Behavior in Organizations, 10e Jerald Greenberg Test Bank

Behavior in Organizations, 10e By Jerald Greenberg

Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 1 The Field of Organizational Behavior 1) The field of organizational behavior is most firmly rooted in: A) science.

B) biology.

C) political science.

D) philosophy.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 2) ________ is a structured social system consisting of groups and individuals working together to meet some agreed-upon objective.

A) An open system B) An organization C) A work team D) Scientific management Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 3) Organizational behavior: A) is a social science that examines people's behavior in society, like physics or sociology.

B) studies how organizations compete and applies that knowledge to improve the organization's quality.

C) is an intuitive, qualitative approach to the understanding of group behavior both on and off the job.

D) is a discipline based in science that studies human behavior in organizations.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 4) According to its definition, organizational behavior: A) is firmly grounded in the scientific method.

B) focuses on the organization as a whole, and not the individual.

C) considers the group-oriented approach of sociology, rather than the individual-oriented approach of psychology.

D) All of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 5) All of the following are characteristics of the field of organizational behavior except: A) a basis for enhancing individual well-being.

B) a study of individuals, groups, and organizations.

C) a commitment to the scientific method.

D) a focus on qualitative, observational research.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3 1 .

6) When an OB specialist is looking at how an organization is structured and its operating environment and the effect these have on employee communication and coordination, he/she is conducting research at the ________ level of OB. A) organizational B) group C) individual D) None of these; this is not OB research.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4 7) John is looking at employee perceptions, attitudes, and motives in order to improve worker productivity. John is conducting OB research at which level?

A) Organizational B) Group C) Individual D) None of these; this is not OB research.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 8) The social science that relates to the OB topics of organizational culture and leadership is: A) anthropology.

B) sociology.

C) psychology.

D) political science.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5 9) The social science that contributed to organizational behavior the tools and perspective to examine conflict and power within an organization is: A) political science.

B) psychology.

C) sociology.

D) management science.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5 10) The management theory that views workers as self-motivating, interested in their work, having a need to achieve and be recognized, etc., is: A) Theory X. B) Theory Y. C) classical management theory.

D) scientific management theory.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6

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11) A Theory Y supervisor would feel that: A) people work best when left alone.

B) different people should be managed in different ways based on the situation.

C) the only way to get people to work hard is to push them.

D) people motivate themselves, all you need to do is give them some direction.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 12) In a recent survey of a wide range of professionals, which of the following was NOT found to be related to job performance?

A) Management B) Organization C) Information technology D) Supervisory mistreatment Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 13) ________ is self-sustaining through the conversion of external resources into organizational outputs.

A) An open system B) Organizational behavior research C) An organization D) Contingency management Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 14) The open systems model of OB assumes that ________.

A) organizations exist in a vacuum B) organizations are contingent C) organizations are self-sustaining D) organizations operate in discrete intervals Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8 15) Which one of the following statements would be most likely made by a supervisor who endorses a contingency approach to management?

A) "People work best when left alone."

B) "I treat different people in different ways based on the situation we're facing."

C) "The only way to get people to work hard is to push them."

D) "Focus on organizations and people will take care of themselves."

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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16) The perspective suggesting that organizational behavior is affected by a large number of interacting individual, situational, and organizational factors is: A) the contingency approach to OB. B) classical management theory.

C) Theory X and Theory Y. D) an organizational change perspective.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8 17) The contingency perspective is useful because it respects that: A) organizations may be rigid.

B) the scientific method may be limited.

C) different situations produce different answers.

D) few managers address personal characteristics.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 18) Time-and-motion studies: A) look at visual perception and performance.

B) try to find the best way to perform jobs by streamlining individual movements.

C) try to find ways to humanize the jobs of people.

D) focus on improving work group coordination.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9 19) Which of the following strategies would Frederick Taylor recommend to improve productivity?

A) Paying workers a salary or hourly wage.

B) Improving worker job satisfaction.

C) Implementing a program of careful selection and training of all employees.

D) Expanding job responsibilities for each worker.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 20) In one set of experiments in the Hawthorne studies, researchers were puzzled when they found that ________ for subjects in the test room relative to subjects in a control room.

A) productivity improved when physical conditions were improved B) productivity improved when physical conditions were made worse C) productivity was lowest when illumination was the greatest D) productivity improved regardless of whether brightness increased or decreased Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 - 10

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21) The Hawthorne studies: A) stressed efficiency and monetary rewards for workers.

B) focused on the noneconomic and social factors that influence behavior in organizational settings.

C) permitted the proper assignment of management responsibilities based on 14 key principles.

D) led to the effective restructuring of large organizations into bureaucracies.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9 - 10 22) The Hawthorne studies were an example of OB research at the ________ level.

A) individual B) group C) organizational D) managerial Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 - 10 23) The value of the Hawthorne studies to OB lay in their discovery that: A) physical working condition had no impact on worker productivity.

B) employee productivity and job satisfaction were directly related to the supervision they received.

C) human needs, attitudes, motives, and relationships were important to worker performance.

D) there is a most effective way to organize every work team, although it will vary among teams.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 24) Fayol's principles of classical organizational theory include: A) a concern for human motives like Mayo's Hawthorne studies.

B) a focus on maximum efficiency through the selection and training of employees.

C) the empowerment of employees through the elimination of the chain-of-command and increased participation.

D) a division of labor, permitting people to specialize in those jobs they do best.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11 25) Employees performing very specialized jobs, whether they are blue collar workers or managers, are an example of which principle of organizational theory?

A) Unity of command B) Scalar chain C) Division of labor D) Employee initiative Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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26) Max Weber's contribution to organizational behavior lay in his search for: A) the best way to identify and consider employee motivation and attitude.

B) the ideal way to perform a job.

C) the most efficient way to structure an organization.

D) the key characteristics of effective executive leadership.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11 27) An organization in which there are a lot of formal rules, people are treated in an impersonal manner, jobs are carefully divided into specialized tasks, and employees must check with their supervisors before making decisions, exemplifies: A) scientific management theory.

B) the application of a human relations approach.

C) contingency management theory.

D) an ideal bureaucracy.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11 28) Written guidelines that are used to control all employee behaviors refer to what characteristic of an ideal bureaucracy?

A) Impersonal treatment B) Formal rules and regulations C) Authority structure D) Rationality Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11 29) The pursuit of efficiency refers to what characteristic of an ideal bureaucracy?

A) Impersonal treatment B) Formal rules and regulations C) Authority structure D) Rationality Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11 30) Higher-ranking people having authority over those in lower-ranking positions refers to what characteristic of an ideal bureaucracy?

A) Impersonal treatment B) Formal rules and regulations C) Authority structure D) Hierarchical structure Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11

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31) The Gordon and Howell report on business education in 1959: A) recommended that the study of management pay greater attention to the social sciences.

B) refuted the findings of the Hawthorne Study.

C) supported the bureaucratic organizational structure as the best organizational form.

D) stressed the ethical implications of business.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12 32) Organizational behavior draws from a variety of social sciences including: A) anthropology.

B) sociology.

C) political science.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 & 12 33) People who are citizens of one country but who are living and working in another country are called: A) multinationals.

B) repatriates.

C) expatriates.

D) depatriates.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 34) Jane and Bill are discussing the values, beliefs, and customs they observed on their business trip to Europe. What Jane and Bill are discussing is: A) expatriation.

B) culture shock.

C) a subculture.

D) culture.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 35) Chuck recently returned to the U.S. from a six-month job assignment in Taiwan. His feelings of disorientation would best be described as: A) expatriation.

B) repatriation.

C) parochialism.

D) ethnocentrism.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

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36) When a person adjusts to a foreign culture he/she tends to: A) experience frustration and confusion after being in the culture for a few months.

B) immediately experience frustration and confusion.

C) pass from understanding to frustration and confusion after about six months in a culture.

D) begin to experience optimism and excitement about the new culture only after a few months in that culture.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 37) Culture shock tends to result from an individual's tendency: A) to be overly optimistic about their international experience.

B) to be parochial or ethnocentric in their worldview.

C) to depend on a contingency management approach in other countries.

D) All of these experiences.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 38) The narrow belief that there is one best way of doing things can be referred to as A) patriotism.

B) divergence.

C) ethnocentrism.

D) parochialism.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 39) When an American believes that everyone in the world should speak English, he/she is being A) parochial.

B) ethnocentric.

C) convergent.

D) divergent.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 40) Exposure to other cultures helps people to become A) less parochial and more ethnocentric.

B) more parochial and less ethnocentric.

C) less parochial and less ethnocentric.

D) more parochial and more ethnocentric.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

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41) The basic assumptions that management practices are universal and that U.S. management practices are the best is known as the: A) multicultural hypothesis.

B) divergent hypothesis.

C) convergence hypothesis.

D) culture shock syndrome.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 42) Under the ________, the assumption about effectively managing people is that it requires the appreciation of the cultural context in which they operate.

A) multicultural hypothesis B) divergence hypothesis C) convergence hypothesis D) diversity efficacy Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 43) Approximately ________ of women are employed outside the home.

A) 20% B) 35% C) 50% D) 75% Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 44) The percentage of ________ as a proportion of the total labor force is shrinking.

A) Asians B) Hispanics C) white non-Hispanics D) African Americans Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 45) Companies are taking positive steps to help employees with personal needs and family obligations because doing so: A) helps them retain employees.

B) attracts the best-qualified candidates for jobs.

C) permits employees to focus on the job and achieve higher performance.

D) results in all of these outcomes.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 - 18 9 .

46) By 2050, at the current population growth, the number of people who consider themselves to be multiracial is expected to: A) increase twofold.

B) double.

C) triple.

D) quadruple.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 47) The fastest growing segment of the U.S. population is: A) baby boomers.

B) minorities.

C) young people under 25.

D) people over 85.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 48) In 2009, the overall percentage of men and women in the work force was reported to be: A) equal.

B) divergent.

C) growing.

D) stationary.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 49) The process of using information technology to change a physical task into one manipulating data or digital commands is called: A) outsourcing.

B) rightsizing.

C) automation.

D) informating.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 20 50) Organizations have been reducing the number of employees needed to operate. This is known as: A) compression.

B) downsizing.

C) outsourcing.

D) core competency.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 20

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51) Hiring outside firms to perform non-core functions is known as: A) compression.

B) downsizing.

C) outsourcing.

D) core competency.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 20 52) The use of outsourcing allows the firm to focus on: A) business continuity plans.

B) downsizing.

C) telecommuting.

D) core competency.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 20 53) The trend in outsourcing has led to the development of highly flexible, temporary organizations formed for a specific opportunity, each contributing a specific expertise. This is a ________ organization.

A) contingency B) telecommuting C) reengineered D) virtual Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 21 54) More and more companies are allowing employees to spend part of their regular working hours performing their jobs at home. This is called: A) job sharing.

B) compressed work weeks.

C) voluntarily reduced work time programs.

D) telecommuting.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 21 55) Telecommuting works best with jobs that: A) involve a lot of driving.

B) are manufacturing based.

C) are customer-service oriented.

D) are easily portable.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 23

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56) A mutual commitment between employer and employees to do things to help one another achieve each other's goals and aspirations is known as: A) engagement.

B) core competency.

C) i-deals.

D) corporate restructuring.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24 57) All of the following are key drivers of engagement except: A) involving employees in decisions.

B) giving employees opportunities to express ideas.

C) establishing rules that will constitute the "gameplan."

D) showing concern for individual employee's well-being.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24 58) The practice of working fewer days each week, but longer hours each day is called: A) i-deal.

B) engagement.

C) the compressed work week.

D) flextime.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 59) The manager of human resources wants a program that will permit single parents who want to work, but can't work a regular 8-hour-a-day job, to work for his company. The best program to solve his problem would be: A) flextime.

B) telecommuting.

C) compressed work weeks.

D) voluntarily reduced work time programs.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 27 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 60) The term contingent workforce can be used to describe: A) part-time employees.

B) freelancers.

C) on-call workers.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 27

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61) The need to draw on the services of temporary employment firms is necessitated by: A) compressed workweeks.

B) core competency.

C) i-deals.

D) corporate restructuring.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 27 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 62) When a company allows its employees to work fewer but longer days, it is using: A) a flextime program.

B) job sharing.

C) compressed work weeks.

D) voluntarily reduced work time programs.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 63) Currently, the highest number of contingency workers fall into the job category: A) professional specialty.

B) clerical.

C) services.

D) operators, fabricators, laborers.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 64) A flexwork program that permits regular part-time work where the duties for one job are divided between two people is called: A) a flextime program.

B) job sharing.

C) compressed work weeks.

D) voluntarily reduced work time programs.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 29 65) Programs that allow employees to reduce the amount of time they work by a certain amount with a proportional reduction in pay are known as: A) V-time programs.

B) U-time programs.

C) compressed workweeks.

D) flextime programs.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 29

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66) A uniquely customized agreement negotiated between an employer and an employee with respect to the employment terms that benefit each party is known as: A) benchmarking.

B) an informating program.

C) an idiosyncratic work arrangement.

D) reengineering.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 28 67) If Bill negotiates his salary and fringe benefits prior to beginning a job, Bill is: A) making an ex ante i-deal.

B) making an ex post i-deal.

C) benchmarking.

D) doing none of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 1.1 Simon is initiating an organizational behavior effort at his company.He wants to look at how people communicate with each other and coordinate their work efforts. His boss, Bill, is skeptical, "We conducted a study of this kind ten years ago. I'm not sure we need to do it again at this time." Simon convinces his boss they need to press ahead anyway. As Bill and Simon discuss the OB effort, Simon learns several things about his boss. Bill believes that the key thing for a business is to fit the right person to the right job. He agrees with Simon's interest in careful selection and training of current and future employees.But, Bill believes that there is only one right way to run a company and do a job. Simon thinks that the company should create clearer lines of authority by eliminating their matrix organizational structure, they should encourage employees to formulate and implement plans, and they should increase specialization among employees and managers. As Bill and Simon discuss the company's problems and ways to improve performance, they mutually come to the conclusion that company's current poor performance is probably a function of the fact that they are setting the same goals and expectations for everyone and not considering individual strengths and weaknesses or taking the different work circumstances into consideration.

68) Refer to Table 1.1. Simon's initial analysis will probably be focused on what level?

A) Individual B) Group C) Organizational D) Macroenvironment Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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69) Refer to Table 1.1. What characteristic of organizational behavior is the "boss" apparently not aware of?

A) OB's tie to the improvement of people's quality of work life.

B) The contingency orientation of OB. C) OB's recognition of the dynamic nature of organizations.

D) OB's confrontation of the changing nature of work.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 7 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 70) Refer to Table 1.1. Simon's and Bill's agreement on the problem makes ________ the best management approach to take in solving the problem.

A) classical management theory approach B) a scientific management theory approach C) a bureaucratic approach D) a contingency approach Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 71) Refer to Table 1.1. Bill's management philosophy would seem to be most compatible with a ________ view of people and business.

A) scientific management B) human relations C) classical organizational theory D) modern era Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 9 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 72) Refer to Table 1.1. Simon's management philosophy would be most compatible with: A) scientific management theory.

B) the human relations movement.

C) classical organizational theory.

D) a modern era OB perspective.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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Table 1.2 Mini-Markets, Inc. specializes in providing grocery and convenience products to inner-city neighborhoods. They are highly committed to valuing cultural diversity. Their workforce consists of single parents, people who are ethnically diverse, and people who are undereducated.

The following individuals exemplify their workforce. Jim is a single parent with two young, school-aged children. He lives about an hour from work and works the morning shift. Jane is just starting her working career, having been out of college only a year. She has just had a baby. Her husband also works full-time for Mini-Markets. They have been saving her salary and living on her husband's while waiting for the baby to be born. Wilma is 66 and wants to retire in a few years but isn't sure what she'll do with herself when she does. Plus, she'd like to have some extra time right now to spend with her grandchildren. Tim is a high school drop-out who struggled with drugs. Since Mini-Markets gave him a chance, he's really turning his life around. He's one of his store's most reliable and productive employees. Tim would like to move into management, but he needs a college degree. Married with a small child, he can't afford to go back to school.

73) Refer to Table 1.2. Wilma could benefit most from which flextime program?

A) Flextime B) Voluntary reduce work time C) Compressed work week D) Job-sharing Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 29 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 74) Refer to Table 1.2. What flexible work programs would be of most help to Jim? A) Flextime B) Personal support policies C) Compressed work week D) Job-sharing Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 27 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 75) Refer to Table 1.2. Jane could benefit most from which of the following flextime programs?

A) Maternity leave B) Personal support policies C) Compressed work week D) Job-sharing Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 29 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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76) Refer to Table 1.2. Tim could benefit most from which of the following?

A) Personal support policies B) Voluntary reduced work time C) Flexplace policies D) Job-sharing Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 77) Organizational behavior is an organization productivity orientation approach to organizational effectiveness.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 78) The concept that work can be both a productive effort while being a pleasant experience for the employee is an example of Theory Y. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5 - 6 79) The contingency approach to OB recognizes that behavior in work settings is the complex result of many interacting forces.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8 80) The human relations movement in OB emphasized the importance of designing jobs as efficiently as possible.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 81) The best known classical organizational theorist is Elton Mayo.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 - 11 82) It was the work of Max Weber that led managers to consider organizations as social systems.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 - 11 83) The adjustment someone goes through when returning to their native culture after living in a foreign culture is culture shock.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

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84) By 2050, it is estimated that racial and ethnic minorities will comprise the majority of the U.S. population, making the term minority obsolete.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 85) The fastest-growing segment of the U.S. population is the Baby Boom generation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 86) Much like the gradual process of automation, today's technology and the process of informating are occurring very slowly and steadily.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 20 87) As a result of today's technology, both blue-collar, manual labor jobs, as well as white-collar, mental labor jobs, are being eliminated.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 20 88) It is estimated that about 30 % of the largest American industrial firms outsource more than 50% of their manufacturing.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 20 89) The high-tech revolution has contributed to the trend of downsizing at many organizations.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 20 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 90) A virtual organization is a type of contingency organization that uses workers for specific jobs and then disbands them.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 21 91) A key consideration for an employee telecommuting is the ability to work independently.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 22 - 23 92) In 2010, about one in four members of the U.S. workforce was a contingent worker.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 27

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93) Discuss the fundamental assumptions of organizational behavior as a field.

Answer: Organizational behavior is characterized by two assumptions. First, is the recognition of the dynamic nature of organizations. OB pays attention to both behavior and the organizations within which the behavior takes place. Second, OB assumes there is no "one best" approach. OB emphasizes a contingency approach; that is, a recognition that behavior is the complex result of many interacting forces.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 7 - 9 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 94) What were the early influences on the study of organizational behavior?

Answer: One of the first influences was scientific management. The earliest work came from efficiency experts seeking to improve worker productivity. Frederick W. Taylor developed the scientific method, which emphasized the importance of designing jobs as efficiently as possible.

The human relations movement built on the work of Elton Mayo and the Hawthorne Studies.

Scientific management made people feel like cogs in a machine. This new emphasis respecting the individual emerged and at its forefront was Elton Mayo. Human relations rejected the economic perspective of work and focused on social factors. The Hawthorne studies began in 1927 at Western Electric's Hawthorne Works near Chicago. A third school, classical organizational theory, grew up emphasizing efficient overall structure. Henri Fayol developed a number of management principles. Max Weber developed the idea of the ideal bureaucracy, where consistency and fairness were the key factors.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 9-11 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 95) Discuss organizational behavior's development in the modern era, noting key current trends.

Answer: OB emerged as a field in the 1940s with the first doctorate awarded in 1941. OB was established as a field of study by the late 1950s, early 1960s. Gordon and Howell reported on business education in 1959 and recommended, among other things, increased attention to the social sciences. OB has grown rapidly, borrowing from other business disciplines. Specifically, three prominent trends: 1) the rise of global businesses with culturally diverse workforces, 2) rapid advances in technology, and 3) the rising expectations of people in general.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11 - 13 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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96) What are the benefits of employee support policies, and what steps can companies take to facilitate employees' work and allow them to meet their family obligations?

Answer: Flexible work arrangements are one way to accommodate the diversity of lifestyles.

Flextime programs give employees some discretion over their working hours. These programs have been well received and tied to productivity improvements and decreases in absenteeism.

Compressed workweeks permit employees to work fewer but longer days. Job sharing is one way to manage part-time work. Pairs of employees share one job. Voluntary reduced work time programs allow employees to reduce the amount of time they spend on the job, typically 1020%, with a proportional reduction in pay. Telecommuting policies allow employees to perform part of their work from home. Support facilities and programs are a proactive way for companies to address the growing needs of employees. Examples would be child-care facilities and eldercare facilities. Personal support policies are a wide variety of efforts from transportation to high school equivalency classes, etc. All these programs are expensive, but companies are convinced they work, and in some cases, they actually save money.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 18, 24-29 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 97) Explain how future, leaner organizations will use technology and staffing policies to become more efficient.

Answer: The industrial revolution established the process of people performing tasks within a hierarchical arrangement called an organization. That era is closing as organizations change the way work is done and their structures for doing it. Automation is the process of replacing of people with machines. Of course, this process has gone on for decades. Today, however, the manipulation of digital data is replacing the use of large machines, in a process called informating of the workplace; the term informate pertains to the process of workers' manipulating products by placing data between themselves and the product.

This informating process is happening so rapidly that the very nature of work is changing.

Therefore, many jobs are disappearing, leaving organizations smaller than before. In response, organizations have been rapidly reducing the number of employees needed to operate effectively–a process known as downsizing. Typically, this involves more than just laying off people in a move to save money. When directed at adjusting the number of employees needed to work in newly designed organizations, this process is called rightsizing. Organizations are also restructuring by eliminating jobs that focus on noncore sectors of the business and hiring firms to perform those functions instead–a practice known as outsourcing. By outsourcing secondary activities, an organization can focus on its core competency–its key capability, that which it does best.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 20 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 98) What is the underlying premise of scientific management?

Answer: Frederick Taylor studied the individual movements of laborers performing different jobs, searching for ways to do them that resulted in the fewest wasted movements. Scientific management, therefore, emphasized the importance of designing jobs as efficiently as possible.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 20 .

99) Why were researchers confused over their initial findings in the Hawthorne Studies? What conclusions did they ultimately come to?

Answer: The Hawthorne studies began in 1927 at Western Electric's Hawthorne Works near Chicago. Starting with scientific management, they tried to discover ways to improve employee performance. Puzzling results caused them to call in Elton Mayo to repeat the studies. Mayo discovered the concept of social systems and argued that social factors, not physical factors, are most important in improving productivity. While the studies weren't perfect, they opened the door to considering the importance of human needs, attitudes, and motives in regards to worker motivation and productivity.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 9 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 100) What are the major characteristics of classical organizational theory as proposed by Fayol?

Answer: Henri Fayol was a French industrialist who pioneered ideas about how organizations should be structured. He advocated the division of labor, the practice of dividing work into specialized tasks that enable people to specialize in what they do best. He also argued that in any organization, it should always be clear to whom each worker is responsible; that is, which managers have authority over them.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 101) What is culture shock, who does it affect, and how might it be lessened for expatriates?

Answer: People are often unconsciously affected by culture. Individuals faced with new cultures may become confused and disoriented. In addition, when they return to their own culture, or are repatriated, they may experience culture shock again. The adjustment process follows a U-curve, moving from High Acceptance to Low Acceptance, back to High Acceptance over time. Culture shock comes from having a narrow view of the world.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14 - 15 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 102) What is telecommuting, and how will it affect workers in the future?

Answer: Telecommuting or teleworking is the practice of using communication technology to perform work from remote locations, such as one's home. Although it was experimental at the end of the twentieth century, it is becoming increasingly common today, and estimates show that as many as 14 million American workers telecommute on a regular basis. Both employers and employees enjoy the benefits of telecommuting. Employees save time and money by not having to commute to work, arrange for childcare, or purchase workplace attire and meals on the job.

Employers can save millions of dollars in expenses for office facilities, have access to talented workers across the globe, and comply with government regulations (such as the Federal Clean Air Act of 1990, which required employers to reduce the number of work-related trips made by employees).

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 21 - 23 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 2 Organizational Justice, Ethics, and Corporate Social Responsibility 1) The concept of ________ involves people's perceptions of the fairness of the manner in which others treat them.

A) distributive justice.

B) informational justice.

C) procedural justice.

D) interpersonal justice.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 41 2) A form of organizational justice that focuses on people's beliefs that they have received fair amounts of valued work-related outcomes is: A) distributive justice.

B) corporate social responsibility.

C) procedural justice.

D) interpersonal justice.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 38 3) People's perception of the fairness of the procedures used to determine the outcomes they receive is: A) distributive justice.

B) corporate social responsibility.

C) procedural justice.

D) interpersonal justice.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 39 4) Imposing new rules on workers without consulting them is thought to violate: A) distributive justice.

B) informational justice.

C) procedural justice.

D) interpersonal justice.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 39 5) When decisions that are made on the basis of unfair procedures make people dissatisfied with the outcomes they receive, the dissatisfaction with those outcomes alone is about: A) distributive justice.

B) informational justice.

C) procedural justice.

D) interpersonal justice.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 38 1 .

6) Charles belittles his employees and makes insensitive comments to them. Charles's behavior is likely to reduce: A) distributive justice.

B) informational justice.

C) procedural justice.

D) interpersonal justice.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 41 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 7) The concept of ________ involves people's perceptions of the fairness of the information used as the basis for making a decision.

A) distributive justice B) informational justice C) procedural justice D) interpersonal justice Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 41 8) Steadman provides clear reasons for the decisions he makes. His behavior is likely to increase: A) distributive justice.

B) informational justice.

C) procedural justice.

D) interpersonal justice.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 41 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 9) Feeling valued by others in the organization provides an explanation for organizational justice effects. This explanation is known as: A) interaction effects.

B) informational justice.

C) group-value explanation.

D) interpersonal justice.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 41 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 10) The fair process effect is associated with: A) distributive justice.

B) informational justice.

C) procedural justice.

D) interpersonal justice.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 43

2 .

11) Letting employees know that you are always available to talk is BEST known as which of the following?

A) Using suggestion systems B) Willingness to meet regularly C) Conducting employee surveys D) Using an open door policy Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 43 - 44 12) Which should NOT be done by managers who want to "promote voice" in an organization?

A) Invite input B) Meet regularly C) Avoid suggestion systems D) Use an open-door policy Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 43 - 44 13) The results of training to promote justice have shown that: A) employees of trained managers are less inclined to respond negatively.

B) employees of trained managers are more likely to engage in organizational citizenship behaviors.

C) employees of trained managers are not impacted at all.

D) Both A and B. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 44 14) People's fundamental beliefs regarding what is right or wrong, good or bad are known as: A) ethical values.

B) moral values.

C) business ethics.

D) social responsibility.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 48 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 15) Standards of conduct that guide people's decisions and behavior are known as: A) ethics.

B) morals.

C) business ethics.

D) corporate social responsibility.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 48 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning

3 .

16) It is a company's responsibility to set clear ________ and train employees to recognize and follow them.

A) moral values B) standards of behavior C) normative guidelines D) representational axioms Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 48 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 17) Which of the following companies had its founder serve time in prison after being found guilty of insider trading?

A) Adelphia B) Arthur Andersen C) Martha Stewart D) WorldCom Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 47 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 18) Executives at which of the following companies were charged with using corporate funds for making exorbitant purchases?

A) Adelphia Communications B) Arthur Andersen C) Enron D) Tyco Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 47 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 19) Which company had its officers cited for "cooking the books" for personal gain?

A) Enron B) Sears C) Tyco D) Fortes Telecom Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 47 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning

4 .

20) Companies whose leaders explicitly express strong ethical commitment returned ________ the value to shareholders.

A) twice B) three times C) four times D) ten times Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 49 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 21) Companies with reputations for treating people well are: A) ignored by prospective employees.

B) highly sought by prospective employees.

C) unknown by prospective employees.

D) None of the above.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 22) Companies that deliver products and services ethically: A) do not draw more customers.

B) do not draw more employees.

C) draw more customers and employees.

D) draw only more customers.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 23) Which of the following laws was the earliest law enacted bearing on ethical behavior?

A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act B) False Claims Act C) Sarbanes-Oxley D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 24) Which of the following laws provides mechanisms for reporting fraudulent behavior against U.S. government agencies?

A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act B) False Claims Act C) Sarbanes-Oxley D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 5 .

25) Which of the following laws forbids paying bribes to foreign officials?

A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act B) False Claims Act C) Sarbanes-Oxley D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 26) Which of the following laws specifies guidelines for judges to follow?

A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act B) False Claims Act C) Sarbanes-Oxley D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 27) Which of the following laws was enacted to guard against future accounting scandals?

A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act B) False Claims Act C) Sarbanes-Oxley D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 28) Which of the following laws specifies that actions taken by the organization to discourage criminal behavior will be recognized?

A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act B) False Claims Act C) Sarbanes-Oxley D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 - 51 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 29) Being ethical is not the same as being legal. Therefore, it is useful to think of the law as: A) something that ethical corporations simply have to work around.

B) raising the bar for acceptable standards that companies must reach.

C) taking the place of ethical behavior by corporate executives.

D) providing the minimum acceptable standard to which companies must adhere.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning

6 .

30) Which of the following laws is a revision of a previous law?

A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act B) Federal Prosecution of Business Organizations C) Sarbanes-Oxley D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 31) Which of the following laws was the most recent law enacted bearing on ethical behavior?

A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act B) Federal Prosecution of Business Organizations C) Sarbanes-Oxley D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 32) In which of the following countries is using pirated software considered acceptable?

A) Indonesia B) Japan C) Germany D) China Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 33) In which of the following countries is bribing an official considered an acceptable cost of doing business?

A) Indonesia B) Japan C) Germany D) China Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 34) In which of the following countries must you purchase a gift for the other party in order to conduct business?

A) Indonesia B) Japan C) Germany D) China Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 7 .

35) The idea that no culture's ethics are better than any other is embraced by which of the following: A) ethical imperialism.

B) ethical relativism.

C) Sarbanes-Oxley.

D) False Claims Act. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 58 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 36) The possibility of condoning acts that violate one's own sense of morality can occur in which of the following: A) ethical imperialism.

B) ethical relativism.

C) Sarbanes-Oxley.

D) False Claims Act. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 37) Which of the following countries allows companies to dispose of toxic chemical waste?

A) Canada B) Japan C) Nigeria D) China Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58 - 59 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 38) The idea that no matter where you are, you should do whatever you consider to be right at home is called: A) ethical imperialism.

B) ethical relativism.

C) ethical convenience.

D) ethical double standards.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 59 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning

8 .

39) The U.S. style of training in avoiding sexual harassment would be questioned in which of the following regions?

A) South America B) Africa C) Middle East D) Northern Europe Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 40) The U.S. style of training in avoiding sexual harassment when done abroad would be a problem in terms of: A) ethical relativism.

B) ethical imperialism.

C) organizational justice.

D) None of the above.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 41) Hiring one's own relatives would be considered ethical in which of the following countries?

A) India B) Japan C) Nigeria D) China Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 60 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 42) "I'm not going to behave unethically because I don't want to get into trouble." This is moral thinking at which of the following levels?

A) Preconventional level B) Conventional level C) Postconventional level D) Relativistic level Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 43) In which of the following levels of moral reasoning do two-thirds of adults fall?

A) Preconventional level B) Conventional level C) Postconventional level D) Ethical imperialism Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 9 .

44) "I'm going to do what society thinks is right." This is moral thinking at which of the following levels?

A) Preconventional level B) Conventional level C) Postconventional level D) Relativistic level Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52 - 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 45) The belief that financial success is the only thing that matters is known as: A) ethical relativism.

B) bottom-line mentality.

C) exploitative mentality.

D) Madison Avenue mentality.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 46) "I'm not going to do what is right, even if others don't agree." This is moral thinking at which of the following levels?

A) Preconventional level B) Conventional level C) Postconventional level D) Relativistic level Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52 - 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 47) Most employees are sensitive to organizational efforts to promote ethical behavior because these represent social standards of right and wrong. This thinking is prevalent at which of the following levels?

A) Preconventional level B) Conventional level C) Postconventional level D) Relativistic level Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning

10 .

48) Which of the following situational forces do NOT feature prominently in people's tendency to behave unethically?

A) Organizational norms that encourage unethical behavior B) Managerial values that discourage integrity C) Impact of unethical behavior by leaders D) National culture Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 49) Kohlberg's theory of cognitive moral development includes which of the following stages?

A) Preconventional level B) Conventional level C) Postconventional level D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 52 - 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 50) In which of the following stages does an individual do whatever keeps her from getting punished?

A) Preconventional level B) Conventional level C) Postconventional level D) All of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 51) In which of the following stages does an individual do whatever fulfills the obligations of society?

A) Preconventional level B) Conventional level C) Postconventional level D) Ethical relativism Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning

11 .

52) In which of the following stages does an individual do whatever adheres to universal moral principles?

A) Preconventional level B) Conventional level C) Postconventional level D) Ethical relativism Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 53) The practice of willingly hiding relevant information by being secretive and deceitful is known as: A) counternorms.

B) ethical relativism.

C) stonewalling.

D) ethical imperialism.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 54 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 54) Practices that are accepted within the organization, although they are contrary to the prevailing ethical standards of society at large, are known as: A) counternorms.

B) ethical relativism.

C) stonewalling.

D) ethical imperialism.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 54 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 55) The belief that financial success is the only thing that matters is known as: A) ethical relativism.

B) bottom-line mentality.

C) exploitative mentality.

D) Madison Avenue mentality.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning

12 .

56) The belief that concern for others is less important than one's own immediate interests is known as: A) ethical relativism.

B) bottom-line mentality.

C) exploitative mentality.

D) Madison Avenue mentality.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 57) The ________ asserts that one's own immediate interests are more important than the concern for others.

A) conventional paradigm B) bottom-line mentality C) exploitative mentality D) internal-external model Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 58) Greater concern for how things appear to others rather than how they really are is known as: A) ethical relativism.

B) bottom-line mentality.

C) exploitative mentality.

D) Madison Avenue mentality.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 59) "If it looks ethical, it is ethical" represents which of the following mentalities:: A) imperialist mentality.

B) bottom-line mentality.

C) exploitative mentality.

D) Madison Avenue mentality.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 60) ________ involve doing what is right and good for everyone.

A) Philanthropic responsibilities B) Legal responsibilities C) Ethical responsibilities D) Financial responsibilities Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 13 .

61) The tendency for companies to do well by doing good is known as: A) corporate social responsibility.

B) the pyramid of corporate social responsibility.

C) the virtuous circle.

D) ethical imperialism.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 64 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 62) In which of the following do senior-level managers assist the CEO in making ethical decisions?

A) Ethics officers B) Ethics hotlines C) Ethics audits D) Ethics committees Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 57 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 63) Which of the following involves a high-ranking organizational official who is expected to provide strategies for ensuring ethical conduct throughout the organization?

A) Ethics officers B) Ethics hotlines C) Ethics audits D) Ethics committees Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 58 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 64) Which of the following involves special phone numbers that employees can call to ask questions?

A) Ethics officers B) Ethics hotlines C) Ethics audits D) Ethics committees Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 58 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning

14 .

65) The active investigation and documentation of incidents of dubious ethical value occur in which of the following?

A) Ethics officers B) Ethics hotlines C) Ethics audits D) Ethics committees Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 56 - 57 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 66) Which of the following is NOT an element in the pyramid of corporate social responsibility?

A) Philanthropic B) Ethical C) Financial D) Cultural Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 67) Donating money to social causes would fall under which of the responsibilities of corporate social responsibility?

A) Philanthropic B) Ethical C) Economic D) Financial Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 61 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 68) Which of the following is at the base of the pyramid of corporate social responsibility?

A) Cultural B) Financial C) Ethical D) Legal Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 61 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 69) Adhering to Sarbanes-Oxley would fall under which of the responsibilities of corporate social responsibility?

A) Philanthropic B) Ethical C) Legal D) Financial Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 15 .

70) Exceeding the prevailing legal and ethical standards and embracing values that promote the greater welfare of society at large is the domain of distributive justice.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 38 71) Organizational justice that focuses on people's beliefs that they have received fair amounts of valued work-related outcomes is known as distributed justice.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 38 72) The perception of the fairness of the procedures used to determine the outcomes they receive is known as procedural justice.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 39 73) The anterior insula part of the brain is activated in response to procedural injustice.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 42 74) Procedural injustice activates the part of the brain associated with cognition.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 42 75) Departments in which employees felt treated unfairly had significantly higher rates of turnover.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 42 76) Providing employees explanations of why something had to be done will not reduce some of the problems of distributive injustice.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 44 77) Justice training reaps many benefits to managers.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 44 78) Standards are about ethics while beliefs are about moral values.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 48 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 79) Sears was found guilty of creating bogus partnerships.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 47 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 16 .

80) Starbucks and Dell have been recognized for their efforts to advance the interests of women.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 64 81) The False Claims Act provides procedures for reporting fraudulent behavior against U.S. government agencies.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 82) Sarbanes-Oxley is designed to guard against future accounting scandals.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 83) The Federal Prosecution of Business Organizations is a revision of the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 84) In Japan, you must give a small gift to conduct business.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 85) Ethical relativism calls for adopting the ethics of the country in which one is doing business.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 58 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 86) Ethical imperialism asserts that the ethical standards in one's own culture are superior.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 59 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 87) Decisions made on conventional levels of moral development are motivated by doing what society thinks is correct.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 88) Decisions made on preconventional levels of moral development are motivated on not getting into trouble.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 17 .

89) An exploitative mentality believes that what looks right is right.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 90) Identify the different factors that people take into consideration when forming judgments of procedural justice.

Answer: In forming judgments, people take into account (1) voice in the making of decisions, (2) consistency in applying rules, (3) accuracy in use of information, (4) opportunity to correct errors, and (5) the provision of safeguards against bias.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 39 91) Discuss the steps organizations take to mitigate the severity of the Federal Sentencing Guidelines.

Answer: The Guidelines specify that companies can take actions, such as the following, to show efforts to prevent and detect violations of the law. (1) Develop compliance standards and procedures designed to minimize criminal conduct. (2) Make high-level personnel responsible for overseeing compliance with such standards and procedures. (3) Avoid assigning to positions any employees they know (or should know) to be inclined to pursue illegal activities. (4) Communicate ethical standards through training programs or by disseminating publications that explain appropriate behavior. (5) Monitor behavior by having in place a system that employees can use to report criminal behavior without fear of retribution. (6) Develop a system for enforcing standards, such as by disciplining employees appropriately. (7) Respond appropriately to offenses by taking reasonable steps to ensure that they will not be repeated.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 51 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 92) Identify the three levels of moral reasoning.

Answer: (1) Preconventional Level (the person does what keeps him/her from being punished), (2) Conventional Level (the person does what fulfills the obligations of society), and (3) Postconventional Level (the person adheres to universal moral principles).

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52, 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 93) Identify the three managerial mentalities that discourage ethical behavior.

Answer: (1) Bottom-line mentality, in which financial success is the only thing that matters, (2) exploitative mentality, in which concern for others is less important than ones immediate interests, and (3) Madison Avenue mentality, in which the concern is for how things appear rather than how they really are.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 53 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 94) Identify the four types of corporate social responsibility.

Answer: The most basic type is financial responsibilities, followed by legal responsibilities, ethical responsibilities, and philanthropic responsibilities.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 61 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 18 .

95) What does one do to promote voice in organizations?

Answer: (1) Meet regularly and invite input, (2) conduct employee surveys, (3) keep an opendoor policy, and (4) use suggestion systems.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 43 - 44 96) Distinguish between ethical relativism and ethical imperialism.

Answer: Ethical relativism refers to the idea that there are no internationally acceptable standards of right and wrong. Conversely, ethical imperialism is the idea that the ethical standards of one's own country are most appropriate.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58 - 59 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 97) Identify the three guiding principles of global ethics.

Answer: (1) Show respect for core human values, (2) demonstrate sensitivity to local traditions, and (3) recognize that context matters when distinguishing between right and wrong.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 98) Identify the typical components of a corporate ethics program.

Answer: Typical corporate ethics programs consist of some combination of the following components. A code of ethics is a document describing that for which an organization stands and the general rules of conduct expected of employees. Codes of ethics are especially effective when they are used in conjunction with ethics training programs that reinforce the company’s ethical values. Just as companies regularly audit their books to check on irregularities in their finances, they should also conduct ethics audits to assess the behavior of employees and identify irregularities in ethical activity. An ethics committee is a group of senior-level managers from various areas of the organization who assist the CEO in making ethical decisions. An ethics officer is a high-ranking organizational official who is expected to provide strategies for ensuring ethical conduct throughout the organization. To be effective, companies must have a mechanism for communicating ethical standards, and clearly articulate (and reinforce) ethical expectations to employees.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 56 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 99) Identify what happens to employees when companies have ethics programs.

Answer: (1) They are more likely to report ethical misconduct, (2) they are considered more accountable for ethics violations, and (3) they face less pressure to compromise standards of business conduct.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning

19 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 3 Perception and Learning: Understanding and Adapting to the Work Environment 1) The process of social perception: A) is inherently nonjudgmental.

B) is a public process that can be objectively observed.

C) involves the combination, integration, and interpretation of sensory information.

D) is unrelated to the process of selectivity on the part of individuals.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 73 2) In the attribution process, correspondent inferences are: A) explanations for events.

B) judgments about people's dispositions.

C) judgments about organizational contexts.

D) inferences based on similarities between people.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 76 3) You have an employee who is usually late and it takes him a half an hour to become productive. You believe that his behavior stems from being lazy and unorganized. This belief is an example of: A) an attribution.

B) a correspondent inference.

C) a causal attribution.

D) observational learning.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 76 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 4) We all make inferences about people, but they may be inaccurate because: A) our judgments may be inaccurate.

B) we may not know all of the possible causes of the behavior.

C) individuals may be concealing information about themselves and their traits.

D) of all of these.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 76 5) We can improve the accuracy of our inferences about others by: A) using appropriate stereotypes.

B) focusing on behavior that appears to have only one explanation.

C) observing people's behavior in situations where they are pressured to act a certain way.

D) studying psychology and human behavior before judging others.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 76 - 77 1 .

6) According to Kelley's theory of causal attribution, when we form judgments on the basis consensus, our attribution is based on the fact that: A) the person we're judging acts the same way at other times when he/she is in a similar situation.

B) this person behaves in the same manner in other contexts.

C) other people behave in the same manner as the person we're judging.

D) this person's traits match the traits of other people we know.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 7) We believe that a person is motivated by external causes if: A) other people do not act like this, the person behaves consistently like this, and the person acts the same in other situations.

B) other people act like this, the person does not behave consistently like this, and the person acts the same in other situations.

C) other people do not act like this, the person behaves consistently like this, and the person acts differently in other situations.

D) other people act like this, the person behaves consistently like this, and the person does not act like this in other situations.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 - 78 8) We will attribute another's actions to internal causes under conditions in which: A) consensus is high, consistency is high, and distinctiveness is high.

B) consensus is high, consistency is low, and distinctiveness is high.

C) consensus is low, consistency is high, and distinctiveness is low.

D) consensus is low, consistency is low, and distinctiveness is low.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 78 9) Suppose you observe your neighbor running away from a dog who comes into your backyard during a picnic. You've seen him run away from dogs before, and you've seen him run away from all dogs. Also, you don't see anyone else run away from this dog. You would say that he ran away from this dog because ________, which is an example of an ________ attribution.

A) the dog is scary; internal B) the dog is scary; external C) he is afraid of dogs; internal D) he is afraid of dogs; external Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 78 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

2 .

10) Perceptual biases are: A) types of judgment errors that people are prone to make.

B) characteristics of the person who interprets a specific situation.

C) attempts to identify the causes of others' behavior.

D) tendencies to categorize people based on the groups to which they belong.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 79 11) When we attribute another's behavior to internal factors more than external factors we are: A) experiencing the similar-to-me effect.

B) making a fundamental attribution error.

C) projecting the halo effect.

D) making a first-impression error.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 79 12) When Berry wrecked the company car, his boss immediately assumed that the accident occurred because Berry was careless. He never considered that another driver could have hit the car. This perceptual bias is called: A) the first-impression error.

B) the fundamental attribution error.

C) selective perception.

D) the halo effect.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 79 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 13) If we form a negative impression of someone, we tend to evaluate all future behavior negatively as well. This is an example of the perceptual bias of: A) selective perception.

B) stereotyping.

C) halo effect.

D) first-impression error.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 79 14) Research has shown that when supervisors rate their subordinates, the more similar the subordinate is to them, the higher the rating the superior tends to give. This is an example of the perceptual bias of: A) the similar-to-me effect.

B) selective perception.

C) the halo effect.

D) first-impression error.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 80

3 .

15) Li is an accountant by training, although he now works in human resources. There are problems within his department: employees are fighting with each other, morale is low, etc. But when asked how his department is doing, Li reports they are right on target with their compensation figures, their turnover rates, and their training expenses. Li's misperception is a function of the perceptual bias of: A) selective perception.

B) the similar-to-me effect.

C) fundamental attribution error.

D) the first-impression error.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 81 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 16) When Samantha meets Joe, she is impressed with his professional appearance, quick responses, and articulation. She assumes he knows of what he speaks and follows his suggestions with disastrous results. This is an example of the consequences of the perceptual bias of: A) selective perception.

B) stereotyping.

C) halo effect.

D) first-impression error.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 81 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 17) Prior to the start of the semester, Dr. Blankenship was told that three of her students, in particular, had high potential for success. While those three students had, in fact, been only average students in the past, they ended up scoring very high on exams. The performance of the students could be the result of: A) selective perception.

B) a fundamental attribution error.

C) the Pygmalion effect.

D) the Golem effect.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 82 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 18) How can we minimize bias in social perception and promote more accurate perceptions of people?

A) Make more correspondent inferences.

B) Categorize and use your stereotypes more carefully.

C) Make more causal attributions and fewer correspondent inferences.

D) Do not overlook the external causes of behavior.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 82

4 .

19) Police recruits whose instructors expected them to perform poorly in their training class did, in fact, perform worse than those about whom instructors had no advance expectations. The performance of the recruits could be attributed to: A) fundamental attribution error.

B) the halo effect.

C) the Pygmalion effect.

D) the Golem effect.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 83 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 20) The belief that all members of a specific group share the same traits and behaviors describes: A) selective perception.

B) stereotyping.

C) halo effect.

D) similar-to-me error.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 84 21) Which of the following is true about stereotypes?

A) We can learn to never use them through self-awareness and careful training.

B) Despite the fact people don't like them, the use of stereotypes does little real harm to people.

C) Stereotypes allow people to do as little cognitive work as possible when it comes to thinking about others.

D) Only bad people, who are inherently evil, use stereotypes.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 84 22) We use stereotypes: A) because we need mental shortcuts.

B) to help us understand the differences among people.

C) to reinforce our perceptual biases.

D) as a way of accurately classifying people in order to interact more effectively.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 84 23) The desire to make a favorable impression is known as: A) Golem effect.

B) Pygmalion effect.

C) stereotyping.

D) impression management.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 86

5 .

24) Research on impression management shows that: A) it tends to backfire in that the interviewing manager tends to react negatively to it.

B) managers form their first impression of a job candidate only after the first half hour.

C) job candidates have used this technique with great success.

D) most job candidates don't know about it, so it is not used very often in interviews.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 87 25) The most common form of impression management technique is: A) directly describing oneself in a positive manner for the current situation.

B) describing past events in a way that makes oneself look good.

