pure part chaining d) backward chaining Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 5.

When the initial step of a sequence is taught first, then the first and second steps are taught and linked together, then the first three steps, and so on until the entire chain is acquired, this process describes: a) pure part chaining * b) forward chaining c) backward chaining d) total task presentation chaining Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 6.

Which of the chaining methods requires the trainer to spend less time in partial assembly or disassembly to prepare the task for training? a) forward chaining b) backward chaining * c) total task presentation chaining d) pure part chaining Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 7.

In behavior. a) shaping c) chaining

, the end result of the procedure is some new stimulus control of a particular * b) fading d) prompting 175 ..

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 8.

When the goal of a program is to develop some new behavior along some physical dimension such as force, form, or duration, one should use: a) fading * b) shaping c) chaining d) prompting Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 9.

With , the terminal behavior is a new sequence of responses, with a “clear-cut” stimulus signalling the end of each response and the start of the next. a) fading b) shaping * c) chaining d) prompting Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 10. The process of breaking a task down into smaller steps or component responses to facilitate training refers to: a) forward chaining b) motivating operation c) pure part chaining * d) task analysis Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 11. A teacher gradually withdraws her physical guidance that was used to help a nursery school child learn to trace the letter “A.” Eventually the child can trace the letter by herself.

This is an example of: a) chaining b) shaping c) prompting * d) fading Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 12. Always having a readily available conditioned reinforcer to strengthen each new response that is added to the sequence in the chain is a theoretical advantage of: a) forward chaining * b) backward chaining c) total task presentation chaining d) pure part chaining Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 13. In backward chaining, the response that is closest to the main reinforcer: a) is slowly faded in b) is conditioned last * c) is conditioned first d) is slowly faded out Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 14. A behavioral chain is called a chain because it consists of stimulus-response “links” that are connected or “chained” together.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 15. After many trials, the stimulus that occurs immediately following each step in a chain 176 ..

eventually becomes both a conditioned reinforcer for the response that produced that stimulus and an SD for the following response.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 16. The authors recommend backward chaining as the preferred chaining procedure because it appears to focus on teaching response topography and response sequence simultaneously.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 17. You should begin training a behavioral chain by providing whatever assistance is necessary for the client to perform each of the steps on every trial.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied F 18. Feeding a person very salty food, which would establish water as a reinforcer and also evoke behavior such as asking for a drink (that has been reinforced by receipt of water), is an example of forward chaining.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied F 19. An adventitious chain is one in which each response component of the chain is necessary for reinforcement.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 20. In a long behavioral chain, the stimuli at the beginning of the chain begin to take on the properties of SΔs, and their quality of being SDs decreases.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied

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Chapter 12. Differential Reinforcement Procedures to Decrease Behavior Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. You are likely to reinforce (by answering pleasantly and with interest) an acquaintance who telephones you if such calls occur at a reasonably low rate, but not if they occur at such a high rate that you feel hassled. You friend is being reinforced on a(n): * a) DRL schedule b) DRO schedule c) DRA schedule d) DRI schedule Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 2. Reinforcement is given at the end of a session, provided that the number of responses during that session do not exceed some specified limit. This is the definition of: * a) limited-responding DRL b) interval DRL c) spaced-responding DRL d) limited-hold DRL Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 3. When the session is divided into intervals and reinforcement is given at the end of each interval in which the number of responses do not exceed some specified limit, then a(n) schedule is being applied. a) VI/LH b) spaced-responding DRO c) DRA * d) limited-responding DRL Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 4. Reinforcement is given immediately after a response during a session, provided that that response is separated from the preceding response by some minimal time period. This refers to a(n): a) FI/LH b) limited-responding DRL c) VI/LH * d) spaced-responding DRL Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 5. On a(n) schedule of reinforcement, responding too soon means that the time interval will recycle so that a reinforced response must occur a minimum of a specified interval of time following a preceding response. a) limited-responding DRL b) interval DRL * c) spaced-responding DRL d) limited-hold DRL Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 6. On a(n) schedule of reinforcement, responding by the individual before the time interval has passed has no programmed consequences. a) spaced-responding DRL * b) FI c) limited-responding DRL d) FD Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 7. It would be appropriate to use a DRL schedule of reinforcement when a behavior: * a) occurs at greater than the desired rate b) does not occur 178 ..

c) occurs at very low rates

d) is harmful to the client or others

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 8. On a(n) schedule of reinforcement, a reinforcer is presented if a specified period of time passes and a particular behavior does not occur during that time. a) DRA b) DRI c) DRL * d) DRO Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 9. Jack works at a job where he is paid by the hour. Jack is being reinforced on a schedule. a) fixed-ratio b) fixed-interval * c) fixed-duration d) variable-interval Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 10. An individual is reinforced if a target response does not occur throughout a particular interval, and each response typically “resets” the interval back to zero. This refers to a(n) schedule. a) DRI * b) DRO c) DRA d) spaced-responding DRL Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 11. A is a schedule for decreasing a response by reinforcing an alternative response that is incompatible with the response to be eliminated. a) DRO b) DRA * c) DRI d) spaced-responding DRL

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 12. When Suzie plays the slot machines in Las Vegas, her gambling behavior is reinforced on a schedule. a) variable-interval b) variable-duration c) fixed-ratio * d) variable-ratio Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 13. A student who studies frequently in order to do well on unannounced pop quizzes in one of her courses is showing the effects of: a) a VI schedule b) a VR schedule * c) a VI/LH schedule d) a VD schedule Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 14. A procedure that involves extinction of a problem behavior, combined with reinforcing a behavior that is topographically dissimilar to, but not necessarily incompatible with the problem behavior is known as a: a) DRL schedule * b) DRA schedule 179 ..

c) DRO schedule Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual

d) DRI schedule

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 15. Limited-responding DRL is useful when two conditions hold: (a) some of the behavior is tolerable, but (b) the behavior must also be engaged in for a fixed period of time.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 16. Spaced-responding DRL is useful when the behavior you want to reduce is actually desirable, provided it does not occur at too high a rate.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 17. The “O” in DRO stands for other responding.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 18. DRL works to the disadvantage of people who are ignorant of its effects by inadvertently reinforcing behavior that is highly undesirable and harmful to others.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied T 19. DRA refers to a schedule in which a behavior that is different from, but not necessarily incompatible with, the problem behavior is reinforced and the problem behavior is extinguished.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 20.

In the program in which Tommy could earn extra playtime at the end of the day for having three or fewer talkouts during class, Tommy’s talkouts may have decreased because the teacher immediately reinforced Tommy for working without talking.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual F 21.

In the program in which Tommy could earn extra playtime at the end of the day for having three or fewer talkouts during class, Tommy’s talkouts decreased because of the directacting effects of reinforcement of free play at the end of the day when he didn’t talk out.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied

180 ..

Chapter 13. Decreasing Behavior with Punishment Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1.

An event which, when presented immediately following a behavior, causes the behavior to decrease in frequency, is referred to as a(n): a) SD * b) punisher c) primary reinforcer d) natural reinforce Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 2.

Punishers that activate pain receptors or other sense receptors that typically evoke feelings of discomfort are included in the category of: * a) physical punishment b) time-outs c) reprimands d) response cost Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 3. *

Placing a child in a relatively barren room for a brief period of time is an example of: a) physical punishment b) reprimands c) time-out d) response cost

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 4.

Strong negative verbal stimuli make up the category of: a) physical punishment b) response cost c) time-out * d) reprimands Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 5. A traffic ticket is an example of: a) physical punishment c) time-out

b) reprimands * d) response cost

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 6.

A stimulus that was not originally punishing, but that acquired punishing power through association with other punishers is the definition of: a) an S∆ * b) a conditioned punisher c) a reprimand d) a non-exclusionary time-out Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 7.

Removing the individual for a short time from the situation in which reinforcement is occurring is classified as: a) non-exclusionary time-out b) response cost * c) exclusionary time-out d) negative reinforcement Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 8.

Introducing into the situation a stimulus associated with less reinforcement is referred to as: 181 ..

a) response cost c) negative reinforcement Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual

b) exclusionary time-out * d) non-exclusionary time-out

9.

If a teacher is unable to detect most instances of a behavior to be punished, then the teacher should have serious doubts about the value of implementing a punishment procedure because: a) the student seems to get used to the punisher and can put up with more of it * b) intermittent punishment is less effective than continuous punishment c) you cannot apply an experimental test to this type of situation to detect all instances of the undesirable behavior d) this increases the likelihood that the punisher will become a positive reinforce Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 10. Parents with good intentions might say to their child, “That was good, but...” and then proceed to explain how the behavior could have been even better. Although they hope to be instructional, they are probably unintentionally applying: a) shaping b) positive reinforcement * c) punishment d) fading Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 11. In non-exclusionary time-out, the individual is: a) taken away to a time-out area b) ignored while still in the problem situation * c) timed out in the problem situation d) removed from reinforcement

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 12. As a consequence of coming home later than an agreed-upon curfew, a teenager loses the privilege of driving the family car for one week. This exemplifies: a) negative reinforcement b) time-out c) physical punishment * d) response cost Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied 13. Punishment is the same as: a) negative reinforcement c) avoidance conditioning Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual

b) escape conditioning * d) none of the above

14. To increase an operant behavior, you can: a) punish it * b) negatively reinforce it c) withhold reinforcement following the behavior d) positively reinforce an incompatible behavior Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 15. When many of us were children, we learned that asking our parents for treats when they were in a bad mood usually led to a reprimand. The parental behaviors characteristic of “being 182 ..

in a bad mood” would be referred to as a(n): a) SD b) S∆ Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual

c) CS

* d) SDp

16. The view that, in some cases, it is desirable to use quicker-acting punishment procedures to decrease problem behavior rather than slower-acting procedures involving positive reinforcement of alternative behavior, is referred to as the position. a) freedom from harm * b) right to effective treatment c) functional communication d) positive behavior support Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 17. The principle of punishment states: If, in a given situation, somebody does something that is immediately followed by the withdrawal of a punisher, then that person is less likely to do the same thing again when he or she next encounters a similar situation.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied T 18. A factor influencing the effectiveness of punishment consists of minimizing the causes of the response to be punished. This is typically done by eliminating the SDs that prompt the undesirable behavior and eliminating reinforcement contingencies that have been maintaining it.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied F 19. A common example of response cost that is applied as a punishment by parents to their children is sending children to their room as a punisher for undesirable behavior emitted elsewhere in the house.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 20. Response cost involves removal of a specified amount of a reinforcer contingent upon a response.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 21. An SD is a stimulus in the presence of which a response will be punished.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 22. An S∆ is a stimulus in the presence of which a response will not be reinforced.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 23. The “right to effective treatment” position is that non-aversive methods for eliminating unacceptable behavior are always at least as effective as punishment, and that there is never any justification for using pain-inducing punishment.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied 183 ..

T 24. A procedure called “functional communication training “ is one in which children with developmental disabilities are taught a simple communicative response as an alternative to self-abuse in order to obtain staff attention.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied

True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 25. A recent review of trends in time-out research concluded that more research was needed to evaluate the relative efficacy of exclusionary vs. nonexclusionary time-out.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied

184 ..

Chapter 14. Establishing Behavior by Escape and Avoidance Conditioning Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1.

Both escape conditioning and the punishment procedure employ: a) differential reinforcement b) exclusionary time-outs * c) aversive events d) negative reinforcement Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 2.

Which procedures both increase the likelihood of the target response? a) punishment and escape conditioning * b) positive reinforcement and escape conditioning c) positive reinforcement and punishment d) punishment and avoidance conditioning Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 3.

Another name for “conditioned aversive stimulus” is: a) S∆ b) natural punisher * c) warning stimulus d) extrinsic punisher Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 4.

Why do individuals reinforce the undesirable behavior of others? * a) the undesirable behavior is an aversive event which reinforcement terminates (for a while) b) these individuals are reinforced by other individuals’ failures c) we learn more from our mistakes than from our successes d) the undesirable behavior is undergoing shaping Difficulty: Hard Type: conceptual 5.

If you use escape conditioning to change a behavior, the behavior is likely to . a) remain the same b) completely stop c) decrease * d) increase Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 6.

One of the results of avoidance conditioning is that: a) it easily generalizes to other situations * b) responding decreases very slowly when the backup aversive stimulus may no longer be forthcoming c) the results last only for a short time d) the aversive stimulus must be presented before the avoidance response will occur Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 7.

When an aversive stimulus is presented after a response and the response decreases in frequency, this procedure is called: a) response cost b) negative reinforcement 185 ..

*

c) punishment

d) all of the above

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 8.

Suppose that a parent says to a child, “Clean your room or you can’t watch TV,” and the child cleans his room. This is an example of: a) contingency shaped behavior b) Sidman avoidance conditioning c) punishment * d) rule-governed behavior Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 9.

A type of avoidance conditioning that includes a warning stimulus that signals a forthcoming aversive stimulus is referred to as: a) Sidman avoidance conditioning b) non-discriminated avoidance conditioning * c) discriminated avoidance conditioning d) rule-governed avoidance conditioning Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 10. A child screams loudly in a restaurant, causing some embarrassment for the parent. The parent gives the child an extra dessert, and the child is quiet. The parent’s behavior of giving the extra dessert has been influenced by: a) avoidance conditioning * b) escape conditioning c) Sidman avoidance conditioning d) punishment Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 11. In a state where it is the law to wear seatbelts while driving, a person does not “buckle-up” when starting for work in the morning. But when that person sees a police car just ahead, the person quickly buckles up. That person’s “buckling-up” behavior has been influenced by: * a) avoidance conditioning b) escape conditioning c) Sidman avoidance conditioning d) punishment Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 12. Another name for escape conditioning is: a) punishment * b) negative reinforcement c) discriminated avoidance conditioning d) Sidman escape conditioning Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 13. Escape conditioning and positive reinforcement are similar in that: a) both involve aversive events b) both involve reinforcers * c) both lead to an increase in the likelihood of behavior d) both cause fear as a side effect Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 14. In avoidance conditioning, the response prevents or postpones the aversive stimulus rather than removing it.

Difficulty: Medium 186 ..

