Behavior in Organizations, 9E Jerald Greenberg Test Bank

Test Item File Jerald Greenberg

Behavior in Organizations Ninth Edition

Jerald Greenberg The Ohio State University

Robert A. Baron Rensselaer Polytechnic Institute

Table of Contents Preface

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Introduction.......................................................................................................................5 INSTRUCTOR’S MANUAL Chapter 1

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Chapter 2

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Chapter 3

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Chapter 4

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Chapter 5

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Chapter 6

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Chapter 7

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Chapter 8

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Chapter 9

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Chapter 10

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Chapter 11 Chapter Title ................................................................................................0 Chapter 12 Chapter Title ................................................................................................0 Chapter 13 Chapter Title ................................................................................................0 Chapter 14 Chapter Title ................................................................................................0 Appendix A ..................................................................................................0 Appendix B ..................................................................................................0 Appendix C ..................................................................................................0

Chapter 1 The Field of Organizational Behavior Chapter 1 - The Field of Organizational Behavior Multiple Choice Questions 1.

The field of organizational behavior is most firmly rooted in: a. Science b. Biology c. Political science d. Philosophy Answer a Page 5 2.

________ is a structured social system consisting of groups and individuals working together to meet some agreed-upon objective. a. An open system b. An organization c. A work team d. Scientific management Answer b Page 5 3.

Organizational behavior: a. is a social science that examines people’s behavior in society, like physics or sociology. b. studies how organizations compete and applies that knowledge to improve the organization’s quality. c. is an intuitive, qualitative approach to the understanding of group behavior both on and off the job. d. is a discipline based in science that studies human behavior in organizations.

Answer d Page 5 4.

According to the definition, organizational behavior: a. is firmly grounded in the scientific method. b. focuses on the organization as a whole, and not the individual. c. considers the group-oriented approach of sociology, rather than the individual-oriented approach of psychology. d. All of the above.

Answer a Page 5 5.

All of the following are characteristics of the field of organizational behavior except: a. a basis for enhancing individual well-being. b. a study of individuals, groups, and organizations. c. a commitment to the scientific method. d. a focus on qualitative, observational research.

Answer d Pages 5, 6

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 6.

When an OB specialist is looking at how an organization is structured and its operating environment and the effect these have on employee communication and coordination, he/she is conducting research at the ________ level of OB. a. Organizational b. Group c. Individual d. None of these; this is not OB research.

Answer a Page 7 7.

John is looking at employee perceptions, attitudes, motives in order to improve worker productivity.

John is conducting OB research at which level? a. Organizational b. Group c. Individual d. None of these; this is not OB research.

Answer c Page 7 8.

The social science that relates to the OB topics of organizational culture and leadership is: a. anthropology. b. sociology. c. psychology. d. political science.

Answer a Page 7 9.

The social science that contributed to organizational behavior the tools and perspective to examine conflict and power within an organization is: a. political science. b. psychology. c. sociology. d. management science.

Answer a Page 7 10. The management theory that views workers as self-motivating, interested in their work, having a need to achieve and be recognized, etc., is: a. Theory X. b. Theory Y. c. classical management theory. d. scientific management theory.

Answer b Page 8 11. A Theory Y supervisor would feel that: a. people work best when left alone. b. different people should be managed in different ways based on the situation. c. the only way to get people to work hard is to push them. d. people motivate themselves, all you need to do is give them some direction.

Answer d Page 8

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Chapter 1 The Field of Organizational Behavior 12. In a recent survey of a wide range of professionals, which of the following was NOT found to be related to job performance? a. Management. b. Organization. c. Information technology. d. Supervisory mistreatment.

Answer-d Page 9 13. ________ is self-sustaining through the conversion of external resources into organizational outputs. a. An open system b. Organizational behavior research c. An organization d. Contingency management Answer a Page 11 14. The open systems model shows an organization doing its work or creating value in the ________ phase. a. input b. transformation c. output d. technology Answer b Page 11 15. Which one of the following statements would be most likely made by a supervisor who endorses a contingency approach to management? a. "People work best when left alone." b. "I treat different people in different ways based on the situation we're facing." c. "The only way to get people to work hard is to push them." d. "Focus on organizations and people will take care of themselves."

Answer b Page 12 16. The perspective suggesting that organizational behavior is affected by a large number of interacting individual, situational, and organizational factors is: a. the contingency approach to OB. b. classical management theory. c. Theory X and Theory Y. d. an organizational change perspective.

Answer a Page 12 17. The contingency perspective is useful because it respects that: a. organizations may be rigid. b. the scientific method may be limited. c. different situations produce different answers. d. few managers address personal characteristics.

Answer c Page 12

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 18. Time-and-motion studies: a. look at visual perception and performance. b. try to find the best way to perform jobs by streamlining individual movements. c. try to find ways to humanize the jobs of people. d. focus on improving work group coordination.

Answer b Page 12 19. Which of the following strategies would Frederick Taylor recommend to improve productivity? a. Paying workers a salary or hourly wage. b. Improving worker job satisfaction. c. Implementing a program of careful selection and training of all employees. d. Expanding job responsibilities for each worker.

Answer c Page 12, 13 20. In one set of experiments in the Hawthorne studies, researchers were puzzled when they found that ________ for subjects in the test room relative to subjects in a control room. a. productivity improved when physical conditions were improved b. productivity improved when physical conditions were made worse c. productivity was lowest when illumination was the greatest d. productivity improved regardless of whether brightness increased or decreased Answer d Page 13 21. The Hawthorne studies: a. stressed efficiency and monetary rewards for workers. b. focused on the noneconomic and social factors that influence behavior in organizational settings. c. permitted the proper assignment of management responsibilities based on 14 key principles. d. lead to the effective restructuring of large organizations into bureaucracies.

Answer b Page 13 22. The Hawthorne studies were an example of OB research at the ________ level. a. individual b. group c. organizational d. managerial Answer b Page 14 23. The value of the Hawthorne studies to OB lay in their discovery that: a. physical working condition had no impact on worker productivity. b. employee productivity and job satisfaction were directly related to the supervision they received. c. human needs, attitudes, motives, and relationships were important to worker performance. d. there is a most effective way to organize every work team, although it will vary among teams.

Answer c Page 14

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Chapter 1 The Field of Organizational Behavior 24. Fayol’s principles of classical organizational theory include: a. a concern for human motives like Mayo’s Hawthorne studies. b. a focus on maximum efficiency through the selection and training of employees. c. the empowerment of employees through the elimination of the chain-of-command and increased participation. d. a division of labor, permitting people to specialize in those jobs they do best.

Answer d Page 14 25. Employees performing very specialized jobs, whether they are blue collar workers or managers, are an example of which principle of organizational theory? a. unity of command b. scalar chain c. division of labor d. employee initiative Answer c Page 14 26. Max Weber’s contribution to organizational behavior lay in his search for: a. the best way to identify and consider employee motivation and attitude. b. the ideal way to perform a job. c. the most efficient way to structure an organization. d. the key characteristics of effective executive leadership.

Answer c Page 14 27. An organization in which there are a lot of formal rules, people are treated in an impersonal manner, jobs are carefully divided into specialized tasks, and employees must check with their supervisors before making decisions, exemplifies: a. scientific management theory. b. the application of a human relations approach. c. contingency management theory. d. an ideal bureaucracy.

Answer d Page 14 28. Written guidelines that are used to control all employee behaviors refer to what characteristic of an ideal bureaucracy? a. Impersonal treatment. b. Formal rules and regulations. c. Authority structure. d. Rationality.

Answer b Page 14 29. The pursuit of efficiency refer to what characteristic of an ideal bureaucracy? a. Impersonal treatment. b. Formal rules and regulations. c. Authority structure. d. Rationality.

Answer d Page 14

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 30. Higher-ranking people having authority over those in lower-ranking positions refers to what characteristic of an ideal bureaucracy? a. Impersonal treatment. b. Formal rules and regulations. c. Authority structure. d. Hierarchical structure.

Answer d Page 14 31. The Gordon and Howell report on business education in 1959: a. recommended that the study of management pay greater attention to the social sciences. b. refuted the findings of the Hawthorne Study. c. supported the bureaucratic organizational structure as the best organizational form. d. stressed the ethical implications of business.

Answer a Page 15 32. Organizational behavior draws from a variety of social sciences including: a. anthropology. b. sociology. c. political science. d. All of the above.

Answer d Page 15 33. People who are citizens of one country but who are living and working in another country are called: a. multinationals. b. repatriates. c. expatriates. d. depatriates.

Answer c Page 17 34. Jane and Bill are discussing the values, beliefs, and customs they observed on their business trip to Europe. What Jane and Bill are discussing is: a. expatriation.. b. culture shock. c. a subculture. d. culture.

Answer d Page 17 35. Chuck recently returned to the U.S. from a six-month job assignment in Taiwan. His feelings of disorientation would best be described as: a. expatriation. b. repatriation. c. parochialism. d. ethnocentrism.

Answer b Page 17

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Chapter 1 The Field of Organizational Behavior 36. When a person adjusts to a foreign culture he/she tends to: a. experience frustration and confusion after being in the culture for a few months. b. immediately experience frustration and confusion. c. pass from understanding to frustration and confusion after about six months in a culture. d. begin to experience optimism and excitement about the new culture only after a few months in that culture.

Answer a Page 18 37. Culture shock tends to result from an individual’s tendency: a. to be overly optimistic about their international experience. b. to be parochial or ethnocentric in their worldview. c. depend on a contingency management approach in other countries. d. All of these experiences.

Answer b Page 18 38. The narrow belief that there is one best way of doing things can be referred to as a. patriotism. b. divergence. c. ethnocentrism. d. parochialism.

Answer d Page 18 39. When an American believes that everyone in the world should speak English, he/she is being a. parochial. b. ethnocentric. c. convergent. d. divergent.

Answer b Page 18 40. Exposure to other cultures helps people to become a. less parochial and more ethnocentric. b. more parochial and less ethnocentric. c. less parochial and less ethnocentric. d. more parochial and more ethnocentric.

Answer c Page 18 41. The basic assumptions that management practices are universal and that U.S. management practices are the best is known as the: a. multicultural hypothesis. b. divergent hypothesis. c. the convergence hypothesis. d. culture shock syndrome.

Answer c Page 20

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 42. Under the ________ the assumption about effectively managing people is that it requires the appreciation of the cultural context in which they operate. a. multicultural hypothesis b. divergent hypothesis c. the convergence hypothesis d. diversity efficacy Answer b Page 20 43. Approximately ________ of women between 25 and 54 are employed outside the home: a. 25% b. 40% c. 75% d. 90% Answer c Page 20 44. Approximately ________ of single mothers have to work to support themselves and their children. a. 33% b. 50% c. 67% d. 95% Answer c Page 20 45. Companies are taking positive steps to help employees with personal needs and family obligations because doing so: a. help them retain employees. b. attract the best qualified candidates for jobs. c. permit employees to focus on the job and achieve higher performance. d. results in all of these outcomes.

Answer d Page 20, 21 46. By 2050, at the current population growth, minorities will comprise almost ________ of the U.S. population. a. 25% b. 40% c. 50% d. 75% Answer c Page 21 47. The fast growing segment of the U.S. population is: a. baby boomers. b. minorities. c. young people under 25. d. people over 85.

Answer d Page 22

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Chapter 1 The Field of Organizational Behavior 48. The biggest growing segment of the U.S. population is a. children age 2-10. b. people age 18-25. c. the Baby Boom generation. d. people over 85.

Answer d Page 22 49. The process of using information technology to change a physical task into one manipulating data or digital commands is called: a. outsourcing. b. rightsizing. c. automation. d. informating.

Answer d Page 23 50. Organizations have been reducing the number of employees needed to operate. This is known as: a. Compression. b. Downsizing. c. Outsourcing. d. Core competency.

Answer b Page 23 51. Hiring outside firms to perform non-core functions is known as: a. Compression. b. Downsizing. c. Outsourcing. d. Core competency.

Answer c Page 24 52. The use of outsourcing allows the firm to focus on: a. Business continuity plans. b. Downsizing. c. Telecommuting . d. Core competency.

Answer d Page 24 53. Based on prevailing patterns of downsizing, you are considered vulnerable to getting laid off if: a. you are paid over $150,000. b. you have a midrange salary. c. your expertise is technical in nature. d. All of the above.

Answer a Page 24

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 54. The trend in outsourcing has led to the development of highly flexible, temporary organizations formed for a specific opportunity, each contributing a specific expertise. This is a ____ organization. a. contingency b. telecommuting c. reengineered d. virtual Answer d Page 25 55. More and more companies are allowing employees to spend part of their regular working hours performing their jobs at home. This is called: a. job sharing. b. compressed work weeks. c. voluntarily reduced work time programs. d. telecommuting.

Answer d Page 25 56. According to one study, ________ million Americans use broadband connections from various places to do work that they otherwise would do from an office. a. 25 b. 45 c. 65 d. 85 Answer b Page 25 57. Telecommuting works best with jobs that: a. involve a lot of driving. b. are manufacturing based. c. are customer-service oriented. d. are easily portable.

Answer d Page 27 58. A mutual commitment between employer and employees to do things to help one another achieve each other’s goals and aspirations is known as: a. Engagement. b. Core competency. c. I-deals. d. Corporate restructuring.

Answer a Page 27 59. All of the following are key drivers of engagement except: a. Involving employees in decisions. b. Giving employees opportunities to express ideas. c. Establishing rules that will constitute the “gameplan.” d. Showing concern for individual employee’s well-being Answer c Page 27

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Chapter 1 The Field of Organizational Behavior 60. Arrangements between today’s employers and employees that are negotiated to satisfy the unique interests of both parties are known as: a. Engagement. b. Core competency. c. I-deals. d. Corporate restructuring.

Answer c Page 29 61. The manager of human resources wants a program that will permit single-parents who want to work, but can’t work a regular 8-hour-a-day job, to work for his company. The best program to solve his problem would be: a. flextime. b. telecommuting. c. compressed work weeks. d. voluntarily reduced work time programs.

Answer a Page 30 62. The term contingent wokforce can be used to describe: a. part-time employees. b. freelancers. c. on-call workers. d. All of the above.

Answer d Page 30 63. The need to draw on the services of temporary employment firms is necessitated by: a. Compressed workweeks. b. Core competency. c. I-deals. d. Corporate restructuring.

Answer d Page 31 64. When a company allows its employees to work fewer but longer days, it is using: a. a flextime program. b. job sharing. c. compressed work weeks. d. voluntarily reduced work time programs.

Answer c Page 31 65. Currently, the highest number of contingency workers fall into the job category: a. professional specialty. b. clerical. c. services. d. operators, fabricators, laborers.

Answer b Page 31

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 66. A flexwork program that permits regular part-time work where the duties for one job are divided between two people is called: a. a flextime program. b. job sharing. c. compressed work weeks. d. voluntarily reduced work time programs.

Answer b Page 32 67. Programs that allow employees to reduce the amount of time they work by a certain amount with a proportional reduction in pay are known as: a. V-time pograms. b. U-time programs. c. compressed workweeks. d. flextime programs.

Answer a Page 32 68. Tanya is discussing strategies for improving customer satisfaction by carefully managing output quality. Tanya is discussing: a. benchmarking. b. an informating program. c. a total quality management program. d. reengineering.

Answer c Page 32 69. Bill is conducting an examination of a competitor’s product and comparing his company’s product to the competitor. Bill is: a. benchmarking. b. conducting a quality control audit. c. involved in reengineering the product. d. doing none of the above.

Answer a Page 33 70. ________ involve(s) the careful examination of how well the company is meeting its quality standards. a. Benchmarking b. A quality control audit c. Reengineering d. Informating Answer b Page 33 71. The quality award awarded by the U.S. government to recognize effective quality management is called the: a. Deeming Quality Award. b. Juran Quality Award. c. National Standards and Technology Quality Award. d. Malcolm Baldridge Quality Award.

Answer d Page 33

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Chapter 1 The Field of Organizational Behavior

Mini-Case Questions Table 1.1 Simon is initiating an organizational behavior effort at his company. He wants to look at how people communicate with each other and coordinate their work efforts. His boss, Bill, is skeptical, “We conducted a study of this kind ten years ago. I’m not sure we need to do it again at this time.” Simon convinces his boss they need to press ahead anyway. Ask Bill and Simon discuss the OB effort, Simon learns several things about his boss. Bill believes that the key thing for a business is to fit the right person to the right job. He agrees with Simon’s interest in careful selection and training of current and future employees. But, Bill believes that there is only one right way to run a company and do a job. Simon thinks that the company should create clearer lines of authority by eliminating their matrix organizational structure, they should encourage employees to formulate and implement plans, and they should increase specialization among employees and managers. As Bill and Simon discuss the company’s problems and ways to improve performance, they mutually come to the conclusion that company’s current poor performance is probably a function of the fact that they are setting the same goals and expectations for everyone and not considering individual strengths and weaknesses or taking the different work circumstances into consideration.

72. Refer to Table 1.1. Simon’s initial analysis will probably be focused on what level? a. Individual b. Group c. Organizational d. Macroenvironment Answer b Page 7 73. Refer to Table 1.1. What characteristic of organizational behavior is the “boss” apparently not aware of? a. OB’s tie to the improvement of people’s quality of work life. b. The contingency orientation of OB. c. OB’s recognition of the dynamic nature of organizations. d. OB’s confrontation of the changing nature of work.

Answer c Page 11 74. Refer to Table 1.1. Simon’s and Bill’s agreement on the problem makes ________ the best management approach to take in solving the problem. a. classical management theory approach b. a scientific management theory approach c. a bureaucratic approach d. a contingency approach Answer d Page 12

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 75. Refer to Table 1.1. Bill’s management philosophy would seem to be most compatible with a ________ view of people and business. a. scientific management b. human relations c. classical organizational theory d. modern era Answer a Page 12 76. Refer to Table 1.1. Simon’s management philosophy would be most compatible with: a. scientific management theory. b. the human relations movement. c. classical organizational theory. d. a modern era OB perspective.

Answer c Page 14 Table 1.2 Mini-Markets, Inc. specializes in providing grocery and convenience products to inner-city neighborhoods. They are highly committed to valuing cultural diversity. Their workforce consists of single parents, people who are ethnically diverse, and people who are undereducated. The following individuals exemplify their workforce. Jim is a single parent with two young, school-aged children. He lives about an hour from work and works the morning shift. Jane is just starting her working career, having been out of college only a year. She has just had a baby. Her husband also works full-time for Mini-Markets. They have been saving her salary and living on her husband’s while waiting for the baby to be born. Wilma is 66 and wants to retire in a few years but isn’t sure what she’ll do with herself when she does. Plus, she’d like to have some extra time right now to spend with her grandchildren. Tim is a high school drop-out who struggled with drugs. Since Mini-Markets gave him a chance, he’s really turning his life around. He’s one of his store’s most reliable and productive employees. Tim would like to move into management, but he needs a college degree. Married with a small child, he can’t afford to go back to school.

77. Refer to Table 1.2. Wilma could benefit most from which flextime program? a. flextime b. voluntary reduce work time c. compressed work week. d. job-sharing Answer b Page 21 78. Refer to Table 1.2. What flexible work programs would be of most help to Jim? a. flextime b. personal support policies c. compressed work week. d. job-sharing Answer a Page 30

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Chapter 1 The Field of Organizational Behavior 79. Refer to Table 1.2. Jane could benefit most from which of the following flextime programs? a. flextime b. personal support policies c. compressed work week. d. job-sharing Answer d Page 32 80. Refer to Table 1.2. Tim could benefit most from which of the following? a. personal support policies b. voluntary reduced work time c. flexplace policies d. job-sharing Answer a Page 32 True/False Questions 81. Organizational behavior is an organization productivity orientation approach to organizational effectiveness.

Answer F Page 5 82. The concept that work can be both a productive effort while being a pleasant experience for the employee is an example of Theory X, Theory Y. Answer T Page 8 83. The organizational perspective that is opposite of scientific management’s effort to find the one best way because it argues that OB is a complex phenonmenon is the contingency approach.

Answer T Page 12 84. Frederick W. Taylor’s scientific management approach was unique in its focus on the individual.

Answer T Page 12 85. The best known classical organizational theorist is Elton Mayo.

Answer F Page 14 86. It was the work of Max Weber that led managers to consider organizations as social systems.

Answer F Page 14 87. The adjustment someone goes through when returning to their native culture after living in a foreign culture is culture shock.

Answer F Page 17 88. By 2050, it is estimated that racial and ethnic minorities will comprise 47% of the U.S. population, making the term minority obsolete.

Answer T Page 22 89. The fastest growing segment of the U.S. population is the Baby Boom generation.

Answer F Page 22

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior

90. Much like the gradual process of automation, today’s technology and the process of informating, is occurring very slowly and steadily.

Answer F Page 23 91. As a result of today’s technology, both blue-collar, manual labor jobs, as well as white-collar, mental labor jobs, are being eliminated.

Answer T Page 23 92. Although they consist of only 10% of the workforce, middle managers comprised 20% of recent layoffs.

Answer T Page 23 93. Based on prevailing patterns of downsizing, it was found that you are more immune from layoffs if you are paid over $150,000.

Answer F Page 24 94. If you have a midrange salary, you are considered vulnerable to getting laid off.

Answer F Page 24 95. A virtual organization is a type of contingency organization that uses workers for specific jobs and then disbands them.

Answer T Page 24 96. A key consideration for an employee telecommuting is the ability to work independently.

Answer T Page 27 97. Most contingent workers are under the age of 25 and many are high school dropouts.

Answer T Page 31 98. It is important for the success of a TQM program that it be restricted to manufacturing and production processes and not “bleed” over into other parts of the business, diluting its effectiveness.

Answer F Page 33 99. The annual award given to American companies that practice effective quality management is called the Malcolm X Quality Award.

Answer F Page 33 100. Winners of the Malcolm Baldridge Award are expected to share their quality and productivity improvement processes with other companies.

Answer T Page 33 Essay Questions Major Essay 101. Discuss the fundamental assumptions of Organizational Behavior as a field.

Answer - Organizational behavior is characterized by two assumptions. First, is the recognition of the dynamic nature of organizations. OB pays attention to both behavior and the organizations within which the behavior takes place. Second, OB assumes there is no "one best" approach. OB emphasizes

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Chapter 1 The Field of Organizational Behavior a contingency approach--a recognition that behavior is the result of a complex of interacting forces and must be dealt with accordingly.

Pages 10-12 102. What were the early influences on the study of organizational behavior.

Answer - One of the first influences was scientific management. The earliest work came from efficiency experts seeking to improve worker productivity. Frederick W. Taylor, who worked primarily in steel mills, developed the scientific method. The objective of management is “to secure the maximum prosperity for the employer, coupled with the maximum prosperity of each employee.” Frank and Lillian Gilbreth built on Taylor’s ideas and developed time-and-motion studies which classified and streamlined work. The human relations movement built on the work of Elton Mayo and the Hawthorne Studies. Scientific management made people feel like cogs in a machine. This new emphasis respecting the individual emerged and at its forefront was Elton Mayo.

Human relations rejected the economic perspective of work and focused on social factors. The Hawthorne studies began in 1927 at Western Electric’s Hawthorne Works near Chicago. A third school, classical organizational theory grew up emphasizing efficient overall structure. Henri Fayol developed a number of management principles. Max Weber developed the idea of the ideal bureaucracy, where consistency and fairness were the key factors.

Pages 12-15 103. Discuss organizational behavior’s development in the modern era, noting key current trends.

Answer - OB emerged as a field in the 1940s with the first doctorate awarded in 1941. OB was established as a field of study by the late 1950s, early 1960s. Gordon and Howell reported on business education in 1959 and recommended, among other things, increased attention to the social sciences.

OB has grown rapidly, borrowing from other business disciplines. Specifically, three prominent trends: 1) the rise of global businesses with culturally diverse workforces, 2)rapid advances in technology, and 3) the rising expectations of people in general.

Pages 15-16 104. What are the benefits of employee support policies and what steps can companies take to facilitate employees work and meet their family obligations.

Answer - Flexible work arrangements is one way to accommodate the diversity of lifestyles. Flextime programs give employees some discretion over their working hours. These programs have been well received and tied to productivity improvements and decreases in absenteeism. Compressed workweeks permit employees to work fewer but longer days. Job sharing is one way to manage parttime work. Pairs of employees share one job. Voluntary reduced work time programs allow employees to reduce the amount of time they spend on the job, typically 10-20%, with a proportional reduction in pay. telecommuting policies allow employees to perform part of their work from home.

3) Support facilities and programs is a proactive way for companies to address the growing needs of employees. Examples would be, child-care facilities and elder-care facilities. Personal support policies are a wide variety of efforts from transportation to high school equivalency classes, etc. All these programs are expensive but companies are convinced they work, and in some cases, they actually save money. In one case, AT&T found it was much cheaper to grant unpaid parental leave than to replace the employee.

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior

105. Explain how future, leaner organizations will use technology and staffing policies to become more efficient.

Answer - The industrial revolution established the process of people performing tasks within a hierarchical arrangement called an organization. That era is closing as organizations change the way work is done and their structures for doing it. Technology helps fewer people do more work. Some processes like informating are happening so fast as to change the very nature of work. Key terms:  Automation is the replacing of people with machines.  Informating is the process of workers’ manipulating products by placing data between themselves and the product.  Outsourcing is another restructuring tool. Companies hire outside companies to perform the work.  Core competency is what the firm does not outsource, because it is what the company does best.

While these strategies sometimes create great trauma for workers, in other cases the changes are relatively transparent. Some of these techniques, particularly outsourcing, are criticized as hollowing out companies. Nevertheless, nearly 30% of American manufacturers outsource over half of their manufacturing.

Pages 23-24 Short Essay 106. What is the underlying philosophy of work and people to scientific management?

Answer - The basic philosophy is there is one best way to do something. The objective of management is “to secure the maximum prosperity for the employer, coupled with the maximum prosperity of each employee.” Taylor’s scientific management focused on employees as individuals through careful selection and training and increasing wages to motivate workers.

Pages 12-13 107. Why were researchers confused over their initial findings in the Hawthorne Studies? What conclusions did they ultimately come to?

Answer - The Hawthorne studies began in 1927 at Western Electric’s Hawthorne Works near Chicago. Starting with scientific management, they tried to discover ways to improve employee performance. Puzzling results caused them to call in Elton Mayo to repeat the studies. Mayo discovered the concept of social systems and argued that social factors, not physical factors, are most important in improving productivity. While the studies weren’t perfect, they opened the door to considering the importance of human needs, attitudes, and motives in regards to worker motivation and productivity.

Page 13 108. What are the major characteristics of classical organizational theory as proposed by Fayol?

Answer - Henri Fayol developed a number of management principles, including; division of labor, managerial authority over workers, scalar chain of authority, unity of command, and subordinate initiative.

Page 14 109. What is culture shock, who does it affect, and how might it be lessened for expatriates?

Answer - Culture shock and adjustment. People are often unconsciously affected by culture.

Individuals faced with new cultures may become confused and disoriented. Also, when they return to their own culture, or are repatriated, they may experience culture shock again. The adjustment

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Chapter 1 The Field of Organizational Behavior process follows a U-curve, moving from High Acceptance to Low Acceptance, back to High Acceptance over time. Culture shock comes from having a narrow view of the world.

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 110. What is telecommuting and how will it affect workers in the future?

Answer - Some call telecommuting the demise of the office. It is one way to cut down on environmental pollution and wasted time commuting. Telecommuting is the use of communications technology to enable work to be performed from remote locations, such as home. It is an essential element of flexible work policies. There are 25 million telecommuters and 78% of Fortune 500 companies perform significant amounts of their work off-site. Telecommuting has pluses and minuses. IBM’s Chicago office has gone mobile saving 55% of its real estate space, with 85% of employees saying they don’t want to go back to a traditional office.

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior Chapter 2 – Organizational Justice, Ethics, and Corporate Social Responsibility Multiple Choice Questions Perceptions of the fairness of the manner in which they are treated by others is: a. distributive justice. b. informational justice. c. procedural justice. d. interpersonal justice.

Answer d Page 42 1.

A form of organizational justice that focuses on people’s beliefs that they have received fair amounts of valued work-related outcomes is: a. distributive justice. b. corporate social responsibility. c. procedural justice. d. interpersonal justice.

Answer a Page 44 2.

People’s perception of the fairness of the procedures used to determine the outcomes they receive is: a. distributive justice. b. corporate social responsibility. c. procedural justice. d. interpersonal justice.

Answer c Page 45 3.

Imposing new rules on workers without consulting them is thought to violate: a. distributive justice. b. informational justice. c. procedural justice. d. interpersonal justice.

Answer c Page 45 4.

When decisions made on the basis of unfair procedures makes people dissatisfied with the outcomes they receive, the dissatisfaction with those outcomes alone is about: a. distributive justice. b. informational justice. c. procedural justice. d. interpersonal justice.

Answer a Page 45 5.

Charles belittles his employees and makes insensitive comments to them. Charles behavior is likely to reduce: a. distributive justice. b. informational justice. c. procedural justice. d. interpersonal justice.

Answer d Page 46 6.

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Chapter 2 Organizational Justice, Ethics, and Corporate Social Responsibility Perceptions of the fairness of the information used as the basis for making a decision is: a. distributive justice. b. informational justice. c. procedural justice. d. interpersonal justice.

Answer b Page 46 7.

Steadman provides clear reasons for the decisions he makes. His behavior is likely to increase: a. distributive justice. b. informational justice. c. procedural justice. d. interpersonal justice.

Answer b Page 46 8.

Feeling valued by others in the organization provides an explanation for organizational justice effects. This explanation is known as: a. interaction effects. b. informational justice. c. group-value explanation. d. interpersonal justice.

Answer d Page 46 9.

10. Understanding the relationship between favorability of outcomes and fairness of procedures is understood through: a. interaction effects. b. informational justice. c. group-value explanation. d. interpersonal justice.

Answer a Page 46 11. The ________ relationship between interpersonal justice and informational justice shows that effects can be magnified. a. additive. b. multiplicative. c. group-value. d. divisive.

Answer a Page 48 12. The fair process effect is associated with: a. distributive justice. b. informational justice. c. procedural justice. d. interpersonal justice.

Answer c Page 50

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 13. Letting employees know that you are always available to talk is BEST known as which of the following? a. using suggestion systems b. willingness to meet regularly c. conducting employee surveys d. using an open door policy Answer d Page 50 14. Which should NOT be done for managers who want to promote voice in organization? a. invite input b. meet regularly c. avoid suggestions systems d. use an open door policy Answer c Page 52 15. The results of training to promote justice have shown that managers: a. employees of trained managers are less inclined to respond negatively. b. employees of trained managers are more likely to engage in organizational citizenship behaviors. c. employees of trained managers are not impacted at all. d. both a and b.

Answer d Page 53 16. People’s fundamental beliefs regarding what is right or wrong, good or bad are known as: a. ethics. b. morals. c. business ethics. d. corporate social responsibility.

Answer b Pages 54, 55 17. Standards of conduct that guide people’s decisions and behavior are known as: a. ethics. b. morals. c. business ethics. d. corporate social responsibility.

Answer a Page 55 18. It is a company’s place to teach employees: a. morals. b. standards of behavior. c. legal standards as more important than morals. d. both a and b.

Answer a Page 55

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Chapter 2 Organizational Justice, Ethics, and Corporate Social Responsibility 19. Which of the following companies had its founder charged with using company funds as personal income? a. Adelphia b. Arthur Andersen c. Martha Stewart Omnimedia d. WorldCom Answer c Page 56 20. Which of the following companies were found guilty of obstructing justice? a. Adelphia Communications b. Arthur Andersen c. Enron d. Tyco Answer b Page 56 21. The CEO of which of the following companies indicted on charges of tax evasion? a. Adelphia Communications b. Arthur Andersen c. Enron d. Tyco Answer d Page 56 22. Which of the following companies was involved in waste regarding war-torn Iraq? a. Parmalat b. Arthur Andersen c. Martha Stewart Omnimedia d. Halliburton Answer d Page 56 23. Which of the following companies had an executive imprisoned after being convicted of conspiring with a stock broker to obstruct a federal investigation? a. Parmalat b. Arthur Andersen c. Martha Stewart Omnimedia d. WorldCom Answer c Page 56 24. Which of the following companies was forced to declare bankruptcy after an accounting fraud that resulted in billions in missing assets? a. Parmalat b. Arthur Andersen c. Enron d. WorldCom Answer a Page 56

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 25. Who was the individual who created a fraudulent investment scheme promising a 50% profit to investors in 90 days? a. Charles Ponzi b. Robert Vesco c. John Rigas d. Bernie Ebbers Answer a Page 58 26. Who was the “Match King” that defrauded investors and banks? a. Charles Keating b. Charles Ponzi c. John Rigas d. Ivar Krueger Answer d Page 58 27. Who was the convicted for growing and storing non-existent crops of cotton? a. Charles Keating b. Charles Ponzi c. Billy Sol Estes d. Ivar Krueger Answer c Page 58 28. Who was the Lincoln Saving and Loan founder convicted of selling fraudulent junk bonds? a. Ivar Krueger b. Charles Ponzi c. Robert Vesco d. Charles Keating Answer d Page 58 29. Companies whose leaders explicitly express strong ethical commitment returned ________ the value to shareholders. a. twice b. three times c. four times d. ten times Answer a Page 59 30. Companies with reputations for treating people well are: a. ignored by prospective employees. b. highly sought by prospective employees. c. unknown by prospective employees. d. none of the above.

Answer b Page 59

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Chapter 2 Organizational Justice, Ethics, and Corporate Social Responsibility 31. Companies that deliver products and services ethically: a. do not draw more customers. b. do not draw more employees. c. draw more customers and employees. d. draw only more customers.

Answer c Page 59 32. Which of the following laws was the earliest law enacted bearing on ethical behavior? a. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act b. False Claims Act c. Sarbanes-Oxley d. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer b Page 61 33. Which of the following laws provides mechanisms for reporting fraudulent behavior against U.S. government agencies? a. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act b. False Claims Act c. Sarbanes-Oxley d. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer b Page 61 34. Which of the following laws forbids paying bribes to foreign officials? a. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act b. False Claims Act c. Sarbanes-Oxley d. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer a Page 61 35. Which of the following laws specifies guidelines for judges to follow? a. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act b. False Claims Act c. Sarbanes-Oxley d. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer d Page 61 36. Which of the following laws was enacted to guard against future accounting scandals? a. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act b. False Claims Act c. Sarbanes-Oxley d. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer c Page 61

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 37. Which of the following laws specifies that actions taken by the organization to discourage criminal behavior will be recognized? a. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act b. False Claims Act c. Sarbanes-Oxley d. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer d Page 61 38. Which of the following laws keeps companies involved in actively monitoring the ethical behavior of its officers? a. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act b. False Claims Act c. Sarbanes-Oxley d. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer b Page 61 39. Which of the following laws is a revision of a previous law? a. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act b. Federal Prosecution of Business Organizations c. Sarbanes-Oxley d. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer b Page 61 40. Which of the following laws was the most recent law enacted bearing on ethical behavior? a. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act b. Federal Prosecution of Business Organizations c. Sarbanes-Oxley d. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer b Page 61 41. In which of the following countries is using pirated software considered acceptable? a. Indonesia b. Japan c. Germany d. China Answer d Page 62 42. In which of the following countries is bribing an official considered an acceptable cost of doing business? a. Indonesia b. Japan c. Germany d. China Answer a Page 62

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Chapter 2 Organizational Justice, Ethics, and Corporate Social Responsibility 43. In which of the following countries must you purchase a gift for the other party in order to conduct business? a. Indonesia b. Japan c. Germany d. China Answer b Page 62 44. The idea that no culture’s ethics are better than any other is embraced by which of the following: a. ethical imperialism. b. ethical relativism. c. Sarbanes-Oxley. d. False Claims Act. Answer b Page 63 45. The possibility of condoning acts that violate ones own sense of morality can occur in which of the following: a. ethical imperialism. b. ethical relativism. c. Sarbanes-Oxley. d. False Claims Act. Answer b Page 63 46. In which of the following countries allows companies to dispose of toxic chemical waste? a. Canada b. Japan c. Nigeria d. China Answer c Page 63 47. The idea that you should do everywhere that which you consider to be right at home is embraced by which of the following: a. ethical imperialism. b. ethical relativism. c. Sarbanes-Oxley. d. False Claims Act. Answer a Page 63 48. U.S. style of training in avoiding sexual harassment would be questioned in which of the following regions? a. South America b. Africa c. Middle East d. Northern Europe Answer c Page 63

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 49. The U.S. style of training in avoiding sexual harassment when done abroad would be a problem in terms of: a. ethical relativism. b. ethical imperialism. c. organizational justice d. none of the above Answer b Page 63 50. Hiring ones own relatives would be considered ethical in which of the following countries? a. India b. Japan c. Nigeria d. China Answer a Page 65 51. “I’m not going to behave unethically because I don’t want to get into trouble.” This is moral thinking at which of the following levels? a. preconventional level b. conventional level c. postconventional level d. relativistic level Answer a Page 66 52. In which of the following stages do two-thirds of adults fall? a. preconventional level b. conventional level c. postconventional level d. ethical imperialism Answer b Page 66 53. “I’m going to do what society thinks is right.” This is moral thinking at which of the following levels? a. preconventional level b. conventional level c. postconventional level d. relativistic level Answer b Page 66 54. The belief that financial success is the only thing that matters is known as: a. ethical relativism. b. bottom line mentality. c. exploitative mentality. d. Madison Avenue mentality.

Answer b Page 66

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Chapter 2 Organizational Justice, Ethics, and Corporate Social Responsibility 55. “I’m not going to do what is right, even if others don’t agree.” This is moral thinking at which of the following levels? a. preconventional level b. conventional level c. postconventional level d. relativistic level Answer c Page 66 56. Most employees are sensitive to organizational efforts to promote ethical behavior because these represent social standards of right and wrong. This thinking is prevalent at which of the following levels? a. preconventional level b. conventional level c. postconventional level d. relativistic level Answer b Page 66 57. Which of the following situational forces do NOT feature prominently in people’s tendency to behave unethically? a. organizational norms that encourage unethical behavior b. managerial values that discourage integrity c. impact of unethical behavior by leaders d. national culture Answer d Page 66 58. Kohlberg’s theory of cognitive moral development includes which of the following stages? a. preconventional level b. conventional level c. postconventional level d. all of the above Answer d Page 67 59. In which of the following stages does an individual do whatever keeps her from getting punished? a. preconventional level b. conventional level c. postconventional level d. all of the above Answer a Page 67 60. In which of the following stages does an individual do whatever fulfills the obligations of society? a. preconventional level b. conventional level c. postconventional level d. ethical relativism Answer b Page 67

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Part 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 61. In which of the following stages does an individual do whatever adhere to universal moral principles? a. preconventional level b. conventional level c. postconventional level d. ethical relativism Answer c Page 67 62. The practice of willingly hiding relevant information by being secretive and deceitful is known as: a. counternorms. b. ethical relativism. c. stonewalling. d. ethical imperialism.

Answer c Page 67 63. Practices that are accepted within the organization, although they are contrary to the prevailing ethical standards of society at large is known as: a. counternorms. b. ethical relativism. c. stonewalling. d. ethical imperialism.

Answer a Page 67 64. The belief that financial success is the only thing that matters is known as: a. ethical relativism. b. bottom line mentality. c. exploitative mentality. d. Madison Avenue mentality.

Answer b Page 68 65. The belief that concern for others is less important than ones own immediate interests is known as: a. ethical relativism. b. bottom line mentality. c. exploitative mentality. d. Madison Avenue mentality.

Answer c Page 68 66. “What’s good for me is good” represents which of the following mentalities? a. imperialist mentality. b. bottom line mentality. c. exploitative mentality. d. Madison Avenue mentality.

Answer d Page 68

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Chapter 2 Organizational Justice, Ethics, and Corporate Social Responsibility

67. The greater concern for how things appear to others rather than how they are is known as: a. ethical relativism. b. bottom line mentality. c. exploitative mentality. d. Madison Avenue mentality.

Answer d Page 68 68. “If it looks ethical, it is ethical” represents which of the following mentalities:: a. imperialist mentality. b. bottom line mentality. c. exploitative mentality. d. Madison Avenue mentality.

Answer d Page 68 69. What percent of all large U.S.-based companies have codes of ethics in place? a. 25 b. 55 c. 83 d. 97 Answer c Page 69 70. What percent of all large U.S.-based companies that have codes of ethics provide training on the requirements and responsibilities they specify? a. 27 b. 46 c. 68 d. 100 Answer c Page 69 71. In which of the following do senior-level managers assist the CEO in making ethical decisions? a. ethics officers b. ethics hotlines c. ethics audits d. ethics committees Answer d Page 70 72. Which of the following involves a high-ranking organizational official who is expected to provide strategies for ensuring ethical conduct throughout the organization? a. ethics officers b. ethics hotlines c. ethics audits d. ethics committees Answer a Page 71

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73. Which of the following involves special phone numbers that employees can call to ask questions? a. ethics officers b. ethics hotlines c. ethics audits d. ethics committees Answer b Page 71 74. The active investigation and documentation of incidents of dubious ethical value occurs in which of the following? a. ethics officers b. ethics hotlines c. ethics audits d. ethics committees Answer a Page 71 75. Which of the following is NOT one of the responsibilities of corporate social responsibility? a. philanthropic b. ethical c. economic d. cultural Answer d Page 73 76. Donating money to social causes would fall under which of the responsibilities of corporate social responsibility? a. philanthropic b. ethical c. economic d. financial Answer a Page 74 77. Which of the following is at the base of corporate social responsibility? a. cultural b. financial c. economic d. legal Answer b Page 74 78. Adhering to Sarbanes-Oxley would fall under which of the responsibilities of corporate social responsibility? a. philanthropic b. ethical c. economic d. financial Answer d Page 74

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Chapter 2 Organizational Justice, Ethics, and Corporate Social Responsibility

True/False Questions 79. Exceeding the prevailing legal and ethical standards and embracing values that promote the greater welfare of society at large is the domain of distributive justice.

Answer F Page 42 80. Organizational justice that focuses on people’s beliefs that they have received fair amounts of valued work-related outcomes is known as distributed justice.

Answer T Page 44 81. The perception of the fairness of the procedures used to determine the outcomes they receive is known as procedural justice.

Answer T Page 45 82. The various forms of organizational justice can be understood as separate from each other.

Answer F Page 46 83. The relationship between interpersonal and informational justice can be additive.

Answer T Page 48 84. Departments in which employees felt treated unfairly had significantly higher rates of turnover.

Answer T Page 50 85. Providing employees explanations of why something had to be done will not reduce some of the problems of distributive injustice.

Answer F Page 53 86. Justice training reaps many benefits to mangers.

Answer T Page 53 87. Standards are about ethics while beliefs are about moral values.

Answer T Page 55 88. Arthur Andersen was found guilty of creating bogus partnerships.

Answer F Page 56 89. Charles Ponzi developed the original “Ponzi Scheme.”

Answer T Page 58 90. The False Claims Act deals with reporting fraudulent behavior against U.S. government agencies.

Answer F Page 61 91. Sarbanes-Oxley is designed to guard against future accounting scandals.

Answer T Page 61

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92. The Federal Prosecution of Business Organizations is a revision of the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations.

Answer T Page 63 93. In Japan, you must give a small gift to conduct business.

Answer T Page 63 94. Ethical relativism involves doing whatever you consider to be right at home.

Answer F Page 63 95. Ethical imperialism suggests that a culture’s ethics are superior.

Answer F Page 63 96. Decisions made on conventional levels of moral development are motivated on doing what society thinks is correct.

Answer T Page 67 97. Decisions made on preconventional levels of moral development are motivated on not getting into trouble.

Answer T Page 67 98. An exploitative mentality believes that what looks right is right.

Answer F Page 68 Essay Questions Major Essay 99. Identify the different factors that people take into consideration when forming judgments of procedural justice.

Answer- In forming judgments, people take into account (1) voice in the making of decisions, (2) consistency in applying rules, (3) accuracy in use of information, (4) opportunity to be heard, and (5) the provision of safeguards against bias.

Page 41 100. Discuss what steps organizations take as a result of the Federal Sentencing Guidelines.

Answer- (1) Create and widely disseminate clear standards for following the law, (2) have a high ranking official, usually an ethics office, oversee adherence, (3) closely monitor and audit behavior to be able to detect unethical acts, and (4) follow a clear policy for disciplining rule violators.

Pages 60, 62 101. Identify the three levels of moral reasoning.

Answer-(1) preconventional level, in which the person does what keeps him/her from being punished, (2) conventional level, in which the person does what fulfills the obligations of society, and (3) postconventional level, in which the person adhere to universal moral principles.

Page 66

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Chapter 2 Organizational Justice, Ethics, and Corporate Social Responsibility 102. Identify the three managerial mentalities that discourage ethical behavior.

Answer- (1) Bottom line mentality, in which financial success is thought to be the only thing that matters, (2) exploitative mentality, in which concern for others is less important than ones immediate interests, and (3) Madison Avenue mentality, in which the concern is for how things appear rather than how they really are.

Page 68 103. Identify the four types of corporate social responsibility.

Answer- The most basic type is financial responsibilities, followed by legal responsibilities, ethical responsibilities, and philanthropic responsibilities.

Page 74 Short Essay Questions 104. What does one do to promote voice in organizations?

Answer-(1) Meet regularly and invite input, (2) conduct employee surveys, (3) keep an open door policy, and (4) use suggestion systems.

Pages 50, 52 105. Distinguish between ethical relativism and ethical imperialism.

Answer-Ethical relativism refers to the idea that there are no internationally acceptable standards of right and wrong. Conversely, ethical imperialism is the idea that the ethical standards of ones own country is most appropriate.

Page 63 106. Identify the three guiding principles of global ethics.

Answer- (1) show respect for core human values, (2) demonstrate sensitivity to local traditions, and (3) recognize that context matters when distinguishing between right and wrong.

Page 64 107. Identify those issues that are most commonly addressed in codes of ethics.

Answer-(1) Responsibilities of employees, (2) relationships with people, and (3) prohibitions against inappropriate behavior.

Page 69 108. Identify what happens to employees when companies have ethics programs.

Answer- (1) They are more likely to report ethical misconduct, (2) they are considered more accountable for ethics violations, and (3) they face less pressure to compromise standards of business conduct.

Page 71

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Part 2 - Basic Human Processes Chapter 3 - Perception and Learning: Understanding and Adapting to the Work Environment Multiple Choice Questions

1. The process of social perception: a. is inherently nonjudgmental. b. is a public process that can be objectively observed. c. involves the combination, integration, and interpretation of sensory information. d. is unrelated to the process of selectivity on the part of individuals.

Answer c Page 90

2. In the attribution process correspondent inferences are: a. explanations for events. b. judgments about people's dispositions. c. judgments about organizational contexts. d. inferences based on similarities between people.

Answer b Page 91

3. You have an employee who is usually late and it takes him a half an hour to become productive. You believe that his behavior stems from being lazy and unorganized. This belief is an example of: a. an attribution. b. a correspondent inference. c. a causal attribution. d. observational learning.

Answer b Page 93

4. We all make inferences about people but they may be inaccurate because: a. our judgments may be inaccurate. b. we may not know all of the possible causes of the behavior. c. individuals may be concealing information about themselves and their traits. d. of all of these.

Answer d Page 93

5. We can improve the accuracy of our inferences about others by: a. using appropriate stereotypes. b. focusing on behavior that appears to have only one explanation. c. observing people’s behavior in situations where they are pressured to act a certain way. d. studying psychology and human behavior before judging others.

Answer b Page 94

6. According to Kelley’s theory of causal attribution, when we form judgments on the basis consensus, our attribution is based on the fact that: a. the person we’re judging acts the same way at other times when he/she is in a similar situation. b. this person behaves in the same manner in other contexts. c. other people behave in the same manner as the person we’re judging. d. this person’s traits match the traits of other people we know.

Answer c Page 94 .

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Chapter 3 Perception and Learning: Understanding and Adapting to the Work Environment

7. We believe that a person is motivated by external causes if: a.

other people do not act like this, the person behaves consistently like this, and the person acts the same in other situations. b. other people act like this, the person does not behave consistently like this, and the person acts the same in other situations. c. other people do not act like this, the person behaves consistently like this, and the person acts differently in other situations. d. other people act like this, the person behaves consistently like this, and the person does not act like this in other situations.

Answer d Page 95

8. We will attribute another's actions to internal causes under conditions in which: a. consensus is high, consistency is high, and distinctiveness is high. b. consensus is high, consistency is low, and distinctiveness is high. c. consensus is low, consistency is high, and distinctiveness is low. d. consensus is low, consistency is low, and distinctiveness is low.

Answer b Page 95

9. Suppose you observe your neighbor running away from a dog who comes into your backyard during a picnic. You've seen him run away from dogs before, and you've see him run away from all dogs.

Also, you don't see anyone else run away from this dog. You would say that he ran away from this dog because ____, which is an example of an _____ attribution. a. the dog is scary; internal b. the dog is scary; external c. he is afraid of dogs; internal d. he is afraid of dogs; external Answer c Page 95

10. Perceptual biases are: a. types of judgment errors that people are prone to make. b. characteristics of the person who interprets a specific situation. c. attempts to identify the causes of others' behavior. d. tendencies to categorize people based on the groups to which they belong.

Answer a Page 96

11. When we attribute another’s behavior to internal factors more than external factors we are: a. experiencing the similar-to-me effect. b. making a fundamental attribution error. c. projecting the halo effect. d. making a first-impression error.

Answer b Page 96

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12. When Berry wrecked the company car, his boss immediately assumed that the accident occurred because Berry was careless. He never considered that another driver could have hit the car. This perceptual bias is called: a. the first-impression error. b. the fundamental attribution error. c. selective perception d. the halo effect.

Answer b Page 96

13. If we form a negative impression of someone, we tend to evaluate all future behavior negatively as well. This is an example of the perceptual bias of: a. selective perception. b. stereotyping. c. halo effect. d. first-impression error.

Answer c Page 96

14. Research has shown that when supervisors rate their subordinates, the more similar the subordinate is to them, the higher the rating the superior tends to give. This is an example of the perceptual bias of: a. the similar-to-me effect. b. selective perception. c. the halo effect. d. first-impression error.

Answer a Page 97

15. Li is an accountant by training, although he now works in human resources. There are problems within his department: employees are fighting with each other, morale is low, etc. But when asked how his department is doing, Li reports they are right on target with their compensation figures, their turnover rates, and their training expenses. Li’s misperception is a function of the perceptual bias of: a. selective perception. b. the similar-to-me effect. c. fundamental attribution error. d. the first-impression error.

Answer a Page 97

16. When Samantha meets Joe she is impressed with his professional appearance, quick responses, and articulation. She assumes he knows of what he speaks and follows his suggestions with disastrous results. This is an example of the consequences of the perceptual bias of: a. selective perception. b. stereotyping. c. halo effect. d. first-impression error.

Answer d Page 98

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Chapter 3 Perception and Learning: Understanding and Adapting to the Work Environment

17. Prior to the start of the semester, Dr. Blankenship was told that three of her students, in particular, had high potential for success. While those three students had, in fact, been only average students in the past, they ended up scoring very high on exams. The performance of the students could be the result of: a. selective perception. b. a fundamental attribution error. c. the Pygmalion effect. d. the Golem effect.

Answer c Page 99

18. How can we minimize stereotyping and promote more accurate perceptions of people? a. Make more correspondent inferences. b. Categorize and use your stereotypes more carefully. c. Make more causal attributions and fewer correspondent inferences. d. Do not overlook the external causes of behavior.

Answer d Page 100

19. Police recruits whose instructors expected them to perform poorly, in their training class did, in fact, perform worse than those about whom instructors had no advance expectations. The performance of the recruits could be attributed to: a. fundamental attribution error. b. the halo effect. c. the Pygmalion effect. d. the Golem effect.

Answer d Page 100

20. The belief that all members of a specific group share the same traits and behaviors describes: a. selective perception. b. stereotyping. c. halo effect. d. similar-to-me error.

Answer b Page 101

21. Which of the following is true about stereotypes? a. b. c.

We can learn to never use them through self-awareness and careful training.

Despite the fact people don’t like them, the use of stereotypes does little real harm to people.

Stereotypes allow people to do as little cognitive work as possible when it comes to thinking about others. d. Only bad people, who are inherently evil use stereotypes.

Answer c Page 101

22. We use stereotypes: a. because we need mental shortcuts. b. to help us understand the differences among people. c. to reinforce our perceptual biases. d. as a way of accurately classifying people in order to interact more effectively.

Answer a Page 101

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23. The desire to make a favorable impression is known as: a. Golem effect. b. Pygmalion effect. c. Stereotyping. d. Impression management.

Answer d Page 104

24. Research on impression management shows that: a. it tends to backfire in that the interviewing manager tends to react negatively to it. b. managers form their first impression of a job candidate only after the first half hour. c. job candidates have used this technique with great success. d. most job candidates don’t know about it so it is not used very often in interviews.

Answer c Page 105

25. The most common form of impression management technique is: a. directly describing oneself in a positive manner for the current situation. b. describing past events in a way that makes oneself look good. c. claiming a positive event was more positive than it really was. d. denying responsibility for one’s actions.

Answer a Page 106

26. Claiming responsibility for successful events is best known as: a. Enhancement. b. Overcoming obstacles. c. Justification. d. Entitlement.

Answer d Page 106

27. When Fred claimed that his national award not only helped him but also helped his department and his company, he was using a technique known as: a. Enhancement. b. Overcoming obstacles. c. Justification d. Entitlement.

Answer a Page 106

28. Accepting responsibility for ones poor performance by denying the negative implications of that performance is known as: a. Enhancement . b. Overcoming obstacles. c. Justification d. Entitlement.

Answer c Page 106

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Chapter 3 Perception and Learning: Understanding and Adapting to the Work Environment

29. The least used impression management technique was: a. directly describing oneself in a positive manner for the current situation. b. personal stories. c. claiming a positive event was more positive than it really was. d. denying responsibility for one’s actions.

Answer d Page 106

30. The performance appraisal process in organizations is: a. a rational and objective process. b. often heavily influenced by perceptual bias. c. unaffected by the impression management process. d. a fair process based on cognitive and behavioral objectives, free of bias.

Answer b Page 106

31. Research of bank managers showed that when employees were rated four months after beginning their jobs, their performance evaluations: a. were consistent with current performance. b. were significantly lower than expected due to fundamental attribution error. c. were still unaffected by the impression management strategies by the employees. d. were consistent with manager expectations, not performance.

Answer d Page 106

32. Perceptual biases in performance appraisal depend on: a. the professional training of the appraiser. b. characteristics of both the appraiser and the appraised employee. c. the interpersonal relationship between the supervisor and the appraised employee. d. the race and gender of the two people involved in the appraisal process.

Answer b Page 107

33. In Japan, an overall evaluation of performance effectiveness is usually given: a. after around 21 years. b. upon termination. c. annually. d. after around 12 years.

Answer d Page 108

34. All of the following statements about performance appraisals are true in Japan, except: a. comments about performance are handled orally. b. the group or work team tends to be judged as a whole. c. evaluations occur annually. d. judgments are not usually challenged.