C) claiming a positive event was more positive than it really was.

D) denying responsibility for one's actions.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 88 26) Claiming responsibility for successful events is best known as: A) enhancement.

B) overcoming obstacles.

C) justification.

D) entitlement.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 88 27) When Fred claimed that his national award not only helped him but also helped his department and his company, he was using a technique known as: A) enhancement.

B) overcoming obstacles.

C) justification.

D) entitlement.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 88 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 28) Accepting responsibility for one's poor performance by denying the negative implications of that performance is known as: A) enhancement.

B) overcoming obstacles.

C) justification.

D) entitlement.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 88

6 .

29) The least used impression management technique was: A) directly describing oneself in a positive manner for the current situation.

B) personal stories.

C) claiming a positive event was more positive than it really was.

D) denying responsibility for one's actions.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 88 30) The performance appraisal process in organizations is: A) a rational and objective process.

B) often heavily influenced by perceptual bias.

C) unaffected by the impression management process.

D) a fair process based on cognitive and behavioral objectives, free of bias.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 89 31) Research of bank managers showed that when employees were rated four months after beginning their jobs, their performance evaluations: A) were consistent with current performance.

B) were significantly lower than expected due to fundamental attribution error.

C) were still unaffected by the impression management strategies by the employees.

D) were consistent with manager expectations, not performance.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 89 32) Perceptual biases in performance appraisal can be caused by: A) the extent to which that performance is consistent with the rater’s initial expectations.

B) the nature of the rater’s attributions about the performance.

C) the characteristics of the person being perceived, as well as those of the perceiver.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 89 - 90 33) In Japan, an overall evaluation of performance effectiveness is usually given: A) after around 21 years.

B) upon termination.

C) annually.

D) after around 12 years.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

7 .

34) All of the following statements about performance appraisals are true in Japan, except: A) comments about performance are handled orally.

B) the group or work team tends to be judged as a whole.

C) evaluations occur annually.

D) judgments are not usually challenged.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 35) Learning is: A) a relatively permanent change in behavior occurring as a result of experience.

B) reflected by temporary changes in behavior, such as those produced by drugs, illness, or fatigue.

C) synonymous with improvements in performance.

D) based on the fact that our behavior results in positive or negative consequences.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 91 36) You worked very hard on a key report. As a finishing touch, you add some clip art to the document. Your boss loves it and asks why you haven't done it before. Therefore, in all future reports you add clip art images. This is an example of what form of learning?

A) Classical conditioning B) Operant conditioning C) Observational learning D) Modeling Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 91 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 37) When people repeat actions that have positive effects, and do not repeat actions that have negative effects, they are demonstrating: A) operant conditioning.

B) observational learning.

C) the transfer of training.

D) the law of effect.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 91 38) Mary learns that she can avoid a fight with her supervisor by not taking too long a lunch break. This is an example of which of the following in operation?

A) Negative reinforcement B) Positive reinforcement C) Punishment D) Extinction Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 92 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 8 .

39) ________ involves decreasing undesirable behavior by following it with undesirable consequences.

A) Extinction B) Punishment C) Positive reinforcement D) Negative reinforcement Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 92 40) The phenomenon in which people identify themselves with the success of others is known as: A) cutting off reflected failure.

B) social identity.

C) basking in reflected glory.

D) social perception.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 74 41) Observational learning occurs when one person acquires new information or behaviors: A) in a specified time period.

B) through practice and repetition of the task.

C) by having correct behavior rewarded and poor performance punished.

D) vicariously.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 93 42) Suppose you see your co-worker getting chewed out by your boss because he took too long a coffee break. Now, you refrain from taking coffee breaks that are too long yourself. This is an example of which of what type of learning?

A) Classical conditioning B) Instrumental conditioning C) Observational learning D) Feedback training Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 93 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 43) The clearest application of the principles of learning in organizations is the area of: A) recruitment and hiring.

B) training.

C) performance appraisal.

D) benefits and financial management.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 94

9 .

44) The form of training that combines classroom training with on-the-job training is: A) corporate universities.

B) executive training.

C) leadership training.

D) apprenticeship programs.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 95 45) When companies are so serious about training that they form their own centers to handle the company's training full-time, they are pursuing: A) corporate universities.

B) executive training.

C) leadership training.

D) apprenticeship programs.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 96 46) Which one of the following is not one of the five principles of learning?

A) Promoting participation B) Encouraging repetition C) Using passive learning D) Capitalizing on transfer of training Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 97 - 98 47) People learn and retain skills longer when they: A) take a passive approach to learning.

B) focus on theory rather than practical knowledge.

C) provide feedback to their instructors.

D) participate in the learning process.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 48) The benefits of repetition in learning are enhanced when practice is: A) modeled by others.

B) spread out over time.

C) condensed into small periods of time.

D) supervised.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97

10 .

49) ________ is the degree to which training generalizes to actual work experiences.

A) Transfer of training B) Repetition C) Participation D) Feedback Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 98 50) You are working in a machine shop where you are learning to operate a lathe. Your supervisor tells you what you are doing correctly, and what needs to be improved. This is an example of the principle of: A) participation.

B) repetition.

C) transfer of training.

D) feedback.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 98 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 51) A feedback process that uses multiple sources from around the organization to evaluate one person is: A) multiple regression.

B) team feedback.

C) 360-degree feedback.

D) a baseline audit.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 98 52) Organizational Behavior Modification (OBMod) is/are: A) the application of positive reinforcement principles in an organizational setting to increase the incidence of desirable organizational behaviors.

B) the use of punishment to decrease negative organizational behaviors such as absenteeism and employee turnover.

C) programs established by organizations to help employees stop smoking and drinking and avoid other risks to their health.

D) programs developed within organizations to select employees who have the potential to be managers.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 100 53) The use of discipline in organizations to eliminate undesirable behavior is: A) in decline due to unfair labor practices lawsuits.

B) infrequently used because most managers dislike doing it.

C) a relatively common practice in organizations.

D) quite similar across organizations, in that most use a standard one-step process.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 11 .

54) When discipline is imposed on an employee through a series of steps designed to match the frequency and severity of the infraction, the organization is using: A) progressive discipline.

B) administrative discipline.

C) informal discipline.

D) continuous discipline.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 101 55) John is caught stealing product from his company's warehouse, over $15,000 worth. His company has a progressive discipline process. The company's most likely action would be to: A) give him an oral reprimand and return him to work.

B) talk with him about his problem and recommend counseling.

C) transfer him to another warehouse.

D) terminate him immediately.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 - 102 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 56) Managers consider ________ the most severe type of discipline they can impose before firing an employee.

A) probation B) written warning C) suspension without pay D) transfer to another job Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 57) To be effective, organizational discipline should: A) be delivered after a short delay to reinforce the intensity of the punishment.

B) start with a severe negative consequence for the first offense to ensure it being extinguished.

C) use moderate levels of punishment.

D) be directed at the individual personally.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 102 58) Effective organizational discipline: A) follows punishment with noncontingent awards to show there are no hard feelings.

B) applies punishment consistently, across occasions.

C) takes extenuating circumstances into consideration.

D) begins the discipline interview with a statement of the probable punishment by the manager.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 103

12 .

59) Suppose that as a supervisor, you find it necessary to discipline one of your employees for consistently showing up for work late. Which one of the following actions would be correct to perform?

A) Punish the individual by focusing on his or her irresponsibility.

B) Make an example out of this person by punishing him or her, but not others who are also consistently late.

C) Give the person the rest of the day off after you discuss the problem.

D) Clearly communicate the reasons for the disciplinary action.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 3.1 Joe and Mary Jane are observing the new class of management trainees as they enter the training room for their initial orientation. As they watch each person enter, they observe how they are dressed, how they carry themselves when they walk, if they talk to the persons next to them when they sit down, and so forth. Joe notices one man who is casually dressed, who walks with a relaxed stride, and who talks to everyone within reach of his seat. Joe believes this man will be a good 'volunteer' for role plays because he is obviously very outgoing. Joe has watched hundreds of trainees before and everyone who acted this way turned out to be good up in front of everyone else. Mary Jane sees a young woman she interviewed. In the interview she was outgoing, smiled a great deal, and was very expressive. Mary Jane sees her now sitting by herself, having taken a seat away from everyone, arms folded across her chest, with a scowl on her face. Mary Jane thinks that this woman obviously does better in one-on-one settings than she does in large groups.

60) Refer to Table 3.1. Joe's belief about the man he noticed is an example of: A) attribution.

B) correspondent inference.

C) perception.

D) causal attribution.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 76 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 61) Refer to Table 3.1. The basis of Joe's belief about the man he noticed is an example of ________ information.

A) consensus B) consistency C) distinctiveness D) enhancement Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13 .

62) Refer to Table 3.1. What type of information are both Joe and Mary Jane missing in order to validate their observations about the two people they saw?

A) Consensus B) Consistency C) Distinctiveness D) Enhancement Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 63) Refer to Table 3.1. The basis of Mary Jane's thinking about the woman she interviewed is an example of basing a judgment on ________ information.

A) consensus B) consistency C) distinctiveness D) enhancement Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 3.2 William and Malcolm are interviewing high school students for jobs at a newly opened fast food restaurant. William knows his first interviewee; he coached him on the local community softball team. William doesn't expect the interview to go well or to hire the young man because he wasn't very open to advice when he was coached. Malcolm's first candidate is late and runs up disheveled and out of breath. Malcolm assumes the young man had difficulty on his way to the interview and gives him time to calm down and improve his appearance. Several hours into the process William is interviewing his 20th candidate, Jane. When she sits down she drops into her seat, folds her arms, and pinches her lips together. She's wearing a T-shirt with the image and name of a local heavy metal band on it. William prepares himself for a hostile and unfriendly interview but is surprised that after the first couple of questions Jane turns out to be quite polite and friendly. Malcolm's last candidate is friendly, has similar interests to Malcolm and knows several of the people Malcolm knows in the community. Malcolm comments to William as they are picking up their files, "That kid reminds me of me when I was 17."

64) Refer to Table 3.2. Even though Malcolm gave the young man the benefit of the doubt, Malcolm demonstrated a perceptual bias, because he didn't know why the young man was late.

Which perceptual bias does Malcolm demonstrate?

A) Fundamental attribution error B) Halo effect C) Similar-to-me effect D) Selective perception Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 79 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14 .

65) Refer to Table 3.2. William is demonstrating which perceptual bias error with his first interviewee?

A) Fundamental attribution error B) Halo effect C) Similar-to-me effect D) First-impression error Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 79 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 66) Refer to Table 3.2. Malcolm is probably making what perceptual bias error with his last job candidate?

A) Fundamental attribution error B) Halo effect C) Similar-to-me effect D) First-impression error Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 80 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 67) Refer to Table 3.2. William's initial perception of Jane is an example of: A) selective perception.

B) the halo effect.

C) the similar-to-me effect.

D) first-impression error.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 81 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 3.3 Tony manages a small group of customer service representatives and is responsible for all their training. His coaching style is to catch people doing this right, then offer praise and small rewards for proper performance. When Tony works with the customer service representatives who handle customer correspondence, he pays random surprise visits to each representative to encourage, coach, and correct behavior. He believes this keeps the representatives on their toes.

With his customer service representatives who handle phone calls, Tony drops in on each one after they have taken between 50-100 calls. He's able to monitor their call rate from his computer terminal.

68) Refer to Table 3.3. Tony's learning philosophy is an example of: A) operant conditioning.

B) observational learning.

C) modeling.

D) classical conditioning.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 91 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 15 .

69) B. F. Skinner's work on instrumental conditioning would be best able to explain which of the following?

A) The tendency for people to continue playing slot machines although they are bound to lose money.

B) The tendency for a supervisor's praise to increase a subordinate's good behavior.

C) The tendency for a person chastised by his co-workers for wearing inappropriate clothing to the office to refrain from doing so again.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 91 - 92 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 3.4 Ted is designing a training program for his company's sales force. His training program must permit quick learning with maximum retention. He has built an interactive computer simulation for sales representatives to practice their sales skills. To evaluate the results of the training,Ted has the sales representatives evaluate themselves, their managers evaluate them, and their peers evaluate them.

70) Refer to Table 3.4. What principle must Ted incorporate into his training to ensure quick learning and retention?

A) Participation B) Repetition C) Feedback D) Transfer of learning Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 71) Refer to Table 3.4. The interactive computer simulation incorporates what principle of effective training best?

A) Participation B) Repetition C) Feedback D) Transfer of training Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 98 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16 .

72) Refer to Table 3.4. The evaluation process Ted is using is an example of which principle of effective training?

A) Participation B) Repetition C) Feedback D) Transfer of learning Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 98 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 73) Social perception is the process of understanding others' behavior and attributing causes to their behavior.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 73 74) Cliff sees his roommate burst into the room, slam his books on the desk, and yell, "That horse's ________." Cliff believes his roommate is angry with someone. Cliff has made a correspondent inference.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 76 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 75) In terms of causal attribution, to the extent that someone's behavior is same regardless of the context, is the extent to which a person's behavior is consistent.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 76) If we allow our initial judgment of someone to shape our subsequent impressions and behavior, we have made a halo effect error.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 79 77) Ted puts in long hours on the job and his boss notices. His boss assumes that Ted is committed to the company and wants to succeed because that's the way the boss did it, so he promotes him. Actually Ted is so overwhelmed in his current job he can't his work done and the promotion really sinks him. The boss's thinking is an example of the similar-to-me effect.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 80 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 78) The Pygmalion effect is simply the self-fulfilling prophecy in its positive form.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 82 79) When positive expectations results in good performance, it is known as the Golem effect.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 83 17 .

80) During the bombing of Kosovo, the news media kept warning against a ground invasion because the Serbians are tough people and make good soldiers. This is an example of a stereotype.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 84 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 81) People use stereotypes as mental shortcuts to help them organize their perceptions of others.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 84 82) Research has found that obese African American women tend to be paid less than their average-weight counterparts, due to prevalent negative stereotypes within the African American community.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 85 83) The least commonly used image management technique is that of personal stories, followed by entitlements.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 88 84) Research shows that the performance appraisal process used to be subject to bias, but now due to diversity training and cultural awareness programs, almost all bias has been eliminated.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 89 85) Due to standardizations in organizational performance evaluations, the appraisal process is generally an unbiased, rational procedure.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 89 86) In Japan, performance evaluations tend to focus on the team or group rather than the individual.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 87) For learning to take place there must be a relatively permanent change in behavior as a consequence of the corresponding experience.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 91 88) Another term for operant conditioning is instrumental conditioning.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 91 18 .

89) Negative reinforcement and punishment are synonyms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 92 90) Area briefings are used to allow a trainee to act out situations he might face working in a foreign country.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 96 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 91) For someone to learn through the observational learning process, they must not only pay attention to their role model but also remember and use what they learn because they want to.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 93 92) Apprenticeship programs combine classroom training and on-the-job training.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 95 93) Participation in the learning process is important for learning both cognitive and motor skills.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 94) Progressive discipline involves the use of holistic therapies and encounter groups to discourage unacceptable behavior on the job.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 95) For punishment to be effective, it should be immediate, moderate, and directed at the undesired behavior, not the person.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 102, 103

19 .

96) What is Kelly’s theory of causal attribution?

Answer: Kelly’s theory of causal attribution can be used to understand how people go about judging whether someone’s actions were caused by internal or external causes. According to this concept, we base our judgments of internal and external causality on observations we make with respect to three types of information. Consensus is the extent to which other people behave in the same manner as the person we are judging. If others do behave similarly, consensus is high; if they do not, consensus is low. Consistency is the extent to which the person we are judging acts the same way at other times. If the person does act the same at other times, consistency is high; if he or she does not, then consistency is low. Distinctiveness is the extent to which a person behaves in the same manner in other contexts. If he or she behaves the same way in other situations, distinctiveness is low; if he or she behaves differently, then distinctiveness is high.

According to Kelly’s theory, after collecting this information, we combine what we have learned to make our attributions of causality. We are likely to conclude that the person’s behavior stemmed from external causes, when consensus is high, consistency is high, and distinctiveness is high. On the other hand, when consensus is low, consistency is high, and distinctiveness is low, we would conclude that the person’s behavior stemmed from internal causes.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 75-78 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 97) Perception has a number of inherent biases in it. Identify and explain them.

Answer: Some errors in judgment reflect bias due to the way we think about others in general.

These are perceptual biases. There are five such biases. The fundamental attribution error occurs when behavior is attributed to internal causes regardless of the evidence. The halo effect is when a former impression, negative or positive, taints everything we observe the person do. Similar-tome effect results when people perceive individuals like themselves more favorably than they perceive others. Regarding first-impression error, whatever our first impression, that is our opinion and judgment about the person regardless of other evidence and behavior. This can often be very subtle. Selective perception refers to the tendency for individuals to focus on certain aspects of the environment while ignoring others.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 78-81 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 98) Discuss operant conditioning as a learning theory.

Answer: Learning is a relatively permanent change in behavior occurring as a result of experience. Learning requires that some kind of change occur, that the change be more than temporary, and experience. Operant conditioning is the principle that our behavior produces consequences, and the way we behave in the future will depend on the consequences. If our conduct has pleasant consequences, it will likely be repeated. If our conduct has unpleasant consequences, it is not likely to be repeated. This describes the Law of Effect, a concept based on the work of B.F. Skinner. Reinforcement contingencies involve learning from the effects of our actions. Positive reinforcement results from desirable outcomes. Negative reinforcement or avoidance comes from undesirable outcomes. Punishment or withholding reward can lead to extinction (disappearance) of behavior.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 91-93 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 20 .

99) What are the contingencies of reinforcement?

Answer: The various relationships between a person’s behavior and the consequences resulting from it are known collectively as contingencies of reinforcement. They represent the conditions under which rewards and punishments will either be given or removed. The contingencies of reinforcement may be categorized as follows: Positive reinforcement is the process by which people learn to perform behaviors that lead to the presentation of desired outcomes. The process by which people learn to perform acts leading to the avoidance of undesirable consequences is known as negative reinforcement or avoidance. Punishment involves presenting an undesirable or aversive consequence in response to unwanted behavior. Extinction is the process through which responses that are no longer reinforced tend to gradually diminish in strength.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 92 - 93 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 100) Discuss the discipline process in organizations, offering the key principles to successful discipline.

Answer: Discipline is the systematic administration of punishment. Progressive discipline bases punishment on the frequency and severity of the infraction. Principles of effective discipline include: deliver punishment immediately after the undesirable response occurs; give moderate levels of punishment (nothing too high or too low); punish the undesirable behavior, not the person; use punishment consistently (all the time, for all employees); and clearly communicate the reasons for the punishment given. Finally, be sure not to follow punishment with noncontingent rewards.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 100-103 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 101) How can you overcome bias in social perception?

Answer: Misperceptions are not often the result of malice but rather because we are imperfect processors of information. We can reduce or eliminate stereotypes and misperceptions by not overlooking the external causes of behavior, identifying and confronting personal stereotypes, evaluating people on objective facts, and avoiding rash judgments.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 82 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 102) Define the term "stereotype" and explain why people stereotype others.

Answer: Stereotyping is the fitting of others into categories. These ideas are what come to mind when we see particular people or groups of people. Most often they are negative, and they are often assumptions. We rely on stereotypes, because it saves us cognitive effort, and it helps us deal with the multitudes of people we encounter; in short, stereotypes are mental shorthand. In organizations, stereotypes may hinder the firm by eliminating a good job candidate or limiting a person's opportunities.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 84-86 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21 .

103) What is 'impression management'? Describe the term and offer some tips as to how it is done.

Answer: Impression management is simply looking good to prospective employers. We all do things to control how others see us, attempting to make them see us in the best possible light.

Impressions may be based on subtle behaviors, such as dress and speech patterns, calculated efforts to manipulate others' impressions, self-promotion, and the flat assertion that one has the characteristics sought.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 86-89 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 104) Describe the processes involved in observational learning.

Answer: Observational learning is learning by imitating others. This type of learning by modeling occurs when someone acquires new knowledge vicariously by observing others. In the process, the learner must pay attention. Moreover, the learner must retain the model's behavior, must behaviorally reproduce the model's behavior, and must be motivated to learn from the model. This type of learning is common, especially in job-instruction training.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 93 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 105) What are the five key principles of effective training?

Answer: Promote participation: People not only learn more quickly but also retain the skills longer when they have been involved actively in the learning process. Encourage repetition: "Practice makes perfect," so repetition promotes learning. Use active learning: For learning to be most effective, learners should be involved in an active manner (completing some exercises) instead of a passive manner (listening to lectures only). Capitalize on transfer of training: For training to me most effective, what is learned during training sessions must be applied on the job.

Give feedback: No matter what the type of learning may be, it is extremely difficult for learning to occur in the absence of feedback; that is, knowledge of the results of one’s actions.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 97-98 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

22 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 4 Individual Differences: Personality, Skills, and Abilities 1) The unique and relatively stable pattern of behavior, thoughts, and emotions shown by individuals is known as: A) emotional intelligence.

B) intelligence quotient.

C) personality.

D) self-efficacy beliefs.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 111 2) According to the interactionist perspective in organizational behavior: A) behavior is solely determined by personality.

B) behavior is a function of personality and situational factors.

C) the environment is the dominant element in determining behavior.

D) personality is not a valuable concept even though certain traits do exist.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 112 3) The concept of personality is important in organizational behavior because: A) it is a relatively easy way to gather information about people helpful to matching them to jobs.

B) it invalidates certain management practices such as contingency management, showing them not to be effective.

C) it helps group people into teams as managers strive for a balance of personalities.

D) it helps us understand how individual characteristics combine with situations.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 112 4) While there are a variety of opinions on personality, an important determinant of human behavior is: A) the situation or setting of the behavior.

B) the age and general intelligence of the individual.

C) the gender and ethnic background of a person.

D) genetics; personality is almost solely determined by birth according to most social scientists.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 112 5) Studies show that people tend to perform well when: A) they have a high A-type personality and strong organizational skills.

B) they have low self-efficacy but high self-monitoring.

C) there is a match between their personalities and the characteristics of the jobs they perform.

D) they exhibit a Type B personality with a high emotional intelligence quotient.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 112 1 .

6) An example of an objective personality test would be: A) drawing a picture test and explaining it to a trained psychologist.

B) completing a questionnaire.

C) a thematic appreciation test.

D) a test like the General Management Aptitude Test.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 114-115 7) Joe was administered a test which used a series of question to determine his personality. This is an example of: A) projective tests.

B) objective tests.

C) reliability.

D) validity.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 115 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 8) Fran was administered a test which used ambiguous stimuli to determine his personality. This is an example of: A) projective tests.

B) objective tests.

C) reliability.

D) validity.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 115 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 9) A test's ________ reflects its consistency and stability over time.

A) reliability B) objectivity C) validity D) projectivity Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 115 10) Tom is using a personality test in the hiring process that yields consistent scores among all the applicants tested but frequently doesn't provide an accurate measure of the candidate's personality. This test has: A) high validity and low reliability.

B) high reliability and low validity.

C) low reliability and low validity.

D) high validity and high reliability.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 115 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 2 .

11) The extent to which a test measures what it is actually designed to measure is an indication of the test's: A) reliability.

B) objectivity.

C) validity.

D) projectivity.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 115 12) The XYZ Company has a friendly atmosphere, attentive to people. The XYZ Company has a personality that is: A) dominant.

B) innovative.

C) boy scout.

D) thrifty.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 118 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 13) The XYZ Company is successful and popular. The XYZ Company has a personality that is: A) dominant.

B) innovative.

C) boy scout.

D) thrifty.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 118 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 14) The Cologne Company is interesting and unique. The Cologne Company has a personality that is: A) dominant.

B) innovative.

C) boy scout.

D) thrifty.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 118 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 15) The Potter Company is poor and sloppy. The Potter Company has a personality that is: A) dominant.

B) innovative.

C) boy scout.

D) thrifty.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 118 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 3 .

16) The Guidance Company is modern and contemporary. The Guidance Company has a personality that is: A) dominant.

B) innovative.

C) boy scout.

D) stylish.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 118 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 17) The personality dimension ________ is at one end good-natured, gentle, cooperative, etc., and irritable, ruthless, suspicious, at the other end.

A) conscientiousness B) extroversion-introversion C) agreeableness D) emotional stability Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 119 18) ________ is the tendency to show self-discipline and strive for competence and achievement.

A) Conscientiousness B) Extroversion C) Openness to experience D) Emotional stability Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 119 19) The personality dimension found to most closely relate to task is: A) extroversion-introversion.

B) conscientiousness.

C) high self-monitoring skills.

D) emotional stability.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 119 20) The personality dimension ________ can be characterized by the statement "I usually feel sad or down."

A) conscientiousness B) extroversion-introversion C) agreeableness D) emotional stability Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 119

4 .

21) The Big Five personality dimension of ________ measures the tendency to seek stimulation and enjoy the company of other people.

A) conscientiousness B) extroversion C) agreeableness D) emotional stability Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 120 22) When OB researchers are discussing positive and negative affectivity they are discussing: A) an individual's mood state and the resulting demonstrated traits.

B) the achieving or missing of important personal goals.

C) the mood or affect of an individual.

D) the ability of someone to do the right thing.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 121 23) People with high levels of positive affectivity are likely to: A) be managers.

B) make superior decisions.

C) function less effectively.

D) be targets of aggression.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 122 24) Research on positive and negative affectivity on the job has shown: A) for MBA students, those with a strong negative affectivity were superior in managerial potential, accuracy, and overall performance than other students.

B) that the more positive the group's affective tone, the higher their efficiency as a group.

C) that groups with negative affectivity were more effective in problem solving than other groups.

D) they have little impact on job performance.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 122 25) People who are high in negative affectivity are likely to: A) be managers.

B) make superior decisions.

C) function more effectively.

D) be targets of aggression.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 122

5 .

26) In terms of core self-evaluations, the overall value one places on oneself as a person is: A) self-esteem.

B) generalized self-efficacy.

C) locus of control.

D) emotional stability.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 122 27) In terms of core self-evaluations, the person's belief about his or her capacity to perform specific tasks successfully is: A) self-esteem.

B) generalized self-efficacy.

C) locus of control.

D) emotional stability.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 122 28) The belief in one's own capacity to perform a task is known as: A) self-esteem.

B) self-efficacy.

C) self-monitoring.

D) positive affectivity.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 122 29) In terms of core self-evaluations, the extent to which an individual feels that he or she is able to control things is: A) self-esteem.

B) generalized self-efficacy.

C) locus of control.

D) emotional stability.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 122 30) In terms of core self-evaluations, the tendency to see oneself as confident, secure and steady is: A) self-esteem.

B) generalized self-efficacy.

C) locus of control.

D) emotional stability.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 122

6 .

31) Individuals with high self-efficacy on the job: A) tend to do more with less effort.

B) don't expect to succeed in new tasks.

C) tend to succeed, more than people with low self-efficacy.

D) also tend to be Type B personalities.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 32) The notion that one should never show humility: A) learning goal orientation.

B) performance goal orientation.

C) avoidance goal orientation.

D) Machiavellianism.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 33) The notion that it is much better to be feared than loved is associated with: A) learning goal orientation.

B) performance goal orientation.

C) avoidance goal orientation.

D) Machiavellianism.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 34) In his book entitled The Prince, Niccolo Machiavelli's guiding principles included: A) never show humility.

B) it is much better to be feared than loved.

C) morality and ethics are for the weak.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 35) The notion that morality is for the weak is: A) learning goal orientation.

B) performance goal orientation.

C) avoidance goal orientation.

D) Machiavellianism.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124

7 .

36) If Tanya believes that you need to do whatever it takes and that it is better to be feared than liked, she is demonstrating high: A) self-monitoring.

B) self-efficacy.

C) Type A personality.

D) Machiavellianism.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124-125 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 37) Machiavellianism is noted for which of the following principles?

A) Do whatever it takes to get the job done right.

B) It is better to be humble than formidable.

C) Do whatever it takes to defeat others or gain advantage over them.

D) The rights of the individual cease when they impact the rights of the group.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 38) If a person believes that the best way to deal with people is to tell them what they want to hear, not to tell them the real reason he/she are asking for something, and to push them, because they don't work hard unless watched, this person is exhibiting: A) low self-efficacy.

B) high "Mach" behavior.

C) a Type A personality.

D) high self-monitoring skills.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 39) "High Machs" are most likely to get their own way: A) in loosely structured situations, with few established rules.

B) when people victimized by them talk about it, creating fear of their successes.

C) when others pay attention to their actions rather than their words.

D) in all of the above situations.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 40) "High Machs" will perform better than "low Machs" on jobs that are: A) highly structured.

B) loosely structured.

C) stable, low in emotional content.

D) All of the above.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125

8 .

41) The strength of an individual's desire to excel is known as: A) achievement motivation.

B) power motivation.

C) affiliation motivation.

D) self-monitoring.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 125 42) As managers, individuals with high achievement needs: A) tend to delegate too much.

B) have strong affiliation needs.

C) do not want feedback on their performance.

D) tend to be rapidly promoted.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 127 43) If someone is low in achievement motivation, they will: A) avoid all responsibility.

B) also be high in affiliation motivation.

C) seek either very hard or very easy tasks.

D) be high in self-efficacy.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 126 44) People who are high in achievement motivation seek: A) extremely difficult tasks.

B) to be in charge.

C) close, friendly relationships.

D) moderately difficult tasks.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 126 45) If a manager is high in the need for achievement, he/she will most likely: A) also be high in his/her need for power.

B) avoid very easy or very difficult tasks.

C) seek projects that no one else can complete.

D) do none of these.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 126

9 .

46) The desire to perform well because it satisfies an interest in meeting a challenge and learning new skills is: A) learning goal orientation.

B) performance goal orientation.

C) avoidance goal orientation.

D) Machiavellianism.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 127 47) The desire to perform well to demonstrate one's competence in others is: A) learning goal orientation.

B) performance goal orientation.

C) avoidance goal orientation.

D) Machiavellianism.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 127 48) The desire to achieve success to avoid appearing incompetent is: A) learning goal orientation.

B) performance goal orientation.

C) avoidance goal orientation.

D) Machiavellianism.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 127 49) Studies show that: A) there is a strong relationship between the cultural attitude toward achievement motivation and economic growth.

B) there is virtually no relationship between a country's economic growth and the cultural valuing of achievement motivation.

C) strong affiliation motivation led to strong economic development in countries.

D) there is a strong correlation to a country's valuing of power motivation and the country's economic development.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 129 50) An individual's ________ is/are his/her mental and physical capacities to perform various tasks.

A) emotional intelligence B) personality C) traits D) abilities Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 130

10 .

51) ________ is the capacity to perform various tasks.

A) Ability B) Personality C) Motivation D) Componential intelligence Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 130 52) The ability to understand complex ideas, adapt effectively to the environment, and learn from experience is known as an individual's ________ intelligence.

A) practical B) contextual C) emotional D) cognitive Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 131 53) The ability to understand written material quickly and accurately is: A) verbal comprehension.

B) verbal reasoning.

C) word fluency.

D) symbolic reasoning.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 131 54) The ability to express oneself rapidly, easily, and with flexibility is: A) verbal comprehension.

B) verbal reasoning.

C) word fluency.

D) symbolic reasoning.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 131 55) The ability to analyze verbal information so as to make valid judgments on the basis of logical implications of material is: A) verbal comprehension.

B) verbal reasoning.

C) word fluency.

D) symbolic reasoning.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 131

11 .

56) The ability to perform basic mathematical operations quickly is: A) numerical ability.

B) space visualization.

C) numerical reasoning.

D) symbolic reasoning.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 131 57) The ability to analyze logical relationships and to recognize the underlying principles is: A) numerical ability.

B) space visualization.

C) numerical reasoning.

D) symbolic reasoning.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 131 58) The ability to visualize three-dimensional forms in space is: A) numerical ability.

B) space visualization.

C) numerical reasoning.

D) symbolic reasoning.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 131 59) The ability to think and reason abstractly using symbols rather than words or numbers is: A) space visualization.

B) enlightenment.

C) cosmic consciousness.

D) symbolic reasoning.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 131 60) Hector has a gift for getting jobs done. Whatever the task, he is able to figure out a way to do it. Hector is high in: A) cognitive intelligence.

B) tacit knowledge.

C) emotional intelligence.

D) practical intelligence.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 131 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

12 .

61) The cascading model of emotional intelligence proposes that emotional intelligence influences job performance through the ability to: A) perceive emotions.

B) understand emotions.

C) regulate emotions.

D) All of these.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 133 62) The ability to recognize and regulate personal emotions, influence those of others, and to be self-motivating is an individual's: A) cognitive intelligence.

B) level of self-efficacy.

C) emotional intelligence.

D) practical intelligence.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 133 63) Testing takes a variety of forms. When employees are tested for flexibility and strength, they are having their ________ tested.

A) cognitive abilities B) memories C) physical abilities D) emotional intelligence Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134 64) The ability to exert physical force against an object is known as: A) strength.

B) flexibility.

C) stamina.

D) speed.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134 65) The capacity to move one's body in an agile manner is known as: A) strength.

B) flexibility.

C) stamina.

D) speed.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134

13 .

66) Almost all jobs require ________ for success.

A) physical abilities only B) cognitive abilities only C) both cognitive and physical abilities D) neither cognitive nor physical abilities Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134-135 67) The capacity to endure physical activity is known as: A) strength.

B) flexibility.

C) stamina.

D) speed.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134 68) The ability to move quickly is known as: A) strength.

B) flexibility.

C) stamina.

D) speed.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134 69) Accuracy in perceiving others is known as: A) impression management.

B) persuasion and social influence.

C) social adaptability.

D) social perception.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 135 70) Proficiency in the use of a wide range of techniques for inducing positive reactions in others is known as: A) impression management.

B) persuasion and social influence.

C) social adaptability.

D) social perception.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 135

14 .

71) Skill at using various techniques to change others' attitudes is known as: A) impression management.

B) persuasion and social influence.

C) social adaptability.

D) social perception.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 135 Table 4.1 The HR director is reviewing personality files. She is reviewing the five dimensions of personality. She notes that Jane is described as imaginative, curious, and urbane. Peter is profiled as quiet, cautious, and reserved. Tim's file describes him as down-to-earth, simple, and narrow.

The HR director reviews her own profile and sees that she is described as sad and out of control.

72) Refer to Table 4.1. The HR director's review of Peter is focusing on the personality dimension of: A) conscientiousness.

B) extraversion.

C) agreeableness.

D) openness to experience.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 119 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 73) Refer to Table 4.1. The HR director's review of Jane is focusing on the personality dimension of: A) conscientiousness.

B) extroversion.

C) agreeableness.

D) openness to experience.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 119 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 74) Refer to Table 4.1. The HR director's own profile seems to be focused on the personality dimension of: A) conscientiousness.

B) extroversion-introversion.

C) emotional stability.

D) openness to experience.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 119 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

15 .

Table 4.2 Bill and Tom are discussing the personalities of their assembly line workers. They agree that Lee Chin always seems to see the positive side of everything. He takes breakdowns on the line as challenges. On the other hand, Henrietta goes into a depression when there are difficulties. Ted is very time focused and gets a great of work done, but is irritable when working with others, particularly if things aren't going well. Joan is really good with complex work that needs to be accurate. She is less time motivated and works well with others. During this review, Bill wants to get the job done and move on to other work. He's a bit frustrated by Tom's slow pace and desire to be sure they are considering every aspect of each employee's behavior.

75) Refer to Table 4.2. Lee Chin seems to exhibit: A) positive affectivity.

B) a Type B personality behavior pattern.

C) negative affectivity.

D) a Type A personality behavior pattern.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 121 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 76) Refer to Table 4.2. Henrietta's behavior is typical of: A) positive affectivity.

B) a Type B personality behavior pattern.

C) negative affectivity.

D) a Type A personality behavior pattern.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 121 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16 .

Table 4.3 During cocktails before a company management dinner, a group of managers gathers and are talking with each other. Simone, a financial analyst, actively manages her career. She actively participates in decisions when asked, seeking to influence the outcome of the discussion. When she runs into a situation that she doesn't have instructions about, she makes decisions on her own, innovates, or in some way tries to handle the situation, rather than sit back and wait for instructions. Peter is the newly hired director of personnel. He comes from a line position. While he's never done this type of staff work before, he says, "How hard can it be after managing a quality-driven production line for four years? I've read about HR management and followed the old HR director around for several weeks before she retired and I took over. Piece of cake." His comments really angered a couple of HR professionals standing in the group. They feel their profession and careers aren't taken seriously by Peter, their new boss. One of those HR professionals, Erica, smiles and responds to Peter, "Sounds like you anticipate a great deal of success with your new responsibilities. I know when I take on new opportunities, I always look forward with anticipation." Erica matches her comments, rate of speech, etc. to match Peter's rapid fire, off-the cuff style. Mark, an operations manager, expresses his approval of Peter's perspective. "You know, once you've had a line job in production, staff work is easy. But the real key to success is to remember to do whatever it takes to get the job done." Mark thinks that Peter may be of help to him in his career in the position of HR director. Mark is willing to say or do almost anything to ingratiate himself with Peter.

77) Refer to Table 4.3. Peter seems to be an individual with: A) high self-monitoring skills.

B) a Type B personality.

C) a proactive personality.

D) high self-efficacy skills.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 122 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 78) Refer to Table 4.3. Mark would seem to be: A) a high Mach.

B) a Type A personality.

C) high in self-monitoring.

D) low in self-efficacy.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 79) If a personality test is reliable, it does not have to be valid to provide useful and legal data.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 115 80) The degree to which an individual is creative, curious, and cultured versus practical describes his/her Big Five personality dimension of openness to experience.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 119 17 .

81) Both openness to experience and agreeableness correlate highly with effective job performance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 120 82) Self-efficacy is a personality characteristic that can be changed.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 83) The concept of Machiavellianism stems from a ruthless strategy for seizing and holding political power in the 16th century.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 84) Someone who is a high "Mach" has a personality similar to that of a con artist.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 85) Individuals who are a "high Machs" might neglect to share important information with you or fail to meet their obligations if doing so will advance them and undermine others.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 86) Research has shown that Machiavellianism is closely related to success in the kinds of job in which people operate with a great deal of autonomy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 87) Individuals with a high need to achieve will always tackle the toughest jobs to prove themselves.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 126 88) About 30% of people in the US labor force work at night or on rotating schedules.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 128 89) Research shows that individual differences for various times of the day are real and are important to job performance.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 128-129 90) The ability to solve everyday problems and get things done is an example of one's practical intelligence.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 131 18 .

91) Both practical and cognitive intelligence are measured by IQ tests as they both consist of verbal, math, and reasoning skills.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 133 92) Culture-free IQ tests are biased because they do not give an advantage to members of any one particular group.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 132 93) The capacity to move one's body in an agile manner is known as speed.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134 94) The capacity to endure physical activity is known as stamina.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134 95) The ability to move quickly is known as speed.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134 96) Accuracy in perceiving others is known as social adaptability.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 135 97) Proficiency in the use of a wide range of techniques for inducing positive reactions in others is known as social perception.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 135 98) Skill at using various techniques to change others' attitudes is known as persuasion and social influence.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 135

19 .

99) Identify and explain the "Big Five" dimensions of personality.

Answer: The Big Five are part of the work-related aspects of personality. Conscientiousness is a dimension that ranges from careful, thorough, responsible, organized, etc., to irresponsible, disorganized, etc. Extroversion is the dimension that ranges from sociable, talkative, assertive, active, to retiring, sober, reserved, and cautious. Agreeableness is a dimension that ranges from good-natured, gentle, cooperative, forgiving, and hopeful, to irritable, ruthless, suspicious, etc.

Neuroticism is a dimension that ranges from anxious, depressed, angry, emotionally insecure, etc., to calm, enthusiastic, poised, and secure. Openness to experience is a dimension that ranges from imaginative, sensitive, intellectual, and polished, to down-to-earth, insensitive, narrow, crude, and simple. Many researchers believe these five dimensions are foundational to personality, and there does seem to be a correlation between them and job success.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 118-120 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 100) How do you increase self-efficacy among employees?

Answer: There are three main ways to increase self-efficacy among employees. First, the employee must be given constructive rather than destructive feedback. Second, the employee must be exposed to models of good performance and success. Third, the employees must be asked to seek continuous improvement.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 123-124 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 101) Define Machiavellianism and review its tenets.

Answer: In 1513, Niccolo Machiavelli published a book, titled The Prince. In it, he outlined a ruthless strategy for seizing and holding political power. Some of his guiding principles are as follows: Never show humility; arrogance is far more effective when dealing with others.

Morality and ethics are for the weak; powerful people feel free to cheat, lie, and practice deception whenever doing so will suit their purpose. It is better to be feared than loved. In short, Machiavelli urged those who desired power to adopt a single-minded approach to success–doing whatever it takes to win.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 124-125 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

20 .

102) Discuss the three major aspects of the intellectual abilities of an individual, explaining each and its relevance to human behavior in organizations.

Answer: Traditionally, when people speak about someone's "intelligence," they are referring to a specific form that psychologists call cognitive intelligence, which is the ability to understand complex ideas, to adapt effectively to the environment, to learn from experience, to engage in various forms of reasoning, and to overcome obstacles by careful thought. This approach to intelligence has been around for more than 100 years, but today's scientists see that it may be very limited. Instead, they recognize that intelligence is not simply a matter of "how much?" but also of "what kind?" They have identified several different forms of intelligence. One of these is practical intelligence or what we commonly refer to "street smarts"; people with high amounts of practical intelligence are adept at solving the problems of everyday life. Another form, emotional intelligence, refers to someone's abilities to be sensitive to people's emotions. Growing evidence suggests that practical intelligence is, indeed, different from that measured by IQ tests, and that it is especially important in business settings. Emotional intelligence (or EQ), refers to a cluster of abilities relating to the emotional or "feeling" side of life. Growing evidence indicates that several aspects of emotional intelligence highly relate to the financial success of entrepreneurs.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 130-134 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 103) Discuss the three types of goal orientations.

Answer: Learning goal orientation is the desire to perform well because it satisfies an interest in meeting a challenge and learning new skills. Performance goal orientation is the desire to perform well to demonstrate one's competence to others. Avoidance goal orientation is the desire to achieve success to avoid appearing incompetent and receiving negative evaluations from others.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 127 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 104) Discuss the interactionist approach to personality and situations.

Answer: Although people possess stable traits and characteristics that predispose them to behave in certain ways, these qualities by themselves do not determine how one is likely to behave. In other words, the way someone behaves is the result of both his or her characteristics (e.g., knowledge, skills, and personality) and the nature of the situation in which that person operates (e.g., the job and industry, the country where the job is performed, etc.). This approach, known as the interactionist approach, is very popular in OB today.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 111 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 105) What are reliability and validity, and why are they of critical importance to personality testing?

Answer: Reliability is the degree to which a test yields stable, consistent scores over time.

Validity is the extent to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 115 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21 .

106) How does achievement motivation shape human behavior in organizations?

Answer: Achievement motivation–the quest for excellence–refers to the strength of an individual's desire to excel. People who are low in achievement motivation like easy tasks since they are virtually certain to succeed in performing them. They also prefer very difficult tasks, even though they are likely to fail at them. If a task were particularly difficult, failing at that task would not be their fault but merely a reflection of the inherent difficulty of the task. Since their failure to perform would depend on external circumstances, failure would not threaten their selfesteem. On the other hand, people who are high in achievement motivation prefer tasks of moderate difficulty. Such tasks are easy enough to make success reasonable while at the same time sufficiently difficult to make it possible to dismiss any resulting failure based on the task’s difficulty.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 125-127 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 107) What is emotional intelligence (EI)?

Answer: Emotional intelligence (EI) is the ability to make accurate judgments of emotions and to use such knowledge to enhance the quality of one’s thinking. EI skills include the ability to recognize and regulate our own emotions, to influence the emotions of others, and to facilitate performance.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 132-134 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 108) Identify the four types of physical ability.

Answer: (1) Strength is the capacity to exert physical force against various objects, (2) flexibility is the capacity to move one's body in an agile manner, (3) stamina is the capacity to endure physical activity over prolonged periods, and (4) speed is the ability to move quickly.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 134

22 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 5 Coping with Organizational Life: Emotions and Stress 1) Overt reactions that express feelings about events are called: A) moods.

B) expressions.

C) emotions.

D) All of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 145 2) Informal standards concerning the appropriate ways to express emotions are called: A) display rules.

B) culture.

C) norms.

D) emotion rules.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 145 3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a social emotion?

A) Pity B) Jealousy C) Scorn D) Pride Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 147 4) Which of the following is NOT an example of a self-conscious emotion?

A) Guilt B) Embarrassment C) Scorn D) Pride Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 146 5) Mood is a combination of both: A) who we are and conditions we face.

B) feelings and personality.

C) emotions and personality.

D) emotions and environment.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 148

1 .

6) Happier people tend to ________ less happy people.

A) under-perform B) out-perform C) take more jobs than D) Both A and C. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 149 7) Happy employees are ________ than less happy people.

A) less inclined to resign B) more inclined to resign C) less highly paid D) working for less profitable organizations Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 149 8) Positive mood helps people: A) recall positive things.

B) recall negative things.

C) do less work.

D) Both B and C. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 151 9) The ________ identifies various factors that lead to people's emotional reactions on the job and how their reactions affect them.

A) core self-evaluation model B) accommodative processing paradigm C) assimilative processing schematic D) affective events theory Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 151-152 10) When Berry is dealing with an irate customer, he finds himself biting his tongue to keep himself from saying what he really wants to say. This is referred to as emotional: A) dissonance.

B) labor.

C) conflict.

D) incongruence.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 152 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

2 .

11) As a flight attendant, Mary Ann is supposed to smile and act cheerful at all times on the flight; however, she feels tired and annoyed. The conflict between the emotion she feels and the emotion she is required to express is called emotional: A) dissonance.

B) labor.

C) conflict.

D) incongruence.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 153 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 12) Emotions that people actually experienced are known as: A) known emotions.

B) displayed emotions.

C) felt emotions.

D) processed emotions.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 154 13) Emotions that people show others are known as: A) known emotions.

B) displayed emotions.

C) felt emotions.

D) processed emotions.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 154 14) All of the following are ways to control anger EXCEPT: A) practice relaxation.

B) change the way you think.

C) use humor.

D) stay in the room to confront the situation.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 155 15) The practice of ________ consists of systematic efforts to reduce people's feelings of anger and the physiological arousal caused by those feelings.

A) psychological exploration B) interpersonal intervention C) cross-functional counseling D) anger management Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 168

3 .

16) Which type of stressor has the longest-term effect on body, mind, and spirit?

A) Chronic stressor B) Acute stressor C) Episodic stressor D) None of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 156 17) Growing evidence suggests that high levels of stress adversely affect: A) physical health.

B) psychological well-being.

C) task performance.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 155 18) Stressors are: A) the effects of stress.

B) the complex pattern of emotional, physiological, and related thoughts.

C) the interpretations a person makes of stress and strain.

D) the external demands that create stress.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 156 19) Stress occurs when: A) a situation is perceived as threatening to important goals.

B) people believe they can cope with the potential dangers.

C) the situation faced is difficult, but not out of control.

D) someone's expectations are met unexpectedly.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 156 20) Strain is different from stress in that: A) strain is less serious than stress.

B) strain is a reaction to stress.

C) strain is a cause of stress.

D) strain refers to physical reactions, while stress refers to mental reactions.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 158 21) Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause greater, higher levels of stress?