Type: Conceptual F 15. Conditioned aversive stimulus is another name for response cost.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 16. In escape conditioning, the aversive stimulus is not present prior to the occurrence of the response, and the response prevents (or postpones) the aversive stimulus rather than removing it.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 17. An avoidance schedule in which occasional aversive events are postponed by the emission of a response and in which no warning stimulus signals the impending occurrence of an aversive event is referred to as: * a) Sidman avoidance conditioning b) passive avoidance conditioning c) escape conditioning d) negative reinforcement Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 18. In a city where frequent, unpredictable rain showers occur, carrying an umbrella to work each morning, even though the sky is clear, might be an example of: a) negative reinforcement b) passive avoidance conditioning * c) Sidman avoidance conditioning d) escape conditioning Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual

187 ..

Chapter 15. Respondent and Operant Conditioning Together Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1.

A child is approached by a dog and is knocked down, which causes fear. The next time the child sees a dog, the child experiences fear, which subsides when the child runs away from the dog. The child’s fear of the sight of the dog was caused by: a) operant conditioning b) escape conditioning * c) respondent conditioning d) avoidance conditioning Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 2.

A child is approached by a dog and is knocked down, which causes fear. The next time the child sees a dog, the child experiences fear, which subsides when the child runs away from the dog. The child’s running away from the dog is maintained by: a) operant conditioning * b) escape conditioning c) respondent conditioning d) avoidance conditioning Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 3.

The child hears the bell (which rings continuously) of an ice cream wagon, goes out to the street and buys ice cream, bites the ice cream, and salivates. The sound of the bell will become a(n) for the response of salivation. * a) CS b) US c) CR d) SD Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 4.

The child hears the bell (which rings continuously) of an ice cream wagon, goes out to the street and buys ice cream, bites the ice cream, and salivates. The sound of the bell will become a(n) for going to the street to buy ice cream. a) CS b) US c) CR *d) SD Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 5.

The autonomic reaction that you feel inside during the experience of an emotion is influenced by: a) operant conditioning * b) respondent conditioning c) avoidance conditioning d) escape conditioning Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 6. *

The way that you learn to express an emotion is influenced by: a) avoidance conditioning b) respondent conditioning c) operant conditioning d) escape conditioning

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 7.

The way that you become aware of and describe your emotions is influenced by: a) avoidance conditioning b) respondent conditioning c) escape conditioning * d) operant conditioning Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 188 ..

8.

Suppose, on seeing the host at a party, you think to yourself, “He has a big nose.” This would be an example of: * a) operant thinking b) respondent thinking c) conditioned seeing d) conditioned sensing Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 9.

Suppose, on a warm summer day, you close your eyes and imagine that you are at the beach, and you visualize a good looking person in a bathing suit. This is an example of: a) operant thinking b) operant feelings * c) respondent thinking d) respondent feelings Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 10. The emotion called joy (or happiness) is caused by: a) presentation of aversive stimuli b) withdrawal of aversive stimuli * c) presentation of reinforcers d) withdrawal of reinforcers Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual

True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 11. The respondent component of emotions involves that part of our nervous system referred to as the somatic nervous system.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 12. In studies of newborn infants, flinging out the arms sideways is a CR to a loud sound.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 13. For most of us, an imminent deadline that we have not yet responded to is a CS for anxiety.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 14. The feeling component of our emotions is controlled by respondent conditioning.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 15. In studies of newborn infants, gagging occurs when the back of the mouth is touched.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 16. In studies of newborn infants, the eye being touched is a CS for blinking.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 17. Withdrawal of reinforcers causes the emotion called anger.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 189 ..

F 18. Withdrawal of punishing events causes an emotion called anxiety.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 19. Conditioned sensing involves the operant component of thinking.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 20. Conditioned seeing involves the respondent component of thinking.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual

Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 21. A form of aversion therapy in which an undesirable reinforcer is repeatedly paired with an aversive event is referred to as: a) thought stopping b) conditioned sensing c) aversive conditioning * d) covert sensitization Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 22. The procedure of covert sensitization was developed by: * a) Cautella b) Skinner c) Bandura Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

190 ..

d) Pavlov

Chapter 16. Transferring Behavior to New Settings and Making It Last: Generality of Behavior Change Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. When behavior becomes more probable in the presence of one stimulus or situation as a result of having been reinforced in the presence of another stimulus or situation, we say that has occurred. * a) stimulus generalization b) response generalization c) stimulus discrimination d) stimulus control

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 2. If teaching a child to say “dog” in the presence of a small brown dog increases the chances that the child will also say “dog” to small black dogs and large white dogs, we say that has occurred. a) response generalization b) stimulus control * c) stimulus generalization d) stimulus discrimination

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 3. When the probability of the behavior is different in the presence of two different stimuli or situations, is occurring. a) stimulus generalization * b) stimulus discrimination c) stimulus shaping d) stimulus satiation

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 4. When a behavior becomes more probable in the presence of a stimulus or situation as a result of a similar behavior having been strengthened in the presence of that stimulus or situation, has occurred. a) stimulus generalization b) stimulus shaping c) stimulus discrimination * d) response generalization

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 5. Which of the following is not a tactic for programming stimulus generalization? a) making the training situation as similar as possible to the test situation, and if possible, training in the test situation b) programming common stimuli by developing the target behavior to stimuli that are present in both training and test situations * c) training sufficient response exemplars d) training sufficient stimulus exemplars

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 6. Training sufficient response exemplars, and varying the responses that are acceptable during training to increase the probability of a variety of responses occurring in the test situation are two tactics for: a) recruiting natural communities of reinforcement b) programming behavior maintenance c) stimulus discrimination training * d) programming response generalization

Difficulty: Easy 191 ..

Type: Applied 7. Which of the following behaviors is not a tactic for programming behavior maintenance? * a) varying the acceptable behaviors during training to increase the probability of a variety of behaviors occurring in the test situation b) teaching people in the natural environment to maintain the target behavior of the subject; c) deliberately reinforcing the target behavior in the test situation on an intermittent schedule of reinforcement d) ensuring that the target behavior comes under the control of reinforcers in the natural environment

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 8. Developing a behavior that comes under the control of natural contingencies of reinforcement so that the behavior will persist after the training contingencies are withdrawn is called: a) recruiting reinforcement b) behavioral persistence * c) behavioral trapping d) behavior control

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 9. If a behavior is maintained in the natural environment because the subject has been explicitly taught how to obtain reinforcement from individuals (after emitting the target behavior), we say that has occurred. a) response generalization b) behavioral trapping c) stimulus generalization * d) recruiting reinforcement

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 10. A child who calls all four-legged animals “dogs” is exhibiting a) stimulus equivalence b) response generalization * c) stimulus generalization d) response maintenance

.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 11. After learning to call her dog “Doggie,” a baby also refers to her dog as “Dogged,” “Dada,” and “Diggy.” The child is exhibiting . a) stimulus discrimination * b) response generalization c) stimulus generalization d) stimulus equivalence

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 12. If a child is taught to say “dog” when viewing different dogs, then the child is likely to generalize and refer to any variety of dog as a “dog”. This would be an example of: * a) training sufficient stimulus exemplars b) training sufficient response exemplars c) response generalization d) behavior maintenance

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 13. Within a behavioral approach, a set of stimuli that have some physical characteristic in common is referred to as: 192 ..

a) a response class c) a mental representation of objects

* b) a common-element stimulus class d) response generalization

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 14. An infant learns to say “doggy” to a large dog. Later, the infant sees a different kind of dog and says “doggy.” This represents stimulus generalization due to: a) conceptual learning b) stimulus equivalence training * c) physical similarity d) behavioral momentum

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 15. A child learns that a tiny Chihuahua and a large German Shepherd are both dogs, because they share some common features, even though they are very different in many respects.

This represents: a) stimulus generalization due to physical similarity b) stimulus generalization due to equivalence classes c) stimulus generalization due to behavioral momentum * d) stimulus generalization due to a stimulus common-element class

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 16. If a CS is presented without further pairings with a US, the CS will lose its ability to elicit the CR. This is known as: a) operant extinction * b) respondent extinction c) counterconditioning d) behavioral momentum

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 17. One can heat water by placing a tin of it over a campfire, plugging in an electric kettle, or placing a hot rock into a can of water. These alternatives constitute: a) a stimulus equivalence class b) functionally equivalent stimuli c) a concept * d) functionally equivalent responses

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 18. Adding “ed” to the ends of verbs to indicate past tense illustrates: a) stimulus generalization due to conceptual learning * b) response generalization due to sharing a common characteristic c) response generalization due to equivalence classes d) stimulus generalization due to equivalence classes

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 19. Suppose that a child is typically noncompliant when asked to do a particular task. The teacher therefore asks the child to perform three tasks in succession that the child likes to do, and then asks the child to perform the task on which he is noncompliant. As a result of this procedure, the child performs all four tasks. This illustrates: a) response generalization * b) behavioral momentum c) stimulus generalization d) behavior maintenance

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 193 ..

20. The more reinforcement that occurs in a given situation in which a response is reinforced, the more resistant to disruption that response will be in that situation. This is referred to as: a) response generalization * b) behavioral momentum c) stimulus generalization d) behavior maintenance

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 21.

In stimulus generalization, an individual makes a different response to two different stimuli, whereas in stimulus discrimination, an individual makes the same response to two different stimuli.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 22.

Stimulus generalization refers to the transfer of a particular behavior to different stimuli, whereas response generalization refers to transfer between responses in a particular setting.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 23.

Making the training situation as different as possible from target situations is a tactic for programming stimulus generalization.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 24.

Children with developmental disabilities show the same amount of stimulus generalization when trained with pictures of objects as when trained with the actual objects.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual

194 ..

Chapter 17. Antecedent Control: Rules and Goals Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. On Monday, a parent says to a child, “If you clean your room each Saturday morning, I’ll give you two dollars.” The next Saturday, the child cleans his room. This illustrates an example of: a) a functional response-reinforcer relationship b) natural reinforcement * c) rule-governed behavior d) contingency-shaped behavior

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 2. If you tell someone to stop eating candies and the person stops, then that would be an example of: a) extinction b) spontaneous recovery c) contingency-shaped behavior * d) rule-governed behavior

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 3. A behavior that has been gradually strengthened by the direct-acting effects of reinforcement is said to be: * a) contingency shaped b) stimulus controlled c) rule-governed d) instinctive

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 4. Rule-governed control over behavior is especially effective when: a) rapid behavior change is desirable b) a specific behavior will lead to immediate and severe punishment c) natural consequences for that behavior are delayed * d) all of the above

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 5. A parent says to a child, “If you study for an hour each night this week you can watch the late movie on Friday night.” This example involves a(n): * a) indirect-acting reinforcer b) direct-acting reinforcer c) natural reinforcer d) unconditioned reinforcer

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 6. Very few people follow the rule “Always wear a helmet when riding a bicycle in order to avoid brain damage from a serious accident” because: a) there are not enough police officers to adequately enforce it b) the consequences are very delayed c) the consequences are only cumulatively significant * d) the consequences are highly improbable

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 7. Few people follow the rule “Floss your teeth everyday to prevent tooth decay” because: * a) the consequences of a single such action are too small to be noticed and are only of 195 ..

cumulative significance b) the consequences for doing so are highly improbable c) the consequences for doing so are very delayed d) there are no consequences for doing so

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 8. A description of a three-term contingency is referred to as a(n): a) partial rule b) rule-governed behavior c) contingency shaped behavior * d) rule

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 9. The partial rule “drive slowly” identifies the: a) antecedent b) antecedent and behavior * c) behavior d) consequence

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 10. A rule is less likely to be followed if it identifies: a) a specific behavior b) a deadline c) a probable consequence * d) a small consequence

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 11. Which of the following is not accurate? * a) “Do your best” goals are more effective than challenging goals. b) Specific goals are more effective than vague goals. c) Public goals are more effective than private goals. d) Goal-setting is more effective if deadlines are included.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 12.

Rules that do not contain deadlines are about as effective as rules that do contain deadlines.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual T 13.

Use of goals to influence performance capitalizes on rule-governed control over behavior.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 14.

“Do your best” goals are more effective than specific challenging goals.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual T 15.

Public goals are more effective than private goals.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 196 ..

True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 16.

Exercising just before going to bed is a recommendation of behavioral sleep therapy.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 17.

A recommendation of behavioral sleep therapy is that one should not consume caffeine or alcohol late in the evening.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 18.

A recommendation of behavioral sleep therapy is that one should go to bed at the same time each evening, even if you don’t feel sleepy.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 19. A recommendation of behavioral sleep therapy is that one should get up at the same time each morning, regardless of the time that you went to bed.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

197 ..

Chapter 18. Antecedent Control: Modeling, Guidance, and Situational Inducement Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. Which of the following procedures would you probably use if you wanted to decrease an excessive behavior? * a) operant extinction b) respondent extinction c) shaping d) fading

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 2. A behavioral technique in which a client rehearses particular behaviors in a practice setting to increase the likelihood that the client will follow those behaviors in the real world is called: a) symbolic modeling b) generalized imitation * c) role-playing d) participant modeling

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 3. Presenting physical contact to guide someone through appropriate behavior is called: a) gestural prompting b) participant modeling c) modeling * d) physical guidance

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 4. The term involves influencing a particular behavior by using situations and occasions that already exert control over the behavior. * a) situational inducement b) participant modeling c) rule-governed behavior d) generalized imitation

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 5. Which of the following is not an example of antecedent control: a) modeling * b) positive reinforcement c) physical guidance d) situational inducement

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 6. Which of the following is not a proposed category of situational inducement? a) relocating people * b) counterconditioning c) moving the activity to a new location d) changing the time of the activity

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 7. It is said that the famous writer Victor Hugo controlled his work habits in his study by having his servant take his clothes away and not bring them back until the end of the day.

This is an example of: a) counterconditioning b) response cost c) symbolic modeling * d) situational inducement

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 198 ..