Answer c Page 108

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35. The most admired company in America according to a Fortune magazine survey is: a. Microsoft. b. General Electric. c. Wal-Mart. d. Southwest Airlines.

Answer b Page 109

36. Public impression of an organization, and job candidates’ desire to work there are strongly related to: a. information in the community grapevine. b. the number of public programs or events the organization supports or sponsors. c. the amount of information an individual has on the organization from recruitment ads. d. the type of industry the company is in and the number of employees it has.

Answer c Page 109

37. Learning is: a. a relatively permanent change in behavior occurring as a result of experience. b. reflected by temporary changes in behavior, such as those produced by drugs, illness, or fatigue. c. synonymous with improvements in performance. d. based on the fact that our behavior results in positive or negative consequences.

Answer a Page 111

38. You worked very hard on a key report. As a finishing touch you add some clip art to the document.

Your boss loves it and asks why you haven’t done it before. So in all future reports you add clip art images. This is an example of what form of learning? a. Classical conditioning b. Operant conditioning c. Observational learning d. Modeling Answer b Page 111

39. When people repeat actions that have positive effects, and do not repeat actions that have negative effects, they are demonstrating: a. operant conditioning. b. observational learning. c. the transfer of training. d. the law of effect.

Answer d Page 111

40. Mary learns that she can avoid a fight with her supervisor by not taking too long a lunch break. This is an example of which of the following in operation? a. Negative reinforcement b. Positive reinforcement c. Punishment d. Extinction Answer a Page 112

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Chapter 3 Perception and Learning: Understanding and Adapting to the Work Environment

41. Punishment: a.

removes an aversive stimulus, thereby increasing the strength of the response that led to its removal. b. applies an aversive stimulus, thereby decreasing the strength of the response to its presentation. c. gradually reduces or eliminates behavior after it is no longer reinforced. d. removes an aversive stimulus, thereby decreasing the strength of the response to its presentation.

Answer b Page 112

42. Suppose you are given a raise every time you do a good job. You would be said to be on a ________ schedule of reinforcement. a. fixed interval b. variable interval c. fixed ratio d. continuous Answer d Page 112

43. If a worker is paid once a week, it may be said that he or she is being reinforced according to a ________ schedule of reinforcement. a. fixed interval b. variable interval c. fixed ratio d. continuous Answer a Page 113

44. A military officer inspects his/her troops' barracks on the average of once a month, although at no predetermined times. Sometimes it is done every three weeks sometimes every five, etc. The officer is using a ________ schedule of reinforcement. a. fixed interval b. variable interval c. fixed ratio d. continuous Answer a Page 113

45. People who are rewarded on a variable interval schedule of reinforcement tend to: a. perform well for a relatively long period. b. perform erratically for a relatively long period. c. perform well for a relatively short period. d. perform erratically for a relatively short period.

Answer a Page 113

46. A schedule of reinforcement in which a person is reinforced the first time the desired behavior occurs after a specific number of such actions have been performed is called a: a. fixed interval schedule. b. variable interval schedule. c. fixed ratio schedule. d. continuous schedule.

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113

47. A piecework pay system, in which employees earn a certain amount of money for producing a specified number of units, may be said to use a ________ schedule of reinforcement. a. fixed interval b. variable interval c. fixed ratio d. continuous Answer c Page 113

48. Observational learning occurs when one person acquires new information or behaviors: a. in a specified time period. b. through practice and repetition of the task. c. by having correct behavior rewarded and poor performance punished. d. vicariously.

Answer d Page 114

49. Suppose you see your co-worker getting chewed out by your boss because he took too long a coffee break. Now, you refrain from taking coffee breaks that are too long yourself. This is an example of which of what type of learning? a. Classical conditioning b. Instrumental conditioning c. Observational learning d. Feedback training Answer c Page 114

50. The clearest application of the principles of learning in organizations is the area of: a. recruitment and hiring. b. training. c. performance appraisal. d. benefits and financial management.

Answer b Page 116

51. The form of training that combines classroom training with on-the-job training is: a. corporate universities. b. executive training. c. leadership training. d. apprenticeship programs.

Answer d Page 116

52. When companies are so serious about training that they form their own centers to handle the company’s training full-time, they are pursuing: a. corporate universities. b. executive training. c. leadership training. d. apprenticeship programs.

Answer a Page 118

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Chapter 3 Perception and Learning: Understanding and Adapting to the Work Environment

53. The four major principles that make training effective include: a. participation, evaluation, retention, feedback. b. feedback, evaluation, perception, repetition. c. participation, repetition, transfer, feedback. d. repetition, transfer, feedback, learning.

Answer c Page 120

54. People learn and retain skills longer when they: a. are permitted to evaluate their experience. b. are able to transfer training back to work. c. provide feedback to their instructors. d. participate in the learning process.

Answer d Page 120

55. The benefits of repetition in learning are enhanced when practice is: a. modeled by others. b. spread out over time. c. condensed into small periods of time. d. supervised.

Answer b Page 120

56. ________ enhances the effectiveness of training by permitting application during the learning process. a. Transfer of training b. Repetition c. Participation d. Feedback Answer a Page 120

57. You are working in a machine shop where you are learning to operate a lathe. Your supervisor tells you what you are doing correctly, and what needs to be improved. This is an example of the principle of learning: a. participation. b. repetition. c. transfer of training. d. feedback.

Answer d Page 120

58. A feedback process that uses multiple sources from around the organization to evaluate one person is: a. multiple regression. b. team feedback. c. 360 degree feedback. d. a baseline audit.

Answer c Page 120

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59. Organizational Behavior Modification (OBMod) is/are: a.

the application of positive reinforcement principles in an organizational setting to increase the incidence of desirable organizational behaviors. b. the use of punishment to decrease negative organizational behaviors such as absenteeism and employee turnover. c. programs established by organizations to help employees stop smoking and drinking and avoid other risks to their health. d. programs developed within organizations to select employees who have the potential to be managers.

Answer a Page 122

60. The use of discipline in organizations to eliminate undesirable behavior is: a. in decline due to unfair labor practices law suits. b. infrequently used because most managers dislike doing it. c. is a relatively common practice in organizations. d. quite similar across organizations, in that most use a standard one-step process.

Answer c Page 124

61. When discipline is imposed on an employee in an organization through a series of steps designed to match the severity of the problem the organization is using: a. progressive discipline. b. administrative discipline. c. informal discipline. d. continuous discipline.

Answer a Page 124

62. John is caught stealing product from his company’s warehouse, over $15,000 worth. His company has a progressive discipline process. The company’s most likely action would be to: a. give him an oral reprimand and return him to work. b. talk with him about his problem and recommend counseling. c. transfer him to another warehouse. d. terminate him immediately.

Answer d Page 124

63. Managers consider ________ the most severe type of discipline they can impose before firing an employee. a. probation b. written warning c. suspension without pay d. transfer to another job Answer c Page 124

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Chapter 3 Perception and Learning: Understanding and Adapting to the Work Environment

64. To be effective, organizational discipline should: a. be delivered after a short-delay, to reinforce the intensity of the punishment. b. start with a severe negative consequence for the first offense to ensure it being extinguished. c. use moderate levels of punishment. d. directed at the individual, personally.

Answer c Page 125

65. Effective organizational discipline: a. follows punishment with noncontingent awards to show there are no hard feelings. b. applies punishment consistently, across occasions. c. takes extenuating circumstances into consideration. d. begins the discipline interview with a statement of the probable punishment by the manager.

Answer b Page 125

66. Suppose that as a supervisor, you find it necessary to discipline one of your employees for consistently showing up for work late. Which one of the following actions would be correct to perform? a. Punish the individual by focusing on his or her irresponsibility. b. Make an example out of this person by punishing him or her, but not others who are also consistently late. c. Give the person the rest of the day off after you discuss the problem. d. Clearly communicate the reasons for the disciplinary action.

Answer d Page 125 Mini-Case Questions Table 3.1 Joe and Mary Jane are observing the new class of management trainees as they enter the training room for their initial orientation. As they watch each person enter, they observe how they are dressed, how they carry themselves when they walk, if they talk to the persons next to them when they sit down, and so forth. Joe notices one man who is casually dressed, who walks with a relaxed stride, and who talks to everyone within reach of his seat. Joe believes this man will be a good ‘volunteer’ for role plays because he is obviously very outgoing. Joe has watched hundreds of trainees before and everyone who acted this way turned out to be good up in front of everyone else. Mary Jane sees a young woman she interviewed.

In the interview she was outgoing, smiled a great deal, and was very expressive. Mary Jane sees her now sitting by herself, having taken a seat away from everyone, arms folded across her chest, with a scowl on her face. Mary Jane thinks that this woman obviously does better in one-on-one settings than she does in large groups.

67. Refer to Table 3.1. Joe’s belief about the man he noticed is an example of: a. attribution. b. correspondent inference. c. perception. d. causal attribution.

Answer b Page 93 47

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68. Refer to Table 3.1. The basis of Joe’s belief about the man he noticed is an example of ________ information. a. consensus b. consistency c. distinctiveness d. enhancement Answer a Page 94

69. Refer to Table 3.1. What type of information are both Joe and Mary Jane missing in order to validate their observations about the two people they saw? a. consensus b. consistency c. distinctiveness d. enhancement Answer b Page 95 Refer to Table 3.1. The basis of Mary Jane’s thinking about the women she interviewed is an example of basing a judgment on ________ information. e. consensus f. consistency g. distinctiveness h. enhancement Answer c Page 95 Table 3.2 William and Malcolm are interviewing high school students for jobs at a newly opened fast food restaurant. William knows his first interviewee, he coached him on the local community softball team.

William doesn’t expect the interview to go well or to hire the young man because he wasn’t very open to advice when he was coached. Malcolm’s first candidate is late and runs up disheveled and out of breath.

Malcolm assumes the young man had difficulty on his way to the interview and gives him time to calm down and improve his appearance. Several hours into the process William is interviewing his 20th candidate, Jane. When she sits down she drops into her seat, folds her arms, and pinches her lips together. She’s wearing a T-shirt with the image and name of a local heavy metal band on it. William prepares himself for a hostile and unfriendly interview but is surprised that after the first couple of questions Jane turns out to be quite polite and friendly. Malcolm’s last candidate is friendly, has similar interests to Malcolm and knows several of the people Malcolm knows in the community. Malcolm comments to William as they are picking up their files, “that kid reminds me of me when I was 17.”

70. Refer to Table 3.2. Even though Malcolm gave the young man the benefit of the doubt, Malcolm demonstrated a perceptual bias, because he didn’t know why the young man was late. Which perceptual bias does Malcolm demonstrate? a. fundamental attribution error b. halo effect c. similar-to-me effect d. selective perception Answer a Page 96 .

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Chapter 3 Perception and Learning: Understanding and Adapting to the Work Environment

71. Refer to Table 3.2. William is demonstrating which perceptual bias error with his first interviewee? a. fundamental attribution error b. halo effect c. similar-to-me effect d. first-impression error Answer b Page 96

72. Refer to Table 3.2. Malcolm is probably making what perceptual bias error with his last job candidate? a. fundamental attribution error b. halo effect c. similar-to-me effect d. first-impression error Answer c Page 97

73. Refer to Table 3.2. William’s perceptual bias with Jane is an example of: a. selective perception. b. the halo effect. c. the similar-to-me effect. d. a first-impression error.

Answer a Page 97 Table 3.3 Tony manages a small group of customer service representatives and is responsible for all their training.

His coaching style is to catch people doing this right, then offer praise and small rewards for proper performance. When Tony works with the customer service representatives who handle customer correspondence, he pays random surprise visits to each representative to encourage, coach, and correct behavior. He believes this keeps the representatives on their toes. With his customer service representatives who handle phone calls, Tony drops in on each one after they have taken between 50-100 calls. He’s able to monitor their call rate from his computer terminal.

74. Refer to Table 3.3. Tony’s learning philosophy is an example of: a. operant conditioning. b. observational learning. c. modeling. d. classical conditioning.

Answer a Page 111

75. B. F. Skinner's work on instrumental conditioning would be best able to explain which of the following? a. The tendency for people to continue playing slot machines although they are bound to lose money. b. The tendency for a supervisor's praise to increase a subordinate's good behavior.

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Part 2 - Basic Human Processes c.

The tendency for a person chastised by his co-workers for wearing inappropriate clothing to the office to refrain from doing so again. d. All of the above.

Answer d Page 113

76. Refer to Table 3.3. Tony is using a ________ schedule with his customer service representatives who handle customer correspondence. a. fixed interval b. variable interval c. fixed ratio d. variable ratio Answer b Page 113

77. Refer to Table 3.3. Tony is using a ________ schedule with his phone customer service representatives. a. fixed interval b. variable interval c. fixed ratio d. variable ratio Answer c Page 113 Table 3.4 Ted is designing a training program for his company’s sales force. His training program must permit quick learning with maximum retention. He has built an interactive computer simulation for sales representatives to practice their sales skills. To evaluate the results of the training Ted has the sales representatives evaluate themselves, their managers evaluate them, and their peers evaluate them.

78. Refer to Table 3.4. What principle must Ted incorporate into his training to ensure quick learning and retention? a. participation b. repetition c. feedback d. transfer of learning Answer a Page 120

79. Refer to Table 3.4. The interactive computer simulation incorporates what principle of effective training best? a. participation b. repetition c. feedback d. transfer of learning Answer d Page 120

80. Refer to Table 3.4. The evaluation process Ted is using is an example of which principle of effective training? a. participation b. repetition .

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Chapter 3 Perception and Learning: Understanding and Adapting to the Work Environment c. feedback d. transfer of learning Answer c Page 120 True/False Questions

81. Social perception is the process of understanding other’s behavior and attributing causes to their behavior.

Answer F

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90

82. Cliff sees his roommate burst into the room, slam his books on the desk, and yell, “That horse’s ________.” Cliff believes his roommate is angry with someone. Cliff has made a correspondent inference.

Answer T Page 93

83. In terms of causal attribution, to the extent that someone’s behavior is same regardless of the context, is the extent to which a person’s behavior is consistent.

Answer F Page 94

84. If we allow our initial judgment of someone to shape our subsequent impressions and behavior, we have made a halo effect error.

Answer F Page 96

85. Ted puts in long hours on the job and his boss notices. His boss assumes that Ted is committed to the company and wants to succeed because that’s the way the boss did it, so he promotes him. Actually Ted is so overwhelmed in his current job he can’t his work done and the promotion really sinks him.

The boss’s thinking is an example of the similar-to-me effect.

Answer T Page 97

86. The Pygmalion effect is simply the self-fulfilling prophecy in its positive form.

Answer T

Page

99

87. When positive expectations results in good performance, it is known as the Golem effect.

Answer F

Page

100

88. During the bombing of Kosvo, the news media kept warning against a ground invasion because the Serbians are tough people and make good soldiers. This is an example of a stereotype.

Answer T Page 101

89. People use stereotypes as mental shortcuts to help them know how to treat others.

Answer T

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101

90. Research has found that obese African American women tend to be paid less than their averageweight counterparts, due to prevalent negative stereotypes within the African American commuity.

Answer F Page 103

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91. The least commonly used image management technique is that of personal stories, followed by entitlements.

Answer F Page

106

92. Research shows that the performance appraisal process used to be subject to bias but now due to diversity training and cultural awareness programs, almost all bias has been eliminated.

Answer F Page 106

93. Due to standardizations in organizational performance evaluations, the appraisal process is generally an unbiased, rational procedure.

Answer F Page 106

94. In general, recruitment ads do not play a major role in corporate image.

Answer F

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109

95. For learning to take place there must be a relatively permanent change in behavior as a consequence of the corresponding experience.

Answer T Page 111

96. Another term for operant conditioning is instrumental conditioning.

Answer T

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111

97. Negative reinforcement and punishment are synonyms.

Answer F

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112

98. When Ron takes his office staff to lunch every time they win a big contract, Ron is using a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement.

Answer F Page 113

99. For someone to learn through the observational learning process they must not only pay attention to their role model but also remember and use what they learn because they want to.

Answer T Page 114

100.

Apprenticeship programs combine classroom training and on-the-job training.

Answer T Page 116

101.

Participation in the learning process is important for learning both cognitive and motor skills.

Answer T Page 120

102. When it comes to disciplining employees 83% of companies have no discipline process or even offer the threat of discipline to poor or misbehaving employees.

Answer F Page 124

103. For punishment to be effective it should be immediate, moderate, and directed at the undesired behavior not the person.

Answer T Page 125

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Chapter 3 Perception and Learning: Understanding and Adapting to the Work Environment

Essay Questions Major Essay

104. What is the attribution process and why is it important to organizational behavior?

Answer - Attribution is the process of judging the causes of others’ behaviors. It is important for several reasons. We often want to know what people are like. Generally, we do this by observing their behavior and then inferring their traits. Correspondent inferences - are judgments about what someone is liked based on what we observe about him/her. This process seems simple enough and is sometimes accurate, but may be inaccurate because; behavior often has many causes, individuals are sometimes affected by external forces, and people tend to conceal some of their traits. Observations can be made more accurate by; focusing on behavior in situations where a person’s behavior is limited by expectations and focusing on behavior with only one apparent cause. Also, It is generally important to determine if behavior is attributable to internal or external causes. How we decide that someone’s behavior is internally or externally motivated is answered, to some degree, by Kelley’s theory of causal attribution.

Pages 92-95

105. Social perception has a number of inherent biases in it. Identify and explain them.

Answer - Some errors in judgment reflect bias due to the way we think about others in general. These are perceptual biases. There are five such biases. The fundamental attribution error occurs when behavior is attributed to internal causes regardless of the evidence. The halo effect is when a former impression, negative or positive, taints everything we observe the person do. Similar-to-me effect results when people perceive individuals like themselves more favorably than others. Firstimpression error, whatever our first impression, that is our opinion and judgment about the person regardless of other evidence and behavior. This can often be very subtle. Selective perception refers to the tendency for individuals to focus on certain aspects of the environment while ignoring others.

Pages 96-99

106. Discuss operant conditioning as a learning theory.

Answer - Learning is a relatively permanent change in behavior occurring as a result of experience.

Learning requires; that some kind of change occur, that the change be more than temporary, and experience. Operant conditioning - is the principle that our behavior produces consequences, and the way we behave in the future will depend on the consequences. Also called instrumental conditioning.

If our conduct has pleasant consequences it will likely be repeated. If our conduct has unpleasant consequences, it will not likely be repeated. This describes the Law of Effect. Concept is based on the work of B.F. Skinner. Reinforcement Contingencies is learning from the effects of our actions. Positive reinforcement results from desirable outcomes. Negative reinforcement or avoidance comes from undesirable outcomes. Punishment or withholding reward can lead to extinction (disappearance) of behavior. These various conditions are called the contingencies of reinforcement. Schedules of reinforcement: patterns of administering rewards help us understand how behavior is reinforced or extinguished. Continuous reinforcement means reward is withheld or presented every time behavior occurs. Partial or intermittent reinforcement schedules may follow one of four patterns; fixedinterval, variable-interval, fixed-ratio, and variable-ratio.

Pages 111-113

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107. Explain how you might use schedules of reinforcement to administer rewards naming and explaining each of the four types of schedules.

Answer - Reinforcement contingencies is learning from the effects of our actions. Positive reinforcement results from desirable outcomes. Negative reinforcement or avoidance comes from undesirable outcomes. Punishment or withholding reward can lead to extinction (disappearance) of behavior. Schedules of reinforcement: patterns of administering rewards help us understand how behavior is reinforced or extinguished. Continuous reinforcement means reward is withheld or presented every time behavior occurs. Partial or intermittent reinforcement schedules may follow one of four patterns. 1) Fixed-interval - reinforcement is administered the first time desired behavior appears after a specific amount of time. 2) Variable-interval - reinforcement is administered on a variable schedule, based on some average amount. 3) Fixed-ratio - reinforcement is administered the first time desired behavior appears after a specified number of such actions have been performed. 4) Variable-ratio - a variable number of desired responses must elapse between administration of reinforcement..

Pages 112-113

108. Discuss the discipline process in organizations, offering the key principles to successful discipline.

Answer - Discipline is the systematic administration of punishment. Progressive discipline bases punishment on the frequency and severity of the infraction. Principles of effective discipline include: deliver punishment immediately after the undesirable response occurs, give moderate levels of punishment - nothing too high or too low, punish the undesirable behavior, not the person, use punishment consistently - all the time, for all employees, and clearly communicate the reasons for the punishment given. Finally, be sure to not follow punishment with non-contingent rewards.

Pages 121-125 Short essay

109. How can you overcome bias in social perception?

Answer - Misperceptions are not often the result of malice but rather because we are imperfect processors of information. We can reduce or eliminate stereotypes and misperceptions by; not overlooking the external causes of behavior, identifying and confronting personal stereotypes, evaluating people on objective facts, and avoiding rash judgments.

Pages 100

110.

Define the term ‘stereotype’ and explain why people stereotype others.

Answer - Stereotyping is the fitting of others into categories. These ideas are what come to mind when we see particular people or groups of people. Most often they are negative, and they are often assumptions. We rely on stereotypes, because it saves us cognitive effort, and it helps us deal with the multitudes of people we come in contact with--it is mental shorthand. In organizations stereotypes may hinder the firm by eliminating a good job candidate or limiting a person’s opportunities.

Sometimes the effect of stereotypes can be very subtle.

Pages 101-103

111. What is ‘impression management’? Describe the term and offer some tips as to how it is done.

Answer - Impression management is simply looking good to prospective employers. We all do things to control how others see us, attempting to make them see us in the best possible light. Impressions .

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Chapter 3 Perception and Learning: Understanding and Adapting to the Work Environment may be based on; subtle behaviors, such as dress and speech patterns, calculated efforts to manipulate others’ impressions, self-promotion, and the flat assertion that one has the characteristics sought.

Pages 103-106

112. Describe the processes involved in observational learning.

Answer - Observational learning is learning by imitating others. This type of learning by modeling occurs when someone acquires new knowledge vicariously--by observing others. In the process: attention must be paid by learner. learner must retain model's behavior, learner must behaviorally reproduce model's behavior, and learner must have motivation to learn from model. This type of learning is common, especially in job-instruction training.

Pages 114-115

113. Explain the four key principles to effective training.

Answer - The principles that make training effective are; participation in the learning process not only enhances the speed of learning but also retention, repetition, transfer of learning involves applying what is learned to the job, and feedback provides knowledge of results of one's actions.

Pages 120-121

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Part 2 - Basic Human Processes Chapter 4 - Individual Differences: Personality, Skills, and Abilities Multiple Choice Questions 1.

The unique and relatively stable pattern of behavior, thoughts, and emotions shown by individuals is known as: a. emotional intelligence. b. intelligence quotient. c. personality. d. self-efficacy beliefs.

Answer c Page 135 2.

The predominant position regarding personality in organizational behavior is that: a. behavior is solely determined by personality. b. behavior is a function of personality and external environment. c. the environment is the dominant element in determining behavior. d. personality is not a valuable concept even though certain traits do exist.

Answer b Page 135 3.

The concept of personality is important in organizational behavior because: a. it is a relatively easy way to gather information about people helpful to matching them to jobs. b. it invalidates certain management practices such as contingency management, showing them to not be effective. c. it helps group people into teams as managers strive for a balance of personalities. d. it helps us understand individual uniqueness combines with situations Answer d Page 135 4.

While there are a variety of opinions on personality an important determinant of human behavior is: a. the situation or setting of the behavior. b. the age and general intelligence of the individual. c. the gender and ethnic background of a person. d. genetics, personality is almost solely determined by birth according to most social scientists.

Answer a Page 135 5.

Studies show that people tended to perform well when: a. they have a high A-type personality and strong organizational skills. b. they have low self-efficacy but high self monitoring. c. there is a match between their personalities and the characteristics of the jobs they perform. d. they exhibit a Type B personality with a high emotional intelligence quotient.

Answer c Page 136

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Chapter 4 Individual Differences: Personality, Skills, and Abilities 6.

An example of an objective personality test would be: a. drawing a picture test and explaining it to a trained psychologist. b. completing an inventory or questionnaire c. a thematic appreciation test. d. a test like the General Management Aptitude Test.

Answer b Page 139 7.

Joe was administered a test which used a series of question to determine his personality. This is an example of: a. projective tests b. objective tests c. reliability d. validity Answer b Page 139 8.

Fran was administered a test which used ambiguous stimuli to determine his personality. This is an example of: a. projective tests b. objective tests c. reliability d. validity Answer a Page 139 9.

A test's ________ reflects its consistency and stability over time. a. reliability b. objectivity c. validity d. projectivity Answer a Page 139 10. Tom is using a personality test in the hiring process that yields consistent scores among all the applicants tested but frequently doesn’t provide an accurate measure of the candidate’s personality. This test has: a. high validity and low reliability. b. high reliability and low validity. c. low reliability and low validity. d. high validity and high reliability.

Answer b Page 139 11. The extent to which a test measures what it is actually designed to measure is an indication of the test's: a. reliability. b. objectivity. c. validity. d. projectivity.

Answer c Page 139

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Part 2 - Basic Human Processes 12. The XYZ Company has a friendly atmosphere, attentive to people. The XYZ Company has a personality that is: a. dominant. b. innovative. c. boy scout. d. thrifty.

Answer c Page 141 13. The XYZ Company is successful and popular. The XYZ Company has a personality that is: a. dominant. b. innovative. c. boy scout. d. thrifty.

Answer a Page 141 14. The Cologne Company is interesting and unique. The Cologne Company has a personality that is: a. dominant. b. innovative. c. boy scout. d. thrifty.

Answer b Page 141 15. The Potter Company is poor and sloppy. The Potter Company has a personality that is: a. dominant. b. innovative. c. boy scout. d. thrifty.

Answer d Page 141 16. The Guidance Company is modern and contemporary. The Guidance Company has a personality that is: a. dominant. b. innovative. c. boy scout. d. stylish.

Answer d Page 141 17. The personality dimension ________ is at one end good-natured, gentle, cooperative, etc., and irritable, ruthless, suspicious, at the other end. a. conscientiousness b. extroversion-introversion c. agreeableness d. emotional stability Answer c Page 142

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Chapter 4 Individual Differences: Personality, Skills, and Abilities 18. ________ is the dimension that ranges from careful, thorough, responsible, organized, etc., at one end, to irresponsible, disorganized, unscrupulous at the other. a. Conscientiousness b. Extroversion-introversion c. Openness to experience d. Emotional stability Answer a Page 142 19. The personality dimensions found to most closely relate to task is: a. extroversion-introversion. b. conscientiousness. c. high self-monitoring skills. d. emotional stability.

Answer b Page 143 20. The personality dimension, ________ can be characterized by the statement “I usually feel sad or down.” a. conscientiousness b. extroversion-introversion c. agreeableness d. emotional stability Answer d Page 144 21. In management and sales jobs, the personality dimension that most closely related to job success was: a. conscientiousness. b. extroversion-introversion. c. agreeableness. d. emotional stability.

Answer b Page 144 22. When OB researchers are discussing positive and negative affectivity they are discussing: a. an individual’s mood state and the resulting demonstrated traits. b. the achieving or missing of important personal goals. c. the mood or affect of an individual. d. the ability of someone to do the right thing.

Answer a Page 144 23. People in positive affectivity are likely to: a. be managers. b. make superior decisions. c. function less effectively. d. be targets of aggression.

Answer b Page 145

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Part 2 - Basic Human Processes 24. Research on positive and negative affectivity on the job has shown: a. for MBA students, that those with a strong negative affectivity were superior in managerial potential, accuracy, and overall performance than other students. b. that the more positive the group's affective tone, the higher their efficiency as a group. c. that groups with negative affectivity were more effective in problem solving than other groups. d. they have little impact on job performance.

Answer b Page 145 25. People in negative affectivity are likely to: a. be managers. b. make superior decisions. c. function more effectively. d. be targets of aggression.

Answer d Page 145 26. In terms of core self-evaluations, the overall value one places on oneself is: a. self-esteem b. generalized self-efficacy c. locus of control d. emotional stability Answer a Page 146 27. In terms of core self-evaluations, the person’s belief about his or her capacity to perform specific tasks successfully is: a. self-esteem b. generalized self-efficacy c. locus of control d. emotional stability Answer b Page 146 28. The belief in one's own capacity to perform a task is known as: a. self-esteem. b. self-efficacy. c. self-monitoring. d. positive affectivity.

Answer b Page 146 29. In terms of core self-evaluations, the extent to which an individual feels that he or she is able to control things is: a. self-esteem b. generalized self-efficacy c. locus of control d. emotional stability Answer c Page 146

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Chapter 4 Individual Differences: Personality, Skills, and Abilities 30. In terms of core self-evaluations, the tendency to see oneself as confident, secure and steady is: a. self-esteem b. generalized self-efficacy c. locus of control d. emotional stability Answer d Page 146 31. Individuals with high self-efficacy on the job: a. tend to do more with less effort. b. don’t expect to succeed in new tasks. c. really do succeed, more than people with low self-efficacy. d. also tend to be Type B personalities.

Answer c Page 146 32. The notion that one should never show humility: a. learning goal orientation. b. performance goal orientation. c. avoidance goal orientation. d. Machiavellianism.

Answer d Page 148 33. The notion that it is much better to be feared than loved is associated with: a. learning goal orientation. b. performance goal orientation. c. avoidance goal orientation. d. Machiavellianism.

Answer d Page 148 34. In his book entitled The Prince, Niccolo Machiavelli’s guiding principles included: a. never show humility. b. it is much better to be feared than loved. c. morality and ethics are for the weak. d. All of the above.

Answer d Page 148 35. The notion that morality is for the weak is: a. learning goal orientation. b. performance goal orientation. c. avoidance goal orientation. d. Machiavellianism.

Answer d Page 148

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Part 2 - Basic Human Processes 36. If Tanya believes that you need to do whatever it takes and that it is better to be feared than liked, she is demonstrating high: a. self-monitoring, b. self-efficacy. c. Type A personality. d. machiavellianism.

Answer d Page 148 37. Machiavellianism is noted for which of the following principles? a. Do whatever it takes to get the job done right. b. Adapt to the situation at hand. c. Do whatever it takes to get your way. d. The rights of the individual cease when they impact the rights of the group.

Answer c Page 148 38. If a person believes that the best way to deal with people is to tell them what they want to hear, not to tell them the real reason he/she are asking for something, and to push them, because they don’t work hard unless watched, this person is exhibiting: a. low self-efficacy. b. high “Mach” behavior. c. a Type A personality. d. high self-monitoring skills.

Answer b Page 148 39. “High Machs” are most likely to get their own way: a. in loosely structured situations, with few established rules. b. when people victimized by them talk about it, creating fear of their successes. c. when others pay attention to their actions rather than their words. d. in all of the above situations.

Answer a Page 150 40. "High Machs" will perform better than "low Machs" on jobs that are: a. highly structured. b. loosely structured. c. stable, low in emotional content. d. all of the above.

Answer b Page 150 41. The strength of an individual's desire to excel is known as: a. achievement motivation. b. power motivation. c. affiliation motivation. d. self-monitoring.

Answer a Page 150

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Chapter 4 Individual Differences: Personality, Skills, and Abilities 42. As managers individuals with high achievement needs: a. tend to delegate too much. b. have strong affiliation needs. c. do not want feedback on their performance. d. tend to be rapidly promoted.

Answer d Page 150 43. If someone is low in achievement motivation, they will: a. avoid all responsibility. b. also be high in affiliation motivation. c. seek either very hard or very easy tasks. d. be high in self-efficacy.

Answer c Page 151 44. People who are high in achievement motivation seek: a. extremely difficult tasks. b. to be in charge. c. close, friendly relationships. d. moderately difficult tasks.

Answer d Page 151 45. If a manager is high in the need for achievement he/she will most likely: a. also be high in his/her need for power. b. avoid very easy or very difficult tasks. c. seek projects that no one else can complete. d. do none of these.

Answer b Page 151 46. The desire to perform well because it satisfies an interest in meeting a challenge and learning new skills is: a. learning goal orientation. b. performance goal orientation. c. avoidance goal orientation. d. Machiavellianism.

Answer a Page 151 47. The desire to perform well to demonstrate ones competence in others is: a. learning goal orientation. b. performance goal orientation. c. avoidance goal orientation. d. Machiavellianism.

Answer b Page 151

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Part 2 - Basic Human Processes 48. The desire to achieve success to avoid appearing incompetent is: a. learning goal orientation. b. performance goal orientation. c. avoidance goal orientation. d. Machiavellianism.

Answer c Page 151 49. Studies show that: a. there is a strong relationship between the cultural attitude toward achievement motivation and economic growth. b. there is virtually no relationship between a country’s economic growth and the cultural valuing of achievement motivation. c. strong affiliation motivation led to strong economic development in countries. d. there is a strong correlation to a country’s valuing of power motivation and the country’s economic development.

Answer a Page 153 50. An individual’s ________ is/are his/her mental and physical capacities to perform various tasks a. emotional intelligence b. personality c. traits d. abilities Answer d Page 153 51. ________ is the capacity to perform various tasks. a. Abilities b. Personality c. Motivation d. Componential intelligence Answer a Page 153 52. The ability to understand complex ideas, adapt effectively to the environment, and learn from experience is known as an individual’s ________ intelligence. a. practical b. contextual c. emotional intelligence. d. cognitive Answer d Page 154 53. The ability to understand written material quickly and accurately is: a. verbal comprehension. b. verbal reasoning. c. word fluency. d. symbolic reasoning.

Answer a Page 155 .

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Chapter 4 Individual Differences: Personality, Skills, and Abilities 54. The ability to express oneself rapidly, easily, and with flexibility is: a. verbal comprehension. b. verbal reasoning. c. word fluency. d. symbolic reasoning.

Answer c Page 155 55. The ability to analyze verbal information so as to make valid judgments on the basis of logical implications of material is: a. verbal comprehension. b. verbal reasoning. c. word fluency. d. symbolic reasoning.

Answer b Page 155 56. The ability to perform basic mathematical operations quickly is: a. numerical ability. b. space visualization. c. numerical reasoning.. d. symbolic reasoning.

Answer a Page 155 57. The ability to analyze logical relationships and to recognize the underlying principles is: a. numerical ability. b. space visualization. c. numerical reasoning.. d. symbolic reasoning.

Answer c Page 155 58. The ability to visualize three-dimensional forms in space is: a. numerical ability. b. space visualization. c. numerical reasoning.. d. symbolic reasoning.

Answer b Page 155 59. The ability to think and reason abstractly using symbols rather than words is: a. verbal comprehension. b. verbal reasoning. c. word fluency. d. symbolic reasoning.

Answer b Page 155

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Part 2 - Basic Human Processes 60. Hector has a gift for getting jobs done. Whatever the task he is able to figure out a way to do it.

Hector is high in: a. cognitive intelligence. b. tacit knowledge. c. emotional intelligence. d. practical intelligence.

Answer d Page 155 61. The kind of knowledge that directly relates to accomplishing tasks is: a. implicit knowledge. b. tactic knowledge. c. prospective knowledge. d. working knowledge.

Answer b Page 155 62. Tacit knowledge is characterized by: a. the ability to work with numbers. b. the ability to imagine how various objects look as they move in space. c. an action orientation and by being acquired without the help of others. d. a strong formal academic base of general knowledge.

Answer c Page 156 63. Emotional intelligence consists of several components including: a. self-motivation. b. the ability to form long-term relationships. c. the ability to influence other’s emotions. d. all of these.

Answer d Page 157 64. The ability to recognize and regulate personal emotions, influence those of others, and to be self-motivating is an individual’s: a. cognitive intelligence. b. level of self-efficacy. c. emotional intelligence. d. practical intelligence.

Answer c Page 157 65. Testing takes a variety of forms. When employees are tested for flexibility and strength, they are having their ________ tested. a. cognitive abilities b. memories c. physical abilities d. emotional intelligence Answer c Page 158

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Chapter 4 Individual Differences: Personality, Skills, and Abilities 66. The ability to exert physical force against an object is known as: a. strength.. b. flexibility. c. stamina. d. speed.

Answer a Page 158 67. The capacity to move ones body in an agile manner is known as: a. strength.. b. flexibility. c. stamina. d. speed.

Answer b Page 158 68. An individual’s capacity to move his/her body in an agile manner is their physical ability of: a. stamina. b. flexibility. c. speed. d. strength.

Answer b Page 158 69. The capacity to endure physical activity is known as: a. strength. b. flexibility. c. stamina. d. speed.

Answer c Page 158 70. The ability to move quickly is known as: a. strength. b. flexibility. c. stamina. d. speed.

Answer d Page 158 71. Accuracy in perceiving others is known as: a. impression management. b. persuasion and social influence. c. social adaptability. d. social perception.

Answer d Page 159

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Part 2 - Basic Human Processes 72. Proficiency in the use of wide range of techniques for inducing positive reactions in others is known as: a. impression management. b. persuasion and social influence. c. social adaptability. d. social perception.

Answer a Page 159 73. Skill at using various techniques to changing others’ attitudes is known as: a. impression management. b. persuasion and social influence. c. social adaptability. d. social perception.

Answer b Page 159 Mini-Case Questions Table 4.1 The HR director is reviewing personality files. She is reviewing the five dimensions of personality.

She notes that Jane is described as imaginative, sensitive, and polished. Peter is profiled as quiet, cautious, and reserved. Tim’s file describes him as down-to-earth, simple, and narrow. The HR director reviews her own profile and sees that she is described as sad and out of control.

74. Refer to Table 4.1. The HR director’s review of Peter is focusing on the personality dimension of: a. conscientiousness. b. extroversion-introversion. c. agreeableness. d. openness to experience.

Answer b Page 142 75. Refer to Table 4.1. The HR director’s review of Jane is focusing on the personality dimension of: a. conscientiousness. b. extroversion-introversion. c. agreeableness. d. openness to experience.

Answer d Page 143 76. Refer to Table 4.1. The HR director’s own profile seems to be focused on the personality dimension of: a. conscientiousness. b. extroversion-introversion. c. emotional stability. d. openness to experience.

Answer c Page 143 .

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Chapter 4 Individual Differences: Personality, Skills, and Abilities Table 4.2 Bill and Tom are discussing the personalities of their assembly line workers. They agree that Lee Chin always seems to see the positive side of everything. He takes breakdown’s on the line as challenges. On the other hand, Henrietta goes into a depression when there are difficulties. Ted is very time focused and gets a great of work done, but is irritable when working with others, particularly if things aren’t going well. Joan is really good with complex work that needs to be accurate. She is less time motivated and works well with others. During this review Bill wants to get the job done and move on to other work. He’s a bit frustrated by Tom’s slow pace and desire to be sure they are considering every aspect of each employee’s behavior.

77. Refer to Table 4.2. Lee Chin seems to exhibit: a. positive affectivity. b. a Type B personality behavior pattern. c. negative affectivity. d. a Type A personality behavior pattern.

Answer a Page 144 78. Refer to Table 4.2. Henrietta’s behavior is typical of: a. positive affectivity. b. a Type B personality behavior pattern. c. negative affectivity. d. a Type A personality behavior pattern.

Answer c Page 144

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Part 2 - Basic Human Processes Table 4.3 During cocktails before a company management dinner, a group of managers gathers and are talking with each other. Simone, a financial analysis, actively manages her career. She actively participates in decisions when asked, seeking to influence the outcome of the discussion. When she runs into a situation that she doesn’t have instructions about, she makes decisions on her own, innovates, or in some way tries to handle the situation, rather than sit back and wait for instructions. Peter is the newly hired director of personnel. He comes from a line position. While he’s never done this type of staff work before, he says, “How hard can it be after managing a quality-driven production line for four years? I’ve read about HR management and followed the old HR director around for several weeks before she retired and I took over. Piece of cake.” His comments really angered a couple of HR professionals standing in the group. They feel their profession and careers aren’t taken seriously by Peter, their new boss. One of those HR professionals, Erica, smiles and responds to Peter, “Sounds like you anticipate a great deal of success with your new responsibilities. I know when I take on new opportunities, I always look forward with anticipation.” Erica matches her comments, rate of speech, etc. to match Peter’s rapid fire, off-the cuff style. Mark, an operations manager, expresses his approval of Peter’s perspective.

“You know, once you’ve had a line job in production, staff work is easy. But the real key to success is to remember to do whatever it takes to get the job done.” Mark thinks that Peter may be of help to him in his career in the position of HR director. Mark is willing to say or do almost anything to ingratiate himself with Peter.

79. Refer to Table 4.3. Peter seems to be an individual with: a. high self-monitoring skills. b. a Type B personality. c. a proactive personality. d. high self-efficacy skills.

Answer d Page 146 80. Refer to Table 4.3. Mark would seem to be: a. a high Mach. b. a Type A personality. c. high in self-monitoring. d. low is self-efficacy.

Answer a Page 148 True/False Questions 81. If a personality test is reliable it does not have to be valid to provide useful and legal data.

Answer F Page 139 82. The degree to which an individual is creative, curious, and cultured versus practical describes his/her Big Five personality dimension of openness to experience.

Answer T Page 143 83. Both openness to experience and agreeableness correlate highly with effective job performance.

Answer F Page 143

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Chapter 4 Individual Differences: Personality, Skills, and Abilities 84. Self-efficacy is a personality characteristic that can be changed.

Answer T Page 147 85. The concept of Machiavellianism stems from a ruthless strategy for seizing and holding political power in the 16th century.

Answer T Page 148 86. Someone who is a high “Mach” has a personality similar to that of a con artist.

Answer T Page 148 87. An individual who is a high “Mach” might neglect to share important information with you or fail to meet their obligations if will advance them and undermine someone else.

Answer T Page 148 88. Research has shown that Machiavellianism is closely related to success in the kinds of job in which people operate with a great deal of astronomy Answer F Page 149 89. Individuals with a high need to achieve will always tackle the toughest jobs to prove themselves.

Answer F Page 151 90. About 30% of people in the US labor force work at night or on rotating schedules.

Answer F Page 152 91. Research shows that individual differences for various times of the day are real and are important to job performance.

Answer T Page 152 92. The ability to do, to solve everyday problems and get things done is an example of one’s practical intelligence.

Answer T Page 155 93. Both practical and cognitive intelligence are measured by IQ tests as they both consist of verbal, math, and reasoning skills.

Answer F Page 155 94. One can enhance and develop both their affectivity and their physical abilities.

Answer F Page 158 95. The capacity to move ones body in an agile manner is known as speed.

Answer F Page 158 96. The capacity to endure physical activity is known as stamina.

Answer T Page 158 97. The ability to move quickly is known as speed.

Answer T Page 158 71

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Part 2 - Basic Human Processes 98. Accuracy in perceiving others is known as social adaptability.

Answer F Page 159 99. Proficiency in the use of wide range of techniques for inducing positive reactions in others is known as social perception.

Answer F Page 159 100. Skill at using various techniques to changing other’ attitudes is known as persuasion and social influence.

Answer T Page 159 Essay Questions Major essay 101. Identify and explain the “Big Five” dimensions of personality.

Answer - The big five are part of the work-related aspects of personality. There are 17,953 words used to describe personality. These can be combined into 171 distinct traits. Five dimensions continue to emerge from a variety of studies conducted in a variety of ways.

Conscientiousness - a dimension that ranges from careful, thorough, responsible, organized, etc., to irresponsible, disorganized, etc. Extroversion - Introversion - the dimension ranges from sociable talkative, assertive, active, to retiring, sober, reserved, and cautious.

Agreeableness - a dimension that ranges from good-natured, gentle, cooperative, forgiving, and hopeful, to irritable, ruthless, suspicious, etc. Emotional stability - a dimension that ranges from anxious, depressed, angry, emotionally insecure, etc., to calm, enthusiastic, poised and secure. Openness to experience - a dimension that ranges from imaginative, sensitive, intellectual, and polished, to down-to-earth, insensitive, narrow, crude, and simple. Many researchers believe these five dimensions are foundational to personality, and there does seem to be a correlation between them and job success.

Pages 142-144 102. How do you increase self-efficacy among employees?

Answer - There are three main ways to increase self-efficacy among employees. First, the employee must be given constructive rather than destructive feedback. Second, the employee must be exposed to models of good performance and success. Third, the employees must be asked to seek continuous improvement.

Page 147 103. Characterize someone with a highly Machiavellian personality and offer ways to protect yourself against that type of personality.

Answer - Machiavellianism is using others to get ahead. Machiavelli recommended several principles for manipulating and using others in his 1513 work; never be humble, always be arrogant, morality and ethics are for the weak, and it is better to be feared than loved. This is the “do what ever it takes to get it done” management philosophy. Most don’t do this but a few people do. Machiaveilians succeed in loosely structured situations where there are few rules. In dealing with High Machs remember the following guidelines. 1) Expose them to others. This neutralizes their ability to get ahead by lying and using dirty tricks. 2) Pay attention to what others do, not what they say. They will say one thing and do another. 3) Avoid situations where they have an edge, such as highly emotional ones or there others are unsure how to proceed.

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Chapter 4 Individual Differences: Personality, Skills, and Abilities 104. Discuss the three major aspects of the intellectual abilities of an individual; explaining each and its relevance to human behavior in organizations.

Answer - Traditionally, when people speak about someone's "intelligence," they are referring to a specific form that psychologists call cognitive intelligence, which is the ability to understand complex ideas, to adapt effectively to the environment, to learn from experience, to engage in various forms of reasoning, and to overcome obstacles by careful thought. This approach to intelligence has been around for more than 100 years, but today's scientists see that it may very limited. Instead, they recognize that intelligence is not simply a matter of "how much?" but also of "what kind?" They have identified several different forms of intelligence.

One of these is practical intelligence or what we commonly refer to "street smarts," people with high amounts of practical intelligence are adept at solving the problems of everyday life.

Another form, emotional intelligence, refers to someone's abilities to be sensitive to people's emotions. Growing evidence suggests that practical intelligence is, indeed, different from that measured by IQ tests, and that it is especially important in business settings. Emotional intelligence (or EQ), which refers to a cluster of abilities relating to the emotional or “feeling” side of life. Growing evidence indicates that several aspects of emotional intelligence highly relate to the financial success of entrepreneurs Pages 154-158 105. Discuss the three types of goal orientations.

Answer - (1) learning goal orientation is the desire to perform well because it satisfies an interest in meeting a challenge and learning new skills, (2) performance goal orientation is the desire to perform well to demonstrate ones competence to others, and (3) avoidance goal orientation is the desire to achieve success to avoid appearing incompetent and to receiving negative evaluations from others.

Pages 151-152 Short essay 106. Define personality and it role in the study of organizational behavior.

Answer – All human beings possess a distinct pattern of traits and characteristics that no other person fully duplicates, and many of these characteristics are quite stable over time. Two features form the basis for a useful working definition of personality--the unique and relatively stable pattern of behaviors, thoughts, and emotions shown by individuats. Such stable patterns are important, because they help us to understand how likely will behave in various situations.

Page 135 107. What are reliability and validity and why are they of critical importance to personality testing?

Answer - Reliability is the degree to which a test yields stable, consistent scores over time.

Validity is the extent to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure.

Pages 139 108. How does achievement motivation shape human behavior in organizations?

Answer - Achievement motivation: the quest for excellence refers to the strength of an individual’s desire to excel. People high in achievement motivation are attracted to moderately difficult tasks and strongly desire feedback on their performance. These types of people do tend to succeed in their careers but do not necessarily make good managers because they tend to centralize power.

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Part 2 - Basic Human Processes 109. What is emotional intelligence (EQ) and why is it important for understanding one’s intellectual abilities?

Answer - Emotional intelligence refers to the ability to perceive and control emotions, our own and others. There is growing evidence tying this to career success. For example the tendency toward optimism is important for sales people. There are five different components to emotional intelligence that effect our job effectiveness; knowing our own emotions, controlling them, recognizing the emotions of others, controlling them, and self-motivation. Empathy is a key skill in this area.

Page 157-157 110. Identify the four types of physical ability.

Answer - (1) strength is the capacity to exert physical force against various objects, (2) flexibility is the capacity to move ones body in an agile manner, (3) stamina the capacity to endure physical activity over prolonged periods, and (4) speed is the ability to move quickly.

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Chapter 5 Coping with Organizational Life: Emotions and Stress Chapter 5 – Coping with Organizational Life: Emotions and Stress Multiple Choice Questions

1. Overt reactions that express feelings about events are called: a) moods. b) expressions. c) emotions. d) All of the above.

Answer c Page 170

2. Informal standards concerning the appropriate ways to express emotions are called: a) display rules. b) culture. c) norms. d) emotion rules.

Answer a Page 171

3. All of the following are major categories of emotions except: a) anger. b) joy. c) surprise. d) anxiety.

Answer d Page

171

4. Which of the following is NOT an example of a social emotion? a) pity b) jealousy c) scorn d) pride Answer d Page

172

5. Which of the following is NOT an example of a self-conscious emotion? a) guilt b) embarrassment c) scorn d) pride Answer c Page 172

6. Mood is a combination of both: a) who we are and conditions we face. b) feelings and personality. c) emotions and personality. d) emotions and environment.

Answer a Page 173

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7. Happier people tend to ________ less happy people. a) under-perform b) out-perform c) take more jobs than d) both a and c Answer b Page 175

8. Happy employees are ________ than less happy people. a) less inclined to resigned b) more inclined to resign c) less highly paid d) working for less profitable organizations Answer a Page 175

9. Positive mood helps people: a) recall positive things. b) recall negative things. c) do less work. d) both b and c.

Answer a Page 175

10. Chuck was in an uncommonly bad mood upon his arrival to work yesterday. As he entered the elevator he found himself thinking about an argument he had with his boss last week. This illustrates: a) emotional bias. b) mood bias. c) mood congruent. d) emotional congruence.

Answer c Page 175

11. Mood biases all of the following EXCEPT: a) evaluation of people. b) evaluation of things. c) the positive perception of another’s work. d) self-conscious emotions.

Answer d Page 176

12. When Berry is dealing with an irate customer, he finds himself biting his tongue to keep himself from saying what he really wants to say. This is referred to as emotional: a) dissonance. b) labor. c) conflict. d) incongruence.

Answer b Page 177

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Chapter 5 Coping with Organizational Life: Emotions and Stress

13. As a stewardess, Mary Ann is supposed to smile and act cheerful at all times on the flight, however, she feels tired and annoyed. The conflict between the emotion she feels and the emotion she is required to express is called emotional: a) dissonance. b) labor. c) conflict. d) incongruence.

Answer a Page 178

14. Emotions that people actually experienced are known as: a) known emotions b) displayed emotions c) felt emotions d) processed emotions Answer c Page 179

15. Emotions that people show others are known as: a) known emotions b) displayed emotions c) felt emotions d) processed emotions Answer b Page 179

16. All of the following are ways to control anger EXCEPT: a) practice relaxation. b) change the way you think. c) use humor. d) stay in the room to confront the situation.

Answer d Page 180

17. Compassionate reactions by organizational officials should: a) be small in scale and highly concentrated. b) be standardized. c) be carefully planned and organized prior to implementing. d) cover a broad scope of activities.

Answer d Page 181

18. Which of the following is NOT a way that companies can help with the emotional fallout of a natural disaster? a) provide information that will “sound good” to calm fears b) encourage social interaction c) promote the use of health services d) try to return to normalcy Answer a Page 182

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19. Growing evidence suggests that high levels of stress adversely impact: a) physical health. b) psychological well-being. c) task performance. d) all of the above.

Answer d Page 182

20. Stressors are: a) the effects of stress. b) the complex pattern of emotional, physiological, and related thoughts. c) the interpretations a person makes of stress and strain. d) the external demands that create stress.

Answer d Page 182

21. Stress occurs when: a) a situation is perceived as threatening to important goals. b) people believe they can cope with the potential dangers. c) the situation faced is difficult, but not out of control. d) someone’s expectations are met unexpectedly.

Answer a Page 183

22. Strain is different from stress in that: a) strain is less serious than stress. b) strain is a reaction to stress. c) strain is a cause of stress. d) strain refers to physical reactions, while stress refers to mental reactions.

Answer b Page 183

23. Which of the following is LEAST likely to greater higher levels of stress? a) jobs in which boring tasks are performed b) working in unpleasant working conditions c) performing unstructured tasks d) making few decisions Answer d Page 184

24. After being President of the U.S. the most highly stressed job in the U.S. is that of: a) used car salesperson. b) school principle. c) firefighter. d) air traffic controller.

Answer c Page 184

25. One example of a job that is not generally stressful is: a) actuary. b) public relations executive. c) real estate agent. d) advertising account executive.

Answer a Page 184 .

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Chapter 5 Coping with Organizational Life: Emotions and Stress

26. When people confront incompatible demands from their work and personal lives, they experience: a) role conflict. b) qualitative overload. c) role ambiguity. d) social isolation.

Answer a Page 185

27. Switching back and forth between the demands of work and family is called: a) role conflict. b) role juggling. c) role ambiguity. d) qualitative overload.

Answer b Page 185

28. Ronald is an apprentice chef who is uncertain of several aspects of his job. He may be expected to experience which of the following? a) role conflict b) qualitative overload c) role ambiguity d) social isolation Answer c Page 186

29. Stress results when people feel a great deal of uncertainty about what they are expected to do on the job. This results in stress from: a) role conflict. b) qualitative overload. c) role ambiguity. d) social isolation.

Answer c Page 186

30. When a person experiences stress due to gender-related unwanted communication or contact, she is likely experiencing which of the following: a) role conflict. b) quantitative underload. c) role ambiguity. d) sexual harassment.

Answer d Page 186

31. When asked whether they had ever been the object of sexual advances, propositions, or unwanted sexual discussions from men who supervise them, ________ of the women surveyed answered “yes”. a) 30% b) 40% c) 50% d) 60% Answer a Page 186

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32. The current state of the problem of sexual harassment in the workplace is indicated by the fact that: a) men are now experiencing sexual harassment more than women. b) one-half of the men polled in a recent survey admitted to having done something that might be construed as sexual harassment. c) over 2/3 of employed women indicated they had been the object of sexual harassment. d) there has been a significant decline in sexual harassment complaints filed with the EEOC. Answer b Page 186

33. Of 1300 Americans surveyed, what percentage reported that they routinely skipped lunch? a) 25% b) 40% c) 50% d) 75% Answer c

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187

34. Of 1300 Americans surveyed, what percentage reported that worked over 12 hours a day? a) 25% b) 37% c) 52% d) 75% Answer c

Page

187

35. If you are suffering from information anxiety you feel: a) bombarded by information. b) guilty because you lack important information. c) worried that you may be caught not knowing something that others know. d) Any of the above.

Answer d Page 187

36. People experience stress when: a) expectations over role are resolved. b) they have too little to do. c) role ambiguity is relieved. d) they have no responsibility for others.

Answer b Page 188

37. As a general rule, the effects of stress on task performance are: a) mostly negative. b) curvilinear in nature. c) mostly positive. d) negative at moderate levels, but positive at higher levels.

Answer a Page 188

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38. Some people violate the general rule regarding stress and function very well even under high levels of stress. This is likely to be the case when: a) they are highly skilled. b) they perceive the situation as a threat. c) the task at hand is perceived as very easy. d) they are Type B personalities.