A) Constant monitoring of electronic devices B) Working in unpleasant physical conditions C) Performing unstructured tasks D) Making few decisions Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 160 4 .

22) The most highly stressed job in the U.S. is ________.

A) used car salesperson B) civil engineer C) inner-city high school teacher D) air traffic controller Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 23) One example of a job that is generally not stressful is: A) forester.

B) public relations executive.

C) real estate agent.

D) advertising account executive.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 24) When people confront incompatible demands from their work and personal lives, they experience: A) role conflict.

B) qualitative overload.

C) role ambiguity.

D) social isolation.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 161 25) Switching back and forth between the demands of work and family is called: A) role conflict.

B) role juggling.

C) role ambiguity.

D) qualitative overload.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 161 26) Ronda is a vice president of marketing and mother to three young children. Ronda is probably experiencing which of the following?

A) Role conflict B) Qualitative overload C) Role juggling D) Social isolation Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

5 .

27) Which of the following is a potent source of stress for working parents?

A) role ambiguity.

B) qualitative overload.

C) role juggling.

D) social isolation.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 28) When a person experiences stress due to gender-related unwanted communication or contact, she is likely experiencing which of the following: A) role conflict.

B) quantitative underload.

C) role ambiguity.

D) sexual harassment.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 29) When asked whether they had ever been the object of sexual advances, propositions, or unwanted sexual discussions from men who supervise them, ________ of the women surveyed answered "yes."

A) 30% B) 40% C) 50% D) 60% Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 161 30) The current state of the problem of sexual harassment in the workplace is indicated by the fact that: A) men are now experiencing sexual harassment more than women.

B) one-half of the men polled in a recent survey admitted to having done something that might be construed as sexual harassment.

C) over 2/3 of employed women indicated they had been the object of sexual harassment.

D) there has been a significant decline in sexual harassment complaints filed with the EEOC. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 31) Of 1300 Americans surveyed, what percentage reported that they routinely skipped lunch?

A) 25% B) 40% C) 50% D) 75% Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 163

6 .

32) Of 1300 Americans surveyed, what percentage reported that they worked over 12 hours a day?

A) 25% B) 37% C) 52% D) 75% Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 163 33) If you are suffering from information anxiety, you feel: A) bombarded by information.

B) guilty because you lack important information.

C) worried that you may be caught not knowing something that others know.

D) Any of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 34) People experience stress when: A) expectations over role are resolved.

B) they have too little to do.

C) role ambiguity is relieved.

D) they have no responsibility for others.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 35) As a general rule, the effects of stress on task performance are: A) mostly negative.

B) curvilinear in nature.

C) mostly positive.

D) negative at moderate levels, but positive at higher levels.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 164 36) Some people violate the general rule regarding stress and function very well even under high levels of stress. This is likely to be the case when: A) they are highly skilled.

B) they perceive the situation as a threat.

C) the task at hand is perceived as very easy.

D) they are Type B personalities.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165

7 .

37) Women are more likely than men to cope with stress by doing which of the following?

A) Eating a proper diet B) Exercising regularly C) Talking to their friends about their problems D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 166 38) Lashing out at others in response to stressful encounters at work is called: A) desk rage.

B) information anxiety.

C) role conflict.

D) strain.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 165 39) According to some estimates, stress plays a role in ________ percent of physical illness.

A) 20-30 B) 30-40 C) 40-60 D) 50-70 Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 165 40) Smoking, drug and alcohol use, and violence are all examples of ________ consequences of stress.

A) behavioral B) medical C) psychological D) physiological Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 166 41) One example of a health problem that can be caused by stress is: A) stroke.

B) cirrhosis of the liver.

C) lung disease.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 166

8 .

42) Which of the following is NOT a behavioral consequence of stress?

A) Smoking B) Drug abuse C) Alcohol abuse D) Family conflict Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 166 43) Which of the following is a psychological consequence of stress?

A) Smoking B) Drug abuse C) Alcohol abuse D) Family conflict Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 166 44) Which of the following is NOT a medical consequence of stress?

A) Ulcers B) Cancer C) Alcohol abuse D) Diabetes Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 166 45) The friendship and support of others that helps minimize stress is referred to as: A) work support.

B) kinship.

C) social support.

D) None of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 163 46) Social support can help: A) boost self-esteem.

B) provide diversions.

C) provide needed resources.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 164

9 .

47) Ray is feeling helpless, depressed, and trapped in his job after three months of 100-hour work weeks weren't sufficient to win a big contract for his company. Ray is probably experiencing: A) work strain.

B) emotional exhaustion.

C) physical exhaustion.

D) cognitive exhaustion.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 159 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 48) Characteristics of depersonalization include: A) an attitude of exhaustion.

B) tendency to become cynical.

C) tendency to derogate others.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 159 49) In dealing with desk rage, experts suggest that you: A) identify the trigger.

B) deal with the feud within the workplace.

C) try to confront the person.

D) encourage all involved to confront the issue immediately.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165 50) Which of the following characteristics of burnout is associated with low energy?

A) Depersonalization B) Emotional exhaustion C) Physical exhaustion D) Feelings of low personal accomplishment Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 159 51) Which of the following characteristics of burnout is associated with feelings of helplessness and depression?

A) Depersonalization B) Emotional exhaustion C) Physical exhaustion D) Feelings of low personal accomplishment Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 159

10 .

52) Which of the following characteristics of burnout is associated with attitudinal exhaustion?

A) Depersonalization B) Emotional exhaustion C) Physical exhaustion D) Feelings of low personal accomplishment Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 159 53) Which of the following characteristics of burnout is associated with the feeling that one hasn't been able to accomplish much?

A) Depersonalization B) Emotional exhaustion C) Physical exhaustion D) Feelings of low personal accomplishment Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 159 54) When Jose thinks about his work, he has a nagging feeling that he hasn't been able to accomplish much. This is an example of: A) depersonalization.

B) emotional exhaustion.

C) physical exhaustion.

D) feelings of low personal accomplishment.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 159 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 55) Julia has powerful feelings of helplessness and a sense of ongoing depression. This is an example of: A) depersonalization.

B) emotional exhaustion.

C) physical exhaustion.

D) feelings of low personal accomplishment.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 159 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 56) Plans that help employees with problems such as substance abuse, career planning, and legal problems are called: A) stress management programs.

B) organizational citizenship programs.

C) employee assistance programs.

D) None of these.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 167

11 .

57) Burnout can be caused by: A) not feeling appreciated.

B) prolonged exposure to stress.

C) poor opportunities for promotion.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 159 58) In what percentage of cases in which EAP services are provided are work losses avoided?

A) 15% B) 30% C) 40% D) 60% Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 167 59) An organization attempting to lower its employees' levels of stress could: A) downsize its workforce.

B) implement wellness programs.

C) restructure the organization.

D) do all of the above.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 167 60) Many of today’s companies offer ________ to provide their workers with assistance for various personal problems, such as substance abuse, career planning, and financial or legal problems.

A) wellness programs B) time management programs C) employee assistance programs D) tough love programs Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 167 61) A recent comprehensive survey comparing the stressors faced by men and women in the workplace concluded that ________.

A) women encountered more changes and greater pressure to perform well on the job B) chaotic, demanding jobs are more likely to be stressful for women than for men C) women are more likely than men are to be victims of sexual harassment on the job D) All of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 166

12 .

62) ________ is the practice of showing up for work but being too sick to work effectively.

A) True grit B) Presenteeism C) Disassociation D) Cognitive dissonance Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 167 63) One of the most important considerations when managing time is: A) assigning priorities to tasks.

B) accurately assessing how much time each task will take.

C) carefully keeping track of what needs to be accomplished.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 169 64) Research has shown that when people have social support: A) their ability to resist the adverse effects of stress increases.

B) their ability to resist the adverse effects of stress decreases.

C) they experience less strength.

D) they are less likely to experience role ambiguity.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 65) The effects of stress can be minimized by: A) taking work problems home at the end of the day and working on them at your leisure.

B) getting into better physical condition.

C) using emotion-focused coping rather than problem-focused coping.

D) consuming less fiber-rich foods.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 167 66) The process of learning to clear one's mind of external thoughts is called: A) relaxation training.

B) meditation.

C) coping.

D) focusing.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 168

13 .

67) When confronted with rising tension, people may find it useful to make a conscious decision to insert a brief period of delay known as: A) meditation.

B) time-out.

C) equilibrium restoration.

D) cosmic consciousness.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 170 Table 5.1 Will is experiencing stress at work because he is not clear about what to do in his new job, what his work priorities should be. His boss is out due to major surgery, and no one else knows what his job is. Jane is a typical 2010 woman; good career, married, and with a small child. As her career advances she is experiencing more and more stress because her husband wants her home more. Her parents are proud of her career success, yet they keep saying things like, "No sense having children if you're going to let someone else raise them." Tom is in a matrix reporting relationship with several other people. His boss has authority over the whole matrix; Tom does not, yet Tom is responsible for the performance of the people in the matrix. He isn't sure who he can tell what to do and who he has to let his boss tell. A deadline is approaching, and Tom is stressed out. Tom's boss, John, is also stressed. He isn't clarifying who reports to whom because he worries about everyone and doesn't want to let go of watching over them. He thinks that he may have to terminate Jane because her home situation is interfering so much with work that it is creating problems for the project. He is agonizing over this. Having been fired once in his career, he knows how painful it can be.

68) Refer to Table 5.1. Jane's stress seems most likely to be caused by: A) quantitative overload.

B) role conflict.

C) sexual harassment.

D) role ambiguity.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 69) Refer to Table 5.1. Tom's stress is being caused by: A) quantitative overload.

B) role conflict.

C) qualitative overload.

D) role ambiguity.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 162 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14 .

70) Refer to Table 5.1. Which of the following strategies would be of the most help to Will at this point in his career?

A) More information about his job duties B) Family-supportive practices C) A stress management program D) Life balancing through exercise and diet Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 162 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 71) Refer to Table 5.1. Will is experiencing stress due to: A) quantitative overload.

B) role conflict.

C) qualitative overload.

D) role ambiguity.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 162 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 72) Refer to Table 5.1. John's stress is apparently a function of: A) being responsible for others.

B) social isolation.

C) qualitative overload.

D) role ambiguity.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 73) An emotion can be defined as a feeling that exists in the background and is not overt.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 145 74) People throughout the world generally portray particular emotions by using the same facial expressions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 145 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 75) Culture has little to do with how and when people express emotions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 145 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

15 .

76) Cultural norms in Great Britain encourage people there to "tone down" their emotional displays.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 145 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 77) People have an infinite number of different emotions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 145 78) There are 5 major categories of emotions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 145 79) Jobs that include decision-making responsibilities are less stressful than non-decisionmaking jobs because the ability to make decisions gives the employee more control.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 160 80) For sexual harassment to exist there must be overt, extreme, and unpleasant actions of a sexual nature directly specifically at a person of the opposite sex.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 81) It can be as stressful to have too little to do as it is to have too much to do.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 82) Approximately 40% of U.S. workers rate their jobs as highly stressful most of the time.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 155 83) Tense muscles, higher blood pressure, and an elevated heart rate are all symptoms of stress.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 159 84) Experts believe that stress contributes to 50 to 70 percent of all forms of physical illness.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 165 85) When compared with men, women generally have a harder time coping with stress.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 166

16 .

86) A psychological consequence of stress is drug abuse.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 166 87) A medical consequence of stress is diabetes.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 166 88) Burnout can be marked by cynical attitudes, a tendency to minimize your own contributions, and a feeling of physical or emotional depletion.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 159 89) A symptom of depersonalization is attitudinal exhaustion.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 159 90) An individual experiencing high levels of stress may have a weakened immune system.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 159 91) Women tend to cope more effectively with workplace stress than men do.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 166 92) Time management can be an effective personal stress management strategy.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 168 93) One downfall of a strong social support system is that it can sometimes cause more stress by providing diversion.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 164

17 .

94) Identify and explain the sources of work-related stress.

Answer: Work settings often are highly stressful environments for the following reasons.

Occupational demands can cause stress, especially in jobs such as firefighters, senior executives, and surgeons. Conflict between work and non-work, such as the constant juggling of work and family responsibilities, can expose those involved to role conflict–the incompatibility between the expectations of parties or the aspects of a single role. Role ambiguity occurs when individuals experience uncertainty about what actions they should take to meet the requirements of a job.

Overload and underload are important elements. Being asked to do too much can be stressful; so too can being asked to do too little. The lack of social support can cause managers to feel alone, especially when making undesirable decisions. Sexual harassment is far from rare in today's workplace. Indeed, in one recent poll, fully 30 percent of employed women indicated they had encountered such harassment at least once. Managers must motivate, reward or punish, and communicate with others. Having responsibility for others can cause managers to experience higher levels of stress and the physical symptoms accompanying it (e.g., hypertension) than those who handle other organizational areas.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 160-164 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 95) Discuss those conditions under which individuals at work are more likely to experience higher levels of stress.

Answer: The conditions under which individuals are likely to experience higher levels of stress are those in which the following activities exist: making decisions, constantly monitoring devices or materials, repeatedly exchanging information with others, working in unpleasant physical conditions, and performing unstructured rather than structured tasks.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 160 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 96) What are the major effects of stress?

Answer: Stress can affect job performance. For some it will enhance performance; for most it will cause a deterioration in quality, "choking under pressure," unpleasant feelings, etc. It can lead to burnout and physical, emotional, and/or attitudinal exhaustion. It can significantly affect health, contributing to the development of degenerative diseases or weakening defenses against infectious diseases.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 159-160 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 97) Describe the major effects of organizational stress.

Answer: The most current evidence suggests that stress exerts mainly negative effects on tasks performance. The greater the stress people encounter on the job, the more adversely affected their job performance tends to be. Stress can also create desk rage, or the lashing out at others in response to stressful encounters on the job. Burnout is another side effect of organizational stress. Given these negative effects, stress has been called the "silent killer" creating some of the most serious and life-threatening ailments known to medical science.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 164-166 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

18 .

98) What are the four key properties of basic emotions?

Answer: 1. Emotions always have an object. 2. The spread of emotions is contagious. 3.

Expression of major emotions is universal. 4. Culture determines how and when people express emotions.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 145 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 99) Differentiate between emotional dissonance and emotional labor.

Answer: Emotional dissonance is the inconsistencies between the emotions we feel and the emotions we express. Emotional labor is the psychological effort involved in holding back one's true emotions.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 152-153 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 100) How can an individual better manage time to reduce stress?

Answer: There are three key things an individual can do to better manage time and reduce stress.

First, the individual should prioritize activities and distinguish between those that are urgent and those that can wait. Second, the individual should allocate time realistically and avoid overcommitting. Third, the individual should take control of time by making a "to do" list.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 169 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 101) What is meant by "burnout" and what are its major characteristics?

Answer: Burnout is an exhaustion-based syndrome. It can be physical (reduced energy and symptoms of physical strain), emotional (feeling depressed and helpless), and/or attitudinal (feelings of low personal accomplishment).

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 159-160 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 102) What tactics can be used to manage personal stress?

Answer: Time management, the practice of taking control of how one spends time, is a valuable skill for reducing a common stressor–time pressure. Eating a healthy diet and staying physically fit can greatly increase one’s ability to cope with stress. Meditation (the process of clearing one’s mind of external thoughts) can help to relieve the many sources of stress. One of the most effective ways to relieve stress-related problems is getting a good night’s sleep. The avoidance of negative self-talk can produce beneficial changes in attitude and increased resistance to stress.

When confronted with rising tension, people can take a time-out: taking a short break, getting a breath of fresh air, or action that will give them a few moments to themselves.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 168-170 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

19 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 6 Work-Related Attitudes: Prejudice, Job Satisfaction and Organizational Commitment 1) Attitudes are made up of three basic components including: A) a behavioral component.

B) a self-efficacy component.

C) an affective component.

D) an organizational commitment component.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 178 2) When we speak of liking or disliking someone or something, we are talking about the ________ component of our attitude toward that person or object.

A) behavioral B) cognitive C) affective D) evaluative Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 178 3) Kim knows that all women bosses are difficult to work with, so she's not looking forward to meeting her boss. Turns out her boss is both competent and pleasant. Kim's "knowledge" of her boss is an example of which component of an attitude?

A) Behavioral B) Cognitive C) Affective D) Evaluative Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 178 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 4) Dirk tends to put as little effort into his job as possible because he believes what he does at work has little impact on how he is viewed, compensated, or promoted. Dirk's actions represent the ________ component of his attitude about work.

A) evaluative B) cognitive C) affective D) behavioral Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 179 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

1 .

5) Attitudes are: A) temporary feelings about something.

B) a combination of positive and/or negative feelings about one's job.

C) relatively stable clusters of feelings, beliefs, and behavior tendencies.

D) negative views of others based on the group one believes they belong to.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 178-179 6) A prejudicial attitude is made up of several elements, including: A) a negative stereotype.

B) an evaluative judgment.

C) a behavioral predisposition.

D) All of these.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 179 7) A negative attitude we hold toward another, based on his/her membership in a particular group, is called: A) a stereotype.

B) discrimination.

C) groupism.

D) a prejudice.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 179 8) White men now represent less than ________ percent of the American workforce.

A) 50 B) 40 C) 30 D) 20 Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 179 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 9) The nature of the workforce composition, in terms of age, gender and ethnic makeup, is known as: A) organizational logistics.

B) organizational demography.

C) discriminatory analysis.

D) stereotype recognition.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 179 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

2 .

10) Which of the following is true about companies' experience with older workers?

A) They tend to be out sick more often.

B) Most companies have found older workers difficult to train and slow to learn.

C) They have good skills, high commitment, and strong safety records.

D) Younger workers tend to displace them.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 182 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 11) The law enacted to safeguard the rights of people with physical and mental disabilities was the: A) Civil Rights Act of 1991.

B) Equal Employment Opportunities Act. C) Labor Relations Act of 1978.

D) Americans with Disabilities Act. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 183 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 12) Which of the following types of discrimination is not currently prohibited by federal law?

A) Discrimination based on age B) Discrimination based on sexual orientation C) Discrimination based on physical condition D) Discrimination based on gender Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 183-184 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 13) Complaints of prejudice and discrimination are filed at the: A) Congressional Office.

B) Center for Discrimination Studies.

C) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.

D) Equal Opportunity Administration.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 14) A survey of American workers has shown that religious bias: A) negatively impacts performance in almost half the people who reported it.

B) negatively impacts performance in almost a fourth of the people who reported it.

C) negatively impacts performance in almost three-quarters of people who reported it.

D) does not negatively impact performance.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

3 .

15) A recent study on diversity found that of the companies surveyed: A) about 75 % had diversity management policies in place.

B) nearly 1/2 of all companies were doing nothing at all.

C) about 1/3 of all companies thought diversity management was a top priority.

D) 83% reported it was a fad, and they were doing nothing in that area.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 187 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 16) The objective behind a diversity management program in business is to ________.

A) adhere to legal regulations and bureaucratic procedures B) avoid penalties associated with discrimination C) systematically transform an organization's culture D) None of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 187 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 17) Job satisfaction levels tend to be: A) higher for jobs that are more creatively fulfilling.

B) higher for jobs that allow workers to have a sense of accomplishment.

C) lower for jobs that involve rudimentary skills.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 191 18) In 1987, about ________ percent of Americans reported feeling satisfied with their jobs, while in 2009, about ________ percent reported being satisfied A) 45, 60 B) 60, 45 C) 50, 30 D) 30, 50 Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 191 19) The results of 30 years of affirmative action programs are: A) not clear.

B) women and minorities are in a worse position than they were.

C) minorities have advanced but women have not.

D) they have been effective in bringing women and minorities into the workforce.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 186 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

4 .

20) Which of the following groups is most likely to report dissatisfaction with their jobs?

A) Hand packers.

B) Members of the clergy.

C) Education administrators.

D) Sculptors.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 191 21) Over the last two decades, the number of workers reporting being satisfied with their jobs: A) has been declining.

B) has been increasing rapidly.

C) initially increased, but then began to drop significantly.

D) decreased sharply, but then leveled off.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 191 22) All of the following statements about affirmative action are true except: A) affirmative action has led to increased representation of women in the workplace.

B) affirmative action has increased the self-esteem of racial minorities.

C) affirmative action programs are largely unsupported by the public.

D) affirmative action programs specify that only qualified minorities be hired.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 186 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 23) For every dollar earned by men, women earn: A) 53.5 cents.

B) 63 cents.

C) 77 .5 cents.

D) 92 cents.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 183 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 24) Understanding why Italians and Norwegians behave differently on the job would involve which of the following tools of skills-based training?

A) Cross-cultural understanding B) Skill-based diversity training C) Flexibility and adaptability D) Intercultural communication Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 188 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

5 .

25) Training on how to help others alleviate misunderstanding that may result from cultural differences would involve which of the following tools of skills-based training?

A) Cross-cultural understanding B) Facilitation skills C) Flexibility and adaptability D) Intercultural communication Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 188 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 26) Joe believes that most of his company's employees are fairly aware of cultural differences among the diverse workforce. But he feels they need some help in alleviating misunderstandings that may come from those differences. To help this problem he should implement what type of training?

A) Cross-cultural understanding B) Intercultural communication C) Facilitation skills D) Flexibility and adaptability Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 188 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 27) Cultivating the patience to take new and different approaches when dealing with others who are different would require ________.

A) cognitive evaluation B) established accountability C) flexibility and adaptability D) facilitation skills Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 188 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 28) For diversity management to work, companies need: A) to focus on the average differences among people.

B) top management support pressuring lower management to comply.

C) total managerial support.

D) an affirmative action plan.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 188-189 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

6 .

29) According to research, which of the following report the highest levels of job satisfaction?

A) Firefighters.

B) Bartenders.

C) Roofers.

D) Waiters.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 191 30) A primary reason for absenteeism is: A) dislike for a superior.

B) poor performance.

C) a lack of motivation.

D) dissatisfaction with the job.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 31) When compared to turnover, absenteeism: A) is temporary.

B) is a more expensive form of withdrawal.

C) involves only a trivial cost.

D) None of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 32) The practice of staying away from the job when scheduled to work is referred to as: A) employee withdrawal.

B) absenteeism.

C) voluntary turnover.

D) involuntary malingering.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 198 33) According to "value theory," people are dissatisfied with their jobs when: A) they don't have enough responsibility for the work they do.

B) the outcomes they receive do not match the outcomes they desire.

C) they are dissatisfied with their supervisors.

D) their inputs exceed what they expected in outcomes.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 193 34) Values theory suggests that: A) the values of the supervisor impact worker motivation.

B) what needs to be changed to improve job satisfaction is not the same for all people.

C) coworker values will enhance employee motivation.

D) employees will withdraw from their jobs only at a certain threshold of dissatisfaction.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 193 7 .

35) Unscheduled absences have been estimated to account for approximately ________ percent of payroll expenses.

A) 15 B) 33 C) 49 D) 60 Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 198 36) Research shows: A) that job satisfaction and the financial performance of an organization are unrelated.

B) good financial performance in an organization promotes high levels of job satisfaction.

C) employee job satisfaction has no effect on financial performance.

D) absenteeism is higher than average in companies with good financial performance.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 199 37) Organizations with high-performance work systems demonstrate all of the following except: A) opportunities for employees to participate in decision-making.

B) unsafe work environments.

C) incentives created to encourage employees to participate in decision-making.

D) opportunities to develop skills.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 199-200 38) In an organization with a high-performance system: A) employees are less likely to be satisfied with their jobs.

B) the incidence of work-related accidents is likely to be high.

C) opportunities for low-level employees are likely to be limited.

D) employees are more likely to be satisfied.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 199-200 39) Research shows that the ________ organizations could be classified as high-performance organizations, the ________employees reported being satisfied with their jobs, and the ________ were the incidents of work-related accidents.

A) more, less, lower B) less, more, higher C) more, more, lower D) less, less, higher Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 200

8 .

40) Organizations that offer employees opportunities to participate in decision-making, provide incentives for them to do so, and emphasize opportunities to develop skills have: A) incentive-based organizational plans.

B) participative workplace designs.

C) workforce flex-systems.

D) high-performance work systems.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 200 41) Job satisfaction is important because ________.

A) satisfied employees are less likely to quit their jobs B) satisfied employees are less likely to experience serious accidents C) satisfied employees are more productive that dissatisfied employees D) All of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 201 42) When a prospective employee has many job options available, which type of commitment is affected?

A) Continuance commitment B) Affective commitment C) Normative commitment D) Associative commitment Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 202 43) Incentive plans in which employees receive bonuses in proportion to the company's profitability are called: A) profit-sharing plans.

B) gain-sharing plans.

C) bonus plans.

D) optimization plans.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 206 44) Job dissatisfaction may influence which of the following variables?

A) Unemployment, unionization, and organizational commitment B) Absenteeism, voluntary turnover, and job performance C) Work-related attitudes, prejudice, and unemployment D) Organizational commitment, organizational citizenship, and involuntary turnover Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 194-199

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45) Studies have shown that job dissatisfaction tends to be associated with: A) high rates of absenteeism.

B) low rates of voluntary turnover.

C) moderate job performance.

D) high unemployment rates.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 46) The "shock to the system" helps to explain: A) hangover effect.

B) decision frames.

C) honeymoon effect.

D) voluntary turnover.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 197 47) People's satisfaction with their job is inclined to drop over time, from when they first start in the position to later when they have experience in the position. This is known as: A) hangover effect.

B) social information processing.

C) honeymoon effect.

D) unfolding model of turnover.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 196 48) The internalized set of rules and images regarding how to interpret something that has occurred is known as: A) decision frames.

B) honeymoon effect.

C) social information processing.

D) turnover.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 197 49) People are likely to enjoy high levels of satisfaction on new jobs that they have taken in response to dissatisfaction in their old job. This is known as: A) hangover effect.

B) social information processing.

C) honeymoon effect.

D) unfolding model of turnover.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 196

10 .

50) Research shows that the relationship between job satisfaction and job performance is: A) very strong, the higher the satisfaction the better the performance.

B) nonexistent, satisfaction has no relationship to organizational productivity.

C) positive but not strong, satisfaction does somewhat impact performance.

D) one that depends on the time of supervision and the level of control the employee has.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198-199 51) A two-year study that traced the levels of job satisfaction and absenteeism of health-care workers revealed that ________.

A) absenteeism declined when satisfaction rose, and absenteeism rose when satisfaction declined B) absenteeism rose when satisfaction rose, and absenteeism declined when satisfaction declined C) the relationship between levels of job satisfaction and absenteeism could not be measured D) changes in the levels of satisfaction had no appreciable effect on rates of absenteeism Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 199 52) Job satisfaction is not a good predictor of: A) work performance.

B) absenteeism.

C) voluntary turnover.

D) All of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 199 53) The relationship between job satisfaction and mood shows that they: A) closely linked at work.

B) impact each other.

C) impact work moods.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 200 54) People who are able to select their benefits tend to feel ________ with their jobs.

A) more satisfied B) less satisfied C) less control D) None of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 201

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55) Which of the following are ways to promote job satisfaction?

A) Improve the quality of supervision B) Make fun jobs more difficult C) Create pay systems based on seniority D) Match people to jobs that differ from their interests Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 201 56) Instituting cafeteria style benefit plans will help to promote: A) organizational citizenship behaviors.

B) quality of supervision.

C) decentralization.

D) job satisfaction.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 201 57) Companies that are ________ oriented with managers who have high ________ commitment tend to have ________ financial performance.

A) performance, affective, improved B) maintenance, affective, improved C) performance, continuance, unchanged D) maintenance, continuance, improved Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 204 58) The extent to which people identify with, and are involved in, their organizations is known as: A) job satisfaction.

B) organizational commitment.

C) organizational citizenship.

D) motivation.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 201 59) Organizational commitment: A) is unrelated to job satisfaction.

B) has a much stronger relationship to job satisfaction than job performance does.

C) is a function of employee attitude based on the management style of their managers.

D) is synonymous with job satisfaction.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 201

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60) Max stays with XYZ company because he fears he cannot get another job. This is an example of: A) a cognitive commitment.

B) affective commitment.

C) normative commitment.

D) continuance commitment.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 202 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 61) When people are willing to stay in an organization because they share its goals, they have: A) a normative commitment.

B) an affective commitment.

C) a cognitive commitment.

D) a continuance commitment.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 203 62) Suppose Larry has been looking for another job, but his boss and co-workers pressure him to stay. If Larry stays, it is an example of: A) affective commitment.

B) normative commitment.

C) hygiene commitment.

D) continuance commitment.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 202 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 63) Employees who have high levels of affective commitment to their organizations: A) do not care about the goals of their organizations.

B) have little effect on the financial performance of their employers.

C) are less likely to resign or be absent from their organizations.

D) are unwilling to make sacrifices for their employers.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 203 64) In a study conducted in the People's Republic of China, companies that used maintenanceoriented practices used to manage human resources ________.

A) increased continuance commitment, thus boosting financial performance B) increased affective commitment, but stunted financial performance C) increased continuance commitment, which left financial performance unchanged D) increased normative commitment and increased financial performance Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 202-204 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

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65) In China: A) managers pay less attention to absenteeism than managers do in Canada.

B) employees often go home or are absent from work due to illness.

C) workers are often paid more for not working due to illness than for working.

D) workers are more likely to take time off from work for personal issues than in Canada.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 205 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 66) Feelings of organizational commitment are enhanced by: A) enriching individual's jobs.

B) centralizing control and responsibility.

C) the use of progressive discipline to align individual values with the organization's values.

D) improving hygiene factors at work.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 206 67) The use of gain-sharing plans and other such long-term compensation techniques is one way to: A) manage the hygiene factors that improve organizational commitment.

B) use recruitment to select new people whose values match the company's values.

C) align the interests of the employees with those of the company.

D) enrich jobs and make employees feel more responsible.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 206

14 .

Table 6.1 Three middle managers are discussing their attitudes about work over lunch. Lee is expressing how much he likes working for his boss, but he dislikes his current work assignment, and he says it's too tedious. He's looking forward to its completion so he can move on to more exciting work.

Tim tells his luncheon partners that he's convinced he got his current position because his previous boss wanted to help him along in his career. (Tim doesn't know his previous boss couldn't stand him and wanted to move him out of his area.) Tim is very happy because he believes he has the right skill mix to be successful in his new position. Andrea tells everyone that she is looking for another job. She has been for several months, but "the right thing hasn't come along yet." She has advanced her career by changing jobs every 12-18 months. Their fourth luncheon partner, Leslie, is also unhappy on the job and looking for another position. She believes that her current boss is threatened by her competence and is holding her back from greater opportunities. Leslie wants to stay with the company but wants to work for someone else.

68) Refer to Table 6.1. In terms of the components of an attitude, Lee's comments reveal the ________ component more than any other component of his attitudes toward work.

A) behavioral B) cognitive C) affective D) evaluative Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 178 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 69) Refer to Table 6.1. Leslie's thoughts about her boss's role in her career display the ________ component of Leslie's attitudes about her work.

A) behavioral B) cognitive C) affective D) evaluative Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 178 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 70) Refer to Table 6.1. Andrea's comments focus on the ________ component of her attitudes toward her job.

A) behavioral B) cognitive C) affective D) evaluative Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 179 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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71) Refer to Table 6.1. Based on research on job satisfaction and job changes, what results might you predict for Leslie or Andrea when they change jobs?

A) They both will be much more satisfied in a new job.

B) Andrea will experience greater satisfaction because of her past success, while Leslie will not because of her attitude toward her boss.

C) Their level of dissatisfaction will not change significantly.

D) None of these.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 190-191 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 72) The behavioral component of an attitude is our predisposition to act in a certain way.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 179 73) A prejudice represents negative attitudes toward the members of specific groups based solely on the fact that they are members of those groups.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 179 74) While prejudice can make the work environment unpleasant for the person it is directed towards, it seldom has any real effect on the individual's career.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 179 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 75) Prejudice in the work place can be based on age in that younger workers can find themselves the victims of prejudice as much as older workers.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 182 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 76) Use of the term "glass ceiling" is reserved for describing sources of discrimination against women.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 183 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 77) Despite the September 11 terrorist attacks, most Muslims working in the United States have not been the target of prejudice.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

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78) Generally speaking, companies are doing more, not less, to encourage diversity.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 186 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 79) The primary motive behind companies engaging in diversity management is to improve business.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 187 80) The most prominent way companies are promoting diversity is through flexible work schedules or permitting employees to take religious holidays.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 188 81) Typically, most senior managers do not get involved in diversity initiatives.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 188 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 82) Informal collections of individuals who share a common identity with regard to factors such as race or ethnicity are affinity groups.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 188 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 83) Chinese managers tend to pay less attention to absenteeism than do Canadians.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 205 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 84) A gain-sharing plan is an incentive plan in which employees receive bonuses in proportion to the company's profitability.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 206 85) According to the dispositional model of job satisfaction, people who like whatever job they're doing at one point in time are expected to like the jobs they're doing at another point in time, even if they're doing different jobs.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 192 86) The value theory of job satisfaction argues that almost any factor can be a source of job satisfaction, so long as it is something that people value.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 193 17 .

87) An individual who believes that the future with the organization will be unpleasant in one or more ways has an affective reason for leaving the company.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 195 88) Someone who leaves a job because he/she believes that quitting is ethically appropriate because it avoids stagnation is quitting because of normative reason.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 195 89) In terms of organizational commitment, continuance commitment is the strength of a person's desire to work for an organization because he/she agrees with its goals.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 202 90) The strength of an individual's desire to work for a company because he/she feels obligations from others to do so is continuance commitment.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 202 91) Employees with high levels of continuance commitment identify with the goals and values of their organizations.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 202-203 92) Identify the most common forms of prejudice in the American workplace today.

Answer: There are five common forms of prejudice in today's workplace. First, there is the prejudice based on age. Second, there is the prejudice based on physical condition (e.g. disabilities). Third, there is prejudice based on gender, almost exclusively prejudice against women. Fourth, there is prejudice based on sexual orientation (e.g. gay, lesbian, or bisexual).

Fifth, there is prejudice based on race and/or national origin. Finally, there is prejudice based on religion.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 181-185 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 93) Why are most new entrants to the workforce expected to be women and people of color?

Answer: There are three major trends leading to a workforce in which most new entrants are expected to be women or people of color. First, the birth rate of nonwhites is higher than that of whites. Second, there are growing numbers of foreign nationals entering the American workforce. Third, there are now equal proportions of men and women in the workforce overall.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 179 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

18 .

94) Identify the two key factors that affect whether someone decides to quit, according to the unfolding model of voluntary turnover.

Answer: According to this view of turnover, two major factors affect a person's decision to quit.

The first of these is a "shock to the system," an attention-getting event that gets employees to think about their jobs. The second of these is a "decision frame," a set of internalized rules and images regarding how to interpret something that has happened.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 197 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 95) Why should an organization strive for an affectively committed workforce?

Answer: People who feel a high degree of affective commitment to their organizations behave differently from those who do not. Committed employees contribute to successful organizational performance, are less likely to be absent or resign, and are willing to make sacrifices for their organizations.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 203-206 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 96) Define attitude and describe its three major components.

Answer: Attitudes are relatively stable clusters of feelings, beliefs, and behavioral predispositions. Work-related attitudes are those lasting beliefs and behavioral tendencies toward various aspects of the job. There are three components to an attitude; the attitude object (the focus of the attitude), the cognitive component (what is believed), and the behavioral component (a predisposition to act in a certain way).

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 178-179 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 97) How can generational communication gaps at work be bridged?

Answer: Generational communication gaps can be minimized by doing four things.First, have discussions about the important events that influenced each other's lives.Second, suspend your assumptions about people of different ages.Third, treat people the way they want to be treated.Fourth, discuss age differences instead of ignoring them.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 182 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 98) Explain the value theory of job satisfaction.

Answer: The value theory argues that job satisfaction exists to the degree that outcomes received match outcomes desired. The larger the discrepancy between "wants and haves" in outcomes, the less satisfied an employee would be.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 193-194 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

19 .

99) What are the consequences of job dissatisfaction?

Answer: People who are dissatisfied with their jobs want little to do with them; that is, they go out of their way to minimize the extent to which they are involved with them. This process is called employee withdrawal. The two major forms of employee withdrawal are voluntary turnover and absenteeism, both of which are linked to job dissatisfaction.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 194-198 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 100) Name and explain the three types of organizational commitment.

Answer: The three types of organizational commitment are continuance commitment, affective commitment, and normative commitment. Continuance commitment occurs when an individual continues to work for an organization because he/she cannot afford to leave. Affective commitment occurs when an individual works for an organization because he/she agrees with it and wants to stay. Normative commitment occurs when an individual remains with an organization because of pressure from others.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 202-203 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

20 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 7 Motivation in Organizations 1) Bill is trying to get his first shift workers to stay on the job an extra two hours in order to meet a production volume goal, because a snow storm has delayed the arrival of second shift. Bill is concerned about the issue of: A) motivation.

B) equity.

C) expectancy.

D) needs hierarchy.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 2) Arousal is critical to the process of motivation because it: A) defines the direction our actions take.

B) is the drive behind our behavior to attain goals.

C) helps one to maintain the behavior needed to reach goals.

D) explains the value of equity theory.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 214 3) When a manager is thinking about motivating people and is considering the choices available, he/she is considering the element of ________ in motivation.

A) arousal B) direction C) maintenance D) need Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 214 4) ________ describes the duration of motivation, how long people will persist in seeking to meet their goals.

A) Arousal B) Drive C) Maintenance D) Need Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 214 5) The concept of motivation is concerned with: A) the drive, or energy, behind human behavior.

B) the direction behavior takes.

C) how long people will persist at attempting to meet their goal.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214 1 .

6) When speaking of motivation, it is apparent that: A) the term motivation is synonymous with job performance.

B) single factors play the most important part in motivating an individual employee.

C) if arousal is high, direction is low, and maintenance is high, employees will only be moderately motivated.

D) motivation is just one predictor of job performance.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 215 7) When managers think about motivation, they must consider that: A) people generally have one simple motive to their behavior.

B) employees can have several motives at the same time and they can be in conflict.

C) highly motivated workers always also are high performers.

D) money is a key motivator, the primary mover of human behavior.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 215 8) According to the motivational fit model: A) it is not important for an individual's motivational traits and skills to match the requirements of his or her working environment.

B) it is important for an individual's motivational traits and skills to match the requirements of the job he or she performs.

C) it is important for an individual's motivational traits to match the requirements of the working environment, but not his or her skills.

D) it is important for an individual's skills to match the requirements of the working environment, but not his or her motivational traits.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216 9) Skills such as the capacity to work independently, to innovate, and to persist at solving difficult problems are important for: A) factory workers.

B) call center operators.

C) research scientists.

D) department store cashiers.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 218 10) The process of determining specific levels of performance for workers to attain and then striving to attain them is called: A) self-actualization requirements.

B) performance feedback.

C) organizational mission.

D) goal setting.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 218 2 .

11) Which theory suggests that people are motivated to attain goals because doing so makes them feel successful?

A) Goal-settingtheory.

B) Social needs theory.

C) Self-efficacy theory.

D) Self-actualization theory.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 219 12) An individual's belief about having the capacity to perform a task is called: A) goal commitment.

B) goal setting.

C) self-actualization.

D) self-efficacy.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 219 13) The degree to which people accept and strive to attain goals is: A) self-actualization.

B) self-efficacy.

C) goal commitment.

D) goal setting.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 219 14) People perform at a higher level when: A) they are asked to do their best.

B) they are not assigned specific goals.

C) they are asked to meet a specific high performance goal.

D) they are only assigned stretch goals.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 220 15) Which is not an example of an outcome in an equity theory analysis?

A) salary B) recognition C) fringe benefits D) units produced Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 224

3 .

16) When an engineer is asked to lead a sales team, the engineer has been assigned: A) a change goal.

B) a professional development goal.

C) a vertical stretch goal.

D) a horizontal stretch goal.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 222 17) The motivational fit approach stipulates that motivation is based on the connection between qualities of ________ and requirements of the ________.

A) individuals; supervisor B) individuals; job C) the job; supervisor D) the job; organization Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216 18) In addition to traits, an individual’s motivation is also determined by ________, the particular strategies used when he or she attempts to meet workplace objectives.

A) automatic responses B) time-management skills C) motivational skills D) task representations Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 217 19) The motivational fit approach specifies two traits as important. These are: A) achievement, emotion.

B) achievement, emotion control.

C) achievement, anxiety.

D) anxiety, emotion control.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 217 20) Motivational fit is enhanced when people's characteristics ________.

A) have little to do with the unique requirements of the positions they seek B) resemble the unique requirements of the positions they seek.

C) match the unique requirements of the positions they seek D) None of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 217

4 .

21) According to goal setting theory, an assigned goal serves as a motivator because: A) of the additional fear element present over the possibility of displeasing the boss.

B) it provides information about how well one is performing a task.

C) of the requirement of acceptance of the assigned goal as a personal goal.

D) it influences the individual's self-efficacy positively.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219 22) Goal-setting theory is closely tied to the self-management concept of: A) self-monitoring.

B) self-efficacy.

C) self-esteem.

D) None of the above.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219 23) The best established finding about goal-setting is that: A) employees resist goals they don't have a part in setting.

B) the more impossible the goal, the better the performance.

C) several incremental goals are less motivating than one major goal.

D) performance increases with specific assigned goals.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 220 24) Research has shown that people will work at the highest level when performance goals are: A) general and easy to reach B) specific and difficult, yet realistic C) specific and exceptionally difficult D) general and somewhat difficult Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 221-222 25) Stretch goals, in which higher levels of current activities are aggressively pursued, are known as: A) horizontal stretch goals.

B) vertical stretch goals.

C) equity goals.

D) expectancy goals.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 222

5 .

26) Stretch goals, in which managers perform tasks they have never done before are known as: A) horizontal stretch goals.

B) vertical stretch goals.

C) equity goals.

D) expectancy goals.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 222 27) To help strengthen employee commitment to goals, an organization should: A) involve employees in the goal-setting process.

B) set the highest possible goals.

C) provide feedback about performance.

D) provide monetary incentives along with specific goals.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 223 28) Research on feedback and goal setting has shown that job performance is: A) enhanced more by feedback than by goal setting.

B) enhanced more by goal setting than by feedback.

C) enhanced most when feedback and goal setting are used together.

D) not affected by feedback when goal setting is used.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 223-224 29) The key to equity theory is the: A) outcomes the employee receives for his/her effort.

B) employee's perception regarding the balance of outcomes to inputs.

C) employee's commitment to the job and company.

D) employee's inputs.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 225 30) According to equity theory, if Sam believes that the ratio of his outcomes/inputs is greater than the ratio of Joe's outcomes/inputs, then Sam will: A) experience guilt.

B) lower his inputs.

C) raise his outcomes.

D) experience anger.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 225 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

6 .

31) According to equity theory, an underpaid person might do which of the following?

A) Ask for a raise B) Steal from the company C) Work less hard D) All of these.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 226-227 32) Workers who perceive inequity but are unwilling to change their inputs may address the problem by: A) asking for a raise.

B) changing the way they think about the situation.

C) taking a second job to earn more money.

D) reducing their outcomes.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 227 33) Research on employees' actions to redress inequities on the job shows that: A) they generally will not take behavioral action.

B) they may change their behavior, but not their thinking.

C) they may change their thinking, but not their behavior.

D) they will respond much as equity theory suggests.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 227 34) In equity theory: A) is as bad to overpay employees as to underpay them.

B) underpayment can be justified to employees.

C) it is better to overpay than underpay.

D) few employees care about the issue of overpayment or underpayment.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 228-229 35) Equity theory suggests that managers should: A) avoid transparency in pay practices.

B) strive to pay all employees equitably.

C) use pay scales as a bludgeon to keep employees in line.

D) use overpayment to increase long-run performance.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 228-229

7 .

36) Expectancy theory proposes that behavior is the result of ________.

A) expectancy B) instrumentality C) valence D) All of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 230 37) In expectancy theory, ________ is the belief that high amounts of effort will lead to good performance.

A) instrumentality B) expectancy C) valence D) procedural justice Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 230 38) In expectancy theory, ________ is the belief that one’s performance will be rewarded.

A) instrumentality B) expectancy C) valence D) procedural justice Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 230 39) If a worker believes that his/her effort will result in excellent performance, and that the reward is one the worker values, but the worker does not expect that his/her performance will be rewarded, expectancy theory proposes that the worker's motivation will be: A) moderate.

B) high.

C) low.

D) zero.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 231 40) According to expectancy theory, ________ represent what employees believe is expected of them on the job.

A) performance norms B) role perceptions C) departmental impressions D) normative judgments Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 232

8 .

41) In expectancy theory, ________ influence job performance.

A) role perceptions B) skills and abilities C) opportunities to perform D) All of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 233 42) Managers can put expectancy theory to work by ________.

A) implementing a pay-for-performance plan B) training people to do their jobs more efficiently C) offering a cafeteria-style benefit plan D) All of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 233 43) A company’s managers want to clearly link valued rewards to the job performances needed to attain them. Which of the following will help them accomplish that purpose?

A) Let workers decide for themselves what they need to do to earn valued rewards.

B) Level the playing field so that everyone’s performance will be the same.

C) Implement a suggestion system so that employees can share their feelings.

D) Make absolutely clear what workers must do to obtain valued rewards.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 233 44) The expectancy theory suggests that motivation may be enhanced by A) administering low-valence rewards to employees.

B) providing all employees with the same rewards.

C) implementing a pay for performance plan.

D) eliminating instrumentality.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 234 45) If a job is redesigned to include more tasks at the same level, but the skills needed to do the job are neither changed nor increased, then that job has been ________.

A) vertically loaded B) enriched C) psychologically adjusted D) horizontally loaded Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 236

9 .

46) According to one research study, employees in a large financial services company who had their jobs enlarged improved their performance: A) and overall company performance improved.

B) but the rate of employee error increased a year later.

C) and job satisfaction remained unchanged.

D) but organizational commitment decreased.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 236 47) To enrich a job, an employer might: A) allow employees to decide how to do their jobs.

B) increase the number of tasks without increasing responsibilities.

C) horizontally load the job.

D) Do all of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 237 48) Job enrichment programs have a number of limitations including: A) generally poor/weak job performance results.

B) poor acceptance by upper management.

C) a dramatic increase in compensation costs.

D) lack of employee acceptance.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 237 49) The job characteristics model expands on which element of job redesign?

A) Critical psychological states B) Job enlargement C) Job enrichment D) Job expectancy Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 238 50) The extent to which a job requires doing different activities using several skills and talents is known as: A) task identity.

B) task significance.

C) autonomy.

D) skill variety.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 238

10 .

51) The extent to which a job requires completing a whole piece of work from beginning to end is known as: A) task identity.

B) task significance.

C) autonomy.

D) skill variety.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 238 52) According to the job characteristics model, a worker’s knowledge of the actual results of work activities is determined by: A) task significance.

B) feedback.

C) autonomy.

D) skill variety.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 238 53) The degree of impact a job is believed to have on others is known as: A) task identity.

B) task significance.

C) autonomy.

D) skill variety.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 238 54) Jessica is trying to increase the freedom and discretion that employees have in scheduling and planning their work. Based on the job characteristics model, Jessica is trying to increase: A) task significance.

B) autonomy.

C) task identity.

D) skill variety.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 238 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 55) The extent to which employees have the freedom and discretion to plan and schedule their jobs as desired is known as: A) task identity.

B) task significance.

C) autonomy.

D) skill variety.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 238

11 .

56) The skill variety, task identity, and task significance together create the critical psychological state of: A) personal responsibility.