8. According to the proposed guidelines for the use of instruction, modeling, and physical guidance, what behavioral principle is used with all three procedures? * a) positive reinforcement b) shaping c) response cost d) fading

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 9. A parent tells a child, “If you clean your room every night before you go to bed this week, I’ll take you to a movie on Saturday,” and the child complies. This exemplifies: a) situational inducement b) environmental prompting c) contingency-shaped behavior * d) rule-governed behavior

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 10. If after having been reinforced for imitating a number of behaviors, an individual imitates a completely new behavior the first time that behavior is modeled, we say that has occurred. a) novel generalization b) participant modeling c) symbolic modeling * d) generalized imitation.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 11. Which of the following is not likely to influence the effectiveness of modeling as a behavior modification technique? a) arrange for peers to be models * b) counterconditioning c) show the behavior and its effects d) use multiple models

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 12. In order to “get up the energy” to follow her usual exercise routine on a Saturday afternoon, the exercise buff places some dumbbells in the center of the den (where she usually exercises) and turns on the TV to the local fitness channel. Which category of situational inducement is the exerciser practicing? a) relocate people * b) rearrange the existing surroundings c) move the activity to a new location d) change the time of the activity

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 13. After many interruptions while trying to write the behavior modification text at the university, Martin and Pear began working at one of their homes. Which category of situational inducement did they apply? a) relocate people b) rearrange the existing surroundings * c) move the activity to a new location d) change the time of the activity

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 14. Which of the following is not a strategy to be followed to influence the effectiveness of modelling? a) arrange for peers to be models * b) arrange for the modelled behavior to be seen to be ineffective 199 ..

c) use multiple models d) combine modelling with rules

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 15. A procedure in which a client practices particular behaviors in a practice setting to increase the likelihood that those behaviors will occur appropriately in the real world is called: a) contingency shaping b) rule-governed control c) modeling *d) behavioral rehearsal

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 16.

Stimulus discrimination and fading are two procedures used to get a desired behavior to occur in the presence of appropriate stimuli.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 17.

To stop drinking, an alcoholic surrounds himself with members of Alcoholics Anonymous and stops seeing his old drinking buddies. This is an example of symbolic modeling.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 18.

Punishment is an important antecedent control procedure.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 19.

From a behavioral point of view, imitative learning is considered to be innate in higher species.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 20.

Other people’s actions may become SDs for engaging in similar actions because the response of imitating often results in reinforcement. This is one process by which imitative behavior is learned.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual

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Chapter 19. Antecedent Control: Motivation Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: *indicates the correct answer) 1. According to Suzie’s teacher, “Suzie is a good student because she is highly motivated.” This is an example of view of motivation: a) a behavioral b) Michael’s * c) a traditional d) Skinner’s

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 2. Events that temporarily alter the effectiveness of consequences as reinforcers or punishers are called: a) establishing operations * b) motivating operations c) abolishing operations d) reinforcing operations

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 3. Feeding a person salty food increases the reinforcing value of water for that person. Feeding someone salty food would therefore be an example of a(n): a) UMAO b) CMAO c) CMEO * d) UMEO

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 4. With unconditioned motivating operations: * a) the value-altering effect is innate and the behavior altering effect is learned b) the value-altering effect is learned and the behavior altering effect is innate c) both the value-altering and behavior altering effects are innate d) both the value-altering and behavior altering effects are learned

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 5. With conditioned motivating operations: a) the value-altering effect is innate and the behavior altering effect is learned b) the value-altering effect is learned and the behavior altering effect is innate c) both the value-altering and behavior altering effects are innate * d) both the value-altering and behavior altering effects are learned

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 6. A parent tells his teenage daughter that she can earn points for mowing the lawn, and when a certain number of points have been earned, she can exchange them for use of the family car. The description of the points program is a(n): a) UMEO * b) CMEO c) UMAO d) CMAO

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 7. After eating a big meal, food is no longer a reinforcer. Food satiation is an example of a(n): a) UMEO b) CMEO * c) UMAO d) CMAO

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 201 ..

8. A child comes home from school and is hungry. The parent tells the child that there are fresh cookies in the cupboard, and the child can have one. This instruction from the parent is an example of a(n): a) CMAO b) S∆ c) CMEO * d) SD

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 9. Suppose that you have a MasterCard and a Visa and you typically use the MasterCard because it gives you AirMile points for each person. Suppose further that MasterCard terminates their AirMiles program and you switch to Visa. The announcement of the termination of the AirMiles program would be an example of a(n) for using the MasterCard: a) CMEO b) SD * c) CMAO d) S∆

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 10. A parent says “water,” and the child mimics “water.” The response of the child is an example of a(n): a) tact b) mand c) intraverbal * d) echoic

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 11. A child goes into the kitchen and asks a parent for a glass of milk. The request by the child is an example of a(n): * a) mand b) echoic c) tact d) intraverbal

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 12. A parent points to a dog and asks the child, “What’s that?” and the child replies, “dog.”

The reply by the child is an example of a(n): a) echoic * b) tact c) mand d) intraverbal

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 13. Observations indicate that a person with severe developmental disabilities engages in excessive scratching due to reactions by well-meaning staff. By way of treatment, the staff provides attention to the individual every ten seconds and scratching decreases. The treatment program would be described as a(n) for staff attention. a) UMAO b) UMEO * c) CMAO d) CMEO

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T

14. A conceptual limitation of the traditional view of motivation is that it involves circular reasoning.

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Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 15. The behavioral view of motivation conceptualizes motivation as some “thing” within us that causes our actions.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T

16. Motivating operations are events that temporarily alter the effects of consequences as reinforcers or punishers.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F

17. A motivating abolishing operation increases the effectiveness of a consequence as a reinforcer.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T

18. A motivating establishing operation increases the effectiveness of a consequence as a punisher.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F

19. With unconditioned motivating operations, the value-altering effect is learned.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T

20. With conditioned motivating operations, both the value-altering effect and the behavioraltering effect are learned.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual Multiple Choice Question on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 21. A policeman asks a child, “Where do you live?” and the child correctly tells the policeman the address. The response by the child would be referred to as a(n): a) mand * b) intraverbal c) echoic d) tact

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F

22. A typical MO is likely to affect one behavior, and a given behavior is likely to be affected by one MO.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T

23. Ingestion of drugs functions as a motivating operation.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T

24. A child’s response “juice” to a parent’s question “What do you want?” is an example of an intraverbal.

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Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual

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Chapter 20. Behavioral Assessment: Initial Considerations Multiple Choice Questions on Text

(Note: * indicates the correct answer)

1. Which of the following is not a reason for collecting accurate data during a baseline and throughout a program? a) To help the behavior modifier identify the best treatment strategy. b) The displayed data may lead to improvements apart from any further treatment program. * c) It will demonstrate if adventitious reinforcement occurs while the program is being implemented. d) Publicly posted results can be both prompts and reinforcers for the behavior modifiers for carrying out a program.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 2. A “screening assessment” is another name for: * a) an intake phase b) a follow-up phase c) a treatment phase d) a baseline phase

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 3. The phase used to determine if a particular agency is the appropriate one to deal with an individual’s behavior and what behaviors should be baselined if this agency is the appropriate one is called the: a) intervention phase b) follow-up phase * c) screening phase d) validation phase

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 4. When a behavior modifier relies on a verbal description of the behavior of a client through interviews and/or formal questionnaires, we can say s/he is using a(n) assessment procedure. a) direct * b) indirect c) intellectual d) psychodiagnostic

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied 5. Which of the following is most likely to use an indirect assessment procedure? a) a teacher working with a student b) a coach working with an athlete c) a parent working with a child * d) a professional therapist working with a client

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 6. With the aid of a therapist, a client may be encouraged to describe a situation in which a problem behavior has occurred in the past and to reenact the occurrence of the problem behavior in that situation. This procedure is known as: * a) role-playing b) behavioral reenactment c) modeling d) symbolic modeling

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 205 ..

7. Questionnaires, client self-monitoring, role-playing, information from consulting professionals, and interviews with the client and significant others are the main types of assessment procedures. a) psychological * b) indirect c) psychodiagnostic d) direct

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 8. A questionnaire that asks significant others or professionals involved with a client to indicate on a checklist the frequency and/or quality of certain behaviors that the client may emit is called a: a) life-history questionnaire b) problem checklist c) survey schedule * d) third-party rating scale

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 9. The behaviors to be improved in a behavior modification program are frequently called: a) behavioral goals b) baseline behaviors * c) target behaviors d) client objectives

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 10. Which of the following is not one of the advantages of indirect assessment procedures? * a) They require that observers be appropriately trained. b) They are convenient. c) They don’t require a substantial amount of time to complete. d) They provide information about covert behaviors.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 11. The main advantage of direct assessment procedures over indirect assessment procedures is that the former: a) are cheaper b) can be used to provide information about covert behaviors c) are convenient * d) are likely to be more accurate

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 12. Which of the following is not one of the reasons for recording accurate data during the baseline and throughout a behavioral program? a) It helps to decide initially if the behavior modifier is the appropriate one to design a program. b) It helps the behavior modifier to identify the best treatment strategy. * c) It enables the behavior modifier to refer the problem to the appropriate agency. d) It helps the behavior modifier to decide if the program is producing desired results.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 13. If displaying data on an individual’s behavior influences that individual to improve apart from any further treatment program, this process is referred to as: * a) reactivity b) a successful baseline c) self-monitoring d) recording and graphing

Difficulty: Easy 206 ..

Type: Conceptual 14. Which of the following is not a goal of behavioral assessment? a) to identify behavioral excesses or deficits b) to evaluate the effects of interventions c) to identify causes of current problem behaviors * d) to diagnosis or classify individuals

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual True/False Questions on Main Text ((Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 15. The only differences between a training program, a therapy program, and an intervention strategy are the settings and clients for which they are used.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual F 16. A direct assessment procedure is one which typically relies on a verbal description of the problem behavior emitted by the client.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 17. A preprogram assessment, a treatment phase, and a follow-up phase are three of the minimal components of a behavior modification program.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 18. A screening or intake assessment is another name for a baseline phase.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 19. Behavioral assessment views test performance as a sign of an enduring intrapsychic trait.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 20. Behavioral assessment assumes that covert behaviors are like overt behaviors in terms of their controlling variables.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 21. Sport-specific behavioral checklists, like traditional psychological tests, have norms.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 22. Sport-specific behavioral checklists provide information for designing effective interventions for improving athletic performance.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual

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Chapter 21. Direct Behavioral Assessment: What to Record and How Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. If a steep slope is shown on a cumulative graph, you can infer that: * a) a high rate of responding is occurring b) no responding is occurring c) a medium to low rate of responding is occurring d) a low rate of responding is occurring Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 2. The amount of time that a particular behavior lasts or continues on a particular instance is called the: a) timing of a response * b) duration of a response c) latency of a response d) frequency of a response

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 3. The amount of time it takes until an individual initiates a response after the presentation of a particular stimulus is called the: a) frequency of a response b) duration of a response c) time-sampling of a response * d) latency of a response

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 4. The time between the question, “What time is it?” and the answer given by someone, “Two o’clock” is the: * a) latency of a response b) frequency of a response c) duration of a response d) timing of a response

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 5. Recording every instance of a particular behavior during a specified time segment is the definition of a(n) recording system. a) interval b) time-sampling c) fixed-duration * d) continuous

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 6. The counting of every instance that a person swears during a 1-hour interval is an example of a(n) recording system. * a) continuous b) time-sampling c) fixed-duration d) interval

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 7. When an observation period is divided into equal segments of relatively short duration and the occurrence or nonoccurrence of a specific behavior is recorded a maximum of once per segment, we say that a(n) recording system is in effect. a) fixed-duration b) fixed-interval c) time-sampling * d) interval

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 8. If the in-seat behavior of a child in a classroom is recorded in ten-second segments successively throughout a one-hour period, the recording system that is being used is 208 ..

called a(n) a) fixed-interval

recording system. b) time-sampling

* c) interval

d) fixed-duration

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 9.

If a parent checks whether or not a child is watching TV by observing the child for a few seconds each hour on the hour throughout a day, that parent is using a(n) recording system. a) fixed-interval * b) time-sampling c) interval d) continuous

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 10. When would one select a continuous recording system over an interval recording system? a) when the main concern is percent of appropriate responses b) when successive responses can be of variable duration * c) when successive responses are quite similar in duration d) when instances of behavior can be of long duration

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 11. The amount of agreement between independent observers on the occurrence of specific instances of a particular behavior is referred to as: a) independent reliability b) observer reliability c) independent observer reliability * d) interobserver reliability

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 12. An acceptable IOR in a research program is: * a) 80–100% b) 75–100% c) 90–100% d) anything over 70%

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 13. Assessment instruments such as the ABLA-R test that determine the ease or difficulty with which an individual can learn various discriminations are primarily assessing: a) stimulus generalization b) behavior maintenance * c) stimulus control d) response generalization

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 14. The formula for computing IOR on data collected from interval recording is: a) disagreements divided by the total number of intervals, multiplied by 100% b) disagreements divided by agreements + disagreements on the occurrence of a behavior, multiplied by 100% * c) agreements divided by agreements + disagreements on the occurrence of a behavior, multiplied by 100% d) agreements divided by disagreements on the occurrence of a behavior, multiplied by 100%

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 209 ..

15. Which of the following is not one of the levels or tasks assessed by the ABLA-R test? a) position discrimination b) visual discrimination c) auditory-visual combined discrimination * d) visual-auditory combined discrimination

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 16. The data line on a cumulative graph can never decrease.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 17. On a cumulative graph, a flat line would indicate a zero rate of responding.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 18. An interval recording system is one in which the observation period is scored as occurring or not occurring during very brief observation intervals, each of which is separated by some longer period of time.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 19. The ABLA-R test assesses the ease or difficulty with which persons with developmental disabilities are able to learn a simple imitation task and several twochoice discrimination tasks.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 20. When the observational method affects the behaviors being observed, we say that the observation is obtrusive.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual F 21. It is not acceptable to include agreement on blank intervals in computing an IOR when one is interested in decreasing a behavior and having agreement that the behavior did not occur.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied

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Chapter 22. Doing Behavior Modification Research Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. A baseline phase, a treatment phase, a return to baseline phase, and a return to the treatment phase are the components of the: a) multi-element design b) multiple-baseline design c) changing criterion design * d) reversal-replication design

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 2. The baseline phase of the reversal-replication design should continue until the pattern of performance is or until it shows a trend in the direction that predicted when treatment is introduced. a) increasing; the same as b) decreasing; opposite to * c) stable; opposite to d) decreasing; the same as

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 3. A(n) design calls for the introduction of the treatment sequentially across two or more behaviors. * a) multiple-baseline across behaviors b) ABAB c) multiple-baseline across treatments d) ABAC

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 4. Baseline of self-abusive behavior is taken in a session room and on a ward. Treatment for self-abuse is then introduced in the session room, and baseline is continued on the ward.