Answer a Page 188

39. In the U.S., stress-related problems are linked to ________ of all premature deaths. a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 90% Answer b

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189

40. Chronically stressed workers were over ________ times as likely as their non-stressed counterparts to suffer metabolic syndrome. a) two b) three c) four d) five Answer a Page 189

41. According to some estimates, stress plays a role in ________ percent of physical illness. a) 20-30 b) 30-40 c) 40-60 d) 50-70 Answer d

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189

42. Stressful situations for a parent at work will result in: a) stress in children. b) no impact on children. c) poor grades for their children. d) juvenile delinquency in their children Answer a Page 189

43. One example of a health problem that can be caused by stress is: a) stroke. b) cirrhosis of the liver. c) lung disease. d) All of the above.

Answer d Page 190

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44. Which of the following is NOT a behavioral consequence of stress: a) smoking. b) drug abuse. c) alcohol abuse. d) family conflict.

Answer d Page 190

45. Which of the following is a psychological consequence of stress? a) Smoking. b) drug abuse. c) alcohol abuse. d) family conflict.

Answer d Page 190

46. Which of the following is NOT a medical consequence of stress? a) ulcers. b) cancer. c) alcohol abuse. d) diabetes.

Answer c Page 190

47. Lashing out at others in response to stressful encounters on the job is referred to as: a) work rage. b) burnout. c) desk rage. d) None of the above.

Answer c Page 190

48. What percentage of workers reported that yelling and verbal abuse took place at work? a) 15% b) 30% c) 42% d) 75% Answer c

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49. Ray is feeling helpless, depressed, and trapped in his job after three months of 100 hour work weeks weren’t sufficient to win a big contract for his company. Ray is probably experiencing: a) work strain. b) emotional exhaustion. c) physical exhaustion. d) cognitive exhaustion.

Answer b Page 190

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50. Characteristics of depersonalization include: a) attitudinal exhaustion. b) tendency to become cynical. c) tendency to treat others as objects. d) All of the above.

Answer d Page 190

51. In dealing with desk rage, experts suggest that: a) you identify the trigger. b) deal with the feud within the workplace. c) try to confront the person. d) encourage all involved to confront the issue immediately.

Answer a Page 191

52. Which of the following characteristics of burnout is associated with low energy? a) depersonalization b) emotional exhaustion c) physical exhaustion d) feelings of low personal accomplishment Answer c Page 191

53. Which of the following characteristics of burnout is associated with feelings of helplessness and depression? a) depersonalization b) emotional exhaustion c) physical exhaustion d) feelings of low personal accomplishment Answer b Page 191

54. Which of the following characteristics of burnout is associated with attitudinal exhaustion? a) depersonalization b) emotional exhaustion c) physical exhaustion d) feelings of low personal accomplishment Answer a Page 191

55. Which of the following characteristics of burnout is associated with the feeling that one hasn’t been able to accomplish much? a) depersonalization b) emotional exhaustion c) physical exhaustion d) feelings of low personal accomplishment Answer d Page 191

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56. When Jose thinks about his work, he has a nagging feeling that he hasn’t been able to accomplish much. This is an example of: a) Depersonalization. b) emotional exhaustion. c) physical exhaustion. d) feelings of low personal accomplishment.

Answer d Page 191

57. Julia has powerful feelings of helplessness and a sense of ongoing depression. This is an example of: a) Depersonalization. b) emotional exhaustion. c) physical exhaustion. d) feelings of low personal accomplishment.

Answer b Page 191

58. Plans that help employees with problems such as substance abuse, career planning, and legal problems are called: a) stress management programs. b) organizational citizenship programs. c) employee assistance programs. d) none of these.

Answer c Page 191

59. Burnout can be caused by: a) not feeling appreciated. b) prolonged exposure to stress. c) poor opportunities for promotion. d) all of the above.

Answer d Page 192

60. In what percentage of cases in which EAP services are provided are work losses avoided? a) 15% b) 30% c) 40% d) 60% Answer d

Page

192

61. An organization attempting to lower its employees’ levels of stress could: a) raise their pay. b) implement wellness programs. c) start a job enrichment program. d) do all of the above.

Answer b Page 192

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62. In what percentage of larger companies have wellness programs? a) 15% b) 30% c) 56% d) 90% Answer c

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192

63. According to a recent comprehensive survey comparing the stressors forced by men and women in the workplace, it was concluded that: a) women encountered more changes and greater pressure to perform well on the job. b) women managed their time less efficiently than men. c) women suffered more physical, behavioral, and emotional symptoms of stress than men. d) All of the above.

Answer d Page 193

64. The practice of showing up for work but being too sick to be able to work effectively is known as: a) wellness. b) presentism. c) depression. d) mood congruence.

Answer b Page 193

65. One of the most important considerations when managing time is: a) assigning priorities to tasks. b) accurately assessing how much time each task will take. c) carefully keeping track of what needs to be accomplished. d) all of the above.

Answer d Page 194

66. Research has shown that when people have social support: a) their ability to resist the adverse effects of stress increases. b) their ability to resist the adverse effects of stress decreases. c) they experience less strength. d) they are less likely to experience role ambiguity.

Answer a Page 194

67. The effects of stress can be minimized by: a) taking work problems home at the end of the day and working on them at your leisure. b) getting into better physical condition. c) using emotion-focused coping rather than problem-focused coping. d) consuming less fiber-rich foods.

Answer b Page 194

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68. The process of learning to clear one's mind of external thoughts is called: a) relaxation training. b) meditation. c) coping. d) focusing.

Answer b Page 194

69. When confronted with rising tension, people may find it useful to consciously choose to insert a brief period of delay known as: a) meditation. b) time-out. c) equilibrium restoration. d) none of the above.

Answer b Page 195 Mini-Case Questions Table 5.1 Will is experiencing stress at work because he is not clear about what to do in his new job, what his work priorities should be. His boss is out due to major surgery and no one else knows what his job is. Jane is a typical 90’s woman; good career, married, and with a small child. As her career advances she is experiencing more and more stress because her husband wants her home more. Her parents are proud of her career success but keep saying things like, “no sense having children if you’re going to let someone else raise them.” Tom is in a matrix reporting relationship with several other people. His boss has authority over the whole matrix, Tom does not, yet Tom is responsible for the performance of the people in the matrix. He isn’t sure who he can tell what to do and who he has to let his boss tell. A deadline is approaching and Tom is stressed out. Tom’s boss, John, is also stressed. He isn’t clarifying who reports to whom because he worries about everyone and doesn’t want to let go of watching over them. He thinks that he may have to terminate Jane because her home situation is interfering so much with work that it is creating problems for the project. He is agonizing over this--having been fired once in his career, he knows how painful it can be.

70. Refer to Table 5.1. Jane’s stress seems most likely to be caused by: a) quantitative overload. b) role conflict. c) sexual harassment. d) role ambiguity.

Answer b Page 185

71. Refer to Table 5.1. Tom’s stress is being caused by: a) quantitative overload. b) role conflict. c) qualitative overload. d) role ambiguity.

Answer d Page 186

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72. Refer to Table 5.1. Which of the following organizational strategies would be of the most help to Will at this point in his career? a) More information about his job duties b) family-supportive practices c) a stress management program d) life balancing through exercise and diet Answer a Page 186

73. Refer to Table 5.1. Will is experiencing stress due to: a) quantitative overload. b) role conflict. c) qualitative overload. d) role ambiguity.

Answer d Page 186

74. Refer to Table 5.1. John’ stress is apparently a function of: a) being responsible for others. b) social isolation. c) qualitative overload. d) role ambiguity.

Answer a Page 188 True/False Questions

75. An emotion can be defined as a feeling that exists in the background and is not overt Answer F

Page

170

76. People throughout the world generally portray the same emotions by using the same facial expressions.

Answer T Page

171

77. Culture has little to do with how and when people express emotions Answer F

Page

171

78. Cultural norms in Great Britain encourage people there to “tone down” their emotional displays.

Answer T

Page

171

79. People have an infinite number of different emotions.

Answer F

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171

80. There are 5 major categories of emotions.

Answer F

Page

171

81. Jobs that include decision making responsibilities are less stressful than nondecision making jobs because the ability to make decision gives the employee more control.

Answer F Page 184 87

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82. For sexual harassment to exist there must be overt, extreme, and unpleasant actions of a sexual nature directly specifically at a person of the opposite sex.

Answer F Page 186

83. It can be as stressful to have too little to do as it is to have too much to do.

Answer T

Page

188

84. Approximately 40% of U.S. workers rate their jobs as highly stressful.

Answer T

Page

189

85. 83% of people would prefer to have a $10,000 per year raise than an extra hour per day at home.

Answer T

Page

189

86. Authorities believe that stress contributes to 50 to 70 percent of all forms of physical illness.

Answer T

Page

189

87. Increased stress at work for fathers is associated with higher levels of attempted suicide by their children.

Answer T

Page

189

88. A psychological consequence of stress is drug abuse.

Answer F

Page

190

89. A medical consequence of stress is diabetes.

Answer T

Page

190

90. Burnout can be marked by cynical attitudes, a tendency to minimize your own contributions, and a feeling of physical or emotional depletion.

Answer T Page 190

91. A symptom of depersonalization is attitudinal exhaustion.

Answer T

Page

190

92. Women generally face more stressors than men.

Answer T

Page

193

93. Women cope more effectively with stressors than men because they are able to manage their time more efficiently.

Answer F Page

193

94. Time management can be an effective personal stress management strategy.

Answer T

Page

194

95. One downfall of a strong social support system is that it can sometimes cause more stress by providing diversion.

Answer F Page 194

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Essay Questions Major Essay

96. Given the emotional fallout since September 11, 2001, companies found it necessary to cope in ways that may never have considered earlier. According to this, Dr. Steven E. Hyman, former director of the National Institutes of Mental Health offers four things that companies can do to help in these types of situations. Briefly describe each one.

Answer – First, leaders should provide accurate information. It is not always clear what to do, but whatever is being done to promote workplace safety should be communicated clearly to all. Second, encourage social interaction. During periods of emotional stress, one of the most effective ways to cope is by interacting with others. Third, health services should be promoted. Companies should take care of themselves, taking full advantage of the medical, counseling, and health club services that may be available. Finally, try to return to normalcy. We all like having our routines and it is useful to try to get back to “business as usual.”

Page 182

97. Identify and explain the sources of work-related stress.

Answer - Work settings often are highly stressful environments. 1) Occupational demands--some jobs, such as firefighters, senior executive, surgeon, expose workers to high levels of stress. 2) Conflict between work and nonwork--competing demands--the constant juggling of work and family responsibilities, which in turn exposes those involved to another widely recognized cause of stress: role conflict, or the incompatibility between the expectations of parties or the aspects of a single role.

3) Role ambiguity--occurs when individuals experience uncertainty about what actions they should take to meet the requirements of a job. 4) Overload and underload--overload, can take two different forms. Quantitative overload occurs when individuals are asked to do more work than they can complete in a specific period of time. In contrast, qualitative overload refers to employees' beliefs that they lack the required skills or abilities to perform a given job. Being asked to do too little can be stressful. Here again, there are two types of underload. Quantitative underload refers to the boredom that results from having too little to do. Qualitative underload refers to the lack of mental stimulation that accompanies many routine, repetitive jobs. 5) Lack of social support--managers often feel alone, especially when making undesirable decisions. 6) Sexual harassment--is far from rare in today's workplace. Indeed, in one recent poll, fully 31 percent of employed women indicated they had encountered such harassment at least once. In contrast, only 7 percent of male respondents to the same survey indicated they had been the victim of such actions. 7) Responsibility for others-- people who are responsible for others--people who must motivate them, reward or punish them, and communicate with them--experience higher levels of stress and the physical symptoms accompanying it (e.g., hypertension) than those who handle other organizational areas.

Pages 183-188

98. Discuss those conditions under which individuals at work are more likely to experience higher levels of stress.

Answer - The conditions under which individuals are likely to experience higher levels of stress are those in which the following activities exist: 1) making decisions, 2) performing boring tasks, 3) repeatedly exchanging information with others, 4) working in unpleasant physical conditions, and 5) performing unstructured rather than structured tasks.

Page 184

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99. What are the major effects of stress?

Answer - Stress can effect job performance. For some in will enhance performance, for most it will cause a deterioration in quality, “choking under pressure,” unpleasant feelings, etc. It can lead to burnout and physical, emotional, and/or attitudinal exhaustion. It can significantly affect health, contributing to the development of degenerative diseases or weakening defenses against infectious diseases.

Pages 188-191

100. Describe the major effects of organizational stress.

Answer – The most current evidence suggests that stress exerts mainly negative effects on tasks performance. The greater the stress people encounter on the job; the more adversely affected their job performance tends to be. Stress can also create a source of desk rage, or the lashing out at others in response to stressful encounters on the job. Burnout is another side effect of organizational stress.

Burnout is a syndrome of emotional, physical, and mental exhaustion coupled with feelings of low self-esteem or low-self-efficacy. Stress has been dubbed the silent killer creating some of the most serious and life-threatening ailments known to medical science.

Pages 188-191 Short Essay

101. What are the four key properties of basic emotions?

Answer – 1. Emotions always have an object. 2. There are six major categories of emotions. 3.

Expression of major emotions is universal. 4. Culture determines how and when people express emotions.

Pages 170-171

102. Differentiate between emotional dissonance and emotional labor.

Answer – Emotional dissonance are the inconsistencies between the emotions we feel and the emotions we express. Emotional labor is the psychological effort involved in holding back one’s true emotions.

Pages 177-179

103. What problems is stress causing for individuals and organizations in the U.S.? Just what constitutes stress?

Answer - Although not always life threatening, stress can have devastating effects on nearly all aspects of human behavior and organizational functioning.  Unscheduled absences due to stress have tripled from 1995 to 1999 and cost companies $602 per year for each employee.  On average, companies spend a quarter of after after-tax profits on medical bills.  26 percent of people feel used up at the end of the workday.  28 percent work so hard they do not have time or energy to spend with families.  In the United States, stress-related problems are linked to half of all premature deaths.

The text defines stress as a complex pattern of emotional states, physiological reactions, and related thoughts in response to external demands. These external demands are referred to as stressors. The related terms, strain, refers to the accumulated effects of stress, primarily deviations from normal states or performance resulting from exposure to stressful events. These effects can involve physical symptoms, reduced performance, and other changes in behavior. .

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Chapter 5 Coping with Organizational Life: Emotions and Stress Page 189

104. What is meant by "burnout," and what are its major characteristics?

Answer - Burnout is an exhaustion-based syndrome. It can be; physical--reduced energy and symptoms of physical strain, emotional--feelings of depression and helplessness, and/or attitudinal-feelings of low personal accomplishment.

Page 190

105. Your text offers both personal and organizational strategies for managing stress. Name and briefly explain the personal strategies offered.

Answer - 1. Lifestyle management. 2. Physiological techniques of relaxation and meditation. 3.

Cognitive techniques--thinking out of stress.

Page 194

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Part 3 - The Individual in the Organization Chapter 6 - Work-Related Attitudes: Prejudice, Job Satisfaction and Organizational Commitment Multiple Choice Questions

1. In the wake of the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks, meetings were held at Ford Motor Company to: a) help employees better understand Islamic culture and the Muslim religion. b) discuss ways to refocus the public’s attention toward domestic spending. c) help employees cope with the tragedy. d) none of the above.

Answer a Page 205

2. Attitudes are made up of three basic components including: a) a behavioral component. b) a self-efficacy component. c) an affective component. d) an organizational commitment component.

Answer a Page 206

3. When we speak of liking or disliking someone or something, we are talking about the ________ component of our attitude toward that person or object. a) behavioral b) cognitive c) affective d) evaluative Answer d Page 207

4. Kim knows that all women bosses are difficult to work with, so she’s not looking forward to meeting her boss. Turns out her boss is both competent and pleasant. Kim’s “knowledge” of her boss is an example of which component of an attitude? a) Behavioral b) Cognitive c) Affective d) Evaluative Answer b Page 207

5. Dirk tends to put as little effort into his job as possible because he believes what he does at work has little impact on how he is viewed, compensated, or promoted. Dirk's actions represent the ________ component of his attitude about work. a) evaluative b) cognitive c) affective d) behavioral Answer d Page 207

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6. Attitudes are: a) temporary feelings about something. b) a combination of positive and/or negative feelings about one’s job. c) relatively long-lasting clusters of feelings, beliefs, and behavior tendencies. d) negative views of others based on the group one believes they belong to.

Answer c Page 207

7. A prejudicial attitude is made up of several elements, including: a) a negative stereotype. b) an evaluative judgment. c) a behavioral predisposition. d) all of these.

Answer d Page 208

8. A negative attitude we hold toward another, based on his/her membership in a particular group, is called: a) a stereotype. b) discrimination. c) groupism. d) a prejudice.

Answer d Page 208

9. White men now represent less than ________ percent of the American work force. a) 50 b) 40 c) 30 d) 20 Answer a

Page

208

10. The nature of the workforce composition, in terms of age, gender and ethnic makeup, is known as: a) organizational logistics. b) organizational demography. c) discriminatory analysis. d) stereotype recognition.

Answer b Page 208

11. Which of the following is true about companies experience with older workers? a) They tend to be out sick more often. b) Most companies have found older workers difficult to train and slow to learn. c) They have good skills, high commitment, and strong safety records. d) Younger workers tend to displace them.

Answer c Page 210

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12. The law enacted to safeguard the rights of people with physical and mental disabilities was the: a) Civil Rights Act of 1991. b) Equal Employment Opportunities Act. c) Labor Relations Act of 1978. d) Americans with Disabilities Act. Answer d Page 212

13. Which of the following types of discrimination is not currently prohibited by law? a) Discrimination based on age b) Discrimination based on sexual orientation c) Discrimination based on physical condition d) Discrimination based on gender Answer b Page 212

14. Complaints of prejudice and discrimination are filed at the: a) Congressional Office. b) Center for Discrimination Studies. c) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. d) Equal Opportunity Administration.

Answer c Page 213

15. A survey of American workers has shown that religious bias: a) negatively impacts performance in almost half the people who reported it. b) negatively impacts performance in almost a fourth of the people who reported it. c) negatively impacts performance in almost three-quarters of people who reported it. d) does not negatively impact performance.

Answer a Page 213

16. When it comes to discrimination: a) all minorities feel they have to perform better than whites to get ahead. b) only Asian-Americans feel that people of color are excluded from informal work networks by whites. c) more whites than minorities agree that minorities are penalized more for mistakes than whites. d) all of these are true.

Answer a Page 214

17. A study by the American Society for Training and Development of Fortune 1000 companies on diversity found that: a) only 11% thought it was a high priority. b) nearly 1/2 of all companies were doing nothing at all. c) about 1/3 of all companies thought it was a top priority. d) 83% reported it was a fad and they were doing nothing in that area.

Answer a Page 215

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18. After the awareness of senior managers of the importance of diversity management, the second most important reason companies engage in diversity management as reported by 90% of respondents, is: a) governmental pressure. b) the need to attract and retain employees. c) societal pressure. d) to improve their financial picture.

Answer b Page 215

19. The study by the Society for Human Resource Management found that the most common type of activity for fostering diversity in the workplace was: a) promoting policies discouraging sexual harassment. b) providing physical access for disabled employees. c) allowing days off for religious holidays. d) offering parental leaves.

Answer a Page 215

20. A study of diversity programs showed that while diversity management practices were widespread: a) they were having little affect on management attitudes. b) only 30% of companies with them are evaluating their effectiveness. c) only about 7% thought they were a high priority. d) the major focus was on the disabled and not other protected employee groups.

Answer b Page 216

21. The results of 30 years of affirmative action programs are: a) not clear. b) women and minorities are in a worse position than they were. c) minorities have advanced but women have not. d) they have been effective in bring women and minorities into the workforce.

Answer d Page 216

22. Diversity management programs that focus on getting people to recognize their underlying assumptions are known as: a) awareness-based diversity training. b) skill-based diversity training. c) facilitation skills training. d) intercultural communication training.

Answer a Page 217

23. When a company conducts training to help people recognize their underlying assumptions about others’ behavior, the company is conducting: a) awareness-based diversity training. b) facilitation skill diversity training. c) skill-based diversity training. d) flexibility and adaptability diversity training.

Answer a Page 217

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24. All of the following statements about affirmative action are true except: a) affirmative action has led to increased representation of women in the workplace. b) affirmative action program has increased the self-esteem of racial minorities. c) affirmative action programs are largely unsupported by the public. d) affirmative action programs specify that only qualified minorities be hired.

Answer c Page 218

25. For every dollar earned by men, women earn: a) 53 cents. b) 63 cents. c) 75 cents. d) 92 cents.

Answer c Page

218

26. Understanding why Italians and Norwegians behave differently on the job would involve which of the following tools of skills-based training? a) Cross-cultural understanding. b) skill-based diversity training. c) flexibility and adaptability. d) intercultural communication.

Answer a Page 218

27. Training on how to help others alleviate misunderstanding that may result from cultural differences would involve which of the following tools of skills-based training? a) Cross-cultural understanding. b) Facilitation skills. c) flexibility and adaptability. d) intercultural communication.

Answer b Page 218

28. Joe believes that most of his company’s employees are fairly aware of cultural differences among the diverse workforce. But he feels they need some help in alleviating misunderstandings that may come from those differences. To help this problem he should implement what type of training? a) Cross-cultural understanding b) Intercultural communication c) Facilitation skills d) Flexibility and adaptability Answer c Page 218

29. Cultivating the ability to patiently take new and different approaches when dealing with others who are different would involve which of the following tools of skills-based training? a) Cross-cultural understanding. b) skill-based diversity training. c) flexibility and adaptability. d) intercultural communication.

Answer c Page 218 .

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30. For diversity management to work companies need: a) to focus on the average differences among people. b) top management support pressuring lower management to comply. c) total managerial support. d) an affirmative action plan.

Answer c Page 220

31. According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, which of the following is most likely to be associated with job satisfaction? a) Opportunities for promotion b) Pleasant working conditions c) High pay d) Interpersonal relationships with fellow workers Answer a Page 221

32. According to two-factor (motivator-hygiene) theory, dissatisfaction: a) generally is based in the work itself. b) is simply the absence of satisfaction. c) comes from the lack of motivators. d) comes from the conditions that surround the job.

Answer d Page 221

33. An example of a hygiene factor, according to the two-factor theory, is: a) pay. b) physical working conditions. c) job security. d) all of the above.

Answer d Page 222

34. According to Herzberg, employees are motivated by ________, not by ________. a) quality of supervision; job security b) recognition; pay c) achievement; promotional opportunities d) pay; working conditions Answer b Page 222

35. According to "value theory," people are dissatisfied with their jobs when: a) they don’t have enough responsibility for the work they do. b) the outcomes they receive do not match the outcomes they desire. c) they are dissatisfied with their supervisors. d) their inputs exceed what they expected in outcomes.

Answer b Page 223

36. Values theory suggests that: a) the values of the supervisor impact worker motivation. b) what needs to be changed to improve job satisfaction is not the same for all people. c) coworker values will enhance employee motivation.

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Part 3 - The Individual in the Organization d) employees will withdraw from their jobs only at a certain threshold of dissatisfaction.

Answer b Page 223

37. The most common tool used to assess job satisfaction is: a) questionnaires. b) critical incidents technique. c) interviews. d) participant observation.

Answer a Page 225 38. The JDI is a measure of job satisfaction that uses which of the following methods? a) Critical incidents b) Questionnaires c) Interviews d) Participant observation Answer b Page 225

39. A researcher is asking employees to indicate how satisfied or dissatisfied they are with various aspects of their job, he/she would be using a: a) Job Descriptive Index. b) Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire. c) Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire. d) Critical Incident Technique.

Answer b Page 225

40. The PSQ measures employees' reactions to: a) working conditions and supervision. b) the work itself. c) the personalities of their co-workers and superiors. d) pay level, raises, and pay structure.

Answer d Page 225 41. A manager wants to measure employees' attitudes toward their fringe benefits. He/she should use the: a) Job Descriptive Index. b) Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire. c) Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire. d) Job Satisfaction Index.

Answer c Page 225

42. Which of the following is NOT a measure of job satisfaction? a) job description index b) Minnesota satisfaction questionnaire c) pay satisfaction questionnaire d) critical incidents questionnaire Answer d Page 226

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Chapter 6 Work-Related Attitudes: Prejudice, Job Satisfaction and Organizational Commitment

43. John's supervisor asks him to keep a daily log for one week describing work events that make him feel satisfied and dissatisfied. John's supervisor is probably using which technique to measure John's job satisfaction? a) Participant observation b) Interview c) Critical incident technique d) Confrontational meeting Answer c Page 226

44. Company officials interested in discovering first-hand, in-depth information concerning employees' concerns and being able to explore those concerns, would want to use the: a) interview technique. b) critical incident technique. c) Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire. d) confrontational meeting technique.

Answer a Page 226

45. The most effective tool for gathering employee reactions to complex and difficult situations is: a) participant observation. b) interview. c) critical incident technique. d) questionnaires.

Answer b Page 226

46. Job dissatisfaction may impact which of the following variables? a) Unemployment, unionization, and organizational commitment. b) Absenteeism, turnover, and job performance. c) Work-related attitudes, prejudice, and unemployment. d) Organizational commitment, organizational citizenship, and involuntary turnover.

Answer b Page 227

47. Studies have shown that job dissatisfaction tends to be associated with: a) high rates of absenteeism. b) low rates of voluntary turnover. c) moderate job performance. d) high unemployment rates.

Answer a Page 227

48. The “shock to the system” helps to explain: a) hangover effect. b) decision frames. c) honeymoon effect. d) turnover.

Answer d Page 228 99

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49. People’s satisfaction with their job is inclined to drop over time, from when they first start in the position to later when they have experience in the positions. This is known as: a) hangover effect. b) social information processing. c) honeymoon effect. d) unfolding model of turnover.

Answer a Page 229

50. The internalized set of rules and images regarding how to interpret something that has occurred is known as: a) decision frames. b) honeymoon effect. c) social information processing. d) turnover.

Answer a Page 229 51. People are likely to enjoy high levels of satisfaction on new jobs that they have taken in response to dissatisfaction in their old job. This is known as: a) hangover effect. b) social information processing. c) honeymoon effect. d) unfolding model of turnover.

Answer d Page 229

52. Research shows that the relationship between job satisfaction and job performance is: a) very strong, the higher the satisfaction the better the performance. b) nonexistent, satisfaction has no relationship to organizational productivity. c) positive but not strong, satisfaction does somewhat impact performance. d) one that depends on the time of supervision and the level of control the employee has.

Answer c Page 230

53. The limited relationship between job satisfaction and job performance may be due to: a) the fact that job satisfaction is largely a function of personal attitude. b) the fact that job performance and satisfaction are actually linked to rewards not each other. c) the cognitive processes employees use to determine their level of satisfaction. d) all of these reasons.

Answer b Page 231

54. Job satisfaction is not a good predictor of: a) work performance. b) absenteeism. c) voluntary turnover. d) all of the above.

Answer a Page 231

55. The relationship between job satisfaction and mood shows that they are: .

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Chapter 6 Work-Related Attitudes: Prejudice, Job Satisfaction and Organizational Commitment a) closely linked at work. b) impacted each other. c) impacted work moods. d) all of the above.

Answer d Page 233

56. Recent research suggests that employee job satisfaction will increase if: a) employees perceive that the pay system is fair. b) employees are given more control over their jobs. c) people are matched to jobs based on their interests. d) all of the above are done.

Answer d Page 233

57. Which of the following are ways to promote job satisfaction? a) Improve the quality of supervision. b) Make jobs fun more difficult c) Create pay systems based on seniority. d) Match people to jobs that differ from their interests.

Answer a Page 233

58. Matching people to jobs that fir their interests will help to promote: a) organizational citizenship behaviors b) quality of supervision c) decentralization d) job satisfaction Answer d Page 233

59. The degree to which the capacity to make decisions resides in several people, as opposed to just a handful, is known as: a) decentralization. b) organizational commitment. c) organizational citizenship behavior d) social information processing.

Answer a Page 234

60. The extent to which people identify with, and are involved in, their organizations is known as: a) job satisfaction. b) organizational commitment. c) organizational citizenship. d) motivation.

Answer b Page 234

61. Organizational commitment: a) is unrelated to job satisfaction. b) has a much stronger relationship to job satisfaction than job performance does. c) is a function of employee attitude based on the management style of their managers. d) is synonymous with job satisfaction.

Answer a Page 235

62. Max stays with XYZ company because he fears he cannot get another job this is an example of: 101

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Part 3 - The Individual in the Organization a) a cognitive commitment. b) affective commitment. c) normative commitment. d) continuance commitment.

Answer d Page 235

63. When people are willing to stay in an organization because they share its goals, they have: a) a normative commitment. b) an affective commitment. c) a cognitive commitment. d) a continuance commitment.

Answer b Page 236

64. Suppose Larry has been looking for another job, but his boss and co-workers pressure him to stay. If Larry stays, it is an example of: a) affective commitment. b) normative commitment. c) hygiene commitment. d) continuance commitment.

Answer b Page 236 65. The consequences of organizational commitment include: a) lower compensation costs because companies to have to pay as much to retain workers. b) negative personal consequences. c) employees are less likely to withdraw. d) employees become unwillingness to make sacrifices.

Answer c Page 237

66. The Canadian approach to absenteeism is that: a) workers should be paid if they are absent due to illness. b) workers should not take off due to illness. c) managers should closely track absenteeism. d) absenteeism shows a lack of self-control.

Answer a Page 237

67. In China: a) managers pay less attention to absenteeism than managers do in Canada. b) employees often go home or are absent from work due to illness. c) workers are often paid more for not working due to illness than for working. d) workers are more likely to take time off from work for personal issues than in Canada.

Answer d Page 237

68. Feelings of organizational commitment are enhanced by: a) enriching individual’s jobs. b) centralizing control and responsibility. c) the use of progressive discipline to align individual values with the organization’s values. d) improving hygiene factors at work.

Answer a Page 238

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Chapter 6 Work-Related Attitudes: Prejudice, Job Satisfaction and Organizational Commitment

69. The use of profit-sharing plans and other such long-term compensation techniques are one way to: a) manage the hygiene factors that improve organizational commitment. b) use recruitment to select new people whose values match the company’s. c) align the interests of the employees with those of the company. d) enrich jobs and make employees feel more responsible.

Answer c Page 238 Mini-Case Questions Table 6.1 Three middle managers are discussing their attitudes about work over lunch. Lee is expressing how much he likes working for his boss, but he dislikes his current work assignment—it’s too tedious. He’s looking forward to its completion so he can move on to more exciting work. Tim tells his luncheon partners that he’s convinced he got his current position because his previous boss wanted to help him along in his career. (Tim doesn’t know his previous boss couldn’t stand him and wanted to move him out of his area.) Tim is very happy because he believes he has the right skill mix to be successful in his new position. Andrea tells everyone that she is looking for another job. She has been for several months, but “the right thing hasn’t come along yet.” She has advanced her career by changing jobs every 12-18 months. Their fourth luncheon partner, Leslie, is also unhappy on the job and looking for another position. She believes that her current boss is threatened by her competence and is holding her back from greater opportunities. Leslie wants to stay with the company but wants to work for someone else.

70. Refer to Table 6.1. In terms of the components of an attitude, Lee’s comments reveal the ________ component more than any other component of his attitudes toward work. a) behavioral b) cognitive c) affective d) evaluative Answer d Page 206

71. Refer to Table 6.1. Leslie’s thoughts about her boss’ role in her career display the ________ component of Leslie’s attitudes about her work. a) behavioral b) cognitive c) affective d) evaluative Answer b Page 207

72. Refer to Table 6.1. Andrea’s comments focus on the ________ component of her attitudes toward her job. a) behavioral b) cognitive 103

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207

73. Refer to Table 6.1. Based on research on job satisfaction and job changes, what results might you predict for Leslie or Andrea when they change jobs? a) They both will be much more satisfied in a new job. b) Andrea will experience greater satisfaction because of her past success, while Leslie will not because of her attitude toward her boss. c) Their level of dissatisfaction will not change significantly. d) None of these.

Answer c Page 228 Table 6.2 As a new manager Bell is trying to figure out how to motivate his staff. Bell has modified his management style, improved working conditions, and even raised everyone’s pay about 5%, but job satisfaction has not increased. His boss, Zack, thinks that Bell should focus on praising his employees more, giving them greater responsibilities, and encouraging them to try for more responsible positions within the company. Bell’s wife tells him his problem is that his staff is not getting what they expect out of the job. They aren’t finding what they really want creative outlets and learning opportunities from their work, and unless he helps them deal with these discrepancies, they aren’t going to be motivated.

74. Refer to Table 6.2. Zack’s focus and direction to Bell is to pay attention to: a) motivators. b) hygiene factors. c) values. d) organizational commitment.

Answer a Page 221

75. Refer to Table 6.2. Bell’s focus in motivating his staff has been on: a) motivators. b) hygiene factors. c) values. d) organizational commitment.

Answer b Page 221

76. Refer to Table 6.2. Bell’s wife is seeing the problem in terms of: a) Herzberg’s two-factor theory. b) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. c) Locke’s value theory. d) organizational commitment.

Answer c Page 223

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Table 6.3 GH, Inc. is conducting an assessment of its employee’s job satisfaction. They want to reach a broad range of employees quickly and easily. They are primarily concerned with knowing if people are satisfied with various aspects of their current jobs, rather than their general job satisfaction. Once they have this initial round of information, they want to follow up with a selected group of employees. They will ask these employees to describe how various events related to their jobs contribute to their job satisfaction or dissatisfaction. The VP of Human Resources has been assessing all the data. He feels that more specific, in-depth information needs to be gathered a couple of sensitive issues. He wants to have open, honest feedback with a promise by upper management of no retaliation against the employees. He thinks there are some serious issues underlying the general answers of the initial data collection.

77. Refer to Table 6.3. GH, Inc.’s best choice of category of tool for assessing job satisfaction would be: a) questionnaires. b) confrontational meetings. c) interviews. d) the critical incident technique.

Answer a Page 225

78. Refer to Table 6.3. Their best choice of a specific tool for assessing job satisfaction would be the: a) Job Diagnostic Index. b) Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire. c) Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire. d) Happiness Survey.

Answer b Page 225

79. Refer to Table 6.3. If the company wanted to focus on employees’ satisfaction with pay raises and fringe benefits, they would use the: a) Job Diagnostic Index. b) Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire. c) Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire. d) Happiness Survey.

Answer c Page 225

80. Refer to Table 6.3. For their second round of information gathering, their best choice of a category of tool for assessing job satisfaction would be: a) questionnaires. b) confrontational meetings. c) interviews. d) the critical incident technique.

Answer d Page 226 True/False Questions

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81. The behavioral component of an attitude is our predisposition to act in a certain way.

Answer T

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207

82. A prejudice is the behavioral expression of a negative attitude.

Answer F

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208

83. While prejudice can make the work environment unpleasant for the person it is directed towards, it seldom has any real effect on the individual's career.

Answer F Page 208

84. Prejudice in the work place can be based on age in that younger workers can find themselves the victims of prejudice as much as older workers.

Answer T Page 210

85. Equality for women in the workplace is improving significantly as a survey of executives shows. 82% report they expect to appoint a women CEO within the next 10 years in their companies.

Answer F Page 212

86. A recent survey found that the percentage of Americans holding favorable views of Muslims actually increased following the September 11 terrorist attacks.

Answer T Page 214

87. Generally speaking companies are doing more not less to encourage diversity.

Answer T Page 215 88. The number one factor in causing companies to engage in diversity management is the awareness of the need by senior managers.

Answer T Page 215

89. The most prominent way companies are promoting diversity is through flexible work schedules or permitting employees to take religious holidays.

Answer F Page 215

90. Eighty percent of Americans currently believe that affirmative action is a good idea.

Answer T

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218

91. Diversity management works best when companies focus on the differences among people rather than on stereotypical images-whether positive stereotypes or not.

Answer T Page 219

92. According to the two-factor theory, job satisfaction is associated with the conditions surrounding the job, whereas job dissatisfaction is associated with the work itself.

Answer F Page 221

93. Bill and Tom are discussing how much they like their boss and how well everyone seems to get along in their work unit. In terms of two-factor theory they are discussing the hygiene factors of their job.

Answer T Page 221 .

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94. According to the dispositional model of job satisfaction, people who like whatever job they’re doing at one point in time are expected to like the jobs they’re doing at another point in time, even if they’re doing different jobs.

Answer T Page 222

95. The key to satisfaction in value theory is the difference between what outcomes one wants from his/her job and what outcomes he/she actual receive from the job.

Answer T Page 223

96. The most common approach to measuring job satisfaction is through the use of interviews.

Answer F

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225

97. One disadvantage of the MSQ and the PSQ is that these rating scales are time consuming and costly to administer.

Answer F Page

226

98. In terms of organizational commitment, continuance commitment is the strength of a person's desire to work for an organization because he/she agrees with its goals.

Answer F Page 235

99. The strength of an individual's desire to work for a company because he/she feels obligations from others to do so is continuance commitment.

Answer F Page 235

100. Evidence suggests that continuance commitment is greater today than it has been in the past.

Answer F

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235

Essay Questions Major Essay

101. Discuss the most common forms of prejudice in the American workplace today.

Answer - There are a variety of common forms of prejudice in today’s workplace. First, there is the prejudice based on age. Second, there is the prejudice based on physical condition (e.g. disabilities).

Third, there is prejudice based on gender, almost exclusively prejudice against women. Fourth, there is prejudice based on sexual orientation (e.g. gay, lesbian, or bisexual). Fifth, there is prejudice based on race and/or national origin. Finally, there is prejudice based on religion.

Pages 210-211

102. Discuss Herzberg’s two-factor theory of job satisfaction.

Answer - Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory was built out of research using Critical Incident Technique.

The two factors are hygiene and motivator factors. Hygiene (maintenance) factors are associated with job dissatisfaction: quality of supervision, pay, company, policies, physical working conditions, relations with others, job security. Motivators are associated with job satisfaction: promotion opportunities, opportunities for personal growth, recognition, responsibility, achievement. It is 107

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Pages 221-222

103. Name the three ways to measure job satisfaction and how each is used.

Answer - 1) Rating scales and questionnaires are the most common way. They are quick and efficient but the data is only as good as the questionnaires. The Job Description, Index, Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire, the Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire are three of the most common. 2) Critical incident technique has individuals describe, orally or in writing, events relating to their job that were either especially satisfying or dissatisfying. 3) Interviews and confrontation meetings are actually two different techniques that the text groups. Interviews have the advantage of immediate follow-up and explanation of any questions that aren’t clear. Confrontation meetings permit the dealing with important and or sensitive issues directly.

Pages 225-226

104. Discuss the two key factors that impact whether someone decides to quit, according to the unfolding model of voluntary turnover.

Answer - According to this view of turnover, two major factors impact a person’s decision to quit.

The first of these is a “shock to the system,” an attention getting event that gets employees to think about their jobs. The second of these is a decision frame. The decision frame is a set of internalized rules and images regarding how to interpret something that has occurred.

Page 228

105. What are the basic dimensions of organizational commitment?

Answer - Organizational commitment is the extent to which an individual identifies and is involved with his/her organization and/or is unwilling to leave it. Employees may be committed to their coworkers, subordinates, supervisors, customers, union, or top management. These commitments break into two groups: one’s immediate work group and supervisor and to top management and the organization as a whole. There are four commitment profiles to these groups. Uncommitted - low commitment to both groups. Committed - high commitment to both groups. Locally committed - high commitment to immediate work group and supervisor. Globally committed - high commitment to top management and/or the organization. There are two approaches to understanding the bases or motives for commitment. Side-bets orientation focuses on accumulated investments individuals will lose if they leave. Goal-congruence orientation focuses on the extent to which people identifying with an organization have personal goals that are in keeping with those of the organization. Recent research points to three bases of organizational commitment. 1) Continuance - related to side-bets. Refers to strength of people’s tendency to continue to work for an organization because they can’t afford not to. 2) Affective - related to goal-congruence. Refers to strength of people’s tendency to continue to work for an organization because they agree with it. 3) Normative - related to the obligations one feels, the pressures from others to stay.

Pages 235-236 Short essay

106. Define attitude and describe its three major components.

Answer - Attitudes are relatively stable clusters of feelings, beliefs, and behavioral predisposition.

Work-related attitudes are those lasting beliefs and behavioral tendencies toward various aspects of the job. There are three components to an attitude; the attitude object--the focus of the attitude, the cognitive component--what is believed, and the behavioral component--a predisposition to act in a certain way.

Pages 206-207 .

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107. What are the two main types of diversity training that a company can offer its employees?

Answer - Diversity management programs are efforts to celebrate diversity by creating supportive working environments. Diversity training programs are positive efforts to enhance the working environment. There are two main types of diversity training: awareness, designed to raise people’s awareness of diversity issues in the workplace and skills, designed to develop people’s skills with respect to managing diversity.

Pages 216-218

108. Explain Locke’s value theory of job satisfaction.

Answer - Locke's Value Theory argues that job satisfaction exists to the degree that outcomes received match outcomes desired. The larger the discrepancy between wants and haves in outcomes, the less satisfied an employee would be.

Pages 223-224

109. What are the possible consequences of job dissatisfaction?

Answer - The consequences of low organizational commitment are; high levels of absenteeism and voluntary turnover, unwillingness to share and make sacrifices, and negative personal consequences.

Pages 225-230

110. Offer several suggestions as to how a company can promote job satisfaction.

Answer - Managers can promote job satisfaction by: making jobs fun, paying people fairly, matching people to jobs that are congruent with their interests, and avoiding boring repetitive jobs.

Pages 233-234

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Part 3 - The Individual in the Organization Chapter 7 - Motivation in Organizations Multiple Choice Questions

1. Bill is trying to get his first shift workers to stay on the job an extra two hours in order to meet a production volume goal, because a snow storm has delayed the arrival of second shift. Bill is concerned about the issue of: a) motivation. b) equity. c) expectancy. d) needs hierarchy.

Answer a Page 248

2. Arousal is critical to the process of motivation because it: a) defines the direction our actions take. b) is the drive behind our behavior to attain goals. c) helps one to maintain the behavior needed to reach goals. d) explains the value of equity theory.

Answer b Page 248

3. When a manager is thinking about motivating people and is considering the choices available, he/she is considering the element of ________ in motivation. a) arousal b) direction c) maintenance d) need Answer b Page 249

4. ________ describes the duration of motivation, how long people will persist in seeking to meet their goals. a) Arousal b) Drive c) Maintenance d) Need Answer c Page

249

5. The concept of motivation is concerned with: a) the drive, or energy behind human behavior. b) the direction behavior takes. c) how long people will persist at attempting to meet their goal. d) all of the above.

Answer d Page 249

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6. When speaking of motivation, it is apparent that: a) the term motivation is synonymous with job performance. b) single factors play the most important part in motivating an individual employee. c) if arousal is high, direction is low, and maintenance is high, employees will only be moderately motivated. d) motivation is just one predictor of job performance.

Answer d Page 249

7. When managers think about motivation there are three keys they should consider, such as: a) people generally have one simple motive to their behavior. b) employees can have several motives at the same time and they can be in conflict. c) highly motivated workers always also are high performers. d) money is a key motivator, the primary mover of human behavior.

Answer b Page 250

8. The best known theory of motivation is: a) Alderfer’s ERG. b) Maslow Need Hierarchy Theory. c) Adams Expectancy Theory. d) Locke and Latham’s Path-Goal Theory.

Answer b Page 250

9. Maslow’s needs hierarchy theory came from his work in: a) organizational behavior. b) leadership theory. c) clinical psychology. d) organizational change.

Answer c Page 250

10. A business owner is considering offering free lunches if employees work through their lunch hour, membership at a local health club to help employees manage their job stress, and a living wage base salary. This business owner is at what level of the need hierarchy? a) Self-actualization needs b) Self-esteem needs c) Safety needs d) Physiological needs Answer d Page 251

11. If a company gave insurance rebates to employees with healthy lifestyles, they’d be addressing their: a) physiological needs. b) social needs. c) esteem needs. d) self-actualization needs.

Answer a Page 251

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12. In applying needs theory in management, one thing a company could do is to: a) assign difficult but achievable performance goals. b) present information about outcomes in a thorough and sensitive manner. c) establish client/employee relationships. d) promote a healthy workforce.

Answer d Page 251

13. In Maslow’s hierarchy once a person’s physiological needs are met, the next need level is: a) self-actualization needs. b) self-esteem needs. c) safety needs. d) physiological needs.

Answer c Page 251

14. According to Maslow, employees are concerned about their social needs only after they have satisfied their: a) self-actualization needs. b) self-esteem needs. c) safety needs. d) physiological needs.

Answer c Page 251

15. A company has to lay off employees. The offering of outplacement services is one way for them to meet the employees’ ________ needs. a) physiological b) social c) esteem d) safety Answer d Page 251

16. A company that encourages team sports among employees is emphasizing what level of need according Maslow’s need hierarchy? a) Self-actualization needs b) Self-esteem needs c) Safety needs d) Social needs Answer d Page 252

17. A firm implements family fun days at a local theme park, sponsors an employee choir, and encourages a fun attitude at work by having theme days. This firm is seeking to meet employees’ ________ needs. a) physiological b) social c) esteem d) safety Answer b Page 252

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18. Maslow’s ________ need refers to an individual’s need for self-respect and the approval of others. a) safety b) social c) self-actualization d) self-esteem Answer d Page 253

19. A company that gives banquets, nonmonetary awards for ideas, and special perks for performance is stressing the ________ need level in Maslow’s hierarchy. a) self-actualization b) social c) self-esteem d) safety Answer c Page 253

20. In Maslow's needs hierarchy theory ________ is a growth need. a) safety b) social c) self-esteem d) physiological Answer c Page

253

21. When companies give awards for improving customer satisfaction or some other process, they are striving to meet employees’ ________ needs. a) self-actualization b) social c) esteem d) safety Answer c Page 253

22. In Maslow’s need hierarchy, the ________ need is not a deficiency-based need. a) safety b) social c) self-actualization d) physiological Answer c Page 254

23. The motivational fit approach stipulates that motivation is based on the connection between qualities of ________ and requirements of the________. a) Individuals; supervisor b) Individuals; job c) the job; supervisor d) the job; organization Answer b Page 255

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24. In calculating a job's MPS score, which two core job dimensions are the most important? a) Autonomy and task significance b) Skill variety and task identity c) Autonomy and feedback d) Task identity and autonomy Answer c Page 255

25. The motivational fit approach specifies two traits as important. These are: a) achievement, emotion. b) achievement, emotion control. c) achievement, anxiety. d) anxiety, emotion control.

Answer c Page 255

26. The motivational fit approach specifies two skills as important. These are: a) achievement, motivation control. b) achievement, emotion control. c) achievement, anxiety control. d) motivation control, emotion control.

Answer d Page 256

27. According to Locke and Latham's goal setting theory, an assigned goal serves as a motivator because: a) of the additional fear element present over the possibility of displeasing the boss. b) it provides information about how well one is performing a task. c) of the requirement of acceptance of the assigned goal as a personal goal. d) it influences the individual’s self-efficacy positively.

Answer d Page 257

28. Goal-setting theory is closely tied to the self-management concept of: a) self-monitoring. b) self-efficacy. c) self-esteem. d) none of the above.

Answer b Page 257

29. The best established finding about goal-setting is that: a) employees resist goals they don’t have a part in setting. b) the more impossible the goal the better the performance. c) several incremental goals are less motivating than one major goal. d) performance increases with specific assigned goals.

Answer d Page 258

30. Research has shown that people will work at the highest level when performance goals are: a) very easy and general in nature. b) moderate in difficulty and specific. c) extremely difficult but general in nature. d) easy but very specific.

Answer b Page 259 .

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31. Stretch goals, in which higher levels of current activities are aggressively pursued, are known as: a) horizontal stretch goals. b) vertical stretch goals. c) equity goals. d) expectancy goals.

Answer b Page 260

32. Stretch goals, in which managers perform tasks they have never done before are known as: a) horizontal stretch goals. b) vertical stretch goals. c) equity goals. d) expectancy goals.

Answer a Page 260

33. To help strengthen employee commitment to goals, an organization should: a) involve employees in the goal-setting process. b) set the highest possible goals. c) provide feedback about performance. d) provide monetary incentives along with specific goals.

Answer a Page 260

34. Research on feedback and goal setting has shown that job performance is: a) enhanced more by feedback than by goal setting. b) enhanced more by goal setting than by feedback. c) enhanced most when feedback and goal setting are used together. d) not affected by feedback when goal setting is used.

Answer c Page 261

35. The key to equity theory is the: a) outcomes the employee receives for his/her effort. b) employee’s perception regarding the balance of outcome to input. c) employee’s commitment to the job and company. d) employee’s inputs.

Answer b Page 264

36. According to equity theory, if Sam believes that the ratio of his outcomes/inputs is greater than the ratio of Joe's outcomes/inputs, then Sam will: a) experience guilt. b) lower his inputs. c) raise his outcomes. d) experience anger.

Answer a Page 264

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37. According to equity theory, an underpaid person might do which of the following? a) Ask for a raise. b) Steal from the company. c) Work less hard. d) All of these.

Answer d Page 265

38. Workers who perceive inequity but are unwilling to change their inputs may address the problem by: a) asking for a raise. b) changing the way they think about the situation. c) taking a second job to earn more money. d) reducing their outcomes.

Answer b Page 265

39. Research on employees actions to redress inequities shows that: a) they generally will not take behavioral action. b) most employees respond by changing the way they think about the situation. c) some employees with file a grievance or lawsuit. d) they will respond in accordance to how equity theory says they will.

Answer d Page 266

40. In general, two-tiered wage structures: a) permit firms to pay higher wages to new workers. b) are acceptable as equitable if based on objective criteria. c) are considered inequitable by employees regardless of criteria. d) permit firms to lower their overall compensations costs by paying experienced people less.

Answer c Page 267

41. In equity theory: a) is as bad to overpay employees as to underpay. b) underpayment can be justified to employees. c) it is better to overpay than underpay. d) only the top 10% of employees are sensitive to the issue of overpayment or underpayment.

Answer a Page 269

42. Equity theory suggests that managers should: a) avoid underpaying employees. b) avoid overpaying employees. c) present information about outcomes in a sensitive manner. d) include those affected by a decision in the making of it.

Answer b Page 269

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43. In expectancy theory, ________ is the belief that high amounts of effort will lead to good performance. a) instrumentality b) expectancy c) valence d) procedural justice.

Answer b Page 270

44. According to expectancy theory, the belief that good performance will be rewarded is known as: a) instrumentality. b) expectancy. c) valence. d) procedural justice.

Answer a Page 270

45. If a worker believes that his/her effort will result in excellent performance, that the reward is one the worker values, but the worker does not expect that his/her individual performance will be rewarded, then according to expectancy theory the worker’s motivation will be: a) moderate. b) high. c) low. d) zero.

Answer d Page 271

46. ________ are what employees believe is expected of them and they significantly influences job performance, according to expectancy theory. a) Procedural justice b) Role perceptions c) Critical psychological states d) Normative judgments Answer b Page 271

47. In expectancy theory ________ recognizes that employees may perform at low levels if their opportunities are limited a) role perceptions b) valence c) opportunities to perform d) instrumentality Answer c Page 271

48. In an effort to apply expectancy theory, a company requires supervisors to orient new employees, set goals with all employees and regularly communicate with employees. This is an example of: a) a pay-for-performance plan. b) clarifying people’s expectancies. c) establishing a cafeteria-style benefit plan. d) an opportunity to perform.

Answer b Page 272 117

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49. A company wants to clearly link valued rewards to the job performances needed to attain them. To do so they should: a) design jobs so as to make the desired performance more attainable. b) institute a pay-for-performance plan, paying for meritorious work. c) establish a cafeteria-style benefit plan that will allow workers to select the fringe benefits they most value. d) do none of these.

Answer d Page 272

50. The expectancy theory suggests that motivation may be enhanced by a) administering low-valence rewards to employees. b) providing all employees with the same rewards. c) implementing a pay for performance plan. d) eliminating instrumentality.

Answer c Page 272

51. Job design involves a number of techniques. If a job is redesigned by adding different jobs but not increasing responsibility or the number of skills needed, a job has been: a) vertically loaded. b) enriched. c) psychologically adjusted. d) horizontally loaded.

Answer d Page 275

52. According to one research study, employees in a large financial services company who had their jobs enlarged improved their performance: a) and overall company performance improved. b) but the rate of employee error increased a year later. c) and job satisfaction remained unchanged. d) but organizational commitment decreased.

Answer b Page 275

53. To enrich a job, an employer might: a) allow employees to decide how to do their jobs. b) increase the number of tasks without increasing responsibilities. c) horizontally load the job. d) do all of the above.

Answer a Page 275

54. While somewhat popular, job enrichment programs have a number of limitations including: a) generally poor/weak job performance results. b) poor acceptance by upper management. c) a dramatic increase in compensation costs. d) lack of employee acceptance.

Answer d Page 275

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55. The job characteristics model expands on which element of job redesign? a) critical psychological states b) job enlargement c) job enrichment d) job expectancy Answer c Page 276

56. The extent to which a job requires doing different activities using several skills and talents is known as: a) task identity b) task significance c) autonomy d) skill variety Answer d Page 277

57. The extent to which a job requires completing a whole piece of work from beginning to end is known as: a) task identity b) task significance c) autonomy d) skill variety Answer a Page 277

58. According to the job characteristics model, a task's experienced meaningfulness is determined by: a) task significance. b) feedback. c) autonomy. d) skill variety.

Answer a Page 277

59. The degree of impact a job is believed to have on others is known as: a) task identity b) task significance c) autonomy d) skill variety Answer b Page 277

60. Jessica is trying to increase the freedom and discretion that employees have in scheduling and planning their work. In terms of JCM, Jessica is trying to increase: a) task significance. b) autonomy. c) task identify d) skill variety.

Answer b Page 277

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61. The extent to which employees have the freedom and discretion to plan and schedule their jobs as desired is known as: a) task identity b) task significance c) autonomy d) skill variety Answer c Page 277

62. The skill variety, task identity, and task significance together create the critical psychological state of: a) personal responsibility b) accountability c) experienced meaningfulness. d) knowledge of results Answer c Page 278

63. Supervisors at the Johnson Corp. help introduce a work motivation program based on providing continuous informal and formal feedback. This action addresses the critical psychological state of: a) personal responsibility b) accountability c) experienced meaningfulness. d) knowledge of results Answer d Page 278

64. The job characteristics model is especially effective in describing the behavior of workers who are high in: a) self-actualization. b) self-monitoring. c) instrumentality. d) growth need strength.

Answer d Page 279

65. The Motivating Potential Score (MPS) is: a) a summary index of how motivated employees are. b) a score for how successful a company has been at motivating employees. c) a summary index of a job's potential for motivating people. d) none of these.

Answer c Page 279

66. Establishing client relationships can enhance the core job dimension of: a) autonomy. b) skill variety. c) task identity. d) feedback.

Answer d Page

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67. The job characteristics model specifies which of the following principles EXCEPT: a) combine tasks. b) open feedback channels. c) establish client relationships. d) load jobs horizontally.

Answer d Page 280

68. Fred provides his subordinates with information that lets them know how they are doing. This is an example of: a) Combine tasks. b) Open feedback channels. c) Establish client relationships d) load jobs vertically.