B) accountability.

C) experienced meaningfulness.

D) knowledge of results.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 238-239 57) Supervisors at the Johnson Corp. help introduce a work motivation program based on providing continuous informal and formal feedback. This action addresses the critical psychological state of: A) personal responsibility.

B) accountability.

C) experienced meaningfulness.

D) knowledge of results.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 238-239 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 58) The job characteristics model is especially effective in describing the behavior of workers who are high in: A) self-actualization.

B) self-monitoring.

C) instrumentality.

D) growth-need strength.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 240 59) The Motivating Potential Score (MPS) is: A) a summary index of how motivated employees are.

B) a score for how successful a company has been at motivating employees.

C) a summary index of a job's potential for motivating people.

D) None of these.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 240 60) Establishing client relationships can enhance the core job dimension of: A) autonomy.

B) skill variety.

C) task identity.

D) feedback.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 239

12 .

61) The job characteristics model specifies all of the following principles EXCEPT: A) combine tasks.

B) opening feedback channels.

C) establishing client relationships.

D) loading jobs horizontally.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 240-242 62) Fred provides his subordinates with information that lets them know how they are doing.

This is an example of: A) combining tasks.

B) opening feedback channels.

C) establishing client relationships.

D) loading jobs vertically.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 240-242 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 63) Managers can increase employee motivation by giving them more responsibility and control.

This is done by: A) loading jobs vertically.

B) enlarging jobs.

C) loading jobs horizontally.

D) increasing feedback and task significance.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 242 Table 7.1 Shue-Fan is surprised at the amount of motivational energy her recent “pep-talk” seems to have created in her staff. They seem to be very concerned about making her happy and making a good impression on her. As she ponders their reaction, she concludes that her emphasis on helping her employees develop their potential is really paying off. An employee approaches her and asks if their team could create a team T-shirt and wear it on casual dress day. Shue-Fan agrees. Finally, Shue-Fan decides the company ought to do more to recognize employee accomplishments, so she proposes a company-wide recognition/awards program.

64) Refer to Table 7.1. Shue-Fan is surprised by the motivational element of: A) arousal.

B) direction.

C) maintenance.

D) performance.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 214 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13 .

Table 7.2 John is working on his department's annual plan. Employee performance has been okay and commitment to his department's goals moderate. In the past John has asked his employees to do their best. This year he is asking each employee to work with him in determining exactly what that employee is going to accomplish this year. John wants his people to feel the goals are theirs, to invest in their accomplishment. He wants them to believe that they can accomplish these goals. He thinks he can help this whole process by meeting with each employee quarterly and talking about where the department is and where the employee is in regards to goal accomplishment.

65) Refer to Table 7.2. John's concern about his people's believing they can accomplish the goals is a concern over: A) goal commitment.

B) how goals are assigned.

C) the setting of difficult but acceptable goals.

D) how to provide feedback on goal attainment.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 219 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 66) Refer to Table 7.2. In the past what principle of goal setting did John violate?

A) Goal commitment B) Assigning specific goals C) Setting difficult but acceptable goals D) Providing feedback on goal attainment Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 220 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 67) Refer to Table 7.2. John's new goal-setting plan is building on which goal-setting principle?

A) Goal commitment B) Assigning specific goals C) Setting difficult but acceptable goals D) Providing feedback on goal attainment Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 221 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14 .

Table 7.3 Randy, Marvin, and Mary Virginia sell for Made-for-You. As they are having lunch together, Randy discovers that he is receiving a higher commission rate than Marvin or Mary Virginia.

When he excuses himself, Marvin and Mary Virginia start talking about how Randy sells less than they do, has higher expenses, and has less time with the company than they do. They are doing a slow burn by the time Randy returns to the table.

68) Refer to Table 7.3. In this case it appears that Randy is in a state of: A) equitable payment.

B) valence.

C) underpayment inequity.

D) overpayment inequity.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 225 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 69) Refer to Table 7.3. Mary Virginia, in comparison to Randy, may be in the state of: A) equitable payment.

B) low instrumentality.

C) underpayment inequity.

D) overpayment inequity.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 225 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 70) Refer to Table 7.3. What is Randy's likely future behavior based on his discovery?

A) He'll work less hard seeing there is little connection between performance and pay in his company.

B) He may adjust his thinking to the point of rationalizing why he should receive the higher pay.

C) He'll be angry.

D) He'll do nothing but collect his check.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 227 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

15 .

Table 7.4 The production department is implementing a job design program. Alfonso has been given the responsibility. Leading a team of managers and hourly employees, Alfonso is to come up with the best way to implement the program. As techniques are discussed, it appears that the workers are reluctant to accept management's push to give each employee more tasks to perform while not increasing responsibility or the needed task skills. The hourly workers want more control over their jobs and greater responsibilities. Alfonso explains they still need to determine what elements need to be enriched for the program to work. He further explains that employees have reported through an organizational survey that their first desire is to experience meaningfulness in their jobs, and they don't really want increased responsibility and accountability, feeling it will add too much stress to their jobs.

71) Refer to Table 7.4. The hourly workers are favoring what type of job design program?

A) Job enlargement B) Vertical job loading C) Job enrichment D) Job characteristics model approach Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 237 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 72) Refer to Table 7.4. Management wants what type of job design program?

A) Job enlargement B) Vertical job loading C) Job enrichment D) Job characteristics model approach Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 236 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 73) Refer to Table 7.4. Based on the employee survey, which job dimensions should the group focus on enriching?

A) Autonomy B) Task identity C) Feedback D) None of the above.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 238 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16 .

74) Refer to Table 7.4. Based on the employee survey, not the opinion of the employees on the committee, which job dimensions should the group not enrich?

A) Skill variety B) Task identity C) Autonomy D) All of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 238 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 75) If individual arousal and direction are strong enough, the lack of a maintenance step in the motivation process will not decrease individual motivation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214 76) In most situations, an individual who performs a task well can be considered to be highly motivated.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 215 77) Susie is excessively apprehensive and nervous about most things in her life.We can say that Susie is suffering from emotion control.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 217 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 78) Goal-setting theory argues that people are more committed to attaining a goal if they are unsure of the outcome.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219 79) Stretch goals, in which managers perform tasks they have never done before, are known as horizontal stretch goals.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 222 80) Feedback to employees is very important in enhancing employee motivation for goal attainment.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 223 81) In equity theory, inputs are what employees get out of their jobs in terms of financial and nonfinancial rewards.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 225

17 .

82) If an employee is overpaid, a likely reaction on his/her part, in terms of equity theory, will be guilt.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 225 83) In terms of employee motivation and benefits to the company, it is better to overpay employees than it is to underpay them.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 229 84) Generally speaking, a superior's pay should not be revealed to subordinates because inequitable feelings may result.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 230 85) The valence of a reward is its perceived value to the employee.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 230 86) If employees believe that hard work will lead to good performance and that they will receive low valence rewards according to their performance, then they will most likely feel highly motivated.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 231 87) Expectancy theory does not acknowledge that role perceptions influence a worker’s performance on the job.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 230 88) Generally speaking, the only types of rewards that motivate employees are monetary.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 233-235 89) The job enrichment process is said to increase a position's horizontal job loading.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 236 90) The degree of impact a job is believed to have on others is known as task identity.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 238 91) The extent to which a job requires completing a whole piece of work from beginning to end is known as autonomy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 238 18 .

92) The extent to which a job requires doing different activities using several skills and talents is known as skill variety.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 238 93) Growth need strength is the personality variable that describes the extent to which people have a high need for personal growth and development on the job.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 240 94) A study in South Africa of the effects of using the Job Characteristics Model in job redesign showed increased employee motivation, decreased absenteeism, but it had no effect on job performance.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 240 95) When employers combine jobs enabling workers to perform the entire job they are enhancing skill variety and task identity.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 241 96) Discuss the motivational traits that underlie the motivational fit approach.

Answer: There are two individual characteristics that underlie this approach. The first is achievement that refers to peoples' interest in excelling at what they do and accomplishing desired objectives. The second is anxiety, which is the tendency for someone to be excessively apprehensive or nervous about things in everyday life.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 216 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 97) What is equity theory?

Answer: Equity theory asserts that people are motivated to maintain equitable relationships between themselves and others and to avoid inequitable relationships. In judging equity, people compare themselves to others by focusing on two variables. Outcomes pertain to what people get out of their jobs; pay, fringe benefits, prestige, etc. Inputs are the contributions that people make to their jobs; time worked, effort expended, units produced, and qualifications brought. Based on these two variables, individuals compare their own outcome/input ratios to the corresponding outcome/input ratios of others. These comparisons may result in any of three different states.

Overpayment inequity is the condition (resulting in feelings of guilt), in which the ratio of a person’s outcomes to inputs is more that the corresponding ratio of another person with whom that person compares himself or herself. Underpayment inequity is the condition (resulting in feelings of anger), in which the ratio of one’s outcomes to inputs is less than the corresponding ratio of another person with whom one compares himself or herself. Equitable payment is the state in which one person’s outcome to input ratio is equivalent to that of another person with whom this individual compares himself or herself.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 224--230 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 19 .

98) What are the five core job dimensions identified by the job characteristics model?

Answer: Skill variety is the degree to which the job requires different activities requiring different skills. Task identity is the extent to which a job requires completing a whole piece of work, from beginning to end. Task significance is the degree of impact the job is believed to have on others. Autonomy pertains to how free the employee is to plan, to schedule, and to carry out the work as desired. Feedback pertains to whether the job allows people to receive information about the effectiveness of their performance. hip can be assessed through a Job Diagnosis Survey (JDS).

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 238-240 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 99) Describe the term motivation and its impact on job performance.

Answer: Motivation is the set of processes that arouse, direct, and maintain human behavior toward a goal. It is different from arousal (the drive or energy behind action), direction (the choices people make), or maintenance (the persistence of the behavior), which are elements of motivation. Remember that motivation and job performance are not synonyms. Moreover, motivation is multi-faceted; people have several different motives operating at one time.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 214-215 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 100) Describe the difference between overpayment inequity and underpayment inequity.

Answer: Overpayment inequity occurs when one's ratio of outcomes/inputs are higher than those of another. Conversely, underpayment inequity occurs when one's ratio of outcomes/inputs are lower than those of another.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 225-226 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 101) Discuss why overpayment is problematic from an equity standpoint.

Answer: Increases in performance in response to overpayment inequity are only temporary, for as time goes on, people begin to believe they deserve the higher pay and drop their work level.

Additionally, when overpaying one employee, others are being underpaid. These other employees are likely to lower their performance resulting in a net decrease in productivity.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 228-229 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 102) What is expectancy theory?

Answer: Expectancy theory asserts that a person’s motivation is based on three core elements: expectancy (the belief that effort results in performance), instrumentality (the belief that performance will be rewarded), and valence (that the rewards are valued by the recipient).

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 230-231 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

20 .

103) Describe job enrichment and job enlargement, and present their implications for managers.

Answer: Job enlargement involves increasing the number of tasks at the same level. It is also known as horizontal job loading. Employees performing enlarged jobs can experience higher levels of satisfaction and lower levels of boredom. Research has shown, however, that although job enlargement may help improve job performance, its effects may be short-lived. Job enrichment involves increasing the number of higher-level tasks, or vertical job loading. The idea underlying the enrichment of jobs is that by making the jobs more interesting, workers will be more highly motivated to perform them. Even though evidence suggests that job enrichment programs generally have been successful, a couple of factors have limited their popularity. First, they are difficult to implement. Redesigning existing facilities to accommodate enriched jobs can be prohibitively expensive; and redesigning the technology needed to perform certain jobs may not be practical. Second, employee acceptance is not guaranteed. While many workers may want the additional responsibility associated with performing enriched jobs, others will prefer to avoid it (especially those who are low in achievement motivation).

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 236-237 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 8 Group Dynamics and Work Teams 1) ________ focuses on the nature of groups, the variables that govern their development, formation, structure, performance, etc.

A) Group dynamics B) Teamwork C) Social facilitation D) Drive theory Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 251 2) Which of the following constitutes a group?

A) Students waiting in line to sell their textbooks at the end of the semester B) The office support staff of a sales office C) Students working on a final project which determines if they pass or fail D) All of these are groups.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 251 3) Which of the following characterizes a group?

A) Members pursue diverse goals B) Independence of membership C) The ability to solve problems D) The perception that they are a group Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 251 4) The most basic form of a group is the: A) formal and informal group.

B) work group, cross-functional team.

C) intact group, self-managed team.

D) temporary work team.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 253 5) Groups that are created by the organization and are intentionally designed to direct its members toward some important organizational goal are known as: A) informal groups.

B) formal groups.

C) role-structured groups.

D) self-managed teams.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 253

1 .

6) A group that is determined by the connections between individuals on an organizational chart is known as a/n: A) command group.

B) task group.

C) standing committee.

D) informal group.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 253 7) A formal group that is composed of individuals with some special interest or expertise in a specific area, regardless of their positions in the organization, is known as a/n: A) command group.

B) task group.

C) standing committee.

D) informal group.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 253 8) Groups that tend to form naturally among an organization's personnel are called: A) interest groups.

B) friendship groups.

C) task groups.

D) informal groups.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 253 9) Susan belongs to a social club where members get together to see movies, play cards or just talk. This type of group is a/an: A) task group.

B) interest group.

C) friendship group.

D) ad-hoc group.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 253 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 10) By forming groups, people realize the opportunity to: A) share their mutual interests.

B) enhance their self-monitoring skills.

C) satisfy self-actualization needs.

D) do all of these.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 254

2 .

11) By bonding together to meet mutual goals, people can ________.

A) achieve security B) fill social needs C) fill the need for self-esteem D) satisfy mutual interests Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 254 12) People join groups for a number of reasons including: A) to gather information.

B) being forced to by circumstances.

C) to satisfy a basic need to be with others.

D) the desire to have control over others by being a leader.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 254 13) In what stage of group development do group members come to resist control of leaders and show hostility?

A) Forming B) Storming C) Norming D) Performing Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 255 14) Sushani is observing group functioning as part of her OB studies. The group she's observing seems to be fairly cohesive, is developing close interpersonal relationships and a feeling of camaraderie, etc. This group is in the ________ stage of group development.

A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 255-256 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 15) In what stage of group development do group members work toward getting their jobs done?

A) Forming B) Adjourning C) Norming D) Performing Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 256

3 .

16) When thinking about the five stages of group development, it is important to remember that: A) most groups spend approximately the same amount of time in each stage.

B) all groups progress through the five stages in order.

C) each stage will have a clear beginning and ending.

D) it is a general framework for group formation.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 256 17) The ________ asserts that groups go through two stages marked by the mid-point of the group’s time together.

A) group contingency schematic B) punctuated-equilibrium model C) socialization transfer model.

D) congruence-productivity paradigm Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 256-257 18) The interrelationships between the individuals constituting a group are called: A) group roles.

B) group structure.

C) role expectations.

D) role differentiation.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 257 19) The beliefs that people have about what someone occupying a certain office is supposed to do are: A) group roles.

B) group structure.

C) role expectations.

D) role differentiation.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 257 20) The emergence of the roles that different group members play is: A) group roles.

B) group structure.

C) role expectations.

D) role differentiation.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 258

4 .

21) If the activities of an individual in a group, more than anyone else, helps the group reach its goal, then that person is playing a ________.

A) a socioemotional role B) a self-oriented role C) a task-oriented role D) relations-oriented role Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 258 22) Tami shifts her own opinions to harmonize with the group and suggests ways the group can operate more efficiently. She is fulfilling the: A) relations-oriented role B) self-oriented role.

C) task-oriented role.

D) ancillary role.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 259 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 23) The typical behaviors that characterize a person in a social context are called: A) roles.

B) norms.

C) expectations.

D) status.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 259 24) A norm that guides behavior that should be avoided is known as a: A) differentiated norm.

B) prescriptive norm.

C) proscriptive norm.

D) precedent norm.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 259 25) An example of a self-oriented group role would be: A) opinion giver.

B) expeditor.

C) information-seeker.

D) blocker.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 259

5 .

26) Jamie is trying to get the church board to make a decision, as most members are just tired of the debate. He has taken on the group member role of: A) initiator-contributor.

B) encourager.

C) energizer.

D) expediter.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 259 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 27) The relative social position or rank given to a social unit is called: A) precedents.

B) status.

C) structure.

D) social facilitation.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 260 28) Status symbols: A) remind organizational members of their roles.

B) provide a sense of identification with a group.

C) provide assurance of rewards available to those who perform well.

D) All of these.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 260 29) Bill has taken a job with another accounting firm. He quickly discovers that the norms from his previous employer (maximum billable hours, 80 hours weeks, etc.) are the same here. This is an example of a norm developing because of: A) carryovers from other situations.

B) an explicit statement by a superior.

C) precedents set over time.

D) critical events in the group's history.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 260 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 30) When group members are attracted to each other, accept the group's goals, and work together toward meeting them, it may be said that the group has high: A) cohesiveness.

B) role differentiation.

C) social facilitation.

D) status.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 261

6 .

31) Which of the following is an important factor that influences cohesiveness?

A) The severity of group initiation B) High external threat C) High competition D) All of these.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 261 32) Group cohesion can have a number of consequences, including: A) leading a group to work against organizational interests.

B) enjoyment of group membership at the expense of productivity.

C) self-destruction due to infighting for control of the group.

D) All of these.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 262 33) Sometimes the presence of others enhances task performance, and sometimes it impairs it.

This phenomenon is known as: A) role ambiguity.

B) social facilitation.

C) group cohesion.

D) social loafing.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 263 34) Suppose that you have studied piano for many years and have practiced a certain Mozart concerto diligently every day for six months. Now, you are about to perform it in front of an audience. According to the drive theory of social facilitation, you would be expected to: A) play better than you did while practicing alone.

B) play worse than you did while practicing alone.

C) relax and ride on the efforts of others in the recital group.

D) Do none of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 263 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 35) Evaluation apprehension is the fear of ________.

A) jobs that require repetitive motion B) being evaluated or judged by another person C) being required to evaluate others D) introspection and soul-searching Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 263

7 .

36) A study of computerized performance monitoring showed that: A) monitoring resulted in a drive theory effect and increased performance.

B) monitoring had no impact on task performance.

C) it reduced evaluation apprehension to the point where monitored performance increased over non-monitored performance.

D) social facilitation occurs even when the "observer" is present only electronically.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 264 37) When task performance of a group is determined by pooled efforts, it is known as: A) an additive task.

B) a disjunctive task.

C) a social task.

D) conjunctive task.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 264 38) When a group of people perform an additive task together, there is a tendency for each individual to contribute less to the group's product than when they perform alone. This effect is known as: A) role ambiguity.

B) social facilitation.

C) distraction-conflict theory.

D) social loafing.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 264 39) According to ________, the effect of any social force acting on a group is divided among its members.

A) social facilitation theory B) social impact theory C) drive theory D) team development theory Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 265 40) Social loafing seems to occur because: A) of the individual's concern for the group over him/herself.

B) of the distraction caused by the presence of others and concerns for their evaluation of the individual's performance.

C) the responsibility for doing the job is diffused over more people.

D) culture has little impact on task performance and it is part of human nature to relax effort when it is possible.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 265

8 .

41) Research into social loafing and group performance showed that countries like China and Israel with collectivist cultures found that: A) social loafing occurs as much as in individualistic cultures like the U.S. B) workers performed better in groups than they did alone.

C) workers performed well in small groups but loafed in larger groups.

D) individuals outperformed groups in all but a very few tasks.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 266 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 42) An international study of social loafing showed that: A) culture has an influence on people's tendency to engage in social loafing.

B) culture has no influence on people's tendency to engage in social loafing.

C) collectivist cultures are more prone to social loafing than other cultures.

D) None of these.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 266 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 43) Social loafing can be lessened by: A) specializing tasks and making them more routine.

B) rewarding individuals for contributions to group performance.

C) identifying the group to its social peers.

D) doing all of the above.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 266 44) Research has shown that social loafing may be combated by: A) using only additive tasks.

B) building more effective team incentives.

C) threatening to punish people for not performing up to standards.

D) creating a more individualistic culture in the organization.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 266 45) Which of the following characterizes teams?

A) Common commitment to purpose B) Mutual accountability C) Complementary skills D) All of these.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 267

9 .

46) ________ represent common understanding among team members regarding how their team operates.

A) Shared mental models B) Cross-functional representations C) Intrapersonal schematics D) Symbiotic interrelationships Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 268 47) One way a team differs from a group has to do with: A) the mutual accountability a team has.

B) the different developmental stages a team goes through.

C) the higher level of cohesiveness a group has.

D) the types of roles played by members.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 267 48) In contrast to groups, teams are ________.

A) a loose collection of individuals B) empowered to make their own decisions C) designed around specific workplace functions D) trained in one area of expertise Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 268 49) Teams that are primarily oriented toward the mission of increasing organizational effectiveness are: A) improvement teams.

B) work teams.

C) temporary teams.

D) quality teams.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 270 50) The CEO is considering implementing teams. During the discussion the question is raised about whether they should use intact teams or cross-functional teams. This discussion is about the ________ dimension of teams.

A) operational autonomy B) mission or purpose C) time D) authority structure Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 269 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

10 .

51) Teams differ according to five dimensions, including: A) the number of members.

B) their cultural diversity and gender mix.

C) physical presence.

D) their performance level: low, medium, or high.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 269 52) The management team is discussing whether to use self-managing teams or more traditional work groups. The team dimension they are debating is: A) the mission or purpose of the team.

B) the duration of the team.

C) the authority structure of the team.

D) the degree of operational autonomy.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 269 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 53) Some companies are structured such that people work together on certain projects all the time and do not apply their specialty to a wide range of products. These companies are utilizing: A) intact teams.

B) cross-functional teams.

C) temporary teams.

D) improvement teams.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 271 54) The determination of whether or not to use a team is the ________ stage of team creation.

A) creating performance conditions B) prework C) forming and building the team D) providing support Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 273 55) A manager should insure that a team has the proper resources to function at which stage in the creation of the team?

A) Creating performance conditions B) Prework C) Forming and building the team D) Providing support Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 273

11 .

56) At stage 3 of creating a team, forming and building, a manager should: A) provide the resources necessary to function.

B) note exactly what work is to be done.

C) establish who is on the team and clarify its mission.

D) do all of these.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 274 57) Research on the use of teams shows that: A) manufacturers like GM experience high levels of success with teams.

B) teams have succeeded in the service industry as well as manufacturing.

C) there isn't a clear and convincing case for the overall effectiveness of teams.

D) All of these are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 275 58) In one large study that surveyed 1,000 companies in the United States it was found that ________ of them used some work teams.

A) 64% B) 13% C) 47% D) 89% Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 275 59) The case studies reported in your text: A) seem to show that teams are not as effective as thought.

B) indicate that some U.S. companies have achieved outstanding results with teams.

C) show a clear pattern against team effectiveness.

D) show that teams are most effective in small companies and less effective in larger corporations.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 275 60) Which of the following can cause a team to fail?

A) Members do not share a common vision.

B) Managers are reluctant to relinquish control.

C) Members do not want to cooperate with other teams D) All of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 275-276

12 .

61) Sometimes managers can cause teams to fail by: A) giving them too much freedom.

B) not designing adequate team performance incentives.

C) not cooperating with the team.

D) failing to relinquish control to the team.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276 62) Bobbie Joe's team has information that Billie Jean's team needs but Bobbie Joe's team won't provide it because they are upset about how the other team took credit for one of their projects in the past. Billie Jean's team has some extra resources that Bobbie Joe's team needs but can't requisition but they won't share them since Bobbie Joe's team won't give up the information. It looks like these teams may fail because: A) the two teams are failing to cooperate with each other.

B) they haven't seen enough soap operas to know this doesn't work.

C) there is a lack of support from management.

D) neither team has sufficient resources or autonomy to accomplish their tasks.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 63) There are a number of ways to promote high performance in teams, including: A) encouraging intrateam competition.

B) basing compensation on performance only.

C) communicating the urgency of the team's mission.

D) discouraging competition between teams.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 279 64) A manager can promote high performance in teams by: A) promoting cooperation within and between teams.

B) communicating the urgency of the team's mission.

C) providing training in team-building skills.

D) doing all of these.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 279 65) When putting a team together, it is essential that members have: A) the individual desire to succeed.

B) the skills needed to succeed.

C) the ability to work alone and unsupervised.

D) strong technical skills.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 283-284

13 .

Table 8.1 Introduction to Business class is to observe the use of groups in a large manufacturing business.

The students notice that most groups are arranged by reporting relationships. Bill discovers a group of managers who have been placed together to study and recommend a course of action on a flextime schedule for employees. Jane finds that the executives of the company have formed a team consisting of themselves, some middle managers, and a few hourly employees to work on improving work processes and efficiency within the company. This group has been in existence for 5 years and is going strong.

66) Refer to Table 8.1. The majority of groups in this business appear to be: A) informal interest groups.

B) formal command groups.

C) ad hoc committees or task forces.

D) self-managing groups.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 253 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 67) Refer to Table 8.1. Jane's group appears to be what type of group?

A) Task group B) Formal command group C) Ad hoc committee or task force D) Self-managing group Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 253 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 68) Refer to Table 8.1. The group of managers that Bill discovers is an example of: A) an informal interest group.

B) a formal command group.

C) an ad hoc committee or task force.

D) a self-managing group.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 253 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14 .

Table 8.2 As a consultant of group processes, you are observing B.C.H.C., Inc.'s self-managing teams and work groups, which are in different stages of development in this medium-sized manufacturing business. You have named the teams and groups A, B, C, D, and E, to conceal their names and get the most honest information possible. Group D has resolved its issues of leadership and is devoting all of its energy to getting the task done. Team C, on the other hand, shows significant resistance to its appointed leader's guidance, and there is a lot of argument over roles within the group. The members of Group A are still getting acquainted in their meetings. They are setting their formal norms and clarifying expectations.Team B is full of hostility. At least one group member has 'withdrawn' by sitting quietly and no longer participating in the discussions/arguments.

69) Refer to Table 8.2. Group A appears to be at which stage of team development?

A) Forming B) Storming C) Norming D) Performing Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 255 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 70) Refer to Table 8.2. Team C, on the other hand, seems to be at the: A) forming stage.

B) storming stage.

C) norming stage.

D) performing stage.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 255 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 71) Refer to Table 8.2. Team B is where in the stages of team development?

A) Forming B) Storming C) Norming D) Performing Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 255 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 72) Refer to Table 8.2. Group D seems to be in the development stage of: A) adjourning.

B) storming.

C) norming.

D) performing.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 256 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 15 .

Table 8.3 Management is considering the implementation of teams in the company. Several issues come up during the initial discussion. First, should the teams be permanent or established simply for specific projects and terminated when the project is completed? Second, do we want selfmanaging teams, supervisor led teams, or a mix? Third issue, do we want teams within departments or should we use some cross-functional teams? The discussion concludes with a fourth issue, do we want teams focused on improving our processes or simply accomplishing the work we are already doing?

73) Refer to Table 8.3. The fourth and final issue discussed relates to the ________ dimension of teams.

A) time B) authority structure C) degree of autonomy D) purpose or mission Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 269 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 74) Refer to Table 8.3. The first issue discussed by the team is dealing with the ________ dimension of teams.

A) time B) authority structure C) degree of autonomy D) purpose or mission Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 270 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 75) Refer to Table 8.3. The second issue discussed focuses on the ________ dimension of teams.

A) time B) authority structure C) degree of autonomy D) purpose or mission Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 270 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 76) Refer to Table 8.3. The third issue discussed relates to the ________ dimension of teams.

A) time B) authority structure C) degree of autonomy D) purpose or mission Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 271 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 16 .

Table 8.4 Nermina is preparing to implement teams in her functional area. Currently she is studying how to create a team. In her past experience she often found that groups of people did less work than just one or two people could do. It is now two weeks later. Nermina is well into the process of creating teams. She is ensuring the correct resources, both human and material are available for the team.

77) Refer to Table 8.4. Nermina's original experience with groups is an example of: A) social loafing.

B) common goals within work groups.

C) social facilitation.

D) distraction-conflict effect.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 264 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 78) Refer to Table 8.4. How could she have prevented the problem?

A) By stressing individual effort.

B) By developing commitment to a common purpose.

C) By making each person working identifiable.

D) By doing all of these.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 265 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 79) Refer to Table 8.4. Two weeks into the implementation of her teams, Nermina is at what stage in team creation?

A) Prework B) Creating performance conditions C) Forming and building the team D) Providing ongoing support for the team Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 273 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 80) Refer to Table 8.4. What management mistake could Nermina make that would cause her teams to fail?

A) Linking individual rewards to team performance B) Diversifying the team membership C) Emphasizing the urgency of the team's tasks D) Failing to relinquish control to the team Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

17 .

81) Group dynamics refers to the use of groups or teams in which members are mutually committed to goals and there is leadership toward those goals.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 251 82) Josefina is part of a team formed to develop a corporate e-mail policy in the next 90 days.

Josefina is a member of a task group.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 253 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 83) People join groups both because they share mutual goals but also for protection from other groups.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 254 84) An alternative group model, the punctuated-equilibrium model, reduces the traditional five stages of group development to two and it is in the second phase when a group tries new ideas and new perspectives.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 256 85) The tendency for various specialized roles to emerge as a group develops is called prescriptive norms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 259 86) Prescriptive norms dictate specific behavior that should be avoided.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 259 87) If Michiko seeks to mediate and settle conflicts in her group, she is fulfilling the role of compromiser.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 259 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 88) Status symbols generally have a derogatory effect on groups, and therefore should be avoided in organizations.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 260 89) An example of informal status would be regarding someone with special skills at work as having higher status than everyone else.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 261 18 .

90) John tends to encourage most of his teammates to better performance when he is working with them. This is an example of social facilitation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 263 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 91) Social loafing is a cross-cultural phenomenon in that both collectivist and individualist cultures experience a high degree of social loafing in work groups.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 264-266 92) Researchers coined the term social impact theory for the phenomenon that occurs when group tasks are coordinated in such a way as to be added together to form the group's final product.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 265 93) Groups tend to be responsive to self-imposed demands, whereas teams tend to be responsive to the demands of management.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 267 94) Dorothea is forming work teams by combining managers from various functions within the company. The fact that she is drawing team members from different departments defines the degree of autonomy the team has.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 270-271 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 95) It is estimated that close to 50% of companies have at least one team in place that is selfdirected to at least some extent.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 271 96) Harold is part of a human resources team researching a cafeteria benefits program for his company. Once their research is complete and presented to management, Harold will return to his regular HR responsibilities. Harold is part of a temporary, self-managed, cross-functional team.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 272 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 97) In organizations using cross-functional teams, the boundaries between all teams must be considered permeable.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 272 19 .

98) When organizations use cross-functional teams, people are usually members of one team only.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 272 99) A Sun Microsystems virtual team worked together for seven months without ever being in the same room.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 273 100) In the four-stage process of team creation and development, Stage 2 involves ensuring that the team has the proper resources that it needs to function.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 273-274 101) Research suggests that teams can enhance commitment levels among employees.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 275 102) Teams can fail to work properly for a number of reasons, including an unwillingness of its members to cooperate.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 275 103) Effective teams link individual rewards to team performance.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276 104) The most effective teams are not placed under time pressures or challenged by a sense of urgency because it will lead to either sloppy work or being overwhelmed.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 279 105) Describe the key characteristics of a group.

Answer: There are four key characteristics. 1) They are composed of two or more people involved in social interaction. 2) They must have a stable group structure. Although the group can change, there must be some stable relationships. 3) Members must share common interests or goals. 4) The individuals involved must see themselves as a group.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 251-253 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

20 .

106) Groups pass through several stages in their development. Name each stage and explain what takes place in that stage.

Answer: Groups pass through five stages. (1) Forming occurs when group members get acquainted and establish ground rules. (2) Storming happens when there is a high degree of conflict, and members resist the leader's control. (3) In the norming phase, the group becomes cohesive, group identity builds, and there are shared feelings of common interests and goals. (4) In the performing stage, the group is ready to work. (5) Adjourning signifies that goals have been met, so the group disbands.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 255-256 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 107) What are the four aspects of group structure?

Answer: Roles represent the part each member of the group plays. Issues here are role expectations, role ambiguity, and role differentiation. Norms are the unspoken rules by which the group operates. They may be formal or informal. They may develop from precedents set over time, carryover from other situations, responses to an implicit statement by a superior or coworker, and critical events in the group's history. Status is the prestige tied to group membership.

Important here are the symbols of status. Cohesiveness represents the strength of members' desires to remain a team.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 257-262 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 108) Identify the five major dimensions of teams, including examples of teams associated with each dimension.

Answer: The first dimension is purpose or mission. Work teams are primarily concerned with work done by the organization. Improvement teams have the mission of increasing effectiveness of processes, of the organization. The second dimension is time. Temporary teams are established for a specific project with a limited life. Permanent teams stay intact as long as the organization exists. The third dimension is the degree of autonomy. Self-managed teams are almost completely autonomous, scheduling their own work, etc. In work groups, the leader makes the decisions on behalf of the members who follow orders. The fourth dimension is authority structure. Intact teams work on specific projects and their authority structure is contained within the team. Cross-functional teams draw members across functions from the same level of the organization to work together. The fifth dimension is physical presence. In physical teams, members are physically present. In virtual teams, members meet via electronic means.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 269-273 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21 .

109) Offer some tips on developing successful teams.

Answer: Compensate team performance. Teams are no places for hotshots who want to make their individual marks at the expense of the team; for teams to be successful, they need team players. The more that organizations reward employees for their teams’ successes, the more strongly team spirit will be enforced.

Recognize the role of team leaders. Despite their actual contributions, leaders are only one determinant of a team’s success. In fact, it is possible that some teams will succeed or fail regardless of (or even despite) their leaders’ influence.

Communicate the urgency of the team’s mission. Team members are prone to rally around challenges that compel them to meet high performance standards. As a result, the urgency of meeting those standards should be expressed.

Train members in team skills. To be effective, team members must have the right blend of skills needed to satisfy the objectives of their team. Rather than simply gathering some people together and calling them a team, many companies are taking proactive steps (such as formal team building) to ensure that team members will get along and perform as they should.

Promote cooperation within and between teams. Team success requires not only cooperation within teams, but also between them. As one expert put it, “If you don’t get your teams into the right constellations, the whole organization can stall.”

Select team members based on their skills or potential skills. Because the success of teams demands that members work together closely on a variety of tasks, it is essential for them to have a complementary set of skills. This included not only job skills but also interpersonal skills.

Developing successful teams requires patience. Although the suggestions above are useful, they alone do not ensure the success of work teams. Other factors, such as the economy, competition, and the company’s financial status are also important determinants of organizational success.

Clearly, teams are not an overnight route to success. Nevertheless, with patience and careful attention to the suggestions noted above, teams can yield extraordinary gains in productivity.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276-284 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 110) Why do people join groups?

Answer: 1) To satisfy mutual interests and goals. 2) To achieve security. 3) To fill social needs.

4) To fill self-esteem needs.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 254-255 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 111) Differentiate between a task-oriented role and a relations-oriented role.

Answer: Task-oriented roles are those roles in which the person helps the group to reach its desired goal. Relations-oriented roles, on the other hand, are those roles in which the person tries to make everyone else feel good, being supportive and nurturing others in the group.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 258-259 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 22 .

112) What is "social loafing" and when does it occur?

Answer: Social loafing is when one or more members of a group work less hard than they could because they see their contribution being less important because of the group effort. They loaf or get a 'free ride.' This is especially true with additive tasks where the efforts of one person add to the efforts of another.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 264-265 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 113) You are designing a training program for managers, managing teams. Identify the four major stages of team creation.

Answer: Stage 1: Prework involves determining when a team should be created; and objectives are set, decisions on authority are made, and a skills inventory is conducted. Stage 2: Creating performance conditions means ensuring the proper conditions exist for maximum performance.

Stage 3: Forming and building the team involves setting boundaries, who is and is not a team member; acceptance of the team mission by members; and clarifying expectations. Stage 4: Providing ongoing assistance means helping the team eliminate and solve problems, as well as obtain and use resources.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 273-274 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 114) What is ethnorelativistic thinking and how do managers promote it?

Answer: Ethnorelativistic thinking refers to taking the perspective of another group and understanding how they see the world. Promoting this type of thinking requires getting group members to understand and to respect the differences between them and helping them relate to one another despite those differences. This involves three key foci: perspective taking (considering the way others see things), empathy (being aware of others’ feelings), and adaptability (willingness to changes one’s own view and behaviors).

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 283 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

23 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 9 Communication in Organizations 1) ________ is the process by which a person, group, or organization transmits some type of information to another person, group, or organization.

A) Communication B) Encoding C) Transmitting D) Queuing Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 293 AACSB: Communication 2) The process by which a person or group transmits information to another person or group is: A) encoding.

B) communication.

C) queuing.

D) personal communication.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 293 AACSB: Communication 3) John has an idea he wishes to communicate to Mary. He thinks it out and writes down his thoughts in a letter. John is engaging in the process of: A) decoding.

B) transmitting.

C) encoding.

D) sending.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 293 AACSB: Communication 4) The means by which the message is carried from its origin to the recipient is called: A) feedback.

B) encoding.

C) communication.

D) the channel.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 293 AACSB: Communication

1 .

5) The process through which information received through communication is converted back into ideas or concepts is known as: A) decoding.

B) transmitting.

C) encoding.

D) sending.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 294 AACSB: Communication 6) Knowledge about the impact of messages on receivers is known as: A) decoding.

B) information.

C) feedback.

D) encoding.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 294 AACSB: Communication 7) If a message is poorly encoded or improperly decoded, this is an example of ________ in the communication process.

A) noise B) the MUM effect C) the Doppler effect D) the HURIER effect Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 294 AACSB: Communication 8) The barriers in the communication process that result in distortion of the clarity of the message are: A) nonverbal symbols.

B) noise.

C) the channels used.

D) the context in which the message is sent.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 294 AACSB: Communication 9) The role of organizational communication includes: A) directing action.

B) coordinating action.

C) building social relationships.

D) All of these elements.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 295 AACSB: Communication 2 .

10) When individuals share information one on one, either formally or informally, this is known as: A) interpersonal communication.

B) group-level communication.

C) organizational communication.

D) inter-organizational communication.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 296 AACSB: Communication 11) Frank and five other company department representatives get together to talk about a strategic plan. This is known as: A) interpersonal communication.

B) group-level communication.

C) organizational-level communication.

D) inter-organizational communication.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 296 AACSB: Communication 12) When information is shared within a team, this is known as: A) interpersonal communication.

B) group-level communication.

C) organizational communication.

D) inter-organizational communication.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 296 AACSB: Communication 13) If IBM and Microsoft work together make plans for sharing resources to create a new product, this is known as: A) interpersonal communication.

B) group-level communication.

C) organizational-level communication.

D) inter-organizational communication.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 296 AACSB: Communication

3 .

14) The verbal communication medium that is the richest in information and personal in nature is: A) telephone.

B) face-to-face conversation.

C) memos or letters.

D) All of the above.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 297 AACSB: Communication 15) An internal document describing information of general interest to employees regarding an array of business and non-business issues is called a ________.

A) memorandum B) handbook C) intranet D) newsletter Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 298 AACSB: Communication 16) The purpose of an employee handbook includes: A) conveying information of general interest to employees.

B) explaining key aspects of company policy and philosophy of operation.

C) forestalling conflict and misunderstandings.

D) All of these.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 298 AACSB: Communication 17) The most common type of communication in organizations is: A) two-way oral communication.

B) one-way written communication.

C) two-way written communication.

D) one-way oral communication.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 299 AACSB: Communication 18) ________ is the recommended medium for sending long and complicated material or short thank-you notes.

A) E-mail B) Fax C) Postal mail D) None of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 300 AACSB: Communication 4 .

19) Matching the type of communications media to the kind of message sent is considered: A) media insensitive.

B) media savvy.

C) media sensitive.

D) nonverbal communication.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 300 AACSB: Communication 20) When a company distributes layoff notices via e-mail, it is sending the message that ________.

A) it is aware of the latest communication trends.

B) it is doing its part to promote a "paperless" workplace.

C) it is sensitive to the privacy rights of its employees.

D) it does not care about the employees it is letting go.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 301 AACSB: Communication 21) If you have to wait for someone with whom you have an appointment, this is a nonverbal message that: A) this person is disorganized.

B) the individual you have the appointment with is rude.

C) the person you are meeting perceives themselves as having higher status than you do.

D) you are not properly attired and therefore will be made to wait.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 302 AACSB: Communication 22) Studies of group communication when group members are seated at a table: A) the location one chooses around a table has no impact on his/her communication possibilities.

B) people who sit at the head of the table often emerge as the leaders of groups.

C) leaders emerge from the seat closest to the head of the table on the right side.

D) a group leader has the most power and the most effective communication from a position in the middle of a table.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 302 AACSB: Communication

5 .

23) Joining the index finger and thumb to form an "O" means "ok" in the U.S., but in Brazil or Germany it is ________.

A) a sign of indifference B) a sign of friendship C) meaningless D) an insult.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 302 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 24) A telephone conversation is an example of: A) synchronous communication.

B) asynchronous communication.

C) inter-organizational communication.

D) information overload.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 303 AACSB: Communication 25) Communicating via e-mail is an example of: A) synchronous communication.

B) asynchronous communication.

C) inter-organizational communication.

D) information overload.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 303 AACSB: Communication 26) The most effective means for linking people into a meeting who are in distant locations is by: A) global priority mail.

B) blogging.

C) video-mediated communications.

D) conference e-mail.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 303 AACSB: Communication 27) Symbols intended to express emotion online (created with characters such as commas, hyphens, and parentheses) are known as: A) emoticons.

B) punctuation.

C) grapevines.

D) jargon.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 305 AACSB: Communication 6 .

28) Organizational structure refers to the: A) formal patterns of communication, who talks to whom.

B) pattern of communication networks in the organization.

C) directing of the flow of communication within an organization.

D) formally prescribed pattern of interrelationships existing between various units.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 307 29) An organizational chart indicates the: A) informal patterns of communication between people.

B) interrelationships with external business partners.

C) formal patterns of communication, who talks to whom.

D) communication style of the organization.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 307 AACSB: Communication 30) Downward communication includes which of the following types?

A) Instructions B) Commands or orders C) Feedback on past performance D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 308 AACSB: Communication 31) Upward communication is ________.

A) exchanged between peers B) simply the reverse of downward communication C) always welcomed by upper management D) often inaccurate Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 310 AACSB: Communication 32) Upward communication in organizations: A) occurs less frequently than downward communication.

B) occurs more frequently than downward communication.

C) tends to contain more 'bad' news for managers than 'good' news.

D) is generally accurate due to the fewer levels it passes through.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 309-310 AACSB: Communication

7 .

33) Informal gender-segregated communication networks are known as the ________.

A) old-boys network B) glass ceiling C) grapevine D) division of labor Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 312 34) Worker turnover in the XYZ Corp. is quite high. It seems that people from the same work group where there had been recent layoffs are quitting at a high rate. This is an example of: A) the snowball effect.

B) social impact theory.

C) the old boys' network.

D) the effect of centralized communication.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 312 AACSB: Communication 35) The organizational grapevine is an example of: A) a formal channel of communication.

B) a wheel communication network.

C) an informal channel of communication.

D) a "Y" communication network.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 313 AACSB: Communication 36) Research shows that the information communicated in organizational grapevines is about ________ correct.

A) 25% B) 42% C) 55% D) 82% Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 313 AACSB: Communication 37) Rumors tend to be ________.

A) kept between friends B) speculative information without factual basis C) fueled by the snowball effect D) relatively harmless and should be ignored Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 314 AACSB: Communication

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38) Rumors that reflect people's wishes are known as: A) pipe dreams.

B) smoke and mirrors.

C) wedge drivers.

D) home-stretchers.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 314 AACSB: Communication 39) ________ are based on people's fears and anxieties.

A) Pipe dreams B) Bogie rumors C) Wedge drivers D) Home-stretchers Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 314 AACSB: Communication 40) When rumors are designed to damage someone's reputation, these rumors are known as: A) pipe dreams.

B) bogie rumors.

C) wedge drivers.

D) home-stretchers.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 314 AACSB: Communication 41) Those rumors designed to reduce the level of ambiguity in a situation are known as: A) pipe dreams.

B) bogie dreams.

C) wedge drivers.

D) home-stretchers.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 314 AACSB: Communication 42) Probably, the least effective way to counter a rumor about yourself is to: A) refute it directly by saying, "I didn't do it."

B) refute it with indisputable facts.

C) cast aspersions on the source.

D) direct attention away from the rumor.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 315 AACSB: Communication

9 .

43) A communication difference between men and women is that men: A) are more status oriented than women in their communication.

B) use the term "We" more often in their conversations than women do.

C) strive to create positive social connections more than women do.

D) tend to ask more questions than women do.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 316-317 AACSB: Communication 44) One of the differences in the way men and women communicate is that women: A) are more status oriented than men in their communication.

B) use the term "We" more often in their conversations than men do.

C) have become more assertive and confident in their speech patterns.

D) tend to make declarative statements while men tend to ask questions.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 317 AACSB: Communication 45) An important implication of gender differences in communication is: A) that more men than women tend to use the Magisterial style.

B) the fact that men and women can use the same words but have different meanings for them.

C) powerful people tend to reward individuals who have linguistic styles like their own.

D) women tend to take Reflective style while men tend to take on a Senatorial style.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 317 AACSB: Communication 46) Cross-cultural communication: A) can be difficult since the same word can mean different things to different people.

B) is becoming much easier as the world's cultures become more homogenous.

C) is no longer a problem due to text messaging and e-mail.

D) includes all of these.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 317 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 47) In Japan, "no" is communicated by ________.

A) leaving the room B) responding in a highly tangential manner C) asking questions that change the topic D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 318 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

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48) There are a number of steps you can take to promote cross-cultural communication, including: A) assuming others are similar to yourself.

B) carefully evaluating your observations.

C) taking the other person's perspective.

D) speaking slowly and loudly.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 318 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 49) Jim is in China teaching English as a second language. Even though both he and his students are using English to communicate, Jim can promote cross-cultural communication by: A) carefully evaluating the messages of the students.

B) assuming the student's perspective on English is different than his own.

C) assuming his perceptions of their presentations is correct.

D) doing all of these things.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 318 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 50) When professionals use a specialized language they are: A) avoiding needlessly formal language.

B) removing one barrier to effective communication.

C) using jargon.

D) doing all of these.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 319 AACSB: Communication 51) In a small manufacturing business, the technical professionals are not understood by the first line supervisors when they are explaining how to use the computer guided machines on the plant floor due to the language the 'techies' use. This is an example of the communication barrier of: A) communication overload.

B) the lack of active listening by the supervisors.

C) the use of jargon.

D) the MUM phenomenon in organizations.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 319 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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52) About ________ percent of e-mail messages received are considered to be spam.

A) 75 B) 60 C) 40 D) 35 Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 294 AACSB: Communication 53) Unsolicited commercial e-mails are known as: A) computer snoot.

B) feedback.

C) noise.

D) spam.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 294 AACSB: Communication 54) The annual cost of spam is about: A) $7 million.

B) $90 million.

C) $20 billion.

D) $70 billion.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 294 AACSB: Communication 55) Dee is actively listening to John's presentation. She is practicing the HURIER model. At one point in the presentation Dee makes sure that John knows that she is paying attention. Dee's action is what part of the HURIER model?