Then, treatment is applied in the session room and the ward. This is a(n) design. a) ABAB b) multiple-baseline across behaviors c) ABAC * d) multiple-baseline across situations

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 5. A design calls for treatment to be introduced on a particular behavior sequentially across two or more individuals. * a) multiple-baseline across people b) multi-element c) multiple-baseline across behaviors d) sequential-introduction

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 6. In a multi-element design, two separate treatments are applied to the behavior in: a) a reversal-replication sequence b) sequential order * c) randomly alternating sessions d) a single session

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 7. Another name for a multi-element design is design. * a) alternating-treatments b) multiple-baseline c) reversal-replication d) changing-criterion

Difficulty: Easy 211 ..

Type: Factual 8. A potential problem with the design is that one of the treatments may produce an effect either because of a contrast to the other treatment in alternating sessions or because of generalization of treatments across conditions. a) multiple-baseline * b) multi-element c) reversal-replication d) changing criterion

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 9. One aspect of is to examine the extent to which target behaviors identified for treatment programs are really the most important for the client and/or society. a) reliability assessment b) external validation c) internal validation * d) social validation

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 10. Which of the following is not an aspect of social validation? * a) examining the extent to which the treatment programs are really responsible for improvement in target behaviors; b) determining the acceptability to the client of the particular procedures used; c) determining the extent to which the target behaviors are important to the client; d) ensuring that the clients and/or their caregivers are satisfied with the results.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 11. Which of the following is not one of the scientific criteria used to evaluate whether or not a treatment was responsible for producing a reliable effect on the dependent variable? a) the immediacy of an observed effect b) the size of an observed effect * c) the extent to which an observed effect is socially validated d) the number of times that an effect is replicated

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 12. Evaluating the practical importance of behavior change to the client and following the implementation of a behavior modification program, is referred to as: a) scientific analysis * b) social validation c) external validation d) subjective validation

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 13. Baseline data are collected on the name calling, swearing, and spitting behavior of a child towards other children. A treatment program is then introduced sequentially on the name calling behavior, then the swearing behavior, and finally the spitting behavior. This is a(n) design: a) alternating treatments * b) multiple-baseline across behaviors c) multiple-baseline across situations d) changing criterion

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 14. In randomly alternating sessions, a child’s swearing behavior at nursery school is either reprimanded or ignored. This is a design. * a) multi-element b) multiple-baseline across behaviors 212 c) changing criterion d) multiple-baseline across situations Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reser.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 15. Evaluating how a client feels about the treatment procedures used in a behavior modification program provides an assessment of: a) scientific analysis b) external validation * c) social validation d) subjective evaluation

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 16. Over time, successive changes are introduced in the behavioral requirement for treatment, and the effects of these changes are observed on the treated behavior. This is a design. a) multi-element * b) changing criterion c) multiple-baseline across behaviors d) multiple-baseline across situations

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 17. The extent to which the treatment or independent variable was in fact responsible for any observed changes in the dependent variable is referred to as: a) social validity b) external validity * c) internal validity d) concurrent validity

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 18. The extent to which findings can be generalized to other behaviors, individuals, settings, or treatments is referred to as: a) social validity * b) external validity c) internal validity d) concurrent validity

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 19. The treatment program is referred to as the dependent variable and the behavior being treated is referred to as the independent variable.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 20. A baseline phase should continue until the pattern of performance is stable or until it shows a trend in the direction opposite to that predicted for treatment.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 21. In a reversal-replication design, two replications of each phase are necessary to draw a valid conclusion.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 22. An advantage of multiple-baseline designs over the ABAB design is that the former does not require a reversal to baseline conditions.

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Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 23. A limitation of the multiple-baseline across situations design is that the subjects may influence each other prior to treatment.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 24. It is possible to use the alternating treatments design to study topographically different forms of the behavior.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 25. Judgments about the clinical or applied importance of behavior change are referred to as judgments of external validity.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 26. Which of the following is not one of the reasons that single-case designs are more popular than control group designs among behavior modifiers? a) Single-case designs typically provide potentially valuable information on individual variation in performance. * b) Single-case designs are based on assumptions about the distribution of the dependent variable in the population. c) Single-case designs require only a few individuals with the same performance problem in order to evaluate an intervention. d) In single-case designs, all of the clients receive the treatment at one time or another.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 27. Which of the following is not commonly used in behavior modification research? a) reversal-replication design b) multiple-baseline design across subjects * c) control group design d) multiple-baseline design across behaviors

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual

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Chapter 23. Functional Assessment of Problem Behavior Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. Searching for variables that might be responsible for causing a problem behavior is referred to as a: a) descriptive analysis * b) functional assessment c) psychodiagnostic assessment d) behavioral assessment

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 2. Carefully observing the antecedent and immediate consequences of a problem behavior in its natural settings is referred to as a(n): * a) observational assessment b) functional analysis c) psychodiagnostic assessment d) behavioral assessment

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 3. Each time that training staff place demands on a nonverbal developmentally disabled child, the child throws a tantrum and the staff “back off.” In this example, the child’s tantruming is likely being maintained by: a) external sensory reinforcement * b) escape conditioning c) internal sensory reinforcement d) behavioral chaining

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 4. Practicing a reaction that is incompatible with a nervous reaction is a component of: * a) counterconditioning b) DRO c) avoidance conditioning d) behavioral trapping

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 5. The broadly inclusive assessment approach of including medical and nutritional information along with behavioral assessments is referred to as: a) functional analysis * b) behavioral diagnostics c) descriptive analysis d) psychodiagnostic assessment

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 6. Just before displaying a particular problem behavior, a developmentally disabled child typically looks at a caregiver and smiles. These indicators suggest that the problem behavior is maintained by: a) self-stimulation b) external sensory positive reinforcement * c) attention from others d) escape from demands

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 7. A developmentally disabled child frequently shows a problem behavior even though it has no apparent effect on other individuals or the external environment. This is an indicator that the problem behavior is maintained by: a) attention from others * b) internal sensory reinforcement c) external sensory reinforcement d) escape from demands

Difficulty: Hard 215 ..

Type: Conceptual 8. A developmentally disabled child frequently shows a problem behavior that produces an effect on the external environment, and that appears undiminished even though there are no apparent social consequences. These are indicators that the problem behavior is maintained by: a) attention from others b) escape from demands c) internal sensory positive reinforcement * d) external sensory positive reinforcement

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 9. A problem behavior consistently occurs in a certain situation or in the presence of certain stimuli, and is never followed by any clearly identifiable consequence. These are indicators that the problem behavior is: * a) an elicited respondent b) maintained by social positive reinforcement c) maintained by external sensory positive reinforcement d) maintained by escape from demands

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 10. A developmentally disabled child frequently scratches herself when smiling, when upset, when interacting with others, when alone, and whether or not demands are placed on her.

But when she is required to wear thin rubber gloves throughout the day, scratching gradually decreases to zero. The principle or procedure responsible for her improvement might best be described as: a) respondent extinction b) negative reinforcement c) counterconditioning * d) operant extinction

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied 11. At a restaurant, a child asks his parents for an extra dessert. The parents say no. The child begins to cry, and the parents then buy the child the extra dessert. In this instance, the child’s crying behavior has been influenced by: a) social negative reinforcement * b) external positive reinforcement c) escape from demands d) internal sensory positive reinforcement

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 12. Experimentally assessing the effects of potentially controlling variables on the problem behavior of an individual is referred to as a(n): * a) functional analysis b) descriptive assessment c) observational assessment d) questionnaire analysis

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 13. A nonverbal child who repeatedly removes her shoes because they squeeze her toes too tightly is being influenced by: a) social positive reinforcement b) external sensory positive reinforcement c) internal sensory positive reinforcement * d) nonsocial negative reinforcement

Difficulty: Medium 216 ..

Type: Conceptual True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 14. When a teacher is concerned with decreasing a student’s undesirable finger snapping behavior in class, she/he should first identify the IQ of the student.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied T 15. It is important to consider the causes of undesirable behavior because it may lead one to appropriately conclude that other specialists should deal with the problem.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) T

16. A broad meaning of functional analysis is finding a relationship between examples of two variables, called an independent variable and a dependent variable.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F

17. The topography of a behavior typically tells us a lot about the controlling variables of that behavior.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

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Chapter 24. Planning, Applying, and Evaluating a Behavioral Program Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. Assume that you are a professional behavior modifier. Under which of the following conditions would you treat a behavior problem that had been referred to you? * a) Once the behavioral goal is reached, it would be easily generalized and maintained. b) The problem is one that would appear to be unmanageable. c) The problem appears to have a medical cause. d) The problem was referred primarily for the benefit of the client’s family.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 2. Assume that you are a professional behavior modifier. Under which of the following conditions would you not treat a behavior problem that had been referred to you? a) The problem appears to be important to the client. b) Once the target behavior has been achieved, it might be generalized and maintained. * c) There are individuals who will hinder the program, and who can’t be controlled. d) The problem can be specified in terms of specific behaviors.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 3. A behavior modifier might evaluate the ease with which a problem behavior might be changed by determining: a) whether or not the problem behavior has a medical cause b) if the problem has been referred primarily for the benefit of the client c) if the problem can be reduced to a specific set of behaviors that can be counted, timed, or measured * d) if the problem behavior has been occurring for a short time, under narrow stimulus control, and with few instances of intermittent reinforcement

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 4. A behavior modifier might determine whether or not a client’s behavior might be easily generalized and maintained by assessing: a) whether or not the problem has a medical cause * b) whether or not there are reinforcers and/or people in the natural environment to maintain the desired behavior c) if the problem can be reduced to a specific set of behaviors that can be counted, timed, or measured d) if the problem behavior has been occurring for a short time and under narrow stimulus control

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 5. Training in a test situation, varying the training conditions, programming common stimuli, and training sufficient stimulus exemplars are four important aspects of: * a) programming stimulus generalization b) programming response generalization c) programming stimulus discrimination d) programming maintenance

Difficulty: Easy 218 ..

Type: Conceptual 6. After a program has been implemented, there are a number of things that can be done to determine whether it is producing satisfactory results. Which of the following is not one of those steps? a) consult the behavioral journals and experienced behavior modifiers concerning related cases b) monitor the data * c) sign a behavioral contract with the client d) consult people who must deal with the behavioral handicap

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 7. To ensure that the therapist is responsible or accountable to the client, it is recommended that: a) an impartial third person monitor the program * b) the therapist and client sign a treatment contract c) the therapist be supervised by someone with more experience d) the client should explain the program to a friend

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 8. Considering the sequential steps for designing and implementing a treatment program following baseline assessment, and supposing that you have identified the target behaviors and defined the goal, which question would you not be addressing at this time? a) Is the description precise? * b) Is the treatment cost-effective? c) Is the goal in the best interest of the client? d) Has the client been given all possible information about the goal?

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 9. Varying the acceptable responses during training or using behavioral momentum to increase low-probability responses are two strategies for programming: a) stimulus generalization * b) response generalization c) stimulus discrimination d) behavior maintenance

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 10. If a behavior modifier is examining the possibility of capitalizing on antecedent control in the design of a behavior modification program, which of the following would the behavior modifier not consider using? a) rules b) modelling c) situational inducement * d) positive reinforcement

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 11. If you are considering strategies for decreasing a behavioral excess, which of the following would you not consider: a) removing SDs for the problem behavior * b) negative reinforcement 219 ..

c) punishment d) DRO, DRI, or DRA

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 12. A clear statement of what behaviors of what individuals will produce what reinforcers, and who will deliver those reinforcers, is referred to as a: a) treatment contract b) three-term contingency statement * c) behavioral contract d) psychology contract

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 13. A behavior modifier should only accept those referrals for which he/she has appropriate training and adequate time to carry out an effective program.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 14. When designing a behavior modification program, it is unnecessary to assess whether the behaviors of concern can be counted, timed, or measured in some way.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 15. The nature of a behavior problem and the frequency with which it occurs will influence the assessment procedure selected by the behavior modifier.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 16. When attempting to decrease a problem behavior, the behavior modifier should first determine whether or not punishment can be used.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 17. When designing a behavior modification program, one of the first concerns of the behavior modifier should be to assess whether or not it is possible to capitalize on existing stimulus control.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 18. When selecting SDs in a behavior modification program, it is important for the behavior modifier to select stimuli that are similar to other stimuli on more than one dimension.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 19. When designing a behavior modification program, the behavior modifier must include strategies to program generality of behavior change.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) 220 ..

T 20. For a number of reasons, the decision as to whether or not you should accept the responsibility of designing a behavioral program might be influenced, in part, by whether or not you live in an urban or a rural setting.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied F 21. The availability of significant others is often important to implementing a behavioral program, but not typically valuable for programming generality.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied

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Chapter 25. Token Economies Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. The fact that they can be given immediately after a desirable behavior occurs and cashed in at a later time for a back-up reinforcer is one of the major advantages to using: a) unconditioned reinforcers b) intrinsic reinforcers c) extrinsic reinforcers * d) token reinforcers Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 2. Deciding on the type of token to be used depends mainly on the type of: a) reinforcement schedule b) response-reinforcer relationship * c) client d) setting

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 3. Tokens should have the following two characteristics. They should be: * a) easy to handle and attractive b) warm and soft c) flexible and easy to wash d) durable and luminous

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 4. In a token economy, taking away tokens following problem behavior is an example of _______ punishment: a) physical * b) response-cost c) time-out d) reprimand

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 5. Which of the following is not a typical source of help for managing a token economy: a) volunteers b) people assigned to work with the participants * c) psychologists d) members of the token economy itself

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 6. Which of the following is not one of the considerations for deciding on the token price of each backup reinforcer in a token economy: a) supply and demand for the backup reinforcers b) monetary cost of the backup reinforcers c) the therapeutic value of the backup reinforcers * d) the size of the backup reinforcers

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 7. According to Stainback et al., how many tokens should you have for each student in a group when starting a token economy? a) approximately 20 * b) approximately 100 c) 60–80 d) it depends on the reinforcement schedule being used

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 8. According to Stainback et al., during the first few days of a token economy, store time for normal children should be held: 222 ..

*

a) once a week b) every hour of every day for the first week c) once or twice a day for the first three or four days d) before morning recess, before lunch, before afternoon recess, and before the end of the day

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 9.