Answer b Page 280

69. Managers can increase employee motivation by giving them more responsibility and control. This is done by: a) loading jobs vertically. b) enlarging jobs. c) loading jobs horizontally. d) increasing feedback and task significance.

Answer a Page 280 Mini-Case Questions Table 7.1 Shue-Fan is surprised at the amount of motivational energy her recent ‘pep-talk’ seems to have created in her staff. They seem to be very concerned about making her happy and making a good impression on her. As she ponders their reaction, she concludes that her emphasis on helping her employees develop their potential is really paying off. An employee approaches her and asks if their team could create a team T-shirt and wear it on casual dress day. Shue-Fan agrees. Finally, Shue-Fan decides the company ought to do more to recognize employee accomplishments, so she proposes a company-wide recognition/awards program.

70. Refer to Table 7.1. Shue-Fan is surprised by the motivational element of: a) arousal. b) direction. c) maintenance. d) performance.

Answer a Page

249

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Table 7.2 John is working on his department’s annual plan. Employee performance has been okay and commitment to his department’s goals moderate. In the past John has asked his employees to do their best. This year he is asking each employee to work with him in determining exactly what that employee is going to accomplish this year. John wants his people to feel the goals are theirs, to invest in their accomplishment.

He wants them to believe that they can accomplish these goals. He thinks he can help this whole process by meeting with each employee quarterly and talking about where the department is and where the employee is in regards to goal accomplishment.

71. Refer to Table 7.2. John’s concern about his people’s believing they can accomplish the goals is a concern over: a) goal commitment. b) how goals are assigned. c) the setting of difficult but acceptable goals. d) how to provide feedback on goal attainment.

Answer a Page 258

72. Refer to Table 7.2. In the past what principle of goal-setting did John violate? a) Goal commitment b) Assigning specific goals c) Setting difficult but acceptable goals d) Providing feedback on goal attainment Answer b Page 259

73. Refer to Table 7.2. John’s new goal-setting plan is building on which goal-setting principle? a) Goal commitment b) Assigning specific goals c) Setting difficult but acceptable goals d) Providing feedback on goal attainment Answer c Page 259 Table 7.3 Randy, Marvin, and Mary Virginia sell for Made-for-You. As they are having lunch together Randy discovers that he is receiving a higher commission rate than Marvin or Mary Virginia. When he excuses himself Marvin and Mary Virginia start talking about how Randy sells less than they do, has higher expenses, and has less time with the company than they do. They are doing a slow burn by the time Randy returns to the table.

74. Refer to Table 7.3. In this case it appears that Randy is in a state of: a) equitable payment. b) valence. c) underpayment inequity. d) overpayment inequity.

Answer d Page 264

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75. Refer to Table 7.3. Mary Virginia, in comparison to Randy, may be in the state of: a) equitable payment. b) low instrumentality. c) underpayment inequity. d) overpayment inequity.

Answer c Page 264

76. Refer to Table 7.3. What is Randy’s likely future behavior based on his discovery? a) He’ll work less hard seeing there is little connection between performance and pay in his company. b) He may adjust his thinking to the point of rationalizing why he should receive the higher pay. c) He’ll be angry. d) He’ll do nothing but collect his check.

Answer b Page 266 Table 7.4 The production department is implementing a job design program. Alfonso has been given the responsibility. Leading a team of managers and hourly employees, Alfonso is to come up with the best way to implement the program. As techniques are discussed it appears that the workers are reluctant to accept management’s push to give each employee more tasks to perform while not increasing responsibility or the need task skills. The hourly workers want more control over their jobs and greater responsibilities. Alfonso explains they still need to determine what elements need to be enriched for the program to work. He further explains that employees have reported through an organizational survey that their first desire is to experience meaningfulness in their jobs, and they don’t really want increased responsibility and accountability, feeling it will add too much stress to their jobs.

77. Refer to Table 7.4. The hourly workers are favoring what type of job design program? a) Job enlargement b) Vertical job loading c) Job enrichment d) Job characteristics model approach Answer c Page 275

78. Refer to Table 7.4. Management wants what type of job design program? a) Job enlargement b) Vertical job loading c) Job enrichment d) Job characteristics model approach Answer a Page 275

79. Refer to Table 7.4. Based on the employee survey, which job dimensions should the group focus on enriching? a) Autonomy b) Task identity c) Feedback d) None of the above Answer b Page 277 123

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80. Refer to Table 7.4. Based on the employee survey, not the opinion of the employees on the committee, which job dimensions should the group not enrich? a) Skill variety b) Task identity c) Autonomy d) All of the above Answer c Page 277 True/False Questions

81. If individual arousal and direction are strong enough the lack of a maintenance step in the motivation process will not decrease individual motivation.

Answer F Page 249

82. Recognizing employees’ accomplishments within the work environment is one way managers can meet their esteem needs.

Answer T Page 253

83. Jobs that provide tenure (such as teaching) and no-layoff agreements provide a psychological security blanket that helps satisfy esteem needs.

Answer F Page 253

84. Goal-setting theory argues that people less committed to a goal commitment to the extent that they desire to attain the goal.

Answer F Page 258

85. Stretch goals, in which managers perform tasks they have never done before are known as horizontal stretch goals.

Answer T Page

260

86. Feedback to employees is very important to enhancing employee motivation for goal attainment.

Answer T

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87. In equity theory inputs are what employees get out of their jobs in terms of financial and nonfinancial rewards.

Answer F

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88. If an employee is overpaid a likely reaction on his/her part, in terms of equity theory, will be guilt.

Answer T

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89. It is better in terms of employee motivation and benefits to the company to overpay employees than it is to underpay them.

Answer F Page 264

90. Generally speaking, a superior’s pay should not be revealed to subordinates because inequitable feelings may result.

Answer F Page 269 .

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91. The valence of a reward is its relevance to the employee.

Answer T

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92. If employees believe that hard work will lead to good performance and that they will receive low valence rewards according to their performance, then they will most likely feel highly motivated.

Answer F Page 270

93. Expectancy theory is well documented and widely accepted in all aspects of its content.

Answer F

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94. Generally speaking the only types of rewards that motivate employees are monetary.

Answer F

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95. The job enrichment process is said to increase a position’s horizontal job loading.

Answer F

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96. The degree of impact a job is believed to have on others is known as task identity.

Answer F

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97. The extent to which a job requires completing a whole piece of work from beginning to end is known as autonomy.

Answer F Page

277

98. The extent to which a job requires doing different activities using several skills and talents is known as skill variety.

Answer T Page

277

99. Worker autonomy is the one element of the JCM that always motivates all workers.

Answer F

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100.

A study in South Africa of the affects of using the Job Characteristics Model in job redesign showed increased employee motivation, decreased absenteeism, but it had no real effect on productivity.

Answer T Page 279

101.

When employers combine jobs enabling workers to perform the entire job they are enhancing skill variety and task identity.

Answer T Page 280

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Part 3 - The Individual in the Organization Essay Questions Major essay

102. Explain Maslow’s needs hierarchy, identifying and explaining the needs in proper order, and offering a critique of his theory.

Answer - Maslow’s hierarchy has five sequential levels. Needs are met at the lowest level first, progressing to the highest level. The first three needs are deficiency needs, people need these things because they are lacking them. Physiological needs are the most basic needs--fundamental biological drives. Safety needs relate to the need for a secure environment, safe from threats of physical or psychological harm. Social needs are belonging, or affiliation needs, to have friends, be loved, etc.

The last two needs are growth needs. People need or want these in order to develop more fully.

Esteem needs relate to self-respect and the need for approval by others. Self-actualization needs are the highest level of need and refer to self-fulfillment, development to the fullest of one’s potential.

Research support the two broad categories, deficiency and growth needs but little else. Higher order needs are often not satisfied on the job. Needs are necessarily sequential and the specific five needs are supported as research doesn’t show only five basic needs categories.

Pages 250-254

103. Offer four ways that a manager could use needs theories in motivating employees.

Answer - If managers can help their employees reach the higher level of needs, they will be more satisfied and productive. Companies can do this by: promoting healthy lifestyles, providing financial security, providing opportunities to socialize, and recognizing employee accomplishments. The rewarding needs to be done carefully. In that only the desired behaviors should be rewarded.

Managers must remember that the effects of rewards wear off over time. And, finally, the rewards need to be meaningful to the employees.

Pages 251-254

104. Discuss the motivational traits that underlie the motivational fit approach.

Answer - There are two individual characteristics that underlie this approach. The first is achievement that refers to peoples’ interest in excelling at what they do and accomplishing desired objectives. The second is anxiety, which is the tendency for someone to be excessively apprehensive or nervous about things in everyday life.

Page 255

105. Discuss equity theory and how managers may use it to motivate employee performance.

Answer - This is an individual-based theory that adds a social component-- the social comparisons people make, comparing themselves to others. Adams' Equity Theory proposes that people focus on two variables, outcomes and inputs. Outcomes - what people get out of their jobs; pay, fringe benefits, prestige, etc. Inputs - the contributions that people make to their jobs; time worked, effort expended, units produced, and qualifications brought. Based on these variables, individuals compare themselves to others, checking for equity. They see one of three states; overpayment inequity, underpayment inequity, or equitable payment. Managers can try a number of techniques for using it to motivate employees. 1) Avoid underpayment. A classic example of this is the two-tier wage system. 2) Avoid overpayment. The benefits are temporary. People begin to think they deserve it.

Other employees resent it. 3) Present information about outcomes and inputs thoroughly and with social sensitivity.

Pages 263-264

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106. Identify the five core job dimensions identified by the job characteristics model, and then offer some tips for applying the job characteristics model.

Answer - There are five critical job dimensions. 1) Skill variety - the degree to which the job requires different activities requiring different skills. 2) Task identity - the extent to which a job requires completing a whole piece of work, from beginning to end. 3) Task significance - is the degree of impact the job is believed to have on others. 4) Autonomy - how free the employee is to plan, to schedule, and to carry out the work as desired. 5) Feedback - does the job allow people to receive information about the effectiveness of their performance?. A manager can develop or change each element to fit the needs of an employee. Skill variety, task identity, and task significance all contribute to a task’s experienced meaningfulness. Autonomy contributes to people’s feeling personally responsible and accountable. Feedback lets employees have knowledge of the results of their work. This manipulation or change will affect the five critical psychological states identified by the model; feelings of motivation, the quality of work performed, satisfaction with work, absenteeism, and turnover. This model is especially effective with people who are high in growth need strength. When the core job dimensions and their associated psychological reactions are in proper relationship, motivation is at its peak. That relationship can be assessed through a Job Diagnosis Survey (JDS).

Pages 277-278 Short essay

107. Describe the term motivation and its impact on job performance.

Answer - Motivation is the set of processes that arouse, direct, and maintain human behavior toward a training some goal. It is different than arousal--the drive or energy behind action, direction--the choices people make, or maintenance--the persistence of the behavior, which are elements of motivation. Remember that motivation and job performance are not synonyms. Also, motivation is multi-faceted; people have several different motives operating at one time.

Pages 248-249

108. Describe the difference between overpayment inequity and underpayment inequity.

Answer- Overpayment inequity refers to inequity that occurs when ones ratio of outcomes/inputs are higher than those of another. Conversely, underpayment inequity refers to inequity that occurs when ones ratio of outcomes/inputs are lower than those of another.

Page 264

109. Discuss why overpayment is problematic from an equity standpoint.

Answer - Increases in performance in response to overpayment inequity are only temporary, for as time goes on, people begin to believe they deserve the higher pay and drop their work level.

Additionally, when overpaying one employee, others are being underpaid. These other employees are likely to lower their performance resulting in a net decrease in productivity.

Page 269

110. Define expectancy theory and discuss its three basic elements.

Answer - Expectancy theory is built on three core beliefs; 1) expectancy, the belief that effort results in performance, 2) instrumentality, the belief that performance will be rewarded and 3) valence, that the rewards are valued by the recipient. Performance needs to be instrumental in bringing rewards.

Motivation comes from the interplay of the three beliefs.

Pages 270-271

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111. Describe job enrichment and job enlargement and why a manager would do one or the other.

Answer - Job enlargement - increasing the number of tasks at the same level. It is also known as horizontal job loading. Job enrichment - increasing the number of higher level tasks, or vertical job loading. Both seem to improve job performance, but job enrichment seems to have a longer-lasting effect. Job enrichment programs have met with some resistance due to; the difficulty of implementation, a lack of employee acceptance, and the need to tie compensation to enrichment to be completely effective.

Pages 275-276

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Chapter 8 Group Dynamics and Work Teams Chapter 8 - Group Dynamics and Work Teams Multiple Choice Questions

1. ________ focuses on the nature of groups, the variables that govern their development, formation, structure, performance, etc. a. Group dynamics b. Teamwork c. Social facilitation d. Drive theory Answer a Page 290

2. Which of the following constitutes a group? a. Students waiting in line to sell their textbooks at the end of the semester. b. The office support staff of a sales office. c. Students working on a final project which determines if they pass or fail. d. All of these are groups.

Answer c

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3. Which of the following characteristics characterizes a group? a. Stable leadership b. Independence of membership c. The ability to solve problems d. The perception that they are a group Answer d

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4. The most basic form of a group is the a. formal and informal group. b. work groups, cross-functional team. c. intact group, self-managed team. d. temporary work team.

Answer a

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5. Groups that are created by the organization and are intentionally designed to direct its members toward some important organizational goal are known as a. informal groups. b. formal groups. c. role-structured groups. d. self-managed teams.

Answer b Page 292

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6. A group that is determined by the connections between individuals on an organizational chart is known as a/n a. command group. b. task group. c. standing committee. d. informal group.

Answer a Page 292

7. A formal group that is composed of individuals with some special interest or expertise in a specific area, regardless of their positions in the organization, is known as a/n a. command group. b. task group. c. standing committee. d. informal group.

Answer b Page 292

8. Groups that tend to form naturally among an organization's personnel are called a. interest groups. b. friendship groups. c. task groups. d. informal groups.

Answer d

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9. Susan belongs to a social club where members get together to see movies, play cards or just talk. This type of group is a/an a. task group. b. interest group. c. friendship group. d. ad-hoc group.

Answer c Page 293

10. By forming groups, people realize the opportunity to a. share their mutual interests. b. enhance their self-monitoring skills. c. satisfy self-actualization needs. d. do all of these.

Answer a

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11. According to Maslow’s hierarchy, people often meet three levels of need by joining groups; their security needs, their social needs, and their a. physical needs. b. psychological needs. c. self-actualization needs. d. self-esteem needs.

Answer d Page 294 .

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12. People join groups for a number of reasons including a. to gather information. b. being forced to by circumstances. c. to satisfy a basic need to be with others. d. the desire to have control over others by being a leader.

Answer c

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13. In what stage of group development do group members come to resist control of leaders and show hostility? a. Forming b. Storming c. Norming d. Performing Answer b Page

295

14. Sushani is observing group functioning as part of her OB studies. The group she’s observing seems to be fairly cohesive, is developing close interpersonal relationships and a feeling of camaraderie, etc.

This group is in the ________ stage of group development. a. forming b. storming c. norming d. performing Answer c Page 295

15. In what stage of group development do group members work toward getting their jobs done? a. Forming b. Adjourning c. Norming d. Performing Answer d

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295

16. When thinking about the five stages of group development, it is important to remember that a. most groups spend approximately the same mount of time in each stage. b. all groups progress through the five stages in order. c. each stage will have a clear beginning and ending. d. it is a general framework for group formation.

Answer d

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17. A group development model that sees groups in two stages with a crisis as the motivation to move from the first doing what is known and safe to the second stage of trying new ideas is the a. group role model. b. punctuated-equilibrium model. c. socialization transfer model. d. congruence-productivity model.

Answer b Page 295 131

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18. The interrelationships between the individuals constituting a group are called a. group roles. b. group structure. c. role expectations. d. role differentiation.

Answer b

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19. The beliefs that people have about what someone occupying a certain office is supposed to do are a. group roles. b. group structure. c. role expectations. d. role differentiation.

Answer c

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297

20. The emergence of the roles that different group members play is a. group roles. b. group structure. c. role expectations. d. role differentiation.

Answer d

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297

21. If a person’s role seems to be helping the group reach its goal more than other members are, this person has taken on a. a socioemotional role. b. a self-oriented role. c. a task-oriented role. d. an ambiguous role.

Answer c Page 298

22. Tami shifts his/her own opinions to harmonize with the group or who suggests ways the group can operate more efficiently. She is fulfilling the a. socioemotional role. b. self-oriented role. c. task-oriented role. d. ambiguous role.

Answer a Page 298

23. The typical behaviors that characterize a person in a social context are called a. roles. b. norms. c. expectations. d. status.

Answer b

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24. A norm that guides behavior that should be avoided is known as a a. differentiated norm. b. prescriptive norm. c. proscriptive norm. d. precedent norm.

Answer c

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25. An example of a self-oriented group role would be a. opinion giver. b. expeditor. c. information-seeker. d. blocker.

Answer d

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26. Jamie is trying to get the church board to make a decision, as most members are just tired of the debate. He has taken on the group member role of a. initiator-contributor. b. encourager. c. energizer. d. expediter.

Answer c Page 299

27. The relative social positions or ranks given to groups or group members by others are called a. precedents. b. status. c. roles. d. social facilitation.

Answer b

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28. Status symbols a. remind organizational members of their roles. b. provide a sense of identification with a group. c. provide assurance of rewards available to those who perform well. d. all of these.

Answer d

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29. Bill has taken a job with another accounting firm. He quickly discovers that the norms from his previous employer (maximum billable hours, 80 hours weeks, etc.) are the same here. This is an example of a norm developing because of a. carryovers from other situations. b. an explicit statement by a superior. c. precedents set over time. d. critical events in the group’s history.

Answer a Page 300

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30. When group members are attracted to each other, accept the group's goals, and work together toward meeting them, it may be said that the group has high a. cohesiveness. b. role differentiation. c. social facilitation. d. status.

Answer a Page 301

31. Which of the following is an important factor that influences cohesiveness? a. The severity of group initiation b. High external threat c. High competition d. All of these Answer d

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301

32. Group cohesion can have a number of consequences, including a. leading a group to work against organizational interests. b. enjoyment of group membership at the expense of productivity. c. self-destruction due to infighting for control of the group. d. all of these.

Answer a

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301

33. Sometimes the presence of others enhances task performance, and sometimes it. This phenomenon is known as a. role ambiguity. b. social facilitation. c. group cohesion. d. social loafing.

Answer b Page 302

34. Suppose that you have studied piano for many years and have practiced a certain Mozart concerto diligently every day for six months. Now, you are about to perform it in front of an audience.

According to the drive theory of social facilitation, you would be expected to a. play better than you did while practicing alone. b. play worse than you did while practicing alone. c. relax and ride on the efforts of others in the recital group. d. do none of the above.

Answer a Page 303

35. The idea of evaluation apprehension recognizes that a. distraction caused by others creates a conflict among team members. b. the presence of others creates a conflict between paying attention to others and paying attention to the task.

c. social facilitation results from the fear of what others might think of the task performance. d. the presence of others motivates higher performance because of arousal.

Answer b .

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36. A study of computerized performance monitoring showed that a. monitoring resulted in a drive theory effect and increased performance. b. monitoring had no impact on task performance. c. it reduced evaluation apprehension to the point where monitored performance increased over non-monitored performance.

d. performance was considerably lower when monitored.

Answer d

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37. When task performance of a group is determined by pooled efforts, it is known as a. an additive task. b. a disjunctive task. c. a social task. d. conjunctive task.

Answer a

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38. When a group of people perform an additive task together, there is a tendency for each individual to contribute less to the group's product than when they perform alone. This effect is known as a. role ambiguity. b. social facilitation. c. distraction-conflict theory. d. social loafing.

Answer d Page 304

39. According to________, the effect of any social force acting on a group is equally divided among its members. a. social facilitation theory b. social impact theory c. drive theory d. team development theory Answer b Page 304

40. Social loafing seems to occur because a. of the individual’s concern for the group over him/herself. b. of the distraction caused by the presence of others and concerns for their evaluation of the individual’s performance. c. the presence of others makes the individual feel his/her contribution is less needed. d. culture has little impact on task performance and it is part of human nature to relax effort when it is possible.

Answer c Page 304

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41. Research into social loafing and group performance showed that countries like China and Israel with collectivist cultures found that a. social loafing occurs as much as in individualistic cultures like the U.S. b. workers performed better in groups than they did alone. c. workers performed well in small groups but loafed in larger groups. d. individuals outperformed groups in all but a very few tasks.

Answer b Page 305

42. An international study of social loafing showed that a. culture has an influence on people’s tendency to engage in social loafing. b. culture has no influence on people’s tendency to engage in social loafing. c. collectivist cultures are more prone to social loafing than other cultures. d. none of these.

Answer a

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43. Social loafing can be lessened by a. specializing tasks and making them more routine. b. rewarding individuals for group performance. c. identifying the group to its social peers. d. doing all of the above.

Answer b

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44. Research has shown that social loafing may be combated by a. using only additive tasks. b. building more effective team incentives. c. threatening to punish people for not performing up to standards. d. creating a more individualistic culture in the organization.

Answer c

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45. Which of the following characterizes teams? a. Common commitment to purpose b. Mutual accountability c. Dependence on a collective work product d. All of these.

Answer d

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46. One difference between teams and groups is in work performance is that a. groups are dependent on both individual and collective work products. b. teams are dependent on both individual and collective work products. c. teams are dependent on individual outcomes. d. groups respond to self-imposed demand.

Answer b

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47. One way a team differs from a group has to do with a. the mutual accountability a team has. b. the different developmental stages a team goes through. c. the higher level of cohesiveness a group has. d. the types of roles played by members.

Answer a

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48. In contrast to groups, teams a. make individual contributions. b. are responsive to self-imposed demands. c. pursue common goals alone. d. meet demands of management.

Answer b

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49. Teams that are primarily oriented toward the mission of increasing organizational effectiveness are a. improvement teams. b. work teams. c. temporary teams. d. quality teams.

Answer a

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50. The best performing teams are characterized by a. highly educated and trained members. b. having worked together for at least two years on different projects. c. exceptionally high levels of mutual care, trust and respect. d. ethnic diversity and a careful mix of technical skills.

Answer c

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51. The CEO is considering implementing teams. During the discussion the question is raised about whether they should use intact teams or cross-functional teams. This discussion is about the ____ dimension of teams. a. operational autonomy b. mission or purpose c. time d. authority structure Answer d Page 310

52. Teams differ according to five dimensions, including a. the number of members. b. their cultural diversity and gender mix. c. physical presence. d. their performance level, low, medium, or high.

Answer c

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53. The management team is discussing whether to use self-managing teams or more traditional work groups. The team dimension they are debating is a. the mission or purpose of the team. b. the duration of the team. c. the authority structure of the team. d. the degree of operational autonomy.

Answer d Page 311

54. All of the following are characteristics of self-managed teams except a. they are customer driven. b. information is shared widely. c. they emphasize problem-solving. d. they are seemingly chaotic.

Answer c

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55. Some companies are structured such that people work together on certain projects all the time and do not apply their specialty to a wide range of products. These companies are utilizing a. intact teams. b. cross-functional teams. c. temporary teams. d. improvement teams.

Answer a Page 312

56. The determination of whether or not to use a team is the ________ stage of team creation. a. creating performance conditions b. prework c. forming and building the team d. providing support Answer b

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57. A manager should insure that a team has the proper resources to function at which stage in the creation of the team? a. Creating performance conditions b. Prework c. Forming and building the team d. Providing support Answer a Page 314

58. At stage 3 of creating a team, forming and building, a manager should a. provide the resources necessary to function. b. note exactly what work is to be done. c. clarify who is on the team and its mission. d. do all of these.

Answer c

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59. Research on the use of teams shows that a. manufacturers like GM experience high levels of success with teams. b. teams have succeeded in the service industry as well as manufacturing. c. there isn’t a clear and convincing case for the overall effectiveness of teams. d. all of these are true.

Answer d

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60. In one large study that surveyed 1,000 companies in the United States it was found that ________ of them used some work teams. a. 64% b. 13% c. 47% d. 89% Answer c Page 315

61. The case studies reported in your text a. seem to show that teams are not as effective as thought. b. indicate that some U.S. companies have achieved outstanding results with teams. c. do not show any clear pattern for or against team effectiveness. d. show that teams are most effective in small companies and less effective in larger corporations.

Answer b

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62. Teams may fail for a number of reasons. A reason related to the function of the team would be a. they didn't receive support from top management. b. members were unwilling to cooperate. c. members lacked skills to perform the task. d. management wouldn’t relinquish control.

Answer b

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63. Sometimes managers can cause teams to fail by a. giving them too much freedom. b. not designing adequate team performance incentives. c. not cooperating with the team. d. failing to relinquish control to the team.

Answer d

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64. Bobbie Joe’s team has information that Billie Jean’s team needs but Bobbie Joe’s team won’t provide it because they are upset about how the other team took create for one of their projects in the past. Billie Jean’s team has some extra resources that Bobbie Joe’s team needs but can’t requisition but they won’t share them since Bobbie Joe’s team won’t give up the information. It looks like these teams may fail because a. the two teams are failing to cooperate with each other. b. they haven’t seen enough soap operas to know this doesn’t’ work. c. there is a lack of support from management. d. neither team has sufficient resources or autonomy to accomplish their tasks.

Answer a Page 318 139

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics

65. There are a number of ways to promote high performance in teams, including a. encouraging intrateam competition. b. encouraging competition between groups. c. communicate the urgency of the team’s mission. d. discouraging competition between teams.

Answer c

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66. A manager can promote high performance in teams by a. fostering communication and cooperation. b. communicating the urgency of the team’s mission. c. providing training in team skills. d. doing all of these.

Answer d

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67. When putting a team together, it is essential that members have a. the individual desire to succeed. b. the skills needed to succeed. c. the ability to work alone and unsupervised. d. strong technical skills.

Answer b

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Mini-Case Questions Table 8.1 Introduction to Business class is to observe the use of groups in a large manufacturing business. The students notice that most groups are arranged by reporting relationships. Bill discovers a group of managers who have been placed together to study and recommend a course of action on a flextime schedule for employees. Jane finds that the executives of the company have formed a team consisting of themselves, some middle managers, and a few hourly employees to work on improving work processes and efficiency within the company. This group has been in existence for 5 years and is going strong.

68. Refer to Table 8.1. The majority of groups in this business appear to be a. informal interest groups. b. formal command groups. c. ad hoc committees or task forces. d. self-managing groups.

Answer b

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69. Refer to Table 8.1. Jane’s group appears to be what type of group? a. Task group b. Formal command group c. Ad hoc committee or task force d. Self-managing group Answer a

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70. Refer to Table 8.1. The group of managers that Bill discovers is an example of a. an informal interest group. b. a formal command group. c. an ad hoc committee or task force. d. a self-managing group.

Answer c

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Table 8.2 As a consultant of group processes you are observing B.C.H.C.,Inc.’s self-managing teams and work groups, which are in different stages of development. a medium-sized manufacturing business. You have named the teams and groups A, B, C, D, and E, to conceal their names and get the most honest information possible. Group D has resolved its issues of leadership and is devoting all of its energy to getting the task done. Team C, on the other hand, shows significant resistance to its appointed leader’s guidance, and there is a lot of argument over roles within the group. The members of Group A are still getting acquainted in their meetings. They are setting their formal norms and clarifying expectations.

Team B is full of hostility. At least one group member has ‘withdrawn’ by sitting quietly and no longer participating in the discussions/arguments.

71. Refer to Table 8.2. Group A appears to be at which stage of team development? a. Forming b. Storming c. Norming d. Performing Answer a Page 294 72. Refer to Table 8.2. Team C, on the other hand, seems to be at the a. forming stage. b. storming stage. c. norming stage. d. performing stage.

Answer b Page 295

73. Refer to Table 8.2. Team B is where in the stages of team development? a. Forming b. Storming c. Norming d. Performing Answer b

Page

295

74. Refer to Table 8.2. Group D seems to be in the development stage of a. adjourning. b. storming. c. norming. d. performing.

Answer d

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Table 8.3 Management is considering the implementation of teams in the company. Several issues come up during the initial discussion. First, should the teams be permanent or established simply for specific projects and terminated when the project is completed? Second, do we want self-managing teams, supervisor led teams, or a mix? Third, issue is do we want teams within departments or should we use some crossfunctional teams? The discussion concludes with a fourth issue, do we want teams focused on improving our processes or simply accomplishing the work we are already doing?

75. Refer to Table 8.3. The fourth and final issue discussed relates to the ________ dimension of teams. a. time b. authority structure c. degree of autonomy d. purpose or mission Answer d

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309

76. Refer to Table 8.3. The first issue discussed by the team is dealing with the ________ dimension of teams. a. time b. authority structure c. degree of autonomy d. purpose or mission Answer a Page 311

77. Refer to Table 8.3. The second issue discussed focuses on the ________ dimension of teams. a. time b. authority structure c. degree of autonomy d. purpose or mission Answer c

Page

311

78. Refer to Table 8.3. The third issue discussed relates to the ________ dimension of teams. a. time b. authority structure c. degree of autonomy d. purpose or mission Answer b

Page

312

Table 8.4 Nermina is preparing to implement teams in her functional area. Currently she is studying how to create a team. In her past experience she often found that groups of people did less work than just one or two people could do. It is now two weeks later. Nermina is well into the process of creating teams. She is ensuring the correct resources, both human and material are available for the team.

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79. Refer to Table 8.4. Nermina’s original experience with groups is an example of a. social loafing. b. common with work groups. c. social facilitation. d. distraction-conflict effect.

Answer a

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80. Refer to Table 8.4. How could she have prevented the problem? a. By recognizing and rewarding individual effort. b. By developing commitment to a common purpose. c. By making each person working identifiable. d. By doing all of these.

Answer c

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306

81. Refer to Table 8.4. Two weeks into the implementation of her teams, Nermina is at what stage in team creation? a. Prework b. Creating performance conditions c. Forming and building the team d. Providing ongoing support for the team Answer b Page 314

82. Refer to Table 8.4. What management mistake could Nermina make that would cause her teams to fail? a. Linking individual rewards to team performance b. Diversifying the team membership c. Emphasizing the urgency of the team’s tasks d. Failing to relinquish control to the team Answer d Page 318 True/False Questions

83. Group dynamics refers to the use of groups or teams in which members are mutually committed to goals and there is leadership toward those goals.

Answer F Page 290 84. Josefina is part of a team formed to develop a corporate e-mail policy in the next 90 days. Josefina is a member of a task group.

Answer T Page 292

85. People join groups both because they share mutual goals but also for protection from other groups.

Answer T

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86. An alternative group model, the punctuated-equilibrium model, reduces the traditional five stages of group development to two and it is in the second phase when a group tries new ideas and new perspectives.

Answer T Page 296

87. The tendency for various specialized roles to emerge as a group develops is called prescriptive norms.

Answer F

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298

88. Prescriptive norms dictate specific behavior that should be avoided.

Answer F

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298

89. If Michiko seeks to mediate and settle conflicts in her group, she is fulfilling the role of compromiser.

Answer F

Page

299

90. Status symbols generally have a derogatory effect on groups, and therefore should be avoided in organizations.

Answer F Page

299

91. An example of informal status would be regarding someone with special skills at work as having higher status than everyone else.

Answer T Page 300

92. John tends to encourage most of his teammates to better performance when he is working with them.

This is an example of social facilitation.

Answer T Page 302

93. Social loafing is a cross-cultural phenomenon in that both collectivist and individualist cultures experience a high degree of social loafing in work groups.

Answer F Page 304

94. Researchers coined the term social impact theory for the phenomenon that occurs when group tasks are coordinated in such a way as to be added together to form the group’s final product.

Answer F Page 304

95. Groups tend to be responsive to self-imposed demands, whereas teams tend to be responsive to the demands of management.

Answer F Page 308

96. A high performance team is defined by its concern with using the parent organization’s resources to accomplish its goals.

Answer F Page 310

97. Dorothea is forming work teams by combining managers from various functions within the company. The fact that she is drawing team members from different departments defines the degree of autonomy the team has.

Answer F Page 311

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98. It is estimated that close to 50% of companies have at least one team in place that is self-directed to at least some extent.

Answer T Page

312

99. Harold is part of a human resources team research a cafeteria benefits program for his company.

Once their research is complete and presented to management, Harold will return to his regular HR responsibilities. Harold is part of a temporary, self-managed, cross-functional team.

Answer F Page 312

100. In organizations using cross-functional teams, the boundaries between all teams must be considered permeable.

Answer T Page

312

101. When organizations use cross-functional teams, people are usually members of one team only.

Answer F

Page

312

102. A Sun Microsystems virtual team worked together for seven months without ever being in the same room.

Answer T

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313

103. When creating a team, the manager decides who is on and not on the team, ensures members accept the team’s goals, and clarifies the team’s responsibilities in Stage 3, forming and building the team.

Answer T Page 314

104. Most companies categorize teams as a very effective way of managing work.

Answer T

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317

105. Teams can fail to work properly for a number of reasons including due to an unwillingness of its members to cooperate together.

Answer T Page 317

106. Effective teams link individual rewards to team performance.

Answer T

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318

107. The most effective teams are not placed under time pressures or challenged by a sense of urgency because it will lead to either sloppy work or being overwhelmed.

Answer F Page 320 Essay Questions Major Essay

108. Describe the key characteristics of a group.

Answer - There are four key characteristics. 1) They are composed of two or more people involved in social interaction. 2) They must have a stable group structure. Although the group can change, there must be some stable relationships. 3) Members must share common interests or goals. 4) The individuals involved must see themselves as a group.

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109. Groups pass through several stages in their development. Name each stage and explain what takes place in that stage.

Answer - Groups pass through five stages. 1) Forming--when group members get acquainted and establish ground rules. 2) Storming--when there is a high degree of conflict, members resist the leader’s control. 3) Norming--the group becomes cohesive, group identity builds, and there are shared feelings of common interests and goals. 4) Performing--the group is ready to work. 5) Adjourning--goals are met and the group disbands.

Pages 294-295

110. Discuss the four different aspects of group structure.

Answer - Group structure is determined by several things. 1) Roles--the part each member of the group plays. Issues here are role expectations, role ambiguity, and role differentiation. 2) Norms--the rules by which the group operates. They may be formal or informal. They may develop from: a) precedents set over time, b) carryover from other situations, c) response to an implicit statement by a superior or co-worker, and d) critical events in the group’s history. 3) Status--the prestige tied to group membership. Important here are the symbols of status. 4) Cohesiveness--the strength of members’ desires to remain a team.

Pages 297-302

111. Teams are distinguished by four major dimensions. Discuss these dimensions, giving examples of teams distinguished by each.

Answer - The first dimension is purpose or mission. Work teams are primarily concerned with work done by the organization. Improvement teams--have the mission of increasing effectiveness of processes, of the organization. The second dimension is time. Temporary teams are established for a specific project with a limited life. Permanent teams stay intact as long as the organization exists.

Third, is the degree of autonomy groups enjoy. Self-managed teams are almost completely autonomous, scheduling their own work, etc. In work groups, the leader makes the decisions on behalf of the members who follow orders. Fourth, and final dimension is authority structure, the connection between various formal job responsibilities. Intact teams work on specific projects and their authority structure is contained within the team. Cross-functional teams draw members across functions from the same level of the organization to work together.

Pages 309-314

112. Offer six tips on developing successful teams.

Answer - Students should explain their tips. 1) Provide training in team skills, 2) Compensate team performance, 3) Provide support, 4) Communicate the urgency of team’s mission, 5) Promote cooperation within and between teams, and 6) Select team members based on their skills or potential skills.

Pages 318-324 Short Essay

113. Why do people join groups?

Answer - 1) To satisfy mutual interests and goals. 2) To achieve security. 3) To fill social needs. 4) To fill self-esteem needs.

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114. Differentiate between a task-oriented role and a socio-emotional role.

Answer –Task-oriented roles are those roles in which the person helps the group to reach its desired goal. Socio-emotional roles, on the other hand, are those roles in which the person tries to make everyone else feel good, being supportive and nurturant others in the group..

Page 298

115. What is "social loafing" and when does it occur?

Answer - Social loafing is when one or more members of a group work less hard than they could because they see their contribution being less important because of the group effort. They loaf or get a ‘free ride.’ This is especially true with additive tasks where the efforts of one person add to the efforts of another.

Page 304

116. You are designing a training program for managers, managing teams. Identify the four major stages of team creation.

Answer - Stage 1--Prework--determining when a team should be created, objectives are set, decisions on authority are made, and a skills inventory is conducted. Stage 2--Creating performance conditions--ensuring the proper conditions exist for maximum performance. Stage 3--Forming and building the team--setting boundaries, who is and is not a team member; acceptance of the team mission by members; and clarifying expectations. Stage 4--Providing ongoing assistance--helping the team eliminate and solve problems.

Pages 314-315

117. What is ethnorelativistic thinking and how do managers promote it?

Answer – Ethnorelativistic thinking refers to taking the perspective of another group and understanding how they see the world. Promoting this type of thinking requires getting group members to understand and to respect the differences between them and to help relate to one another despite those differences. This involves learning perspective-taking, empathy, and adaptability.

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics Chapter 9 - Communication in Organizations Multiple Choice Questions

1. ________ is the process by which a person, group, or organization transmits some type of information to another person, group, or organization. a. Communication b. Encoding c. Transmitting d. Queuing Answer a Page 334

2. The process by which a person or group transmits information to another person or group is a. encoding. b. communication. c. queuing. d. personal communication.

Answer b

Page

334

3. John has an idea he wishes to communicate to Mary. He thinks it out and writes down his thoughts in a letter. John is engaging in the process of a. decoding. b. transmitting. c. encoding. d. sending.

Answer c Page 334

4. The means by which the message is carried from its origin to the recipient is called a. feedback. b. encoding. c. communication. d. the channel.

Answer d

Page

334

5. The process through which information received through communication is converted back into ideas or concepts is known as a. decoding. b. transmitting. c. encoding. d. sending.

Answer a Page 335

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6. Knowledge about the impact of messages on receivers is known as a. decoding. b. information. c. feedback. d. encoding.

Answer c

Page

335

7. If a message is poorly encoded or improperly decoded, this is an example of _________ in the communication process. a. noise b. the MUM effect c. jargon d. the hurier effect Answer a Page 336

8. The barriers in the communication process that result in distortion of the clarity of the message are a. nonverbal symbols. b. noise. c. the channels used. d. the context in which the message is sent.

Answer b

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336

9. The role of organizational communication includes a. directing action. b. coordinating action. c. building social relationships. d. all of these elements.

Answer d

Page

337

10. When individuals share information one on one, either formally or informally, this is known as: a. interpersonal communication b. group-level communication c. organizational communication d. iner-organizational communication Answer a

Page

338

11. Frank and five other company department representatives get together to talk about a strategic plan.

This is known as: a. interpersonal communication b. group-level communication c. organizational communication d. iner-organizational communication Answer c Page 338

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12. When information is shared within a team, this is known as: a. interpersonal communication b. group-level communication c. organizational communication d. inter-organizational communication Answer b Page 338

13. If IBM and Microsoft work together make plans for sharing resources to create a new product, this is known as: a. interpersonal communication. b. group-level communication. c. organizational-level communication d. inter-organizational communication Answer d Page 338

14. The verbal communication medium that is the richest in information and personal in nature is a. telephone. b. face-to-face conversation. c. memos or letters. d. all of the above.

Answer b

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338

15. An impersonal form of written verbal communication aimed at a general audience which describes information of interest to employees regarding a variety of issues is a/an a. memo or letter. b. employee handbook. c. fax. d. newsletter.

Answer d Page 339

16. The purpose of an employee handbook includes a. conveying information of general interest to employees. b. explaining key aspects of company policy and philosophy of operation. c. improving employee morale and attitudes. d. all of these.

Answer d

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339

17. The most common type of communication in organizations is a. two-way oral communication. b. one-way written communication. c. two-way written communication. d. one-way oral communication.

Answer a

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18. ________ is the recommended medium for sending long and complicated material or short thank-you notes. a. E-mail b. Fax c. Postal mail d. None of the above.

Answer c Page 339

19. Matching the type of communications medu to the kind of message sent is considered a. media insensitive. b. media savvy. c. media sensitive. d. nonverbal communication.

Answer c

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341

20. When it comes to an individual’s style of dress, the issue is a. the cost and quality represented in the way people dress. b. following the simple formula of ‘dress for success.’ c. their understanding of the formal versus informal dress code of the organization. d. the individual’s understanding of the appropriateness of dress.

Answer d

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341

21. If you have to wait for someone with whom you have an appointment, this is a nonverbal message that

a. b. c. d.

this person is disorganized. the individual you have the appointment with is rude. the person you are meeting perceives themselves as having higher status than you do. you are not properly attired and therefore will be made to wait.

Answer c Page 341

22. Studies of group communication when group members are seated at a table a. the location one chooses around a table has no impact on his/her communication possibilities. b. people who sit at the head of the table often emerge as the leaders of groups. c. leaders emerge from the seat closest to the head of the table on the right side. d. a group leader has the most power and the most effective communication from a position in the middle of a table.

Answer b Page 341

23. Joining the index finger and thumb to form an “0” means “ok” in the US, but in Tunisia it means a. “Hello”. b. “I love you”. c. “I’ll kill you”. d. an insult.

Answer c

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24. A telephone conversation is an example of: a. Synchronous communication. b. Asynchronous communication. c. Inter-organizational communication. d. Information overload.

Answer a Page 343

25. Conversations on a walkie-talkie: a. Synchronous communication. b. Asynchronous communication. c. Inter-organizational communication. d. Information overload.

Answer b Page 343 26. The most effective means for linking people into a meeting who are in distant locations is by a. telephone, teleconferencing. b. videoconferencing. c. video-mediated communications. d. conference e-mail.

Answer c Page 343

27. Symbols created by typing characters such as commas and hyphens are known as: a. emoticons. b. informal communication network. c. grapevines. d. jargon Answer a Page 345

28. Organizational structure refers to the a. formal patterns of communication, who talks to whom. b. pattern of communication networks in the organization. c. directing of the flow of communication within an organization. d. the formally prescribed pattern of interrelationships existing between various units.

Answer d

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349

29. An organizational chart indicates the a. informal patterns of communication between people. b. formally prescribed pattern of interrelationships existing between various units of an organization. c. formal patterns of communication, who talks to whom. d. communication style of the organization.

Answer c Page 349

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30. Downward communication includes which of the following types? a. Instructions b. Commands or orders c. Feedback on past performance d. All of the above Answer d

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350

31. The accuracy of upward communication is affected by a. the tendency for messages to be lost or distorted. b. the use of jargon by lower level employees. c. the managers’ attitude toward the employee. d. the MUM effect.

Answer d

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351

32. Upward communication in organizations a. occurs less frequently than downward communication. b. occurs more frequently than downward communication. c. tends to contain more ‘bad’ news for managers than ‘good’ news. d. is generally accurate due to the fewer levels it passes through.

Answer a

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351

33. In order to make the firing of an employee as humane as possible, the manager should a. explain the reasons for termination. b. leave the it open as to whether or not the decision is final. c. make the termination quick and clean with no offer of help during the transition. d. do the job via a formal letter or e-mail rather than in person.

Answer a

Page

352

34. Gender-segregated networks are known as: a. the old-boys network. b. the snowball effect. c. the grapevine d. wedge drivers.

Answer a Page 354

35. Worker turnover in the XYZ Corp. is quite high. It seems that people from the same work group where there had been recent layoffs are quitting at a high rate. This is an example of a. the snowball effect. b. social impact theory. c. the old boys' network. d. the effect of centralized communication.

Answer a Page 355

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36. The organizational grapevine is an example of a. a formal channel of communication. b. a wheel communication network. c. an informal channel of communication. d. a “Y” communication network.

Answer c

Page

356

37. Research shows that the information communicated in organizational grapevines is about ________ correct. a. 25% b. 42% c. 55% d. 82% Answer d

Page

357

38. Rumors a. are informal communications between friends. b. tend to be speculative information without factual basis. c. fuel the snowball effect. d. are largely harmless and should be ignored.

Answer b

Page

357

39. Rumors that reflect people’s wishes are known as: a. pipe dreams. b. bogie dreams. c. wedge drivers. d. home-stretchers.

Answer a Page 358

40. Those rumors that reflect people’s fears and anxieties are known as: a. pipe dreams. b. bogie dreams. c. wedge drivers. d. home-stretchers.

Answer b Page 358

41. When rumors are designed to damage someone’s reputation, these rumors are known as: a. pipe dreams. b. bogie dreams. c. wedge drivers. d. home-stretchers.

Answer c Page 358

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42. Those rumors designed to reduce the level of ambiguity in a situation are known as: a. pipe dreams. b. bogie dreams. c. wedge drivers. d. home-stretchers.

Answer d Page 358

43. Probably the least effective way to counter a rumor is to a. refute it directly. b. release accurate information. c. discredit the source. d. redirect attention away from the rumor.

Answer a

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359

44. A communication difference between men and women is that men a. are more status oriented than women in their communication. b. use the term “We” more often in their conversations than women do. c. strive to create positive social connections more than women do. d. tend to ask more questions than women do.

Answer a

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360

45. One of the differences in the way men and women communicate is that women a. are more status oriented than men in their communication. b. use the term “We” more often in their conversations than men do. c. have become more assertive and confident in their speech patterns. d. tend to make declarative statements while men tend to ask questions.

Answer b

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360

46. An important implication of gender differences in communication is a. that more men than women tend to use the Magisterial style. b. the fact that men and women can use the same words but have different meanings for them. c. powerful people tend to reward individuals who have linguistics styles like their own. d. women tend to take Reflective style while men tend to take on a Senatorial style.

Answer c

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360

47. Cross-cultural communication a. is often difficult because the same word can mean different things. b. is becoming much easier as the world’s cultures homogenize. c. is simplified through the growing use of electronic technology like the Internet. d. includes all of these.

Answer a

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48. In Japan, “no” is communicated by a. silence. b. responding in a highly tangential manner. c. asking questions that change the topic d. all of the above.

Answer d

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361

49. There are a number of steps you can take to promote cross-cultural communication, including a. assuming others are similar to yourself. b. carefully evaluating your observations. c. taking the other person’s perspective. d. speaking slowly and loudly.

Answer c

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362

50. Jim is in China teaching English as a second language. Even though both he and his students are using English to communicate Jim can promote cross-cultural communication by a. carefully evaluating the messages of the students. b. assuming the student’s perspective on English is different than his own. c. assuming his perceptions of their presentations is correct. d. doing all of these things.

Answer b Page 362

51. When professionals use a specialized language they are a. avoiding needlessly formal language. b. removing one barrier to effective communication. c. using jargon. d. doing all of these.

Answer c

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363

52. In a small manufacturing business, the technical professionals are not understood by the first line supervisors when they are explaining how to use the computer guided machines on the plant floor due to the language the ‘techies’ use. This is an example of the communication barrier of a. communication overload. b. the lack of active listening by the supervisors. c. the use of jargon. d. the MUM phenomenon in organizations.

Answer c Page 363

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53. A helpful onlooker who constantly gives you directions about where to point and click is known as: a. back seat mouser. b. bar-code hairstyle. c. chalk and talk d. computer snoot.

Answer a Page 363

54. Male professors with thinning hair who comb what little hair they have left over their bald spots are known as: a. computer snoot. b. chalk and talk. c. bar-code hairstyle d. mouselexic hairstyle.

Answer c Page 363

55. Traditional classroom instruction in which a professor delivers a monologue, punctuated by writing on the board is known as: a. back seat mouser. b. bar-code hairstyle. c. chalk and talk d. computer snoot.

Answer c Page 363

56. A pretentious person who rolls his/her eyes at you when you ask computer questions is known as: a. computer snoot. b. chalk and talk. c. bar-code hairstyle d. cyberia.

Answer a Page 363

57. Outdated and slow machines in university computing laboratories: a. computer snoot. b. chalk and talk. c. bar-code hairstyle d. tick-tock tech.

Answer d Page 363

58. The physical condition caused by doing research on the internet is known as: a. computer snoot. b. chalk and talk. c. bar-code hairstyle d. netlag.

Answer d Page 363

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59. Dee is actively listening to John’s presentation. She is practicing the HURIER model. At one point in the presentation Dee makes sure that John knows that she is paying attention. Dee’s action is what part of the HURIER model? a. Understanding b. Hearing c. Interpreting d. Responding Answer d Page 365

60. In the HURIER model for active listening, if you do not immediately pass judgment on the message being sent, you are practicing a. hearing. b. Evaluating. c. interpreting. d. remembering.

Answer b Page 365

61. Research shows that when it comes to listening a. most people are aware of how other people perceive their listening skills. b. most managers rate their listening skills as poor. c. in organizations it is a significant tool that can lead to rapid advancement. d. people listen more closely to upward communication than they do to downward communication.

Answer c

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366

62. If a communication network becomes bogged down with information, it is said to a. be queued. b. be in a gatekeeping mode. c. be experiencing the MUM effect. d. be overloaded.

Answer d

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366

63. The secretary that manages the sales manager’s schedule and screens his call, is fulfilling the communication function of a. queuing. b. gatekeeping. c. verifying. d. information skimming.

Answer b Page 367

64. One way to minimize distortion and omission problems in communication is the practice of a. redundancy. b. active listening. c. queuing. d. information skimming.

Answer a

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65. A way to ensure accuracy in the receipt of messages is for the sender to a. avoid redundancy. b. practice active listening. c. use queuing. d. require verification.

Answer d

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367

66. Bill, the HR director, has scheduled an informal meeting between hourly employees and middlemanagers, leaving the first line supervisors out of the meeting. Bill has set up a/an a. brown bag meeting. b. skip-level meeting. c. corporate hotline. d. employee survey.

Answer b Page 368

67. If the HR director wanted information from as many employees as possible on a regular basis, using a quick and easy method of gathering the information, his best choice of tool would be a. brown bag meetings. b. skip-level meetings. c. a corporate hotlines. d. employee surveys.

Answer d Page 369

68. Supportive communication is characterized by a. focusing on the person not the problem. b. honestly saying what you mean. c. providing reasons based on what others have done. d. all of these.

Answer b

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369

69. In a discussion with other managers, Stone tells Thelma that he disagrees with her. “I don’t agree, but I would like to hear your position, I could be wrong.” In terms of supportive communication this is an example of a. validating language. b. not owning your own decision. c. focusing on the person. d. being tactful and not saying what you mean.

Answer a Page 370

70. If you are in a discussion and you want to keep the conversation going you would use ________ to encourage the continuation of the discussion. a. disjunctive statements b. verification c. the snowball effect d. conjunctive statements Answer d Page 370 159

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71. The average U.S. office worker receives ________ phone calls/messages per day. a. 18 b. 39 c. 52 d. 74 Answer c

Page

372

Mini-Case Questions Table 9.1 Organizational communication students are observing and studying the communication at a corporate board meeting. Because the company is a multinational company, some of the people present are wearing headphones to hear the simultaneous translation from English language of the speaker at the head of the table, into their languages.

72. Refer to Table 9.1. The translators doing the simultaneous translation from English into other languages represent ________ in the communications model. a. encoding b. sending c. channel d. decoding Answer a Page 334

73. Refer to Table 9.1. The headphones the international guests are wearing exemplify which element of the communications model? a. Encoding b. Channel c. Decoding d. Feedback Answer b Page 334

74. Refer to Table 9.1. When the non-English speaking members of the meeting respond to the presentation with their comments and questions, they are a. encoding. b. sending. c. decoding. d. giving feedback.

Answer d Page 335

75. Refer to Table 9.1. The first two hours of this meeting is a report on the company’s progress over the last year; medium growth in market share, profits, etc. The most effective communications media for this part of the meeting a. is just what they are doing, a oral presentation. b. would be to use the telephone for one-on-one discussion. c. would be voice mail or video display terminals. d. would be a written memo or report. .

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Chapter 9 Communication in Organizations Answer d

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Table 9.3 A student of organizational communication, John is studying how the target of a communication shapes the communication. In his studies he notes that the technical professionals tend to not tell middle managers about problems they are having with the system or about shutdowns they will implement to change something. This isn’t a problem for John because he hears about the system shut downs from the IS department secretary who calls him up to warn him about 10 minutes before the system goes down.

But up and down the hall John can hear managers swearing as the system goes down and their work disappears for 15 minutes to a couple of hours.

The marketing manager tends to work fairly hard at keeping the sales and operation managers current on her plans for product campaigns so the sales people can talk about them and operations can make sure there is enough product on hand to meet demand.

76. Refer to Table 9.3. The problem with the lack of communication between the technical professionals and the middle managers is an example of a lack of a. downward communication. b. horizontal communication. c. diagonal communication. d. upward communication.

Answer d Page 351

77. Refer to Table 9.3. The marketing manager’s communication to the sales and operations managers is an example of a. downward communication. b. lateral communication. c. diagonal communication. d. upward communication.

Answer b Page 353

78. Refer to Table 9.3. The way John hears about the system shut downs is an example of a. informal communication. b. the grapevine. c. downward communication. d. inside communication.

Answer a Page 354

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Table 9.4 Jane has been tasked with the responsibility for opening the communication channels between employees and management. She implements a simple system quickly, where employees can share their good ideas about how to improve the organization by submitting their ideas in writing and being rewarded for the ideas that are used by the company. Corporate executives like the idea but they want broader participation. They would like feedback from all employees if possible. Once they have that feedback, they want to informally meet with selected employees to discuss the issues the broader outreach raises.

79. Refer to Table 9.4. Jane’s initial effort for feedback is called a/an a. corporate hotline. b. suggestion system. c. employee survey. d. brown bag meeting.

Answer b Page 368

80. Refer to Table 9.4. The tool that will get the executives what they want once they have the broadest possible input would be a/an a. corporate hotline. b. suggestion system. c. employee survey. d. brown bag meeting.

Answer d Page 368

81. Refer to Table 9.4. To meet the desires of upper management, Jane should implement a/an a. corporate hotline. b. suggestion system. c. employee survey. d. brown bag meeting.

Answer c Page 369 True/False Questions

82. Jerry wants to tell Mary he likes her. As he is thinking about how to frame what he wants to say he is at the choosing a channel stage of the communication process.

Answer F Page 334

83. Memos, e-mail, and faxes are examples of written communication that are “rich” because of the amount of information they provide.

Answer F Page 338

84. The best medium for an ambiguous message is written media.

Answer F

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339

85. Due to advances in technology, one-way communication is now more commonly used in organizations than two-way communication.

Answer F Page 339

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86. Time, space, and style of dress are all types of nonverbal communication.

Answer T

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341

87. Studies have shown that people emerging as the leaders of groups tend to be ones who just happened to be sitting at the table heads.

Answer T Page 341

88. In Italy, when a person stands close to another while talking, he or she is considered pushy.

Answer F

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342

89. The advantages of video-mediated communication over phone, fax, and e-mail are its ability to use information from several sources at the same time and permits visual clarification.

Answer T Page 343

90. As of 2002, e-mail has surpassed print advertising as the most widely used form of direct marketing.

Answer T

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344

91. When a vice president speaks with a first-line supervisor to ask his opinion on something downward communication is taking place.

Answer T Page 350

92. When firing someone employers must provide two weeks notice by law.

Answer F

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93. Of the three types of communication in an organization, lateral communication is often the tensest because it is among peers.