A) Understanding B) Hearing C) Interpreting D) Responding Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 322 AACSB: Communication 56) In the HURIER model for active listening, if you do not immediately pass judgment on the message being sent, you are practicing: A) hearing.

B) evaluating.

C) interpreting.

D) remembering.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 322 AACSB: Communication 12 .

57) Research shows that when it comes to listening: A) most people are aware of how other people perceive their listening skills.

B) most managers rate their listening skills as poor.

C) it is a significant tool that can lead to rapid advancement in organizations.

D) people listen more closely to upward communication than they do to downward communication.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 322 AACSB: Communication 58) If a communication network becomes bogged down with information, it is said to: A) be queued.

B) be in a gatekeeping mode.

C) be experiencing the MUM effect.

D) be overloaded.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 323 AACSB: Communication 59) The secretary that manages the sales manager's schedule and screens his call, is fulfilling the communication function of: A) queuing.

B) gatekeeping.

C) verifying.

D) information skimming.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 323 AACSB: Communication 60) One way to minimize distortion and omission problems in communication is the practice of: A) redundancy.

B) active listening.

C) queuing.

D) information skimming.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 324 AACSB: Communication 61) A way to ensure accuracy in the receipt of messages is for the sender to: A) avoid redundancy.

B) practice active listening.

C) use queuing.

D) require verification.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 324 AACSB: Communication 13 .

62) Bill, the HR director, has scheduled an informal meeting between hourly employees and middle-managers, leaving the first line supervisors out of the meeting. Bill has set up a/an: A) brown bag meeting.

B) skip-level meeting.

C) corporate hotline.

D) employee survey.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 325 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 63) If the HR director wanted information from as many employees as possible on a regular basis, using a quick and easy method of gathering the information, his best choice of tool would be: A) brown bag meetings.

B) skip-level meetings.

C) a corporate hotline.

D) employee surveys.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 325 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 64) Supportive communication is characterized by: A) focusing on the person, not the problem.

B) accuracy and honesty.

C) providing reasons based on what others have done.

D) All of these.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 326 AACSB: Communication 65) In a discussion with other managers, Stone tells Thelma that he disagrees with her. "I don't agree, but I would like to hear your position, I could be wrong." In terms of supportive communication, this is an example of: A) validating language.

B) reflexive discourse.

C) convivial communication.

D) upward messaging.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 326 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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66) If you are in a discussion and you want to keep the conversation going, you would use ________ to encourage the continuation of the discussion.

A) disjunctive statements B) verification C) the snowball effect D) conjunctive statements Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 326 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 9.1 Organizational communication students are observing and studying the communication at a corporate board meeting. Because the company is a multinational company, some of the people present are wearing headphones to hear the simultaneous translation from English language of the speaker at the head of the table, into their languages.

67) Refer to Table 9.1. The translators doing the simultaneous translation from English into other languages represent ________ in the communications model.

A) encoding B) sending C) channel D) decoding Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 293 AACSB: Communication 68) Refer to Table 9.1. The headphones the international guests are wearing exemplify which element of the communications model?

A) Encoding B) Channel C) Decoding D) Feedback Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 293 AACSB: Communication 69) Refer to Table 9.1. When the non-English speaking members of the meeting respond to the presentation with their comments and questions, they are: A) encoding.

B) sending.

C) decoding.

D) giving feedback.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 294 AACSB: Communication

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70) Refer to Table 9.1. The first two hours of this meeting is a report on the company's progress over the last year, supported by data pertaining to growth in market share, overall profits, revenue forecasts, etc. The most effective medium for conveying this information would be: A) just what they are doing, a oral presentation.

B) the telephone for one-on-one discussion.

C) text-messaging or micro-blogging.

D) a written memo or report, supported by graphs and tables.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 297-298 AACSB: Communication Table 9.2 A student of organizational communication, John is studying how the target of a communication shapes the communication. In his studies, he notes that the technical professionals tend to not tell middle managers about problems they are having with the system or about shutdowns they will implement to change something. This isn't a problem for John because he hears about the system shut downs from the IS department secretary who calls him up to warn him about 10 minutes before the system goes down. However, up and down the hall, John can hear managers swearing, as the system goes down and their work disappears for anywhere from 15 minutes to a couple of hours.

The marketing manager tends to work fairly hard at keeping the sales and operation managers current on her plans for product campaigns so the sales people can talk about them and operations can make sure there is enough product on hand to meet demand.

71) Refer to Table 9.2. The problem with the lack of communication between the technical professionals and the middle managers is an example of a lack of: A) downward communication.

B) horizontal communication.

C) diagonal communication.

D) upward communication.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 309 AACSB: Communication 72) Refer to Table 9.2. The marketing manager's communication to the sales and operations managers is an example of: A) downward communication.

B) lateral communication.

C) diagonal communication.

D) upward communication.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 310 AACSB: Communication

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73) Refer to Table 9.2. The way John hears about the system shut downs is an example of: A) informal communication.

B) cross-departmental interchange.

C) downward communication.

D) inside communication.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 312 AACSB: Communication Table 9.3 Jane has been tasked with the responsibility for opening the communication channels between employees and management. She implements a simple system quickly, where employees can share their good ideas about how to improve the organization by submitting their ideas in writing and being rewarded for the ideas that are used by the company. Corporate executives like the idea but they want broader participation. They would like feedback from all employees if possible. Once they have that feedback, they want to informally meet with selected employees to discuss the issues the broader outreach raises.

74) Refer to Table 9.3. Jane's initial effort for feedback is called a/an: A) corporate hotline.

B) suggestion system.

C) employee survey.

D) brown bag meeting.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 324 AACSB: Communication 75) Refer to Table 9.3. The tool that will get the executives what they want once they have the broadest possible input would be a/an: A) corporate hotline.

B) suggestion system.

C) employee survey.

D) brown bag meeting.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 325 AACSB: Communication 76) Refer to Table 9.3. To meet the desires of upper management, Jane should implement a/an: A) corporate hotline.

B) suggestion system.

C) employee survey.

D) brown bag meeting.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 325 AACSB: Communication

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77) Jerry wants to tell Mary he likes her. As he is thinking about how to frame what he wants to say, he is at the choosing a channel stage of the communication process.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 293 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 78) Memos, e-mail, and faxes are examples of written communication that are "rich" because of the amount of information they provide.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 297 AACSB: Communication 79) Writing is the best medium for communicating an ambiguous message.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 297 AACSB: Communication 80) Due to advances in technology, one-way communication is now more commonly used in organizations than two-way communication.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 299 AACSB: Communication 81) Time, space, and style of dress are all types of nonverbal communication.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 302 AACSB: Communication 82) Asynchronous communication allows users to send and receive messages in real time.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 303 AACSB: Communication 83) When someone intentionally says malicious things about another person with the intention of damaging that person's reputation, the rumor involved is called a wedge driver.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 314 84) The advantages of video-mediated communication over phone, fax, and e-mail are its ability to use information from several sources at the same time and to permit visual clarification.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 303 AACSB: Communication

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85) The practice of communicating with another online by typing messages into boxes that pop up on the screen as needed is known as e-mailing.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 305 86) Of the three types of communication in an organization, lateral communication is often the tensest because it is among peers.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 310 AACSB: Communication 87) If you become a victim of a rumor, try to refute it immediately with indisputable facts.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 316 AACSB: Communication 88) When an organization is facing a rumor, the most effective way of dealing with it is a direct strong denial or refutation of it.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 315 AACSB: Communication 89) People in powerful positions tend to reward people whose linguistic styles match their own.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 317 AACSB: Communication 90) Cross-cultural communication can be promoted by assuming that people are different from you.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 317 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 91) Jargon can be a significant barrier to organizational communication.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 319 AACSB: Communication 92) An active listener asks questions and puts the speaker's ideas into his/her own words as he/she listens.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 321 AACSB: Communication

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93) Jasmine is trying to manage all the information that came across her desk while she was gone. She has taken the phone messages and stacked them in priority order, assigned priorities to her e-mail and sorted it accordingly, and asked her secretary to hold any calls that didn't need immediate attention. Jasmine is managing her communication overload through omission and redundancy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 323 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 94) Suggestion boxes, hotlines, and employee surveys are forms of organizational feedback.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 324 AACSB: Communication 95) Supportive communicators do not say what they mean, and they focus on the person, not the problem, in their communication.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 325 AACSB: Communication 96) Val responds to Ed's question by saying, "That way would work well, but can I suggest a variation of that?" In doing this, Val is using validating language in her conversation with Ed. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 326 AACSB: Communication 97) Mick and Charlie are having an informal get-together over lunch to discuss what's going on in the company.They are having a brown bag meeting.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 325 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 98) Describe the communication process, naming each element and explaining its part in the process.

Answer: The process begins when a sender has an idea to transmit to another party. The sender must encode the message by translating it into a form (written or oral) that can be recognized by the party that receives the message. Then, the message is transmitted over one or more channels of communication; that is, the pathway along which information travels to the receiver, the one for whom the message is intended. Upon receipt of the message, the receiver decodes or converts it back into the sender’s ideas. At this point, the receiver transmits a new message back to the sender. This message is known as feedback or knowledge about the how the message affected the receiver. Sometimes noise interferes with the sending and receiving of the message and distorts it, diminishing its clarity.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 293-294 AACSB: Communication

20 .

99) Explain the nature of upward, downward, and lateral communication in an organization.

Answer: Downward communication consists of instructions, directions, and orders from superiors to subordinates about what they should be doing. It is not always accurately perceived.

The more levels it passes through on the way down, the more distortion is possible. Upward communication moves from subordinate to superior and consists of status reports, reactions to work-related issues, suggestions, and new ideas. There is less upward than downward communication, and it tends to be of shorter duration. There is a general reluctance to pass bad news upward. Lateral communication takes place among peers in different parts of the organization. It is coordinating communication and tends to be friendlier and more casual than upward/downward communication. But it too can have problems as people compete for the same resources.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 308-311 AACSB: Communication 100) How does culture impact communication? How can we enhance cross-cultural communication?

Answer: Globalization presents many challenges; one of the most immediate challenges is communication. Part of the problem is that different words can mean different things to different people. In addition to different vocabularies, in different languages, even the same word can mean different things.

Several steps can promote cross-cultural communication. Observe, but do not evaluate; do not jump to conclusions; assume people are different from yourself; and take the other person's perspective. Although taking these steps may be easier said than done, with practice, they can be mastered. Given that such practices are essential to the success of international managers, the effort involved is worth making.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 371-318 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 101) What is the HURIER model?

Answer: HURIER is an acronym composed of the initials of the words that reflect the component skills of effective listening: hearing, understanding, remembering, interpreting, evaluating, and responding.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 322 AACSB: Communication

21 .

102) How can an organization facilitate feedback and open the channels of communication with employees?

Answer: To operate effectively, organizations must communicate accurately with those who keep them running (i.e., their employees). Unfortunately, most employees believe the feedback between themselves and their organizations is not as good as it should be. Organizations can obtain information from their employees in several ways.

One means is the use of suggestion systems. Approximately 15 percent of employees use their companies' suggestion boxes, and approximately 25 percent of the suggestions they made are implemented. A second method is a corporate hotline; that is, telephone lines staffed by corporate personnel who were ready to answer employees' questions, listen to their comments, and the like. A third set of techniques (known as "brown bag" meetings and "skip level" meetings) is designed to facilitate communication between people who usually do not get together because they work at different organizational levels. Finally, employee surveys can gather information about employees' attitudes and opinions regarding key areas of organizational operations.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 324-325 AACSB: Communication 103) Discuss the various forms of verbal communication and when it is appropriate to use each one.

Answer: Verbal media may be written or oral. Written consists of memos, letters, employee handbooks, newsletters, flyers, bulletins, etc. Oral consists of face-to-face and use of the telephone. Oral communication gets immediate attention, and it is best for ambiguous communication. Written communication is best for routine, non-ambiguous communication.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 297-298 AACSB: Communication 104) Nonverbal communication is a significant portion of a message. Explain how mode of dress, waiting time, seating position, and body language can affect the communication process.

Answer: One’s mode of dress conveys an image. The key issue is the appropriateness of attire.

Higher-ranking people (such as managers or executives) tend to communicate their positions in the organization by using waiting time to keep lower-ranking people waiting to see them.

Higher-ranking people also assert their higher status by seating position; that is, sitting at the heads of rectangular tables. When considering body language, it is important to realize that people from various cultures interpret certain nonverbal signs very differently than people do in the United States. Avoiding serious miscommunications requires familiarizing oneself with such information.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 302 AACSB: Communication

22 .

105) Are there gender-related differences in the way men and women communicate? If so what are they?

Answer: Yes, there are differences. Men emphasize and reinforce status when they talk. Men tend to say "I." Men try to exude confidence and see questions as weakness. Men tend to be more direct and confrontive. Women de-emphasize status and focus on positive social connections.

Women tend to say "We." Women downplay their confidence and ask questions. Women listen and offer social support.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 316-317 AACSB: Communication 106) How can a manager become a supportive communicator?

Answer: To be an effective communicator, you must practice supportive communication. By this, we mean any communication that is accurate, honest, and builds and enhances relationships instead of jeopardizing them. The following tactics can help you become a more supportive communicator: ∙ Focus on the problem, not the person ∙ Honestly say what you mean ∙ Own your decisions ∙ Use validating language ∙ Keep the conversation going Diff: 3 Page Ref: 325-326 AACSB: Communication

23 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 10 Decisions Making in Organizations 1) The process of making choices from several alternatives is called: A) framing the problem.

B) heuristics.

C) decision-making.

D) identifying the problem.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 334 2) The analytical model of the decision-making process focuses on which key aspects of decision-making: A) heuristic and programming.

B) the style and the system used.

C) who and how.

D) formulation and implementation.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 334 3) The first step in the traditional, analytical model of decision-making is to: A) identify the problem.

B) make a predecision.

C) define the objectives to be met.

D) None of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 334 4) Once a problem has been identified: A) alternatives must be evaluated.

B) objectives must be defined.

C) a predecision is made.

D) alternative solutions must be created.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 335 5) A "predecision" is ________.

A) an intuitive decision-making model B) the tendency to have your mind made up before knowing all the facts C) a decision about what process to follow in making a decision.

D) None of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 335

1 .

6) The use of ________ leads to outcomes that are higher in quantity and better in quality than those made in the absence of such techniques.

A) evaluations support technology B) decision support systems C) communications technology D) alternative generations support Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 336 7) ________ are computer programs that help decision makers structure their responses to decisions.

A) Decision support systems B) Heuristics C) Programmed decision models D) Administrative modeling systems Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 336 8) The identification of possible solutions to the problem comes in the: A) predecision stage.

B) alternative generation stage.

C) problem definition stage.

D) problem framing stage.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 336 9) If Alonso Lopes continually checks up on his counter parts everyday to make sure that they are consistently present and working, then he would be using: A) strategic decision-making.

B) programmed decision-making.

C) nonprogrammed decision-making.

D) preestablished decision-making.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 337 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 10) If a manager is making a decision for which no ready-made solutions exist because the situation is unique, he/she is making a(n): A) programmed decision.

B) strategic decision.

C) empowered decision.

D) nonprogrammed decision.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 337

2 .

11) When trying to decide if a decision is a programmed or nonprogrammed decision, a manager should consider three questions, including: A) How much time do we have?

B) What resources are needed?

C) What is the probability of obtaining the desired outcome?

D) What types of tasks are involved?

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 338 12) The key element in classifying a decision as certain or uncertain is: A) the ambiguity of the information involved.

B) the level of manager involved in the decision.

C) the risk involved.

D) the existence of organizational policies.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 338 13) When a decision is made on concrete verifiable data, the decision is based on: A) subjective probabilities.

B) objective probabilities.

C) framing.

D) the representativeness heuristic.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 339 14) When a decision is based on personal beliefs or hunches it is called: A) subjective probability.

B) objective probability.

C) framing.

D) the representative heuristic.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 339 15) The level of uncertainty in a decision can be reduced by: A) increasing the information available from which to make the decision.

B) increasing the number of decision makers involved.

C) giving decision-making authority to consultants.

D) delaying the decision until a later time.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 339-340

3 .

16) When managers make decisions they rely most heavily on: A) decision support systems.

B) their history of past decisions.

C) the use of team decision-making.

D) rules and procedures.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 340 17) Bill's company tends to have employees from all levels gather data, prepare reports, and pass this information on to senior level managers who actually make the decisions. This is an example of: A) empowered decision-making.

B) top-down decision-making.

C) the use of the Delphi technique.

D) nonprogrammed decision-making.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 341 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 18) ________ allows employees to make the decisions required to do their jobs without first seeking supervisory approval.

A) Empowered decision-making B) Top-down decision-making C) The use of the Delphi technique D) Nonprogrammed decisions-making Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 341 19) At Disney World, employees use ________ in order to make customers happy on the spot.

A) empowered decision-making B) top-down decision-making C) the Delphi technique D) nonprogrammed decisions-making Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 342 20) A person who prefers complex problems and is willing to use innovative methods would be most likely to use the ________.

A) directive style of making decisions B) analytical style of making decisions C) conceptual style of making decisions D) behavioral style of making decisions Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 342-243

4 .

21) When making a decision, if an individual is more willing to consider complex solutions based on ambiguous information after carefully studying the data, and enjoys solving problems, his/her decision style is most likely to be: A) directive.

B) analytical.

C) conceptual.

D) behavioral.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 342 22) If a person is more socially oriented in his/her approach to problems, if he/she tends to consider many broad alternatives, and have a strong future orientation, his/her decision style is most likely to be: A) directive.

B) analytical.

C) conceptual.

D) behavioral.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 343 23) A person who has a deep concern for the organization and the development of the workers, and is highly concerned about others' achievement, mostly likely has a ________ decision style.

A) directive B) analytical C) conceptual D) behavioral Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 343 24) Studies show that corporate presidents tend toward ________.

A) an analytical decision style B) no one dominant decision style C) a conceptual decision style D) the directive decision style Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 343 25) According to research, military leaders were found to have high scores in the ________ decision-making style.

A) analytical B) directive C) conceptual D) behavioral Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 343

5 .

26) The expected advantages of using groups to make decisions include: A) the potential pooling of resources.

B) the generalization of labor.

C) faster decision-making.

D) All of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 345 27) Group decision-making does have a few disadvantages, such as: A) a tendency to waste time.

B) the potential for group conflict.

C) possible intimidation by the group leader.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 346 28) The tendency for members of highly cohesive groups to conform to group pressures so strongly that they reject the potentially correcting influence of outsiders is known as: A) escalation of commitment.

B) bias toward an implicit favorite.

C) bounded discretion.

D) groupthink.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 346 29) The first indicator that groupthink could develop is: A) the group has high levels of cohesion.

B) pressure to go along with the group develops.

C) a reluctance to question group decisions develops.

D) the development of the illusion that decisions are unanimous.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 346 30) Sometimes it may help to play the role of devil's advocate, to intentionally find fault with a proposed solution. This would be most useful for which of the following strategies for avoiding groupthink?

A) Using subgroups B) Admitting shortcomings C) Holding second-chance meetings D) Promoting open inquiry Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 347

6 .

31) One can prevent or diminish groupthink by: A) breaking the larger group into subgroups.

B) encouraging members to keep their skepticism about solutions to themselves.

C) sticking to the decision once it is made.

D) doing all of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 347 32) Groupthink can be eliminated or diminished by: A) promoting open inquiry.

B) holding second-chance meetings.

C) admitting shortcomings.

D) doing all of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 347 33) When people in an organization make decisions in order to make themselves look good, the organizational barrier of ________ is interfering with rational decision-making.

A) time constraints B) political facesaving C) groupthink D) intimidation by group leaders Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 347 34) The ________ of decision-making seeks to maximize profits by searching systematically for the optimum solution to a problem.

A) quasi-analytical model.

B) rational-economic model.

C) administrative model.

D) image theory model.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 349 35) The decision-making model that simply considers alternatives as they appear and accepts the first alternative that meets the criteriafor acceptability is the: A) traditional analytical model.

B) rational-economic model.

C) administrative model.

D) image theory model.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 349

7 .

36) ________ is an organizational impediment to decision-making where moral and ethical limitations impact the decision.

A) Heuristics B) Bounded rationality C) Bounded discretion D) Political "face saving" pressure Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 350 37) ________ are made by selecting the first minimally acceptable alternative as it becomes available.

A) Business decisions B) Rational decisions C) Optimal decisions D) Satisficing decisions Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 349-350 38) According to image theory, decision-making is: A) an automatic, intuitive process.

B) a deliberate process.

C) a search for the best solution.

D) done following a programmed approach.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 352 39) According to image theory, the decision to adopt a course of action is based on a two-step process, known as the: A) heuristic test and the predecision test.

B) compatibility test and the profitability test.

C) decision framing test and the proscriptive test.

D) relativity test and the acceptance criteria test.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 352 40) ________ refers to the making decisions differently, depending on how the problem is presented.

A) Compatibility testing B) Profitability testing C) Framing D) Bounded rationality Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 353

8 .

41) If you want to frame a decision in such a way as to increase the likelihood that people will be more willing to take risks, you should: A) frame the problem in terms of the potential losses to be suffered.

B) frame the problem in terms of the positive gains to be received.

C) balance the framing of the problem between potential losses and positive gains.

D) do none of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 353 42) Henrietta thinks that the dip in stock prices is a good sign she should buy because her broker describes the dip as an opportunity rather than as a downturn. Henrietta's behavior is an example of: A) goal framing.

B) a heuristic for buying stock.

C) attribute framing.

D) risky choice framing effect.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 354 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 43) Orin is trying to persuade his date to go see the latest action movie. He has decided that what he needs to do is emphasize what she will miss, how hurt he will be, and that he will go anyway but with his other friends, something she doesn't want him to do. Orin has framed the issue in terms of: A) attributes.

B) goals.

C) relationships.

D) heuristics.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 354 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 44) The ________ describes how decision makers ideally ought to behave so as to make the best possible decisions.

A) normative approach B) goal-framing system C) administrative approach D) socio-economic paradigm Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 349

9 .

45) ________ are simple rules of thumb used to help make quick decisions about complex problems.

A) Heuristics B) Programmed decisions C) Educational guesses D) Framing guidelines Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 355 46) The tendency for people to base their judgments on information that is readily available to them, although it might not be accurate, is called: A) a bias toward implicit favorites.

B) an escalation of commitment.

C) a representativeness heuristic.

D) the availability heuristic.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 355 47) Which of the following describes the tendency for people to perceive others in stereotypical ways if they appear representative of the category to which they belong?

A) Bounded discretion B) Bias toward implicit favorites C) The representativeness heuristic D) The availability heuristic Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 355 48) Research shows that individuals will often ________ early in the decision process and then not seriously consider other options.

A) escalate their commitment B) choose an implicit favorite C) experience bounded rationality D) use a representativeness heuristic Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 356

10 .

49) Suppose you recommend hiring a certain individual for a new job in your department, and on the strength of your recommendation, she gets the job. As time goes on, the new hire proves to be a poor employee. Some of your colleagues even recommend dismissing her. However, because you were the person who recommended hiring her, you stand by your recommendation and argue that she should be given more time to prove herself on the job. Your behavior reflects the phenomenon of: A) escalating commitment.

B) choosing an implicit favorite.

C) experiencing bounded rationality.

D) using a representativeness heuristic.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 359 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 50) Escalation of commitment is unlikely when: A) funds for further investing are limited.

B) the threat of failure is overwhelming.

C) responsibility for earlier failures is diffused.

D) all of these have happened, or are happening.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 359-360 51) ________ is the tendency for people to give too little credit to others when things are going poorly and too much credit when things are going well.

A) Bounded rationality B) Person sensitivity bias C) Escalation of commitment D) Hindsight bias Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 358 52) Research of group versus individual decision-making seems suggests that: A) groups are almost always superior to individuals, regardless of the decision.

B) individuals are almost always superior to groups, regardless of the decision.

C) the superiority of group or individual decision-making depends on the nature of the task.

D) there is no measurable difference between decisions made by groups or individuals.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 361

11 .

53) A group is more effective than an individual at problem solving when the ________.

A) group is diverse B) skills of group members do not overlap or complement each other C) group’s level of communication is low D) group is heterogeneous with complementary skills.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 361 54) The superiority of the group or an individual depends on: A) the nature of the task and the expertise of the people involved.

B) the framing of the problem and the decision model used to generate solutions.

C) who has the most experience dealing with the specific problem.

D) None of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 362 55) If a decision is required on a simple problem and the answer is readily verifiable, ________.

A) an expert working alone may do better than a group B) groups tend to outperform even exceptional individuals C) the performance of groups and individuals will be equivalent D) brainstorming techniques can help the group make the decision Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 362 56) Individuals perform better than groups on: A) highly structured, mundane tasks.

B) complex tasks.

C) all types of tasks.

D) poorly structured, creative tasks.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 363 57) Effective brainstorming requires: A) the immediate and thorough evaluation of all suggestions.

B) the sharing of all ideas, even far-out suggestions.

C) that only those who have experience with the problem share their ideas.

D) All of these.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 362-363 58) Research on brainstorming shows: A) that it works best with unique problems requiring creative solutions.

B) that groups are most productive when being creative.

C) that people feel inhibited by the presence of others when sharing far-out ideas.

D) All of these.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 363 12 .

59) If a group seeks answers too quickly in a sense of desperation, they are guilty of: A) unconflicted change.

B) unconflicted adherence.

C) defensive avoidance.

D) hypervigilance.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 364 60) ________ occurs when decision makers stick to the first idea that comes to mind without adequately evaluating it consequences.

A) Unconflicted change B) Unconflicted adherence C) Defensive avoidance D) Hypervigilance Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 364 61) The process of using the consensus of expert judges collected by letter or e-mail to make decisions is known as: A) the electronic meeting system.

B) the nominal group technique.

C) the Delphi technique.

D) the Stepladder technique.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 364 62) The first step in the use of the Delphi technique is: A) posing the problem.

B) enlisting the cooperation of the experts.

C) recording the experts' responses.

D) having the experts comment on each other's responses.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 364 63) The Delphi technique has the advantage of: A) reducing costs while accessing expertise.

B) increasing the speed of the group decision process.

C) using peer pressure to control the decision-making process.

D) encouraging maximum participation.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 365

13 .

64) The method of systematically presenting and discussing ideas before voting on them in faceto-face groups is known as: A) the decision support system.

B) the nominal group technique.

C) the Delphi technique.

D) the Stepladder technique.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 365 65) A limitation of the nominal group technique is that: A) it requires a trained facilitator.

B) it is expensive.

C) it favors high-status group members.

D) it is time consuming.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 366 66) The nominal and Delphi techniques suffer from a similar drawback: A) a lower quality decision than with other techniques produce.

B) a susceptibility to groupthink.

C) the acceptance of the decision that is made.

D) None of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 366 67) The stepladder technique has the advantage of: A) minimizing nonparticipation.

B) having the lowest cost of all group problem-solving techniques.

C) being the fastest of all techniques.

D) All of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 366

14 .

Table 10.1 Brian, Chen, Adrienne, Sandra, and Jill are working on a company problem. Jill is deeply concerned for the company and how the solution will affect the personal development of employees. She is open to the others' suggestions and will tend to make her decision in the meeting. On the other hand, Brian wants a simple, clear, quick solution. He only gathers the minimum necessary information and tends to rest on rules or precedent to make his decision.

Adrienne has just retired from a successful 20-year career in the Army as a logistics officer.In contrast to Brian, Chen enjoys the problem-solving process. He wants to look at a complex solution because he wants the best possible solution. Sandra is the facilitator of the group. She reminds the group to think of the solution's impact on the employees. Sandra has a strong future orientation and enjoys her role as facilitator because it allows her to initiate new ideas.

68) Refer to Table 10.1. Brian's decision style is: A) directive.

B) analytical.

C) conceptual.

D) behavioral.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 342 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 69) Refer to Table 10.1. Chen has a ________ decision style.

A) directive B) analytical C) conceptual D) behavioral Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 342 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 70) Refer to Table 10.1. If Adrienne follows the norms discovered in decision style research, her style is most likely to be: A) directive.

B) analytical.

C) conceptual.

D) behavioral.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 343 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

15 .

71) Refer to Table 10.1. Jill's decision-making style is apparently: A) directive.

B) analytical.

C) conceptual.

D) behavioral.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 343 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 10.2 Decision makers have a number of options available to them as to how to categorize and make decisions. Ray selected his job because he thought it simply felt like the right place to work. The organization and job seemed to fit his values and career goals. When the secretary that reports to Ray in his new job decides that she needs office supplies, she calls up central purchasing and places an order. But in order to get the new computer software she wants for her job, she has to get Ray to sign off on the purchase. After six months on the job Ray concludes that he needs an assistant. He writes up the job description, receives permission to recruit for the position. He receives about 150 resumes in the mail. He sets up interviews with the top 10 candidates. As he is interviewing candidate number four, he decides he meets all the criteria and offers him the job, which he accepts.

72) Refer to Table 10.2. The secretary's decision-making process for buying office supplies is an example of: A) an unstructured decision.

B) a programmed decision.

C) the administrative decision model.

D) top-down decision-making.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 337 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 73) Refer to Table 10.2. The decision-making model Ray seems to be using in his recruiting/hiring efforts is the: A) traditional analytical model.

B) rational-economic model.

C) administrative model.

D) image theory model.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 349 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16 .

74) Refer to Table 10.2. Ray's decision-making process about his job seems to fit which of the following descriptions the best?

A) This exemplifies the traditional analytical model.

B) This is an example of a programmed decision.

C) This is a decision with low risk and low uncertainty.

D) This is an example of the image theory model.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 350-352 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 10.3 Nancy recently tried to talk her executive management team into moving into international markets. She emphasizes the positive opportunities that were possible, but her supervisors turn her idea down because they fear the risks involved. They preferred expanding existing markets to entering new markets. Nancy reviews the meeting with her supervisor later to see how she could improve it. Her supervisor says that she didn't provide sufficient information prior to the meeting and several of the executives were drawing on information currently on their desks, showing the international market was a dangerous place to be, rather than the exciting opportunity Nancy tried to present. Gail, Nancy's friend, suggested at lunch that the 'old-boys' network was functioning, and she was turned down because they weren't going to let some pushy woman tell them what they should be doing. About four months after the presentation, the executive management team meets again to decide about the investment of capital and effort. Existing markets are drying up, and if the company doesn't move into new markets, especially internationally, it may well fail. Obsolescence of the product line and the growth of competition is destroying their market share and profitability. However, the management team decides to invest more money and effort into existing markets and to let the international idea sit.

75) Refer to Table 10.3. The turn down by Nancy's bosses is an example of: A) an escalation of commitment.

B) bounded discretion.

C) framing effects.

D) a representativeness heuristic Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 354 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 76) Refer to Table 10.3. Nancy's immediate boss's explanation for the turndown is related to: A) a representativeness heuristic.

B) an availability heuristic.

C) bias toward an implicit favorite.

D) bounded discretion.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 355 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

17 .

77) Refer to Table 10.3. Gail's explanation of the failure of the presentation relates it to: A) a representativeness heuristic.

B) an availability heuristic.

C) bias toward an implicit favorite.

D) bounded discretion.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 355 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 78) Refer to Table 10.3. How could the management team's decision to continue to invest in existing markets be explained?

A) This is an example of the escalation of commitment.

B) Their bounded discretion restrains their action.

C) The framing effect keeps them from seeing the problem.

D) None of these.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 359 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 10.4 B.F.E., Inc. has to assign several problems to different groups. In the first case, the group consists of a number of experts who have offices across the country and have difficulty getting together. The problem they are working on is a problem that needs to be solved over the next six to nine months. In the second case, management is concerned that people might be intimidated by their leaders. The team is located in the same building as the corporate headquarters. Genuine consensus is important, and a trained facilitator is available to lead the group. In the third and final situation, management has observed that the people selected to participate seem hesitant to do so. Plus, the lengthy nature of the work to be done means new people will need to be added to the group periodically. Time is not an issue.

79) Refer to Table 10.4. ________ would be the best approach to problem solving in the first case.

A) The nominal group technique B) Microblogging C) The economic decision-making model D) The Delphi technique Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 364 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

18 .

80) Refer to Table 10.4. The best problem solving approach for the second case would be: A) nominal group technique.

B) electronic meeting systems.

C) traditional analytical problem solving.

D) Delphi technique.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 365 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 81) Refer to Table 10.4. The best problem-solving technique in the third situation would be: A) the nominal group technique.

B) the stepladder technique.

C) traditional analytical problem solving.

D) the Delphi technique.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 366 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 82) Programmed decisions are routine decisions that are made by lower personnel.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 337 83) Nancy is in the process of deciding which markets her company should pursue in the next five years. Nancy is making a nonprogrammed strategic decision.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 337-338 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 84) The risk element in decision-making is the probability that the desired outcome will result from the decision.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 338-339 85) Decision makers who use as much data as possible in considering complex solutions based on ambiguous information are using a directive decision-making style.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 342 86) Breaking a group into subgroups and promoting open inquiry in decision-making are ways to avoid groupthink.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 347 87) Some techniques that can be used in making decisions in emergencies are to recognize your prime objectives, rely on experts, and encourage groupthink.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 348 19 .

88) In the rational-economic decision-making model, the decision maker makes a decision as soon as possible on as little information as possible.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 349 89) In rational decision-making, a person seeks a prescriptive solution to a problem.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 349 90) The rational-economic model exemplifies how decision makers actually behave in most circumstances.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 349 91) A normative or prescriptive approach is one that describes how decision makers ideally ought to behave so as to make the best possible decisions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 349 92) The administrative model of decision-making is fundamentally an intuitive process.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 349 93) The tendency for people to make decisions based on how the problem is presented is the framing effect.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 353 94) If Melba is more influenced by negative information than by positive information in her decision-making, then she is experiencing the attribute framing effect.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 353 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 95) If Danny Poe is conducting a group interview for a management position at his firm, SencorTeck, and he chooses a candidate within the first 5 minutes of the interview, then Danny could be using an the explicit favorite option.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 356 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 96) Escalation of commitment involves selecting one’s preferred decision alternative before all options have been considered.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 359

20 .

97) Whether groups perform better than individuals depends on the nature of the task performed and the expertise of the people involved.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 361 98) The best time to use a group is with complex decisions is when the group is heterogeneous and has a complementary mix of skills.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 361 99) Individuals outperform groups on creative tasks and when the tasks are poorly structured.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 362 100) Defensive avoidance is the individual decision error of sticking to the very first idea that comes up in the process of making a decision.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 364 101) When using the nominal group technique, a group solicits the opinions of experts by mail and then compiles those opinions in order to discover the best solution to a problem.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 364 102) The stepladder technique adds new members to a group one at a time and requires each new member to present his/her ideas independently to the group.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 366 103) Explain the eight-step traditional, analytical model of decision-making.

Answer: (1) Identify the problem. Before a problem can be solved, it must be recognized and identified. Also, how a problem is solved depends on what it is. (2) Define objectives. It is important to conceive of a problem in ways that permit possible solutions to be identified. (3) Make a predecision. This involves deciding what process to follow in making the decision. (4) Generate alternatives. This is when possible solutions are identified. (5) Evaluate alternatives. A decision is made about which of the alternatives generated is best. (6) Make a choice. The most acceptable alternative is chosen. (7) Implement the decision. This involves carrying out the decision made in step number six. (8) Follow up. Monitoring the effectiveness of decisions is important to the success of the organization.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 334-336 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21 .

104) What is the decision style model?

Answer: The decision style model examines the differences between people with respect to their orientation toward decisions. According to this model, people use one of four predominant decision styles: directive, analytical, conceptual, and behavioral.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 342-343 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 105) Discuss the three predominate models of individual decision-making.

Answer: The rational-economic model is the search for the ideal or optimum solution. It follows the same steps as the traditional analytical model, but calls for the decision maker to recognize all courses of action and to evaluate each one. The model is both normative and prescriptive. The administrative model recognizes bounded rationality that limits the making of optimally rationaleconomic decisions. Decision makers consider alternatives as they present themselves taking the first alternative that meets the criteria for acceptability. Such decisions are satisficing decisions.

Bounded rationality is the assumption that human limitations lead to satisficing decisions rather than optimal decisions. Image theory is an intuitive approach to decision-making using a simple two-step process; that is, a compatibility test and a profitability test.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 349-352 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 106) Describe the four common problems individuals must overcome to improve group performance. How can these problems be avoided?

Answer: 1) Hypervigilance involves frantically searching for quick solutions to problems, going from one idea to another out of a sense of desperation. It can be avoided by keeping in mind that it is best to work thoroughly through one decision, reassuring the decision maker about his/her skill. 2) Unconflicted adherence results from decision makers sticking to the first idea that comes into their heads without evaluating it more deeply. To avoid this, decision makers should think about the difficulties inherent in their ideas, consider different ideas, and consider special and unique characteristics of the problem. 3) Unconflicted change happens when people change their minds too rapidly and adopt the first new idea. This can be avoided by encouraging decision makers to consider the risks and problems of adopting that solution, think about the good points of the first idea, and review the strengths and weaknesses of both ideas. 4) Defensive avoidance occurs when decision makers avoid working at the task at hand. This can be prevented by not procrastinating, avoiding disowning of responsibility, and not ignoring potential corrective information.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 364 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

22 .

107) Explain the Delphi technique, the nominal group technique, and the stepladder technique of decision-making and how they work.

Answer: 1) The Delphi technique was developed by the Rand Corporation. It systematically collects and organizes the opinions of several experts into a single decision when the experts are geographically dispersed. The process begins with the input of the experts. A group leader compiles the individual responses and shares them with everyone through reproduction and mailing. Each expert then comments on the individual decisions and sends his/her response back to the leader who looks for consensus of comments and summarizes the responses. The process is continued until a consensus decision is reached.

The Nominal group technique brings together a small group of decision makers, and in a number of hours leads them to a consensus-based decision. The problem is described to the group, who then work individually work out their own solution. The solutions are presented one at a time and recorded on a chart. Each one is discussed, clarified, and evaluated. Once all ideas are presented, they are ranked by the group, and the best one is selected. The decision makers are working as a group in name only since much of the work is done individually.

The Stepladder technique addresses the nonparticipation issue that often comes up when new members are added to a group already in the decision process. As new members are added, they are required to present their ideas. A pair of team members works on their idea and then they present it to the group. A third person is considering the group alone. The single contributor presents his/her ideas after the pair does and the three of them enter a discussion of the solution.

At that time, a fourth person is added to the group, after having worked on the problem independently. And so on. After each additional person is added, the group works together toward a solution.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 364-367 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 108) Identify the eight steps in the decision-making process.

Answer: Identify the problem, define objectives, make a predecision, generate alternatives, evaluate alternatives, make a choice, implement choice, and follow up.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 334-335 109) Briefly describe the type of task involved and who the typical decision maker is for programmed and nonprogrammed decision.

Answer: A programmed decision has a simple and routine type of task involved, where lowerlevel workers are the primary decision makers. A nonprogrammed decision is complex and creative, where upper-level supervisors usually make the decision.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 337-338 110) What is the difference between programmed and nonprogrammed decisions?

Answer: Programmed decisions are routine, made by lower-level personnel, and rely on predetermined courses of action. Nonprogrammed decisions must be made without ready-made solutions, since each situation confronted is unique.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 337-338 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 23 .

111) What are the advantages and disadvantages of group decisions.

Answer: Group decisions offer several advantages: a pooling of resources, specialization of labor, and greater acceptance of the decision. Group decisions pose some disadvantages: they are time consuming, they may result in group conflict, and members may be intimidated by the group leaders and therefore may not adequately express their opinions or ideas.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 345-346 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 112) Discuss groupthink and ways to avoid it.

Answer: Groupthink is the consequence of extreme cohesion. Group members tend to isolate themselves from outside information, and critical thinking deteriorates because group members are reluctant to challenge the group's decisions. It can be avoided by: 1) promoting open inquiry, 2) using subgroups, 3) admitting shortcomings, and 4) holding second-chance meetings.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 346-347 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 113) What is a heuristic? Describe two common types of heuristics used in organizational decision-making.

Answer: Heuristics are simple rules of thumb that are used to make quick decisions about complex problems. Available heuristic refers to the tendency for people to base their judgments on information that is readily available to them. Representative heuristic refers to the tendency to perceive others in stereotypical ways, if they appear to typify of the category to which they belong.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 355-356 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

24 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 11 Conflict, Cooperation, Trust, and Deviance: Interpersonal Behavior at Work 1) ________ is the tendency for people to help others on the job, even when they will not benefit personally from assisting them.

A) Transcendentalism B) Prosocial behavior C) Integrative bargaining D) Collateral cooperation Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 375 2) Suppose you are busy working on a special report for your boss, and the deadline is fast approaching. You ask your associate, Bill, who is not involved in the project, to help you get the job done, and he agrees to, although the project has nothing to do with his department or his work. Bill's behavior is an example of A) win-lose bargaining.

B) cooperation.

C) prosocial behavior.

D) organizational citizenship behavior.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 375 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 3) A person's belief about what is expected of another in a relationship is referred to as a(n) A) perceptual contract.

B) psychological contract.

C) interpersonal contract.

D) None of the above.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 376 4) Psychological contracts vary with respect ________.

A) time frame B) performance requirements C) both "A" and "B" D) neither "A" nor "B" Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 377 5) The time frame of a typical transactional contract is ________.

A) open-ended and indefinite B) closed-ended and short term C) broad and pervasive D) dynamic and changing frequently Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 378 1 .

6) Thomas has worked under the same supervisor for 35 years and considers her a good friend.

His relationship with his supervisor is based on a(n) A) relational contract.

B) transactional contract.

C) interpersonal contract.

D) social contract.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 378 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 7) Calculus-based trust A) refers to our tendency to treat others as we remember them treating us.

B) is based on accepting the wants and desires of another person.

C) exists when people believe that another person will behave as promised out of fear of punishment.

D) will sometimes contribute to organizational conflict.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 380 8) Rick knows and understands Chuck so well that he is willing to allow Chuck to act on his behalf. Rick is demonstrating ________.

A) calculus-based trust B) identification-based trust C) cognitive-based trust D) affective-based trust Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 380 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 9) Organizational citizenship behaviors are ________.

A) actions that benefit the organization, in exchange for some benefit.

B) actions by organizational members that exceed the formal requirements of their jobs.

C) processes by which individuals or organizations seek to coordinate their efforts.

D) concerns abouth all parties receiving the maximum benefit from an agreement.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 383 10) Speaking favorably about the organization to outsiders is an example of: A) psychological contracts.

B) OCB-I. C) OCB-O. D) both OCB-I and OCB-O. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 384

2 .

11) Being tolerant to temporary inconveniences without complaining is an example of: A) psychological contracts.

B) OCB-I. C) OCB-O. D) both OCB-I and OCB-O. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 384 12) Jack offers ideas to improve the way the XYZ Company operates. This is an example of: A) psychological contracts.

B) OCB-I. C) OCB-O. D) gatekeepers.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 384 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 13) Arnie always expresses his loyalty toward the XYZ Company. This is an example of: A) psychological contracts.

B) OCB-I. C) OCB-O. D) screaming Mimi.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 384 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 14) Doing a favor for someone is an example of: A) psychological contracts.

B) OCB-I. C) OCB-O. D) both OCB-I and OCB-O. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 383 15) Assisting a co-worker with a personal problem is an example of: A) psychological contracts.

B) OCB-I. C) OCB-O. D) both OCB-I and OCB-O. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 384

3 .

16) Bringing in food to share with others is an example of: A) psychological contracts.

B) OCB-I. C) OCB-O. D) both OCB-I and OCB-O. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 383 17) An employee of a company is badly hurt in an accident. When his disability insurance runs out, a fellow employee anonymously gives him enough money to live for six more months until he's able to return to work. The giver does not expect to be identified or repaid. This is an example of: A) altruism.

B) organizational citizenship behavior.

C) an individualistic approach to cooperation.

D) civic virtue.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 383 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 18) Not spending time at work on personal calls is an example of which form of organizational citizenship behavior?

A) Altruism B) Conscientiousness C) Civic virtue D) Sportsmanship Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 383 19) Making an effort to read memos and keep up with new information is an example of: A) altruism.

B) conscientiousness.

C) civic virtue.

D) courtesy.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 383 20) ________ is an organizational behavior where the employee makes do without complaining or finding fault with the organization.

A) Conscientiousness B) Civic virtue C) Courtesy D) Sportsmanship Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 383

4 .

21) When employees hold positive attitudes toward their organizations they are more likely to engage in: A) deviance.

B) OCB-I. C) OCB-O. D) both OCB-I and OCB-O. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 383-384 22) Ben engages in OCB. According to the text, this is likely to aid the company in: A) psychological contracts.

B) recruitment.

C) selection.

D) diversity.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 384 23) If two programmers pool their efforts to help meet an important deadline, their action reflects: A) organizational citizenship.

B) competition.

C) cooperation.

D) collectivism.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 386 24) While there are many reasons for cooperation not developing, the primary reason is that: A) mixed motives preclude relational contracts.

B) reciprocity breeds contempt.

C) distributive justice trumps collaboration.

D) goals sought cannot always be shared.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 387 25) When someone seeks to maximize their own gains, even if it is at the expense of others, they are: A) seeking to cooperate with others.

B) competing against others.

C) seeking an integrative solution.

D) involved in binding arbitration.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 387

5 .

26) Enrico is a salesman who is always trying to maximize his sales, often at the expense of others. His behavior is an example of: A) OCB. B) competition.

C) reciprocity.

D) cooperation.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 387 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 27) If Bill forms a study group for the management class, then he and his friends will get better grades. But if they do too well, or if others form study groups, it will skew the grade curve and will lower everyone's grade. This is an example of: A) A mixed-motive situation.

B) the negative consequence of whistleblowing.

C) integrative bargaining.

D) the effects of reciprocity.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 387 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 28) Guido believes that he should treat others as they treat him. His belief mirrors the idea of: A) OCB. B) competition.

C) reciprocity.

D) cooperation.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 388 29) John helps you on your work today, so you help him tomorrow. This action reflects the operation of which of the following principles?

A) Cooperation B) Reciprocity C) Altruism D) Assurance Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 388 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 30) Regarding personal orientations toward cooperation, people whose primary motive is doing better than others are described as: A) competitive.

B) individualistic.

C) cooperative.

D) altruistic.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 388 6 .

31) If an individual is primarily concerned with maximizing joint outcomes, his/her personal orientation toward cooperation is most likely to be: A) competitive.

B) individualistic.

C) cooperative.

D) altruistic.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 388 32) When an organization offers a Hawaiian vacation for everyone in the company if every work unit lowers its costs by 15% for the year, the company is using ________ to foster cooperation.

A) employee interdependence B) organizational rewards C) organizational citizenship D) distributive bargaining Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 388 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 33) Traditionally, one would describe the relationships across organizations as: A) cooperative.

B) integrative.

C) competitive.

D) accommodative.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 389 34) Cooperation across organizations is being fostered by: A) the need to develop long-term relationships with suppliers.

B) the increase in mergers and acquisitions in American business.

C) declining competition in stable and mature markets.

D) stable business environmental conditions.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 389 35) Research has shown that organizational managers spend as much as ________ of their time dealing with conflict on the job and its impact.

A) 50% B) 15% C) 20% D) 25% Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 391

7 .

36) George and Jean have vastly different opinions. Their difference of opinion is an example of: A) affective conflict.

B) substantive conflict.

C) process conflict.