*

and are two general methods of weaning clients from tokens when transferring behavior to the natural environment. a) Stimulus fading; stimulus shaping b) Gradually fading staff participation; gradually eliminating experimenter supervision c) Stimulus withdrawal; programming for generalization d) Gradually eliminating tokens; gradually decreasing token value

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 10. Gradually making the schedule of token delivery more and more intermittent or gradually decreasing the number of behaviors that earn tokens are two ways of: a) testing for social validity * b) weaning a client from tokens when transferring behavior to the natural environment c) testing for internal validity d) selecting back-up reinforcers for a client being weaned from tokens

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 11. The Achievement Place group home token economy was initially developed for: a) children with autism b) persons with intellectual disabilities c) persons with severe mental health problems * d) pre-delinquent youth

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 12. Which of the following is not one of the initial steps in setting up a token economy? * a) programming generality to the natural environment b) deciding on the target behaviors c) taking baselines d) selecting backup reinforcers

Difficulty: Easy Type: factual 13. Which of the following is not a feature of the teaching family model for treating predelinquent youth? * a) a governing system in which married couples make all of the decisions regarding daily living rules for the pre-delinquent youth b) a token economy in which participants earn points for appropriate behavior and cash them in for privileges c) an emphasis on normalization d) ongoing evaluation of the performance of the participants

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) 223 ..

T 14. One should obtain baseline data on the specific target behaviors before initiating a token economy.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 15. Before and during implementation of a token economy, one must decide how staff in the token economy will be supervised.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 16. To ensure generalization to the natural environment, a client should not be told why he/she is receiving a token.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 17. A guideline for identifying behaviors which no longer require token reinforcement is to identify those behaviors that have received continuous reinforcement under the token economy.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 18. In a sheltered workshop program for individuals with developmental disabilities, Rae et al. (1990) taught the workers with developmental disabilities to self-administer tokens for appropriate on-task performance.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 19. Recent studies indicate that the recidivism rates of pre-delinquents who had been in token programs using the teaching family model is about the same as pre-delinquents who had been in traditional programs.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 20. In classroom mini-economies, teachers use play money to teach children basic principles of economics and personal finances.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

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Chapter 26. Helping an Individual to Develop Self-Control Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. Emitting a controlling behavior to effect a change in a behavior to be controlled is the model of self-management originally proposed by: a) Mager b) Premack c) Goldiamond * d) Skinner

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 2. Many self-control problems are caused by: a) a lack of willpower b) temptations that are too strong to resist * c) immediate reinforcement for the problem behavior vs. delayed reinforcement for alternative self-control behavior d) lack of reinforcement for showing self-control

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 3. A teenager who wants to go out with friends tells his parents that his homework is finished even though it is not, and the teenager is allowed to go out. This behavioral excess of lying occurs because: a) the controlling consequences are highly improbable * b) of immediate reinforcers versus delayed punishers for the behavioral excess c) the consequences are only cumulatively significant d) of immediate small punishers versus delayed larger punishers

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 4. Which of the following is not one of the steps proposed by Mager for clarifying a vague “fuzzy” goal? * a) Make a commitment to change. b) Write out the goal. c) Make a list of the things that you should say or do that clearly indicate that you’ve met the goal. d) Given a number of people with the same goal, indicate how you would decide who had met the goal and who hadn’t.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 5. A commitment to change refers to: a) the willpower needed to change b) clear identification of a self-control goal c) a high frequency of thoughts about the benefits of changing * d) a rule that you state that it is important to change your behavior, that you will work toward doing so and that you recognize the benefits of doing so

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 6. Which of the following is not a major class of antecedent stimuli that control our behavior? a) instructions * b) reinforcers c) modeling d) other people

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 225 ..

7. Which of the following is not one of the strategies recommended for managing consequences in a self-control program? a) Eliminate certain reinforcers that may strengthen a problem behavior that you would like to decrease. * b) Provide reinforcement for showing increased willpower. c) Self-record and self-graph the target behavior. d) Arrange for reinforcers to be earned for showing improvement.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 8. In the Simek and O’Brien study, a novice golfer had to sink four consecutive putts before going to the next step. This exemplifies: * a) mastery criterion b) willpower c) self-control d) a behavioral contract

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 9. A clear written statement of what behaviors of which individuals will produce what reinforcers and who will deliver those reinforcers defines: a) mastery criterion b) a commitment to change * c) a behavioral contract d) the Premack Principle

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 10. Which of the following is not a cause of relapse in self-control programs? a) unavoidable setback situations b) counterproductive self-talk * c) incorporating everyday rewards into the program d) trying too much too soon

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 11. Many people are aware of the health hazards of being overweight, and yet many people have difficulty resisting an extra dessert. That is because: * a) the consequences of a single such action are too small to be noticed and are only of cumulative significance b) the consequences for doing so are highly probable c) the consequences for doing so are very delayed d) there are no consequences for doing so

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 12. Many people play racquetball without wearing protective goggles. This is because: a) the negative consequences are very delayed b) they want to look macho * c) the negative consequences are highly improbable d) the negative consequences are only cumulatively significant

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 13. Consider the self-control problem of eating too many sweets. This is likely due to: a) immediate reinforcers (for problem behavior) vs. delayed reinforcers (for alternative behavior) b) immediate reinforcers vs. delayed punishers for a behavior 226 ..

*

c) immediate reinforcers vs. cumulatively significant punishers for a behavior d) immediate small punishers for a behavior vs. reinforcers that are cumulatively significant

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 14. A behavioral model of self-control involves: a) controlling the controlling behavior * b) emitting a controlling behavior to effect a change in a behavior to be controlled c) emitting a controlled behavior through self-reinforcement d) reinforcing yourself for having self-control

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 15. In a behavioral model of self-control, an individual emits controlling behavior that manages antecedents or consequences for a behavior to be controlled. But what controls the controlling behavior? a) lots of willpower * b) natural consequences in the society in which we live c) lots of commitment d) our religious beliefs

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 16. Which of the following is not one of the steps in a self-control program? a) specify the problem and set goals * b) select delayed reinforcers c) make a commitment to change d) take data and analyze causes

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 17. Which of the following is not a major class of antecedent stimuli that control our behavior? a) physical guidance b) our immediate surroundings c) the time of day * d) willpower

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 18. Causes of relapse in situations include: a) avoidable setback situations b) overreaction to occasional setbacks c) counterproductive self-talk * d) all of the above

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual True/False Questions on (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 19. In behavior modification, self-control refers to some sort of force within us that makes it possible to show self-restraint.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 20. Some self-control problems occur because of the influence of immediate small reinforcers for problem behaviors as compared to delayed stronger reinforcers for desirable behaviors.

227 ..

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 21. The first step in a self-control program is to decide how to use self-reinforcement.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 22. A mastery criterion is a performance requirement for practicing a skill such that if the criterion is met the skill has been learned.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 23. For many self-control problems, the immediate reinforcement for consumption of harmful substances wins out over the unnoticeable and immediate negative effects that are only cumulatively significant.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 24. Many self-control problems occur because individuals lack will power.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual T 25. Both a commitment to change and knowledge of change techniques are important for self-modification.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 26. There is no evidence that recording and graphing a behavior is all that’s needed to bring about improvement.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 27. A strategy for manipulating consequences in a self-control program is to eliminate certain reinforcers that may inadvertently strengthen an undesirable behavior.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual F 28. There is no evidence that people who have mastered some behavior modification principles can use them to control their own behavior without having to see a therapist.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 29. With a behavioral model of self-control, an individual must behave in some way that arranges the environment to manage his or her own subsequent behavior.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual Multiple Choice Question on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 30. Reinforcing a child for stating what s/he intends to do and then for later doing that behavior is referred to as: a) rule-governed behavior b) self-control training 228 ..

c) contingency-shaped behavior

* d) correspondence training

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 31. Teaching a group of children to state they were going to play in a certain designated area before actually playing in that area is referred to as correspondence training.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 32. Self-help manuals are more effective with the control of smoking and overeating than they are for overcoming depression and anxiety.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual

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Chapter 27. Approaches to Behavior Therapy: Cognitive Restructuring, Self-Directed Coping Methods, and Mindfulness and Acceptance Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. Believing, thinking, and perceiving are three things that describe: * a) cognition b) respondent thinking c) self-control d) operant thinking

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 2. When the words “blue sky” are repeatedly paired with actually looking at and seeing a blue sky, the words “blue sky” come to elicit the activity of “seeing” or “imagining” a blue sky. This is an example of: a) operant thinking * b) respondent thinking c) positive thinking d) cognitive thinking

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 3. That individuals interpret and react to events in terms of their perceived significance, and that maladaptive cognitions can cause emotional disorders, are two major assumptions of: a) operant therapy b) respondent therapy * c) cognitive therapy d) behavior therapy

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 4. Which of the following involves teaching clients to counteract irrational negative selfstatements with more positive and realistic statements? a) problem-solving therapy * b) rational-emotive therapy c) thought-stopping therapy d) behavior therapy

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 5. Who developed rational-emotive behavior therapy? a) Aaron Beck b) Donald Meichenbaum c) Albert Bandura * d) Albert Ellis

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 6. Thinking in absolute terms, such as assuming that one is a failure for getting any grade less than an “A,” is an example of what Beck called: a) rational-emotive thinking b) irrational thinking * c) dichotomous thinking d) arbitrary inference

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 7. Drawing a conclusion on the basis of inadequate evidence, such as misinterpreting a frown on the face of a passerby to mean that the passerby is expressing disapproval, is an example of what Beck called: a) dichotomous thinking * c) arbitrary inference b) irrational thinking d) irrational inference 230 ..

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 8. If a client believes that everyone he meets turns away from him in disgust, a therapist may help him to devise a system for judging other people’s facial expressions and body language so that the client can objectively determine whether or not his beliefs are indeed accurate. This is one of the techniques used in: a) behavior therapy b) thought-stopping therapy c) rational-emotive therapy * d) Beck’s cognitive therapy

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 9. What two approaches assume that a client’s difficulty is caused by some type of inappropriate thought pattern and the problem may stem from the client’s tendency to exaggerate unpleasant things? * a) Beck’s cognitive therapy and Ellis’s REBT b) Ellis’s RET and Meichenbaum’s self-instructional approach c) Beck’s cognitive therapy and Meichenbaum’s self-instructional approach d) Ellis’s cognitive therapy and Beck’s RET

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 10. A client uses stimuli produced both by a stressful situation and by his own behavior in that situation as SDs for instructing himself to engage in appropriate coping behavior. This is an example of: a) Ellis’s rational-emotive therapy * b) Meichenbaum’s self-instructional therapy c) Beck’s cognitive therapy d) Wolpe’s thought-stopping therapy

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 11. Approaches that focus on substituting rational thoughts and appraisal of information for irrational or dysfunctional thinking are referred to as: * a) cognitive restructuring b) situational inducement c) contingency shaping d) problem solving

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 12. When you arrive at a party, you think to yourself, “I’m glad lots of people are dancing, I hate to just sit around.” This is an example of: * a) operant thinking b) respondent thinking c) positive thinking d) cognitive thinking

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 13. Therapeutic approaches that incorporate concepts of “mindfulness” and “acceptance” are part of what Stephen Hayes has referred to as the wave of behavioral approaches to therapy: a) first b) second * c) third d) fourth

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual

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14. Regarding the cognitive restructuring component of Beck’s cognitive therapy, an increasing amount of research suggests that: * a) it is not an effective ingredient of Beck’s therapy for treating depression b) it is an important component of Beck’s therapy for treating depression c) it is an important component for treating obsessive-compulsive disorder d) it is an important component for treating agoraphobia

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied 15. A type of behavior therapy originally developed for treating suicidal individuals diagnosed with borderline personality disorder is known as: a) acceptance and commitment therapy b) cognitive restructuring behavior * c) dialectical behavior therapy d) problem-solving therapy

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 16. A client who believes that everyone he meets turns away from him in disgust learns to say to himself, “I’ll watch their facial expressions and body language, and then I can prove to myself that they’re not disgusted with me,” and then follows this guide. A radical behaviorist would refer to this as an example of: a) rational-emotive therapy b) contingency-shaped behavior c) Beck’s cognitive therapy * d) rule-governed behavior

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 17. In cases where cognitive restructuring is effective, it may be because the therapist teaches the client to rehearse rules that identify specific behaviors that are likely to be maintained in the natural environment. This is interpretation. a) Beck’s b) Ellis’s * c) a behavioral d) a cognitive

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied 18.

approach is to teach the client to use internal stimuli as SDs for engaging in appropriate self-instruction, counteract negative self-statements in the presence of the stressful situation, self-instruct the steps for taking appropriate action, and make self- reinforcing statements after successful coping. a) Beck’s * b) Meichenbaum’s c) Ellis’s d) D’Zurilla’s

Difficulty: Medium Type: Applied 19. Self-instruction and problem-solving methods are likely to be effective when they capitalize on that leads to effective consequences. a) contingency-shaped behavior b) cognitive restructuring c) rational thinking * d) rule-governed behavior

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 20. The awareness, observation and description of one’s covert and overt behaviors as they occur in a non-judgmental way is referred to as: a) cognitive restructuring b) rational thinking 232 * c) mindfulness d) acceptance and commitment therapy Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reser.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 21.

procedures are used to teach individuals that they can feel their feelings and think their thoughts even though they may be aversive, and still take constructive action to pursue one’s values and life goals. a) Mindfulness b) Cognitive therapy c) Stress inoculation * d) Acceptance

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 22. An approach to therapy that involves teaching clients that past attempts to control troublesome thoughts and emotions have not been successful, that mindfulness and acceptance exercises can teach the client to experience and non-judgmentally embrace thoughts and emotions, and that in spite of troublesome thoughts and emotions, clients can be encouraged to identify life values and to take steps to pursue them, is referred to as: * a) acceptance and commitment therapy b) cognitive therapy c) cognitive restructuring d) problem solving therapy

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 23. Someone deciding, by privately reviewing the pros and cons of each, whether to watch TV or read a book on a particular occasion is showing respondent thinking.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 24. Martin and Pear believe that, except for being more difficult to “get at,” private behavior is the same as public behavior, i.e., the principles and procedures applicable to private behavior are fundamentally the same as those that apply to public behavior.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 25. Dialectical Behavior therapy basically involves teaching clients to counteract irrational self- statements with more positive and realistic statements.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 26. The two major assumptions of cognitive therapy are that individuals interpret and react to events in terms of their perceived significance, and that cognitive deficiencies can cause emotional disorders.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 27. One difference between Meichenbaum’s self-instructional approach and Ellis’s RET is that Ellis’s approach emphasizes coping with negative emotions rather than completely eliminating them.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 233 ..