Answer F Page 353

94. If you become a victim of a rumor, it is best to immediately refute it with indisputable facts.

Answer T

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359

95. When an organization is facing a rumor, the most effective way of dealing with it is a direct strong denial or refutation of it.

Answer F Page 359

96. People in powerful positions tend to reward people whose linguistic styles match their own.

Answer T

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360

97. Cross-cultural communication can be promoted by assuming that people are different from you.

Answer T

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362

98. Formal language and jargon can be significant barriers to organizational communication.

Answer T

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363

99. An active listener puts the speaker’s ideas into his/her own words as he/she listens.

Answer T

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365

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100.

Jasmine is trying to manager all the information that came across her desk while she was gone.

She has taken the phone messages and stacked them in priority order, assigned priorities to her email and sorted it accordingly, and asked her secretary to hold any calls that didn’t need immediate attention. Jasmine is managing her communication overload through omission and redundancy.

Answer F Page 366

101. Suggestion boxes, hotlines, and employee surveys are forms of organizational feedback.

Answer T

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368

102. Effective supportive communicator’s do not say what they mean and they focus on the person not the problem in their communication.

Answer F Page 369

103. Val responds to Ed’s question by saying, “Ok, we could do it that way, it would well, can I suggest a variation of that?” In doing this Val is using validating language in her conversation with Ed. Answer T Page 370

104. The most effective communicators use front-loaded messages.

Answer T

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371

Essay Questions Major Essay

105. Describe the communication process, naming each element and explaining its part in the process.

Answer - The communication process has 7 elements to it. The sender is the originator of the message.

The message is encoded translated into a form, written or oral, that can be transmitted. The channel is the pathway along which information travels to the receiver for whom the message is intended. It is then decoded, or converted from its form back into the original ideas. Sometimes noise interferes with the sending and receiving of the message and distorts it, diminishing its clarity. Finally, the receiver may give feedback to the sender, telling the sender the impact of the message.

Pages 334-336

106. Explain the nature of upward, downward, and lateral communication in an organization.

Answer - Downward communication consists of instructions, directions, and orders from superiors to subordinates about what they should be doing. It is not always accurately perceived. The more levels in passes through on the way down, the more distortion is possible. Upward communication moves from subordinate to superior and consists of status reports, reactions to work-related issues, suggestions, and new ideas. There is less upward than downward communication, and it tends to be of shorter duration. There is a general reluctance to pass bad news upward. Lateral communication takes place among peers in different parts of the organization. It is coordinating communication and tends to be friendlier and more casual than upward/downward communication. But it too can have problems as people compete for the same resources.

Pages 350-353

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107. Explain the communication process in properly terminating an employee.

Answer – Firing someone is never easy, but these six suggestions can make the task much less distasteful for all concerned. They also can make the termination process less expensive for the company--and less emotionally draining for the ex-employee.  Keep written records of performance problems.  Give fair notice.  Clearly yet briefly explain the decision.  Be sympathetic to the fired worker’s feelings.  Do the job in person.  Reassure the surviving employees.

Page 252

108. How does culture impact communication? How can we enhance cross-cultural communication?

Answer – Globalization presents many challenges, one of the most immediate challenges is communication. Part of the problem is that different words can mean different things to different people. In addition to different vocabularies, cross-cultural communication also is difficult because in different languages, even the same word can mean different things.

There are several steps that can promote cross-cultural communication.  Observe, but do not evaluate.  Do not jump to conclusions.  Assume people are different from yourself.  Take the other person’s perspective.

These measures may be easier said than done, but with practice, they can be mastered. Given that such practices are key to die success of international managers, the effort involved is worth making.

Pages 361-362

109. What is the HURIER model?

Answer - HURIER is an acronym composed of the initials of the words that reflect the component skills of effective listening: hearing, understanding, remembering, interpreting, evaluating, and responding.

Pages 365-366

110. How can an organization facilitate feedback and open the channels of communication with employees?

Answer - To operate effectively, organizations must communicate accurately with those who keep them running (i.e., their employees). Unfortunately, most employees believe the feedback between themselves and their organizations is not as good as it should be. Organizations can obtain information from their employees in several ways.  One means is the use of suggestion systems. Approximately 15 percent of employees use their companies' suggestion boxes, and approximately 25 percent of the suggestions they made are implemented.  A second method is a corporate hotline--that is, telephone lines staffed by corporate personnel who were ready to answer employees' questions, listen to their comments, and the like.  A third set of techniques, known as "brown bag" meetings and “skip level" meetings, are designed to facilitate communication between people who usually do not get together because they work at different organizational levels.  Finally, employee surveys can gather information about employees' attitudes and opinions regarding key areas of organizational operations.

Pages 368-369

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111. Discuss the problem of spam.

Answer-The problem of spam is extensive and expensive. Approximately 80% of e-mail messages received are considered spam, and that number is rising. In 2006, there was an estimated 206 billion junk e-mails sent, costing U.S. corporations almost 9 billion dollars.

Page 336

112. Discuss the various forms of verbal communication and when it is appropriate to use each.

Answer - Verbal media may be written or oral. Written consists of memos, letters, employee handbooks, newsletters, flyers, bulletins, etc. Oral consists of face-to-face and use of the telephone.

Oral communication gets immediate attention, is best for ambiguous communication. Written communication is best for routine, nonambiguous communication.

Pages 338-341

113. Nonverbal communication is a significant portion of a message. Explain how style of dress, time, and space impact the communication process.

Answer – These are three elements of nonverbal communication. Style of dress conveys an image. The key issue is the appropriateness of attire. Time is a waiting game. How long one waits for access to someone is a sign of status and power. The longer the wait, the more status and power. Space also conveys status and power. The more work space an individual has, the more status.

Page 341

114. Are there gender-related differences in the way men and women communicate? If so what are they?

Answer - Yes, there are differences. Men emphasize and reinforce status when they talk. Men tend to say “I.” Men try to exude confidence and see questions as weakness. Men tend to be more direct and confrontive. Women de-emphasize status and focus on positive social connections. Women tend to say “We.” Women downplay their confidence and ask questions. Women listen and offer social support.

Pages 360-361

115. How can a manager become a supportive communicator?

Answer – To be an effective communicator, you must practice supportive communication. By this, we mean any communication that is accurate, honest, and builds and enhances relationships instead of jeopardizing them.  Focus on the problem, not the person  Honestly say what you mean  Own your decisions  Use validating language  Keep the conversation going Pages 369-371

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Chapter 10 Decision Making in Organizations Chapter 10 - Decisions Making in Organizations Multiple Choice Questions 1.

The process of making choices from several alternatives is called: a. framing the problem. b. a heuristic. c. decision making. d. identifying the problem.

Answer c Page 380 2.

The general analytical model of decision making focuses on which key aspects of decision making: a. heuristic and programming. b. the style and the system used. c. who and how. d. formulation and implementation.

Answer d Page 380 3.

The first step in the traditional, analytical model of decision making is to: a. identify the problem. b. make a predecision. c. define the objectives to be met. d. none of the above.

Answer a Page 381 4.

Once a problem has been identified: a. it must be analyzed. b. what is to be accomplished must be decided. c. a predecision is made. d. alternative solutions must be created.

Answer b Page 381 5.

A "predecision" refers to: a. a tentative, preliminary decision. b. the tendency to have your mind made up before knowing all the facts. c. a decision about how to make a decision. d. none of the above.

Answer c Page 382 6.

The use of ________ leads to outcomes that are higher in quantity and better in quality than those made in the absence of such techniques. a. evaluations support technology b. decision support systems c. communications technology d. alternative generations support Answer b Page 382

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics 7.

Computer programs that help decision makers decide how to make a decision are known as: a. decision support systems. b. heuristics. c. programmed decision making. d. administrative modeling systems.

Answer a Page 382 8.

The identification of possible solutions to the problem comes in the: a. predecision stage. b. alternative generation stage. c. problem definition stage. d. problem framing stage.

Answer b Page 382 9.

If Alonso Lopes continually checks up on his counter parts everyday to make sure that they are consistently present and working, then he would be using a. strategic decision making. b. programmed decision making. c. nonprogrammed decision making. d. preestablished decision making.

Answer c Page 384 10. Decisions can be categorized in a number of ways. If a manager is making a decisions for which there are no ready-made solutions because the situation is unique, he/she is making a/an: a. programmed decision. b. strategic decision. c. empowered decision. d. nonprogrammed decision.

Answer d Page 384 11. When trying to decide if a decision is a programmed or nonprogrammed decision, a manager should consider three questions, including: a. How much time do we have? b. What resources are needed? c. What is the probability of obtaining the desired outcome? d. What types of tasks are involved?

Answer d Page 384 12. The key element in classifying a decision as certain or uncertain is: a. the ambiguity of the information involved. b. the level of manager involved in the decision. c. the risk involved. d. the existence of organizational policies.

Answer c Page 385

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Chapter 10 Decision Making in Organizations 13. When a decision is made on concrete verifiable data, the decision is based on: a. subjective probabilities. b. objective probabilities. c. framing. d. the representativeness heuristic.

Answer b Page 385 14. When a decision is based on personal beliefs or hunches it is called a. subjective probability. b. objective probability. c. framing. d. the representative heuristic.

Answer a Page 386 15. The level of uncertainty in a decision, can be reduced by: a. increasing the information available from which to make the decision. b. increasing the number of decision makers involved. c. raising the level of manager involved in the decision. d. doing all of these.

Answer a Page 386 16. When managers make decisions they rely most heavily on: a. decision support systems. b. their experience. c. the use of team decision making. d. rules and procedures.

Answer b Page 387 17. Bill’s company tends to have employees from all levels gather data, prepare reports, and pass this information on to senior level managers who actually make the decisions. This is an example of: a. empowered decision making. b. top-down decision making. c. the use of the Delphi technique. d. nonprogrammed decisions making.

Answer b Page 387 18. ________ allows employees to make the decisions required to do their jobs without first seeking supervisory approval. a. Empowered decision making b. Top-down decision making c. The use of the Delphi technique d. Nonprogrammed decisions making Answer a Page 387

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics 19. The Maguire Group used ________ in order to create an ethics policy acceptable to management and the employees. a. empowered decision making b. top-down decision making c. the Delphi technique d. nonprogrammed decisions making Answer a Page 387 20. A person who prefers complex problems and is willing to use innovative methods would describe which decision-style? a. Directive b. Analytical c. Conceptual d. Behavioral Answer b Page 389 21. When making a decision, if an individual is more willing to consider complex solutions based on ambiguous information after carefully studying the data, and enjoys solving problems, his/her decision style is most likely to be: a. directive. b. analytical. c. conceptual. d. behavioral.

Answer b Page 389 22. If a person is more socially oriented in his/her approach to problems, if he/she tends to consider many broad alternatives, and have a strong future orientation, his/her decision style is most likely to be: a. directive. b. analytical. c. conceptual. d. behavioral.

Answer c Page 389 23. A person who has a deep concern for the organization and the development of the workers, and is highly concerned about others’ achievement, mostly likely has a ________ decision style. a. directive b. analytical c. conceptual d. behavioral Answer d Page 389 24. Studies show that corporate presidents tend toward ________ decision style(s). a. the analytical b. no one c. the conceptual d. either the directive or analytical Answer b Page 390 .

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25. Military leaders tend toward ________ decision style, according to research. a. an analytical b. no one c. a conceptual d. either a directive or analytical Answer c Page 390 26. The expected advantages of using groups to make decisions include: a. the potential pooling of resources. b. the generalization of labor. c. faster decision making. d. all of the above.

Answer a Page 390 27. Group decision making does have a few disadvantages, such as: a. a tendency to waste time. b. the potential for group conflict. c. possible intimidation by the group leader. d. all of the above.

Answer d Page 390 28. The tendency for members of highly cohesive groups to conform to group pressures so strongly that they reject the potentially correcting influence of outsiders is known as: a. escalation of commitment. b. bias toward an implicit favorite. c. bounded discretion. d. groupthink.

Answer d Page 391 29. The first indicator that groupthink could develop is: a. the group has high levels of cohesion. b. pressure to go along with the group develops. c. a reluctance to question group decisions develops. d. the development of the illusion that decisions are unanimous.

Answer a Page 392 30. Sometimes it may help to play the role of devil’s advocate, to intentionally find fault with a proposed solution. This would be most useful for which of the following strategies for avoiding groupthink? a. Using subgroups b. Admitting shortcomings c. Holding second-chance meetings d. Promoting open inquiry Answer d Page 392

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics 31. One can prevent or diminish groupthink by: a. breaking the larger group into subgroups. b. encouraging members to keep their skepticism about solutions to themselves. c. sticking to the decision once it is made. d. doing all of the above.

Answer a Page 392 32. Groupthink can be eliminated or diminished by: a. promoting open inquiry. b. holding second-chance meetings. c. admitting shortcomings. d. doing all of the above.

Answer d Page 392 33. When people in an organization make decisions in order to make themselves look good, the organizational barrier of ________ is interfering with rational decision making. a. time constraints b. political facesaving c. groupthink d. intimidation by group leaders Answer b Page 393 34. The decision making model/process that seeks the optimum decision and maximized attainment of goals by a systematic search for the best possible decision is the: a. traditional analytical model. b. rational-economic model. c. administrative model. d. image theory model.

Answer b Page 394 35. Which of the following is true about the impact of culture on decision making? a. It makes a difference as to who is expected to make the decision. b. It impacts what decisions are made, but no other aspect of decision making. c. It has little to no impact in today’s shrinking global world. d. It only has an impact on how many people are involved in a decision.

Answer a Page 395 36. A decision-making model that simply considers alternatives as they appear, and accepts the first alternative that meets acceptance criteria is the: a. traditional analytical model. b. rational-economic model. c. administrative model. d. image theory model.

Answer c Page 396

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Chapter 10 Decision Making in Organizations 37. ________ is an organizational impediment to decision making where moral and ethical limitations impact the decision. a. Heuristics b. Bounded rationality c. Bounded discretion d. Political "face saving" pressure Answer c Page 396 38. A more intuitive form of decision making that compares solutions to various perceptions, and evaluates how well the solution fits goals, plans, and values, is the: a. traditional analytical model. b. rational-economic model. c. administrative model. d. image theory model.

Answer d Page 397 39. According to image theory, decision making is: a. a smooth, quick, intuitive process. b. a deliberate process. c. a search for the best solution. d. done following a programmed approach.

Answer a Page 397 40. According to image theory, the decision to adopt a course of action is made on the basis of a two-step process, the: a. heuristic test and the predecision test. b. compatibility test and the profitability test. c. decision framing test and the proscriptive test. d. satisficing test and the acceptance criteria test.

Answer b Page 397 41. ________ refers to the making decisions differently, depending on how the problem is presented. a. Compatibility testing b. Profitability testing c. Framing d. Bounded rationality Answer c Page 398 42. If you want to frame a decision in such a way as to increase the likelihood that people will be more willing to take risks, you should: a. frame the problem in terms of the potential losses to be suffered. b. frame the problem in terms of the positive gains to be received. c. balance the framing of the problem between potential losses and positive gains. d. do none of the above.

Answer a Page 398

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics 43. Henrietta thinks that the dip in stock prices is a good sign she should buy because her broker describes the dip as an opportunity rather than as a downturn. Henrietta's behavior is an example of: a. goal framing. b. a heuristic for buying stock. c. attribute framing. d. risky choice framing effect.

Answer c Page 399 44. Orin is trying to persuade his date to go see the latest action movie. He has decided that what he needs to do is emphasize what she will miss, how hurt he will be, and that he will go anyway but with his other friends, something she doesn't want him to do. Orin has framed the issue in terms of: a. attributes. b. goals. c. relationships. d. heuristics.

Answer b Page 399 45. One can be considered to be a(n) ________ if one describes how decision makers ideally ought to behave so as to make the best possible solution. a. normative b. optimal c. administrative d. rational Answer a Page 399 46. Simple rules of thumb used to help make satisfying decisions are known as: a. heuristics. b. programmed decisions. c. predecisions. d. framing rules.

Answer a Page 400 47. The tendency for people to base their judgments on information that is readily available to them, although it might not be accurate, is the phenomenon of: a. bias toward implicit favorites. b. escalation of commitment. c. a representativeness heuristic. d. an availability heuristic.

Answer d Page 400 48. Which of the following describes the tendency for people to perceive others in stereotypical ways if they appear representative of the category to which they belong? a. bounded discretion b. bias toward implicit favorites c. the representativeness heuristic d. the availability heuristic Answer c Page 400

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Chapter 10 Decision Making in Organizations 49. Research shows that individuals will often ________ early in the decision process and then not seriously consider other options. a. escalate their commitment b. choose an implicit favorite c. experience bounded rationality d. use a representativeness heuristic Answer b Page 402 50. Suppose you recommend hiring a certain individual for a new job in your department, and on the strength of your recommendation, she gets the job. As time goes on, the new hire proves to be a poor employee. Some of your colleagues even recommend dismissing. However, because you were the person who recommended hiring her, you stand by your recommendation and argue that she should be given more time to prove herself on the job. Your behavior reflects the phenomenon of: a. escalating commitment. b. choosing an implicit favorite. c. experiencing bounded rationality. d. using a representativeness heuristic.

Answer a Page 405 51. Escalation of commitment is unlikely when: a. there are limited resources involved. b. the threat of failure is overwhelming. c. responsibility for earlier failures is diffused. d. all of these have happened, or are happening.

Answer d Page 405 52. A number of factors restrain an escalation of commitment in decision making, including: a. an individual can diffuse their responsibility for earlier failing actions. b. when the amount invested is less than what is expected to be gained. c. when the person involved decides he/she is not willing to read about the decision in the newspaper. d. if the probability of failure is fairly low.

Answer a Page 406 53. Research of group versus individual decision making seems to show that: a. groups are almost always superior to individuals, regardless of the decision. b. individuals are almost always superior to groups, regardless of the decision. c. the superiority of a group or individual decision depends on circumstances. d. none of these.

Answer c Page 407 54. Groups are most effective when which of the following conditions exist? a. The group is diverse. b. The skill makeup of the group does not overlap or complement each other. c. The group is dealing with a simple task. d. The group is heterogeneous with complementary skills.

Answer d Page 407

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics 55. The superiority of the group or an individual depends on: a. the nature of the task and the expertise of the people involved. b. the framing of the problem and the decision model used to generate solutions. c. who has the most experience dealing with the specific problem. d. none of the above.

Answer a Page 407 56. Research comparing the performance of groups and individuals on complex learning tasks has found that: a. the best individuals performed as well as groups. b. the best individuals performed better than groups. c. groups performed better than the best individuals. d. groups performed better than the average individual, but not the best individual.

Answer c Page 408 57. Individuals perform better than groups on: a. routine, noncreative tasks. b. complex tasks. c. all types of tasks. d. poorly structured, creative tasks.

Answer d Page 408 58. Effective brainstorming requires: a. the immediate and thorough evaluation of all suggestions. b. the sharing of all ideas, even far-out suggestions. c. that only those who have experience with the problem share their ideas. d. all of these.

Answer b Page 408 59. Research on brainstorming shows: a. that it works best with unique problems requiring creative solutions. b. that groups are most productive when being creative. c. that people feel inhibited by the presence of others when sharing far-out ideas. d. all of these.

Answer c Page 408 60. If a group seeks answers too quickly in a sense of desperation, they are guilty of: a. unconflicted change. b. unconflicted adherence. c. defensive avoidance. d. hypervigilance.

Answer d Page 410

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Chapter 10 Decision Making in Organizations 61. ________ occurs when decision makers stick to the first idea that comes to mind without adequately evaluating it consequences. a. Unconflicted change b. Unconflicted adherence c. Defensive avoidance d. Hypervigilance Answer b Page 410 62. The process of using the consensus of expert judges collected by mail to make decisions is known as: a. the electronic meeting system. b. the nominal group technique. c. the Delphi technique. d. the Stepladder technique.

Answer c Page 410 63. The first step in the use of the Delphi technique is: a. posing the problem. b. enlisting the cooperation of the experts. c. recording the experts’ responses. d. having the experts comment on each other’s responses.

Answer b Page 411 64. The Delphi technique has the advantage of: a. reducing costs while accessing expertise. b. increasing the speed of the group decision process. c. minimizing pressure to conform to others’ opinions. d. encouraging maximum participation.

Answer a Page 411 65. The method of systematically presenting and discussing ideas before voting on them in face-to-face groups is known as: a. the decision support system. b. the nominal group technique. c. the Delphi technique. d. the Stepladder technique.

Answer b Page 411 66. A limitation of the nominal group technique is: a. that it requires a trained facilitator. b. its expense. c. that it is best used with complex problems. d. time.

Answer a Page 412

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics 67. The nominal and Delphi techniques suffer from a similar drawback: a. a lower quality decision than with other techniques produce. b. a susceptibility to groupthink. c. the acceptance of the decision that is made. d. none of the above.

Answer c Page 412 68. The stepladder technique has the advantage of: a. minimizing nonparticipation. b. having the lowest cost of all group problem-solving techniques. c. being the fastest of all techniques. d. all of the above.

Answer a Page 413 69. Electronic meeting systems are simply a high tech version of: a. decision support systems. b. the nominal group technique. c. the Delphi technique. d. the Stepladder technique.

Answer b Page 414 70. If a group has individuals in different locations participate in nominal group conferences via telephone, it is using: a. the electronic meeting system. b. the Delphi technique. c. the Stepladder technique. d. none of the above.

Answer a Page 414 Mini-Case Questions Table 10.1 Brian, Chen, Adrienne, Sandra, and Jill are working on a company problem. Jill is deeply concerned for the company and how the solution will affect the personal development of employees. She is open to the others’ suggestions and will tend to make her decision in the meeting. On the other hand, Brian wants a simple, clear, quick solution. He only gathers the minimum necessary information and tends to rest on rules or precedent to make his decision. Adrienne has just retired from a successful 20-year career in the Army as a logistics officer. In contrast to Brian, Chen enjoys the problem-solving process. He wants to look at a complex solution because he wants the best possible solution. Sandra is the facilitator of the group. She reminds the group to think of the solution’s impact on the employees. Sandra has a strong future orientation and enjoys her role as facilitator because it allows her to initiate new ideas.

71. Refer to Table 10.1. Brian’s decision style is: a. directive. b. analytical. c. conceptual. d. behavioral.

Answer a Page 389 .

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Chapter 10 Decision Making in Organizations 72. Refer to Table 10.1. Chen has a ________ decision style. a. directive b. analytical c. conceptual d. behavioral Answer b Page 389 73. Refer to Table 10.1. If Adrienne follows the norm discovered in decision style research, her style is most likely to be: a. directive. b. analytical. c. conceptual. d. behavioral.

Answer c Page 389 74. Refer to Table 10.1. Jill’s decision-making style is apparently: a. directive. b. analytical. c. conceptual. d. behavioral.

Answer d Page 389 Table 10.2 Decision makers have a number of options available to them as to how to categorize and make decisions.

Ray selected his job because he thought it simply felt like the right place to work. The organization and job seemed to fit his values and career goals. When the secretary that reports to Ray in his new job, decides that she needs office supplies, she calls up central purchasing and places an order. But in order to get the new computer software she wants for her job, she has to get Ray to sign off on the purchase. After six months on the job Ray concludes that he needs an assistant. He writes up the job description, receives permission to recruit for the position. He receives about 150 resumes in the mail. He sets up interviews with the top 10 candidates. As he is interviewing candidate number four, he decides he meets all the criteria and offers him the job, which he accepts.

75. Refer to Table 10.2. The secretary’s decision-making process for buying office supplies is an example of: a. the traditional analytical model. b. a programmed decision. c. the administrative decision model. d. top-down decision making.

Answer c Page 396 76. Refer to Table 10.2. The decision-making model Ray seems to be using in his recruiting/hiring efforts is the: a. traditional analytical model. b. rational-economic model. c. administrative model. d. image theory model.

Answer c Page 396 179

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77. Refer to Table 10.2. Ray’s decision-making process about his job seems to best fit which of the following descriptions? a. This exemplifies the traditional analytical model. b. This is an example of a programmed decision. c. This is a decision with low risk and low uncertainty. d. This is an example of the image theory model.

Answer d Page 397 Table 10.3 Nancy recently tried to talk her executive management team into moving into international markets. She emphasizes the positive opportunities that were possible but her bosses turn her idea down because they fear the risks involved. They preferred expanding existing markets to entering new markets. Nancy review the meeting with her boss later to see how she could improve it. Her boss that she didn’t provide sufficient information prior to the meeting and several of the executives were drawing on information currently on their desks, showing the international market was a dangerous place to be, rather than the exciting opportunity Nancy tried to present. Gail, Nancy’s friend, suggested at lunch that the ‘old-boys’ network was functioning and she was turned down because they weren’t going to let some pushy woman tell them what they should be doing. About four months after the presentation, the executive management team meets again to decide about the investment of capital and effort. Existing markets are drying up and if the company doesn’t move into new markets, especially internationally, it may well fail.

Obsolescence of the product line and the growth of competition is destroying their market share and profitability. The management team decides to invest more money and much more effort into existing markets and to let the international idea sit.

78. Refer to Table 10.3. The turn down by Nancy’s bosses is an example of: a. an escalation of commitment. b. bounded discretion. c. framing effects. d. a representativeness heuristic Answer c Page 398 79. Refer to Table 10.3. Nancy’s immediate boss’ explanation for the turndown is related to: a. a representativeness heuristic. b. an availability heuristic. c. bias toward an implicit favorite. d. bounded discretion.

Answer b Page 400 80. Refer to Table 10.3. Gail’s explanation of the failure of the presentation relates it to: a. a representativeness heuristic. b. an availability heuristic. c. bias toward an implicit favorite. d. bounded discretion.

Answer a Page 400

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Chapter 10 Decision Making in Organizations 81. Refer to Table 10.3. How could the management team’s decision to continue to invest in existing markets be explained? a. This is an example of the escalation of commitment. b. Their bounded discretion restrains their action. c. The framing effect keeps them from seeing the problem. d. None of these.

Answer a Page 405 Table 10.4 B.F.E., Inc. has to assign several problems to different groups. In the first case, the group consists of a number of experts who have offices across the country and have difficulty getting together. The problem they are working on is a problem that needs to be solved over the next six to nine months. In the second case, management is concerned that people might be intimidated by their leaders. The team is located in the same building as the corporate headquarters. Genuine consensus is important, and a trained facilitator is available to lead the group. In the third and final situation, management has observed that the people selected to participate seem hesitant to do so. Plus, the lengthy nature of the work to be done means new people will need to be added to the group periodically. Time is not an issue.

82. Refer to Table 10.4. ________ would be the best approach to problem solving in the first case. a. the nominal group technique b. the electronic meeting systems c. traditional analytical problem solving d. the Delphi technique Answer d Page 410 83. Refer to Table 10.4. The best problem solving approach for the second case would be: a. nominal group technique. b. electronic meeting systems. c. traditional analytical problem solving. d. Delphi technique.

Answer a Page 411 84. Refer to Table 10.4. The best problem-solving technique in the third situation would be: a. the nominal group technique. b. the stepladder technique. c. traditional analytical problem solving. d. the Delphi technique.

Answer b Page 413 True/False Questions 85. Programmed decisions are routine decisions that are made by lower personnel.

Answer T Page 384 86. Nancy is in the process of deciding which markets her company should pursue in the next five years.

Nancy is making a nonprogrammed strategic decision.

Answer T Page 384

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics 87. The risk element in decision making is the probability that the desired outcome will result from decision chosen.

Answer T Page 385 88. Decision makers who use as much data as possible in considering complex solutions based on ambiguous information are using a directive decision making style.

Answer F Page 389 89. Breaking a group into subgroups and promoting open inquiry in decision making are ways to avoid groupthink.

Answer T Page 392 90. Some techniques that can be used in making decisions in emergencies are to recognize your prime objectives, rely on experts, and encourage groupthink.

Answer F Page 394 91. In the rational-economic decision making model the decision makers makes a decision as soon as possible on as little information as possible.

Answer F Page 394 92. In rational decision making the understanding of the problem takes place the formulation phase.

Answer T Page 394 93. A rational decision decides how to make a decision when defining the objectives to be met in solving the problem.

Answer F Page 394 94. A normative or prescriptive approach is one that describes how decision makers ideally ought to behave so as to make the best possible decisions.

Answer T Page 395 95. The administrative model of decision making is fundamentally an intuitive process.

Answer F Page 396 96. The tendency for people to make decisions based on how the problem is presented is the framing effect.

Answer T Page 398 97. If Price is more influenced by negative information than by positive information in his decision making he is experiencing attribute framing effect.

Answer F Page 399 98. If Danny Poe is conducting a group interview for a management position at his firm, SencorTeck, and he chooses a candidate within the first 5 minutes of the interview, then Danny could be using an the explicit favorite option.

Answer F Page 402

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Chapter 10 Decision Making in Organizations 99. The individual decision making problem of choosing a decision that really is one's initial preference even before information gathering is the error of escalation of commitment.

Answer F Page 405 100. Whether groups perform better than individuals depends on the nature of the task performed and the expertise of the people involved.

Answer T Page 407 101. The best time to use a group is with complex decisions when the group is heterogeneous and has a complementary mix of skills.

Answer T Page 407 102. Individuals outperform groups on creative tasks and when the tasks are poorly structured.

Answer T Page 408 103. The individual decision error having to do with sticking to the very first idea that comes up is the problem of defensive avoidance.

Answer F Page 410 104. When a group solicits the opinions of experts by mail and then compiles those opinions in the process of choosing the best alternative is nominal group technique.

Answer F Page 410 105. A decision making technique that improves the quality of decisions by adding one member at a time and requiring that member to present his/her ideas independently to the group.

Answer T Page 413 106. Electronic meeting systems are a type of nominal group technique.

Answer T Page 414 Essay Questions Major Essay 107. Explain the eight-step traditional, analytical model of decision making.

Answer - 1) Problem identification--before a problem can be solved it must be recognized and identified. Also, how a problem is solved depends on what it is. 2) Definition of objectives--it is important to conceive of a problem in ways that permit possible solutions to be identified. 3) Make a predecision--making the decision about how to make the decision. 4) Generating alternatives--this is when possible solutions are identified. 5) Evaluating possible alternative solutions--deciding which of the alternatives generated is best. 6) Making a choice--choosing the most acceptable one. 7) Implementing the chosen alternative--carrying out the chosen alternative. 8) Follow-up--monitoring the effectiveness of decisions.

Pages 381-383 108. Describe the concept of decision style model, identifying the four basic styles.

Answer - One way to conceptualize how people use one of the four predominant styles of decision making. Decision style is the differences between people with respect to their orientations toward decisions. The four styles are 1) Analytical, 2) Directive, 3) Conceptual, and 4) Behavioral.

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics 109. Discuss the three predominate models of individual decision making, naming and describing each.

Answer - The rational-economic model is the search for the ideal or optimum solution. It follows the same steps as the traditional analytical model, but calls for the decision maker to recognize all courses of action and to evaluate each one. The model is both normative and prescriptive. The administrative model recognizes bounded rationality that limits the making of optimally rational-economic decisions.

Decision makers consider alternatives as they present themselves taking the first alternative that meets the criteria for acceptability. Such decisions are satisficing decisions. Bounded rationality is the assumption that human limitations lead to satisficing decisions rather than optimal decisions. Image theory is an intuitive approach to decision making using a simple two-step process; a compatibility test and a profitability test.

Pages 395-398 110. Describe the four common problems individuals must overcome to improve group performance.

How can these problems be avoided?

Answer - 1) Hypervigilance--involves frantically searching for quick solutions to problems, going from one idea to another out of a sense of desperation. It can be avoided by keeping in mind that it is best to work thoroughly through one decision, reassuring the decision maker about his/her skill. 2) Unconflicted adherence--results from decision makers sticking to the first idea that comes into their heads without more deeply evaluating it. To avoid this, decision makers should; think about the difficulties inherent in their ideas, consider different ideas, and consider special and unique characteristics of the problem. 3) Unconflicted change--is when people change their minds too rapidly and adopt the first new idea. Encouraging decision makers to; think about the risks and problems of the first idea, think about the good points of the first idea, and to review the strengths and weaknesses of both ideas will help avoid this. 4) Defensive avoidance--occurs when decision makers avoid working at the task at hand. This can be prevented by; not procrastinating, avoiding disowning of responsibility, and not ignoring potential corrective information.

Page 410 111. Explain what the Delphi technique, the nominal group technique, and the stepladder technique of decision making are and how they work.

Answer - 1) The Delphi technique was developed by the Rand Corporation. It systematically collects and organizes the opinions of several experts into a single decision when the experts are geographically dispersed. The process begins with the input of the experts. A group leader compiles the individual responses and shares them with everyone through reproduction and mailing. Each expert then comments on the individual decisions and sends his/her response back to the leader who looks for consensus of comments and summarizes the responses. The process is continued until a consensus decision is reached. See Figure 10.12, page 389. 2) Nominal group technique brings together a small group of decision makers, and in a number of hours leads them to a consensus-based decision. The problem is described to the group, who then work individually work out their own solution. The solutions are presented one at a time and recorded on a chart. Each is discussed, clarified, and evaluated. Once all ideas are presented, they are ranked by the group, and the best one is selected. The decision makers are working as a group in name only since much of the work is done individually. See Figure 10.13, page 391. 3) The Stepladder technique addresses the nonparticipation issue that often comes up when new members are added to a group already in the decision process.

As new members are added, they are required to present their ideas. A pair of team members work on their idea and then present it to the group. A third person is considering the group alone. The single contributor presents his/her ideas after the pair does and the three of them enter a discussion of the solution. At that time, a fourth person is added, to the group having worked on the problem independently. And so on. After each additional person is added the group works together toward a solution.

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Chapter 10 Decision Making in Organizations Short Essay 112. What are the 8 steps in the decision-making problem?

Answer - Identify the problem, define objectives, make a predecision, generate alternatives, evaluate alternatives, make a choice, implement choice, and follow up.

Page 381 113. Briefly describe the type of task involved and who the typical decision maker is for programmed and nonprogrammed decision.

Answer - A programmed decision has a simple and routine type of task involved, where lower-level workers are the primary decision makers. A nonprogrammed decision is complex and creative, where upper-level supervisors usually make the decision.

Page 384-385 114. What is the difference between programmed and nonprogrammed decisions?

Answer - Programmed decisions are routine, made by lower-level personnel, and rely on predetermined courses of action. Nonprogrammed decisions are ones without ready-made solutions, each situation confronted is unique.

Pages 384-385 115. What are the pros and cons of group decisions.

Answer - Pros--a pooling of resources, specialization of labor, greater acceptance of the decision.

Cons--takes much longer, may result in group conflict, and members may be intimidated by the group leaders and therefore may not adequately express their opinions or ideas.

Pages 390-391 116. Discuss groupthink and ways to avoid it.

Answer - Groupthink is the consequence of extreme cohesion. Group members tend to isolate themselves from outside information and critical thinking deteriorates because group members are reluctant to challenge the group’s decisions. It can be avoided by: 1) promoting open inquiry, 2) using subgroups, 3) admitting shortcomings, and 4) holding second-chance meetings.

Pages 391-392 117. What is a heuristic? Describe two common types of heuristics used in organizational decision making.

Answer - They are simple rules of thumb that guide them through a complex array of decision alternatives. Available heuristic refers to the tendency for people to base their judgments on information that is readily available to them. Representative heuristic refers to the tendency to perceive others in stereotypical ways if they appear typically representative of the category to which they belong.

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics Chapter 11 – Conflict, Cooperation, Trust, and Deviance: Interpersonal Behavior at Work Multiple Choice Questions 1.

________ is the process by which individuals or organizations seek to coordinate their efforts to maximize joint outcomes or reach shared goals. a. Altruism b. Prosocial behavior c. Integrative bargaining d. Organizational citizenship behavior Answer b Page 426 2.

Suppose you are busy working on a special report for your boss and the deadline is fast approaching.

You ask your associate, Bill, who is not involved in the project, to help you get the job done and he agrees to, although the project has nothing to do with his department or his work. Bill's behavior is an example of a. win-lose bargaining. b. cooperation. c. prosocial behavior. d. organizational citizenship behavior.

Answer c Page 426 3.

A person’s belief about what is expected of another in a relationship is referred to as a(n) a. perceptual contract. b. psychological contract. c. interpersonal contract. d. None of the above.

Answer b Page 427 4.

Psychological contracts vary with respect to: a. time frame and performance requirements. b. time frame and OCB-I. c. time frame and OCB-O. d. performance requirements and OCB-I. Answer a Page 427 5.

All of the following are characteristics of a transactional contract except a. a narrow and well-defined scope. b. an exclusively economic focus. c. a brief time span. d. highly subjective.

Answer c Page 428

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6.

Thomas has worked under the same supervisor for 35 years and considers her a good friend. His relationship with his supervisor is based on a(n) a. relational contract. b. transactional contract. c. interpersonal contract. d. social contract.

Answer a Page 428 7.

Calculus-based trust a. refers to out tendency to treat others as we remember them treating us. b. is based on accepting the wants and desires of another person. c. exists when people believe that another person will behave as promised out of fear of punishment. d. will sometimes contribute to organizational conflict.

Answer c Page 429 8.

Rick knows and understands Chuck so well that he is willing to allow Chuck to act on his behalf.

Rick is demonstrating a. calculus-based trust. b. identification-based trust. c. cognitive-based trust. d. affective-based trust.

Answer b Page 431 9.

Organizational citizenship behaviors a. are actions that benefit others within the organization, usually expecting something in return. b. are actions by organizational members that exceed the formal requirements of their jobs. c. are the processes by which individuals or organizations seek to coordinate their efforts. d. being concerned with all parties receiving the maximum benefit from an agreement.

Answer b Page 433 10. Speaking favorably about the organization to outsiders is an example of: a. psychological contracts. b. OCB-I. c. OCB-O. d. Both OCB-I and OCB-O. Answer c Page 433 11. Being tolerant to temporary inconveniences without complaining is an example of: a. psychological contracts. b. OCB-I. c. OCB-O. d. Both OCB-I and OCB-O. Answer c Page 433

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics 12. Jack offers ideas to improve the way the XYZ Company operates. This is an example of: a. psychological contracts. b. OCB-I. c. OCB-O. d. gatekeepers.

Answer c Page 433 13. Arnie always expresses his loyalty toward the XYZ Company. This is an example of: a. psychological contracts. b. OCB-I. c. OCB-O. d. screaming Mimi.

Answer c Page 433 14. Doing a favor for someone is an example of: a. psychological contracts. b. OCB-I. c. OCB-O. d. Both OCB-I and OCB-O. Answer b Page 433 15. Assisting a co-worker with a personal problem is an example of: a. psychological contracts. b. OCB-I. c. OCB-O. d. Both OCB-I and OCB-O. Answer b Page 433 16. Bringing in food to share with others is an example of: a. psychological contracts. b. OCB-I. c. OCB-O. d. both OCB-I and OCB-O. Answer b Page 433 17. An employee of a company is badly hurt in an accident. When his disability insurance runs out a fellow employee anonymously gives him enough money to live for six more months until he's able to return to work. The giver does not expect to be identified or repaid. This is an example of a. alturism. b. organizational citizenship behavior. c. an individualistic approach to cooperation. d. civic virtue.

Answer a Page 433

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18. Not spending time at work on personal calls is an example of which form of organizational citizenship behavior? a. Altruism b. Conscientiousness c. Civic virtue d. Sportsmanship Answer b Page 433 19. Making an effort to read memos and keep up with new information is an example of a. altruism. b. conscientiousness. c. civic virtue. d. courtesy.

Answer c Page 433 20. ________ is an organizational behavior where the employee makes do without complaint and not finding fault with the organization. a. Conscientiousness b. Civic virtue c. Courtesy d. Sportsmanship Answer d Page 433 21. When employees hold positive attitudes toward their organizations they are more likely to engage in: a. deviance. b. OCB-I. c. OCB-O. d. both OCB-I and OCB-O. Answer d Page 434 22. Ben engages in OCB. According to the text, this is likely to aid the company in: a. psychological contracts. b. recruitment. c. selection. d. diversity.

Answer b Page 434 23. If two programmers pool their efforts to help meet an important deadline, their action reflects a. organizational citizenship. b. competition. c. cooperation. d. collectivism.

Answer c Page 434

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics 24. While there are many reasons for cooperation not developing the primary reason is that a. our society is so competitive by nature. b. of reciprocity. c. of the existence of distributive justice. d. the goals sought cannot always be shared.

Answer d Page 434 25. When someone seeks to maximize their own gains even if it is at the expensive of others they are a. seeking to cooperate with others. b. competing against others. c. seeking an integrative solution. d. involved in binding arbitration.

Answer b Page 435 26. Enrico is a salesman who is always trying to maximize his sales, often at the expense of others. His behavior is an example of: a. OCB. b. competition. c. reciprocity. d. cooperation.

Answer b Page 435 27. If Bill forms a study group for the management class, then he and his friends will get better grades.

But if they do to well or if others form study groups it will skew the grade curve and will lower everyone's grade. This is an example of a. A mixed-motive situation. b. the negative consequence of whistleblowing. c. integrative bargaining. d. the effects of reciprocity.

Answer a Page 436 28. Guido believes that he should treat others as they treat him. His belief mirrors the idea of: a. OCB. b. competition. c. reciprocity. d. cooperation.

Answer d Page 437 29. John helps you on your work today, so you help him tomorrow. This action reflects the operation of which of the following principles? a. Cooperation b. Reciprocity c. Altruism d. Assurance Answer b Page 437

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30. In relationship to personal orientations toward cooperation, people whose primary motive is doing better than others are described as a. competitive. b. individualistic. c. cooperative. d. altruistic.

Answer a Page 437 31. If an individual is primarily concerned with maximizing joint outcomes, his/her personal orientation toward cooperation is most likely to be a. competitive. b. individualistic. c. cooperative. d. altruistic.

Answer c Page 437 32. When an organization offers a Hawaiian vacation for everyone in the company if everyone work unit lowers its costs by 15% for the year, the company is using ________ to foster cooperation. a. employee interdependence b. rewards c. organizational citizenship d. distributive bargaining Answer b Page 437 33. Traditionally one would describe the relationships across organizations as a. cooperative. b. integrative. c. competitive. d. accommodative.

Answer c Page 438 34. Cooperation across organizations is being fostered by a. the need to develop long term relationships with suppliers. b. the increase in mergers and acquisitions in American business. c. declining competition in stable and mature markets d. stable business environmental conditions.

Answer a Page 438 35. Research has shown that organizational managers spend as much as ________of their time dealing with conflict on the job and its impact. a. 50% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% Answer c Page 440

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics 36. George and Jean have vastly different opinions. Their difference of opinion is an example of: a. affective conflict. b. substantive conflict. c. process conflict. d. deviance.

Answer b Page 440 37. Two employees have different personalities and clash all the time. The frustration that results is an example of: a. affective conflict. b. substantive conflict. c. process conflict. d. deviance.

Answer a Page 440 38. George believes that the increased allocations should be spent on healthcare benefits while Jean thinks these allocations should be spent on increased vacation benefits. Their difference of opinion is an example of: a. affective conflict. b. substantive conflict. c. process conflict. d. deviance.

Answer c Page 440 39. George hates Jean because she got his promotion; now he wants to get even. This is an example of what cause of conflict? a. grudges b. malevolent attributions c. destructive criticism d. distrust Answer a Page 440 40. George believes that Jean is trying to hurt him. This is an example of what cause of conflict? a. grudges b. malevolent attributions c. destructive criticism d. distrust Answer b Page 440 41. David gave very negative feedback to Fred. This feedback angered Fred. This is an example of what cause of conflict? a. grudges b. malevolent attributions c. destructive criticism d. distrust Answer c Page 441

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42. The most obvious organization-based cause of conflict is a. ambiguity over responsibility. b. competition over scarce resources. c. ambiguity over jurisdiction. d. interpersonal conflict.

Answer b Page 441 43. Constructive criticism is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: a. considerate. b. non-threatening. c. motivated by desire to help. d. not timely Answer d Page 442 44. All of the following are characteristics of constructive criticism EXCEPT a. it occurs as soon as possible after the substandard performance. b. it focuses on specific aspects of performance that were inadequate. c. it does not attribute poor performance to internal causes. d. it focuses on the personal characteristics of the recipient.

Answer d Page 442 45. Destructive criticism is marked by a. not offering concrete suggestions for improvement. b. the lack of threats. c. telling someone what he/she can do to improve. d. noting specific things that are wrong and that need to be fixed.

Answer a Page 442 46. The most common strategy for resolving organizational conflicts by having all sides make offers, counteroffers, etc., either directly or through representatives until a successful solution is found is called a. bargaining. b. whistle-blowing. c. arbitration. d. mediation.

Answer a Page 442 47. Conflict does sometimes yield positive benefits, such as a. increasing loyalty to one's work unit. b. encouraging the consideration of new ideas. c. delaying decisions until all aspects can be considered. d. forcing the use of an arbitrator.

Answer b Page 443

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics 48. All of the following are examples of win-win solutions EXCEPT: a. avoiding unreasonable offers. b. seeking common ground. c. narrowing the scope of issues. d. uncovering the “real” issues.

Answer d Page 443 49. Dan won’t give in to John’s request for a new work computer. He claims that it is a budgetary issue, but in reality, it is about Dan’s anger at John for his comments at a meeting. The win-win solution in this case can be best confronted by: a. avoiding unreasonable offers. b. seeking common ground. c. narrowing the scope of issues. d. uncovering the “real” issues.

Answer d Page 444 50. Mediation and arbitration are two popular forms of a. integrative bargaining. b. litigation. c. alternative dispute resolution. d. collective bargaining.

Answer c Page 444 51. When a third party through various tactics facilitates a voluntary agreement between the parties involved, there is a. arbitration. b. mediation. c. negotiation. d. an integrative agreement.

Answer b Page 445 52. When a third party has the power to impose the terms of an agreement, you have a. bargaining. b. mediation. c. an integrative agreement. d. arbitration.

Answer d Page 445 53. When using arbitration, if both parties retain the right to reject the recommended agreement, you have a. binding arbitration. b. voluntary arbitration. c. conventional arbitration. d. final-offer arbitration.

Answer b Page 445

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54. In ________ the arbitrator may offer the parties involved any package of terms he/she desires. a. binding arbitration b. voluntary arbitration c. conventional arbitration d. final-offer arbitration Answer c Page 445 55. Which of the following is an example of destructive organizational deviance? a. workplace aggression b. violence c. whistleblowing d. both a and b Answer d Page 447 56. Which of the following is an example of constructive organizational deviance? a. workplace aggression b. violence c. whistleblowing d. both a and b Answer c Page 447 57. Which one of the following actions is an example of whistle-blowing? a. Reporting to a supervisor that a fellow employee has a drug-problem. b. Fulfilling the role of referee at a sporting event. c. Telling the local newspaper about the company’s upcoming annual picnic. d. Reporting the company's misdeeds to the authorities.

Answer d Page 447 58. Nancy becomes aware that her company is emitting toxic waste into a nearby stream. After finding that reporting it to her supervisor does no good, she reports the incident to the press. Nancy's behavior an example of a. organizational citizenship behavior. b. whistle-blowing. c. procedural justice. d. distributive justice.

Answer b Page 447 59. Generally speaking, when an employee engages in whistleblowing he/she is a. punished by the organization. b. rewarded by the organization. c. punished by the people to whom he/she reports the problem. d. has little impact on the safety and protection of others.

Answer a Page 449

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics 60. Employees who use their company’s computers for personal use are considered to be engaging in which of the following? a. workplace aggression b. violence c. whistleblowing d. cyberloafing Answer d Page 450 61. According to one study, ________ percent of workers surveyed by the Society of Financial Service Professionals reported playing computer games while at work. a. 10 b. 33 c. 67 d. 90 Answer b Page 450 62. Belittling others’ opinions and spreading malicious rumors are examples of: a. expressions of hostility. b. obstructionism. c. psychological contract violations. d. overt aggression.

Answer a Page 451 63. Failing to return phone calls or respond to memos are examples of: a. expressions of hostility. b. obstructionism. c. psychological contract violations. d. overt aggression.

Answer b Page 451 64. Physical assault or destruction of property are examples of: a. expressions of hostility. b. obstructionism. c. psychological contract violations. d. overt aggression.

Answer d Page 451 65. The tendency to respond to situations in an angry way is an example of: a. positive attitude toward revenge. b. high trait anger. c. past experience with aggression. d. overt expression rather than suppression of anger.

Answer b Page 452

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66. The belief that getting even is justifiable is an example of: a. positive attitude toward revenge. b. high trait anger. c. past experience with aggression. d. overt expression rather than suppression of anger.

Answer a Page 452 67. Benson has been exposed to aggressive behavior for most of his life. The “short fuse” he has developed is an example of: a. positive attitude toward revenge. b. high trait anger. c. past experience with aggression. d. overt expression rather than suppression of anger.

Answer c Page 452 68. Which of the following is true regarding workplace bullying? a. Typically, bullies tend to be bosses who are abusing their power. b. Bullies are equally likely to be women or men. c. The vast majority of the targets of bullying tend to be women. d. All of the above.

Answer d Page 454 69. All of the following are characteristics of the Constant Critic EXCEPT a. engages in name-calling. b. constantly harangues the victim about his or her incompetence. c. make aggressive eye contact. d. intimidates by slamming things and throwing objects.

Answer d Page 454 70. A workplace bully who denies subordinates the resources they need to work can be referred to as a(n) a. Constant Critic. b. Two-headed Snake. c. Gatekeeper. d. Screaming Mimic.

Answer b Page 454 71. Denny isolates Barry at work. This type of bullying is known as: a. constant critic. b. gatekeeper. c. two-headed snake. d. screaming mimi.

Answer b Page 454

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72. Iris intimidates her subordinates by throwing objects. This type of bullying is known as: a. constant critic. b. gatekeeper. c. two-headed snake. d. screaming Mimi.

Answer b Page 454 73. In understanding the social motives involved in employee theft, sometimes employees steal because a. they see their coworkers doing it. b. group norms support such activity. c. they want to “even the score.” d. of all of these reasons.

Answer d Page 456 Mini-Case Questions Table 11.1 Students from an organizational behavior class are studying group conflict and cooperation by observing the work of academic committees on their campus. They notice that some faculty seem to go out of their way to do things for their committee and committee members, yet have no hope of any type of return for these actions. Some student members of committees are doing more than is expected of them, even though they don’t have to, and they frankly don’t expect an return for their actions. These students have found that the committees treat them as peers, the faculty treat them fairly, and that they actually have a voice in the processes.

74. Refer to Table 11.1. The behavior of some of the faculty is an example of: a. prosocial behavior. b. reciprocity-based behavior. c. a distributive orientation. d. organizational citizenship behavior.

Answer a Page 426 75. Refer to Table 11.1. The key element in the students’ demonstrated behavior is: a. trust. b. interdependence of their tasks. c. the breadth of their roles on the committees. d. their perception of the punishments they will receive if they don’t behave like this.

Answer a Page 429 76. Refer to Table 11.1. Students’ committee behavior is an example of: a. prosocial behavior. b. reciprocity-based behavior. c. a distributive orientation. d. organizational citizenship behavior.

Answer d Page 433

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Table 11.2 A team of business students is working on a semester-long class project. The nature of the project is additive, each team member must have information from several other team members in order to complete his/her portion of the project. In a group meeting, Joe tells Amanda that if she will proofread his part of the paper, he’ll set up the spreadsheet formulas for her calculations. Amanda tells him no thanks.

She’s not really concerned about the quality of his section of the project and she’d just as soon work on her own. She thinks she can do a much better job than Joe setting up the spreadsheet. Another member of the team, Celine, wants everyone to have the same outcome from this project. She cautions those with weak work to improve it and asks the stars to tone down their work a bit so as to not embarrass the weaker members of the team. Paul wants to maximize the outcome of this project for everyone. He wants everyone to experience complete satisfaction with the process, the project, and their final grade. The reality is that the team will receive two grades. There will be a team grade and then each individual will receive a separate grade on his/her section. The grades are weighted 40/60.

77. Refer to Table 11.2. Joe’s offer to Amanda is an example of: a. integrative behavior. b. trust. c. individualistic behavior. d. reciprocity.

Answer d Page 437 78. Refer to Table 11.2. Amanda appears to have a/an ________ personal orientation toward cooperation. a. equalizer b. competitive c. individualistic d. cooperative Answer c Page 437 79. Refer to Table 11.2. Paul’s personal orientation toward cooperation is: a. equalizer. b. competitive. c. individualistic. d. cooperative.

Answer d Page 437

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Part 4 - Group Dynamics Table 11.3 The employees are in a contract negotiation with your company and you represent management. You are concerned with maximizing the results for both sides, while the union is focused on getting the best wages and working conditions possible, regardless of the cost to you. During a coffee break the union negotiator tells you he understands where you are coming from but there’s only so much money to go around, and his people want as much as possible. Back at the table, you ask the union negotiator if he would put the retirement plan and health care plan on the table as well so you could make an offer to increase their wages. He refuses. Three months go by with no progress. You suggest arbitration by a third party. The union agrees only if both sides must accept what the arbitrator offers. You agree.

80. Refer to Table 11.3. You have a/an ________ orientation to the bargaining process. a. integrative b. individualistic c. win-win d. win-lose Answer c Page 442 81. Refer to Table 11.3. You agreed to: a. final-offer arbitration. b. binding arbitration. c. mediation. d. voluntary arbitration.

Answer b Page 445 True/False Questions 82. A transactional contract is a legal contract that defines the economic relationship between two parties.

Answer F Page 428 83. Calculus-based trust is characteristic of the type of relationship in which people develop transactional contracts.

Answer T Page 429 84. Pro-social behavior in organizations is when an individual takes action that exceeds the formal requirements of the job.

Answer F Page 433 85. The most important factor shaping organizational citizenship behavior is employees expectation of fair treatment.

Answer T Page 433 86. Michele focuses on "defeating" others, getting more recognition than they do etc., even when she is working on a project together with them. She has an individualistic orientation to cooperation.

Answer F Page 437 87. Organizational elements such as the rewards system have significant influence on cooperation within an organization.

Answer T Page 437 .

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88. Conflict within organizations usually has minimal negative effect and general results in stimulating cohesion and communication.

Answer F Page 441 89. Conflict may motivate people to appreciate each other’s positions more fully.

Answer T Page 443 90. Conflict may have a number of positive effects such as motivating people on the various sides of an issue to understand the others' position more completely.

Answer T Page 443 91. For bargaining to be successful, it is recommended that parties narrow the scope of issues considered.

Answer F Page 444 92. One disadvantage of alternative dispute resolution is the answer of time it takes to reach an agreement.

Answer F Page 445 93. From society’s point of view, whistle blowing is usually considered a pro-social action.

Answer T Page 448 94. Whistleblowing is an example of constructive organizational deviance.

Answer T Page 449 95. When whistle - blowing it is important to go to an outside source with your problem rather than your manager who will simply try to cover up the problem.

Answer F Page 449 96. Almost all the workers surveyed by the Society of Financial Service Professionals reported playing computer games while at work.

Answer F Page 450 97. Only about 800 people are murdered at work each year in the U.S., and most of these crimes are committed by outsiders, such as customers.