D) deviance.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 391 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 37) Two employees have different personalities and clash all the time. The frustration that results is an example of: A) affective conflict.

B) substantive conflict.

C) process conflict.

D) deviance.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 391 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 38) George believes that the increased allocations should be spent on healthcare benefits; on the other hand, Jean thinks these allocations should be spent on increased vacation benefits. Their difference of opinion is an example of: A) affective conflict.

B) substantive conflict.

C) process conflict.

D) deviance.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 391 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 39) George hates Jean because she got his promotion; now he wants to get even. This is an example of what cause of conflict?

A) Grudges B) Malevolent attributions C) Destructive criticism D) Distrust Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 391 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

8 .

40) George believes that Jean is trying to hurt him. This is an example of what cause of conflict?

A) Grudges B) Malevolent attributions C) Destructive criticism D) Distrust Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 391 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 41) David gave very negative feedback to Fred. This feedback angered Fred. This is an example of what cause of conflict?

A) Grudges B) Malevolent attributions C) Destructive criticism D) Distrust Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 392 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 42) The most obvious organization-based cause of conflict is ________.

A) ambiguity over responsibility B) competition over scarce resources C) ambiguity over jurisdiction D) interpersonal conflict Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 393 43) Constructive criticism is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: A) considerate.

B) non-threatening.

C) motivated by desire to help.

D) not timely.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 392 44) All of the following are characteristics of constructive criticism EXCEPT: A) it occurs as soon as possible after the substandard performance.

B) it focuses on specific aspects of performance that were inadequate.

C) it does not attribute poor performance to internal causes.

D) it focuses on the personal characteristics of the recipient.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 392

9 .

45) Destructive criticism is marked by: A) not offering concrete suggestions for improvement.

B) the lack of threats.

C) telling someone what he/she can do to improve.

D) noting specific things that are wrong and that need to be fixed.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 392 46) ________ is the most common strategy for resolving organizational conflicts by having all sides make offers, counteroffers, and concessions in an attempt to find a mutually acceptable agreement.

A) Bargaining B) Meditation C) Arbitration D) Mediation Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 393 47) Conflict does sometimes yield positive benefits, such as: A) eroding common ground.

B) encouraging the consideration of new ideas.

C) delaying decisions until all aspects can be considered.

D) forcing the use of an arbitrator.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 394 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 48) All of the following are examples of win-win solutions EXCEPT: A) avoiding unreasonable offers.

B) seeking common ground.

C) uncovering the "real" issues.

D) narrowing the scope of issues considered.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 394 49) Dan won't give in to John's request for a new office computer. He claims that it is a budgetary issue, but in reality, it is about Dan's anger at John for his comments at a meeting. The win-win solution in this case can be best accomplished by: A) avoiding unreasonable offers.

B) seeking common ground.

C) uncovering the "real" issues.

D) narrowing the scope of issues considered.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 395 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

10 .

50) Mediation and arbitration are two popular forms of: A) integrative bargaining.

B) litigation.

C) alternative dispute resolution.

D) collective bargaining.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 395 51) ________ is the process in which a neutral party works together with two or more parties to reach a settlement to their conflict.

A) Arbitration B) Mediation C) Negotiation D) Manipulation Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 395 52) When a third party has the power to impose the terms of an agreement, you have: A) bargaining.

B) mediation.

C) an integrative agreement.

D) arbitration.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 395 53) When using arbitration, if both parties retain the right to reject the recommended agreement, you have: A) binding arbitration.

B) voluntary arbitration.

C) conventional arbitration.

D) final-offer arbitration.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 396 54) In ________, the arbitrator may offer the parties involved any package of terms he/she desires.

A) binding arbitration B) voluntary arbitration C) conventional arbitration D) final-offer arbitration Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 396

11 .

55) Which of the following is an example of destructive organizational deviance?

A) Workplace aggression B) Violence C) Whistleblowing D) Both A and B. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397 56) Which of the following is an example of constructive organizational deviance?

A) Workplace aggression B) Violence C) Whistleblowing D) Both A and B. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397-398 57) Which one of the following actions is an example of whistle-blowing?

A) Reporting to a supervisor that a fellow employee has a drug-problem B) Fulfilling the role of referee at a sporting event C) Telling the local newspaper about the company's upcoming annual picnic D) Reporting the company's misdeeds to the authorities Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 398 58) Nancy becomes aware that her company is emitting toxic waste into a nearby stream. After finding that reporting it to her supervisor does no good, she reports the incident to the press.

Nancy's behavior is an example of: A) organizational citizenship behavior.

B) whistle-blowing.

C) procedural justice.

D) distributive justice.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 398 59) Generally speaking, when an employee engages in whistleblowing, he/she: A) is punished by the organization.

B) is rewarded by the organization.

C) is punished by the people to whom he/she reports the problem.

D) has little impact on the safety and protection of others.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 399

12 .

60) Employees who use their company's computers for personal matters are engaging in ________.

A) social loafing B) relaxation therapy C) whistleblowing D) cyberloafing Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 400 61) According to one study, ________ percent of workers surveyed by the Society of Financial Service Professionals reported playing computer games while at work.

A) 10 B) 33 C) 67 D) 90 Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 400 62) Belittling others' opinions and spreading malicious rumors are examples of: A) incivility.

B) obstructionism.

C) verbalization.

D) consternation.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 401 63) Failing to return phone calls or respond to memos are examples of: A) expressions of hostility.

B) obstructionism.

C) psychological contract violations.

D) overt aggression.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 402 64) Physical assault or destruction of property are examples of: A) expressions of hostility.

B) obstructionism.

C) psychological contract violations.

D) overt aggression.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 402

13 .

65) The tendency to respond to situations in an angry way is an example of: A) positive attitude toward revenge.

B) high trait anger.

C) second-order aggression.

D) overt expression rather than suppression of anger.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 402 66) The belief that getting even is justifiable is an example of: A) positive attitude toward revenge.

B) high trait anger.

C) primal-order aggression.

D) overt expression rather than suppression of anger.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 402 67) Benson has been exposed to aggressive behavior for most of his life. The "short fuse" he has developed is an example of: A) positive attitude toward revenge.

B) high trait anger.

C) past experience with aggression.

D) overt expression rather than suppression of anger.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 402 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 68) Which of the following is true regarding workplace bullying?

A) Typically, bullies tend to be bosses who are abusing their power.

B) Bullies are equally likely to be women or men.

C) The vast majority of the targets of bullying tend to be women.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 404 69) All of the following are characteristics of the Constant Critic EXCEPT: A) engages in name-calling.

B) constantly harangues the victim about his or her incompetence.

C) makes aggressive eye contact.

D) intimidates by slamming things and throwing objects.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 404

14 .

70) A ________ is a workplace bully who denies his or her victims the resources they need to work.

A) Constant Critic B) Two-Headed Snake C) Vindictive Gatekeeper D) Screaming Mimi Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 404 71) Denny isolates Barry at work. Regarding his behavior toward Barry, Denny is a ________.

A) Constant Critic B) Vindictive Gatekeeper C) Two-Headed Snake D) Screaming Mimi Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 404 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 72) Iris intimidates her subordinates by throwing objects. She can best be described as a ________.

A) Constant Critic B) Vindictive Gatekeeper C) Two-Headed Snake D) Screaming Mimi Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 404 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 73) In understanding the social motives involved in employee theft, sometimes employees steal because: A) they see their coworkers doing it.

B) group norms support such activity.

C) they want to "even the score."

D) of all of these reasons.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 405-406

15 .

Table 11.1 Students from an organizational behavior class are studying group conflict and cooperation by observing the work of academic committees on their campus. They notice that some faculty seem to go out of their way to do things for their committee and committee members, yet have no hope of any type of return for these actions. Some student members of committees are doing more than is expected of them, even though they don't have to, and they frankly don't expect an return for their actions. These students have found that the committees treat them as peers, the faculty treat them fairly, and that they actually have a voice in the processes.

74) Refer to Table 11.1. The behavior of some of the faculty is an example of: A) prosocial behavior.

B) reciprocity-based behavior.

C) a distributive orientation.

D) organizational citizenship behavior.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 375 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 75) Refer to Table 11.1. The key element in the students' demonstrated behavior is: A) trust.

B) interdependence of their tasks.

C) the breadth of their roles on the committees.

D) their perception of the punishments they will receive if they don't behave like this.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 379 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 76) Refer to Table 11.1. Students' committee behavior is an example of: A) prosocial behavior.

B) reciprocity-based behavior.

C) a distributive orientation.

D) organizational citizenship behavior.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 383 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16 .

Table 11.2 A team of business students is working on a semester-long class project. The nature of the project is additive, each team member must have information from several other team members in order to complete his/her portion of the project. In a group meeting, Joe tells Amanda that if she will proofread his part of the paper, he'll set up the spreadsheet formulas for her calculations.

Amanda tells him no thanks. She's not really concerned about the quality of his section of the project and she'd just as soon work on her own. She thinks she can do a much better job than Joe setting up the spreadsheet. Another member of the team, Celine, wants everyone to have the same outcome from this project. She cautions those with weak work to improve it and asks the stars to tone down their work a bit so as to not embarrass the weaker members of the team. Paul wants to maximize the outcome of this project for everyone. He wants everyone to experience complete satisfaction with the process, the project, and their final grade. The reality is that the team will receive two grades. There will be a team grade and then each individual will receive a separate grade on his/her section. The grades are weighted 40/60.

77) Refer to Table 11.2. Joe's offer to Amanda is an example of: A) integrative behavior.

B) trust.

C) individualistic behavior.

D) reciprocity.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 388 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 78) Refer to Table 11.2. Amanda appears to have a/an ________ personal orientation toward cooperation.

A) equalizer B) competitive C) individualistic D) cooperative Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 388 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 79) Refer to Table 11.2. Paul's personal orientation toward cooperation is: A) equalizer.

B) competitive.

C) individualistic.

D) cooperative.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 388 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

17 .

Table 11.3 The employees are in a contract negotiation with your company and you represent management.

You are concerned with maximizing the results for both sides, while the union is focused on getting the best wages and working conditions possible, regardless of the cost to you. During a coffee break the union negotiator tells you he understands where you are coming from but there's only so much money to go around, and his people want as much as possible. Back at the table, you ask the union negotiator if he would put the retirement plan and health care plan on the table as well so you could make an offer to increase their wages. He refuses. Three months go by with no progress. You suggest arbitration by a third party. The union agrees only if both sides must accept what the arbitrator offers. You agree.

80) Refer to Table 11.3. You have a/an ________ orientation to the bargaining process.

A) integrative B) individualistic C) win-win D) win-lose Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 394 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 81) Refer to Table 11.3. You agreed to: A) final-offer arbitration.

B) binding arbitration.

C) mediation.

D) voluntary arbitration.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 396 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 82) A transactional contract is a legal contract that defines the economic relationship between two parties.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 377 83) Calculus-based trust is characteristic of the type of relationship in which people develop transactional contracts.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 380 84) Pro-social behavior in organizations is when an individual takes action that exceeds the formal requirements of the job.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 383

18 .

85) The most important factor shaping organizational citizenship behavior is employees' expectation of fair treatment.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 384 86) Michele focuses on "defeating" others, getting more recognition than they do etc., even when she is working on a project together with them. She has an individualistic orientation to cooperation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 388 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 87) Organizational elements such as the rewards system have significant influence on cooperation within an organization.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 388 88) Conflict within organizations usually has minimal negative effect and generally results in stimulating cohesion and communication.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 393 89) Conflict may motivate people to appreciate each other's positions more fully.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 394 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 90) Conflict may have a number of positive effects such as motivating people on the various sides of an issue to understand the others' position more completely.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 394 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 91) For bargaining to be successful, it is recommended that parties narrow the scope of issues considered.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 395 92) One disadvantage of alternative dispute resolution is the amount of time it takes to reach an agreement.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 396 93) From society's point of view, whistle blowing is usually considered a pro-social action.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 398 19 .

94) Whistleblowing is an example of constructive organizational deviance.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397-398 95) When whistleblowing, it is important to go to an outside source with your problem rather than your manager, who will simply try to cover up the problem.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 398 96) Almost all the workers surveyed by the Society of Financial Service Professionals reported playing computer games while at work.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 400 97) Only about 800 people are murdered at work each year in the U.S., and most of these crimes are committed by outsiders, such as customers.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 401 98) Bullying in which managers throw objects at subordinates is known as "constant critic."

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 404 99) A Vindictive Gatekeeper makes loud, angry outbursts and throws tantrums.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 404 100) Security cameras are an effective way of reducing employee theft.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 406 101) According to the perspective of your text, taking office supplies home for personal use constitutes theft.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 406 102) Treating people fairly can go a long way toward reducing employee theft caused by feelings of resentment.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 406

20 .

103) What are social dilemmas and mixed motives?

Answer: Social dilemmas are situations in which each person can increase his or her individual gains by acting in a purely selfish manner; however, if others also act selfishly, then the outcomes experienced by all will be reduced. As a result, persons in such situations must deal with mixed motives. There are reasons to cooperate (such as avoiding negative outcomes for all), but there are also reasons to compete (to do what is best for oneself), since if only one or a few persons engage in such behavior, they will benefit while the others will not.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 387-389 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 104) Name the major causes of organizational conflict.

Answer: The most important sources of organizational conflict include grudges, malevolent attributions, destructive criticism, distrust, and competition over scarce resources.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 391-393 105) What are the consequences of organizational conflict?

Answer: There can be positive and negative consequences. The negative effects could include negative emotions, elimination of coordination, and diversion of attention. Positive effects could include bringing ignored problems out in the open, motivating both sides to understand the each other, leading to better decisions, encouraging new ideas and innovation, and enhancing group loyalty.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 393-394 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 106) Provide tips for negotiating a win-win solution.

Answer: The most effective ways for negotiating a win-win solution are 1) avoid making unreasonable offers, 2) seek the common ground, 3) broaden the scope of the issues the parties consider, and 4) uncover the actual issues involved rather than the surface issues.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 394-395 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 107) Why do employees steal? How can managers reduce employee theft?

Answer: Many employees steal because they are troubled in some way (serious debt or problems with addiction); however, this appears to be the minority. Instead, many people steal from employers because they see their coworkers doing it. Employees also frequently engage in theft because they want to "even the score" with employers whom they believe have mistreated them. Some tips that managers can use to reduce employee theft include the following: involving employees in the creation of a theft policy, communicating the costs of stealing, treating people fairly, and being a good role model.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 406-407 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21 .

108) What is organizational citizenship?

Answer: Organizational citizenship behavior (OCB) is an informal form of behavior in which people go beyond what is formally expected of them to contribute to the well-being of their organization and the people in it. Acts of organizational citizenship directed at other individuals in the workplace (OCB-I) involve helping coworkers in ways that go beyond what is expected.

Acts of organizational citizenship directed at the organization itself (OCB-O) involve helping the company in ways that go beyond what is expected.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 383 109) Identify the four personal orientations toward cooperation.

Answer: The primary motive of competitors is doing better than others do, and beating them in open competition. Individualists care almost exclusively about maximizing their own gain. They do not care whether others do better or worse than they do. Cooperators are concerned with maximizing joint outcomes, getting as much as possible for their team. Equalizers seek to minimize differences between themselves and others.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 388 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 110) Explain how an organizational reward system can affect cooperation.

Answer: Despite good intentions, companies all too often create reward systems that lead their employees to compete against each other. In other words, the company's reward system discourages cooperative behavior. With an eye toward eliminating such problems and fostering cooperation, many of today's companies are adopting team-based rewards. At least a portion of an individual’s compensation is based on the performance of his or her work team in these organizational reward systems. The rationale behind these incentive systems is straightforward.

People who are rewarded for contributing to their group's performance will focus their energies on group performance. In other words, they cooperate with each other.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 388-389 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 111) What is alternative dispute resolution?

Answer: Alternate dispute resolution (ADR) refers to a set of procedures in which disputing parties work together with a neutral party who helps them settle their disagreements out of court.

There are two popular forms of ADR–mediation and arbitration. Mediation is a process in which a neutral party (a mediator) works together with two or more parties to reach a settlement to their conflict. Arbitration is a process in which a third party (an arbitrator) has the power to impose, or at least to recommend, the terms of an agreement between two or more conflicting parties.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 395 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 112) Define whistle blowing.

Answer: This is a type of pro-social behavior where an employee discloses illegal, immoral, or illegitimate behavior on the part of his or her organization to people or other organizations able to do something about it.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 398

22 .

113) Describe the four characteristics of individuals who are inclined to behave aggressively.

Answer: The following characteristics seem to contribute to “short fuses.” High-trait anger is the tendency to respond to situations in a predominantly angry manner. Positive attitude toward revenge exemplifies the belief that it is justifiable to get back at others who have caused one harm. Past experience with aggression involves a history of exposure to aggressive behavior.

Overt expressions of anger refer to the tendency to express anger rather than to suppress it.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 402 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 114) What can organizations do to reduce workplace aggression by managers?

Answer: Work place aggression can be managed effectively through tactics such as the following: Establish clear norms against abusive treatment of employees, as well as clear procedures for assuring that they are followed. If it is made clear in an organization from the top down that abusiveness toward employees will not be tolerated, then even highly aggressive managers will be likely to get the message. Train managers in interpersonal skills. Equipping managers with better communication skills and greater sensitivity to others can help reduce problems. Conduct periodic assessments of employee satisfaction and commitment. Assessments that are conducted in a confidential manner can uncover abusive behavior by managers, before the behavior becomes worse. Then, those managers can be trained, counseled, or disciplined as needed.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 403-404 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

23 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 12 Power: Its Uses and Abuses in Organizations 1) ________ involves the effort to get others (target persons) to behave in some desired fashion.

A) Behavior modeling B) Proactive behavior C) Distributive justice D) Influence Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 415 2) The use of facts and logical arguments to influence another's behavior is: A) rational persuasion.

B) personal appeal.

C) legitimating.

D) exchange.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 415 3) John is trying to influence the behavior of his company's softball team by appealing to their values and ideals about teamwork and winning. John is using the social influence technique of: A) consultation.

B) personal appeal.

C) legitimating.

D) inspirational appeal.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 415 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 4) Chris finds a way to make it easier for his subordinates to agree to his request. Chris is using: A) exchange.

B) legitimating.

C) pressure.

D) collaboration.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 415 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 5) Lee attempts to get his subordinates to help him by asking them to be involved in the process of planning organizational change. He appears to be using the social influence technique of: A) legitimating.

B) consultation.

C) ingratiating.

D) personal appeal.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 415 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 1 .

6) Getting someone to do what you want by putting that person in a good mood is called: A) personal appeal.

B) ingratiation.

C) inspirational appeal.

D) emotional persuasion.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 415 7) Ken promises his subordinates benefits if they comply with his requests. Ken is using: A) exchange.

B) legitimating.

C) pressure.

D) collaboration.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 415 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 8) Arvin tries to get others to comply with his requests by using his friendship with the person as part of the appeal. He is using: A) exchange.

B) legitimating.

C) pressure.

D) personal appeals.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 415 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 9) Leroy is trying to get his idea through to the operations director about TQM. He has talked to other floor supervisors and with the HR VP and takes one supervisor and the HR director in with him to talk with the OPS director. Leroy is selling his TQM idea up the organization by use of the technique of: A) credibility.

B) responsibility.

C) coalition building.

D) congruence.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 415 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 10) Ken calls attention to his authority when making his requests. Ken is using: A) exchange.

B) legitimating.

C) pressure.

D) collaboration.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 415 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 2 .

11) Don seeks compliance through the use of intimidation. He is using: A) exchange.

B) legitimating.

C) pressure.

D) collaboration.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 415 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 12) Which of the following is one of the most popular social influence tactics used with peers in organizations?

A) Coercive B) Ingratiating C) Personal appeal D) Consultation Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 415 13) Tim is the CEO of Doc.com, a information search Internet company. A manager comes in saying that he's been trying to get the information services manager to meet with him to discuss a new product, but the IS manager keeps claiming he's too busy. Tim calls the IS manager and asks him to come to his office. The IS manager shows up, Tim tells him to meet with the other manager and do so now. The meeting happens. Tim's power to do this is an example of: A) rational persuasion.

B) charisma.

C) expert power.

D) position power.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 14) Position power is based on a number of things including: A) expertise.

B) charisma.

C) rational persuasion.

D) None of these.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418 15) Power that derives from the recognized ability of someone to make decisions is referred to as: A) referent power.

B) legitimate power.

C) expert power.

D) reward power.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 418 3 .

16) For an individual to exercise expert power in an organization, he/she most likely also has: A) charisma power.

B) social influence power.

C) expert power.

D) legitimate power.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 419 17) Individuals with the capacity to control access to jobs and money are said to have: A) reward power.

B) coercive power.

C) social power.

D) information power.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 418 18) Power derived from one's control over valued resources, such as pay, is known as: A) reward power.

B) legitimate power.

C) information power.

D) referent power.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418 19) Suppose a supervisor gets a subordinate to do what she wants by threatening him with suspension or firing. It can be said that the supervisor is relying on: A) reward power.

B) coercive power.

C) expert power.

D) legitimate power.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 419 20) Personal power has a number of bases, including: A) rational persuasion.

B) information power.

C) the capacity to control punishment.

D) All of these.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 419

4 .

21) Suppose that you do something the way your boss asks you to do it because you believe your boss knows the best way to do it. What type of power would your boss be relying on in this case?

A) Legitimate power B) Coercive power C) Expert power D) Reward power Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 419 22) Which of the following is not one of the basic types of personal power?

A) Expert power B) Referent power C) Rational persuasion D) Coercive power Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 419 23) ________ is derived from an individual’s recognized superior knowledge, skills, or abilities in a certain area.

A) Charismatic power B) Legitimate power C) Expert power D) Information power Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 419 24) "Mike, I'm really in a bind. Unless I get that report finished, Mr. Johnson will be very upset with me. Because you're my friend, I'm asking you to help me out of this jam." The speaker appears to be relying on which of the following bases of power?

A) Referent power B) Reward power C) Coercive power D) Legitimate power Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 419 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 25) A type of personal power that is based on both expertise and personal qualities is: A) referent power.

B) legitimate power.

C) expert power.

D) charisma power.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 419

5 .

26) Power based on others liking the power wielder because of his/her attitude of enthusiasm and magnetic personality is called: A) legitimate power.

B) charisma power.

C) expert power.

D) information power.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 420 27) The capacity to neutralize another's influence is known as: A) counterpower.

B) legitimating.

C) pressure.

D) collaboration.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 421 28) The smallest or least important power base for CEOs is: A) management decision control.

B) expertise and knowledge.

C) personality and leadership skills.

D) support from the financial community.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 421 29) From which power bases do American CEOs obtain their influence?

A) Management decision control B) Expertise and knowledge C) Personality and leadership skills D) Support from the board of directors Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 421 30) Most American CEOs feel that they have ________ than they did ten years ago.

A) more power B) the same amount of power C) a different type of power but the same amount D) less power Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 423

6 .

31) The process of putting people in charge of what they do, by passing power from managers to employees is known as: A) consultation-based social influence.

B) information power.

C) empowerment.

D) organizational politics.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 423 32) Empowerment requires managers to: A) exercise charismatic-based power.

B) share expert information.

C) control communication channels.

D) tell workers exactly what to do.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 423 33) When employees are empowered, managers are more likely to exercise: A) expert power.

B) charisma power.

C) coercive power.

D) any type of position power.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 423 34) Empowering employees has a number of results, such as: A) decreasing the importance of information sharing.

B) requiring managers to tell employees what to do.

C) boosting the coercive power of managers.

D) encouraging managers to work as facilitators.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 424 35) A relatively enduring atmosphere in the workplace that supports empowerment is known as: A) empowerment culture.

B) legitimating.

C) empowerment risk.

D) empowerment climate.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 425

7 .

36) A example of a high-power distance culture is: A) India.

B) The U.S. C) Mexico.

D) Poland.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 426 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 37) The two theoretical models that explain the use of organizational power by groups or subunits are: A) resource-dependency and strategic contingencies models.

B) the same as for individuals, the position and personal power models.

C) based in position authority and organizational politics.

D) None of these.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 427 38) When one organizational subunit has control over another because it has more of some valued resource than the other, you see an example of the: A) use of information power by a unit.

B) strategic contingencies theory.

C) resource-dependence view.

D) combination of coercive and expert power.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 427 39) According to the ________, the most powerful organizational subunits have the greatest control over resources that other subunits need.

A) economic decision-making model B) resource-dependency model C) strategic contingencies model D) organizational communication model Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 428 40) Research into the semi-conductor industry in California found that the most powerful organizational subunits tended to be those that: A) were dependent on other departments for significant portions of their operating budgets.

B) had the largest number of employees with degrees in business administration.

C) resided in areas that pertained to the expertise of the company’s founder.

D) were trained in organization behavior and organizational development techniques.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 428

8 .

41) Research found that within successful firms, strategic contingencies were controlled by: A) quality circles and focus groups.

B) departments that are the most important for organizational success.

C) subunits that exist on the periphery of the organizational chart.

D) departments that have the most experienced personnel.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 430 42) According to the strategic contingencies model, a subunit's power is enhanced when ________.

A) it can reduce the level of uncertainty experienced by other subunits B) it occupies a central position in the organization C) its activities are non-substitutable D) All of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 430 43) According to strategic contingencies theory, which of the following is a factor that provides subunit power?

A) The capacity to reduce uncertainty B) High organizational centrality C) Performing nonsubstitutable activities D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 430 44) According to strategic contingencies theory, subunits acquire power when: A) they control valued resources.

B) they have access to the founder/CEO. C) they are high in workflow centrality.

D) they are able to enthuse and excite other work units to greater performance.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 430 45) ________ may be considered the “dark side” of organizational power.

A) Position power B) Employee empowerment C) Corporate centrality D) Organizational politics Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 431

9 .

46) The abuse of power is evidenced in ________.

A) strategic uncertainty B) employee empowerment C) expert power D) sexual harassment Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 431 47) Which of the following is NOT true about sexual harassment?

A) The victim must be a member of the opposite sex.

B) The harasser can be a non-employee.

C) It may occur without economic injury.

D) The harasser's conduct must be unwelcome.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 431 48) Which of the following is true about sexual harassment?

A) The harasser can be a non-employee.

B) It may occur without economic injury.

C) The harasser's conduct must be unwelcome.

D) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 431 49) In 2009, approximately how much did the EEOC recover in monetary benefits for the charging parties of sexual harassment?

A) $15 million B) $51 million C) $78 million D) $125 million Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 432 50) In 2009, approximately how many sexual harassment charges did the EEOC receive?

A) 12,696 B) 43,010 C) 67,819 D) 1,507 Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 432

10 .

51) Approximately what percentage of males have filed sexual harassment charges?

A) 5% B) 15% C) 26% D) 33% Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 432 52) The practice of requiring sexual favors in exchange for some tangible conditions or privileges of employment is known as: A) counterpower.

B) hostile environment sexual harassment.

C) pressure.

D) quid pro quo sexual harassment.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 432 53) The practice of subjecting individuals to negative, unwanted or abusive conditions is known as: A) counterpower.

B) hostile environment sexual harassment.

C) pressure.

D) quid pro quo sexual harassment.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 432 54) Which of the following is not a myth about sexual harassment?

A) If women would only say no, harassment would stop.

B) Harassment will stop if the victim simply ignores it.

C) Harassment that is ignored either continues or worsens.

D) If women dressed less provocatively, there would be no sexual harassment.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 434 55) Which of the following is a myth about sexual harassment?

A) Anyone can be sexually harassed, regardless of how they are dressed.

B) Harassment will stop if the victim simply ignores it.

C) Harassment that is ignored either continues or worsens.

D) No means no.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 434

11 .

56) ________ refers to unauthorized use of power to enhance or protect one's own interests or interests of the group to which one belongs.

A) Social influence B) Referential power C) Organizational politics D) Quid pro quo exchange Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 435 57) Organizational politics is concerned with: A) meeting organizational goals.

B) the disbursement of subunit power.

C) actions taken to pursue one's self interests.

D) the meeting of departmental goals.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 435 58) If an individual withholds information that might make him/her look bad, avoids those who might ask for information, and overwhelms others with information, he/she is probably using the organizational political tactic of: A) controlling access to information.

B) cultivating a favorable impression.

C) playing a political game.

D) developing a base of support.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 436 59) One of the most popular tactics of organizational politics is: A) blaming and attacking others.

B) withholding information that might make them look bad.

C) playing political games.

D) associating oneself with the successful accomplishments of others.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 436 60) One can cultivate a favorable image in an organization in a number of ways, such as: A) blaming and attacking others.

B) withholding information that might make them look bad.

C) playing political games.

D) associating oneself with powerful others.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 437

12 .

61) Managers who do favors for others who might feel obligated to repay them are using which political tactic?

A) Cultivating a favorable impression B) Controlling access to information C) Creating obligations and using reciprocity D) Aligning oneself with more powerful others Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 437 62) People who engage in organizational politics would likely possess all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A) ambition.

B) introversion.

C) intelligence.

D) popularity.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 437 63) Organizational political activity is likely to occur in the face of: A) ambiguity.

B) large amounts of scarce resources being at stake.

C) conflicting interests of organizational units.

D) all of these conditions.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 438 64) When it comes to organizational politics and the human resource function, it seems that: A) it is the least political of management functions because of the intense governmental regulation.

B) political activity is limited to the training and development function.

C) political activity is present in employee selection, appraisal, and compensation.

D) organizational political activity is discouraged here except in dealings with upper management.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 439 65) The concern of a rater for his/her own image when evaluating an employee is reflective of: A) counterpower.

B) hostile environment.

C) organizational politics.

D) deviance.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 439

13 .

66) The concern of a decision maker for the implication of a personnel decision he/she made is reflective of: A) counterpower.

B) hostile environment.

C) organizational politics.

D) deviance.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 439 Table 12.1 Lee is the vice-president of a large department. He has a number of projects to assign to his managers, who are already overworked and understaffed. While they are capable and willing, one more project is going to push some of them to the breaking point. Before assigning any projects, he calls a meeting of all his managers to discuss the current situation and the new projects that have been given to him. He asks his managers for their help in getting through this workload crisis and points out that they were able to do it before. A couple of managers complain to Lee, saying it isn't fair to expect so much, and they can't keep going at this pace. In response, Lee points out that the company has always been this way. He told them about the workload when he interviewed them, and they have been through this kind of push before. Lee decides to give the Techno 2120 project to Joan. As he tells her about it, he explains that this project will contribute directly to the company's bottom line, and that it is something similar to her last project, making her the best manager for the job. With Hoa, Lee begins by making some small talk and asking him how his golf game is going. Lee expresses admiration for Hoa's skill as a golfer and his ability to balance his work and personal life so well. Then Lee explains how Hoa is the only one who can handle the project he is getting. As his best project manager because of his great past results, Hoa is the one for the job.

67) Refer to Table 12.1. When assigning the Techno 2120 project, Lee used: A) rational persuasion.

B) legitimating.

C) personal appeal.

D) consultation.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 415 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 68) Refer to Table 12.1. Lee's social influence tactic with Hoa was: A) personal appeal.

B) exchange.

C) coalition building.

D) ingratiating.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 415 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14 .

69) Refer to Table 12.1. In reasoning with the complaining managers, Lee used: A) rational persuasion.

B) personal appeal.

C) exchange.

D) pressure.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 415 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 70) Refer to Table 12.1. Lee begins his meeting by using the social influence tactic of: A) rational persuasion.

B) congruence.

C) personal appeal.

D) coalition building.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 415 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 12.2 The boss wants the staff to work overtime this week on a big project. He tells the managers that if they want to keep their jobs, they better keep their people here. Bob goes to his department and calls a meeting. He explains the problem and asks if everyone would be willing to stay and put in the time. His employees recognize his right to ask them, he's been good to them in the past, and they want to help him out, so they all agree to stay. Joan goes to her department, calls everyone together and tells them the bad news. She then begins assigning responsibilities and scheduling work. One of her new supervisors says, "Who are you to tell us we have to work overtime?" Her answer is, "I'm your boss, that's who, now get with it." Joseph offers everyone in his department compensatory time and a pizza party if they put in the overtime.

71) Refer to Table 12.2. Joan is using ________ power.

A) personal B) coercive C) legitimate D) referent Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 72) Refer to Table 12.2. The power that Joseph uses to get his people to work overtime is: A) reward power.

B) legitimate power.

C) referent power.

D) charisma power.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 15 .

73) Refer to Table 12.2. The boss is using ________ power to gain his managers' compliance.

A) personal B) coercive C) legitimate D) referent Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 419 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 74) Refer to Table 12.2. Bob uses ________ power to get his workers to comply.

A) personal B) coercive C) legitimate D) referent Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 419 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 12.3 G.C.I. is a company with a highly political environment. To survive, managers must be adept at organizational politics. The company has clear lines of authority, operating procedures, and company policies. But the CEO confers favors based on whom he likes at the moment.

Performance goals are not clear, career paths are confusing, and what constitutes success for the company is never clarified; profit, market share, quality, customer satisfaction, or what. The new marketing director sees that production and finance have a great deal of power. So he approaches the production director and offers to work closely with him to avoid creating demand he can't meet. When the marketing director has an open personnel position and knows that the production director desperately needs an assistant, the marketing director surrenders his position to the production director. Seeing this relationship develop, the finance director begins to give marketing only direct, selected information. He avoids meeting the marketing director except in group meetings where there is no opportunity to talk one-on-one. The marketing director immediately understands what is happening. He decides to enlist the production director, the sales manager, and the human resource director in a plan to reduce the finance director's power or even get him fired.

75) Refer to Table 12.3. The finance director's political response to the marketing director's actions with the production director is an example of: A) blaming and attacking others.

B) aligning oneself with more powerful others.

C) playing political games.

D) controlling access to information.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 436 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16 .

76) Refer to Table 12.3. The new marketing director is engaging in the organizational political tactic of: A) building powerful coalitions.

B) aligning oneself with more powerful others.

C) playing political games.

D) controlling access to information.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 436 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 77) Refer to Table 12.3. The marketing director's response to the finance director's actions is an example of: A) blaming and attacking others.

B) associating with powerful others.

C) playing political games.

D) developing a base of support.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 437 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 78) Influence is the capacity to influence another's behavior through the appropriate use of power.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 415 79) If you are asking for someone's participation in a decision in order to exercise social influence on him or her, you are using the tactic of ingratiation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 415 80) In order to use rational persuasion, it is important to base your arguments on valid data and to present that information in a clear, unemotional manner.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 417 81) Power based in one's ability to reward others is known as legitimate power.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 418 82) Information based power comes from one's position within the organization.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 419 83) Power that comes from your own personal qualities and the admiration of others in the organization is referent-based power.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 419 17 .

84) Research has shown that most people prefer using coercive power.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 421 85) When seeking to influence peers and superiors it is best to use either reward or referent power.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 421 86) Presumably, people in high-power distance cultures will react more favorably to empowerment than those in low-power distance cultures.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 426 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 87) The human resources department allocates personnel slots based on their capacity plan for the company. HR has resource-dependency based power.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 427 88) The strategic contingencies model suggests that the key determinant of a subunit’s power in an organization is that unit’s control of valuable resources.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 428-429 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 89) Quid pro quo sexual harassment involves requiring the victim to provide sexual favors.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 432 90) Hostile environment sexual harassment involves subjecting the victim to abusive conditions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 432 91) Organizational politics is simply non-sanctioned action taken by an individual to influence others in order for the individual to be able to achieve his/her goals.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 435 92) If Jamie is in the process of building up her image with others in her organization by the way she dresses, with whom she lunches, etc., she is trying to use the political tactic of controlling access to information in order to reach her goals.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 436 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

18 .

93) When Ben in accounting aligns himself with Mabel in marketing and they confer with Jeb the VP of operations, in order to achieve the goal of getting the company to consider a cafeteria benefits plan, they are using the political tactic of building a powerful coalition.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 436 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 94) People high in self-monitoring are less likely to engage in politics than those low in selfmonitoring.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 437 95) Describe the most typical techniques used to exert social influence over others in organizations.

Answer: Rational persuasion is the use of facts and logical arguments to influence another's behavior. Inspirational appeals attempt to influence others by appealing to the values and ideals of an individual. Collaboration makes it easier for someone to agree to a request. Consultation attempts to involve others in the decision-making or planning process. Ingratiation is influencing behavior by putting the individual in a good mood or getting him or her to like you. Exchange promises some benefit in exchange for compliance. Personal appeal is influencing by appealing to feelings of loyalty or friendship. Coalition building persuades by seeking the assistance of others. Legitimating points out one's authority or verifying that the request is consistent with company policies. Pressuring seeks compliance by demands, threats, or intimidation.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 415-416 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

19 .

96) Distinguish between personal and position power and explain the bases of each.

Answer: Position power comes with the job; it is formal power due to the structure of the organization. There are four bases to it. Legitimate authority is recognized by others. Reward power represents control over rewards others value and receive. Coercive power is the ability to punish noncompliance. Information power exists by virtue of one’s access to data and information.

Personal power is influence due to an individual's unique qualities or characteristics and has four bases. Rational persuasion is the ability to make logical arguments from evidence and facts.

Expert power is based on superior knowledge in a certain field. Referent power grows from one's personal qualities. It comes from others' admiration and acceptance of the individual. Charisma is simply an engaging and magnetic personality, people want to do what you want.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 418-420 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 97) Discuss the two theoretical approaches used to study the use of power in groups or subunits.

Answer: The resource-dependency model suggests that subunits gain power by controlling resources valuable to other subunits. It is power based on asymmetry. The strategic contingencies model says subunits have power because the subunit controls the activities of other subunits by reducing uncertainty, being central to the organization, or performing nonsubstitutable and indispensable functions.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 427-431 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 98) Identify and explain the six common politics tactics used in organizations.

Answer: Gaining control over and selectively using information can involve releasing only selected information, withholding information that makes you look bad, avoiding contact with those who would ask for information, or overwhelming others with information. Cultivating a favorable impression involves dressing for success, associating with the accomplishments of others, or drawing attention to one's own successes. Building powerful coalitions means developing a base of support through activities such as lobbying for support before major decisions/meetings or conducting “elevator meetings.” Blaming and attacking others can be accomplished by finding a scapegoat, someone who is made to take the blame for someone else’s failure or wrongdoing. Associating with powerful others involves building coalitions with or ingratiating oneself to powerful people. Creating obligations and using reciprocity can involve doing favors for others in the organization, favors that cost them relatively little. Later, they try to maximize their returns on those favors.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 436-437 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

20 .

99) Distinguish among the terms influence, power, and organizational politics.

Answer: Influence is the efforts to influence the behavior of other individuals or companies (successful or unsuccessful) through the control of valuable resources. Power differs from social influence in that it is the successful use of resources to influence behavior. Organizational politics refers to unauthorized use of power to enhance or protect one's own interests or the interests of one's group.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 415, 418, 435 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 100) Describe the characteristics of charismatic people.

Answer: Charismatic people express clear visions of the future and how to get there, excite crowds by using colorful metaphors and exciting language, inspire trust because their integrity is beyond reproach, and make people feel good about themselves.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 420 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 101) What is empowerment?

Answer: Empowerment is the passing of responsibility from managers to employees. It moves power and authority down from managers to the people doing the jobs. The sharing of expert information is essential to successful empowerment.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 423 102) Discuss the victim and the perpetrator of sexual harassment.

Answer: The victim may be a man or a woman, does not have to be the person actually harassed, and does not have to have incurred any economic injury. The perpetrator can be the victim's supervisor, co-worker, another supervisor, an agent of the employer, or even a customer.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 431-435 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 103) Discuss the personal and organizational determinants of politics in organizations.

Answer: Personal and organizational factors contribute to organizational politics. In regards to personal determinants, people who are high in Machiavellianism are likely to engage in political behavior; this is hardly surprising since they believe it is acceptable to use others for their personal needs. Social chameleons are adept at monitoring the effects of their behaviors on others, so they are attracted to organizational politics. Moreover, such people are socially adept, highly popular, extroverted, self-confident, aggressive, ambitious, devious, intelligent, and articulate–all of which are qualities well suited to politics.

Regarding organizational determinants, political behavior is likely to occur when goals and roles are ambiguous, the organization has a history or climate of political activity, and resources are scarce. Organizational politics often occur in connection with human resource management activities, such as performance appraisal, personnel selection, and compensation decisions. In addition, organizational politics occurs at the corporate level between units of large multinational corporations.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 437-439 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 21 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 13 Leadership in Organizations 1) The process whereby one individual influences other group members toward the attainment of defined group or organizational goals is known as: A) power.

B) leadership.

C) social influence.

D) motivation.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 447 2) By definition, leadership is primarily a process involving: A) the use of influence.

B) the use of power.

C) participative management.

D) organizational politics.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 447 3) The use of influence in leadership is directed toward: A) the attainment of personal goals.

B) the practice of organizational politics.

C) the attainment of organizational goals and purposes.

D) None of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 448 4) For many, a leader differs from a manager in that: A) leadership involves the use of social influence and management does not.

B) leaders are concerned with implementation while management is concerned with formulating and planning.

C) leadership is participative in nature and management is not.

D) leaders establish and formulate the mission, managers implement it.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 448 5) Which of the following is true about management and leadership?

A) Often, the differences are blurred in practice.

B) Some managers may be leaders, but leaders are never managers.

C) The distinction between the two is quite clear.

D) There is no real difference except in theory.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 448

1 .

6) If Joe is more of a manager than a leader in his company, he would tend to: A) create the organization's mission rather than implement it.

B) formulate strategy rather than create the strategic vision.

C) establish direction for the company rather than monitor its progress.

D) All of these.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 448 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 7) The idea that people possess certain characteristics that make them leaders: A) is the contingency theory of leadership.

B) Is the great person theory.

C) describes normative theory.

D) is the basis of situational leadership theory.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 450 8) The desire to exercise influence over others to reach shared goals is known as: A) social influence.

B) leadership motivation.

C) social power motivation.

D) organizational politics.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 451 9) Joanne shows the ability to cooperate with others, develop networks and coalitions, and generally work with subordinates rather than try to dominate them. This is an example of: A) personalized power motivation.

B) social influence.

C) socialized power motivation.

D) prosocial behavior.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 451 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 10) Researchers have identified which of the following characteristics of successful leaders?

A) Ambition, the desire for achievement B) The ability to integrate and interpret large amounts of information C) Creativity and originality D) All of these.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 450

2 .

11) Scientist have acknowledged that leaders should demonstrate multiple domains of intelligence. Those domains include: A) physical, mental, and emotional intelligence.

B) cognitive, emotional, and cultural intelligence.

C) transactional, emotional, and social intelligence.

D) technical, interpersonal, and cognitive intelligence.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 451 12) A behavioral approach to leadership focuses on: A) what the leader does.

B) who the leader is.

C) who are the followers of the leader.

D) when the leader uses what style of leadership.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 455 13) A supervisor whose actions seem to fall in between an autocratic style and a delegation style would be said to have a ________ leadership style.

A) directive B) two-tiered C) permissive D) participative Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 455 14) The ________ model of leadership looks at how leaders allocate their influence to followers.

A) situational leadership B) trait leadership C) LPC leadership D) autocratic-delegation continuum Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 455 15) The two-dimensional model of subordinate participation was designed to: A) clarify what characteristics marked the leader.

B) address the problem of oversimplification of the autocratic-delegation model.

C) show the differences between managers and leaders.

D) address the gender bias inherent in the LPC model of leadership.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 455

3 .

16) Joe and Wit are discussing how much to let their subordinates participate in the restructuring decision. In terms of the two-dimensional model of subordinate participation, they are discussing the ________ continuum.

A) autocratic-delegation B) permissive-directive C) autocratic-democratic D) autocratic-directive Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 455-456 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 17) The two-dimensional model of subordinate participation shows that: A) democratic leaders are more effective than autocratic leaders.

B) permissive leaders are less effective than directive leaders.

C) the directive permissive style is more effective than the directive autocratic style.

D) the effectiveness of each leadership style depends on the existing conditions.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 455-457 18) In work settings where employees are inexperienced or underqualified for their jobs, or when subordinates adopt an adversarial stance, the best leadership style is: A) permissive autocrat.

B) directive autocrat.

C) permissive democrat.

D) directive democrat.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 456 19) When working with people who have a high level of technical skill and want to be left to manage their own jobs, the most effective leadership style would be: A) permissive autocrat.

B) directive autocrat.

C) permissive democrat.

D) directive democrat.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 456 20) Karen is the kind of leader who makes decisions unilaterally and closely supervises the activities of her subordinates. Her leadership behavior is that of a: A) directive democrat.

B) directive autocrat.

C) permissive democrat.

D) permissive autocrat.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 456 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 4 .

21) The ________ solicits opinions from subordinates before making decisions.

A) autocratic leadership style B) introspective leadership style C) delegation leadership style D) participative leadership style Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 457 22) The major benefits of high consideration leadership styles are: A) enhanced employee performance.

B) improved group atmosphere and morale.

C) decisive leadership and clear direction.

D) All of the above.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 457 23) The leadership dimensions of consideration and initiating structure seem to be: A) exclusionary, high in one means low in the other.

B) complementary, in that they work in combination.

C) independent, they have little if any effect on each other.

D) dependent, a leader can't be high in one without being high in the other.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 457 24) A tool for developing a leader's concern for production and the concern for people is: A) leadership motivation training.

B) influence style training.

C) attribution approach training.

D) grid training.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 458 25) A leader with low concern for both production and people is said to have a(n) ________ management style.

A) counterproductive B) middle-of-the-road C) impoverished D) apathetic Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 458-459

5 .

26) In terms of the managerial grid, a manager who is high in concern for production and low in concern for people is said to have a/an ________ management style.

A) task B) impoverished C) middle-of-the-road D) country club Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 458 27) A high concern for people and a low concern for production is a ________ management style.

A) country club B) team C) middle-of-the-road D) task Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 458 28) Management grid training involves training: A) in how to reduce group conflict.

B) to improve manager's communication and planning skills.

C) to help identify to what degree the organization is meeting its strategic goals.

D) to do all of these.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 458-459 29) ________ suggests that leaders form different kinds of relationships with various groups of subordinates.

A) Attribution theory B) Contingency theory C) Leader-member exchange theory D) Grid management theory Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 459 30) The leader-member exchange model: A) is largely unsupported by research.

B) suggests that it is the circumstances of the task and the competency of the member that shapes leadership behavior.

C) suggests that task/production focus is most important in terms of effective leadership.

D) argues that the relationship between leaders and followers influences leadership behavior.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 460

6 .

31) Bert is a manager for a small firm that was recently acquired by a larger company. In recent performance evaluations, employees from his previous firm were given higher ratings than employees from the new firm. Which leadership theory best explains why this occurred?

A) Attribution theory B) Contingency theory C) Leader-member exchange theory D) Grid management theory Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 459-460 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 32) Kathleen is a first-line supervisor new to self-managed teams. In adapting her leadership to a team setting, Kathleen should: A) focus on one-on-one relationships.

B) spend her time training the team.

C) concentrate on expanding the teams' capabilities.

D) direct them toward their goals.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 461-462 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 33) In traditional work groups, leaders: A) tell people what to do.

B) take all the credit.

C) relate to others individually.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 461 34) One way that leaders need to adjust their leadership style when working with teams is to move to: A) a heavy emphasis on training.

B) make the most of differences rather than just inhibit conflict.

C) provide more direction and less inspiration.

D) a more reactive mode, responding to problems rather than trying to foresee them.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 462 35) Effective team leaders: A) foresee and influence change.