T 28. Cognitive therapy assumes that troublesome thoughts constitute the primary cause of disturbing emotions, whereas acceptance and commitment therapy considers thoughts and emotions simply as responses.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 29. A major focus of ACT is the use of cognitive restructuring to directly change troublesome thoughts.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 30. With cognitive therapy, a primary purpose of behavioral homework assignments is to help the client overcome distorted thinking.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 31. Thought stopping is likely to be an effective strategy for decreasing persistent, obsessive thoughts provided that it is combined with: a) Ellis’s rational emotive therapy b) Beck’s cognitive therapy c) Meichenbaum’s self-instructional training * d) a strategy for increasing desirable alternative thoughts

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 32. Acceptance and commitment therapy is based on an approach to the understanding of human language and cognition referred to as: a) cognitive theory b) rational emotive theory * c) relational frame theory d) stimulus-equivalence theory

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 33. If you have learned that two nickels equals a dime, then you will know that a dime also equals two nickels. In relational frame theory, this is referred to as: * a) bi-directionality b) combinatorial entailment c) transformation of stimulus functions d) stimulus equivalence

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 34. If a child learns that a dime is worth more than a nickel and a quarter is worth more than a dime, then the child will know that a quarter is worth more than a nickel. In relational frame theory, this is referred to as: a) bi-directionality * b) combinatorial entailment c) transformation of stimulus functions d) stimulus equivalence

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied

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Chapter 28. Psychological Disorders Treated by Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. An intense fear of going out in public or leaving one’s home is referred to as: * a) agoraphobia b) a simple phobia c) panic disorder d) a social phobia

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 2. A persistent fear of heights is referred to as a(n): a) social phobia * b) specific phobia c) panic disorder d) obsessive compulsive disorder

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 3. A procedure for overcoming a simple phobia that tries to get the client into the presence of the feared stimulus very early during therapy, and to maintain exposure for long periods of time, is referred to as: a) systematic desensitization b) participant modelling * c) flooding d) implosive therapy

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 4. Systematic desensitization was developed by: a) John Watson b) Albert Bandura c) B. F. Skinner * d) Joseph Wolpe

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 5. When an individual desensitizes a fear in real life rather than in his or her own imagination, is being used. a) systematic desensitization * b) in vivo desensitization c) covert sensitization d) participant modeling

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 6. For what general type of problem is systematic desensitization used? a) treating alcoholism b) to treat high blood pressure * c) to overcome phobias d) to treat enuresis

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 7. A procedure for overcoming phobias in which the therapist models graded approaches to the feared stimulus is known as: a) flooding b) cognitive therapy c) systematic desensitization * d) participant modeling

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

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8. A list of fear-producing situations arranged from those that cause least the fear to those that cause the most fear is called a(n): * a) fear hierarchy b) suds scale c) mastery hierarchy d) anxiety scale

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 9. Agoraphobia is a type of: a) personality disorder c) obsessive-compulsive disorder

* b) anxiety disorder d) depressive disorder

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 10. A behavioral component of the treatment of panic disorder with agoraphobia is: * a) exposure to the feared stimuli b) thought-stopping c) self-instructional training d) reality checking

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 11. A person who constantly worries and feels anxious over things, events and potential events that most people would consider trivial or unimportant would likely be diagnosed as having a(n): *

a) simple phobia c) generalized anxiety disorder

b) obsessive-compulsive disorder d) panic disorder

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual *

12. An obsessive-compulsive disorder is a disorder in which: a) the client is bothered either by unwanted thoughts, or unwanted repetitive actions, or both b) extreme anxiety or panic attacks occur for which no consistent antecedent stimulus can be readily identified c) the client is debilitated by stress, either because the stressful events in their life are too numerous, or because they are unable to cope with stressful events d) one’s characteristic mode of interacting with others is extremely maladaptive or dysfunctional

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 13. Which of the following types of treatment work best with obsessive-compulsive disorders? a) flooding in imagination of the feared situation in order to elicit the obsessivecompulsive behavior b) cognitive restructuring c) exposure to the feared situation in order to elicit the obsessive-compulsive behavior * d) exposure to the feared situation while preventing the compulsive behavior from occurring

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 14. An extraordinary stressful or traumatic event, such as being physically or sexually 236 ..

abused, being in a serious traffic accident, or witnessing a catastrophic event, can cause impaired functioning such that the individual would likely be diagnosed as having a(n): a) generalized anxiety disorder b) simple phobia c) depression * d) post-traumatic stress disorder

Difficulty: Hard Type: Factual 15. Evidence indicates that a treatment for depression with strong research support is: a) cognitive restructuring * b) behavioral activation c) Ellis’s rational emotive therapy d) Meichenbaum’s cognitive therapy

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 16. Behavioral couple therapy typically involves the following stages: a) experiential/sensory awareness exercises, communication and problem-solving training, and programming for generalization * b) instigation of positive exchanges, communication and problem-solving training, and programming for generalization c) cognitive therapy, anxiety control, and problem-solving training d) insight therapy, communication and problem-solving training, and programming for generalization

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 17. Suppose that a client, just before going to bed each night, feels very anxious about the possibility of someone breaking into the apartment. These thoughts are typically followed by checking the doors and windows several times to ensure that they are locked. This client is suffering from a(n): a) personality disorder b) anxiety disorder * c) obsessive-compulsive disorder d) simple phobia

Difficulty: Hard Type: Factual 18. A successful program for helping problem drinkers to learn to drink in moderation was developed by: a) Ferster and Skinner b) LoPiccollo and Freidman c) Bellack and Herson * d) Sobell and Sobell

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 19. Which of the following is not a part of the successful program developed by Sobell and Sobell for teaching problem drinkers to drink in moderation? a) use of goal-setting to drink in moderation b) control of triggers for drinking c) self-monitoring of consequences of drinking behaviors * d) aversion therapy to make alcohol aversive

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 20. Which of the following is not a typical component of a behavioral treatment strategy for *

a) self-monitoring c) cognitive restructuring

237 b) stimulus control d) behavioral contracting ..

obesity?

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 21. If an individual exhibits a high frequency of certain behaviors, such as nailbiting, hair twirling, lip biting, etc., and seeks treatment for the problem, then the behavior would be referred to as a(n): a) anxiety disorder * b) habit disorder c) simple phobia d) panic disorder

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual 22. Which of the following would be classified as habit disorders? a) obesity, nervous habits, muscle tics b) anxiety, muscle tics, and stuttering * c) nervous habits, muscle tics, and stuttering d) alcohol drinking, muscle tics, and nervous habits

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 23. The habit reversal procedure typically includes: * a) awareness training, competing response training, and a motivational strategy b) awareness training, competing response training, and desensitization c) competing response training, a motivational strategy, and cognitive restructuring d) cognitive restructuring, awareness training, and desensitization

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 24. Self-monitoring, cognitive restructuring, and reducing eating rate are all major components of contemporary strategies for treating obesity.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 25. Therapies that have proved to be effective in scientifically conducted clinical trials are referred to as empirically supported therapies.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 26. Systematic desensitization is considered an exposure-based therapy because it exposes the client to the feared stimulus or stimuli.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual F 27. Cognitive restructuring would be classified as an exposure-based therapy.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 28. An effective treatment for generalized anxiety disorder is exposure-based therapy carried out in vivo.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Conceptual 238 ..

Multiple Choice Question on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 29. The presentation of fear-producing stimuli with a head-mounted display that provides a computer generated view of stimuli is referred to as: a) in vivo therapy * b) virtual reality therapy c) computer therapy d) technology therapy

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual True/False Question on NfFL Section (Note: correct answer indicated in left margin) T 30. Contingency management has been used to effectively treat heroin-use and nicotine-use disorders.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

239 ..

Chapter 29. Giving It All Some Perspective: A Brief History Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. The introductory psychology text titled Principles of Psychology, which discussed traditional topics in psychology primarily in terms of operant conditioning principles, was written by: a) Skinner * b) Keller and Schoenfeld c) Wolpe d) Pavlov

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 2. Skinner’s text Science and Human Behavior (1953): a) describes the results of experiments on the lever-pressing behavior of rats, and outlines basic principles of operant conditioning * b) suggests how basic behavioral principles influence the behavior of people in all kinds of everyday situations c) provides data regarding the generalization of basic behavioral principles to human behavior d) was an introductory psychology text written from the Pavlovian perspective

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 3. Which of the following is a basic operant research journal? * a) Journal of the Experimental Analysis of Behavior b) Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis c) Journal of Behavior Therapy and Experimental Psychiatry d) Journal of Experimental Psychology

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 4. The publications of the early 1960s within the operant orientation seem to have been characterized by which two features? a) Much of it was done with very resistant populations, and many of the applications took place in natural, everyday settings. * b) Much of it was done with very resistant populations, and many of the applications took place in highly controlled settings. c) Much of it was limited to populations that had already received successful input from traditional psychology, and was mostly applied in highly controlled settings. d) Much of it was limited to populations that had already received successful input from traditional psychology, and was mostly applied in natural, everyday settings.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied 5. Who developed systematic desensitization? a) Eysenck b) Beck c) Hull

* d) Wolpe

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 6. Which of the following best characterizes the social learning theory of behavior modification?

240 . .

a) It is based on respondent conditioning and has developed applications to a variety of phobic and neurotic disorders. b) It is based on the work of Beck, Ellis, and others and emphasizes the individual’s interpretations of what is happening around them. c) It emphasizes the social contexts in which behavior is acquired and maintained, and stresses cognitive influences on behavior. d) It is based on the work of B. F. Skinner and emphasizes the application of operant principles.

*

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 7. Which current conceptual model of behavior modification is often referred to as “applied behavior analysis”? * a) the operant conditioning orientation b) the Hullian and Wolpean orientation c) social learning theory d) cognitive behavior modification

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 8.

is the term used most often for behavioral treatments carried out in the natural environment and special training settings; is the term used most often to refer to behavioral treatments conducted in the therapist’s office. a) Behavior therapy; behavior modification b) Cognitive behavior modification; behavior modification c) Behavior modification; behavior therapy d) Behavior modification; applied behavior analysis

*

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 9. Which of the following statements incorrectly represents behavior modification? a) Behavior modification has been applied to a wide variety of complex behavior. b) Behavior modification has been applied in numerous settings, including both clinical and nonclinical environments. * c) Behavior modification is effective, but only for some limited types of problems. d) Behavior modification has been applied to treat problems that appear to have medical causes.

Difficulty: Hard Type: Applied 10. *

adopted the conditioned reflex as the unit of habit and argued that most complex activities were due to respondent conditioning. a) Watson b) Skinner c) Keller d) Wolpe

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 11. The principle of states that if a response that is incompatible with fear or anxiety can be made to occur to a stimulus that normally produces fear or anxiety, then that stimulus will cease to elicit the fear reaction. a) systematic desensitization b) respondent extinction c) reality checking * d) reciprocal inhibition 241 ..

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 12. The most influential of the social learning theorists has been: a) Skinner * b) Bandura c) Wolpe d) Lazarus

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 13. According to Martin and Pear, the term that has the broadest meaning is: a) behavior therapy b) social learning theory c) applied behavior analysis * d) behavior modification

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 14. One of the first published behavior modification demonstrations of the 1950s that concerned practical, applied problems was reported by: a) Skinner b) Ullmann and Krasner c) Eysenck * d) Ayllon and Michael

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 15. The influential book Case Studies in Behavior Modification was edited by: a) Skinner * b) Ullmann and Krasner c) Eysenck d) Ayllon and Michael

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 16. During the 1950s, an individual who was instrumental in criticizing Freudian psychoanalysis and advocating learning procedures as alternatives was: * a) Eysenck b) Wolpe c) Skinner d) Keller

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 17. In a publication in 1920, and described a demonstration of Pavlovian conditioning of a fear response in an 11-month-old infant: a) Ullmann and Kranser b) Ayllon and Michael * c) Watson and Rayner d) Keller and Skinner

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 18. The first behavior therapy journal, founded in 1963 by Hans Eysenck, was called: a) Journal of Behavior Therapy and Experimental Psychiatry * b) Behavior Research and Therapy c) Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis d) Behavior Modification

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 19. Many of the early reports of experiments in the operant tradition in the 1950s 242 ..

demonstrated that consequences influence human behavior.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 20. The book Case Studies in Behavior Modification was strictly within the operant tradition.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual T 21. Eysenck criticized traditional Freudian psychoanalytical treatments, advocated behavior therapy procedures as an alternative, and he helped popularize systematic desensitization.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual F 22. The term “behavior therapy,” rather than the term “behavior modification,” tends to be used by behavior specialists in schools and homes.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 23. Skinner published the text Principles of Psychology (1950).

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual Multiple Choice Questions on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 24. During the 1960s and 1970s, most of the major books and research papers in behavior modification and behavior therapy were based on developments in: a) England b) South Africa * c) the United States d) Canada

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 25. The psychologist who established the first operant conditioning course in Brazil in 1961 was: a) Freud *b) Keller c) Skinner d) Wolpe

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 26. Who developed PSI, a behavior modification approach to university teaching? a) Skinner b) Ullmann and Krasner c) Fuller * d) Keller

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 27.

developed an influential learning theory that meshed together operant and respondent conditioning into a theory that did not distinguish between the two types of conditioning. a) Skinner * b) Hull c) Guthrie d) Keller

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 243 ..

28. A book that translated Freudian psychodynamic concepts into the language of Hull’s learning theory, and that had an influence in the early days of behavior modification, was written by . a) Ullman and Krasner b) Ayllon and Michael c) Wolpe and Guthrie *d) Dollard and Miller

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

244 ..