Answer T Page 451 98. Bullying in which managers throw objects at subordinates is known as “constant critic.”

Answer F Page 454 99. Bullying in which managers make aggressive eye contact is known as “gatekeeper.”

Answer F Page 454 100. Security cameras are an effective way of reducing employee theft.

Answer F Page 455 101. According to the perspective of your text, making personal phone calls at work, talking office materials like a pen home for personal use constitute theft.

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102. Simply treating employees with dignity and mutual defining what constitutes theft can reduce incidents of employee theft in a company.

Answer T Page 456 Essay Questions Major Essay 103. What are the individual factors affecting cooperation?

Answer - 1) Reciprocity--the tendency to treat others as they have treated you, the “Golden Rule.” It is the guiding principle of cooperation and in fact may make the cooperative process self-sustaining once it is begun. 2) Personal orientation also contributes to cooperation. There are four distinct personal orientations; individualist, competitor, equalizer, and cooperator. The orientation toward cooperation is lowest with the first two and most with the last two. 3) Organizational reward systems is the third factor. A team-based reward system in which at least a portion of an individuals compensation is based on the performance of his or her work team, is an effective way of encouraging cooperation. Pages 436-438 104. What are the major causes of conflict?

Answer – a) perceptual distortion, b) grudges, c) distrust, d) competition over scare resources, e) destructive criticism.

Pages 440-441 105. What are the consequences of organizational conflict?

Answer - Students should note there can be positive and negative consequences. The negative effects could be; negative emotions, elimination of coordination, diversion of attention. Positive effects could be: bringing ignored problems out in the open, motivating both sides to understand the each other, it can lead to better decisions, encourages new ideas and innovation, and enhances group loyalty.

Pages 441-443 106. Provide tips for negotiating a win-win solution.

Answer - The most effective ways for negotiating a win-win solution are 1) avoid making unreasonable offers, 2) seek the common ground, 3) broaden the scope of the issues the parties consider, and 4) uncover the actual issues involved rather than the surface issues Pages 443-444 107. Why do employees steal? How can managers reduce employee theft?

Answer – Many employees steal because they are troubled in some way-because they see their coworkers doing it. Similarly, many employees engage in theft because in some companies not stealing goes against the norms of the work group. Finally, employees also frequently engage in theft because they want to “even the score” with employers whom they believe have mistreated them.

Some tips for reducing employee theft include involving employees in the creation of a theft policy, communicate the costs of stealing, treat people fairly, and be a good role model.

Page 456 Short Essay 108. What kinds of behavior constitute organizational citizenship?

Answer - There are five behaviors; altruism, conscientiousness, civic virtue, sportsmanship, and courtesy. See Table 11.1 for further explanation.

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109. Explain the three personal orientations toward cooperation.

Answer - 1) People with a cooperative orientation prefer to maximize the joint outcomes received by all parties. They are concerned with helping themselves as well as others. 2) People with an individualistic orientation focus primarily on maximizing their own outcomes. They do not care how much others get so long as they get as much as they want. 3) People with a competitive orientation focus primarily on defeating others. They care less about how well they do than with obtaining better outcomes than those of others.

Page 437 110. Explain how an organizational reward system can effect cooperation.

Answer – Despite good intentions, companies all too often create reward systems that lead their employees to compete against each other. In other words, the company’s reward system discourages cooperative behavior. With an eye toward eliminating such problems and fostering cooperation, many of today’s companies are adopting team-based rewards. These are organizational reward systems in which at least a portion of an individual’s compensation is based on the performance of his or her work team. The rationale behind these incentive systems is straightforward. People who are rewarded for contributing to their group’s performance will focus their energies on group performance. In other words, they cooperate with each other.

Page 437 111. Explain arbitration/mediation.

Answer - These are third party negotiations where issues are clarified, and the facilitator tries to move the two parties together. Mediation--the agreement is always voluntary. In arbitration it can be either voluntary or binding.

Page 445 112. Define whistle-blowing.

Answer - This is a type of pro-social behavior where employees disclose illegal, immoral, or illegitimate behavior on the part of their organization to people or other organizations able to do something about it.

Page 447 113. Describe the three characteristics of individuals who are not inclined to behave aggressively.

Answer – The three characteristics are high trait anger, which is the tendency to respond to situations in a predominantly angry manner. The second, positive attitude toward revenge is the belief that it is justifiable to get back at others who have caused one harm. The third is past experience with aggression, a history that involves exposure to aggressive behavior.

Page 452 114. How can managers reduce work place aggression?

Answer - Work place aggression can be managed effectively through several tactics.  Establish clear disciplinary procedures. Such programs send strong messages that inappropriate behavior will not be tolerated and that it will be punished if it occurs.  Treat people with dignity and respect. Managers who belittle their subordinated and who fail to show them the dignity and respect they deserve unknowingly may be promoting aggressive behavior.  Train managers in ways to recognize and avoid aggression. Although we all recognize aggressive behavior when it occurs, too few of us know how to recognize potentially dangerous situations before they become serious.

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Part 5 - Influencing Others Chapter 12 – Power: Its Uses and Abuses in Organizations Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Efforts to influence the behavior of other individuals or companies (successful or unsuccessful) through the control of valuable resources is to exercise a. power. b. prosocial behavior. c. distributive justice. d. social influence.

Answer d Page 466 2.

The use of facts and logical arguments to influence another’s behavior is a. rational persuasion. b. personal appeal. c. legitimating. d. exchange.

Answer a Page 467 3.

John is trying to influence the behavior of his company’s softball team by appealing to their values and ideals about teamwork and winning. John is using the social influence technique of a. consultation. b. personal appeal. c. legitimating. d. inspirational appeal.

Answer d Page 467 4.

Chris finds a way to make it easier for his subordinates to agree to his request. Chris is using: a. exchange. b. legitimating. c. pressure. d. collaboration.

Answer d Page 467 5.

Lee attempts to get his subordinates to help him by asking them to be involved in the process of planning organizational change. He appears to be using the social influence technique of a. legitimating. b. consultation. c. ingratiating. d. personal appeal.

Answer b Page 467 6.

Getting someone to do what you want by putting that person in a good mood is called a. personal appeal. b. ingratiation. c. inspirational appeal. d. emotional persuasion.

Answer b Page 467 .

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Ken promises his subordinates benefits if they comply with his requests. Ken is using: a. exchange. b. legitimating. c. pressure. d. collaboration.

Answer a Page 467 8.

Arvin tries to get others to comply with his requests by using his friendship with the person as part of the appeal. He is using: a. exchange. b. legitimating. c. pressure. d. personal appeals.

Answer d Page 467 9.

Leroy is trying to get his idea through to the operations director about TQM. He has talked to other floor supervisors and with the HR VP and takes one supervisor and the HR director in with him to talk with the ops director. Leroy is selling his TQM idea up the organization by use of the technique of a. credibility. b. responsibility. c. coalition. d. congruence.

Answer c Page 467 10. Ken calls attention to his authority when making his requests. Ken is using: a. exchange. b. legitimating. c. pressure. d. collaboration.

Answer b Page 467 11. Don seeks compliance through the use of intimidation. He is using: a. exchange. b. legitimating. c. pressure. d. collaboration.

Answer c Page 467 12. Which of the following is one of the most popular social influence tactic used in with peers in organizations? a. Coercive b. Ingratiating c. Personal appeal d. Consultation Answer d Page 467

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Part 5 - Influencing Others 13. Tim is the CEO of Doc.com, a information search Internet company. A manager comes in saying that he’s been trying to get the information services manager to meet with him to discuss a new product but the IS manager keeps claiming he’s too busy. Tim calls the IS manager and asks him to come to his office. The IS manager shows up, Tim tells him to meet with the other manager and do so now.

The meeting happens. Tim’s power to do this is an example of a. rational persuasion. b. charisma. c. expert power. d. position power.

Answer d Page 471 14. Position power is based on a number of things including a. expertise. b. charisma. c. rational persuasion. d. none of these.

Answer d Page 471 15. Power that derives from the recognized ability of someone to make decisions is referred to as a. referent power. b. legitimate power. c. expert power. d. reward power.

Answer b Page 471 16. For an individual to exercise expert power in an organization, he/she most likely also has a. charisma power. b. social influence power. c. expert power. d. legitimate power.

Answer d Page 17. Individuals with the capacity to control access to jobs and money are said to have a. reward power. b. coercive power. c. social power. d. information power.

Answer a Page 471 18. Power derived from one's control over valued resources, such as pay, is known as a. reward power. b. legitimate power. c. information power. d. referent power.

Answer a Page 471

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Chapter 12 Power: Its Uses and Abuses in Organizations 19. Suppose a supervisor gets a subordinate to do what she wants by threatening him with suspension or firing. It can be said that the supervisor is relying on a. reward power. b. coercive power. c. expert power. d. legitimate power.

Answer b Page 471 20. Personal power has a number of bases, including a. rational persuasion. b. information power. c. the capacity to control punishment. d. All of these.

Answer a Page 472 21. Suppose that you do something the way your boss asks you to do it because you believe your boss knows the best way to do it. What type of power would your boss be relying on in this case? a. Legitimate power b. Coercive power c. Expert power d. Reward power Answer c Page 472 22. When it comes to expert power a. it is one of the least used bases of power. b. it is based in personal qualities; how much one is admired, as well as one’s ability to enthuse others. c. it is the most commonly used type of position power. d. those who are able to use it are among the most powerful in an organization.

Answer d Page 472 23. When asked what type of power people prefer to exercise they say a. charisma power. b. legitimate power. c. expert power. d. information power.

Answer c Page 472 24. "Mike, I'm really in a bind. Unless I get that report finished, Mr. Johnson will be very upset with me.

Because you're my friend, I'm asking you to help me out of this jam." The speaker appears to be relying on which of the following bases of power? a. Referent power b. Reward power c. Coercive power d. Legitimate power Answer a Page 472

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Part 5 - Influencing Others 25. A type of personal power that is based on both expertise and personal qualities is a. referent power. b. legitimate power. c. expert power. d. charisma power.

Answer a Page 472 26. The more someone uses coercive power the lower his/her ________ power will be. a. charisma b. legitimate c. referent d. expert Answer c Page 472 27. Power based on others liking the power wielder because of his/her attitude of enthusiasm and magnetic personality is called a. legitimate power. b. charisma power. c. expert power. d. information power.

Answer b Page 472 28. The capacity to neutralize another’s influence is known as: a. counterpower. b. legitimating. c. pressure. d. collaboration.

Answer a Page 474 29. The smallest or least important power base for CEOs is a. management decision control b. expertise and knowledge c. personality and leadership skills d. support from the financial community Answer d Page 475 30. From which power bases do American CEOs obtain their influence? a. Management decision control b. Expertise and knowledge c. Personality and leadership skills d. Support from the board of directors Answer c Page 475

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Chapter 12 Power: Its Uses and Abuses in Organizations 31. Most American CEOs feel that they have ________ than they did ten years ago. a. more power b. the same amount of power c. a different type of power but the same amount d. less power Answer d Page 475 32. The process of putting people in charge of what they do, by passing power from managers to employees is known as a. consultation-based social influence. b. information power. c. empowerment. d. organizational politics.

Answer c Page 475 33. Empowerment requires managers to a. exercise charismatic-based power. b. share expert information. c. have control over rewards. d. do none of the above.

Answer b Page 475 34. When employees are empowered, managers are more likely to exercise a. expert power. b. charisma power. c. coercive power. d. any type of position power.

Answer a Page 476 35. Empowering employees has a number of results, such as a. decreasing the importance of information power. b. increasing the importance of position power for managers. c. decreasing the importance of coercive power for the employees. d. increasing the importance of expert power.

Answer d Page 476 36. A relatively enduring atmosphere in the workplace that supports empowerment is known as: a. empowerment culture. b. legitimating. c. empowerment risk. d. empowerment climate.

Answer d Page 478 37. A example of a high power distance culture is a. Japan. b. The U.S. c. Mexico. d. Poland.

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38. The two theoretical models that explain the use of organizational power by groups or subunits are a. resource-dependency and strategic contingencies models. b. the same as for individuals, the position and personal power models. c. based in position authority and organizational politics. d. None of these.

Answer a Page 480 39. When one organizational subunit has control over another because it has more of some valued resource than the other, you see an example of the a. use of information power by a unit. b. strategic contingencies theory. c. resource-dependence view. d. combination of coercive and expert power.

Answer c Page 480 40. According to the resource-dependency view, the most powerful organizational subunits are ones that a. are the highest in the hierarchy of the organization. b. have greatest control over resources that other subunits need. c. control the actions of other subunits. d. have access to and process information.

Answer b Page 480 41. Research in the semi-conductor industry found that how much power an organizational subunit had depended on when it was founded and a. their access to, and processing of, information. b. the power and leadership styles of the members of the group. c. the background of the entrepreneur starting the company. d. the level of the subunit within the organization’s hierarchy.

Answer c Page 481 42. Research found that within successful firms, strategic contingencies were controlled by a. subunits closest to the CEO in the authority structure. b. departments that were the most important for organizational success. c. subunits that controlled the majority of valued resources. d. departments that had the longest history and most experienced people.

Answer b Page 481 43. The strategic contingencies model explains intraorganizational power in terms of the capacity of some subunits to a. control valued resources. b. provide coordination and communication to other units. c. have access to, and process information. d. control the actions of other subunits.

Answer d Page 482

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44. According to strategic contingencies theory, which of the following is a factor that provides subunit power? a. The capacity to reduce uncertainty. b. High organizational centrality. c. Performing nonsubstitutable activities. d. All of the above.

Answer d Page 482 45. According to strategic contingencies theory, subunits acquire power when a. they control valued resources. b. they have access to the founder/CEO. c. they are high in work flow centrality. d. they are able to enthuse and excite other work units to greater performance.

Answer c Page 482 46. The abuse of power is best associated with: a. counterpower. b. empowerment. c. pressure. d. organizational politics.

Answer d Page 483 47. The abuse of power is evidenced in: a. counterpower. b. empowerment. c. pressure. d. sexual harassment.

Answer d Page 483 48. Which of the following is NOT true about sexual harassment? a. the victim must be a member of the opposite sex b. the harasser can be a non-employee c. it may occur without economic injury d. the harasser’s conduct must be unwelcome Answer a Page 483 49. Which of the following is true about sexual harassment? a. the harasser can be a non-employee b. it may occur without economic injury c. the harasser’s conduct must be unwelcome d. all of the above are true Answer d Page 483

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50. In 2005, approximately how much did the EEOC recover in monetary benefits for the charging parties of sexual harassment? a. $15 million b. $48 million c. $78 million d. $125 million Answer b Page 483 51. In 2005, approximately how many sexual harassment charges did the EEOC receive? a. 12,679 b. 43,010 c. 67,819 d. 1,507 Answer a Page 483 52. In 2005, approximately what percentage of sexual harassment charges filed with the EEOC were by males? a. 5% b. 14% c. 26% d. 33% Answer b Page 483 53. The practice of requiring sexual favors in exchange for some tangible conditions or privileges of employment is known as: a. counterpower. b. hostile environment sexual harassment. c. pressure. d. quid pro quo sexual harassment.

Answer d Page 484 54. The practice of subjecting individuals to negative, unwanted or abusive conditions is known as: a. counterpower. b. hostile environment sexual harassment. c. pressure. d. quid pro quo sexual harassment.

Answer b Page 484 55. Which of the following is NOT a direct cost of sexual harassment? a. attorney fees b. employee time c. manager time d. impact on stock price Answer d Page 485

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56. Which of the following is NOT an indirect cost of sexual harassment? a. impact on the work group b. attorney fees c. impact on stock price d. impact on cost of insurance Answer b Page 485 57. Which of the following is not a myth about sexual harassment? a. if women would only say no, harassment would stop b. harassment will stop if the victim simply ignores it c. harassment that is ignored either continues or worsens d. if women dressed less provocatively, there would be no sexual harassment Answer c Page 486 58. Which of the following is a myth about sexual harassment? a. anyone can be sexually harassed, regardless of how they are dressed b. harassment will stop if the victim simply ignores it c. harassment that is ignored either continues or worsens d. No means no Answer b Page 486 59. ________ refers to unauthorized use of power to enhance or protect one’s own or one’s group’s interests. a. Social influence b. Power c. Organizational politics d. Exchange Answer c Page 488 60. Organizational politics is concerned with a. meeting organizational goals. b. the disbursement of subunit power. c. actions not officially sanctioned by the organization to meet one’s own goals. d. the meeting of departmental goals.

Answer c Page 488 61. If an individual withholds information that might make him/her look bad, avoids those who might ask for information, and overwhelms others with information, he/she is probably using the organizational political tactic of a. controlling access to information. b. cultivating a favorable impression. c. playing a political game. d. developing a base of support.

Answer a Page 488

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62. One of the most popular tactics of organizational politics is a. blaming and attacking others. b. withholding information that might make them look bad. c. playing political games. d. associating oneself with the successful accomplishments of others.

Answer a Page 489 63. One can cultivate a favorable image in an organization in a number of ways, such as a. blaming and attacking others. b. withholding information that might make them look bad. c. playing political games. d. associating oneself with powerful others.

Answer d Page 489 64. Managers who do favors for others who might feel obligated to repay them are using which political tactic? a. Cultivating a favorable impression. b. Controlling access to information. c. Creating obligations and using reciprocity. d. Aligning oneself with more powerful others.

Answer c Page 489 65. People who engage in organizational politics would likely possess all of the following characteristics EXCEPT a. ambition. b. introversion. c. intelligence. d. popularity.

Answer b Page 490 66. Organizational political activity is likely to occur in the face of a. ambiguity. b. large amounts of scarce resources being at stake. c. conflicting interests of organizational units. d. all of these conditions.

Answer d Page 491 67. When it comes to organizational politics and the human resource function, it seems that: a. it is the least political of management functions because of the intense governmental regulation. b. political activity is limited to the training and development function. c. political activity is present in employee selection, appraisal, and compensation. d. organizational political activity is discouraged here except in dealings with upper management.

Answer c Page 491

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68. The concern of a rater for his/her own image when evaluating an employee is reflective of: a. counterpower. b. hostile environment. c. organizational politics. d. deviance.

Answer c Page 491 69. The concern of a decision maker for the implication of a personnel decision he/she made is reflective of: a. counterpower. b. hostile environment. c. organizational politics. d. deviance.

Answer c Page 491 Mini-Case Questions Table 12.1 Lee is the vice-president of a large department. He has a number of projects to assign to his managers, who are already overworked and understaffed. While they are capable and willing, one more project is going to push some of them to the breaking point. Before assigning any projects, he calls a meeting of all his managers and discusses the current situation and the new projects that have been given to him. He asks his managers for their help in getting through this workload crisis and points out that they were able to do it before. A couple of managers complain to Lee. One-on-one after the meeting, saying it isn’t fair to expect so much, they can’t keep going at this pace, Lee points out that the company has always been this way. He has told them about the workload when he interviewed them, and they both had been through this kind of push before. Lee decides to give the Techno 2120 project to Joan. As he tells her about it, he explains that this project will contribute directly to the company’s bottom line, that it is something similar to her last project, making her the best manager for the job. With Hoa, Lee begins by making some small talk and asking him how his golf game is going. Lee expresses admiration for Hoa’s skill as a golfer and his ability to balance his work and personal life so well. Then Lee explaines how Hoa is the only one who can handle the project he is getting. As his best project manager because of his great past results, Hoa is the one for the job.

70. Refer to Table 12.1. When assigning the Techno 2120 project, Lee used: a. rational persuasion. b. legitimating c. personal appeal. d. consultation.

Answer a Page 467 71. Refer to Table 12.1. Lee’s social influence tactic with Hoa was: a. personal appeal. b. exchange. c. coalition building. d. ingratiating.

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72. Refer to Table 12.1. In reasoning with the complaining managers, Lee used: a. rational persuasion. b. personal appeal. c. exchange. d. pressure.

Answer b Page 467 73. Refer to Table 12.1. Lee begins his influencing by using the social influence tactic of: a. rational persuasion. b. congruence. c. personal appeal. d. coalition building.

Answer d Page 467 Table 12.2 The boss wants the staff to work overtime this week on a big project. He tells the managers that if they want to keep their jobs, they better keep their people here. Bob goes to his department and calls a meeting. He explains the problem and asks if everyone would be willing to stay and put in the time. His employees recognize his right to ask them, he’s been good to them in the past, and they want to help him out, so they all agree to stay. Joan goes to her department, calls everyone together and tells them the bad news. She then begins assigning responsibilities and scheduling work. One of her new supervisors says, “Who are you to tell us we have to work overtime?” Her answer is, “I’m your boss, that’s who, now get with it.” Joseph offers everyone in his department compensatory time and a pizza party if they put in the overtime.

74. Refer to Table 12.2. Joan is using ________ power. a. personal b. coercive c. legitimate d. referent Answer c Page 471 75. Refer to Table 12.2. The power that Joseph uses to get his people to work overtime is: a. reward power. b. legitimate power. c. referent power. d. charisma power.

Answer a Page 471 76. Refer to Table 12.2. The boss is using ________ power to gain his managers’ compliance. a. personal b. coercive c. legitimate d. referent Answer b Page 471

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77. Refer to Table 12.2. Bob uses ________ power to get his workers to comply. a. personal b. coercive c. legitimate d. referent Answer d Page 472 ` Table 12.3 G.C.I. is a company with a highly political environment. To survive, managers must be adept at organizational politics. The company has clear lines of authority, operating procedures, and company policies. But the CEO confers favors based on whom he likes at the moment. Performance goals are not clear, career paths are confusing, and what constitutes success for the company is never clarified; profit, market share, quality, customer satisfaction, or what. The new marketing director sees that production and finance have a great deal of power. So he approaches the production director and offers to work closely with him to avoid creating demand he can’t meet. When the marketing director has an open personnel position and knows that the production director desperately needs an assistant, the marketing director surrenders his position to the production director. Seeing this relationship develop, the finance director begins to give marketing only direct, selected information. He avoids meeting the marketing director except in group meetings where there is no opportunity to talk one-on-one. The marketing director immediately understands what is happening. He decides to enlist the production director, the sales manager, and the human resource director in a plan to reduce the finance director’s power or even get him fired.

78. Refer to Table 12.3. The finance director’s political response to the marketing director’s actions with the production director is an example of: a. blaming and attacking others. b. aligning oneself with more powerful others. c. playing political games. d. controlling access to information.

Answer d Page 488 79. Refer to Table 12.3. The new marketing director is engaging in the organizational political tactic of: a. building powerful coalitions. b. aligning oneself with more powerful others. c. playing political games. d. controlling access to information.

Answer a Page 489 80. Refer to Table 12.3. The marketing director’s response to the finance director’s actions is an example of: a. blaming and attacking others. b. aligning oneself with more powerful others. c. playing political games. d. developing a base of support.

Answer b Page 489

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Part 5 - Influencing Others True/False Questions 81. Social influence is the capacity to influence another’s behavior through the appropriate use of power.

Answer F Page 466 82. If you are asking for someone’s participation in a decision in order to exercise social influence on him or her, you are using the tactic of ingratiation.

Answer F Page 467 83. When trying to sell an idea to your boss you can sell the issue by ensuring that the issue is compatible with the organization’s mission and objectives.

Answer T Page 470 84. Power based in one’s ability to reward others is know as legitimate power.

Answer F Page 471 85. Information based power comes from one’s position within the organization.

Answer T Page 472 86. Power that comes from your own personal qualities and the admiration of others in the organization is referent-based power.

Answer T Page 472 87. Research has shown that most people prefer using coercive power.

Answer F Page 474 88. When seeking to influence peers and superiors it is best to use either reward or referent power.

Answer F Page 474 89. Presumably, people in high power distance cultures will react more favorably to empowerment than those in low power distance cultures.

Answer F Page 478 90. The human resources department allocates personnel slots based on their capacity plan for the company. HR has resource-dependency based power.

Answer T Page 480 91. If the purchasing department in a company is where authorization for upgrades to any managers’ computers and software come from, then the purchasing department has resource-dependency based power.

Answer F Page 480 92. Quid pro quo sexual harassment involves requiring the victim to provide sexual favors.

Answer T Page 484 93. Hostile environment sexual harassment involves subjecting the victim to abusive conditions.

Answer T Page 484

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Chapter 12 Power: Its Uses and Abuses in Organizations 94. A direct cost of sexual harassment is the impact on stock price.

Answer F Page 485 95. An indirect cost of sexual harassment is the employee time spent preparing for a trial.

Answer F Page 485 96. Organizational politics is simply non-sanctioned action taken by an individual to influence others in order for the individual to be able to achieve his/her goals.

Answer T Page 488 97. If Jamie is in the process of building up her image with others in her organization by the way she dresses, who she lunches with, etc., she is trying to use the political tactic of controlling access to information in order to reach her goals.

Answer F Page 488 98. When Ben in accounting aligns himself with Mabel in marketing and they with Jeb the VP of operations, in order to achieve the goal of getting the company to consider a cafeteria benefits plan, they are using the political tactic of building a powerful coalition.

Answer T Page 489 99. People high in self-monitoring are less likely to engage in politics than those low in self-monitoring.

Answer F Page 490 100. Political behavior is more likely to occur in an organization that is highly centralized.

Answer T Page 491 Essay Questions Major Essay 101. Describe the most typical social influence techniques used to influence others in organizations and when they are used.

Answer - Students should draw from the following. Rational appeal is the use of facts and logical arguments to influence another’s behavior. Inspirational appeal is trying to influence by appealing to the values and ideals of an individual. Consultation attempts to involve others in the decisionmaking or planning process. Ingratiating is influencing behavior by putting the individual in a good mood. Exchange promises some benefit in exchange for compliance. Personal appeal is influencing by appealing to feelings of loyalty or friendship. Coalition building persuades by seeking the assistance of others. Legitimating points out one’s authority or verifying that the request is consistent with company policies. Pressure seeks compliance by demands, threats or intimidation.

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102. Distinguish between personal and position power and explain the bases of each.

Answer - Position power comes with the job, it is formal power due to the structure of the organization. There are four bases to it. 1) Legitimate--authority is recognized by others. 2) Reward power--control over rewards others value and receive. 3) Coercive power--is the ability to punish noncompliance. 4) Information power--exists by virtue of their access to data and information.

Personal power is influence due to an individual’s unique qualities or characteristics and has four bases. 1) Rational persuasion--the ability to make logical arguments from evidence and facts. 2) Expert power--based on superior knowledge in a certain field. 3) Referent power--grows from one’s personal qualities. It comes from others’ admiration and acceptance of the individual. 4) Charisma--is simply an engaging and magnetic personality, people want to do what you want.

Pages 471-474 103. Discuss the two theoretical approaches used to study the use of power in groups or subunits.

Answer - There are two models, the resource-dependency model which suggests that subunits gain power by controlling resources valuable to other subunits. It is power based on asymmetry. The strategic contingencies model says subunits have power because the subunit controls the activities of other subunits by: reducing uncertainty, being central to the organization, or performing nonsubstitutable and indispensable functions.

Pages 480-481 104. Identify direct and indirect costs of sexual harassment.

Answer- Direct costs are attorney fees, manager and employee time expended, and range of settlement costs. Indirect costs are impact on the work group, impact on insurance costs, impact on stock price and reputation, risk of copycat costs, and impact on attracting the best employees.

Page 485 105. Identify and explain the six common politics tactics used in organizations.

Answer - Students should select from the following. 1) Controlling access to information, which can involve releasing only selected information, withholding information that makes you look bad, avoiding contact with those who would ask for information, or overwhelming with information. 2) Cultivating a favorable impression by dressing for success, associating with the successful accomplishments of others, or drawing attention to one’s own successes. 3) Developing a base of support involves lobbying for support before major decisions/meetings. 4) Blaming and attacking others is self-explanatory. 5) Aligning oneself with more powerful people involves building coalitions or ingratiating oneself to powerful people. 6) Playing political games, which have four sets of games-authority, power base, rivalry, and change.

Pages 488-491 Short Essay 106. Distinguish among the terms nfluence, power, and organizational politics.

Answer - Influence is the efforts to influence the behavior of other individuals or companies (successful or unsuccessful) through the control of valuable resources. Power differs from social influence in that it is the successful use of resources to influence behavior. Organizational politics refers to unauthorized use of power to enhance or protect one’s own or one’s group’s interests.

Pages 466 107. Describe the characteristics of charismatic people.

Answer-Charismatic people 1) express clear visions of the future and how to get there, 2)excite crowds by using colorful metaphors and exciting language, 3) inspire trust because their integrity is beyond reproach, and 4) make people feel good about themselves.

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108. Define empowerment.

Answer - Empowerment is the passing of responsibility from managers to employees. It moves power and authority down from managers to the people doing the jobs. Key to it is the sharing of expert information.

Page 475 109. Discuss the victim and the perpetrator of sexual harassment.

Answer- The victim may be a man or a woman, does not have to be the person actually harassed, and does not have to have incurred any economic injury. The perpetrator can be the victim’s supervisor, co-worker, another supervisor, an agent of the employer, or even a customer.

Page 483 110. What triggers political action?

Answer - It occurs in the face of uncertainty, when large amounts of scarce resources are at stake, when organizational units have conflicting interests, and when the parties involved have approximately equal power. Organizational politics take place where there is a lack of clear policies or they are nonexistent, where there is a high degree of ambiguity. And it takes place in organizations where top management engages in political behavior.

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1. The process whereby one individual influences other group members toward the attainment of defined group or organizational goals is known as a. power. b. leadership. c. social influence. d. motivation.

Answer b Page 501

2. By definition, leadership is primarily a process involving a. the use of influence. b. the use of power. c. participative management. d. organizational politics.

Answer a

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3. The use of influence in leadership is directed toward a. the attainment of personal goals. b. the practice of organizational politics. c. the attainment of organizational goals and purposes. d. None of the above.

Answer c

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4. For many, a leader differs from a manager in that a. leadership involves the use of social influence and management does not. b. leaders are concerned with implementation while management is concerned with formulating and planning.

c. leadership is participative in nature and management is not. d. leaders establish and formulate the mission, managers implement it.

Answer d

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5. Which of the following is true about management and leadership? a. Often the differences are blurred in practice. b. The difference between the two often leads to tension within an organization. c. The distinction between the two is quite clear. d. There is no real difference except in theory.

Answer a

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6. If Joe is more of a manager than a leader in his company, he would tend to a. create the organization's mission rather than implement it. b. formulate strategy rather than create the strategic vision. c. establish direction for the company rather than monitor its progress. d. All of these.

Answer b

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7. The idea that people possess certain characteristics that make them leaders a. is the contingency theory of leadership. b. Is the great person theory. c. describes normative theory. d. is the basis of situational leadership theory.

Answer b

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8. The desire to exercise influence over others to reach shared goals is known as a. social influence. b. leadership motivation. c. social power motivation. d. organizational politics.

Answer b

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9. Joanne shows the ability to cooperate with others, develop networks and coalitions, and generally work with subordinates rather than try to dominate them. This is an example of a. personalized power motivation. b. social influence. c. socialized power motivation. d. prosocial behavior.

Answer c Page 504

10. Researchers have identified which of the following characteristics of successful leaders? a. Ambition, the desire for achievement. b. The ability to integrate and interpret large amounts of information. c. Creativity and originality. d. All of these.

Answer d

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11. Scientist have acknowledged that leaders should demonstrate multiple domains of intelligence.

Those domains include a. physical, mental, and emotional intelligence. b. cognitive, emotional, and cultural intelligence. c. cognitive, emotional, and social intelligence. d. technical, interpersonal, and cognitive intelligence.

Answer b Page 505

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12. A behavioral approach to leadership focuses on a. what the leader does. b. who the leader is. c. who are the followers of the leader. d. when the leader uses what style of leadership.

Answer a

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13. A supervisor whose actions seem to fall in between an autocratic style and a delegation style would be said to have a ________ leadership style. a. directive b. two-tiered c. permissive d. participative Answer d Page 506

14. The ________ model of leadership looks at how leaders allocate their influence to followers. a. situational leadership b. trait leadership c. LPC leadership d. autocratic-delegation continuum Answer d

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15. The two-dimensional model of subordinate participation was designed to a. clarify what characteristics marked the leader. b. address the problem of oversimplification of the autocratic-delegation model. c. show the differences between managers and leaders. d. address the gender bias inherent in the LPC model of leadership.

Answer b

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16. Joe and Wit are discussing how much to let their subordinates participate in the restructuring decision. In terms of the two-dimensional model of subordinate participation, they are discussing the ________continuum. a. autocratic-delegation b. permissive-directive c. autocratic-democratic d. autocratic-directive Answer c Page 506

17. The two-dimensional model of subordinate participation shows that a. democratic leaders are more effective than autocratic leaders. b. permissive leaders are less effective than directive leaders. c. the directive permissive style is more effective than the directive autocratic style. d. the effectiveness of each leadership style depends on the existing conditions.

Answer d .

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18. In work settings where employees are inexperienced or underqualified for their jobs, or when subordinates adopt an adversarial stance, the best leadership style is a. permissive autocrat. b. directive autocrat. c. permissive democrat. d. directive democrat.

Answer b Page 507

19. When working with people who have a high level of technical skill and want to be left to manage their own jobs, the most effective leadership style would be a. permissive autocrat. b. directive autocrat. c. permissive democrat. d. directive democrat.

Answer a Page 507

20. Karen is the kind of leader who makes decisions unilaterally and closely supervises the activities of her subordinates. Her leadership behavior is that of a a. directive democrat. b. directive autocrat. c. permissive democrat. d. permissive autocrat.

Answer b Page 507

21. The University of Michigan and Ohio State studies of leadership in the 1950s developed leadership theories around the two dimensions of a. autocratic and permissive behavior. b. traits and personality. c. personalized leadership motivation and socialized leadership motivation. d. initiating structure and consideration.

Answer d Page 508

22. The major benefits of high consideration leadership styles are a. enhanced employee performance. b. improved group atmosphere and morale c. decisive leadership and clear direction. d. All of the above.

Answer b

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23. The leadership dimensions of consideration and initiating structure seem to be a. exclusionary, high in one means low in the other. b. complementary, in that they work in combination. c. independent, they have little if any effect on each other. d. dependent, a leader can’t be high in one without being high in the other.

Answer c

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24. A tool for developing a leader’s concern for production and the concern for people is a. leadership motivation training. b. influence style training. c. attribution approach training. d. grid training.

Answer d

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25. A leader with low concern for both production and people is said to have a(n) ________ management style. a. counterproductive b. middle-of-the-road c. impoverished d. apathetic Answer c Page 509

26. In terms of the managerial grid, a manager who is high in concern for production and low in concern for people is said to have a(n) ________ management style. a. task b. impoverished c. middle-of-the-road d. country club Answer a Page 509

27. A high concern for people and a low concern for production is a ________ management style. a. country club b. team c. middle-of-the-road d. task Answer a

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28. Management grid training involves training a. in how to reduce group conflict. b. to improve manager’s communication and planning skills. c. to help identify to what degree the organization is meeting its strategic goals. d. to do all of these.

Answer d

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29. ________ suggests that leaders form different kinds of relationships with various groups of subordinates. a. Attribution theory b. Contingency theory c. Leader-member exchange theory d. Grid management theory Answer c Page 511

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30. Leader-member exchange theory a. is largely unsupported by research. b. suggests that it is the circumstances of the task and the competency of the member that shapes leadership behavior.

c. suggests that task/production focus is most important in terms of effective leadership. d. argues that the relationship between leaders and followers influences leadership behavior.

Answer d

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31. Bert is a manager for a small firm that was recently acquired by a larger company. In recent performance evaluations, employees from his previous firm were given higher ratings than employees from the new firm. Which leadership theory best explains why this occurred? a. Attribution theory b. Contingency theory c. Leader-member exchange theory d. Grid management theory Answer c Page 511

32. Kathleen is a first-line supervisor new to self-managed teams. In adapting her leadership to a team setting, Kathleen should a. focus on one-on-one relationships. b. spend her time training the team. c. concentrate on expanding the teams' capabilities. d. directing them toward their goals.

Answer c Page 512

33. In traditional work groups, leaders a. tell people what to do. b. take all the credit. c. relate to others individually. d. All of the above.

Answer a

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34. One way leaders need to adjust their leadership style when working with teams is to move to a. a heavy emphasis on training. b. make the most of differences rather than just inhibit conflict. c. provide more direction and less inspiration. d. a more reactive mode, responding to problems rather than trying to foresee them.

Answer b

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35. Effective team leaders a. foresee and influence change. b. build one-on-one relationships. c. minimize team conflict. d. focus on training.

Answer a

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36. A leadership approach based on turning the traditional management hierarchy upside down and empowering people to make their own decisions is called a. grassroots leadership. b. flat line leadership. c. autocratic-delegation. d. attribution leadership.

Answer a Page 513

37. ________emphasizes the role of leaders' causal explanations of followers' behavior. a. Attribution approach b. Leader-member exchange theory c. Contingency theory d. Grid management theory Answer a

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38. If a leader makes an internal attribution for an employee's poor performance, what will the leader focus on to assist the employee? a. Upgrading work facilities. b. Improving employee skills. c. Motivating coworkers. d. Increasing the employee’s pay.

Answer b Page 515

39. The tendency of followers to rally around the leaders in times of crisis is known as a. the association attribution effect. b. the charisma effect. c. the rally around the flag effect. d. the grass root effect.

Answer c

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40. When a leader is described as having something special, seemingly has the ability to bring about profound changes in others’ beliefs, perceptions, etc., this leader is described as a. a team management leader. b. a transformational leader. c. a charismatic leader. d. a leader with high initiating structure.

Answer c Page 516

41. Charismatic leaders are differentiated from noncharismatic leaders by several factors including a. a vision. b. honesty and integrity. c. a strong desire to achieve. d. All of these.

Answer a

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42. Charismatic leaders are different from other leaders by virtue of a. the traits they possess. b. their ability to balance task and people issues. c. their level of delegation and direction. d. their relationship with their followers.

Answer d

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43. Charismatic leadership a. is an appropriate leadership style for any circumstance. b. tends to polarize followers. c. carries with it the assumption of virtue. d. tends to undermine job satisfaction while increasing employee commitment.

Answer b

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44. The fundamental difference between charismatic and transformational leaders is that a. only charismatic leaders have a clear vision. b. charismatic leaders are universally accepted, whereas transformational leaders are not. c. transformational leaders are more intelligent. d. charisma is insufficient to cause change by itself, transformational leadership brings about change, by definition.

Answer d Page 518

45. When a transformational leader gives the followers support, encouragement, and attention they need to perform their jobs well, he/she is providing a. individualized consideration. b. inspirational motivation. c. intellectual stimulation. d. initiating structure.

Answer a Page 519

46. Scientists can measure transformation leadership abilities with the a. Myers-Briggs Multiphasic Personality Test. b. California Personality Inventory. c. Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire. d. Managerial Grid Questionnaire.

Answer c

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47. To become a transformation leader one needs to a. build group confidence by pointing out small accomplishments toward the goal. b. use a more permissive and participative management style. c. discover the shortest decision path in problem solving with the group. d. set and delegate clear attainable goals to self-managed work teams.

Answer a

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48. The basis of LPC contingency theory is a. the follower’s level of maturity and enthusiasm for the task called task and relationship orientations.. b. the leader’s tendency to evaluate the person, favorably or unfavorably, with whom they find it most difficult to work. c. the degree of control or permissiveness the leader exhibits. d. the characteristics of the leader.

Answer b Page 521

49. People who score low in LPC tend to a. perceive someone with whom they do not want to work in positive terms. b. be relationship-oriented. c. be primarily interested in attaining success at the task. d. be none of the above.

Answer c

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50. According to LPC contingency theory of leadership which type of leader will be most effective is determined by a. the leader’s relationship with his/her followers. b. the personality of the leader. c. whether the leader is dealing with teams or individuals. d. the degree of permissiveness or direction the leader is comfortable with.

Answer a Page 521

51. Low LPC leaders tend to be most effective when situational control is a. high. b. moderate. c. very low. d. either very high or very low.

Answer a

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52. High LPC leaders tend to be most effective when situational control is a. high. b. moderate. c. very low. d. either very high or very low.

Answer b

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53. ________ focuses on the ways of changing situational control variables when it is impractical to change leaders. a. The LMX approach b. Leader match c. The multifactor Leadership Questionnaire d. Situational leadership Answer b Page 522 .

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54. ________ suggests that effective leaders are able to adjust their styles to accommodate their followers according to their need for direction and their need for emotional support. a. LMX theory b. Attribution theory c. Situational leadership theory d. Normative leadership theory Answer c Page 522

55. If followers are willing to do the job, but don't know how to it, which style of leadership is best? a. delegating b. selling c. telling d. participating Answer c

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56. If followers are neither willing nor able to do the job, which style of leadership is needed? a. delegating b. selling c. tellling d. participating Answer b

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57. When followers need little guidance or emotional support, the best situational leadership style is a. delegating. b. selling. c. telling. d. participating.

Answer a

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58. According to situational leadership theory, leaders must be able to a. set appropriate goals and inspire others to attain them.. b. control valued rewards and believable punishments. c. diagnosis a situation and identify the appropriate behavioral response. d. choose the proper strategy for decision making.

Answer c

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59. The central premise to path-goal theory is that a. subordinates react favorably to a leader who helps them progress toward desired outcomes. b. leaders need to be able to assess where followers are and provide the necessary guidance and emotional support.

c. leaders deal with followers based on what they believe is motivating follower behavior. d. followers should be permitted to find their own way.

Answer a

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60. In path-goal theory, if the leader is setting challenging goals and seeking performance improvement, he/she is using the ________ style. a. instrumental b. supportive c. participative d. achievement-oriented Answer d Page 525

61. In goal-path theory, the determinants of which leadership style is best include a. the strengths and skills of the leader. b. the characteristics of the follower. c. the level of control present in the situation. d. none of these.

Answer b

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62. The question of how much participation in decision-making leaders should allow is addressed by which of the following theories of leadership? a. Leader-member exchange theory b. Contingency theory c. Normative theory d. Path-goal theory Answer c Page 527

63. Irvin works as a manager for a small consulting firm. He has been searching for an approach to leadership to use in training the other managers at the firm. He is interested in a model that takes subordinate participation into consideration yet pays attention to the climate within the company.

Which model would you suggest he consult? a. The trait model b. The normative model c. The contingency model d. The path goal model Answer b Page 527

64. The best leadership style in the normative model of leadership is based on a. the quality of the decision and its acceptance. b. the characteristics of the follower. c. the level of control present in the situation. d. the degree of control the follower has over the process.

Answer a

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65. Normative decision making theory has the leader making decisions by asking a series of questions which relate to the a. time available and the resources to be used. b. quality and acceptance of the decision. c. characteristics of the subordinates. d. personality of the leader.

Answer b Page 527

66. The ________ is designed to protect decision acceptance in normative leadership theory. a. leader information rule b. unstructured problem rule c. goal congruence rule d. fairness rule Answer d

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67. The substitutes for leadership framework argues that leadership may be irrelevant a. because there is no empirical research to support any leadership theory. b. when subordinates are highly professional and their work is intrinsically satisfying. c. because we have romanticized leadership as a concept and it doesn’t really exist. d. if people are placed in self-managing teams or other self-directed work forms.

Answer b

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68. Research regarding the substitutes for leadership show that a. job performance and attitudes were more strongly associated with substitutes than with leadership itself. b. job performance and attitudes were more strongly associated with certain types of leadership than with substitutes for leadership. c. there is no merit in the substitutes concept, leadership made a definitive difference in almost every experiment. d. the influence of leadership was closely tied to organizational performance if not individual performance.

Answer a Page 530

69. In an experiment where a fictitious company’s success was attributed to top-management, evaluators of the company’s profitability and risk a. rated profitability and risk lower than when success was attributed to the employees. b. rated both profitability and risk lower when success was attributed to top management. c. rated profitability higher and risk lower when success was attributed to the regulatory environment. d. rated profitability higher and risk lower than when success was attributed to any other cause.

Answer d Page 530

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70. In China, Guanxi roughly refers to a. learning. b. interpersonal relationships. c. unacceptable negotiating tactics. d. the underground economy.

Answer b

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71. A technique of leadership development that involves custom-tailored, one-on-one learning aimed at improving an individual leader’s performance is called a. Guanxi. b. action learning. c. mentoring. d. executive coaching.

Answer d Page 534 Mini-Case Questions Table 13.1 Tom leads a work team on the line at his manufacturing company. Tom works well with his team because he is willing to cooperate, he doesn’t try to dominate, and he develops coalitions within the team and has extensive networks with other people in the company for getting resources needed to accomplish their job. His crew consists of highly competent, technical professionals, who program the computers that run the equipment on the manufacturing line. Because of his excellent leadership skills Tom was given the responsibility to train a new team of technicians fresh from vo-tech school. Once he had them trained he would return to leading his regular team.

72. Refer to Table 13.1. With the vo-tech group, the best leadership style would be a. directive autocrat. b. permissive democrat. c. permissive autocrat. d. directive democrat.

Answer a

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73. Refer to Table 13.1. In terms of the two-dimensional model of subordinate participation, Tom’s most effective leadership style here would be a. directive autocrat. b. permissive democrat. c. permissive autocrat. d. directive democrat.

Answer c Page 507

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74. Refer to Table 13.1. In terms of orientation to task or people, Tom seems to be a. high in initiating structure. b. high in personalized leadership motivation. c. low in consideration. d. high in consideration.

Answer d

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Table 13.2 In preparation for grid training, the managers of your company are having their current styles assessed.

Elizabeth seems to have a high concern for production and a high concern for people. Bill on the other hand, has a low concern for both dimensions. Recently Elizabeth noticed that one of her employees was not doing well on the job. He was listless, late to work, and his work products were degenerating in quality. Elizabeth decided he had been working too hard and gave him a couple of days off. Bill was transferred to another department. He took three of his subordinates from his old department with him.

After being there six months he gave all employees performance appraisals. The subordinates who came with him to the new department all did better than the more experienced people who had been on the job. In fact, the subordinates who came with Bill were having a hard time adjusting to the new department and had not been performing all that well.

75. Refer to Table 13.2. Elizabeth has a(n) ________ management style according to management grid theory. a. country club b. team c. impoverished d. middle-of-the-road Answer b Page 509

76. Refer to Table 13.2. Bill’s behavior is best explained by which leadership theory? a. Attribution theory b. Management grid c. Contingency theory d. Leader-member exchange model Answer d

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77. Refer to Table 13.2. Elizabeth’s decision is best explained by which leadership theory? a. Attribution theory b. Management grid c. Contingency theory d. Leader-member exchange model Answer a

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Part 5 - Influencing Others Table 13.3 As the President of his own company, Todd has provided his employees a vision and created a strong sense of mission. He has helped them recognize their problems and find ways to solve them while providing support, encouragement, and attention. He is developing a strong company through the development of strong employees. Within Todd’s company, his marketing VP is also able to enthuse his employees. He has them excited about what the marketing department can become. Employees constantly come to the VP for guidance and instructions. He invests little time or money into their development, but they love working for him. Each time a new product comes to them to market he is able to build real enthusiasm for the process. Joan is a product manager who works for the VP of marketing.

She encourages her product team to interact with customers and suppliers. She constantly tries to make things work better, even if they aren’t ‘broken.’

78. Refer to Table 13.3. Joan’s behavior is an example of ________ by a team leader. a. expanding team capabilities b. creating a team identity c. building trust and inspiring teamwork d. making the most of team differences Answer c

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79. Refer to Table 13.3. The VP of marketing’s leadership style is most likely that of a a. charismatic leader. b. transformational leader. c. country club style of leader. d. contingency style leader.

Answer a

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80. Refer to Table 13.3. Todd is an example of a a. charismatic leader. b. transformational leader. c. country club style of leader. d. contingency style leader.

Answer b

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Table 13.4 A professor is working with five teams in his marketing research class. He decides to experiment with path-goal theory in helping these groups accomplish their off-campus studies. Group A has done a project for him before. He gets them setting challenging goals and seeks to get them to produce an even better project this time. With Group B he provides very specific guidelines, sets deadlines, and lays out the rules of the class and project. He lets Group C manage their own task. He encourages them, works on building a strong rapport with them, and tries to meet their needs related to the project. By the time he gets to Group D, he discovers they’re already lost, confused, and a week behind everyone else. He sets a work schedule for them and provides step-by-step guidelines regarding the project so they won’t get confused or distracted again.

81. Refer to Table 13.4. With Group B, the professor is using a. an instrumental style. b. a supportive style. c. a participative style. d. an achievement-oriented style.

Answer a Page 524 82. Refer to Table 13.4. With Group D, the professor is using a. an instrumental style. b. a supportive style. c. a participative style. d. an achievement-oriented style.

Answer a Page 524

83. Refer to Table 13.4. With Group A, the professor is using a. an instrumental style. b. a supportive style. c. a participative style. d. an achievement-oriented style.

Answer c

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True/False Questions

84. The primary difference between a leader and a manager is in how they function within an organization.

Answer T Page

502

85. When we describe leaders in terms of their desire to lead, their cognitive abilities, etc., we express a trait perspective of leadership.

Answer T Page 502

86. The concept of the "great person" as an example of leadership is the basis for behavioral leadership theory.

Answer F

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87. In terms of participative versus autocratic leadership behaviors a boss who asks for your input, is open to ideas, and lets you perform your job your way is more of a delegator than an authocrat.

Answer T Page 506

88. A manager who makes decisions without consulting subordinates and supervises their work closely is an example of a directive democrat style of leader.

Answer F Page 507

89. The most applicable style of leadership (usable in the most settings) in terms of the managerial grid is the high concern with people and high concern with production.

Answer T Page 509

90. Team leadership differs from individual leadership in that in team leadership the leader needs to focus more on training and directing than he/she would with an individual.

Answer F Page 512

91. In teams, it is important for leaders to relate to members on an individual level.

Answer F

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92. In teams, leaders should work at reducing conflict between individuals to promote cohesiveness.

Answer F Page 513 93. The leadership theory based on what the leader thinks of follower behavior is attribution theory.

Answer T Page 514

94. Charismatic and transformational leaders are both change-oriented styles of leadership.

Answer T

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95. Charismatic leaders give individual consideration, provide intellectual stimulation, and inspire action.

Answer F

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96. Unlike other forms of leadership charismatic leaders are always necessary and this style works well in almost every situation.

Answer F Page 517

97. Benjamin Franklin would best be described as a pragmatic leader, as opposed to a charismatic leader.

Answer T

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98. Transformational leaders will tend to strengthen and challenge their followers where as a charismatic leader will tend to keep them weak and dependent.

Answer T Page 519

99. The contingency leadership theory based on the leader's feelings for the least liked member of his/her group is the LPC model.

Answer T Page 521

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100. In LPC leadership theory the leader's relationship with group members, the structure of the task, and the leader's position power together determine the most effective way to lead.

Answer T Page 521

101. Situational leadership adjusts the manager's leadership style based on the goals set by followers and what is needed to help them achieve those goals.

Answer F Page 522

102. If Joan is primarily concerned with the decision-making processes of her subordinates and is working on choosing the most effective approach to making decisions she is using a path-goal style of leadership.

Answer F Page 524

103. Peter is sharing a problem with his subordinates getting their input but making the decision himself.

If we describe this behavior as consultative we are using a normative decision theory to describe Peter's leadership.

Answer T Page 527

104. The more skilled and educated one's subordinates, the less leadership is needed.

Answer T

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105. Most people see leadership as more important and more closely linked to organizational performance than it actually is.

Answer T Page 530

106. Executive coaching is a leadership development technique involving a continuous process of learning and reflection that is supported by colleagues and that emphasizes getting things done.

Answer F Page 534

107. The first step in the executive coaching process is defining the nature of the coaching relationship (e.g. what will be done and how).

Answer T Page 534 Essay Questions Major Essay

108. Discuss leadership trait theory and it implications.

Answer - Also called the great person theory, the idea was that leaders possessed key traits that made them leaders and that these traits were stable over time and across groups. One could study leaders at any time in history by looking for these traits. The theory was largely unsubstantiated by research until recently. Kirpatrick and Locke found a series of traits; drive, honesty, leadership motivation, self-confidence, cognitive ability, knowledge of the business, creativity, and flexibility, that did seem to mark people successful in business settings.

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109. Leadership behavior can be defined by several sets of terms. Discuss and the compare and contrast an autocratic/permissive perspective and then a people-oriented or production-oriented perspective on leadership behavior.

Answer - When describing the behavior of leaders, one key variable involves how much influence they allow subordinates to have over decisions. There are two ways of describing these behaviors.

The autocractic-delegation continuum model. On the one hand someone who wants to control everything-that is, someone who made every decision, told people precisely what to do, and wanted to run the entire show is autocratic. In contrast, someone who allows employees to make their own decisions? If so, this individual would be described as relying on delegation. Most people fall in between the extremes. The autocratic-delegation continuum model reasonably describes the role of leaders in organizational decision making, but it also is regarded as being overly simplistic. In fact, describing a leader's participation in decision making involves two separate dimensions.

The two-dimensional model of subordinate participation. This model describes subordinates' participation in decisions regarding two dimensions. The autocratic-democratic dimension characterizes the extent to which leaders permit subordinates to take part in decisions. The permissive-directive dimension involves the extent to which leaders direct the activities of subordinates and tell them how to perform their jobs. These two variables yields the four possible patterns; the directive autocrat, the permissive autocrat, the directive democrat, and the permissive democrat.

Person-oriented and production-oriented leaders A large body of research, much of it conducted during the 1950s at the University of Michigan and Ohio State University suggests leaders differ greatly along these dimensions. Those at the high end of the first dimension, which is known as initiating structure (or production-oriented), mainly are concerned with production and primarilyfocus on getting the job done. They engage in actions such as organizing work, inducing subordinates to follow rules, setting goals, and making the leader and subordinate roles explicit. In contrast, other leaders are lower on this dimension, and they show less tendency to engage in these actions. Leaders at the high end of the second dimension, which is known as consideration (or person-oriented), primarily focus on establishing good relations with their subordinates and on being liked by them. They engage in actions such as doing favors for subordinates, explaining things to them, and assuring their welfare. In contrast, other leaders are low on this dimension, and they do not really care how well they get along with subordinates.

Pages 506-509

110. Compare and contrast leader-member exchange theory and the attribution approach to leadership.

Answer - In leader-member exchange theory the leader tends to favor members of the ‘in-group’ with more resources, better evaluations, etc. Leaders distinguish between in-groups and out-groups early on with very little information. Attribution approach refers to the tendency for leaders to attribute causes to followers’ behavior and then to act on those attributions. Both models depend on the leader’s perception of the follower. Both deal with external behavior by the follower. LMX is favoritism or neglect based on prejudice. Attribution is judging causes and determining courses of action as a result.

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111. What makes a leader charismatic? What are the dangers of charismatic leadership?

Answer - Charismatic leaders have the ability to affect profound change in people’s beliefs, attitudes, perceptions and actions, because of five key characteristics. 1) Self-confidence. They are highly confident of their ability and judgment. 2) Vision. They are able to propose a state of affairs that is an improvement on current conditions and to help others understand it. 3) Extraordinary behavior. They are unconventional and will often elicit admiration. 4) Recognized as change agents. They are able to make things happen and people recognize that. 5) Environmentally sensitivity. They are highly realistic, they can read the politics of a situation and adapt to it. They know what they can and can’t do. Dangers: Charismatic leaders can have a dark side, they can exploit their followers. They do not tend to develop their followers so their followers can become dependent on them.