B) build one-on-one relationships.

C) minimize team conflict.

D) focus on training.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 461

7 .

36) Which of the following can promote transformational leadership?

A) Celebrate successes and accomplishments.

B) Set an example.

C) Develop a vision that is both clear and highly appealing to others to follow.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 454 37) A leader who clearly communicates the company's mission and relies on symbols has: A) inspiration.

B) environmental sensitivity.

C) vision.

D) self-confidence.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 452 38) A leadership style that focuses on establishing good relations with subordinates and satisfying their needs is: A) instrumental leadership.

B) participative leadership.

C) supportive leadership.

D) achievement oriented leadership.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 467 39) To become a transformational leader, one needs to: A) build group confidence by pointing out small accomplishments toward the goal.

B) use a more permissive and participative management style.

C) discover the shortest decision path in problem solving with the group.

D) set and delegate clear attainable goals to self-managed work teams.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 454 40) The basis of LPC contingency theory is: A) the follower's level of maturity and enthusiasm for the task called task and relationship orientations.

B) the leader's tendency to evaluate the person, favorably or unfavorably, with whom they find it most difficult to work.

C) the degree of control or permissiveness the leader exhibits.

D) the characteristics of the leader.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 463

8 .

41) People who score low in LPC tend to: A) perceive someone with whom they do not want to work in positive terms.

B) be relationship-oriented.

C) be primarily interested in attaining success at the task.

D) be none of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 463 42) According to the LPC contingency theory of leadership, the type of leader that will be most effective is determined by: A) the leader's experience with grid training.

B) the degree to which the situation is favorable to the leader.

C) whether the leader is dealing with teams or individuals.

D) All of the above.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 463 43) Low LPC leaders tend to be most effective when situational control is: A) somewhat high.

B) somewhat low.

C) moderate to neutral.

D) either very high or very low.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 463 44) High LPC leaders tend to be most effective when situational control is: A) negative.

B) moderate.

C) very low.

D) very high.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 463 45) ________ focuses on the ways of changing situational control variables when it is impractical to change leaders.

A) The LMX approach B) Leader match C) The multifactor Leadership Questionnaire D) Situational leadership Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 464

9 .

46) ________ suggests that effective leaders are able to adjust their styles to accommodate their followers according to their need for direction and their need for emotional support.

A) LMX theory B) Attribution theory C) Situational leadership theory D) Normative leadership theory Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 465 47) Which leadership style will work best when followers have the requisite job skills, but they need considerable emotional support?

A) Delegating B) Selling C) Telling D) Participating Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 465-466 48) If followers are neither willing nor able to do the job, which style of leadership is needed?

A) Delegating B) Selling C) Telling D) Participating Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 465-466 49) When followers need little guidance or emotional support, the best situational leadership style is: A) delegating.

B) selling.

C) telling.

D) participating.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 465-466 50) According to situational leadership theory, leaders must be able to: A) set appropriate goals and inspire others to attain them..

B) control valued rewards and believable punishments.

C) diagnose a situation and identify the appropriate behavioral response.

D) choose the proper strategy for decision-making.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 466

10 .

51) The central premise to path-goal theory is that: A) subordinates react favorably to a leader who helps them progress toward desired outcomes.

B) leaders need to be able to assess where followers are and provide the necessary guidance and emotional support.

C) leaders deal with followers based on what they believe is motivating follower behavior.

D) followers should be permitted to find their own way.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 466 52) In path-goal theory, if the leader is setting challenging goals and seeking performance improvement, he/she is using the ________ style.

A) instrumental B) supportive C) participative D) achievement-oriented Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 467 53) In goal-path theory, the determinants of which leadership style is best include: A) the strengths and skills of the leader.

B) the characteristics of subordinates.

C) the level of control present in the situation.

D) None of these.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 468 54) The leadership approach in which the leader sets challenging goals and looks for improvement in performance is called: A) directive leadership.

B) supportive leadership.

C) achievement oriented leadership.

D) participative leadership.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 467 55) The process of systematically training people to expand their capacity to function effectively in leadership roles is : A) situational leadership.

B) leadership development.

C) grid training.

D) LMX training.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 468

11 .

56) 360-degree feedback may not be helpful if: A) the information is perceived as being too complex or inconsistent.

B) people receiving the feedback feel threatened by it.

C) people are unwilling to change their behavior.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 469 57) A leadership development technique that involves customized one-on-one learning aimed at improving the leader's performance is: A) mentoring.

B) executive coaching.

C) action learning.

D) regression.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 471 58) Assessing individual performance takes place during ________ of the executive coaching process.

A) Step 1 B) Step 2 C) Step 3 D) Step 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 471 59) To develop self-awareness, leaders should use: A) assessment centers.

B) 360-degree feedback.

C) coaching.

D) mentoring.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 473 60) The degree to which individuals are capable of judging and accepting their positive and negative qualities in an objective fashion is: A) unbiased processing.

B) self-awareness.

C) relational authenticity.

D) authentic behavior.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 473

12 .

61) Which is not one of the four special qualities possessed by authentic leaders?

A) Self-awareness B) Unbiased processing C) Relational authenticity D) Charisma Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 473 62) In China, Guanxi roughly refers to: A) learning.

B) interpersonal relationships.

C) unacceptable negotiating tactics.

D) the underground economy.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 470 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 63) A technique of leadership development that involves a continuous process of learning and reflection is called: A) job enrichment.

B) action learning.

C) mentoring.

D) executive coaching.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 472 Table 13.1 Tom leads a work team on the line at his manufacturing company. Tom works well with his team because he is willing to cooperate; he doesn't try to dominate, he develops coalitions within the team, and he has extensive networks with other people in the company for getting resources needed to accomplish their job. His crew consists of highly competent, technical professionals, who program the computers that run the equipment on the manufacturing line. Because of his excellent leadership skills, Tom was given the responsibility to train a new team of technicians fresh from vo-tech school. Once he had them trained, he would return to leading his regular team.

64) Refer to Table 13.1. With the vo-tech group, the best leadership style would be: A) directive autocrat.

B) permissive democrat.

C) permissive autocrat.

D) directive democrat.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 456 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13 .

65) Refer to Table 13.1. In terms of the two-dimensional model of subordinate participation, Tom's most effective leadership style with his work team would be: A) directive autocrat.

B) permissive democrat.

C) permissive autocrat.

D) directive democrat.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 456 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 66) Refer to Table 13.1. In terms of orientation to task or people, Tom seems to be: A) high in initiating structure.

B) high in personalized leadership motivation.

C) low in consideration.

D) high in consideration.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 457 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 13.2 In preparation for grid training, the managers of your company are having their current styles assessed. Elizabeth seems to have a high concern for production and a high concern for people.

Bill on the other hand, has a low concern for both dimensions. Recently Elizabeth noticed that one of her employees was not doing well on the job. He was listless, late to work, and his work products were degenerating in quality. Elizabeth decided he had been working too hard and gave him a couple of days off. Bill was transferred to another department. He took three of his subordinates from his old department with him. After being there six months he gave all employees performance appraisals. The subordinates who came with him to the new department all did better than the more experienced people who had been on the job. In fact, the subordinates who came with Bill were having a hard time adjusting to the new department and had not been performing all that well.

67) Refer to Table 13.2. Elizabeth has a(n) ________ management style according to management grid theory.

A) country club B) team C) impoverished D) middle-of-the-road Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 458 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14 .

68) Refer to Table 13.2. Bill's behavior is best explained by which leadership theory?

A) Attribution theory B) Management grid C) Contingency theory D) Leader-member exchange model Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 459 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 13.3 As the President of his own company, Todd has provided his employees with a vision and created a strong sense of mission. He has helped them recognize their problems and find ways to solve them while providing support, encouragement, and attention. He is developing a strong company through the development of strong employees. Within Todd's company, his marketing VP is also able to motivate his employees. He has them excited about what the marketing department can become. Employees constantly come to the VP for guidance and instructions. He invests little time or money into their development, but they love working for him. Each time a new product comes to them to market, he is able to build real enthusiasm for the process. Joan is a product manager who works for the VP of marketing. She encourages her product team to interact with customers and suppliers. She constantly tries to make things work better, even if they aren't 'broken.'

69) Refer to Table 13.3. Joan's behavior is an example of ________ by a team leader.

A) expanding team capabilities B) creating a team identity C) building trust and inspiring teamwork D) making the most of team differences Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 462 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 70) Refer to Table 13.3. Todd is an example of a: A) dynamic leader.

B) transformational leader.

C) country club style of leader.

D) contingency style leader.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 451-452 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

15 .

Table 13.4 A professor is working with five teams in his marketing research class. He decides to experiment with path-goal theory in helping these groups accomplish their off-campus studies. Group A has done a project for him before. He gets them setting challenging goals and seeks to get them to produce an even better project this time. With Group B he provides very specific guidelines, sets deadlines, and lays out the rules of the class and project. He lets Group C manage their own task.

He encourages them, works on building a strong rapport with them, and tries to meet their needs related to the project. By the time he gets to Group D, he discovers they're already lost, confused, and a week behind everyone else. He sets a work schedule for them and provides step-by-step guidelines regarding the project so they won't get confused or distracted again.

71) Refer to Table 13.4. With Group B, the professor is using: A) an instrumental style.

B) a supportive style.

C) a participative style.

D) an achievement-oriented style.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 467 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 72) Refer to Table 13.4. With Group D, the professor is using: A) an instrumental style.

B) a supportive style.

C) a participative style.

D) an achievement-oriented style.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 467 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 73) Refer to Table 13.4. With Group A, the professor is using: A) an instrumental style.

B) a supportive style.

C) a participative style.

D) an achievement-oriented style.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 467 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 74) The primary difference between a leader and a manager is in how they function within an organization.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 448 75) When we describe leaders in terms of their desire to lead, their cognitive abilities, etc., we express a trait perspective of leadership.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 450 16 .

76) The concept of the "great person" as an example of leadership is the basis for behavioral leadership theory.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 450 77) In terms of participative versus autocratic leadership behaviors, a boss who asks for your input, is open to ideas, and lets you perform your job your way is more of a delegator than an autocrat.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 455 78) A manager who makes decisions without consulting subordinates and supervises their work closely is an example of a directive democrat style of leader.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 456 79) The most applicable style of leadership (usable in the most settings) in terms of the managerial grid is the high concern with people and high concern with production.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 458 80) Team leaders should focus on training and directing individuals.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 461 81) Effective team leaders make the most of team differences by building respect for diverse viewpoints, as well as ensuring that all team members can express their views.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 461 82) Team leaders should react to change, rather than foresee it.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 461 83) An individual who sets challenging goals and looks for improvement in performance has an achievement oriented leadership style.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 467 84) To be a good leader, you have to be born with leadership skills.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 468 85) Role playing is an important component in 360-degree feedback.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 469 17 .

86) The relationships developed through networking tend to be relatively short-lived.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 469 87) The process of using multiple sources from around an organization, and outside it, to evaluate the work of an individual is known as 360-degree feedback.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 469 88) Guanxi refers to the interpersonal relationships that are essential to business in China.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 470 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 89) The contingency leadership theory based on the leader's feelings for the least liked member of his/her group is the LPC model.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 463 90) In LPC leadership theory, the leader's relationship with group members, the structure of the task, and the leader's position power together determine the most effective way to lead.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 463 91) Situational leadership adjusts the manager's leadership style based on the goals set by followers and what is needed to help them achieve those goals.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 465 92) The first step in the executive coaching process is to assess individual performance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 471 93) Action learning relies on classroom training exclusively.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 472 94) People typically revert to their old ways at the conclusion of formal training sessions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 472 95) Authentic leadership behavior can be developed using coaching or mentoring.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 473

18 .

96) Executive coaching is a leadership development technique involving a continuous process of learning and reflection that is supported by colleagues and that emphasizes getting things done.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 471 97) The first step in the executive coaching process is defining the nature of the coaching relationship (e.g. what will be done and how).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 471 98) Give an overview of leadership trait theory and its implications.

Answer: Also called the "great person" theory, the idea was that leaders possessed key traits that made them leaders and that these traits were stable over time and across groups. This theory proposed that one could study leaders at any time in history by looking for these traits. The theory was largely unsubstantiated until recent research identified the following traits of successful leaders: drive, honesty and integrity, leadership motivation, self-confidence, cognitive ability, knowledge of the business, creativity, and flexibility.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 450-454 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 99) Discuss the autocratic-delegation continuum model and the two-dimensional model of subordinate participation.

Answer: The autocratic-delegation continuum model is a leadership approach that recognizes that leaders allow followers to have different degrees of decision-making power, ranging from autocratic, through participative, to delegation. Although this model reasonably describes the role of leaders in organizational decision-making, it is regarded as being overly simplistic. In fact, researchers have observed that describing a leader's participation in decision-making involves two separate dimensions.

The two-dimensional model of subordinate participation distinguishes between leaders who are directive or permissive toward subordinates, and the extent to which they are participative or autocratic in their decision-making style. As the name implies, this conceptualization describes subordinates’ participation in decisions in terms of two dimensions. These two variables yield the four possible patterns: the directive autocrat, the permissive autocrat, the directive democrat, and the permissive democrat.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 455-457 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 100) What is networking, and why is it beneficial to leadership development?

Answer: Networking is a leadership development tool designed to help people make connections to others to whom they can turn to for information and problem solving. Networking is beneficial to leadership development because it encourages peer relationships and cooperation in work settings.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 469 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

19 .

101) Identify the contingency theories of leadership.

Answer: LPC contingency theory comes from Fiedler. He postulates that a leader's contribution to the successful performance of his/her team is determined by his/her tendency to evaluate in a favorable or unfavorable way the person whom he/she finds it most difficult to work (Least preferred co-worker). Situational leadership argues that a leader should adjust his/her style to meet the maturity of the worker. The leader balances task behavior and relationship behavior, depending on the willingness and ability of the worker to perform a given task. Path-goal theory sees the leader's task as helping employees accomplish their goals. The more he/she helps, the more favorable impression workers have of the leader.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 462-468 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 102) What is leadership?

Answer: Leadership is the process whereby one individual influences group members toward attaining defined group or organizational goals. Leadership involves non-coercive influence.

Leadership primarily involves influence; that is, a leader changes the actions or attitudes of several group members or subordinates. In general, leadership refers to the use of non-coercive techniques. Leadership influence is goal-directed. It involves the exercise of influence for a purpose; that is, to attain defined group or organizational goals. Leadership requires followers. It is a two-way street. Leaders influence subordinates in various ways, but leaders also are influenced by their subordinates. In fact, it may be said that leadership exists only in relation to followers.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 447 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 103) How does leadership in self-managed teams work? How is it different from leadership in other contexts?

Answer: When most people think of leaders, they think of individuals who make strategic decisions on behalf of followers, who then are responsible for carrying them these decisions.

However, leading teams is very different from leading individuals in the traditional (directive) or even participative manner. The special nature of teams makes the leader's job very different.

Due to the move to self-managed teams, in this context, team leaders may be called on to provide special resources to groups that are empowered to implement their own missions in their own ways. Some guidelines: Instead of directing people, team leaders build trust and inspire teamwork, rather than taking all the credit. Rather than focusing simply on training individuals, team leaders concentrate on expanding team capabilities. Instead of managing one-on-one, team leaders create a team identity. Traditional leaders worked at preventing conflict between individuals, but team leaders make the most of team differences. Unlike traditional leaders who simply react to change, team leaders should foresee and influence change.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 461-462 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

20 .

104) What are the four steps in the executive coaching process?

Answer: Executive coaching involves improving a leader's performance through customized one-on-one training. The first step in the executive coaching process is to define the nature of the coaching relationship. Next, individual performance is assessed. Third, a plan for development is created. Finally, the plan is implemented.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 471 105) Discuss the theory of situational leadership.

Answer: Situational leadership theory is a contingency theory, because it focuses on the best leadership style for a given situation. Therefore, leaders are effective when they select the right leadership style for the situation they face. Specifically, this style depends on the maturity of the followers; that is, on their readiness to take responsibility for their own behavior. This is based on two variables with which we already are familiar: task behavior, or the degree to which followers have the appropriate job knowledge and skills (i.e., their need for guidance and direction) and relationship behavior, or the degree to which followers are willing to work without taking direction from others (i.e., their need for emotional support). According to situational leadership theory, leaders must diagnose the situations they face, identify the appropriate behavioral style, and then implement that response. Because situations may change, leaders must constantly reassess them, paying special attention to their followers' needs for guidance and emotional support. To the extent they do so, these leaders are likely to be effective.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 465-466 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 106) What is action learning and how is it different from traditional learning?

Answer: Traditionally, much of the learning that takes place when people are taught to lead takes place in a classroom setting. The problem with this approach is that shortly after the formal training sessions are over, people revert to their old ways when they are back on the job; the result being little if any developmental progress. In contrast, action learning is a leadership development technique, which involves a continuous process of learning and reflection, which is supported by colleagues and focused on getting things done. The underlying assumption of action learning is that leaders develop most effectively when they are working on real organizational problems.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 472 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 107) What are the qualities of an authentic leader?

Answer: Individuals who are called authentic leaders may be effective because of their emphasis on morality and ethics in their relationships with others. Specifically, scientists have observed that they possess four particular qualities that contribute to their effectiveness as leaders: self-awareness, unbiased processing, authentic behavioral acting, and relational authenticity.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 473

21 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 14 Organizational Culture, Creativity, and Innovation 1) The cognitive framework consisting of attitudes, values, behavioral norms, and expectations shared by organization members, is referred to as: A) organizational culture.

B) intrinsic task motivation.

C) innovation.

D) technology.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 481 2) Nissan has telemarketers call customers after they've bought a car, had a car serviced, or done business with a Nissan dealer to check on their satisfaction and to ask for ways to improve their service. Nissan provides feedback cards in the showrooms for customer use. These are examples of Nissan building the organizational cultural value of: A) a willingness to take risks.

B) interest in new ideas.

C) openness to communication.

D) sensitivity to others.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 481 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 3) Bill is considering working for Dayton Computers. He notices that the company shows respect for individuals' rights, is fair, and supportive. He is assessing the organizational cultural element of: A) willingness to take risks.

B) interest in having employees generate ideas.

C) openness of available communication.

D) the value placed on people.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 481-482 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 4) Bank of America has been described as very conservative and slow to innovate or try new ideas; in contrast, employees at The Limited are discouraged from making "safe" choices. This difference represents which aspect of organizational culture?

A) Willingness to take risks B) Interest in having employees generate ideas C) Openness of available communication D) Sensitivity to the needs of customers and employees Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 482 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

1 .

5) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a healthy organizational culture?

A) Everyone is humble.

B) People are held accountable.

C) People are not free to take risks.

D) The commitment to doing things well is high.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 482-483 6) Companies with a strong culture are likely to have all of the following EXCEPT: A) clear philosophy.

B) considerable time spent on communicating values and beliefs.

C) widely accepted and rooted values.

D) less screening of new employees.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 484 7) When interpreting an organization's culture, it is important to remember that: A) organizational culture will not change over time.

B) companies actually contain multiple cultures.

C) there is a best culture for every organization.

D) innovation is a function of people, not companies.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 484 8) The distinctive, overarching "personality" of an organization is known as: A) its subculture.

B) its dominant culture.

C) the organizational climate.

D) extrinsic task motivators.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 484 9) Organizational culture plays several important roles, such as: A) providing a sense of identity for its members.

B) orienting employees to the external environment.

C) providing a list of rules for outsiders to follow in their interactions with the organization.

D) All of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 485

2 .

10) During his interview, John was told that work hours were 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. However, he noticed after about three weeks that the “up and coming” managers tended to show up by 6:30 a.m. and did not go home until around 7:00 p.m. This is an example of organizational culture's role of: A) providing a sense of identity for its members.

B) clarifying standards of behavior.

C) communicating the organization's mission.

D) determining what constitutes innovation.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 485 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 11) According to the competing values framework, the cultures of organizations differ with respect to the values of ________.

A) flexibility and discretion versus stability, order, and control B) internal affairs versus what is happening in the external environment C) Both "A" and "B" D) Neither "A" nor "B" Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 485 12) An organization with a hierarchy culture is best described by all of the following EXCEPT: A) internal focus.

B) emphasis on stability.

C) emphasis on production.

D) emphasis on control.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 485 13) Organizations that are concerned with stability and control but are external in their orientation are said to have a(n): A) market culture.

B) clan culture.

C) adhocracy culture.

D) competing values culture.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 486 14) Organizations that have a strong internal focus along with a high degree of flexibility and discretion are said to have a(n): A) market culture.

B) clan culture.

C) adhocracy culture.

D) competing values culture.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 486 3 .

15) Organizations that emphasize flexibility while also paying a great deal of attention to the external environment are said to have a(n): A) market culture.

B) clan culture.

C) adhocracy culture.

D) competing values culture.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 487 16) A key factor contributing to the emergence of culture in a company is ________.

A) the influence of company founders B) the company's experiences with the external environment C) Both "A" and "B" D) Neither "A" nor "B" Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 488 17) If a company shapes its culture around a strategy like price leadership or high quality products, its culture is growing out of the factor of: A) the organization's experience with the external environment.

B) the company's founders.

C) internal interactions, contact between groups within the organization.

D) the subcultures within the organization.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 488 18) In the transmission of organizational culture, material objects that connote meanings that extend beyond their intrinsic content are called: A) statements of principle.

B) symbols.

C) experiences of shared meaning.

D) stories.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 490 19) The use of plants and flower arrangements to create the look of friendly, person-oriented culture represents which of the following tools for transmitting culture?

A) Slogans B) Symbols C) Stories D) Jargon Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 490

4 .

20) "Just like a good neighbor, State Farm is there" represents which of the following tools for transmitting culture?

A) Slogans B) Symbols C) Stories D) Jargon Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 490 21) During new employee orientation, the facilitator explains how the founder of the company came from overseas with no money and unable to speak the language, but by hard work was able to build this company in 15 years to its current size. This is example of the organizational culture transmission tool: A) statements of principle.

B) symbols.

C) experiences of shared meaning.

D) stories.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 490 22) The use of special language represents which of the following tools for transmitting culture?

A) Slogans B) Symbols C) Stories D) Jargon Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 490-491 23) Two HR professionals were talking in the hallway about OSHA coming to visit and how much they dreaded it. A fellow manager came up and suggested they simply try to be out of the office when he stopped in. They laughed and explained that OSHA was actually a government health and safety organization coming for an inspection and they couldn't just be gone. This is example of the organizational culture transmission tool: A) statements of principle.

B) jargon.

C) experiences of shared meaning.

D) stories.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 491 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

5 .

24) Throwing a party to celebrate the move to a new facility represents which of the following tools for transmitting culture?

A) Slogans B) Symbols C) Ceremonies D) Jargon Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 492 25) The Body Shop International's explicit statement concerning its commitment to environmental issues is an example of the organizational culture transmission tool of: A) statements of principle.

B) symbols.

C) ceremonies.

D) stories.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 492 26) Forest Mars, the founder of the candy company M&M Mars, published the “Five Principles of Mars,” which still guide the company today. This publication exemplifies which of the following tools for transmitting culture?

A) Written statements of principle B) Symbols C) Ceremonies D) Slogans and mottoes Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 492 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 27) Explicit statements about the company's moral and ethical values are called: A) statements of principle.

B) symbols.

C) experiences of shared meaning.

D) codes of ethics.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 492 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 28) Organizational cultures change over time due to: A) the changing characteristics of the workforce.

B) changes in an organization's external environment.

C) government policies.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 492

6 .

29) The growing ethnic and cultural diversity of employees is one example of how ________ is/are causing change in organizational cultures.

A) innovation and creativity B) the composition of the workforce C) mergers and acquisitions D) planned organizational change Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 492-493 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 30) The merger of Nabisco and R.J. Nabisco is an example of the importance of ________ for the success of a merger.

A) organizational culture B) the composition of the workforce C) innovation and creativity D) planned organizational change Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 493 31) According to the text, culture clashes are likely to occur in: A) market culture.

B) mergers and acquisitions.

C) adhocracy culture.

D) competing values culture.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 493 32) A cultural due diligence analysis should be done to ensure compatibility before a ________ has been finalized.

A) corporate downsizing initiative B) stealth marketing campaign C) SWOT analysis D) merger or acquisition Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 494 33) Before a merger or acquisition is finalized, many experts recommend that a cultural due diligence analysis should be conducted. During such an analysis, the comparison of the fundamental aspects of the cultures of both organizations would involve ________.

A) assessing intellectual capital B) auditing the prevailing cultures C) involving different people from both companies in designing the new enterprise D) communicating early and often with people at all levels of both organizations Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 494

7 .

34) Interviewing people in both organizations to determine "who really knows what to do and how to do it" is a part of what activity of the cultural due diligence analysis?

A) Assess ing intellectual capital B) Auditing the prevailing culture C) Involving different people from both companies in designing the new enterprise D) Communicating early and often Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 494 35) Utilizing customer opinion and information is part of what activity of the cultural due diligence audit?

A) Assess intellectual capital B) Audit the prevailing culture C) Involve different people from both companies in designing the new enterprise D) Communicate early and often Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 494 36) Being honest and open is most important in what activity of a cultural due diligence analysis?

A) Assessing intellectual capital B) Auditing the prevailing culture C) Involving different people from both companies in designing the new enterprise D) Communicating early and often Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 494 37) In the discussion of individual creativity, any concern that the individual has the physical skills necessary to create or innovate is a discussion of: A) creativity-relevant skills.

B) intrinsic task motivation.

C) extrinsic task environment.

D) domain-relevant skills.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 496 38) Ana is helping her employees break their mental sets and think more complexly in order to improve their creativity. Ana is helping them to develop their: A) creativity-relevant skills.

B) intrinsic behavioral skills.

C) affect-based skills.

D) domain-relevant skills.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 496

8 .

39) ________ is the process of reframing familiar problems in unique ways.

A) Productive forgetting B) Divergent thinking C) Intrinsic task motivation D) Cross-functional symbiosis Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 496 40) When someone is trying to be creative and use a series of "rules" to approach tasks in novel ways, they are building their creativity by: A) embedding a new contract.

B) developing the ability to productively forget.

C) using a creativity heuristic.

D) learning to think more complexly.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 497 41) When fostering creativity, it helps to: A) minimize divergent thinking.

B) simplify the task at hand.

C) avoid the use of similes and metaphors.

D) practice productive forgetting.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 497 42) To build creativity-related skills, an individual should: A) learn to break complex processes into their simplest parts.

B) develop the ability to forget unproductive ideas.

C) reinforce existing paradigms and perspectives.

D) do all of these.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 497 43) The three basic components of creativity in individuals and teams are ________.

A) cognitive skills, intrinsic motivation, and appropriate resources B) skills in the task domain, skills in the communication domain, and intrinsic motivation C) domain-relevant skills, creativity-relevant skills, and intrinsic motivation D) skills in the task domain, intrinsic motivation, and appropriate resources Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 496-497

9 .

44) The component of creativity that focuses on what people are willing to do is: A) creativity-relevant skills.

B) domain-relevant skills.

C) affect-based skills.

D) intrinsic task motivation.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 497 45) Intrinsic task motivation tends to be high when: A) an employee is using a creativity heuristic in his/her thinking.

B) the employee has a personal interest in the task.

C) the company offers a significant financial reward.

D) all of these conditions are present.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 497 46) The first step in the creative process is: A) allow ideas to incubate.

B) document insight.

C) verify ideas.

D) prepare to be creative.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 498 47) The stage of the creative process that involves gathering the appropriate information and concentrating on the problem is: A) allowing ideas to incubate.

B) documenting insight.

C) verify ideas.

D) preparing to be creative.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 498 48) According to the creative process model, allowing ideas to incubate means to: A) sleep on it.

B) gather the appropriate information and concentrate on the problem.

C) brainstorm.

D) break mental sets and take new perspectives.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 498

10 .

49) The final stage of the creativity process is: A) preparation.

B) allow ideas to incubate.

C) document insight.

D) verify ideas.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 498 50) Generally, training people to be more creative involves two key practices. ________ is one of the practices involved in promoting creativity.

A) Taking the time to understand the problem.

B) Encouraging openness to new experiences C) Maximizing the search for optimal solutions D) Both "A" and "B" Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 499 51) Giving employees freedom to control their own behavior is part of which approach to developing creative work environments?

A) Provide exposure to other creative people B) Provide autonomy C) Allow ideas to cross-pollinate D) Make jobs intrinsically interesting Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 502 52) Working on several projects at once is part of which approach to developing creative work environments?

A) Provide exposure to other creative people B) Provide autonomy C) Allow ideas to cross-pollinate D) Make jobs intrinsically interesting Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 502 53) The top 50 most innovative companies enjoyed annual profit margin growths that were ________ as compared to the average Standard & Poor's Global 1200 companies.

A) a little higher B) considerably higher C) a little lower D) significantly lower Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 504

11 .

54) Companies engaging in ________ bring about change in the market.

A) radical innovation B) disruptive innovation C) incremental innovation D) manufacturer innovation Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 506 55) Companies engaging in ________ exploit existing technology and operate under conditions in which uncertainty about the future is low.

A) radical innovation B) disruptive innovation C) incremental innovation D) manufacturer innovation Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 506 56) Companies making ________ explore new technology and operate under highly uncertain conditions.

A) radical innovations B) disruptive innovations C) incremental innovations D) manufacturer innovations Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 506 57) Introducing goods that are new or substantially improved is considered what target of innovation?

A) Service innovation B) Process innovation C) Product innovation D) Supply chain innovation Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 506 58) Faster delivery of packages is considered an example of what target of innovation?

A) Service innovation B) Process innovation C) Product innovation D) Supply chain innovation Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 506

12 .

59) Improvements in production or delivery methods are considered what target of innovation?

A) Service innovation B) Process innovation C) Product innovation D) Supply chain innovation Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 506 60) Improvements in packaging are considered examples of what target of innovation?

A) Service innovation B) Process innovation C) Product innovation D) Marketing innovation Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 506 61) Revising the basic way that business is done is an example of what target of innovation?

A) Service innovation B) Business model innovation C) Organizational innovation D) Marketing innovation Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 506 62) Changes in pivotal organizational practices are considered examples what target of innovation?

A) Organizational innovation B) Process innovation C) Product innovation D) Marketing innovation Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 506 63) A key organizational component necessary to foster innovation is ________.

A) an unrelenting sense of urgency B) formalized rules and regulations C) a culture that encourages innovation D) a hierarchical communication structure Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 507

13 .

64) The most important organizational cultural element for managing innovation is: A) the ability to apply time pressure on employees without making them quit.

B) the balancing of goals, rewards, and time pressure.

C) the firm's senior leadership.

D) market research.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 507 65) Experience and research show that effective innovation management involves: A) the imposition of severe time pressures.

B) linking all forms of innovation and creativity to financial rewards.

C) a permissive-directive style of organizational leadership.

D) linking innovation to the corporate mission.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 507 66) Betsy is creating a mission statement and focusing on motivation. She is ________ for innovation.

A) setting the agenda B) setting the stage C) producing the ideas D) testing and implementing the ideas Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 508 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 67) ________ of the organizational innovation process may involve narrowing down broad goals and gathering the resources needed to meet them.

A) Stage 1 - setting the agenda B) Stage 2 - setting the stage C) Stage 3 - producing the ideas D) Stage 4- testing and implementing the ideas Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 508 68) During ________ of the organizational innovation process, new ideas are generated and tested.

A) Stage 1 - setting the agenda B) Stage 2 - setting the stage C) Stage 3 - producing the ideas D) Stage 4- testing and implementing the ideas Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 508

14 .

69) It is at this Stage in the organizational innovation process when other parts of the organization become involved in the process.

A) Stage 2 - setting the stage B) Stage 3 - producing the ideas C) Stage 4- testing and implementing the ideas D) Stage 5 - outcome assessment Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 509 70) The nurturing of an innovation takes place in this stage, and it is where most ideas are killed.

A) Stage 2 - setting the stage B) Stage 3 - producing the ideas C) Stage 4- testing and implementing the ideas D) Stage 5 - outcome assessment Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 509 71) A number of great innovations were initially rejected or turned down, including: A) the movie Star Wars.

B) movies with sound tracks.

C) the Beatles D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 509 Table 14.1 Graduate students are studying their university's organizational culture. Tanya is examining the extent to which the university makes it easy for students to register for classes and for professors to get clerical support for their classes. Tia has focused on the university's concern about liability and how much it allows professors to experiment with new teaching methods, conduct experiments in classes, etc. Bill has found that there is little expectation that faculty will make independent decisions. Almost everything has to pass through a committee. Students feel like mushrooms; they are kept in the dark and dumped on. As a consequence, faculty members do their own thing and go home. Alumni giving is minimal since most graduates are happy to escape. There is little social consciousness on campus.

72) Refer to Table 14.1. Tanya is examining the ________ element of organizational culture.

A) sensitivity to the needs of customers and employees B) interest in having employees generate new ideas C) value placed on taking risks D) openness of available communication opportunities Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 481 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

15 .

73) Refer to Table 14.1. Tia's research is on the ________ element of organizational culture.

A) sensitivity to the needs of customers and employees B) interest in having employees generate new ideas C) willingness to take risks D) openness of available communication opportunities Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 482 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 74) Refer to Table 14.1. Bill's research in on the organizational cultural element of: A) sensitivity to the needs of customers and employees.

B) interest in having employees generate new ideas.

C) value placed on taking risks.

D) openness of available communication opportunities.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 483 AACSB: Communication Table 14.2 As an innovation consultant, you work with a number of firms. Better Mousetraps builds inexpensive but sophisticated mousetraps. They have very capable designers and engineers who are highly motivated by a personal desire to rid the world of mice, yet innovation is low. The CEO asks you to conduct some creativity training. You lead the key designers through a process for coming up with new ideas by reframing common problems in unique ways to come up with multiple or alternative solutions. Along with the training, you interview the designers and engineers and discover that they are not clear on what the CEO wants. You also find they perceive a corporate bias towards the status quo, not an encouragement to innovate.

75) Refer to Table 14.2. What creativity component seems to be weak at Better Mousetraps?

A) Domain-relevant skills B) Creativity-relevant skills C) Intrinsic task motivation D) Affective identity Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 496 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 76) Refer to Table 14.2. Your creativity training is an example of: A) divergent thinking.

B) helping designers to understand complexities.

C) the use of productive forgetting.

D) keeping options open.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 497 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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77) Refer to Table 14.2. Your interviews of employees has uncovered a weakness in which organizational component for innovation?

A) The way innovation is managed B) The resources to innovate C) The motivation to innovate D) None of these.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 507 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 78) Organizational culture is a cognitive framework of the attitudes, values, norms, and expectations shared by the organization's members.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 481 79) A strong organizational culture is necessary for the culture to have a positive impact on productivity.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 484 80) While an organization's culture builds a sense of identity for employees, it has little effect on their commitment to the organization's mission or purpose.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 485 81) The external environment of a company has little effect on its internal culture.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 488 82) Jargon is actually beneficial in maintaining an organization's culture.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 490 83) Like human personalities, organizational cultures do not change, just the mechanical behavior of people changes, but not their values, beliefs, attitudes, or norms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 492 84) It is essential in developing creativity to reduce ideas to their simplest level and then rebuild them in your mind.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 496 85) Intrinsic task motivation focuses on what people are capable of doing.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 497 17 .

86) Intrinsic task motivation is high when the individual has a strong personal interest or has other internal reasons to perform.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 497 87) If any one of the three components of creativity is missing, people will not be creative at all.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 498 88) Simply put, creativity is a "flash of brilliance." It is not a process that can be modeled.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 498 89) Support for creativity is a personality variable that reflects the degree to which a person is interested in new and different things and gets excited by new ideas.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 499-500 90) Creativity tends to be considerably higher when companies are downsizing because ideas are more likely to cross-pollinate.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 502 91) Having a diverse workforce ensures that creativity will flourish.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 503 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 92) Innovation is the successful implementation of creative ideas within an organization.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 504 93) The components of organizational innovation are essentially the same as those for individual creativity.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 507 94) The best way to create an innovative climate is to specifically link organizational goals to innovations and to connect each innovation to some type of monetary reward.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 507 95) Organizational innovation is promoted when goals and reward systems are not overly specific and time pressures are not too great.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 507 18 .

96) The process of organizational innovation begins with setting the stage and then producing the ideas.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 508 97) The final stage of organizational innovation is assessing the outcome.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 509 98) Explain how and why organizational culture changes.

Answer: The world in which all organizations operate changes constantly. External events such as shifts in market conditions, new technology, altered government policies, and many other factors change over time, necessitating changes in an organization's mode of doing business and, hence, in its culture.

Composition of the workforce: Over time, the people entering an organization may differ in important ways from those already in it, and these differences may impinge on the existing culture of the organization.

Mergers and acquisitions: Another and even more dramatic source of cultural change is mergers and acquisitions, events in which one organization purchases or otherwise absorbs another. In a number of cases, the merger of the two organizations with incompatible cultures has resulted in serious problems referred to as culture clashes.

Strategic cultural change: A company deliberately can decide to change its culture, as a means of adjusting to evolving conditions (even positive ones, such as exponential growth). Cultural change also may result from the conscious decisions to alter the internal structure or the basic operations of an organization.

Responding to the Internet: The Internet is a major influence on organizational culture these days. Compared to brick-and-mortar businesses, where things move more slowly and change is viewed skeptically, the culture of online business is agile, fast-paced, and receptive to new solutions. When a traditional business establishes an online presence, the changes to its culture will be rapid, drastic, and far-reaching.

In conclusion, although organizational culture is generally stable, it is not immutable. In fact, culture often responds to outside forces (workforce and technology), as well as deliberate attempts to change the design of organizations (mergers and corporate restructuring).

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 492-495 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

19 .

99) What are the components of individual and team creativity.

Answer: Creativity in individuals and teams involves three basic components: domain-relevant skills, creativity-relevant skills, and intrinsic task motivation. Domain-relevant skills pertain to any task requires certain talents, knowledge, or skills. Those skills and abilities we already have constitute the raw materials of creativity. Creativity-relevant skills move beyond the basic skills, into being creative and require additional skills; that is, special abilities that help people to approach what they do in novel ways. Intrinsic task motivation focuses on the level of desire to do work because it interesting, engaging, or challenging. People are most likely to be creative when they are passionate about their work.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 496-498 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 100) Name each stage of the innovation process and explain what takes place during it.

Answer: Innovation occurs gradually, and scientists have identified five species stages. Stage l: Setting the Agenda involves creating a mission statement; that is, a document describing an organization's overall direction and general goals for accomplishing that movement. Stage 2: Setting the Stage may involve narrowing certain broad goals into more specific tasks and gathering the resources to meet them. It also may involve assessing the environment, both outside and inside the organization, and searching for anything that may support or inhibit later efforts to "break the rules" by being creative. Stage 3: Producing the Ideas involves coming up with new ideas and testing them. It also is the stage in which individual and small group creativity enters the picture. Stage 4: Testing and Implementing the Ideas happens after an initial group of individuals has developed an idea and other parts of the organization become involved.

Resources in the task domain are important at this stage. Stage 5: Assessing the Outcome is the final stage, and three outcomes are possible. If the resulting idea has been a total success, it will be accepted and carried out in the future. The process is over if the idea has been a complete failure, in which case there is no good reason to continue. If the new idea shows promise, however, and has made some progress toward the organization's objectives but still has problems, the process starts again at Stage 2.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 507- 509 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 101) Define organizational culture and name its core characteristics.

Answer: Organizational culture is a cognitive framework consisting of attitudes, values, behavioral norms, and expectations shared by the organization's members. At the root of any organization's culture is a set of core characteristics that are collectively valued by the members.

First, organizations differ regarding their sensitivity to the needs of others. Second, organizations differ regarding their interest in having employees generate new ideas. Third, companies differ regarding the value placed on taking risks. Fourth, the value placed on people relates to whether employees are seen as being valuable only to the extent that they contribute to production, or whether they are treated well and motivated. Fifth, openness of available communization options pertains to the degree employees are expected to make decisions freely and communicate with whoever is needed to get the job done. Sixth, friendliness and congeniality exemplifies the relationships between employees, not only on the job but also outside of the workplace.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 481 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 20 .

102) Discuss the characteristics of organizations with strong cultures.

Answer: Organizations with strong cultures are characterized by a clear philosophy about how business is to be conducted, considerable time spent on communicating values and beliefs, explicit statements made that describe the organization's values, a set of values/norms that are shared widely and rooted deeply, and careful screening of new employees to ensure that they fit the culture.

Strong organizational cultures are likely to be found in newer organizations that have fewer employees. Perhaps, as organizations grow, the effects of culture become diffused. In addition, organizations are more successful financially when their leaders hold views that are in keeping with the organizational culture than when the views of leaders are at odds with the prevailing culture. Together, these findings suggest that strong cultures shape the preferences and actions of people in the organizations that have them.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 484 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 103) How is an organizational culture created?

Answer: Three factors influence the formation of organizational cultures: the founders of the company (their personalities, vision, and values), the organization's experience with the external environment (organizational memory), and internal interaction (the contacts between individuals and groups within the organization and their interpretations of events within the organization).

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 488-489 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 104) Identify the tools for transmitting organizational culture.

Answer: Symbols are material objects that connote meanings that extend beyond their intrinsic content. Slogans are phrases that capture an organization’s culture. Stories illustrate key aspects of an organization's culture, convey information about the organization, and reaffirm the values of the organization. Jargon is the everyday, special language or slang that helps members define their identities. Ceremonies are special events that commemorate corporate values. Statements of principle are direct statements (often in writing) about key issues for the organization.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 489-492 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21 .

105) Identify the major forms of innovation and associate them with the following key factors: impact on existing business, degree of uncertainty, and source.

Answer: The forms of innovation are as follows: sustaining, disruptive, incremental, radical, manufacturer, and end-user. Regarding existing business impact, sustaining innovation is incremental in nature; it allows companies to approach their markets in the same manner as they have done in the past. Disruptive innovation, on the other hand, is so extreme that it changes the market in which companies operate. Regarding degree of uncertainty impact, incremental innovation is a slow-and-steady approach in which companies exploit existing technology and operate under conditions of low uncertainty about the future. In contrast, radical innovation requires companies to make quantum leaps, exploring new technology and operating under highly uncertain conditions. Regarding source of innovation impact, the traditional form is called manufacturer innovation, in which an individual or organization develops an innovation for the purpose of selling it. With end-user innovation, the individuals (customers) who use a company’s products inspire new ideas.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 504-506 106) What are the components of organizational innovation and their importance to organizational behavior?

Answer: The three components of individual innovation (motivation, resources, and skills) are quite similar to those needed for organizational innovation. Motivation to innovate: Individuals must be motivated to be creative; organizational innovation requires that organizations have the kinds of cultures that encourage innovation. Resources to innovate: People must have certain skills to be creative; organizations must possess certain basic human and financial resources to make innovation possible. Skills to manage innovation: Individuals must hone their creative skills; organizations must develop special ways of managing people to encourage innovation.

Managers can promote innovation by a balanced approach to goals, reward systems, and time pressure.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 507 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

22 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 15 Organizational Structure and Design 1) The formal configuration between individuals and groups with respect to the allocation of tasks, responsibilities, and authority within organizations is known as: A) organizational structure.

B) organizational design.

C) an organizational chart.

D) division of labor.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 518 2) An organizational chart: A) obscures the relationships among task-related functions.

B) illustrates the external partnerships of an organization.

C) represents an organization’s internal structure.

D) does not pertain to not-for-profit organizations.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 518 3) The organizational charts that indicate who reports to whom represent the organization's: A) division of labor.

B) span of control.

C) line and staff positions.

D) hierarchy of authority.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 518 4) XYZ corporation has ten levels of authority between the president and the lowest level employee on the organizational chart. By contrast, ABC Corporation has only three levels of authority between the president and the lowest level. It may be said that XYZ's hierarchy of authority is ________, whereas ABC's is ________.

A) flat; tall B) tall; flat C) wide; narrow D) narrow; wide Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 519 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

1 .

5) In the downsizing process, restructuring hits ________ of organizational hierarchies especially hard.

A) the middle layers B) the strategic points C) the technostructures D) communication elements Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 519 6) The number of people formally required to report to each individual manager is known as a manager's: A) span of control.

B) organizational structure.

C) organizational chart.

D) division of labor.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 520 7) An organization with a tall hierarchy results in managers having a ________ span of control: A) broad B) narrow C) general D) specialized Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 520 8) When evaluating a manager's span of control, you should: A) simply study the organizational chart.

B) measure it against the ideal of 6-10 employees.

C) consider the degree of supervisory control needed.

D) do all of these.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 520 9) The ________ involves dividing the many tasks performed within an organization into particular jobs.

A) delineation of staff B) span of control C) division of labor D) hierarchy of authority Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 521

2 .

10) The benefit of a narrow division of labor in an organization is: A) the reduction in the number of supervisors necessary.

B) it is easier to implement performance enhancing technology.

C) increased flexibility in the use of human resources.

D) higher performance levels of each individual.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 522 11) Alice was a copy writer for a large advertising firm in New York, where she specialized in writing radio ads. She moved to Tulsa, Oklahoma, where she took a job at a much smaller advertising firm. Her new job required her not only to write radio ads for supermarkets, but to write copy for all radio ads, TV ads, and print ads. Sometimes she even had to produce commercials, work with artists, and even meet with clients. Compared to her former New York job, her new job: A) involves less of a division of labor.

B) shows a decentralization of power.

C) gives her a greater span of control.

D) has become a staff position instead of a line position.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 522 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 12) The degree to which employees perform specialized jobs is likely to depend on the ________ of the organization.

A) depth of management B) size C) amount of resources D) number of clients/customers Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 520 13) The basic difference between line managers and staff managers is that: A) line managers tend to be better educated.

B) staff managers have more decision power.

C) staff managers are older, more decisive, but less well educated.

D) line managers have decision-making power.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 520 14) An example of a staff job in an organization would be the: A) corporate legal counsel.

B) VP of Human Resources.

C) sales manager.

D) VP of Operations.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 522 3 .

15) Studies show that staff managers tend to: A) be younger and more committed to their field than to their organization.

B) have more decision-making power than line managers.

C) be older and better educated than line managers.

D) be more committed to the organization than line managers.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 522 16) The process of delegating power from higher to lower levels within organizations is known as: A) centralization of authority.

B) division of labor.

C) decentralization of authority.

D) setting the span of control.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 523 17) Highly decentralized organizations: A) allow critical decisions to be made by those who have "the big picture."

B) promote opportunities for decisions to be made by people closest to the situation.

C) are more efficient when they deal with simple tasks.

D) eliminate the additional responsibility of decision-making for those who don't want it.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 523-524 18) The decentralization of control in organizations: A) is the key way for any organization to increase productivity.

B) has brought about higher costs due to the implementation of technology to do the work of downsized employees.

C) works best in manufacturing and production-oriented businesses.

D) is done to increase managerial efficiency and employee satisfaction.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 524 19) In a classic study, it was found that decentralization: A) improved job performance in a research lab, but interfered with performance for people working on assembly-line jobs.

B) improved job performance in a research lab, but had no effect on job performance for assembly-line workers.

C) did not improve job performance in a research lab, but improved performance for people working on assembly lines.

D) had no effect on job performance in a research lab, but increased performance for assemblyline workers.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 524

4 .

20) The process of breaking up organizations into coherent units is known as: A) centralization of labor.

B) departmentalization.

C) retrofitting the organization chart.

D) restructuring the organizational chart.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 524 21) Organizations structured along functional lines: A) are less efficient than other organizational structures.