Chapter 30. Ethical Issues Multiple Choice Questions on Main Text (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 1. Behavior modification is based on the following two propositions: a) Behavior can be controlled, and it is always ethically appropriate to do so. b) Behavior can be partially controlled, and it is always ethically appropriate to do so. * c) Behavior can be controlled, and it is desirable to do so in order to achieve certain objectives. d) Behavior can be partially controlled, and it is desirable to do so in order to achieve certain objectives.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 2. From a behavioral point of view, the term “ethics” refers to: * a) certain standards of behavior that are developed by a culture and that promote the survival of that culture b) the influence the controllee has on the controller by virtue of access to suitable reinforcers c) the degree of aversiveness involved in a given intervention d) a set of moral values adhered to by a culture

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 3. Consider the following ethical principle: “Psychologists recognize the boundaries of their particular competencies and the limitations of their expertise.” To the extent that psychologists practice this ethical guideline, they are illustrating: a) contingency shaped behavior b) responsible behavior c) moral behavior * d) rule-governed behavior

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 4. Countercontrol may be defined as: a) the amount of control a therapist can exert over a client in a therapeutic relationship by virtue of access to suitable reinforcers * b) the amount of control a client can exert over the therapist in a therapeutic relationship by virtue of access to suitable reinforcers c) the amount of control exerted over behavior by an intervention d) the amount of control exerted over behavior by extraneous variables

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 5. People have learned to react negatively to all overt attempts to control behavior because: a) they are inherently free and therefore behavioral control is aversive b) they wish to maintain their freedom and dignity * c) of their experiences with others who have used their power for their own benefit d) the actions of religious leaders illustrates that one should not attempt to control the behavior of others

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual 6. A primary conclusion of a commission of APA concerning ethical issues in behavior modification was that persons engaged in any type of psychological intervention should: a) have a minimum of three years supervised clinical experience 245 ..

*

b) have a Ph.D. in psychology from a recognized university c) subscribe to and follow the ethics codes and standards of their professions d) be a member of the American Psychological Association

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual 7. Which of the following is not a recommended characteristic of target behaviors selected for clients? a) They should emphasize teaching functional, age-appropriate skills. * b) They should be in the best interests of the client’s caretakers. c) They should focus on teaching skills that promote independent functioning. d) They should emphasize skills that will enable the client to pursue preferred activities.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual 8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an intervention that is least intrusive or restrictive? * a) It emphasizes wisely-used aversive control. b) It emphasizes use of positive reinforcement. c) It maximizes choices and freedom of movement for the client. d) It emphasizes use of natural reinforcers versus contrived reinforcers.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual True/False Questions on Main Text (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) T 9. All social help professions are involved in the control of behavior.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual F 10. The doctrine of free will is a valid criticism of attempts to develop a technology of behavior.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Factual F 11. Behavior modifiers must confine themselves to a small number of methods that are appropriate only for very simple behavior problems.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Conceptual T 12. Even if a particular behavior modification procedure produces undesirable effects, that does not refute behavior modification.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual Multiple Choice Question on NfFL Section (Note: * indicates the correct answer) 13. In his book Beyond Freedom and Dignity, Skinner argued that: * a) the concept of “freedom” prevents us from recognizing how our behavior is controlled by positive reinforcers b) to be free, we need to improve bringing our behavior under self-control c) in order to achieve dignity for all, we need to improve the way that our behavior is controlled d) we need to decrease the amount of control exerted over us by various levels of government 246 ..

Difficulty: Easy Type: Applied True/False Questions on NfFL Section (Note: Correct answer indicated in left margin) F 14. Behavior modification should always be used to maintain the status quo in social relationships.

Difficulty: Medium Type: Conceptual T 15. Prilleltensky has argued that psychology has too readily accepted the status quo rather than questioning whether the status quo is the best for human welfare.

Difficulty: Easy Type: Factual

247 ..

Part IV Practicum Exercises for Users of

Behavior Modification: What It Is and How to Do It Tenth Edition

248 ..

Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum #1 Positive Reinforcement As we described in Chapter 4, many of our behaviors are controlled by their consequences. A behavior that is followed by a positive reinforcer is strengthened and (as you will read in Chapter 6) a previously reinforced behavior that is not followed by a reinforcer is weakened. Although it may take several reinforced trials for there to be any noticeable increase in behavior, it is still reasonable to identify specific single instances of positive reinforcement. The purpose of this exercise is to help you to become more skillful at identifying instances of reinforcement, both with respect to the behavior of others and your own behavior.

You should proceed through the following steps: Part I (a)

(b)

Turn to your neighbor(s) and select one or two partners to work with, and go to a nearby cafeteria to complete the practicum.

Observe the behavior of others who are there. You might look at their social interactions, movements around the lounge, interaction with the staff selling coffee, etc. You should try to identify three separate instances of positive reinforcement involving reinforcers that are direct acting. Discuss them with your partners, and record them on the following page. Your description should be approximately as complete as in Table 4-1………….......................………………………………………25-35 mins.

Part II (c) Each person in your group should identify a problem behavior that they emit that they would like to decrease. Discuss the problem behaviors with others in your group, and pick two of the behaviors to describe for this practicum………………………………………………………………...5-10 mins. (d)

Record those behaviors on the following page. Then, discuss with those students probable reinforcer(s) that are maintaining the behaviors. Describe them on the following page. For each reinforcer identified in step (d), indicate whether or not it is direct acting or indirect acting, and describe the rationale for your choice………………………………………………………10-15 mins.

(e)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

249 ..

Practicum #1, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME. PART I SITUATION

IMMEDIATE CONSEQUENCES

LONG-TERM EFFECTS

DIRECT ACTING OR INDIRECT ACTING

REASONS FOR CHOICE (OF DIRECT VS INDIRECT)

RESPONSE

(a)

(b)

(c)

PART II DESCRIPTION OF A PROBLEM BEHAVIOR

PROBABLE MAINTAINING REINFORCERS

(a)

(1)

(2)

(b)

(1)

(2)

250 ..

Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum #2 Extinction Chapters 4 and 6 described the principles of positive reinforcement and extinction. The purpose of this practicum is to give you practice in designing an extinction program to decrease a behavioral excess.

Specifically, you should select a behavioral excess of your own or someone you know, and describe a plausible program incorporating extinction of the behavioral excess and positive reinforcement of a desirable alternative behavior. Your program should conform to the factors and guidelines for the effective use of extinction (see Chapter 6), and you should try to anticipate any pitfalls or potential problems.

You should proceed through the following steps: (a)

Turn to your neighbor(s) and select one or two partners to work with. You can either stay in the class, or go to a nearby cafeteria to complete the practicum.

(b)

Each person in the group should independently write down a behavioral excess of their own, or of someone they know, that they would like to decrease. When everyone has written down a behavior, read them to the other people in the group and record them on the following page. . . . . 5–10 mins

(c)

The group should select one of the behaviors to be used for completing the remainder of the practicum. The behavior chosen should be one for which it is possible to withhold the probable maintaining reinforcers if instances of the behavior occur during the extinction program. The behavior selected should be defined in detail on the following page……………………… …5 mins.

(d)

Discuss the program, how it will be set up, who will run it, and record the results on the following page, i.e., explain who will manage contingencies for the problem behavior, who will manage reinforcers for the desirable alternative behavior, etc. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .10–20 mins.

(e)

Explain how your program conforms to the guidelines and factors for the effective application of extinction, as described at the end of Chapter 6 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .10–20 mins.

(f)

Anticipate problems that might arise and indicate how they will be handled.. . . . . . . . . .10–15 mins.

(g)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

251 ..

Practicum #2, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME.

From Step (b), Possible behaviors of students to decrease:

From Step (c), Behavior Chosen for Extinction Program: Problem behavior to decrease: Reinforcer to be withheld:

Alternative behavior to increase: Reinforcer to be applied:

From Step (d), Outline of program design (contingencies, setting, etc.):

From Step (e), Guidelines and factors for effective use of principles (justify your program with relevant guidelines):

From Step (f), Potential problems (if any) and how they might be handled:

252 ..

Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum #3 Schedules of Reinforcement The purpose of this practicum is to give you practice in identifying schedules of reinforcement (see Chapter 8) as they influence behavior in everyday situations. We want you to go to a student lounge or cafeteria and observe the behavior of others who are there. Look for examples of behaviors that are being maintained by various schedules of reinforcement. In a “real life” situation, it is difficult to find examples that precisely fit the definitions you have learned, but look for reasonable approximations of these situations.

An example of a VI/LH schedule might be when a group of students is walking through the cafeteria looking for a table. The time spent looking for and selecting a table will vary, depending on how busy the cafeteria is at the particular time. Responding (i.e., selecting a particular table) before its occupants have moved will not be reinforced. However, the first response that occurs after the occupants of a table have left the cafeteria will be reinforced. The reinforcer would be obtaining an unoccupied table. There is a limited time during which the response must occur in order to be reinforced. If the students wait too long, it is likely that the table will be taken by other students.

You should proceed through the following steps: (a)

Turn to your neighbor(s) and select one or two partners to work with, and go to a cafeteria to complete the practicum.

(b)

Briefly review with your group the definitions of the schedules listed on the following page. ………………………………………………………………………………………… ….15–20 mins.

(c)

Observe the behaviors exhibited by the people in the cafeteria or lounge, and try to identify approximations of the reinforcement schedules listed on the following page. . . . . . . . . 25–40 mins.

(d)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

253 ..

Practicum #3, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME. Identify examples of behaviors that are maintained on the following reinforcement schedules. For each example, specify the response that is being reinforced and the nature of the reinforcer. In addition, give a brief description of how the reinforcement schedule works in that particular situation (see example of VI/LH on previous page). Give one example for each of the schedules below.

Reinft.

Schedule

Response

Reinforcer

CRF

FR or VR

FI or FI/LH

VI or VI/LH

FD

254 ..

Description

Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum #4 Stimulus Control As described in Chapter 9 on discrimination training, one of the events used to analyze behavior is the stimulus conditions that exist just prior to the occurrence of the behavior. From these conditions, we can identify two categories of stimuli: SD, a stimulus or an event that has been correlated with the availability of a reinforcer for a particular response; and S), a stimulus or event that has been correlated with extinction trials for a particular response.

In our everyday life, we learn to behave according to the stimuli presented in each situation. If you think of what you are doing right now, that is “reading,” your behavior is being controlled by the fact that a moment ago you were given specific instructions to read, you were given some written material, and you now have typed pages in front of you. These SDs all exert stimulus control over your reading behavior. Also, there are consequences specified for reading and performing this exercise in terms of the grade or points that you will receive. The purpose of this practicum is to give you practice in identifying examples of SDs and S)s that control behavior in everyday life.

You should proceed through the following steps: (a)

Turn to your neighbor(s) and select one or two partners to work with. You can either stay in the class, or go to a nearby cafeteria to complete the practicum.

(b)

For the first part of this exercise, observe the behavior of those in the setting where you are located, and identify two different examples of SDs and two different examples of S)s that appear to be controlling behavior in that setting. Record them in the appropriate columns on the following page…………………………………………………………………………………………15–20 mins.

(c)

For the second part of this exercise, consider the setting where one person in your group typically studies. Describe that setting on the following page……………………………………….10–15 mins.

(d)

Next, discuss with that person changes that might be made in the setting to help the person study more effectively. Describe those changes on the following page………………………….10–15 mins.

(e)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

255 ..

Practicum #4, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME.

General Situation

Specific Stimulus Which Was an SD

Behavior Which Was Reinforced

General Situation

Specific Stimulus Which Was an S)

Behavior Which Was Not Reinforced

Part I

Immediate Reinforcer(s)

1.

2.

1.

2.

Part II Describe the present study set-up for one student:

Describe changes that might be made in the study situation to help the student study more effectively. a) SDs for studying (i.e., cues that studying will be reinforced) that might be introduced:

b) SDs for competing Rs that might be eliminated:

256 ..

Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum #5 Escape and Avoidance Conditioning As described in Chapter 14, many of our behaviors are influenced by escape or avoidance conditioning. The purpose of this exercise is to help you become more skillful at identifying instances of escape and avoidance conditioning in everyday life.

You should proceed through the following steps: (a)

Turn to your neighbor(s) and select one or two partners to work with. Then go to a nearby cafeteria to complete the practicum.

(b)

Observe the behavior of those in the setting where you are located, and try to identify instances of escape and avoidance conditioning. Alternatively, consider your own behavior during the past day or two and try to think of instances where you were influenced by escape or avoidance conditioning. ………………………………………………………………………………………………15–30 mins.

(c)

Record three separate instances of escape conditioning and three separate instances of avoidance conditioning on the following page. Do not describe instances that were already described in the text. ……………………………………………………………………………………………...15–30 mins.

(d)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

257 ..

Practicum #5, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME. Part I: Describe three instances of escape conditioning.

Aversive Stimulus (or Situation)

Escape Response

Immediate Effects

Long-Term Effects

1.

2.

3.

Part II: Describe three instances of avoidance conditioning.

Situation

Warning Stimulus

Any Immediate Effects? (Warning Stimulus Removed?)

Avoidance Response

1.

2.

3.

258 ..

Other Effects (Aversive Stimulus Avoided?)

Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum #6 Respondent and Operant Components of Emotions As described in Chapter 15, emotions have three important characteristics: (a) the autonomic reaction that you feel inside during the experience of an emotion, which is influenced by respondent conditioning; (b) the way that you learn to overtly express an emotion, which is influenced by operant conditioning; and (c) the way that you become aware of and describe your emotions, which is also influenced by operant conditioning. The purpose of this practicum is to give you some practice in analyzing the operant and respondent components of emotions.

You should proceed through the following steps: (a)

Turn to your neighbor(s) and select one or two partners to work with. Then go to a nearby cafeteria to complete the practicum.

(b)

Pick an emotion that you will analyze for this practicum. Record it on the following page…………………………………………………………………………………………5–10 mins.

(c)

Each person in the group should then indicate an event or situation where they typically experience that emotion. Record those causes on the following page. Also, indicate whether the causes involve the withdrawal or presentation of reinforcers or punishers………………………………..10–20 mins.

(d)

Each person should then indicate their typical operant displays of that emotion. Record them on the following page……………………………………………………………………………..10–20 mins.

(e)

On the following page, describe the typical respondent components of that emotion…..…5–10 mins.

(f)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

259 ..

Practicum #6, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME. Emotion Selected:

Do the Causes Involve Presentation or Withdrawal of Reinforcers of Punishers? Indicate Which.