Pages 516-518

112. Outline contingency theories of leadership.

Answer - There are four main theories; LPC contingency theory, situational leadership, path-goal theory, and normative decision theory. LPC contingency theory comes from Fiedler. He postulates that a leader’s contribution to the successful performance of his/her team is determined by his/her tendency to evaluate in a favorable or unfavorable way the person whom he/she finds it most difficult to work (Least preferred co-worker). See Figure 13-11, page 492. Situational leadership argues that a leader should adjust his/her style to meet the maturity of the worker. The leader balances task behavior and relationship behavior, depending on the willingness and ability of the worker to perform a given task. See Figure 13-13, page 494. Path-goal theory sees the leader’s task as helping employees accomplish their goals. The more he/she helps, the more favorable impression workers have of the leader. There are four styles that vary from high direction to achievement orientation; instrumental, supportive, participative, and achievement-oriented. See Figure 13.14, Page 496.

Normative decision theory is a decision process for determining how much participation subordinates should have in a decision. It is used when the quality and acceptance of the decision are very important. See Table 13.15, page 499.

Pages 520-528 Short Essay

113. What is leadership?

Answer - Leadership is the process whereby one individual influences group members toward attaining-defined group or organizational goals. Leadership involves noncoercive influence.

Leadership primarily involves influence--that is, a leader changes the actions or attitudes of several group members or subordinates. In general, leadership refers to the use of noncoercive techniques.

Leadership influence is goal-directed. It involves the exercise of influence for a purpose--that is, to attain defined group or organizational goals. Leadership requires followers. It is a two-way street.

Leaders influence subordinates in various ways, but leaders also are influenced by their subordinates.

In fact, it may be said that leadership exists only in relation to followers.

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114. How does leadership in self-managed teams work? How is it different from leadership in other contexts?

Answer - When most people think of leaders, they think of individuals who make strategic decisions on behalf of followers, who then are responsible for carrying them these decisions. Due to the move to self-managed teams, in this context, team leaders may be called on to provide special resources to groups that are empowered to implement their own missions in their own ways. Some guidelines: Instead of directing people, team leaders build trust and inspire teamwork. Rather than focusing simply on training individuals, team leaders concentrate on expanding team capabilities. Instead of managing one-on-one, team leaders create a team identity. Traditional leaders worked at preventing conflict between individuals, but team leaders make the most of team differences. Unlike traditional leaders who simply react to change, team leaders should foresee and influence change. Leading teams is very different from leading individuals in the traditional directive- or even participative manner. The special nature of teams makes the leader's job very different.

Pages 512-513

115. Compare and contrast a charismatic leader with a transformational leader.

Answer - First, they have a number of similarities; vision, change agents, sensitive to the environment in which they work, etc. The key difference is that transformational leaders bring about change and develop their people. Charismatic leaders enthuse but that’s insufficient for real change, and they may leave their followers dependent on them. Charismatic leadership is subject to abuse and the domination of followers. By definition transformational leadership is not.

Pages 516-520

116. What are the distinctives of situational leadership that makes it different from other contingency theories?

Answer - Situational leadership theory also is considered to be a contingency theory, because it focuses on the best leadership style for a given situation. Hersey and Blanchard, the scientists who developed this approach, argue that leaders are effective when they select the right leadership style for the situation they face. Specifically, this depends on the maturity of the followers--that is, on their readiness to take responsibility for their own behavior. This is based on two variables with which we already are familiar: task behavior, or the degree to which followers have the appropriate job knowledge and skills (i.e., their need for guidance and direction); and relationship behavior, or the degree to which followers are willing to work without taking direction from others (i.e., their need for emotional support). According to this situational leadership theory, leaders must diagnose the situations they face, identify the appropriate behavioral style, and then implement that response.

Because situations may change, leaders must constantly reassess them, paying special attention to their followers' needs for guidance and emotional support. To the extent they do so, these leaders are likely to be effective.

Pages 522-524

117. What is normative decision theory and when would you use it?

Answer - It is a decision process for determining how much participation subordinates should have in a decision. It is used when the quality and acceptance of the decision are very important.

Pages 526-528

118. What makes leaders superfluous?

Answer - 1) When you have highly knowledgeable, committed, and experienced employees. 2) When the job is structured so that direction is redundant. 3) When the organizational environment makes leadership unnecessary.

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Chapter 14 Organizational Culture, Creativity, and Innovation Chapter 14 – Organizational Culture, Creativity, and Innovation Multiple Choice Questions

1. According to your text, it would seem that the primary reason for the differences in success in retailing between Wal-Mart—successful—and Sears—struggling—is due to a. organizational culture. b. the creativity of their employees. c. the inability to manage innovation by management. d. None of these reasons.

Answer a Page 544

2. The cognitive framework consisting of attitudes, values, behavioral norms, and expectations shared by organization members, is referred to as a. organizational culture. b. intrinsic task motivation. c. innovation. d. technology.

Answer a Page 544

3. Nissan has telemarketers call customers after they’ve bought a car, had a car serviced, or in some way done business with a Nissan dealer to check on their satisfaction and to ask for ways to improve their service. Nissan provides feedback cards in the showrooms for customer use. These are examples of Nissan building the organizational cultural value of a. a willingness to take risks. b. interest in employees generating ideas. c. openness of available communication. d. sensitivity to the needs of customers and employees.

Answer d Page 545

4. Bill is considering working for Dayton Computers. He notices that the company shows respect for individuals’ rights, is fair, and supportive. He is assessing the organizational cultural element of a. value place on taking risks. b. interest in having employees generate ideas. c. openness of available communication. d. sensitivity to the needs of customers and employees.

Answer d Page 545

5. Bank America has been described as very conservative, slow to innovate and try new ideas, while employees at Limited are discouraged from making "safe" choices. This difference represents which aspect of organizational culture? a. Willingness to take risks b. interest in having employees generate ideas c. openness of available communication d. sensitivity to the needs of customers and employees Answer a Page 546 243

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6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a healthy organizational culture? a. everyone is humble b. people are held accountable c. people are not free to take risks d. the commitment to doing things well is high Answer c

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7. Companies with a strong culture are likely to have all of the following EXCEPT: a. clear philosophy b. considerable time spent on communicating values and beliefs c. widely accepted and rooted values d. less screening on new employees Answer d

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8. When interpreting an organization’s culture it is important to remember that a. organizational culture will not change over time. b. companies actually contain multiple cultures. c. there is a best culture for every organization. d. innovation is a function of people not companies.

Answer b

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9. The distinctive, overarching "personality" of an organization is known as: a. its subculture. b. its dominant culture. c. the organizational climate. d. extrinsic task motivators.

Answer b

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10. Organizational culture plays several important roles, such as a. providing a sense of identity for its members. b. orienting employees to the external environment. c. providing a list of rules for outsiders to follow in their interactions with the organization. d. determining the leadership style of management.

Answer a

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11. During his interview, John was told that work hours were 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. But he noticed after about three weeks that the ‘up and coming’ managers tended to show up by 6:30 a.m. and didn’t go home until around 7 p.m. This is an example of organizational culture’s role of a. providing a sense of identity for its members. b. clarifying standards of behavior. c. communicating the organization's mission. d. determining what constitutes innovation.

Answer b Page 549

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12. All of the following could be a part of the core competing values framework EXCEPT: a. valuing flexibility. b. valuing stability. c. emphasis internal affairs d. emphasis on motivation Answer d

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13. A hierarchy culture is best described by all of the following EXCEPT: a. internal focus. b. emphasis on stability. c. emphasis on production d. emphasis on control Answer c

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14. Organizations that are concerned with stability and control but are external in their orientation are said to have a(n): a. market culture. b. clan culture. c. adhocracy culture. d. competing values culture.

Answer a Page 550

15. Organizations that have a strong internal focus along with a high degree of flexibility and discretion are said to have a(n): a. market culture. b. clan culture. c. adhocracy culture. d. competing values culture.

Answer b Page 551

16. Organizations that emphasize flexibility while also paying a great deal of attention to the external environment are said to have a(n): a. market culture. b. clan culture. c. adhocracy culture. d. competing values culture.

Answer c Page 551

17. Organizational culture grows out of several factors. The factor that shapes the organization’s culture through the initial people who are hired and the vision of how the organization should be is a. the organization’s experience with the external environment. b. the company’s founders. c. internal interactions, contact between groups within the organization. d. the subcultures within the organization.

Answer b Page 553

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18. If a company shapes its culture around a strategy like price leadership or high quality products, its culture is growing out of the factor of a. the organization’s experience with the external environment. b. the company’s founders. c. internal interactions, contact between groups within the organization. d. the subcultures within the organization.

Answer a Page 554

19. In the transmission of organizational culture, material objects that connote meanings that extend beyond their intrinsic content are called a. statements of principle. b. symbols. c. experiences of shared meaning. d. stories.

Answer b Page 554

20. Plants used to create the look of friendly, person-oriented culture represent which of the following tools for transmitting culture? a. slogans b. symbols c. stories d. jargon Answer b Page 554

21. “Just like a good neighbor, State Farm is there” represents which of the following tools for transmitting culture? a. slogans b. symbols c. stories d. jargon Answer a Page 554

22. During new employee orientation, the facilitator explains how the founder of the company came from overseas with no money and unable to speak the language, but by hard work was able to build this company in 15 years to its current size. This is example of the organizational culture transmission tool a. statements of principle. b. symbols. c. experiences of shared meaning. d. stories.

Answer d Page 556

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23. The use of special language represents which of the following tools for transmitting culture? a. slogans b. symbols c. stories d. jargon Answer d

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24. Two HR professionals were talking in the hallway about Osha coming to visit and how much they dreaded it. A fellow manager came up and suggested they simply try to be out of the office when he stopped in. They laughed and explained that OSHA was actually a government healthy and safety organization coming for an inspection and they couldn’t just be gone. This is example of the organizational culture transmission tool a. statements of principle. b. jargon. c. experiences of shared meaning. d. stories.

Answer b Page 556

25. Throwing a party to celebrate the move to a new facility represents which of the following tools for transmitting culture? a. slogans b. symbols c. ceremonies d. jargon Answer c Page 556

26. The Body Shop International’s explicit statement concerning its commitment to environmental issues is an example of the organizational culture transmission tool of a. statements of principle. b. symbols. c. ceremonies. d. stories.

Answer a Page 557

27. NYNEX’s “Guideline” booklet on what constitutes ethical behavior is an example of the organizational culture transmission tool a. statements of principle. b. symbols. c. ceremonies. d. code of ethics.

Answer d Page 557

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28. Explicit statements about the company's moral and ethical values are called a. statements of principle. b. symbols. c. experiences of shared meaning. d. code of ethics.

Answer d

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29. Organizational cultures change over time due to a. the changing characteristics of the workforce. b. changes in an organization's external environment. c. government regulation. d. All of the above.

Answer d

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30. The growing diversity of the ethnic and cultural background of employees is one example of how ________ is/are causing change in organizational cultures. a. innovation and creativity b. the composition of the workforce c. mergers and acquisitions d. planned organizational change Answer b Page 557

31. The merger of Nabisco and R.J. Nabisco is an example of the importance of ________ for the success of a merger. a. organizational culture b. the composition of the workforce c. innovation and creativity d. planned organizational change Answer a Page 557

32. According to the text, culture clashes are likely to occur in: a. market culture. b. mergers and acquisitions. c. adhocracy culture. d. competing values culture.

Answer b

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33. A cultural due analysis is done in: a. market culture. b. clan culture. c. adhocracy culture. d. mergers and acquisitions.

Answer d

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34. Comparing fundamental aspects of the culture is part of what activity of the cultural due diligence audit? a. assess intellectual capital b. audit the prevailing culture c. involve different people from both companies in designing the new enterprise d. communicate early and often Answer b Page 558

35. Interviewing people in both organizations to determine who really knows what to do is a part of what activity of the cultural due diligence audit? a. assess intellectual capital b. audit the prevailing culture c. involve different people from both companies in designing the new enterprise d. communicate early and often Answer a Page 558

36. Utilizing customer opinion and information is part of what activity of the cultural due diligence audit? a. assess intellectual capital b. audit the prevailing culture c. involve different people from both companies in designing the new enterprise d. communicate early and often Answer c Page 558

37. While honesty and openness is part of all organizational activities, it is most important in what activity of the cultural due diligence audit? a. assess intellectual capital b. audit the prevailing culture c. involve different people from both companies in designing the new enterprise d. communicate early and often Answer d Page 558

38. In the discussion of individual creativity, any concern that the individual has the physical skills necessary to create or innovate is a discussion of a. creativity-relevant skills. b. intrinsic task motivation. c. extrinsic task environment. d. domain-relevant skills.

Answer d Page 561

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39. Ana is helping her employees break their mental sets and think more complexly in order to improve their creativity. Ana is helping them to develop their a. creativity-relevant skills. b. intrinsic behavioral skills. c. affect-based skills. d. domain-relevant skills.

Answer a Page 561

40. The component of creativity that focuses on the capability of creating is a. creativity-relevant skills. b. intrinsic behavioral skills. c. affect-based skills. d. intrinsic task motivation.

Answer a

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41. When someone is trying to be creative and use a series of "rules" to help them think in novel ways, they are building their creativity by a. embedding a new contract. b. developing the ability to productively forget. c. using a creativity heuristic. d. learning to think more complexly.

Answer c Page 561

42. When fostering creatively, it helps to a. minimize divergent thinking. b. simplify the task at hand. c. avoid using analogies. d. abandon unproductive ideas.

Answer d

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43. To build creativity-related skills an individual should a. learn to break complex processes into their simplest parts. b. develop the ability to forget unproductive ideas. c. be able to narrow options down to the 3-5 best choices. d. do all of these.

Answer b

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44. The three components of creativity are a. cognitive skills, intrinsic motivation, and appropriate resources. b. skills in the task domain, sills in the communication domain, and intrinsic motivation. c. skills in the task domain, skills in creative thinking, and intrinsic motivation. d. skills in the task domain, intrinsic motivation, and appropriate resources.

Answer c

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45. The component of creativity that focuses on what people are willing to do is a. creativity-relevant skills. b. domain-relevant skills. c. affect-based skills. d. intrinsic task motivation.

Answer d

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46. Intrinsic task motivation tends to be high when a. an employee is using a creativity heuristic in his/her thinking. b. the employee has a personal interest in the task. c. the company offers a significant financial reward. d. all of these conditions are present.

Answer b

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47. The first step in the creative process is a. allow ideas to incubate. b. document insight. c. verify ideas. d. prepare to be creative.

Answer d

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48. The stage of the creative process that involves gathering the appropriate information and concentrating on the problem is a. allowing ideas to incubate. b. documenting insight. c. verify ideas. d. preparing to be creative.

Answer d Page 563 49. To allow ideas to incubate means to a. sleep on it. b. gather the appropriate information and concentrate on the problem. c. brainstorm. d. break mental sets and take new perspectives.

Answer a Page 563

50. The final stage of the creativity process is: a. preparation b. allow ideas to incubate c. document insight d. verify ideas Answer d

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51. Generally, training people to be more creative involves three steps. One of the steps is a. taking the time to understand the problem. b. making the job intrinsically interesting. c. documenting insight. d. All of the above.

Answer a

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52. An approach to analyzing problems in which basic elements are combined in systematically different ways is called a. juratposing. b. morphology. c. imaging. d. encircling.

Answer b Page

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53. Giving employees freedom to control their own behavior is part of which approach to developing creative work environments? a. provide exposure to other creative people b. provide autonomy c. allow ideas to cross-pollinate d. make jobs intrinsically interesting Answer b Page 565

54. Working on several projects at once is part of which approach to developing creative work environments? a. provide exposure to other creative people b. provide autonomy c. allow ideas to cross-pollinate d. make jobs intrinsically interesting Answer c Page 567

55. The top 25 most innovative companies enjoyed annual profit margin growths of about: a. 0% b. 3.4% c. 9.6% d. 30.5% Answer b

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56. Companies engaging in _____ bring about change in the market. a. radical innovation b. disruptive innovation c. incremental innovation d. manufacturer innovation Answer b

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57. Companies engaging in _____ exploit existing technology and operate under conditions in which uncertainty about the future is low. a. radical innovation b. disruptive innovation c. incremental innovation d. manufacturer innovation Answer c Page 571

58. Companies making _____ explore new technology and operate under highly uncertain conditions. a. radical innovation b. disruptive innovation c. incremental innovation d. manufacturer innovation Answer a

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59. Introducing goods that are new or substantially improved is considered what target of innovation? a. service innovation b. process innovation c. product innovation d. supply chain innovation Answer c

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60. Faster delivery of packages is considered an example of what target of innovation? a. service innovation b. process innovation c. product innovation d. supply chain innovation Answer a

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61. Improvements in production or delivery methods are considered what target of innovation? a. service innovation b. process innovation c. product innovation d. supply chain innovation Answer b Page 572 62. Improvements in packaging are considered examples of what target of innovation? a. service innovation b. process innovation c. product innovation d. marketing innovation Answer d Page 572

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63. Revising the basic way that business is done is an example of what target of innovation? a. service innovation b. business model innovation c. organizational innovation d. marketing innovation Answer b

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64. Changes in pivotal organizational practices are considered examples what target of innovation? a. organizational innovation b. process innovation c. product innovation d. marketing innovation Answer d

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65. The organizational components necessary for innovation include a. a sense of urgency created by the application of time pressure. b. a sensitivity to the needs of employees and customers. c. an organizational vision for innovation. d. a significant planned change effort.

Answer c

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66. The most important organizational cultural element for managing innovation is a. the ability to apply time pressure on employees without making them quit. b. the balancing of goals, rewards, and time pressure. c. the firm's senior leadership. d. market research.

Answer b

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67. Experience and research shows that effective innovation management involves a. the creation of significant time pressure as employees innovate more effectively with deadlines. b. connecting all innovations and creativity to some form of financial reward. c. a permissive-directive style of organizational leadership. d. linking innovation to the corporate mission.

Answer d

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68. Betsy is creating a mission statement and focusing on motivation. She is in the Stage ________ of innovation. a. 1 - setting the agenda b. 2 - setting the stage c. 3 - producing the ideas d. 4- testing and implementing the ideas Answer a Page 573

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69. It is during Stage ________ of the organizational innovation process that the relevant goals are narrowed in focus and resources are gathered necessary to the process. a. 1 - setting the agenda b. 2 - setting the stage c. 3 - producing the ideas d. 4- testing and implementing the ideas Answer b Page 573

70. During Stage ________ of the organizational innovation process is when new ideas are generated and tested. a. 1 - setting the agenda b. 2 - setting the stage c. 3 - producing the ideas d. 4- testing and implementing the ideas Answer c Page 573

71. It is at this Stage in the organizational innovation process when other parts of the organization become involved in the process. a. Stage 2 - setting the stage b. Stage 3 - producing the ideas c. Stage 4- testing and implementing the ideas d. Stage 5 - outcome assessment Answer c Page 574

72. The nurturing of an innovation takes place in this stage and it is where most ideas are killed. a. Stage 2 - setting the stage b. Stage 3 - producing the ideas c. Stage 4- testing and implementing the ideas d. Stage 5 - outcome assessment Answer c

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73. A number of great innovations were initially rejected or turned down, including a. the production of the movie Star Wars. b. the sale of the photocopying process to another company. c. the Beatles because guitars were passe. d. All of these examples.

Answer d

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Part 6 – Organizational Processes Mini-Case Questions Table 14.1 Graduate students are studying their university’s organizational culture. Tanya is examining the extent to which the university makes it easy for students to register for classes and for professors to get clerical support for their classes. Tia has focused on the university’s concern about liability and how much it allows professors to experiment with new teaching methods, conduct experiments in classes, etc. Bill has found that there is little expectations that faculty will make independent decisions. Almost everything has to pass through a committee. Students feel like mushrooms, they are kept in the dark and dumped on. As a consequence faculty do their thing and go home. Alumni giving is minimal since most grads are happy to escape. There is little social consciousness on campus.

74. Refer to Table 14.1. Tanya is examining the ________ element of organizational culture. a. sensitivity to the needs of customers and employees b. interest in having employees generate new ideas c. value placed on taking risks d. openness of available communication opportunities Answer a

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75. Refer to Table 14.1. Tia’s research is on the ________ element of organizational culture. a. sensitivity to the needs of customers and employees b. interest in having employees generate new ideas c. willingness to take risks d. openness of available communication opportunities Answer c

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76. Refer to Table 14.1. Bill’s research in on the organizational cultural element of: a. sensitivity to the needs of customers and employees b. interest in having employees generate new ideas c. value placed on taking risks d. openness of available communication opportunities Answer d

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Table 14.3 As a innovation consultant you work with a number of firms. Better Mousetraps builds inexpensive but sophisticated mousetraps. They have very capable designers and engineers who are highly motivated by a personal desire to rid the world of mice, yet innovation is low. The CEO asks you to conduct some creativity training. You lead the key designers through a process for coming up with new ideas by joining bits and pieces of other ideas in a new way combining all the pieces. Along with the training you interview the designers and engineers and discover that they are not clear on what the CEO wants. You also find they perceive a corporate bias towards the status quo, not an encouragement to innovate.

77. Refer to Table 14.3. What creativity component seems to be weak at Better Mousetraps? a. Domain-relevant skills b. Creativity-relevant skills c. Intrinsic task motivation d. Affective identity Answer b

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78. Refer to Table 14.3. Your creativity training is an example of a. the creative heuristic. b. helping designers to understand complexities. c. the use of productive forgetting. d. keeping options open.

Answer a

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79. Refer to Table 14.3. Your interviews of employees has uncovered a weakness in which organizational component for innovation? a. The way innovation is managed b. The resources to innovate c. The motivation to innovate d. None of these Answer c Page 572 True/False Questions

80. Organizational culture is a cognitive framework of the attitudes, values, norms, and expectations shared by the organization’s members.

Answer T Page 544

81. A strong organizational culture is necessary for the culture to have a positive impact on productivity.

Answer T

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547

82. While an organization’s culture builds a sense of identity for employees it has little affect on their commitment to the organization’s mission or purpose.

Answer F Page 548

83. The external environment of a company has little affect on its internal culture.

Answer F

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84. Jargon is actually beneficial in maintaining an organization’s culture.

Answer T

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85. Like human personalities, organizational cultures do not change, just the mechanical behavior of people, but not their values, beliefs, attitudes, or norms.

Answer F Page 557

86. It is important in developing creativity to reduce ideas to their simplest level and then rebuild them in your mind.

Answer F Page

561

87. The creativity element of intrinsic task motivation focuses on what people are capable of doing.

Answer F

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88. Intrinsic task motivation is high when the individual has a strong personal interest or has other internal reasons to perform.

Answer T Page 562

89. If any one of the three components of creativity is missing, people will not be creative at all.

Answer T

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90. Teaching people various tactics for divergent thinking allows problems to incubate.

Answer T

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91. Creativity is something that occurs naturally and cannot be taught.

Answer F

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92. Morphology is a popular way of developing divergent thinking.

Answer T

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93. Creativity tends to be considerably higher when companies are downsizing because ideas are more likely to cross-pollinate.

Answer F Page 567

94. Having a diverse workforce ensures that creativity will flourish.

Answer F

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95. Innovation is the successful implementation of creative ideas within an organization.

Answer T

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96. The components for organizational innovation are the same as those for individual creativity.

Answer T

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97. The best way to create an innovative climate is to specifically link organizational goals to innovations and to connect each innovation to some type of monetary reward.

Answer F Page 573

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98. Organizational innovation is promoted when goals and reward systems are not overly specific and time pressures are not too great.

Answer T Page 573

99. The process of organizational innovation begins with setting the stage and then producing the ideas.

Answer F

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100. The final stage of organizational innovation is to evaluate the results.

Answer T

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Essay Questions Major Essay

101. Explain how and why organizational culture changes Answer – The world in which all organizations operate constantly changes. External events such as shifts in market conditions, new technology, altered government policies, and many other factors change over time, necessitating changes in an organization’s mode of doing business and, hence, in its culture.  Composition of the workforce-Over time, the people entering an organization may differ in important ways from those already in it, and these differences may impinge on the existing culture of the organization.  Mergers and acquisitions-Another, and even more dramatic, source of cultural change is mergers and acquisitions, events in which one organization purchased or otherwise absorbs another.

There have been several cases in which the merger of the two organizations with incompatible cultures has led to serious problems referred to as culture clashes.  Planned organizational change-A company deliberately can decide to change its culture in a specific effort to solve problems. Cultural change also may result from the conscious decisions to alter the internal structure or the basic operations of an organization. Once such decisions are reached, many practices in the company those both reflect and contribute to its culture ma change.  Responding to the Internet-When traditional businesses expand into e-commerce, changes in their organizational culture follow suit.

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102. Describe the components of individual and team creativity.

Answer - Creativity in individuals and teams involves three basic components: domain-relevant skills, creativity-relevant skills, and intrinsic task motivation.  Domain-relevant skills--any task requires certain talents, knowledge, or skills. Those skills and abilities we already have constitute the raw materials of creativity.  Creativity-relevant skills--beyond the basic skills, being creative also requires additional skills-that is, special abilities that help people to approach what they do in novel ways. Specifically, when fostering creativity, it helps to do the following: • Break mental sets and take new perspectives. Creativity is enhanced when people do not limit themselves to old ways of doing things.

• Understand complexities. Instead of making things overly simplistic, consider complex ways in which ideas may interrelate.

• Keep options open, and avoid premature judgments. Creative people consider all options. To do so, they consider all the angles and avoid reaching premature conclusions.

• Use productive forgetting. Creativity sometimes is inhibited by our becoming fixated on certain ideas we just cannot seem to get out of our heads. Thus, it helps to practice productive forgetting--that is, the ability to abandon unproductive ideas and temporarily put aside stubborn problems until new approaches can be considered.

• Follow creativity heuristics. These are rules people follow to help them approach tasks in novel ways. They may involve techniques such as considering the counterintuitive and using analogies?  Intrinsic task motivation--focuses on what people are willing to do. To be creative, a person must be willing to perform the task in question.

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103. Discuss the innovation process identifying each stage and explaining what takes place during it.

Answer - Innovation occurs gradually, and scientists have identified five species stages. Stage l-setting the agenda. This involves creating a mission statement-- that is, a document describing an organization's overall direction and general goals for accomplishing that movement. Stage 2--setting the stage. This may involve narrowing certain broad goals into more specific tasks and gathering the resources to meet them. It also may involve assessing the environment, both outside and inside the organization, and searching for anything that may support or inhibit later efforts to "break the rules" by being creative. Stage 3--producing the ideas. This involves coming up with new ideas and testing them. It also is the stage in which individual and small group creativity enters the picture. Stage 4-testing and implementing the idea. Now, after an initial group of individuals has developed an idea, other parts of the organization become involved. Resources in the task domain are important at this stage. Stage 5--outcome assessment. The final stage and there are three outcomes are possible. a) If the resulting idea has been a total success, it will be accepted and carried out in the future. b) The process is over if the idea has been a complete failure, in which case there is no good reason to continue. c) If the new idea shows promise, however, and has made some progress toward the organization's objectives but still has problems, the process starts again at Stage 2.

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Short Essay

104. Define organizational culture naming its core characteristics.

Answer – Organizational culture as a cognitive framework consisting of attitudes, values, behavioral norms, and expectations shared by the organization’s members. At the root of any organization’s culture is a set of core characteristics that are collectively valued by the members. See Table 14.1.

Organizational cultures differ on several criteria.  First, organizations differ regarding their sensitivity to the needs of customers and employees.  Second, organizations differ regarding their interest in having employees generate new ideas  Third, companies differ regarding the value placed on taking risks.  Fourth, organizations differ regarding, the openness of available communization options.

Pages 545-546

105. Discuss the characteristics of organizations with strong cultures.

Answer - Organizations with strong cultures are characterized by a) a clear philosophy about how business is to be conducted, b) considerable time spent on communicating values and beliefs, c) explicit statements made that describe the organization’s values, d) a set of values/norms that are shared widely and rooted deeply, and e) careful screening of new employees to ensure that they fit the culture. Such stronger cultures are likely to be found in new organizations that have fewer employees.

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106. How is an organizational culture formed?

Answer - It is shaped by three factors. 1) The founders of the company--their personalities, vision, and values. 2) The organization’s experience with the external environment. 3) Internal interaction-the contacts between individuals and groups within the organization and their interpretations of events within the organization.

Pages 553-554

107. Identify and discuss the tools for transmitting organizational culture.

Answer - The text offers five tools. Symbols are material objects that connote meanings that extend beyond their intrinsic content. Example--the use of the picture of a bull to symbolize strength and stability. Stories illustrate key aspects of an organization’s culture, they convey information about the organization, and reaffirm organizational values. Effective stories relate critical incidents. Jargon is the everyday, special language or slang that helps members define their identities. Ceremonies are special events that commemorate corporate values. They are celebrations of the organization’s basic values and assumptions. Statements of principle are direct statements about key issues for the organization, often written.

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108. Why and how does an organizational culture change?

Answer –If culture tends to be so stable, why and how does it ever change? Why is culture not simply passed from one generation of organizational members to the next in a totally static manner?

Because the environment in which all organizations operate constantly change, such as:  Composition of the workforce--the people entering an organization may differ from those already in it, and these differences may impinge on the existing organizational culture. In other words, as people with different backgrounds and values enter the workplace, changes in the organizational culture may be expected to follow.  Mergers and acquisitions--one organization purchases or otherwise absorbs another. Rarely, however, is any consideration is given to the acquired organization's culture. This is unfortunate, because in several cases, the merger of two organizations with incompatible cultures has produced serious problems, which are referred to as culture clashes.

Pages 557-558

109. What the components of organizational innovation and their importance to organizational behavior?

Answer - The three components of individual innovation: motivation, resources, and skills are the same for organizational innovation, but used in a different way.

• Motivation to innovate--organizational innovation requires that organizations have the kind of cultures that encourage innovation.

• Resources to innovate--organizations must possess certain basic resources to make innovation possible--in terms of human and financial resources.

• Innovation management--organizations must develop special ways of managing people to encourage innovation. Specifically, managers promote innovation when they show balance with respect to three key matters: goals, reward systems, and time pressure Pages 572-573

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Chapter 15 Organizational Structure and Design Chapter 15 - Organizational Structure and Design Multiple Choice Questions

1. The formal configuration between individuals and groups with respect to the allocation of tasks, responsibilities, and authority within organizations is known as: a. organizational structure. b. organizational design. c. an organizational chart. d. division of labor.

Answer a Page 584

2. An organizational chart: a. is the formal configuration between individuals and groups with respect to allocation of tasks, responsibilities, and authority within the organization.

b. is the process of coordinating the structural elements of the organization. c. shows the formal lines of authority between people performing various tasks. d. is the process of coordinating the structural elements of an organization in the most appropriate form.

Answer c

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3. The organizational charts that indicate who reports to whom represent the organization's: a. division of labor. b. span of control. c. line and staff positions. d. hierarchy of authority.

Answer d

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4. XYZ corporation has ten levels of authority between the president and the lowest level employee on the organizational chart. By contrast, ABC Corporation has only three levels of authority; between the president and the lowest level. It may be said that XYZ's hierarchy of authority is ________, whereas ABC's is ________: a. flat; tall. b. tall; flat. c. wide; narrow. d. narrow; wide.

Answer b Page 587

5. In the downsizing, reorganizations and mergers hit ________ especially hard. a. the middle line b. the strategic apex c. technostructure d. support staff Answer a

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6. The number of people formally required to report to each individual manager is known as a manager's: a. span of control. b. organizational structure. c. an organizational chart. d. division of labor.

Answer a Page 588

7. An organization with a tall hierarchy results in managers’ having a ________span of control: a. broad b. narrow c. general d. specialized Answer b

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8. When evaluating a manager's span of control, you should: a. simply study the organizational chart. b. measure it against the ideal of 6-10 employees. c. consider the degree of supervisory control needed. d. do all of these.

Answer c

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9. ________ is when the tasks performed in an organization are divided into specialized jobs. a. Organizational structure b. Organizational design c. Division of labor d. An organizational chart Answer c

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10. The benefit of a narrow division of labor in an organization is: a. the reduction in the number of supervisors necessary. b. it is easier to implement performance enhancing technology. c. increased flexibility in the use of human resources. d. higher performance levels of each individual.

Answer d

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11. Alice was a copy writer for a large advertising firm in New York, where she specialized in writing radio ads. She moved to Tulsa, Oklahoma, where she took a job at a much smaller advertising firm.

Her new job required her not only to write radio ads for supermarkets, but to write copy for all radio ads, TV ads, and print ads. Sometimes she even had to produce commercials, work with artists, and even meet with clients. Compared to her former New York job, her new job: a. involves less of a division of labor. b. shows a decentralization of power. c. gives her a greater span of control. d. has become a staff position instead of a line position.

Answer a Page 589 .

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12. The degree to which employees perform specialized jobs is likely to depend on the ________of the organization. a. depth of management b. size c. amount of resources d. number of clients/customers Answer b Page 589

13. The basic difference between line managers and staff managers is that: a. line managers tend to be better educated. b. staff managers have more decision power. c. staff managers are older, more decisive, but less well educated. d. line managers have decision making power.

Answer d

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14. An example of a staff job in an organization would be the: a. corporate legal counsel. b. VP of Human Resources. c. sales manager. d. VP of Operations.

Answer a

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15. Studies show that staff managers tend to: a. be younger and more committed to their field than to their organization. b. have more decision-making power than line managers. c. be older and better educated than line managers. d. be more committed to the organization than line managers.

Answer a

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16. The process of delegating power from higher to lower levels within organizations is known as: a. centralization of authority. b. division of labor. c. decentralization of authority. d. setting the span of control.

Answer c

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17. Highly decentralized organizations: a. allow critical decisions to be made by those who have "the big picture." b. promote opportunities for decisions to be made by people closest to the situation. c. are more efficient when they deal with simple tasks. d. eliminate the additional responsibility of decision making for those who don’t want it.

Answer b

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18. The decentralization of control in organizations: a. is the key way for any organization to increase productivity. b. has brought about higher costs due to the implementation of technology to do the work of downsized employees.

c. works best in manufacturing and production-oriented businesses. d. is done to increase efficiency and employee satisfaction.

Answer d

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19. In a classic study it was found that decentralization: a. improved job performance in a research lab, but interfered with performance for people working on assembly-line jobs. b. improved job performance in a research lab, but had no effect on job performance for assemblyline workers. c. improved job performance in a research lab, but interfered with performance for people working on assembly-line jobs. d. had no effect on job performance in a research lab, but increased performance for assembly-line workers.

Answer a Page 590

20. The process of breaking up organizations into coherent units is known as: a. division of labor. b. departmentalization. c. organizational design. d. the span of control.

Answer b

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21. Organizations structured along functional lines: a. are less efficient than other organizational structures. b. permit greater job specialization. c. provide better customer service. d. have less clean lines of authority than other organizational structures.

Answer b

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22. Departmentalization that creates self-contained divisions that are each responsible for a specific group of products creates what is called a: a. product organization. b. matrix organization. c. mechanistic organization. d. boundaryless organization.

Answer a Page 595

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23. Organizations departmentalized by product have a number of advantages, such as: a. the ability to gain economies of scale through shared resources. b. giving employees the big picture perspective of the company. c. flexibility in meeting changes in the market. d. containing all the resources needed to produce and market its product.

Answer d

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24. Automakers like Ford, General Motors, etc., produce and market their cars through separate divisions. This is an example of: a. functional organizations. b. matrix organizations. c. product organizations. d. boundaryless organizations.

Answer c Page 596

25. There are limitations to departmentalization by product, including: a. conflicting reporting relationships. b. difficulty in attracting and retaining talented employees. c. the difficulty in tracking various tax requirements. d. overloading functional areas with conflicting demands.

Answer b

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26. When an organization sets up a temporary structure using both a functional and product structure, the organization is using a ________departmentalization. a. matrix b. modified functional c. mechanistic d. organic Answer a Page 597

27. David was recently put in charge of the marketing department and will head up the new MOV VI Product Development Team. David is a: a. top leader. b. functional boss. c. matrix boss. d. dual authority boss.

Answer a Page 597

28. In a matrix design there are three management roles. The ________ has the authority over both the functional and product lines of authority. a. top leader b. functional boss c. matrix boss d. dual authority boss Answer c Page 597 267

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29. In matrix design, organizations in which both the functional lines and the product lines are permanent and equally strong are known as: a. temporary overlay organizations. b. mature matrix organizations. c. permanent overlay organizations. d. adapted matrix organizations.

Answer b Page 598

30. Organizations are most likely to adopt matrix designs when: a. each unit contains sufficient resources to complete its own projects. b. the market environment is stable. c. they face complex and uncertain environments. d. their markets mature and they need economies of scale to compete on the basis of price.

Answer c

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31. Matrix designs have a number of advantages, such as: a. clarifying reporting responsibilities. b. flexibility in the allocation of human resources. c. reducing employee stress through high degrees of cooperation and coordination. d. reducing spans of control for managers.

Answer b

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32. Matrix designs are not without disadvantages, including: a. increased stress and frustration produced by two-boss managers. b. inhibiting communication between managers and workers. c. decreasing the flexibility of the organization's ability to use human resources. d. a loss of economies of scale.

Answer a

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33. The process of coordinating the structural elements of organizations in the most appropriate manner is called: a. organizational structure. b. organizational design. c. an organizational chart. d. division of labor.

Answer b Page 598

34. Classical approaches to organizational design advanced by Weber, Taylor, and Fayol: a. assume that there is one best way to design organizations. b. apply only to manufacturing organizations, and not service organizations. c. are among the most flexible of organizational designs. d. have virtually disappeared from the business environment.

Answer a

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35. Which of the following is a reason why classical organizational theory has fallen into disfavor? a. It paid too much attention to human needs. b. It is not well suited to a changing environment. c. It did not focus adequately on profitability. d. It permitted central core functions to be copied by competitors.

Answer b

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36. Neo-classical design differs from classical design because it includes a concern for: a. industrial efficiency. b. specialization of labor. c. employee satisfaction. d. profits.

Answer c

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37. Douglas McGregor's Theory Y approach is an example of a: a. classical organizational theory. b. neoclassical organizational theory. c. contingency theory. d. systems theory.

Answer b

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38. Neoclassical theory basically argues that: a. organizations should be as flat as possible. b. decision making should be decentralized. c. there is one best approach for an organization’s design. d. all of the above are true.

Answer d

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39. The idea that the best design for an organization depends on the nature of the environment in which the organization is operating is central to which of the following approaches to organizational design? a. the classical approach b. the neoclassical approach c. the contingency approach d. Mintzberg’s framework Answer c Page 600

40. Research on environmental stability and organizational structure found that: a. companies in relatively stable environments tended toward job specialization. b. there was no link between organizational structure and the company’s operating environment. c. companies in relatively unstable environments tended toward job specialization. d. companies in a rapidly changing environments did better when they had a mechanistic structure.

Answer a

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41. Evan works at Burger King. His job is highly specialized and there is a specific procedure for each task an employee must perform. Burger King is an example of a/an: a. organic organization. b. mechanistic organization. c. matrix organization. d. machine bureaucracy.

Answer b Page 601

42. Which of the following is characteristic of a mechanistic organization? a. The replacement of people with technology. b. Proliferation of generalist positions. c. Involvement in a dynamic business environment. d. High employee specialization.

Answer d

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43. Organic organizations are characterized by: a. authority that is diffused throughout the organization. b. rigid rules regarding routine jobs. c. involvement in a stable business environment. d. high employee specialization.

Answer a

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44. Research found that organizational units were most effective when: a. their structure was mechanistic, regardless of environment. b. their structure was matched to their environment. c. their structure was organic if the environment was stable. d. they used a matrix structure.

Answer b

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45. The element of an organization where the basic work is performed is the ________ in Mintzberg’s framework. a. technostructure b. strategic apex c. operating core d. support staff Answer c Page 603

46. The ________ consists of the top-level executives responsible for running the Moderate organization in Mintzberg’s framework. a. technostructure b. strategic apex c. operating core d. support staff Answer b Page 603

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47. Those specialists responsible for standardizing various aspects of the organization’s activities are part of Mintzberg’s: a. technostructure. b. strategic apex. c. operating core. d. support staff.

Answer a Page 603

48. Mintzberg’s ________ has decision making concentrated at the top, work is highly standardized, and it operates in a stable environment. a. simple structure b. divisional structure c. professional bureaucracy d. machine bureaucracy Answer d Page 604

49. A large organization that consists of sets of autonomous units coordinated by a central headquarters is a/an: a. adhocracy. b. divisional structure. c. professional bureaucracy. d. machine bureaucracy.

Answer b Page 605

50. An adhocracy is most likely to occur in an organization such as a a. university. b. small, entrepreneurial business. c. multidivisional business, such as GM. d. software development firm, Answer d

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51. Andrea works for a service organization that is very customer-orientated. Because of this, a great deal of power resides with the support staff, including her. This is an example of a/an: a. adhocracy. b. divisional structure. c. professional bureaucracy. d. machine bureaucracy.

Answer a Page 605

52. ________ eliminates chains of command, expands spans of control, and uses empowered teams. The idea is to make the organization fluid and give employees maximum responsibility. a. Product organization b. Matrix organization c. Mechanistic organization d. Boundaryless organization.

Answer d Page 608 271

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53. When a organization outsources its noncore functions, retains control over its core business, and then arranges networks of specialists around that core that can be added to or subtracted from as needed, the business has adopted a: a. modular organizational structure. b. matrix organizational structure. c. virtual organizational structure. d. product organizational structure.

Answer a Page 608

54. When a business develops a network of companies to share skills, costs, and access to markets in order to capitalize on strengths and pursue common objectives with each participating company only contributing its core competencies, you have a: a. modular organizational structure. b. matrix organizational structure. c. virtual organizational structure. d. product organizational structure.

Answer c Page 610

55. Satellite organizations affiliated with core companies that have helped them develop are called a. Affiliate networks. b. Spin-offs. c. Modular organizations. d. Offspring organizations Answer a

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56. The central idea behind the virtual organization is: a. contribution of core competency. b. access to markets. c. economy of scale. d. division of labor.

Answer a

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57. Which of the following would be the best candidate to go virtual? a. A computer design company with its own special processing architecture in the machines. b. A software company writing software for Windows applications. c. A pharmaceutical company that produces the only product for treating a certain disease. d. Any of these would be effective as virtual companies.

Answer b

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58. Companies should avoid a virtual organization when: a. designing and selling a consumer goods product that is common in the market place. b. marketing products that are bought on the basis of cost and quality. c. when making systemic changes to their products and they are working with proprietary capabilities. d. in all of these situations.

Answer c Page 611

59. ________are plans by which two or more organizations come together to coordinate efforts on a project.. a. Internal market systems b. Divisional structures c. Organic organizational designs d. Interorganizational designs Answer d Page 611

60. A large company diversifies by adding an entirely unrelated business or product to its organizational design. The new business or product is owned by the acquiring company. This is an example of a: a. joint venture. b. strategic alliance. c. conglomerate. d. divisional organizational design.

Answer c Page 611

61. In Japan, a Keiretsu is a. Similar to a Guanxi in China. b. A large, unified conglomerate. c. A strategic alliance d. A spin-off.

Answer b

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62. A strategic alliance in which two similar companies pool resources to receive a benefit too difficult or expensive for either to obtain alone, is: a. a value-chain partnership. b. a mutual service consortia. c. a joint venture. d. an internal market system.

Answer b Page 613

63. The alliance where the organizations have the loosest relationship is a: a. value-chain partnership. b. mutual service consortia. c. joint venture. d. modular boundaryless organization.

Answer b

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64. When Garret Memorial Hospital decided to share expenses with Cumberland Memorial Hospital to build and operate an MRI unit, they formed a: a. Joint venture. b. Mutual service consortia. c. Value chain partnership. d. Spin-off Answer b Page 613

65. When a firm like AOL Internet service provider partners with an online auction service to provide no fee auction services to subscribers the resulting alliance is an example of a: a. value-chain partnership. b. mutual service consortia. c. joint venture. d. modular boundaryless organization.

Answer a Page 613

66. When several companies come together to share capabilities but they are not closely tied to one another, nor able to do without each other, they have formed a ________ strategic alliance. a. value-chain partnership. b. mutual service consortia. c. joint venture. d. virtual organization.

Answer c Page 613

67. Partnerships between established companies which provide valued resources and experience, with start-ups, which are able to develop and market products quickly are called a(an): a. value-chain partnership. b. mutual service consortia. c. network incubator. d. conglomerate.

Answer c Page 614

68. Companies form global strategic alliances to gain several benefits including: a. direct managerial associated with the extending of organizational charts. b. financial incentives such as bypassing tariff restrictions. c. marketing benefits by gaining access to internal markets. d. all of these benefits.

Answer d

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69. A unique problem to conducting business or forming a joint venture in China is related to: a. entrepreneurship being new there and the infrastructure for business is weak. b. the mass of companies that are spread throughout the country with a maze of network connections to other parts of the country.

c. the high prices necessary to recoup startup costs make it difficult to expand market share. d. the fact that so many businesses are state owned.

Answer d

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Mini-Case Questions Table 15.1 As the new general manager of a regional cable service, Joe is studying the formal configuration of groups and individuals in respect to the allocation of tasks, responsibilities, and authority within the cable company. He notices that there are numerous layers of people between the cable installers and technicians and himself as general manager. He thinks this is because of the high degree of specialization in the company. Everyone seems to have very narrowly defined jobs. Joe decides he wants fewer layers of employees and for each manager to have responsibility for more employees. He reduces the number of managers from 10 to 3. As a consequence, each manager will make of his/her own decisions and rely less on Joe.

70. Refer to Table 15.1. Joe’s initial study is of the cable company’s: a. division of labor. b. organizational design. c. span of control. d. organizational structure.

Answer d

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71. Refer to Table 15.1. The numerous layers of employees between the service providers and top management represents the company’s: a. division of labor. b. hierarchy of authority. c. division of labor. d. span of control.

Answer b Page 585

72. Refer to Table 15.1. The high degree of specialization Joe is seeing is a function of the company’s: a. decentralization. b. hierarchy of authority. c. division of labor. d. span of control.

Answer d

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73. Refer to Table 15.1. Joe’s eliminating of management layers resulted in: a. a greater division of labor. b. decentralization of decision making. c. more line positions. d. small spans of control.

Answer b

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Table 15.2 For a management class, a group of students are considering how to structure a proposed company.

Their original idea is was a design that would give complete responsibility for the development and marketing of a product to one unit. Tax considerations are a concern as well, and they want a structure that would help the accountants track them better through specific cost centers. They decide not to use this design because of the duplication of effort and the probability that it would be difficult to attract and retain talented employees. In their second design they want to stress the opportunity for employees to specialize, gain economies of scale, and conserve resources by eliminating duplication of effort. They reject that design because it is too cumbersome and slow to respond to the changes in the marketplace.

Then one member of the group, Jack, gets the idea of going for a really 90s kind of design. He suggeststhat they eliminate chains of command and spans of control and go to empowered teams. He argues that this will increase creativity and responsibility among employees. A fellow student argues that it won’t work in the real world because managers won’t give up that much authority. “Ok,” a third student, Jane, offers, “let’s try this idea but build around a hub. The hub will be the core business and the spokes will be groups of specialists that can be added to or subtracted from as the market changes.” They settle on a structure with two lines of authority, one by task specialization and the other by product line.

This gives them economies of scale and flexibility but some stress over reporting authority. But it gives them the best of what they want.

74. Refer to Table 15.2. Their first design is an example of a: a. functional organization. b. matrix organization. c. product organization. d. modular organization.

Answer c

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75. Refer to Table 15.2. The group’s second design is for a: a. functional organization. b. matrix organization. c. product organization. d. boundaryless organization.

Answer a

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76. Refer to Table 15.2. Their final design is an example of a: a. functional organization. b. matrix organization. c. product organization. d. boundaryless organization.

Answer b

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77. Refer to Table 15.2. Jack’s idea is an example of a: a. virtual organization. b. matrix organization. c. modular organization. d. boundaryless organization.

Answer d

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Table 15.3 You are studying a medium-sized service company. You find that Joe, a customer service representative, has been doing his job for five years. He takes about 200 customer calls a day and helps customers with their product questions. Bridgette, the CEO, has been with the company about three years and is in the process of making its structure more organic and flexible. Between Bridgette and Joe is Fred, who conveys management’s decisions and policies to Joe and helps Bridgette stay in touch with the several hundred ‘Joes’ who work in customer service. Sally is the corporate attorney and works with Bridgette on corporate legal matters.

78. Refer to Table 15.3. Joe is part of the ________ of his organization. a. technostructure b. strategic apex c. operating core d. support staff Answer c

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79. Refer to Table 15.3. Bridgette represents the ________ in Mintzberg’s model. a. technostructure b. strategic apex c. operating core d. support staff Answer b

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80. Refer to Table 15.3. Sally represents the ________ in Mintzberg’s model. a. technostructure b. strategic apex c. operating core d. support staff Answer d

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Part 6 - Organizational Processes Table 15.4 There are five organizations in your community that are being studied using Mintzberg’s perspective on organizational design. One is a high-tech organization with a simple structure, decentralized authority, and Mintzberg’s support staff is the dominant element in the organization. A second company operates in a stable industry, each employee’s work is highly specialized, and decision making is concentrated at the top of the organization. There is also a family medical practice with three doctors who are partners.

The operating core is the dominant element, decision making is vested in the doctors. Finally, the public school, which is dominated by its strategic apex element.

81. Refer to Table 15.4. The public school is an example of Mintzberg’s: a. simple structure. b. machine bureaucracy. c. professional bureaucracy. d. adhocracy.

Answer a

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82. Refer to Table 15.4. The second company has Mintzberg’s ________ design. a. divisional structure b. machine bureaucracy c. professional bureaucracy d. adhocracy Answer b

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83. Refer to Table 15.4 The high-tech company is an example of Mintzberg’s: a. simple structure. b. machine bureaucracy. c. professional bureaucracy. d. adhocracy.

Answer d

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84. Refer to Table 15.4. The doctor’s medical practice is an example of Mintzberg’s: a. simple structure. b. machine bureaucracy. c. professional bureaucracy. d. adhocracy.

Answer c

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Chapter 15 Organizational Structure and Design Table 15.5 INVEX, Inc. is a small manufacturer of low technology consumer goods. They want to enter the Asian market but don’t know how. They form a strategic alliance with Asia Today, a marketing firm specializing in marketing U.S. goods of all kinds in Asia. INVEX, Inc., also has a relationship with another manufacture of low technology consumer goods--Small Things R' Good. They provide components to each other and INVEX will bring that company into the alliance with Asia Today.

85. Refer to Table 15.5. The relationship of Small Things R' Good and INVEX is what type of strategic alliance? a. a value-chain partnership b. a joint venture c. a mutual service consortia d. a megacorporation.

Answer c Page 613

86. Refer to Table 15.5. INVEX is in what type of strategic alliance with Asia Today? a. a value-chain partnership b. a joint venture c. a mutual service consortia d. a megacorporation.

Answer a

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True/False Questions

87. The configuration of reporting relationships within an organization is the organization's structure.

Answer F

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584

88. The degree of responsibility a manager has--based in the number of people he/she supervises in an organization--is determined by his/her span of control.

Answer T Page 588

89. The degree to which individuals perform specialized jobs is dependent on the size of the organization.

Answer T Page

589

90. Vice president of marketing is an example of a line position.

Answer T

Page

589

91. If a company wants to pass power down to lower levels within the organization it would increase its centralization.

Answer F Page

590

92. Under some conditions, such as when only a few individuals are in a position to judge what’s best for the company, highly centralized authority makes the most sense.

Answer T Page 590

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93. High centralization eliminates the additional responsibility not desired by people performing routine jobs.

Answer T Page 590 94. When an organization is structured around its outputs it has a process organizational structure.

Answer F Page 595

95. The organizational structure that combines functional and product organizational strategies is a matrix structure.

Answer T Page

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96. A matrix structure works best in stable, simple environments where there is a need for economies of scale.

Answer F

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97. The process of coordinating the structural elements of an organization into the most appropriate form is organizational design.

Answer T Page 589

98. The neoclassical approach to organizational design overcomes the fault of classical design by stressing there is no one best design for an organization.

Answer F Page 599

99. In a dynamic environment a company with highly skilled professional employees who can perform a variety of task, the company would be best served by a mechanistic organizational structure.

Answer F Page 601

100. The operating core of a company consists of those employees who perform the work key to the company's products and services.

Answer T Page 603

101. The organizational design that is highly complex, has clear lines of authority within a formal environment would be an adhocracy.

Answer F Page 605

102. A boundaryless organization is such because it removes the internal and sometimes the external barriers between functions within the organization.

Answer T Page 608

103. The technostructure includes those individuals who provide direct support services to the organization--consultants, attorneys, etc.

Answer F Page 608

104. The key to the success of a virtual organization is the mix of shared core competencies.

Answer T

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610

105. The primary difference between a modular structure and a virtual structure is the duration of the organization.

Answer T Page .

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106. Virtual structures work best for companies considering systemic changes using proprietary technology.

Answer F Page 611 107. A mutual service consortia is the strongest form of strategic joint venture.

Answer F Page 613

108. A value-chain partnership is a type pf conglomerate.

Answer F

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613

109. A joint venture is a form of organizational diversification that adds unrelated businesses to the core business.

Answer F Page

613

110. While a spin-off is separate from the original parent organization, and has its own identity, it typically shares the management team of the parent company.

Answer F Page 614

111. A key element that makes strategic alliances between U.S. and Chinese companies somewhat difficult is the strong cultural differences between the two countries.

Answer T Page 616 Essay Questions Major essay

112. What are the various dimensions of organizational structure and how do they impact organizational behavior?

Answer - There are five dimensions by which organizations may be differentiated: hierarchy of authority, division of labor, span of control, line vs. staff, decentralization. Hierarchy of authority is the reporting relationships within an organization. A flat organization has few layers, a tall organization has many layers of managers. It is one dimension that is moving toward “less is more.” Division of labor is the way work is assigned. The more tasks/jobs and narrow the responsibilities in each job, the more specialization. The fewer jobs and broader responsibilities in each job, the more generalization.

Span of control refers to how many people a manager is responsible for. An organizational chart gives an indication of span of control but is not complete. Both additional responsibilities beyond supervision and the degree of supervision required affect span of control. There is no ideal span of control. Line vs. staff is simply the division of jobs regarding who has decision-making authority and who advises the decision makers. Line managers are the decision makers. Staff are advisers to line.

Decentralization refers to how decisions are made; by a few--centralization, or by many-decentralization. The tendency is to decentralize, but that doesn’t work well in routine, assembly-line types of companies. The more independent the worker in his/her tasks, the better decentralization works.

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113. Explain the three primary ways an organization can be structured, offering the advantages and disadvantages of each.

Answer - There are four main organizational structures: functional, product, matrix, boundaryless.

Functional is the most basic form. They are departmentalized by the functions people perform. There is some saving of resources by avoiding duplication of functional effort, people can specialize, and you gain economies of scale. But, it narrows the perspective of the employee and is not flexible.

Product departmentalizes by the functions necessary to produce and market a product. Each unit is self-contained and is its own cost center. It improves profit accountability, tax accounting, and clear lines of authority. But you lose economies of scale and its more difficult to attract and retain talent.

Matrix combines product and functional structures. You gain economies of scale, the ability to share resources if no one unit has sufficient, and flexibility to adapt quickly to the market. Individual’s have dual reporting relationships which can get confusing. There can be temporary overlay, permanent overlay, and mature matrix organizations.

Pages 594-598

114. Describe the classical, neoclassical, and contingency approaches to organizational design.

Answer - Classical organizational design focuses on a formal hierarchy, clear work rules, specialization of labor, routine tasks, impersonal working environment, and the maximization of industrial efficiency. It tends to favor tall structures, small spans of control, and hierarchical authority.

Neoclassical organizational design attempts to add a more human element, employee satisfaction. It uses elements of classical but sees people as self-motivating, desirous of responsibility, and seeking satisfaction at work. It leans toward flat organizations and decentralization, but still believes there is one best approach. Contingency organizational design assumes that the most appropriate design is determined by the business environment of the organization. Burns and Stalker did key work and developed the concept of mechanistic and organic organizations.

Pages 599-601

115. Enumerate the five organizational forms of Mintzberg's framework and provide an example of each.

Answer - Mintzberg has five designs with five elements common to all designs. Simple structure is a simple structure, informal, and with centralized decision making. The strategic apex element dominates this form. Machine bureaucracy has a highly complex structure and formal climate with clear lines of authority. Work is highly specialized and it works in a stable environment. The technostructure element predominates. Professional bureaucracy consists of highly trained specialists.

Complex decision making and authority rests with the specialists, and it is dominated by the operating core element. Divisional structure is a large organization form where sets of autonomous units are coordinated by managers. The middle-line element is crucial here. Finally, the Adhocracy, another simple structure, is highly informal with decentralized authority. The support staff element is key here.

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116. What is the boundaryless organization? Discuss its various forms.

Answer - Jack Welch, the CEO of General Electric, proposed the boundaryless organization. This is an organization in which chains of command are eliminated, spans of control are limited, and rigid departments give way to empowered teams. Replacing rigid distinctions between people are fluid, intentionally ambiguous, ill-defined roles. For boundaryless organizations to function effectively, they need to meet many of the same requirements as successful teams. There must be high levels of trust between all parties. Everyone involved also must have high levels of skill they can operate without much managerial guidance. There are variations of boundaryless organizations that involve only the elimination of external boundaries.  Modular organizations--outsource non-core functions to other companies while retaining full strategic control over their core business. Such companies may be thought of as having a central hub, which is surrounded by networks of outside specialists who can be added or subtracted as needed.  Virtual organizations--is composed of a continually evolving network of companies (e.g., suppliers, and customers) linked together to share skills, costs, and market access. They form a partnership to capitalize on their existing skills, and the pursue common objectives. After these objectives have been met, they disband. Unlike modular organizations, which maintain close control over the companies with which they outsource, virtual organizations give up some control and become part of a new organization at least for a while. Most virtual organizations are formed on a limited basis. The underlying idea of a virtual organization is that each participating company contributes only its core competencies (i.e., its areas of greatest strength).

The boundaryless organization is an increasingly popular organizational form and involves eliminating internal boundaries (e.g., those between employees) and external boundaries (e.g., those between the company and its suppliers).

Pages 608-610 Short Essay

117. Differentiate between organizational structure and organizational design.

Answer - Organizational structure is the way individuals and groups are arranged with respect to the tasks they perform. Organizational design is the process of coordinating these structural elements in the most effective manner. Structure is who is responsible for what. Design is how they work together.

Pages 584, 598

118. Explain the benefits of low and high decentralization.

Answer – When decentralization is low, the additional responsibility not desired by people performing routine jobs is eliminated. Additionally, those crucial decisions made by individuals who have the ‘big picture” are permitted. When decentralization is high, the organization can be made leaner by eliminating levels of management. Additionally, high decentralization promotes more opportunities for decisions to be made by those closest to the problems in question.

Page 592

119. What are the particular values of a matrix organization?. What are the major roles within them, what types are there, and what are the major advantages and disadvantages of them?

Answer - A Matrix organization combines product and functional structures. You gain economies of scale, the ability to share resources if no one unit has sufficient, and flexibility to adapt quickly to the market. Individuals’ have dual reporting relationships which can get confusing. There can be temporary overlay, which crosses functions on a special short-term basis. Or it can be a permanent overlay in which the project teams stay together once the project is finished. Or, it can take the form of a mature matrix organization where the product and functional lines are strong and permanent.

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120. What is interorganizational design? Describe its two main forms.

Answer - The two main forms are a conglomerate and a strategic alliance. A conglomerate is a large company which diversifies by adding an entirely unrelated businesses or products to its organizational design. The new business or product is owned by the acquiring company. A strategic alliance is when two or more companies join their competitive capabilities to operate a specific business. There are three forms: a value-chain partnership, a mutual service consortia, and a joint venture.

Pages 611-615

121. When should a firm consider going virtual?

Answer - The current trend is for companies to get smaller and join with other companies as needed to complete special projects. The rationale is straightforward: By reducing their own hierarchy and networking with other companies on an ad-hoc basis, a given company can move faster and thus, stands a better chance of succeeding in a highly competitive environment. Management experts argue the decision to go virtual is based in two factors: the type of capabilities the company needs, and the type of change that will be made.

• First, consider the nature of the organizational changes being proposed. These may be categorized as being either autonomous or systemic. An autonomous change is one that is made independently of other changes. A systemic change, however, is one that is related to other changes.

• A second key distinction involves the capabilities needed to complete the project. Sometimes these exist only outside the company and, thus, must be tapped. Many companies also do a bit of each--that is, going outside for some things but keeping other functions in house.

By combining these factors, it becomes clear when companies should "go virtual'' and when they should work exclusively within their own walls. Virtual organizations work best for companies considering autonomous changes using technologies that exist only outside their walls. In contrast, companies should keep their focus inward when the changes are systemic in nature and involve capabilities the company either already has or can create.

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Chapter 16 Managing Organizational Change: Strategic Planning and Organizational Development Chapter 16 - Managing Organizational Change: Strategic Planning and Organizational Development Multiple Choice Questions

1. An organization that is experiencing planned or unplanned transformations in its structure, technology, and/or people is experiencing: a. organizational change. b. organizational cultural change. c. the development of a competitive strategy. d. first-order change.

Answer a Page 625

2. Only ________ percent of new ventures last as long as 50 years. a. 2 b. 5 c. 12 d. 20 Answer a

Page

625

3. The oldest company in the U.S. now produces ________, although it originally started out in 1702 making ________ a. Adhesives and coatings for aircraft; grain. b. Bakery supplies; grain. c. Conveyer belts; buggy whips. d. Building materials; tea bags.

Answer c Page 625

4. Today’s business analysts claim that the business environment is experiencing: a. organizational fragmentation, breaking large companies into small entities. b. another industrial revolution. c. cultural transformation. d. first-order change.

Answer b

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5. The most common form of organizational change on an international basis is: a. reduction in employment. b. merger and acquisition. c. major restructuring. d. international expansion.

Answer c

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6. When a company alters reporting relationships and the division of labor among departments it is changing: a. organizational structure. b. an organization's technology. c. the company's product line. d. transformation processes.

Answer a Page 628

7. If an organization felt the key to efficiency was to reduce the number of departments and increase spans of control, the organization would be targeting: a. organizational structure. b. people. c. technology. d. products or services.

Answer a Page 628

8. Which of the following is an example of changing organizational technology? a. Training people to accept new ways of operating. b. Centralizing decision making. c. Substituting computer e-mail for paper memos. d. Reducing layers in the organizational hierarchy.

Answer c

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9. A firm wants to improve productivity and efficiency of work tasks. They should target changing: a. the organization’s structure. b. their people. c. the technology used. d. their management structure.

Answer c

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628

10. The concepts of unfreezing, changing, and refreezing are part of: a. changes in organizational structure. b. changes in technology. c. changes in management. d. changes in people.

Answer d

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11. The first step in the process of changing people is a. defining the problem. b. planning the change. c. unfreezing. d. productive forgetting.

Answer c

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12. The process of recognizing that the current state of affairs is undesirable and is in need of change is referred to as a. defining the problem. b. planning the problem. c. unfreezing. d. realization.

Answer c Page 628

13. When a manager introduces the idea that change is necessary by suggesting that an impending crisis is likely, he/she is using an approach called: a. Unfreezing. b. Doomsday management. c. First-order change. d. Second-order change.

Answer b Page 629

14. An organization that experiences continuous but incremental change is experiencing: a. second order change. b. first order change. c. normal organizational growth. d. learning.

Answer b

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629

15. Catacombs, Inc. is seeing radical change with major changes at different levels of the organization and in the different businesses it is in. Catacombs is experiencing: a. second order change. b. first order change. c. unplanned change. d. learning.

Answer a Page 629

16. An organization is restructuring its sales division because it has consistently not met its goals. This is an example of unplanned change due to: a. economic competition. b. government regulation. c. performance gaps. d. changes in administrative services.

Answer c Page 630

17. The most common force shaping unplanned change is: a. the introduction of new technology. b. response to new government regulation. c. more economic competition. d. adjusting the size and structure of the organization.

Answer b

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18. Gates, Inc., a producer of automated gates for companies and gates is now selling against an Australian firm offering similar quality at a better price with better service. Gates quickly adds more service technicians and drops prices 5%. This is an example of ________forcing unplanned change. a. advances in technology b. shifting employee demographics c. government regulation d. global economic competition Answer d Page 631

19. The Internet is in a constant state of change. Internet service providers such as "Just Ask Jeeves" use new types of search engines to make its use easier. This is an example of ________ forcing unplanned change among other Internet service providers. a. advances in technology b. shifting employee demographics c. government regulation d. global economic competition Answer a Page 633

20. Computer manufacturers have gone from selling their computers to giving them away in conjunction with signing up for Internet service. This is an example of how ________ can force unplanned organizational change. a. advances in technology b. shifting employee demographics c. government regulation d. global economic competition Answer a Page 633

21. Strategic planning is based on three key assumptions including: a. firm's often do not have sufficient internal human resources to adequately do strategic planning. b. that it is a deliberate process of conscious decision making. c. that it is best done to build on success rather than correct problems. d. technology is the key to the future for any business.

Answer b

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22. Jennifer thinks that her company needs to rethink how they market their product because they are not selling as projected. This represents the basic assumption of strategic planning that: a. existing objectives require new strategic plans to continue success. b. it is a deliberate process of conscious decision making. c. it is best done to build on success rather than correct problems. d. it occurs when current objectives are no longer being met.

Answer d Page 634

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23. The practice of eliminating parts of organizations that focus on noncore sectors of the business and hiring outside forms to perform these functions instead is called a. work restructuring. b. rightsizing. c. reducing. d. outsourcing.

Answer d Page 635 24. Strategic planning begins with: a. defining the scope of the products or services offered. b. identifying key markets. c. defining goals. d. conducting consumer target market research.

Answer c Page 636

25. Joe is thinking through the company's market, its financial standing, how its culture impacts its effectiveness and developing objectives to improve each area. Joe is in the ________ stage of strategic planning. a. defining goals b. defining the scope of the product/service c. assessing internal resources d. analyzing internal arrangements Answer a Page 636

26. A firm in the strategic planning process is answering the question, "What business are we in?" This represents the ________ step in strategic planning. a. defining goals b. defining the scope of the product/service c. assessing internal resources d. developing a competitive strategy Answer b Page 636

27. In strategic planning when the planners are considering their finances, physical assets, human assets etc., they are at the ________ step in the planning process. a. assessing external resources b. analyzing internal arrangements c. assessing internal resources d. defining goals Answer c Page 637

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28. Gary and Betty are studying their competition, looking at their competitive advantages, researching relevant government regulations for their business. They are ________ in the strategic planning process. a. assessing their competitive advantages b. defining goals c. developing a competitive strategy d. assessing the external environment Answer d Page 637

29. If I'm concerned with the fit between pay structures and corporate goals, how well departments and managers communicate, etc., I am ________ as part of strategic planning. a. assessing internal resources b. analyzing internal arrangements c. developing a competitive strategy d. defining the scope of our products and services Answer b Page 637

30. "How can we make our products superior to our competitors?" is a question that needs to be answered in the________ step of strategic planning. a. developing a competitive advantage b. assessing external the environment c. assessing the competitive advantage d. communicating the strategy to stockholders Answer c Page 637

31. Once a strategy has been developed in strategic planning it must be: a. implemented. b. communicated. c. evaluated. d. integrated.

Answer b

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32. Attempting to derive more profits from existing business is a: a. market concentration strategy. b. market-share increasing strategy. c. profit strategy. d. turnaround strategy.

Answer c

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33. In strategic planning if a company decides to withdraw from some markets in order to put more resources into other markets it is choosing a(n) ________ strategy. a. market concentration b. market-share increasing c. profit d. exit Answer a Page 638 .

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34. Teddy, Inc. a teddy bear manufacturer is conducting strategic planning because of declining sales.

They are thinking about adding new products and/or radically restructuring the business to deal with the decline. This is an example of a: a. market concentration strategy. b. market-share increasing strategy. c. profit strategy. d. turnaround strategy.

Answer d Page 638

35. The strategic planning process ends with: a. evaluation. b. communication. c. implementation. d. integration.

Answer a

Page

638

36. The U.S. differs from other countries in terms of strategic values. In Japan for example: a. radical change is encouraged not resisted. b. stockholders have priority when considering the impact of change. c. while done, competition is rarely talked about or expressed in strategic plans. d. women hold more positions of authority, especially at the level of CEO. Answer c

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37. Employees resist change when they derive a sense of security from doing things the same way, knowing who their co-workers are, and who their bosses are. This resistance is from: a. threats to social relationships. b. habit. c. the fear of uncertainty. d. economic insecurity.

Answer c Page 639

38. When people resist change because of their bonds with co-workers, you are facing resistance based on:

a. b. c. d.

threats to social relationships. economic insecurity. habit. demographic background.

Answer a Page 639

39. Which of the following is an organizational barrier to change? a. economic insecurity b. work group inertia c. demographic background d. fear of the unknown Answer b

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40. The desire to continue to perform jobs in a specific way that comes from the jobs themselves and from social pressure surrounding the jobs is: a. work group inertia. b. threats to social relationships. c. habit. d. structural inertia.

Answer a Page 640

41. John is working at overcoming some resistance to organizational change. He has talked the CEO into telling the managers that this is an important change and he’s supporting it. John has used which technique for overcoming resistance? a. Rewarding constructive behavior. b. Educating the workforce. c. Involving employees in the change effort. d. Shaping political atmosphere.

Answer d Page 644 42. Peggy is proposing a significant change in her company’s medical benefit program to the employee task force. She’s explaining how it will improve their coverage while lowering their overall costs. There will be some loss of freedom as they must go to selected doctors, but she assures them that that will be a minimal hassle. Peggy is using which technique for overcoming resistance? e. Rewarding constructive behavior. f. Educating the workforce. g. Shaping political atmosphere. h. Involving employees in the change effort.

Answer c Page 644 43. People who participate in making decisions tend to be: a. more resistant to change. b. more committed to the decision. c. much quicker to make the decision than an individual. d. less committed to the decision.

Answer b Page 645 44. One way to facilitate change and reduce employee resistance is to: a. bring in outside management to implement the change. b. coerce or force employee compliance with the change. c. punish any resistance to the change. d. reward constructive behaviors.

Answer d Page 646

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Chapter 16 Managing Organizational Change: Strategic Planning and Organizational Development 45. An organization that focuses on doing whatever it takes to adapt to changing conditions by acquiring, cultivating, and applying knowledge, the organization is: a. involved in second order change. b. involved in first order change. c. caught in unplanned change. d. a learning organization.

Answer d Page 646 46. For a company to become a learning organization, management needs to take certain actions including: a. flattening structure by creating cross-functional teams and eliminating barriers. b. investing in more supervisors to facilitate coordination of effort. c. upgrading computer technology. d. hiring well educated staff.

Answer a Page 646 47. ________ is a set of social science techniques designed to plan and implement change in work settings for the purpose of enhancing both personal and organizational effectiveness. a. Organizational change b. Organizational development c. A quality of work life program d. First-order change Answer b Page 647 48. In situations in which employees are concerned about losses resulting from change, the resistance would best be overcome by e. educating employees and communicating with them. f. involving employees in the process of making the change. g. negotiating an agreement about other aspects of work. h. imposing the required changes.

Answer c Page 647 49. Organizations like Royal Dutch Shell and the U.S. Army have gone through major change efforts and learned several things that helped facilitate their changes, including: a. keep the change effort at top management level to avoid employee resistance. b. calm people by explaining the status quo is okay, we're just making incremental improvements. c. create an urgency for the change by setting challenging goals or straightforward communication. d. explaining how the executives are also suffering and feel the pain of the employees.

Answer c Page 648

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Part 6 - Organizational Processes 50. When Royal Dutch Shell brought its managers together to discuss the problem of encroaching competition in order to plan a response, Shell was ________ in order to bring about organizational change. a. fully incorporating employees in change efforts b. developing a cognitive oriented organization c. creating a sense of urgency and importance d. generating discomfort with the status quo Answer a Page 648 51. The use of "after action reviews," by the Army is a technique for: a. fully incorporating employees in change efforts. b. developing a cognitive oriented organization. c. creating a sense of urgency and importance. d. generating discomfort with the status quo.

Answer d Page 648 52. An organizational development technique by which managers and their subordinates work together to set and meet organizational goals is called: a. team building. b. quality of work life. c. management by objectives. d. grid training.

Answer c Page 648 53. The MBO process begins with: a. subordinates and supervisors meeting to discuss goals. b. problem recognition and diagnosis. c. data gathering. d. evaluation.

Answer a Page 648 54. An MBO program: a. is a relatively quick and effective way to help an organization improve employee job satisfaction. b. requires a long time to fully implement, up to five years. c. primarily benefits the employee and the organization only secondarily. d. requires a great deal of involvement of top management, but little involvement of lowerlevel managers and employees.

Answer b Page 649 55. The organizational development technique that helps employees understand the organization’s current strengths and weaknesses is: a. team building. b. quality of work life programs. c. survey feedback. d. management by objectives.

Answer c Page 650

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Chapter 16 Managing Organizational Change: Strategic Planning and Organizational Development 56. A CEO wants an effective, quick, flexible, low cost way to affect organizational development. His best choice of technique would be: a. team building. b. quality of work life programs. c. management by objectives. d. survey feedback.

Answer d Page 650 57. An OD intervention that focuses attention away from an organization’s shortcomings and toward its capabilities and its potential is called a. Competitive intelligence. b. Appreciate inquiry. c. Action Lab. d. Management by Objectives.

Answer b Page 650 58. The four steps involved in the process of appreciative inquiry are a. defining, discussing, developing, deploring. b. defining, deducing, deploring, delivering. c. discovery, dreaming, designing, delivering. d. discovery, debating, deciding, designing.

Answer c Page 650 59. The stage of appreciative inquiry that includes having a dialogue in which participants discuss their ideas about “what should be” is called a. discussing. b. designing. c. dreaming. d. debating.

Answer b Page 651 60. Which of the following approaches to organizational development focuses on improving organizational functioning by increasing employee participation in the organization? a. team building b. quality of work life c. management by objectives d. grid training Answer b Page 652 61. Imagine a group of volunteers who meet regularly to solve problems related to the quality of people's work and the conditions under which people perform their jobs. Such a group would be referred to as a: a. team-building group. b. sensitivity training group. c. work team. d. quality circle.

Answer d Page 652

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Part 6 - Organizational Processes 62. The benefits of a QWL program, include: a. improved team functioning. b. smoother interpersonal relations among workers. c. reduced turnover. d. all of the above.

Answer c Page 653 63. OD interventions tend to be more effective: a. with teams than with organizations. b. in mechanistic organizations rather than organic organizations. c. with blue-collar workers than with white collar workers. d. with individuals than with organizations.

Answer c Page 653 64. The controversy over the ethicality of OD comes out of the tendency for OD techniques to: a. not provide clear answers as to the best way to do something. b. equalize power within organization, raising managers' concerns about directing employees. c. impose the values of the organization on the individual. d. manipulate compliance out of employees and managers alike.

Answer c Page 654 65. The ethical use of organizational development techniques requires: a. secrecy and the concealing of true motives from those involved. b. a strong ethical culture and oversight by ethical professionals. c. oversight by union officials. d. significant employee involvement to avoid the potential abuse of power.

Answer b Page 654 66. An ethical issue in organizational development is: a. the loss of jobs due to the implementation of automation. b. the deliberate manipulation of employees to gain their compliance. c. that many of its practices are in fact illegal under equal opportunity legislation. d. misrepresenting what the intervention is really intended to do.

Answer d Page 654

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Chapter 16 Managing Organizational Change: Strategic Planning and Organizational Development Mini-Case Questions Table 16.1 Todd’s restaurant is changing from a fast food menu and walk-through service to simple, quickly prepared meals eaten in the restaurant or along the sidewalk. This change was brought on by the losses he’s experiencing due to decreased demand for fast food. In order to make the changes as effective as possible, and to avoid having to react in the future, Todd is talking to his employees about their ideas on the changes and what the future might hold. He wants employees to try some new things, tell him what's working and what's not working, and help grow individual and help the company grow.

67. Refer to Table 16.1. Todd’s restaurant is experiencing: a. first-order change. b. second-order change. c. planned change. d. administrative change.

Answer b Page 629 68. Refer to Table 16.1. The change effort Todd is taking was stimulated by: a. government regulation. b. shifting employee demographics. c. not being able to meet current objectives. d. competition and advances in technology.

Answer c Page 634 69. Refer to Table 16.1. In terms of a learning organization, Todd’s talking to his employees is: a. establishing a commitment to change. b. developing an open organizational culture. c. adopt an informal organizational structure. d. rewarding constructive behavior.

Answer a Page 634 70. Refer to Table 16.1. The type of planned change Todd is making is: a. a change in administrative systems. b. a change in technology. c. a change in product. d. a change in organizational structure.

Answer c Page 634

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Part 6 - Organizational Processes

Table 16.2 Loading Dock One, an international products retailer, is going through organizational change. The entrance of several low cost retailers into their market of quality international gifts is forcing them to seek greater efficiencies so they can lower costs and prices. Unfortunately, their employees are resisting the changes. They understand competition is increasing, but they fear the changes will eliminate jobs or diminish the variety of their work. Not only are the employees resisting, but it seems that the way LDO has hired, trained, and rewarded employees also hinders the changes they want to make. Some managers also are resisting the change because they can see their staffs being reduced or their entire work units eliminated.

71. Refer to Table 16.2. Loading Dock One (LDO) is facing change due to: a. government regulation. b. a performance gap. c. global economic competition. d. the introduction of new technology.

Answer c Page 631 72. Refer to Table 16.2. Based on what they want, their best target for change would be: a. their organizational structure. b. technology. c. their people. d. administrative systems.

Answer b Page 633 73. Refer to Table 16.2. It seems that the primary fear the employees have is: a. economic insecurity. b. fear of the unknown. c. habit. d. threats to social relationships.

Answer a Page 639 74. Refer to Table 16.2. The initial organizational barrier to change seems to be: a. work group inertia. b. threats to the existing balance of power. c. previously unsuccessful change efforts. d. structural inertia.

Answer d Page 640 75. Refer to Table 16.2. The managers’ issues are examples of: a. the individual barrier, fear of the unknown. b. the organizational barrier, threats to existing balance of power. c. the individual barrier, habit. d. the organizational barrier, structural inertia.

Answer b Page 640

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Chapter 16 Managing Organizational Change: Strategic Planning and Organizational Development

Table 16.3 As an organizational development consultant, you are discussing the various OD techniques the CEO could choose from in bring about change in her company. You suggest that she begin the process with a quick, inexpensive data gathering from the employees. She likes the idea, especially since the technique you recommend allows them to also receive information. Once you have the data you suggest she go for a program that helps her managers work together more effectively. You suggest that an adventure program would be the best choice in that it would let the managers practice the skills they need for doing their jobs in the real world. The CEO says this all sounds good, but wants to know how to improve organizational and individual goal setting and accomplishment. She wants a way to plan and implement strategic change for the organization, not get lost in a number of individual programs. You conclude the meeting by talking about employee job satisfaction and asking what her thoughts are on it. She felt that it is relatively high, and while important, can wait to be addressed until these other issues are dealt with.

76. Refer to Table 16.3. The CEO’s concerns about an overall program would be best met by: a. team building. b. quality of work life. c. survey feedback. d. management by objectives.

Answer d Page 648 77. Refer to Table 16.3. Your initial recommendation is for: a. team building. b. sensitivity training. c. survey feedback. d. management by objectives.

Answer c Page 650 78. Refer to Table 16.3. The type of OD intervention the CEO did not want to consider at this point was: a. team building. b. quality of work life. c. survey feedback. d. management by objectives.

Answer b Page 652 True/False Questions 79. The oldest company in America is J.E. Rhoads & Sons.

Answer T Page 625 80. When a company changes reporting relationships and reshapes work units it is making structural changes.

Answer T Page 628 81. First-order change in an organization is significant change at many different levels in the way a firm operates.

Answer F Page 629 299

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82. While employee demographics and performance gaps in organizations often prompt unplanned change government regulation only affects strategic planned change in organizations.

Answer F Page 630 83. Global competition and technology are two forces driving unplanned change in organizations.

Answer T Pages 631, 633 84. There are a number of assumptions underlying strategic planning including the assumption that strategies are formulated to bring about change when current objectives can not be met by what the company is currently doing.

Answer T Page 634 85. Generally speaking planned organizational change can take place to improve already good processes, when an alternative to change to is not readily apparent, or without a plan, if the change effort has top management support.

Answer F Page 634 86. In the strategic planning process, the next steps after a firm defines its goals are to assess its internal resources and analyze internal arrangements.

Answer F Page 636 87. Considering how to increase market share and profit or how to focus on key markets are all part of the development of competitive strategies within the strategic planning process.

Answer T Page 637 88. A number of strategic values, competition, radical change is good, and consideration of the interests of stockholders are unique to the United States.

Answer T Page 639 89. Individuals resist change for a number of reasons including the threat it poses to their social relationships and just because it disrupts their habits.

Answer T Page 639 90. When a company selects, trains, and rewards employees well for performing certain jobs, the company has built in work group inertia as an organizational barrier to change efforts.

Answer F Page 639 91. In the U.S., strategic decisions tend to be made primarily in the interest of employees Answer F Page 640 92. If management seeks to build a critical mass among employees to support a change effort it is trying to shape the political dynamic in order to reduce resistance to organizational change.

Answer T Page 644

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93. Tim is leading an effort to lower resistance to significant planned change at his company. He is beginning by developing a more open organizational climate, trying to adopt a more informal organizational structure, and build a commitment to the change among employees. Tim's efforts are an example of creating a learning organization as an effort to reduce resistance.

Answer T Page 646 94. It is important in implementing change to create a sense of urgency about the need for change and to continually create discomfort about the status quo.

Answer T Page 648 95. The organizational change intervention that has managers and employee set organizational goals together as an effort to clarify organizational goals is management by objective.

Answer T Page 648 96.

The organizational change intervention that helps employees understand the organization's current strengths and weaknesses is survey feedback.

Answer T Page 650 97. An OD intervention in which teams of participants work off-site to develop and implement new ways of solving organizational problems by focusing on the ineffectiveness of current methods is called appreciative inquiry.

Answer F Page 650 98. Quality of life work programs include efforts at profit-sharing, offering 401(k) plans, and increasing compensation benefit programs in an organization.

Answer F Page 652 99.

Quality circles is an effective team building organizational development intervention for implementing organization-wide change.

Answer F Page 652 100. Generally speaking organizational development change efforts are effective at improving organizational effectiveness, employee morale, etc., across types of organizations and levels of employees.

Answer F Page 653 Essay Questions Major Essay 101. What are the two main sources of resistance to change? Offer specific examples of each source.

Answer - There are two basic sources, individual and organizational. Individual barriers include; fear of the unknown, economic uncertainty, threats to social relationships, habit, failure to recognize the need for change, and demographic background. Organizational barriers include; structural inertia, work group inertia, threats to existing balance of power, previously unsuccessful change efforts, and the composition of the board of directors.

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102. What factors contribute to readiness for change? How do these factors combine?

Answer – According to the text, there are three factors. First, there is the amount of dissatisfaction with the current conditions in the organization itself. Second, there is the availability of a real and desirable alternative. Third, there is the existence of a plan for achieving the desired alternative.

Theorists believe that these three factors combine multiplicatively to determine the benefits for making a change.

Page 642 103. What can be done to overcome resistance to organizational change?

Answer - 1) Shape political dynamics- build critical internal mass for the change by win the support of the most powerful and influential individuals. If key leaders endorse the ideas, others will go along. 2) Educate the work force--helps reduce fears of the unknown future. Tell them what the changes may mean for them, show emotional sensitivity to the communication, address the question-from the employees’ perspective--“what’s in it for me?” 3) Involve employees in the change effort-helps build their commitment to the change. 4) Reward constructive behaviors--this is especially important during any transition period. It may require changes in the reward structure of the company. The rewards can be anything from praise to financial. 5) Create a learning organization and identify the three key elements of a learning organization.

Pages 643-647 104. Explain the basic techniques of organizational development used to implement change.

Suggested answer - The five basic techniques are; management by objectives, survey feedback, sensitivity training, and quality of work life programs. Management by Objectives is a technique for promoting clear organizational goal setting and accomplishment. It is a three-step process, summarized in Figure 16-12, page 603.Survey feedback involves the collection of data via interviews or questionnaires or both, the reporting of the information back to the employees in small groups, analyzing the problems that emerge, and developing action plans. It is quick, relatively inexpensive, and proven. Sensitivity training is a small group, face-to-face interactive experience designed to give individuals insights into themselves. The sessions are open, give-and-take, and facilitator guided. The effectiveness of this technique is not clear. Team building applies the techniques and rationales of sensitivity training to improving team functioning. It is a highly task-oriented process in which interpersonal problems must be dealt with quickly and effectively. It begins with problem recognition, moves to diagnosis of group strengths and weaknesses, development of goals, development of action plans, implementation of the plans, evaluation of the plans, and restarting the process if the outcomes are not adequate. Quality of work life programs are a set of efforts to improve effectiveness by improving satisfaction and personal fulfillment. It is the involvement of employees in decision making. Some programs are; quality circles, work restructuring, job redesign, etc. There tends to be increased job satisfaction, organizational commitment, and reduced turnover.

Pages 647-653 105. What does work at Sears, Royal Dutch Shell, and the United States Army suggest are good ways of making change “stick”?

Answer – Essentially, there are three important practices. First, the organization needs to fully incorporate all employees into the challenges faced by the organization. This means active engagement rather than simply surface level involvement. Second, leaders should stress the urgency of change that gets everyone moving in the right direction. Finally, the organization must create relentless discomfort with the status quo. The create a sense that the job can always be done better.

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Chapter 16 Managing Organizational Change: Strategic Planning and Organizational Development Short Essay 106. You are discussing organizational change with your boss. Explain the three potential targets of change you need to consider.

Answer - The three key potential targets are organizational structure, technology, and people.

Organizational structure involves changing structure in such as way as to respond to the need for change. Changes may take place in span of control, number of employees, hierarchy, etc. Technology refers to using technological improvements to gain productivity and efficiency. People involves changing behavior more than laying off or hiring. How can people be motivated to change the current state?

Pages 628-629 107. List the factors contributing to the benefits of making a change.

Answer - There are three factors to look at in determining an organization’s readiness to change. 1) The amount of dissatisfaction with current conditions. 2) The availability of a desirable alternative. 3) The existence of a plan for achieving that alternative.

Page 642 108. What are the steps in appreciative inquiry?

Answer – In appreciative inquiry, small groups of people from the organization are assembled. In the first step (discovery) the group identifies the positive aspects of the organization. In the second step (dreaming), the group discusses and envisions “what might be.” In the third step (designing), the participants discuss their ideas about “what should be.” Finally, in the last step (delivering) begin instituting a plan of specific objectives and directions of “what will be.”

Pages 650-651 109. Does organizational development really work?

Answer - Students arguments will vary. Given the popularity of OD in organizations, this question is very important, and most of the relevant studies show the effects of these various interventions to be beneficial, mostly in the area of improving organizational functioning. Any conclusions about the effectiveness of OD should be qualified in several important ways. First, OD interventions tend to be more effective among blue-collar employees than among white-collar employees. Second, these beneficial effects can be enhanced by using a combination several techniques (e.g., four or more together) instead of any single one. Finally, the effectiveness also depends on the degree of support these techniques receive from top management: The more these programs are supported from the top, the more successful they tend to be. Despite the importance of evaluating the effectiveness of OD interventions, a great many of them go unevaluated. The effectiveness of OD techniques depend, in part, on the extent to which the values the technique is based on match the underlying values of the national culture in which it is employed. OD shows considerable promise in its ability to benefit organizations and the individuals working within them.

Pages 653-654 110. Is organizational development inherently unethical?

Answer - Students answers will vary but they should consider the issues of imposition of organizational values on the individual, the unequal power relationship between the organization and the employee, and the potential for abuse of power.

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Appendix II

Understanding and Managing Your Career

Appendix II – Understanding and Managing Your Career Multiple Choice Questions

1.

The evolving sequence of work experiences over time is known as a(n): a. job. b. career. c. occupation. d. profession.

Answer b Page 673

2.

A predetermined set of activities one is expected to perform is known as a(n): a. job. b. career. c. occupation. d. profession.

Answer a Page 673

3.

A coherent set of jobs is known as a(n): a. job. b. career. c. occupation. d. profession.

Answer c Page 673

4. Fred’s career choice has been to a single job. This is an example of a: a. steady state career. b. linear career. c. spiral career. d. transitory career.

Answer a

Page

674

5. Dana has focused on a certain field and worked her way up the organizational ladder. This is an example of a: a. steady state career. b. linear career. c. spiral career. d. transitory career.

Answer b Page 674

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6. Ben has moved a series of occupations, each of which requires new skills and builds on existing knowledge and skills. This is an example of a: a. steady state career. b. linear career. c. spiral career. d. transitory career.

Answer c Page 676

7. Beth’s career has been marked by many different and unrelated positions. This is an example of a: a. steady state career. b. linear career. c. spiral career. d. transitory career.

Answer d

Page

676

8.

Holland’s theory of vocational choice says that people will perform best at occupations that match their: a. financial needs. b. intellectual needs. c. traits and personalities. d. cultural needs.

Answer c Page 677

9.

In Holland’s types, a practical personality is said to be a(n) ________ type. a. realistic b. investigative c. social d. conventional Answer a Page 678

10. According to the Holland’s type, individuals who are practical, shy, and materialistic are best suited to which of the following: a. nurse. b. manager. c. accountant. d. auto mechanic.

Answer d Page 678

11. In Holland’s types, an analytic personality is said to be a(n) ________type. a. realistic b. investigative c. social d. conventional Answer b

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Understanding and Managing Your Career

12. In Holland’s types, a sociable personality is said to be a(n) ________type. a. realistic b. investigative c. social d. conventional Answer b

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13. From Holland’s perspective, individuals who sociable and outgoing are best suited to which of the following: a. nurse. b. manager. c. accountant. d. auto mechanic.

Answer a Page 678

14. From Holland’s perspective, individuals who confident, energetic, and assertive are best suited to which of the following: a. nurse. b. manager. c. accountant. d. auto mechanic.

Answer b Page 678

15. According to the Holland’s type, individuals who are dependable, disciplined and orderly are best suited to which of the following: a. nurse. b. manager. c. accountant. d. auto mechanic.

Answer c Page 678

16. In Holland’s types, a disciplined personality is said to be a(n) ________ type. a. realistic b. investigative c. social d. conventional Answer d

Page

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17. Which of the following major career anchors is characterized by a concentration on jobs focusing on specific content areas? a. technical or functional b. security and stability c. managerial competence d. autonomy and independence Answer a Page 680

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18. Aaron is interested in a military career. Which of the following major career anchors is best describes such a career choice? a. creativity b. security and stability c. technical or functional d. autonomy and independence Answer b Page 680

19. Rick’s primary interest in starting new companies. Which of the following major career anchors is best describes such a career choice? a. creativity b. security and stability c. technical or functional d. autonomy and independence Answer a Page 680

20. Which of the following major career anchors is characterized by a focus on jobs that allow for analyzing business problems and dealing with people? a. technical or functional b. security and stability c. managerial competence d. autonomy and independence Answer c Page 680

21. Allison is a novelist. Which of the following career anchors best characterizes her? a. technical or functional b. security and stability c. managerial competence d. autonomy and independence Answer d

Page

680

22. The Career Orientation Inventory is regularly used by: a. vocational counselors b. managers c. salespersons d. entrepreneurs Answer a

Page

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23. Which of the following jobs show the greatest decrease by 2014? a. meter readers b. home care aides c. teachers d. medical assistants Answer a Page 680

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24. Which of the following jobs show the greatest growth by 2014? a. meter readers b. credit checkers c. mail clerks d. medical assistants Answer d Page 680

25. Most of the growth in jobs is expected to come in areas related to: a. textiles. b. credit. c. teaching. d. patient and doctor assistance.

Answer d

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26. A person whose career has peaked and is unlikely to develop further is said to have a: a. career plateau. b. person-job fit. c. succession plan. d. mentor.

Answer a

Page

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27. Employees who have been in a particular post for ________ or more years are considered to have reached a career plateau. a. two b. five c. eight d. ten Answer b Page 682

28. Those systematic efforts that are designed to both help manage people’s careers and the organization is known as: a. outplacement programs. b. career development programs. c. succession planning. d. mentoring.

Answer b Page 682

29. The systematic attempt to identify possible holders of particular positions ahead of time as preparation for his or her departure: a. outplacement programs. b. career development programs. c. succession planning. d. mentoring.

Answer c Page 682

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30. Most new MBA graduates expect to stay at their first jobs for no more than ________ years. a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years Answer d

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31. About ________ of all U.S. workers say that they would make major career changes if they could. a. one-tenth b. one-quarter c. one half d. two-thirds Answer d

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32. Of those who have made career changes in recent years, a little more than ________ percent did so voluntarily. a. 10 b. 30 c. 50 d. 70 Answer c Page

683

33. Retirement can be a form of: a. turnover b. absenteeism c. withdrawal d. career plateau Answer c

Page

685

34. Joe is a senior manager who advises and counsels the development of a new manager. This is an example: a. outplacement programs. b. career development programs. c. succession planning. d. mentoring.

Answer d Page 686

35. Frank is a new employee who is being advised and counseled by a senior employee, George. Frank is a:

a. b. c. d.

protege. manager. counselor. mentor.

Answer a Page .

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Understanding and Managing Your Career

True/False Questions

36. The evolving sequence of work experiences over time is known as a career.

Answer T

Page

673

37. A predetermined set of activities one is expected to perform is known as a job.

Answer T

Page

673

38. A steady state career is characterized by a lifelong commitment to a single job.

Answer T

Page

674

39. A linear career is characterized by straight progression through a series of unrelated positions.

Answer F

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674

40. A transitory career is marked by many different and unrelated positions.

Answer T

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676

41. According to the Holland’s type, individuals who are practical, shy, and materialistic are best suited to jobs as auto mechanic.

Answer T Page 678

42. In Holland’s types, a practical personality is said to be a social type.

Answer F

Page

678

43. A person whose career has peaked and is unlikely to develop further is said to have a career plateau.

Answer T

Page

682

44. Most new MBA graduates expect to stay at their first jobs for no more than four years.

Answer T

Page

683

45. A new employee who is being advised and counseled by a senior employee is a protege.

Answer T

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686

Essay Questions

46. Distinguish among a career, an occupation, and a job.

Answer-A career is an evolving sequence of work experiences over time. An occupation is a coherent set of jobs. A job is predetermined set of activities one is expected to perform.

Page 673

47. Distinguish among steady-state, linear, spiral, and transitory careers.

Answer- A steady-state career is one where the person makes a lifetime commitment to a single job.

A linear career is one in which the person stays within a particular field and works her way up the occupational ladder. A spiral career in one in which the person goes through a series of occupations, each of which requires new skills and that builds upon existing knowledge and skills. A transitory career is one in which the person moves between many different unrelated positions.

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48. Discuss the five major career anchors.

Answer- The five major career anchors are: (1) technical or functional in which concentration is on jobs focusing on specific content areas, (2) managerial competence in which the focus is on jobs that allow for analyzing business problems and dealing with people, (3) security and stability in which the attraction is to jobs that are likely to continue into the future, (4) creativity or entrepreneurship in which the primary interest in starting new companies, and (5) autonomy and independence in which the attraction is to jobs that allow for freedom from constraints.

Pages 679-680

49. Identify the steps in career development interventions.

Answer- Step 1: Assess skills, interests and values. Step 2: Explore options consistent with those skills, interests, and values. Step 3: Select a new occupation consistent with one or more of those options. Step 4: Develop a plan for pursuing that occupation. Step 5: Periodically assess the plan’s effectiveness. Step 6: Revise the plan as needed., ultimately leading to the new occupation.

Pages 682-683

50. What are the three major reasons that people make career changes?.

Answer – (1) they either don’t like or can’t succeed, at their chosen profession, (2) prospects are poor for the future employment in their present occupation, and 3) their needs or interests have shifted, require a life change.

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Appendix Appendix 1 - Learning about Behavior in Organizations: Theory and Research Multiple Choice Questions 1.

________ is a set of statements about the interrelationships between concepts that allow prediction and explanation of various processes and events. a. A hypothesis b. Social science c. An applied science d. A theory Answer d Page 662 2.

Pay is the primary motivator of behavior in an organization. This is an example of a/an: a. prediction. b. theory. c. hypothesis. d. correlation.

Answer b Page 662 3.

________ is a logically derived statement that follows from a theory. a. A hypothesis b. A correlation c. An assumption d. A theory Answer a Page 662 4.

A theory in organizational behavior serves a variety of purposes including: a. prediction, control, and explaining why. b. organizing, summarizing, and guiding. c. applying, exploring, and directing research. d. controlling and hypothesizing.

Answer b Page 663 5.

A hypothesis: a. is predictive in nature. b. explains causality. c. must be testable. d. is a statement of interrelationships.

Answer c Page 663 6.

Which one of the following approaches to OB research is considered the most widely used? a. Participant observation. b. The case method. c. The experimental method. d. Survey, or correlation research.

Answer d Page 664

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Appendix 1 Learning about Behavior in Organizations: Theory and Research 7.

The first step of survey or correlation research is to: a. identify the variables. b. measure the variables as precisely as possible. c. correlate the variables. d. none of the above is a step in correlation research.

Answer a Page 664 8.

Once data has been collected in correlation research, the researcher must next: a. create a hypothesis. b. analyze the data and compare it to the hypothesis. c. manipulate the independent variables. d. create a theory.

Answer b Page 664 9.

________ is the investigation into the interrelationship of variables, how changes in one variable affect other variables. a. Experimental research b. A hypothesis c. Correlation research d. Observational research Answer c Page 664 10. You have a negative correlation if: a. an increase in one variable directly causes a decrease in another variable. b. an increase in one variable is associated with an increase in another variable. c. an increase in one variable is associated with a decrease in another variable. d. more of one variable is associated with more of another variable.

Answer c Page 666 11. A correlation coefficient can range from: a. 0 to +1.0. b. -1.0 to 0. c. 0 to -0. d. -1.0 to +1.0.

Answer d Page 666 12. Which one of the following correlation coefficients reflects the strongest relationship between two variables? a. -.71. b. -.07. c. .07. d. .65.

Answer a Page 666

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Appendix 13. A correlation of 0 among variables: a. makes it impossible to make predictions about behavior. b. demonstrates a high positive correlation among variables. c. is a strong negative correlation, the variables are not related. d. demonstrates the hypothesis being tested is valid.

Answer a Page 667 14. If a researcher wanted to examine the interrelationships of several variables at the same time, he/she would conduct a/an: a. positive correlation analysis. b. an experiment with multiple dependent variables. c. multiple regression analysis. d. case study.

Answer c Page 667 15. Which of the following is true about correlations? a. A correlation of .25 indicates a stronger relationship than a correlation of -.25. b. A correlation of 1.00 indicates that no relationship exists. c. Correlations can only be computed between independent variables. d. Correlations do not reveal anything about causation.

Answer d Page 667 16. If an OB specialist wanted to discover why a reward system wasn't motivating employees, his/her best choice of research method would be: a. survey research. b. experimental research. c. survey research. d. observational research.

Answer b Page 667 17. An independent variable: a. is that variable which is systematically manipulated by the experimenter. b. is that variable which is measured by the experimenter. c. has no effect on the experiment, hence it is independent. d. is dreaded by researchers because it means they selected the wrong variable to manipulate.

Answer a Page 670 18. An experimenter designs a study to test the impact of pay on worker performance. The independent variable is: a. worker performance. b. the work environment. c. pay. d. none of the these.

Answer c Page 670

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Appendix 1 Learning about Behavior in Organizations: Theory and Research 19. An experimenter designs a study to test the impact of pay on worker performance. The dependent variable that is measured is the: a. worker performance. b. the work environment. c. pay. d. none of the these.

Answer a Page 670 20. To test a specific theory, an OB researcher tests specific ________ by manipulating ________ and then measuring ________. a. subjects; a variable; the resulting behavior b. hypothesis; an independent variable; a dependent variable c. variables; a hypothesis; the correlation d. theories; the dependent variable; an independent variable Answer b Page 670 21. Francisco conducts studies on motivation in which he manipulates variables in a laboratory and assesses the amount of change as a result of particular techniques. What Francisco learns about motivation is from ________ research known as________: a. qualitative, participant observation. b. qualitative, the case method. c. quantitative, survey research. d. quantitative, the experimental method.

Answer d Page 670 22. Research conducted in a specially created setting in order to maximize control of dependent variables is called: a. field research. b. observational research. c. case study research. d. laboratory research.

Answer d Page 670 23. The most important advantage of laboratory experimentation over field studies is that lab experiments give the researcher: a. more control. b. more realism. c. application opportunities. d. all of these benefits.

Answer a Page 670 24. Laboratory experimentation suffers from the disadvantage of: a. being more expensive due to the high control efforts. b. making random subject selection more difficult. c. being more difficult to generalize to the workplace. d. all of the these weaknesses.

Answer c Page 670

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Appendix 25. In light of the strengths and weaknesses of both field and laboratory experimental research, your authors believe: a. the benefit of higher control in laboratory research offsets the problem of its lack of realism. b. the benefit of realism in field research more than offsets the weakness of a lack of control. c. the disadvantages of both types of experimentation make it a poor choice for validating hypotheses. d. both types of research should be conducted when addressing a hypothesis.

Answer d Page 671 26. The purpose(s) of the qualitative approach in organizational behavior is: a. to maximize the randomness of subject selection. b. to maximize experimenter control. c. to preserve the natural qualities of the situation being studied. d. provide the maximum opportunity to generalize the results to other situations.

Answer c Page 671 27. ________ is an example of qualitative research. a. Naturalistic or participant observation b. Survey research c. Experimentation d. Correlation research Answer a Page 671 28. George is a researcher who posed as an employee on the shop floor of a manufacturing facility so that he could learn more about what motivates employees. George appears to be using a form of ________ research known as________: a. qualitative, participant observation. b. qualitative, the case method. c. quantitative, survey research. d. quantitative, the experimental method.

Answer a Page 672 29. Suppose an OB scientist wants to know how supervisors react when their subordinates show up late for work. To find out, the scientist takes a job in a company and carefully watches and takes notes on the topic in question. This scientist appears to be using: a. participant observation. b. the case method. c. survey research. d. the experimental method.

Answer a Page 672

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Appendix 1 Learning about Behavior in Organizations: Theory and Research 30. Suppose an OB scientist wants to learn how the employees of a certain company responded to a massive downsizing plan that was recently implemented. To find out, he or she conducts careful interviews with many of the different people involved, and then summarizes the results in a narrative account describing all the details. This scientist appears to be using: a. participant observation. b. the case method. c. survey research. d. the experimental method.

Answer b Page 672 31. Paul is a researcher who uses post hoc accounts of events from those involved as opposed to firsthand observations. Paul appears to be using a form of ________ research known as ________: a. qualitative, participant observation. b. qualitative, the case method. c. quantitative, survey research. d. quantitative, the experimental method.

Answer b Page 672 Mini-Case Questions Table A.1 Simon is initiating an organizational behavior effort at his company. He wants to look at how people communicate with each other and coordinate their work efforts. His boss, Bill, is skeptical, “We conducted a study of this kind ten years ago. I’m not sure we need to do it again at this time.” Simon believes that the company’s current poor performance is a function of the unrealistic goals managers set.

Simon wants to examine the relationship between unrealistic goals and employee performance. He write out the following statement, "When goals are set by managers at a level that an employee believes can not be reached then the employee gives up rather than trying to reach the goal." If he proves the correlation then Simon wants to then find out why unrealistic goals result in poor performance.

32. Refer to Table A.1. Simon’s belief about the company's poor performance constitutes a: a. hypothesis. b. prediction. c. theory. d. correlation.

Answer c Page 662 33. Refer to Table A.1. Simon's written statement is a/an: a. hypothesis. b. experimental design statement. c. theory. d. correlation.

Answer a Page 662

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Appendix 34. Refer to Table A.1. The best form of OB research for Simon's initial question as to the relationship between goals and effort would be: a. an experiment. b. observational research. c. case study. d. correlation research.

Answer d Page 666 35. Refer to Table A.1. The second part of Simon's question, "why," would be best addressed by: a. an experiment. b. observational research. c. case study. d. correlation research.

Answer a Page 667 True/False Questions 36. Research shows that the greater the employee satisfaction the higher employee productivity and quality.

Answer F Page 661 37. Theories provide the ability to predict and control human behavior.

Answer F Page 662 38. A hypothesis is a set of statements that are logically derived from a theory and permit the testing of the theory.

Answer T Page 662 39. Surveys are inexpensive tools for gathering information but are only suitable for studying a narrow range of issues and are therefore limited in their usefulness.

Answer F Page 664 40. When conducting an experiment you discover that the more interested students are in grades and getting a good job upon graduation the less interested they are in dating while in college. Your research has a positive correlation.

Answer F Page 666 41. If a researcher wanted to look at several variables at one time and determine their affect on human behavior and how changing one or another changed behavior, he/she would use regression analysis to analyze the data.

Answer T Page 667 42. You want to know if offering dinner with a movie will increase the number of members of the opposite gender accepting your request for a date. So you stop 20 individuals in the student union asking 10 if they'd go out with you for dinner and a movie and 10 individuals only if they'd like to go to a movie. Besides obviously having no social life, you are conducting an experiment.

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Appendix 1 Learning about Behavior in Organizations: Theory and Research 43. In the experimental method, the factor systematically varied by the researcher is termed the independent variable, while the aspect of organizational behavior measured is termed the dependent variable.

Answer T Page 669 44. One drawback of the experimental method is the ability to only study one dependent variable at a time.

Answer F Page 669 45. Field experiments are strong in duplicating real situations but much weaker in control variables than laboratory experiments.

Answer T Page 670 46. Case study method and naturalistic observation are two types of qualitative research methods.

Answer T Page 671 47. A drawback of case study method is the possibility that what is learned can not be generalized to other situations.

Answer T Page 672 Short Essays 48. What are the four major OB tools for conducting research, name and briefly describe each?

Answer - Some argue that it is all just common sense. But there are several key tools. The first is theory, which is the guide to organizational research. Theory is a set of statements about the interrelationships among concepts that allow us to predict and explain various processes and events.

Prediction and control are essential to establishing a theory. Theories need two things: concepts-goals and motives, and assertions--how those concepts relate. The second tool is survey research.

Surveys are the most popular OB research technique. Surveys are questionnaires that help OB researchers gather information. It is empirical research on how variables studied through survey research interrelate or correlate. Third, experimental research reveals causality. Experimental method requires which conditions or variables are chosen to be changed to determine their effect on behavior.

The element that the experimenter deliberately manipulates is the independent variable. The experimental method is built on two ideas; a variable of interest is systematically changed and the effects of those changes are measured. And finally, is qualitative research by the naturalistic observation . Along with quantitative research, there is qualitative research--nonempirical, descriptive techniques based on observation. Naturalistic observation is simply watching people in their working environment. Observe behavior before and after an event, announcement, etc., to note differences.

Pages 662-672 49. What is the value of a “theory” to organizational behavior?

Answer - A theory is a set of statements about the interrelationships among concepts that allow us to predict and explain various processes and events. Prediction and control are essential to establishing a theory. Theories need two things: concepts--goals and motives, and assertions--how those concepts relate. Hypotheses are logically derived statements that follow the theory. The process of developing a theory, corresponding hypotheses, and refining and verifying them is very laborious. Yet theories serve three important functions; they provide a way of organizing information, they help us summarize knowledge in a way that makes sense, and they show where we need to do more research.

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Appendix 50. Why would an OB researcher choose to use experimental research over survey research? What are the advantages and disadvantages of each?

Answer - In survey research researchers use surveys/questionnaires to help gather information. They identify variables of interest, seek to measure variables as precisely as possible, and then try to determine how variables are related to each other. Unfortunately the correlations found do not reveal anything about causation. While we can determine positive and negative correlations, we do not know the cause-effect relationship between them. See Figure A-2, page 46 and Figure A-3, page 48.

Experimental research reveals causality. But experimental method requires which conditions or variables are chosen to be changed to determine their effect on behavior. The element that the experimenter deliberately manipulates is the independent variable. The influence of the manipulation is measured on the dependent variable to see how it is influenced by the independent variable. The experimental method is built on two ideas; a variable of interest is systematically changed and the effects of those changes are measured. But for the results to be valid, other factors must be held constant--that is unchanged--so that they don’t influence the outcome. Hence, there is a preference for laboratory experiments over field experiments, because things are easier to control. As a consequence, field studies are realistic but may be weak in the area of control. See Figure AI.5, page.

Pages 664-671 51. Explain the difference between a dependent and an independent variable.

Answer –A dependent variable is the variable (or behavior) of interest that is being measured. The independent variable is that variable which is systematically manipulated by the experimenter in order to determine it effect on the dependent variable.

Page 669 52. Explain the two types of qualitative research. Describe each, note their advantages and disadvantages, and explain why a researcher would choose one over the other.

Answer - The two types of qualitative research are naturalistic observation and the case method.

Naturalistic observation is simply watching people in their working environment. Observe behavior before and after an event, announcement, etc., to note differences. A second type of observation is participant observation which involves joining the observed group and working as an insider.

Advantages of observational research are: it doesn’t disturb the working routine, almost anyone can be trained to use it. But observational research has some drawbacks as well. It is subjective.

Involvement in the organization makes impartiality difficult. Most of what’s observed is routine, it is too easy to over emphasize the unique or unusual happening. Case method involves writing detailed accounts of events in an actual organization. Done in order to draw learnings that can be applied to other organizations and circumstances. It is built from careful interviewing and data collection over some time. But its limitations are several. It may only get a partial picture. It may be difficult or impossible to generalize to another organization. There is a high potential for bias.

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