Typical Causes of that Emotion for Students In Your Group.

1.

2.

3.

4.

Typical Operant Displays of that Emotion by Students in the Group 1.

2.

3.

4.

Typical Respondent Components of that Emotion:

.

260 ..

Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum # 7 Programming for Generality As described in Chapter 16, training produces generality when the trained behavior transfers to a new setting, when training leads to the development of a behavior that has not been specifically trained, and when the trained behavior is maintained. The purpose of this exercise is to help you to think about the various strategies for programming for all three aspects of generality.

You should proceed through the following steps: (a)

Turn to your neighbor(s), and select one or two partners to work with. You can either stay in the class or go to a nearby cafeteria to complete the practicum.

(b)

Each person in the group should independently identify a particular behavior that they would like to learn or are in the process of learning. List the behaviors on the following page. From your group, select one of the behaviors listed in order to complete the practicum...............5–10 mins.

(c)

Review the strategies in Chapter 16 for programming for all three aspects of generality. Then describe the details of the strategies that you might follow to program for all aspects of generality for the behavior selected from a person in your group. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .30–45 mins.

(d)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

261 ..

Practicum #7, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME.

Behaviors that Members of the Group Are Learning or Would Like to Learn:

Behavior Chosen for This Exercise:

Strategies for Programming Stimulus Generalization

Strategies for Programming Response Generalization

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Strategies for Programming Maintenance

Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum #8 Rule-Governed Control Over Behavior As described in Chapter 17, there are several types of situations in which use of rule-governed control over behavior is an especially effective behavior modification strategy. The purpose of this practicum is to give you some practice in capitalizing on rule-governed control over behavior for self-improvement.

You should proceed through the following steps: (a)

Turn to your neighbor(s), and select one or two partners to work with. You can either stay in the class or go to a nearby cafeteria to complete the practicum.

(b)

Each person in the group should independently identify a behavior that they do not typically emit but that they would like to perform, or that they perform less consistently than they would like to. List them on the following page. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5–10 mins.

(c)

Discuss the behaviors with your partners, and pick one of them to complete this practicum. Record it on the following page. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5–10 mins.

(d)

For the behavior chosen, describe how rules might be used to influence that person to emit that behavior in the desired fashion, with the desired frequency, and in the desired situations. Indicate which of the guidelines are being followed for using rules effectively (see Chapter 17). . 30–40 mins.

(e)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

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Practicum #8, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME. Behaviors Identified by Individuals in the Group:

Behavior Selected for This Practicum:

Describe How Rules Might be Used to Effectively Influence that Behavior:

Indicate How the Guidelines for Using Rules Effectively Were Followed:

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Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum #9 Short-Cut Tactics with Stimulus Control As indicated in the text, it is possible to bring about desirable behavior change by applying principles such as shaping, stimulus discrimination training, etc. However, because of our conditioning histories, there are already stimuli that exert control over many of our behaviors. Sometimes it is possible to bring about rapid behavior change by devising a strategy that incorporates existing forms of stimulus control. The purpose of this practicum is to give you some practice in deciding how you might use short-cut tactics involving stimulus control to influence your behavior (see Chapter 18).

You should proceed through the following steps: (a)

Turn to your neighbor(s), and select one or two partners to work with. You can either stay in the class or go to a nearby cafeteria to complete the practicum.

(b)

Each person in the group should independently examine the list of behaviors on the following page, and select two behaviors from the list that you would genuinely like to improve on.

Discuss your selections with your partners. From your group, select two of the behaviors listed in order to complete the practicum. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5–10 mins.

(c)

One person in the group should do the recording for everyone. It is only necessary to hand in one sheet for all members of the group. Complete the practicum exercise as described on the following page. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30–45 mins.

(d)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

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Practicum #9, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME. Select two behaviors from the following list: a) following healthy eating practices b) feeling happy c) exercising three times per week d) preparing a study schedule at the start of each week e) being more assertive in resisting requests from friends (who want you to change your study schedule so that you can socialize with them) f) cleaning dishes and kitchen area immediately after finishing a meal g) following a weekly time management plan for studying For each behavior, describe how you might influence the behavior by combining at least four of the following tactics: modeling, guidance, rearranging the existing surroundings, moving the activity to a new location, relocating people, and changing the time of the activity. Make your suggestions highly plausible in regard to the situation.

First Behavior Selected:

Tactics Followed:

Second Behavior Selected:

Tactics Followed:

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Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum #10 Behavioral Assessment As described in Chapters 20 and 21 on behavioral assessment, specifying problem behaviors precisely and devising ways to take data on the occurrence of problems are important components of effective behavior modification. The purposes of this practicum are to give you practice in specifying behaviors precisely, and identifying characteristics of behavior to be recorded.

You should proceed through the following steps: (a)

Turn to your neighbor(s) and select two or three partners to work with. You can either stay in the class, or go to a nearby cafeteria to complete the practicum.

(b)

Areas to Improve: Each person in your group should identify two or three areas for self-improvement or personal adjustment. List four such areas in the appropriate column on the following page. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .5–10 mins.

(c)

Precise Definitions: Many self-improvement goals are somewhat vague, and include things like “having a positive attitude toward college,” or “improving a relationship.” Mager (1972) refers to such vague abstractions as “fuzzies.” A “fuzzy” is an acceptable starting point for identifying a selfimprovement area. However, you must then “unfuzzify” the abstraction by identifying the specific behaviors or outcomes that would cause you to agree that your goal has been achie. For each of the “Areas to Improve” listed on the next page, identify the specific behaviors or outcomes that you would take as evidence that self-improvement has been successful. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15–20 mins.

(d)

Prioritizing: Next, review your list of specific behaviors on the next page and discuss them with the group with a view to prioritizing them as potential targets for behavior change. Justify your top 2 priority items (in terms of ease with which they can be changed, personal importance to the individual involved, potential value for others, etc.). . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15–20 mins.

(e)

Characteristics to Record: Finally, considering the information in the chapter on “Direct Behavioral Assessment,” indicate the specific characteristic(s) that should be recorded for each of the behaviors on the list (i.e., frequency of..., duration of..., etc.). . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5–10 mins.

(f)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

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Practicum #10, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME.

General Areas to Improve

Precise Definition of Behavior to be Changed

Priority Rating

Characteristics to be Recorded

1.

2.

3.

4.

Justification for Priority Rating #1

Justification for Priority Rating #2

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Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum #11 Planning a Treatment Program As described in the Chapter 24, “Planning, Applying, and Evaluating a Behavioral Program,” one must make a number of decisions in designing a behavioral program. The purpose of this practicum is to give you practice in following the guidelines for designing a program.

You should proceed through the following steps: (a)

Turn to your neighbor(s) and select two or three partners to work with. You can either stay in the class, or go to a nearby cafeteria to complete the practicum.

(b)

Each person in the group should read the following problem-behavior descriptions, and the group should select either Problem A or Problem B below, for which you will then design a program. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5–10 mins.

(c)

For the problem chosen, complete the sections on the following page. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30–45 mins.

(d)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

The Problem Imagine that you are a supervisor of twenty ten-year-old children who are enrolled in a summer camp at a local park. Part of your job is fairly straightforward because a daily schedule has been provided. There are specific amounts of time to be spent playing table tennis, swimming, eating lunch, resting, and so forth.

However, you are faced with several recurring behavior problems. Pick one of the two problems listed below.

For that problem, consider the information in the chapter “Steps for Planning, Applying, and Evaluating a Treatment Program.” Based on that information, complete the sections on the following page.

PROBLEM A: When swimming, Jason and Paula frequently argue. The argument often ends with one of them hitting the other and someone usually winds up crying.

PROBLEM B: At the swimming pool, one child says that he is afraid of the water. You have a note from that child’s parents indicating that he knows how to swim, but the child insists that he cannot swim and refuses to go near the pool.

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Practicum #11, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME.

Description of the Target Behavior:

(a) Is it precise?

(b) How is it in the client’s best interests?

(c) Will its accomplishment likely produce any side effects?

Desired Stimulus Control of the Target Behavior:

Data to Be Recorded:

Details of Short-Cut Tactics to Be Used:

Gradual Change Procedures (Shaping, Chaining, Fading) to Be Used (briefly describe):

Do You Need to Program for Generality? If so, how?

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Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum #12 Token Reinforcement in a Self-Improvement Program As described in Chapter 25, token economies are typically used to influence behaviors of a group of individuals. But a token system can also be designed to improve several behaviors of one individual. The purpose of this practicum is to give you practice in designing a token system to influence several of your own behaviors.

You should proceed through the following steps: (a)

Turn to your neighbor(s) and select two or three partners to work with. You can either stay in the class, or go to a nearby cafeteria to complete the practicum.

(b)

Each person in the group should identify several behaviors that they know how to perform, but would like to perform more often. List them on the following page. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5–10 mins.

(c)

Discuss the behaviors identified by the members of the group. Pick the behaviors for one person and refer to them for completing this practicum. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5–10 mins.

(d)

For the behaviors selected for one of the individuals in your group, describe a plausible token system that might be used to increase the frequency of those behaviors to desirable levels. Then indicate which of the considerations in designing a token economy (see summary of considerations in Chapter 24) that you have followed. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20–35 mins.

(e)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

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Practicum #12, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME.

Behaviors for Person A

Behaviors for Person B

Behaviors for Person C

Behaviors Selected for Completion of Practicum

Details of Token System

Considerations in Designing a Token Economy That Were Followed

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Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum #13 Causes of Problems of Self-Control All of us at one time or another have experienced problems of self-control / behavioral excesses that we have difficulty decreasing or controlling, or behavioral deficits that we would like to overcome. The purpose of this practicum is to give you practice in analyzing the causes of problems of self-control (see Chapter 26).

You should proceed through the following steps: (a)

Turn to your neighbor(s) and select two or three partners to work with. You can either stay in the class, or go to a nearby cafeteria to complete the practicum.

(b)

Each person in the group should independently identify a behavioral excess that they would like to decrease, and a behavioral deficit that they would like to overcome. List them on the following page. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5–10 mins.

(c)

Review the causes of problems of self-control for behavioral excesses and behavioral deficits presented in Chapter 26. For each of the behaviors listed above, identify the most plausible general cause (e.g., immediate reinforcers vs. cumulatively significant punishers, etc). Then describe the actual contingencies that seem to exemplify that cause. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30–45 mins.

(d)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

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Practicum #13, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME.

Behaviors

Most Plausible Causes

Person A Behavioral Deficit

Person A Behavioral Excess

Person B Behavioral Deficit

Person B Behavioral Excess

Person C Behavioral Deficit

Person C Behavioral Excess

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Description of Actual Contingencies

Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum #14 Task Analysis, Behavioral Progression, and Mastery Criteria As we indicated in Chapter 26 on self-control, learning complex skills can be facilitated by focusing on the behavior itself. The purpose of this practicum is to give you practice in developing a task analysis of a skill, and in preparing mastery criteria for the steps of the behavioral progression.

You should proceed through the following steps: (a)

Turn to your neighbor(s) and select two or three partners to work with. You can either stay in the class, or go to a nearby cafeteria to complete the practicum.

(b)

Consider the behavioral progression and mastery criteria for learning golf presented in the self-control chapter.

(c)

Each person in the group should independently identify a particular skill that they recently learned or would like to learn. The skill can be a sports skill, or it can be some other skill from everyday life (such as changing a tire on a car, knitting, or appropriately using some piece of equipment or a tool). . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5–10 mins.

(d)

Discuss your examples with the other members of the group and pick one skill for the group for completing the rest of this exercise. You should pick a skill that is not too broad in scope. For example, “playing hockey” is far too broad. “Giving accurate forehand passes in hockey” would be a better choice. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5–10 mins.

(e)

“Task analyze” that skill, and describe a behavioral progression and the mastery criteria that you might use to try to learn it or to teach it to someone else. Make your behavioral progression and mastery criteria appropriate for an individual of a given age or level of experience. Your steps should be plausible and the difference from one step to the next should not be too large nor too small. Record your results on the following page. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30–45 mins.

(f)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

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Practicum #14, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME.

Task Chosen for Analysis:

Age and Experience Level of Subject:

Behavioral Steps or Components

Mastery Criteria

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Practicum Exercise for Users of Behavior Modification: What It Is and How To Do It, 10th edition (Martin & Pear, Pearson, 2015)

Practicum #15 Planning Coping Self-Statements As we indicated in Chapter 27, some people experience problems because of a high frequency of negative self-talk, negative thinking about themselves in relation to one or more situations. The purpose of this practicum is to give you practice in preparing some coping self-statements to counteract problem thoughts.

You should proceed through the following steps: (a)

Turn to your neighbor(s) and select two or three partners to work with. You can either stay in the class, or go to a nearby cafeteria to complete the practicum to complete the practicum.

(b)

Each person in the group should independently identify a particular situation where you sometimes experience negative thinking. It could be negative thinking about your future, about a social relationship, about work, about your performance in a course, etc. On the following page, for each person in your group, list one general theme around which negative thinking occurs. Discuss your examples with the other members in your group and pick one example for completing the rest of this exercise. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5–10 mins.

(c)

Next, in a paragraph or so in the appropriate section on the next page, write out at least 6 examples of the types of thoughts that that person (from your group whom you have chosen) typically thinks when experiencing negative thinking on that particular topic or theme. Make the statements as realistic as possible and as close as possible to the kind of thoughts that actually occur. . . . . . . . . . 20–30 mins.

(d)

Then, in the appropriate section on the following page, for each of the negative thoughts, describe specific coping thoughts that the person could think to counteract the negative thoughts. The coping thoughts should be realistic, and positive. They should be as specific as possible, and should ideally relate to specific behaviors and/or specific positive outcomes (review the guidelines for rule-governed control over behavior.) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20–30 mins.

(e)

Make sure that each person in the group PRINTS his or her name and SIGNS one copy of the worksheet, and hand in this signed copy at the end of class.

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Practicum #15, Page 2 EACH STUDENT MUST PRINT AND SIGN THEIR OWN NAME.

Themes or Topics Around Which Negative Thinking Occurs by Members of the Group:

Topic or Theme of Negative Thinking Chosen for This Exercise:

Details of Negative Thoughts

Positive Coping Thoughts (Self-Talk)

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