B) permit greater job specialization.

C) provide better customer service.

D) have less clean lines of authority than other organizational structures.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 525-526 22) Departmentalization that creates self-contained divisions that are each responsible for a specific group of products creates what is called a: A) product organization.

B) matrix organization.

C) mechanistic organization.

D) boundaryless organization.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 526 23) In organizations departmentalized by products, each self-contained division ________.

A) gains economies of scale through shared resources B) gives employees a global perspective of the company C) meets changes in the market in flexible ways D) has all the resources needed to develop, manufacture, and sell its products Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 527 24) Automakers like Ford, General Motors, etc., produce and market their cars through separate divisions. This is an example of: A) functional organizations.

B) matrix organizations.

C) product organizations.

D) boundaryless organizations.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 527 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

5 .

25) There are limitations to departmentalization by product, including: A) conflicting reporting relationships.

B) difficulty in attracting and retaining talented employees.

C) the difficulty in tracking various tax requirements.

D) overloading functional areas with conflicting demands.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 527 26) In a ________, employees report to both a product manager and a functional manager.

A) matrix organization B) quasi-functional organization C) mechanistic organization D) organic organization Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 527 27) David is in charge of the marketing department, and he has been assigned to head up the new MOV VI Product-Development Team. David is a: A) top leader.

B) functional boss.

C) matrix boss.

D) product champion.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 527-528 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 28) In a matrix design, there are three management roles. The ________ has the authority over both the functional and product lines of authority.

A) top leader B) functional boss C) matrix boss D) dual authority boss Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 527-528 29) In matrix design, organizations in which both the functional lines and the product lines are permanent and equally strong are known as: A) temporary overlay organizations.

B) mature matrix organizations.

C) permanent overlay organizations.

D) adapted matrix organizations.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 528

6 .

30) Organizations are most likely to adopt matrix designs when: A) each unit contains sufficient resources to complete its own projects.

B) the market environment is stable.

C) financial and human resources must be stretched to meet challenges and new opportunities.

D) their markets mature and they need economies of scale to compete on the basis of price.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 529 31) Matrix designs have a number of advantages, such as: A) clarifying reporting responsibilities.

B) flexibility in the allocation of human resources.

C) reducing employee stress through high degrees of cooperation and coordination.

D) reducing spans of control for managers.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 529 32) Matrix designs are not without disadvantages, such as: A) increasing stress and frustration faced by two-boss managers.

B) inhibiting communication among managers.

C) limiting the organization's ability to use human resources.

D) reducing the ability to respond quickly to marketplace changes.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 529 33) The process of coordinating the structural elements of organizations in the most appropriate manner is called: A) organizational structure.

B) organizational design.

C) an organizational chart.

D) division of labor.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 529 34) Classical approaches to organizational design advanced by Weber, Taylor, and Fayol: A) assume that there is one best way to design organizations.

B) apply only to manufacturing organizations and not service organizations.

C) are among the most flexible of organizational designs.

D) advocate a humanistic, egalitarian approach to the workplace.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 530

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35) Which of the following is a reason why classical organizational theory has fallen into disfavor?

A) It paid too much attention to human needs.

B) It is not well suited to a changing environment.

C) It did not focus adequately on profitability.

D) It permitted central core functions to be copied by competitors.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 530 36) Neo-classical design differs from classical design because it includes a concern for: A) industrial efficiency.

B) specialization of labor.

C) employee satisfaction.

D) profits.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 530 37) Douglas McGregor's Theory Y approach is an example of a: A) classical organizational theory.

B) neoclassical organizational theory.

C) contingency theory.

D) systems theory.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 530 38) Neoclassical theory argues that: A) organizations should have flat, hierarchical structures.

B) organizations should have a high degree of decentralization.

C) it represents the universal, ideal form for all organizations.

D) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 530 39) The idea that the best design for an organization depends on the nature of the environment in which the organization is operating is central to which of the following approaches to organizational design?

A) The classical approach B) The neoclassical approach C) The contingency approach D) Mintzberg's framework Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 531

8 .

40) Research on environmental stability and organizational structure found that: A) companies in relatively stable environments tended toward job specialization.

B) there was no link between organizational structure and the company's operating environment.

C) companies in relatively unstable environments tended toward job specialization.

D) companies in rapidly changing environments did better when they had a mechanistic structure.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 532 41) Evan works at Burger King. His job is highly specialized and there is a specific procedure for each task that he must perform. Burger King is an example of a(n): A) organic organization.

B) mechanistic organization.

C) matrix organization.

D) machine bureaucracy.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 532 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 42) Which of the following is characteristic of a mechanistic organization?

A) The replacement of people with technology B) Proliferation of generalist positions C) Involvement in a dynamic business environment D) High employee specialization Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 532 43) Organic organizations are characterized by: A) authority that is diffused throughout the organization.

B) rigid rules regarding routine jobs.

C) involvement in a stable business environment.

D) high employee specialization.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 532 44) Research found that organizational units were most effective when: A) their structure was mechanistic, regardless of environment.

B) their structure was matched to their environment.

C) their structure was organic if the environment was stable.

D) they used a matrix structure.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 533

9 .

45) The element of an organization where the basic work is performed is known as the ________ in Mintzberg's framework.

A) technostructure B) strategic apex C) operating core D) support staff Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 533 46) In Mintzberg's framework, the ________ is the dominant group in a simple organizational structure.

A) technostructure B) strategic apex C) operating core D) support staff Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 533-535 47) Those specialists responsible for standardizing various aspects of the organization's activities are part of Mintzberg's: A) technostructure.

B) strategic apex.

C) operating core.

D) support staff.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 534 48) In Mintzberg's ________, decision-making is concentrated at the top, work is highly standardized, and the operating environment is stable.

A) simple structure B) divisional structure C) professional bureaucracy D) machine bureaucracy Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 535 49) A large organization that consists of sets of autonomous units coordinated by a central headquarters is an example of a ________.

A) model of divergence B) divisional structure C) professional bureaucracy D) QWL structure Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 535

10 .

50) An adhocracy is most likely to occur in an organization such as ________.

A) a university.

B) the military C) an automobile manufacturer D) a software development firm.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 535-536 51) Andrea works for a service organization that is very customer-orientated. Because of this, a great deal of power resides with the support staff, including her. This is an example of a(n): A) adhocracy.

B) divisional structure.

C) professional bureaucracy.

D) machine bureaucracy.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 535-536 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 52) ________ eliminate chains of command, widen spans of control, and use empowered teams.

A) Product organizations B) Matrix organizations C) Mechanistic organizations D) Boundaryless organizations Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 543 53) When an organization outsources its noncore functions, retains control over its core business, and then arranges networks of specialists around that core that can be added to or subtracted from as needed, the business has adopted a: A) modular organizational structure.

B) matrix organizational structure.

C) virtual organizational structure.

D) product organizational structure.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 543 54) In a ________, each participating company only contributes its core competencies.

A) diverse organizational structure.

B) matrix organizational structure.

C) virtual organizational structure.

D) product organizational structure.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 544

11 .

55) ________ are composed of a continually evolving network of companies that are linked together to share skills, costs, and access to markets.

A) Virtual organizations B) Bureaucracies C) Strategic alliances D) Mutual service consortia Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 544 56) Which of the following would be the best candidate to go virtual?

A) A multinational conglomerate B) A software company writing software for Windows applications C) A pharmaceutical company that produces the only product for treating a certain disease D) Any of these would be effective as virtual companies.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 544 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 57) A large company diversifies by adding an entirely unrelated business or product to its organizational design. The new business or product is owned by the acquiring company. This is an example of a: A) joint venture.

B) strategic alliance.

C) conglomerate.

D) divisional organizational design.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 544 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 58) In Japan, a Keiretsu is: A) similar to a Guanxi in China.

B) a large, unified conglomerate.

C) a strategic alliance D) a spin-off.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 544 59) A strategic alliance in which two similar companies pool resources to receive a benefit (too difficult or expensive for either to obtain alone) is called: A) a value-chain partnership.

B) a mutual service consortium.

C) a joint venture.

D) an internal market system.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 544

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60) The alliance where the organizations have the loosest relationship is a: A) value-chain partnership.

B) mutual service consortia.

C) joint venture.

D) modular boundaryless organization.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 544 61) When Garret Memorial Hospital decided to share expenses with Cumberland Memorial Hospital to build and operate an MRI unit, they formed a: A) joint venture.

B) mutual service consortia.

C) value chain partnership.

D) spin-off.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 544 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 62) The relationship between Ford Motor Company and an auto parts supplier with which it does business on a regular basis is called a ________.

A) value-chain partnership.

B) mutual service consortium.

C) joint venture.

D) mutual agreement.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 545 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 63) As shown in the continuum of strategic alliances, the relationship between value-chain partners is ________.

A) robust yet transient B) mutually beneficial C) strong and close D) weak and distant Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 544-545 64) Companies form global strategic alliances to gain several benefits including: A) direct managerial benefits associated with the extending of organizational charts.

B) financial incentives such as bypassing tariff restrictions.

C) marketing benefits by gaining access to internal markets.

D) All of these benefits.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 546

13 .

65) Forming joint ventures with Chinese companies is difficult because ________.

A) the Chinese market is becoming extremely competitive B) most Chinese companies operate locally or regionally, not nationally C) many Chinese companies are owned, in part, by government agencies D) All of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 547 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity Table 15.1 As the new general manager of a regional cable service, Joe is studying the formal configuration of groups and individuals in respect to the allocation of tasks, responsibilities, and authority within the cable company. He notices that there are numerous layers of people between the cable installers and technicians and himself as general manager. He thinks this is because of the high degree of specialization in the company. Everyone seems to have very narrowly defined jobs. Joe decides he wants fewer layers of employees and for each manager to have responsibility for more employees. He reduces the number of managers from 10 to 3. As a consequence, each manager will make of his/her own decisions and rely less on Joe. 66) Refer to Table 15.1. Joe's initial study is of the cable company's: A) division of labor.

B) organizational design.

C) span of control.

D) organizational structure.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 518 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 67) Refer to Table 15.1. The numerous layers of employees between the service providers and top management represents the company's: A) division of labor.

B) hierarchy of authority.

C) functional matrix.

D) span of influence.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 518 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 68) Refer to Table 15.1. The high degree of specialization Joe is seeing is a function of the company's: A) decentralization.

B) hierarchy of authority.

C) division of labor.

D) span of control.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 520 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 14 .

69) Refer to Table 15.1. Joe's eliminating of management layers resulted in: A) a greater division of labor.

B) decentralization of decision-making.

C) more line positions.

D) small spans of control.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 523 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 15.2 For a management class, a group of students is considering how to structure a proposed company. Their original idea was a design that would give complete responsibility for the development and marketing of a product to one unit. Tax considerations are a concern as well, and they want a structure that would help the accountants track them better through specific cost centers. They decide not to use this design because of the duplication of effort and the probability that it would be difficult to attract and retain talented employees. In their second design they want to stress the opportunity for employees to specialize, gain economies of scale, and conserve resources by eliminating duplication of effort. They reject that design because it is too cumbersome and slow to respond to the changes in the marketplace. Then one member of the group, Jack, suggests that they eliminate chains of command and spans of control and go to empowered teams. He argues that this will increase creativity and responsibility among employees. A fellow student argues that it won't work in the real world because managers won't give up that much authority. "Ok," a third student, Jane, offers, "let's try this idea but build around a hub. The hub will be the core business and the spokes will be groups of specialists that can be added to or subtracted from as the market changes." They settle on a structure with two lines of authority, one by task specialization and the other by product line. This gives them economies of scale and flexibility but some stress over reporting authority. Nevertheless, it gives them the best of what they want.

70) Refer to Table 15.2. Their first design is an example of a: A) functional organization.

B) matrix organization.

C) product organization.

D) modular organization.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 526-527 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 71) Refer to Table 15.2. The group's second design is for a: A) functional organization.

B) matrix organization.

C) product organization.

D) boundaryless organization.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 524-526 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 15 .

72) Refer to Table 15.2. Their final design is an example of a: A) functional organization.

B) matrix organization.

C) product organization.

D) boundaryless organization.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 527-529 73) Refer to Table 15.2. Jack's idea is an example of a: A) virtual organization.

B) matrix organization.

C) modular organization.

D) boundaryless organization.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 543-544 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 15.3 You are studying a medium-sized service company. You find that Joe, a customer service representative, has been doing his job for five years. He takes about 200 customer calls a day and helps customers with their product questions. Bridgette, the CEO, has been with the company about three years and is in the process of making its structure more organic and flexible.

Between Bridgette and Joe is Fred, who conveys management's decisions and policies to Joe and helps Bridgette stay in touch with the several hundred 'Joes' who work in customer service. Sally is the corporate attorney and works with Bridgette on corporate legal matters.

74) Refer to Table 15.3. Joe is part of the ________ of his organization.

A) technostructure B) strategic apex C) operating core D) support staff Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 533-534 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 75) Refer to Table 15.3. Bridgette represents the ________ in Mintzberg's model.

A) technostructure B) strategic apex C) operating core D) support staff Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 533-534 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16 .

76) Refer to Table 15.3. Sally represents the ________ in Mintzberg's model.

A) technostructure B) strategic apex C) operating core D) support staff Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 533-534 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 15.4 Five organizations in your community are being studied using Mintzberg's perspective on organizational design. One is a high-tech organization with a simple structure, decentralized authority, and support staff is the dominant element in the organization. A second company operates in a stable industry, each employee's work is highly specialized, and decision-making is concentrated at the top of the organization. There is also a family medical practice with three doctors who are partners. The operating core is the dominant element, and decision-making is vested in the doctors. Finally, there is a retail dealer mall for antiques and collectibles, which is dominated by its strategic apex element.

77) Refer to Table 15.4. The retail dealer mall for antiques and collectibles is an example of Mintzberg's: A) simple structure.

B) machine bureaucracy.

C) professional bureaucracy.

D) adhocracy.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 535 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 78) Refer to Table 15.4. The second company has Mintzberg's ________ design.

A) divisional structure B) machine bureaucracy C) professional bureaucracy D) adhocracy Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 535 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 79) Refer to Table 15.4 The high-tech company is an example of Mintzberg's: A) simple structure.

B) machine bureaucracy.

C) professional bureaucracy.

D) adhocracy.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 535 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 17 .

80) Refer to Table 15.4. The doctor's medical practice is an example of Mintzberg's: A) simple structure.

B) machine bureaucracy.

C) professional bureaucracy.

D) adhocracy.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 535 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 15.5 INVEX, Inc. is a small manufacturer of low technology consumer goods. They want to enter the Asian market but don't know how. They form a strategic alliance with Asia Today, a marketing firm specializing in marketing U.S. goods of all kinds in Asia. INVEX, Inc. also has a relationship with another company, Small Things R' Good, a manufacturer of low technology consumer goods. They provide components to each other and INVEX will bring that company into the alliance with Asia Today.

81) Refer to Table 15.5. The relationship of Small Things R' Good and INVEX is what type of strategic alliance?

A) A value-chain partnership B) A joint venture C) A mutual service consortium D) A megacorporation Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 544 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 82) Refer to Table 15.5. INVEX is in what type of strategic alliance with Asia Today?

A) A value-chain partnership B) A joint venture C) A mutual service consortium D) A megacorporation Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 545 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 83) The configuration of reporting relationships external partners is the organization's structure.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 518 84) A manager’s span of control in an organization pertains to the number of subordinates that he or she must supervise.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 520

18 .

85) The degree to which individuals perform specialized jobs is dependent on the size of the organization.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 522 86) Vice president of marketing is an example of a line position.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 522 87) If a company wants to pass power down to lower levels within the organization it would increase its centralization.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 523 88) Under some conditions, such as when only a few individuals are in a position to judge what's best for the company, highly centralized authority makes the most sense.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 524 89) High centralization eliminates the additional responsibility not desired by people performing routine jobs.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 524 90) When an organization is structured around its products, it has a process organizational structure.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 526 91) A matrix structure combines functional and product organizational strategies.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 527 92) A matrix structure works best in stable, simple environments where there is a need for economies of scale.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 529 93) The process of coordinating the structural elements of an organization into the most appropriate form is organizational design.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 529 94) The neoclassical approach to organizational design overcomes the fault of classical design by stressing there is no one best design for an organization.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 530 19 .

95) In a dynamic environment, a company with highly skilled professional employees who can perform a variety of tasks, the company would be best served by a mechanistic organizational structure.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 532 96) The operating core of a company consists of those employees who perform the basic work related to the company's products or services.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 533 97) The organizational design that is highly complex and has clear lines of authority within a formal environment would be an adhocracy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 535-536 98) A boundaryless organization is such because it removes the internal and sometimes the external barriers between functions within the organization.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 543 99) When task uncertainty is high, the appropriate coordinating mechanism is to govern by rule.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 540 100) The key to the success of a virtual organization is the mix of shared core competencies.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 544 101) Informal networks of professionals and managers who share common interests are called communities of practice.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 542 102) A company that is attempting to gain a large share of the market by undercutting the prices of competitors is using a market expansion strategy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 539 103) When an organization focuses on minimizing losses it is following a low-cost strategy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 539 104) A value-chain partnership is a type of conglomerate.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 545 20 .

105) A joint venture is a form of organizational diversification that adds unrelated businesses to the core business.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 545 106) While a spin-off is separate from the original parent organization, and has its own identity, it typically shares the management team of the parent company.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 546 107) A key element that makes strategic alliances between U.S. and Chinese companies somewhat difficult is the strong cultural differences between the two countries.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 547 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity 108) What are the various dimensions of organizational structure, and how do they affect organizational behavior?

Answer: There are five dimensions by which organizations may be differentiated. Hierarchy of authority is the reporting relationships within an organization. A flat organization has few layers of management; a tall organization has many layers of managers. Division of labor is the way work is assigned: the more tasks/jobs and narrow responsibilities that are in each job, the more specialization; the fewer tasks/jobs and broad responsibilities that are in each job, the more generalization. Span of control refers to how many people a manager is responsible for. An organizational chart gives an indication of span of control but is not complete. Both additional responsibilities beyond supervision and the degree of supervision required affect span of control.

Line vs. staff is simply the division of jobs regarding who has decision-making authority and who advises the decision makers. Line managers are the decision makers. Staff managers are advisers to line managers. Decentralization refers to how decisions are made; by a few (centralization), or by many (decentralization). The tendency is to decentralize, but that does not work well in routine, assembly-line types of companies.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 518-524 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21 .

109) Explain the three primary ways an organization can be structured, offering the advantages and disadvantages of each.

Answer: There are three main organizational structures: functional, product, and matrix.

Functional is the most basic form. They are departmentalized by the functions people perform.

There is some saving of resources by avoiding duplication of functional effort, people can specialize, and you gain economies of scale. However, it narrows the perspective of the employee and is not flexible. Product departmentalizes by the functions necessary to produce and market a product. Each unit is self-contained and is its own cost center. It improves profit accountability, tax accounting, and clear lines of authority. However, you lose economies of scale and it is more difficult to attract and retain talent. Matrix combines product and functional structures. You gain economies of scale, the ability to share resources, and flexibility to adapt quickly to the market. However, the dual reporting relationships and the consistently high cooperation levels required for success can be challenging Diff: 3 Page Ref: 524-529 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 110) Describe the classical, neoclassical, and contingency approaches to organizational design.

Answer: Classical organizational design focuses on a formal hierarchy, clear work rules, specialization of labor, routine tasks, impersonal working environment, and the maximization of industrial efficiency. It tends to favor tall structures, small spans of control, and hierarchical authority. Neoclassical organizational design attempts to add a more human element, employee satisfaction. It uses elements of classical but sees people as self-motivating, desirous of responsibility, and seeking satisfaction at work. It leans toward flat organizations and decentralization, but still champions one best approach. Contingency organizational design assumes that the business environment of the organization determines the most appropriate design.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 530-531 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 111) Identify and discuss the five organizational forms of Mintzberg's framework.

Answer: Mintzberg has five designs with five elements common to all designs. Simple structure is small, informal, and with centralized decision-making. The strategic apex element dominates this form. Machine bureaucracy has a highly complex structure and formal climate with clear lines of authority. Work is highly specialized and it works in a stable environment. The technostructure element predominates. Professional bureaucracy consists of highly trained specialists. Complex decision-making and authority rests with the specialists, and it is dominated by the operating core element. Divisional structure is a large organization form where sets of autonomous units are coordinated by managers. The middle-line element is crucial here. Finally, the Adhocracy, another simple structure, is highly informal with decentralized authority. The support staff element is key here.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 533-536 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

22 .

112) What is the boundaryless organization? Discuss its various forms.

Answer: In the boundaryless organization, chains of command are eliminated, spans of control are limited, and rigid departments give way to empowered teams. Replacing rigid distinctions between people are fluid, intentionally ambiguous, ill-defined roles. For boundaryless organizations to function effectively, they need to meet many of the same requirements as successful teams. There must be high levels of trust between all parties. Everyone involved also must have high levels of skill, so they can operate without much managerial guidance.

Two popular forms of externally oriented boundaryless organizations have emerged. Modular organizations outsource non-core functions to other companies while retaining full strategic control over their core business. Such companies may be thought of as having a central hub, which is surrounded by networks of outside specialists who can be added or subtracted as needed. Virtual organizations are composed of a continually evolving network of companies (e.g., suppliers, and customers) linked together to share skills, costs, and market access. They form a partnership to capitalize on their existing skills and to pursue common objectives. The underlying idea of a virtual organization is that each participating company contributes only its core competencies (areas of greatest strength). After meeting their objectives, they disband.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 543-544 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 113) Differentiate between organizational structure and organizational design.

Answer: Organizational structure is the way individuals and groups are arranged with respect to the tasks they perform. Organizational design is the process of coordinating these structural elements in the most effective manner. Structure is who is responsible for what. Design is how they work together.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 518, 529 114) Explain the benefits of low and high decentralization.

Answer: When decentralization is low, the additional responsibility not desired by people performing routine jobs is eliminated. Additionally, those crucial decisions made by individuals who have the "big picture" are permitted. When decentralization is high, the organization can be made leaner by eliminating levels of management. Additionally, high decentralization promotes more opportunities for decisions to be made by those closest to the problems in question.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 524 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 115) Define and discuss a matrix organization.

Answer: A Matrix organization combines product and functional structures. You gain economies of scale, the ability to share resources, and flexibility to adapt quickly to the market.

Individuals have dual reporting relationships, which can get confusing. There can be temporary overlay, which crosses functions on a special short-term basis; a permanent overlay in which the project teams stay together once the project is finished; or a mature matrix organization where the product and functional lines are strong and permanent.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 527-529 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

23 .

116) What is interorganizational design? Describe three main forms.

Answer: An interorganizational design represents a situation in which parts of different organizations come together to operate jointly by coordinating efforts on projects. This type of design has three main forms. A conglomerate is a large company that diversifies by adding an entirely unrelated businesses or product to its organizational design. The acquiring company owns the new business or product. A boundaryless organization is an organization in which chains of command are eliminated, spans of control are unlimited, and teams are empowered.

Examples include modular organizations and virtual organizations. A strategic alliance occurs when two or more companies join their competitive capabilities to operate a specific business.

There are three forms: value-chain partnerships, mutual service consortia, and joint ventures.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 543-546 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

24 .

Behavior in Organizations, 10e (Greenberg) Chapter 16 Managing Organizational Change: Strategic Planning and Organizational Development 1) An organization that is experiencing planned or unplanned transformations in its structure, technology, and/or people is experiencing: A) organizational change.

B) organizational cultural change.

C) the development of a competitive strategy.

D) first-order change.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 554 2) Only ________ percent of new ventures last as long as 50 years.

A) 2 B) 5 C) 12 D) 20 Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 555 3) Today's business analysts claim that the business environment is experiencing: A) organizational fragmentation, breaking large companies into small entities.

B) another industrial revolution.

C) cultural transformation.

D) first-order change.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 554 4) When a company alters reporting relationships and the division of labor among departments it is changing: A) organizational structure.

B) an organization's technology.

C) the company's product line.

D) transformation processes.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 556 5) If an organization felt the key to efficiency was to reduce the number of departments and increase spans of control, the organization would be targeting: A) organizational structure.

B) people.

C) technology.

D) products or services.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 556 1 .

6) Which of the following is an example of changing organizational technology?

A) Training people to accept new ways of operating B) Centralizing decision-making C) Substituting e-mail for paper memos D) Reducing layers in the organizational hierarchy Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 557 7) A firm wants to improve productivity and efficiency of work tasks. They should target changing: A) the organization's structure.

B) their people.

C) the technology used.

D) their management structure.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 557 8) The concepts of unfreezing, changing, and refreezing are part of: A) changes in organizational structure.

B) changes in technology.

C) changes in management.

D) changes in people.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 557-558 9) The targets for organizational change include all of the following except ________.

A) people B) technology C) marketplace competition D) organizational structure Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 557 10) The process of recognizing that the current state of affairs is undesirable and is in need of change is referred to as: A) defining the problem.

B) planning the problem.

C) unfreezing.

D) realization.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 557-558

2 .

11) When a manager introduces the idea that change is necessary by suggesting that an impending crisis is likely, he/she is using an approach called: A) unfreezing.

B) doomsday management.

C) first-order change.

D) second-order change.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 558 12) An organization that experiences continuous but incremental change is experiencing: A) second-order change.

B) first-order change.

C) normal organizational growth.

D) learning.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 558 13) Catacombs, Inc. is seeing radical change at different levels of the organization and in its business functions. Catacombs, Inc. is experiencing: A) second-order change.

B) first-order change.

C) unplanned change.

D) learning.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 558 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 14) An organization is restructuring its sales division because it has consistently not met its goals. This is an example of unplanned change due to: A) economic competition.

B) government regulation.

C) performance gaps.

D) changes in administrative services.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 559 15) Some of the most common forms of unplanned change stem from ________.

A) the introduction of new technology.

B) responses to new government regulation.

C) more economic competition.

D) adjustments to the size and structure of the organization.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 559-560

3 .

16) Gates, Inc., a producer of automated gates for companies and is now competing against an Australian firm offering similar quality at a better price with better service. Gates quickly adds more service technicians and drops prices 5%. This is an example of ________ forcing unplanned change.

A) advances in technology B) shifting employee demographics C) government regulation D) global economic competition Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 560 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 17) The Internet is in a constant state of change. The availability of a free open-source suite of applications software from Google, Sun Microsystems, and more has pushed Microsoft to introduce its free Microsoft Web Apps. This is an example of ________ driving unplanned change in Microsoft’s operations.

A) advances in technology B) shifting employee demographics C) government regulations D) global economic competition Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 561 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 18) ________ is the process of formulating, implementing, and evaluating decisions that enable an organization to achieve its objectives.

A) Strategic planning B) Doomsday management C) Top-down management D) Competitive global expansion Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 562 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 19) Strategic planning is based on three key assumptions including: A) firms often do not have sufficient internal human resources to adequately do strategic planning.

B) that it is a deliberate process of conscious decision-making.

C) that it is best done to build on success rather than correct problems.

D) technology is the key to the future for any business.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 563

4 .

20) Jennifer thinks that her company needs to rethink how they market their product because they are not selling as projected. This represents the basic assumption of strategic planning that: A) existing objectives require new strategic plans to continue.

B) it is an intuitive decision-making process.

C) it is best done to build on success rather than correct problems.

D) it occurs when current objectives are no longer being met.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 563 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 21) The practice of eliminating parts of organizations that focus on noncore sectors of the business and hiring outside forms to perform these functions instead is called: A) work restructuring.

B) rightsizing.

C) reducing.

D) outsourcing.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 564 22) Strategic planning begins with: A) defining the scope of the products or services offered.

B) identifying key markets.

C) defining goals.

D) conducting consumer target market research.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 565 23) Joe is thinking through the company's market and its financial standing. Joe is in the ________ stage of strategic planning.

A) defining goals B) defining the scope of the product/service C) assessing internal resources D) analyzing internal arrangements Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 565-567 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 24) A firm in the strategic planning process is answering the question, "What business are we operating in?" This represents the ________ step in strategic planning.

A) defining goals B) defining the scope of the product/service C) assessing internal resources D) developing a competitive strategy Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 565-567

5 .

25) In strategic planning, when the planners are considering their finances, physical assets, human assets etc., they are at the ________ step in the planning process.

A) assessing external resources B) analyzing internal arrangements C) assessing internal resources D) defining goals Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 565-567 26) Gary and Betty are studying their competition and considering their competitive advantages.

According to the strategic planning process, they are ________.

A) communicating their strategy B) defining corporate goals C) developing a competitive strategy D) assessing the external environment Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 565-567 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 27) When strategic planners consider a company’s funds, physical assets, and human resources, they are ________.

A) assessing internal resources B) analyzing internal arrangements C) developing a competitive strategy D) defining the scope of our products and services Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 565-567 28) Strategic planners must answer the question of "How can we make our products superior to our competitors?" when they are ________.

A) implementing strategy B) assessing the external environment C) assessing competitive advantage D) communicating the strategy to stockholders Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 566 29) Once a strategy has been developed in strategic planning it must be: A) implemented.

B) communicated.

C) evaluated.

D) integrated.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 566

6 .

30) Attempting to derive more profits from existing business is a: A) market concentration strategy.

B) market-share increasing strategy.

C) profit strategy.

D) turnaround strategy.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 567 31) In strategic planning, if a company decides to withdraw from some markets in order to put more resources into other markets it is choosing a(n) ________ strategy.

A) market concentration B) market-share increasing C) profit D) exit Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 567 32) Teddy, Inc., a teddy bear manufacturer, is conducting strategic planning because of declining sales. They are thinking about adding new products and/or radically restructuring the business to deal with the decline. This is an example of a: A) market concentration strategy.

B) market-share increasing strategy.

C) profit strategy.

D) turnaround strategy.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 567 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 33) The strategic planning process ends with: A) evaluation.

B) communication.

C) implementation.

D) integration.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 567 34) The U.S. differs from other countries in terms of strategic values. In Japan, for example: A) radical change is encouraged, not resisted.

B) stockholders have priority when considering the impact of change.

C) while done, competition is rarely talked about or expressed in strategic plans.

D) women hold more positions of authority, especially at the level of CEO. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 568 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

7 .

35) Employees resist change when they derive a sense of security from doing things the same way, knowing who their co-workers are, and who their bosses are. This resistance is from: A) threats to social relationships.

B) locus of control.

C) the fear of the unknown.

D) economic insecurity.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 568 36) When people resist change because of their bonds with co-workers, you are facing resistance based on: A) threats to social relationships.

B) economic insecurity.

C) habit.

D) demographic background.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 569 37) Which of the following is an organizational barrier to change?

A) Economic insecurity B) Work group inertia C) Second-order resistance D) Fear of the unknown Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 569 38) The desire to continue to perform jobs in a specific way that comes from the jobs themselves and from social pressure surrounding the jobs is: A) work group inertia.

B) threats to social relationships.

C) habit.

D) structural inertia.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 569 39) John is working at overcoming some resistance to organizational change. He has talked the CEO into telling the managers that this is an important change and he's supporting it. John has used which technique for overcoming resistance?

A) Rewarding constructive behavior B) Educating the workforce C) Involving employees in the change effort D) Gaining leadership support Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 572 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

8 .

40) In situations where information is lacking or inaccurate, ________ can overcome resistance to change.

A) imposing the required changes B) negotiating an agreement about other aspects of work C) involving employees in the process of making change D) educating employees and communicating with them Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 575 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 41) People who participate in making decisions tend to be: A) more resistant to change.

B) more committed to the decision.

C) much quicker to make the decision than an individual.

D) less committed to the decision.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 574 42) One way to facilitate change and reduce employee resistance is to: A) bring in outside management to implement the change.

B) coerce or force employee compliance with the change.

C) punish any resistance to the change.

D) reward constructive behaviors.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 574 43) An organization that focuses on doing whatever it takes to adapt to changing conditions by acquiring, cultivating, and applying knowledge, the organization is: A) involved in second-order change.

B) involved in first-order change.

C) caught in unplanned change.

D) a learning organization.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 574 44) For a company to become a learning organization, management needs to ________.

A) establish a commitment to change B) hire additional supervisors C) upgrade computer technology D) hire well-educated staff members Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 574-575

9 .

45) ________ is a set of social science techniques designed to plan and implement change in work settings for the purpose of enhancing both personal and organizational effectiveness.

A) Organizational change B) Organizational development C) A quality of work life program D) First-order change Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 575 46) In situations in which employees are concerned about losses resulting from change, the resistance would best be overcome by: A) educating employees and communicating with them.

B) involving employees in the process of making the change.

C) negotiating an agreement about other aspects of work.

D) imposing the required changes.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 575 47) Organizations like Royal Dutch Shell and the U.S. Army have gone through major change efforts and learned several things that helped facilitate their changes, including: A) keep the change effort at top management level to avoid employee resistance.

B) calm people by explaining the status quo is okay, we're just making incremental improvements.

C) create an urgency for the change by setting challenging goals or straightforward communication.

D) explaining how the executives are also suffering and feel the pain of the employees.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 576 48) When Royal Dutch Shell brought its managers together to discuss the problem of encroaching competition in order to plan a response, Shell was ________ in order to bring about organizational change.

A) fully incorporating employees in change efforts B) developing a cognitive oriented organization C) creating a sense of urgency and importance D) generating discomfort with the status quo Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 576 49) The use of "after action reviews" by the Army is a technique for: A) fully incorporating employees in change efforts.

B) developing a cognitive oriented organization.

C) creating a sense of urgency and importance.

D) generating discomfort with the status quo.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 576 10 .

50) An organizational development technique by which managers and their subordinates work together to set and meet organizational goals is called: A) team building.

B) quality of work life.

C) management by objectives.

D) grid training.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 576 51) The MBO process begins with: A) subordinates and supervisors meeting to discuss goals.

B) problem recognition and diagnosis.

C) data gathering.

D) evaluation.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 576 52) An MBO program: A) is a quick way to help an organization improve employee job satisfaction.

B) requires anywhere from three-to-five years to make it work.

C) offers primary benefits to employees and secondary benefits to the organization.

D) requires extensive top-management involvement, but little involvement of lower-level managers and employees.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 577 53) The organizational development technique that helps employees understand the organization's current strengths and weaknesses is: A) team building.

B) quality of work life programs.

C) survey feedback.

D) management by objectives.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 577 54) A CEO wants an effective, quick, flexible, cost-effective way to affect organizational development. The best choice would be: A) team building.

B) quality of work life programs.

C) management by objectives.

D) survey feedback.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 577 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

11 .

55) An OD intervention that focuses attention away from an organization's shortcomings and toward its capabilities and potential is called: A) competitive intelligence.

B) appreciate inquiry.

C) Action Lab. D) Management by Objectives.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 578 56) The four steps involved in the process of appreciative inquiry are: A) defining, discussing, developing, and deploring.

B) defining, deducing, deploring, and delivering.

C) discovering, dreaming, designing, and delivering.

D) discovering, debating, deciding, and delegating.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 578 57) The stage of appreciative inquiry that includes having a dialogue in which participants discuss their ideas about "what should be" is called: A) discussing.

B) designing.

C) dreaming.

D) debating.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 578 58) Which of the following approaches to organizational development focuses on improving organizational functioning by humanizing the workplace?

A) Team building B) Quality of work life C) Management by objectives D) Grid training Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 579 59) Imagine a group of volunteers who meet regularly to solve problems related to the quality of people's work and the conditions under which people perform their jobs. Such a group would be referred to as a: A) team-building group.

B) sensitivity training group.

C) work team.

D) quality circle.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 580

12 .

60) The benefits of a QWL program, include: A) improved job satisfaction.

B) increased organizational commitment.

C) reduced turnover.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 580 61) OD interventions tend to be more effective: A) when used without interference from other techniques.

B) without the support of top management.

C) with blue-collar workers than with white collar workers.

D) with managers rather than the front-line workforce.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 581 62) The controversy over the ethicality of OD comes out of the tendency for OD techniques to: A) not provide clear answers as to the best way to do something.

B) equalize power within organizations.

C) impose the values of the organization on the individual.

D) be less meaningful for workers than for managers.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 581 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 63) The ethical use of organizational development techniques requires: A) the concealment of OD motives from those involved.

B) a strong ethical culture and oversight by ethical professionals.

C) oversight by union officials.

D) quality circles and coffee-klatch time.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 581 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning 64) An ethical issue in organizational development is that ________.

A) OD promotes automation, which leads to reduced employment opportunities.

B) appreciative inquiry leads to learning-centric organizations.

C) many OD practices violate equal opportunity legislation.

D) changing workers in ways they may not want is manipulative and inappropriate.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 581 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning

13 .

Table 16.1 Todd's restaurant is changing from a fast food menu and walk-through service to simple, quickly prepared meals eaten in the restaurant or along the sidewalk. This change was brought on by the losses he is experiencing due to decreased demand for fast food. In order to make the changes as effective as possible and to avoid having to react in the future, Todd is talking to his employees about their ideas on the changes and what the future might hold. He wants employees to try some new things, tell him what's working and what's not working, and help the company grow.

65) Refer to Table 16.1. Todd's restaurant is experiencing: A) first-order change.

B) second-order change.

C) planned change.

D) administrative change.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 558 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 66) Refer to Table 16.1. The change effort Todd is taking was stimulated by: A) government regulations.

B) shifting employee demographics.

C) not being able to meet current objectives.

D) advances in technology.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 563 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 67) Refer to Table 16.1. In terms of a learning organization, Todd's talking to his employees is: A) establishing a commitment to change.

B) developing an open organizational culture.

C) adopting an informal organizational structure.

D) rewarding constructive behavior.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 574 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 68) Refer to Table 16.1. What technique did Todd use to overcome resistance to change?

A) launching a "trial balloon" B) negotiating with those who are resistant to change C) involving employees in the change effort D) gaining leadership support Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 572-575 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14 .

Table 16.2 Loading Dock One, an international products retailer, is going through organizational change.

The entrance of several low cost retailers into their market of quality international gifts is forcing them to seek greater efficiencies so they can lower costs and prices. Unfortunately, their employees are resisting the changes. They understand competition is increasing, but they fear the changes will eliminate jobs or diminish the variety of their work. Not only are the employees resisting, but it seems that the way LDO has hired, trained, and rewarded employees also hinders the changes they want to make. Some managers also are resisting the change because they can see their staffs being reduced or their entire work units eliminated.

69) Refer to Table 16.2. Loading Dock One (LDO) is facing change due to: A) government regulation.

B) a performance gap.

C) global economic competition.

D) the introduction of new technology.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 560 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 70) Refer to Table 16.2. Based on what they want, their best target for change would be: A) their organizational structure.

B) technology.

C) their people.

D) administrative systems.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 557 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 71) Refer to Table 16.2. It seems that the primary fear the employees have is: A) economic insecurity.

B) structural inertia.

C) force of habit.

D) threats to social relationships.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 568 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 72) Refer to Table 16.2. The initial organizational barrier to change seems to be: A) work group inertia.

B) shifts in the balance of power.

C) economic insecurity.

D) structural inertia.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 569 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

15 .

73) Refer to Table 16.2. The managers' issues are examples of: A) the individual barrier, fear of the unknown.

B) the organizational barrier, threats to existing balance of power.

C) the individual barrier, habit.

D) the organizational barrier, structural inertia.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 569 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Table 16.3 As an organizational development consultant, you are discussing the various OD techniques the CEO could choose from in bringing about change in her company. You suggest that she begin the process with a quick, inexpensive data gathering from the employees. She likes the idea, especially since the technique you recommend allows them to also receive information. Once you have the data, you suggest she go for a program that helps her managers work together more effectively. You suggest that small groups of managers meet on a regular basis to identify and discuss problems in the workplace. The CEO says this all sounds good, but wants to know how to improve organizational and individual goal setting and accomplishment. She wants a way to plan and implement strategic change for the organization, not get lost in a number of individual programs. You conclude the meeting by talking about employee job satisfaction and asking what her thoughts are on it. She says that it is relatively high, and while important, it can wait to be addressed until these other issues are dealt with.

74) Refer to Table 16.3. The CEO's concerns about an overall program would be best met by: A) team building.

B) quality of work life initiatives.

C) survey feedback.

D) management by objectives.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 576 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 75) Refer to Table 16.3. Your initial recommendation is for: A) team building.

B) sensitivity training.

C) survey feedback.

D) management by objectives.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 577 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16 .

76) Refer to Table 16.3. The type of OD intervention the CEO did not want to consider at this point was: A) team building.

B) quality of work life.

C) survey feedback.

D) management by objectives.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 579-580 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 77) When a company changes reporting relationships and reshapes work units, it is making structural changes.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 556 78) First-order change in an organization is significant change at many different levels in the way a firm operates.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 558 79) While employee demographics and performance gaps in organizations often prompt unplanned change, government regulation only affects strategic planned change in organizations.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 559 80) Global competition and technology are two forces driving unplanned change in organizations.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 560-561 81) There are a number of assumptions underlying strategic planning including the assumption that strategies are formulated to bring about change when current objectives can not be met by what the company is currently doing.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 563 82) Generally speaking, planned organizational change can take place to improve already good processes, when an alternative to change to is not readily apparent, or without a plan, if the change effort has top management support.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 563 83) In the strategic planning process, the next steps after a firm defines its goals are to assess its internal resources and analyze internal arrangements.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 565 17 .

84) Considering how to increase market share and profit or how to focus on key markets are all part of the development of competitive strategies within the strategic planning process.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 566 85) A turnaround strategy involves withdrawing from the market and liquidating assets.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 567 86) Individuals resist change for a number of reasons including the threat it poses to their social relationships and just because it disrupts their habits.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 569 87) When a company selects, trains, and rewards employees well for performing certain jobs, the company has built in work group inertia as an organizational barrier to change efforts.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 569 88) In the U.S., strategic decisions tend to be made primarily in the interest of employees.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 568 89) If management seeks to build a critical mass among employees to support a change effort, it is trying to shape the political dynamic in order to reduce resistance to organizational change.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 572-575 90) Tim is leading an effort to lower resistance to significant planned change at his company. He is beginning by developing a more open organizational climate, trying to adopt a more informal organizational structure, and build a commitment to the change among employees. Tim's efforts are an example of creating a learning organization as an effort to reduce resistance.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 574-575 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 91) It is important in implementing change to create a sense of urgency about the need for change and to continually create discomfort about the status quo.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 576 92) Management by objectives (MBO) requires goal setting at the management level only.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 576

18 .

93) The survey feedback method uses questionnaires and interviews to collect information about organizational issues and uses that information as the basis for planning organizational change.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 577 94) An OD intervention in which teams of participants work off-site to develop and implement new ways of solving organizational problems by focusing on the ineffectiveness of current methods is called appreciative inquiry.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 578 95) Quality of life work programs include efforts at profit-sharing, offering 401(k) plans, and increasing compensation benefit programs in an organization.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 579 96) The use of quality circles (QC) is an effective way to implement organization-wide change.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 580 97) Generally speaking, OD change efforts are effective at improving organizational effectiveness, employee morale, etc., across all types of organizations and levels of employees.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 581 98) What are the two main sources of resistance to change? Offer specific examples of each source.

Answer: There are two basic sources of resistance to change, individual and organizational.

Individual barriers include fear of the unknown, economic uncertainty, threats to social relationships, habit, and failure to recognize the need for change. Organizational barriers include structural inertia, work group inertia, threats to existing balance of power, previously unsuccessful change efforts, and the composition of the board of directors.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 568-570 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 99) What factors contribute to readiness for change? How do these factors combine?

Answer: According to the text, there are three factors. First, there is the amount of dissatisfaction with the current conditions in the organization itself. Second, there is the availability of a real and desirable alternative. Third, there is the existence of a plan for achieving the desired alternative. Theorists believe that these three factors combine multiplicatively to determine the benefits for making a change.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 570 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

19 .

100) What can be done to overcome resistance to organizational change?

Answer: Gaining leadership support can build critical internal mass for change. If key leaders endorse the ideas, others will go along. Identifying and neutralizing change resisters is important for individuals who are promoting organizational change. Educating the work force helps to reduce fears of an unknown future. Tell them what the changes may mean for them, show emotional sensitivity to the communication, and address the question from the employees' perspective. Selling the need for change involves convincing top management to accept the idea that change is needed. Involving employees in the change effort can help to build their commitment to the change. Rewarding constructive behaviors is especially important during any transition period. The rewards can be anything from praise to financial. Creating a learning organization can cultivate the capacity to adapt and change continuously. Taking the situation into account is essential because precisely how one should approach the change process depends on the nature of the situation being faced.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 572-575 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 101) Explain the basic techniques of organizational development used to implement change.

Answer: Management by Objectives (MBO) involves managers and their subordinates working together to set goals, and then striving to attain the goals of the organization. MBO involves four steps: setting goals, developing action plans, implementing the plans, and evaluating results.

Survey feedback uses questionnaires and interviews to collect information about issues of concern to an organization, and then uses that information to plan organizational change. This technique has three phases: collecting data, giving feedback, and developing action plans.

Appreciative inquiry focuses attention away from an organization’s shortcomings and toward its capabilities and potential. Based on the assumption that members of organizations already know the problems they face and will benefit more by focusing on what is possible, this OD technique involves four straightforward steps: discovery, dreaming, designing, and delivering. Action labs involve teams of participants who work off-site to develop and implement new ways of solving organizational problems by focusing on the ineffectiveness of current methods. Quality of work life programs are intended to improve organizational functioning by humanizing the workplace, making it more democratic, and involving employees in the decision-making process. Typical programs include work restructuring and quality circles.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 575-580 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 102) What does work at Sears, Royal Dutch Shell, and the United States Army suggest are good ways of making change "stick"?

Answer: Essentially, there are three important practices. First, the organization needs to fully incorporate all employees into the challenges faced by the organization. This means active engagement rather than simply surface level involvement. Second, leaders should stress the urgency of change that gets everyone moving in the right direction. Finally, the organization must create relentless discomfort with the status quo; that is, a sense that the job can always be done better.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 576 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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103) You are discussing organizational change with your boss. Explain the three potential targets of change you need to consider.

Answer: The three key potential targets are organizational structure, technology, and people.

Changing any one of these areas may affect the others.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 556-557 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 104) List the factors contributing to the benefits of making a change.

Answer: Three factors determine an organization's readiness to make changes: the amount of dissatisfaction with current conditions, the availability of a desirable alternative, and the existence of a plan for achieving that alternative.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 570 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 105) What are the steps in appreciative inquiry?

Answer: In appreciative inquiry, small groups of people from the organization are assembled. In the first step (discovery) the group identifies the positive aspects of the organization. In the second step (dreaming), the group discusses and envisions "what might be." In the third step (designing), the participants discuss their ideas about "what should be." Finally, in the last step (delivering) begin instituting a plan of specific objectives and directions of "what will be."

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 578 AACSB: Reflective Thinking 106) Does organizational development really work?

Answer: Given the popularity of OD in organizations, this question is very important, and most of the relevant studies show the effects of these various interventions to be beneficial, mostly in the area of improving organizational functioning. Any conclusions about the effectiveness of OD should be qualified in several important ways. First, OD interventions tend to be more effective among blue-collar employees than among white-collar employees. Second, these beneficial effects can be enhanced by using a combination of several techniques (e.g., four or more together) instead of any single one. Finally, the effectiveness also depends on the degree of support these techniques receive from top management: The more these programs are supported from the top, the more successful they tend to be. Despite the importance of evaluating the effectiveness of OD interventions, a great many of them go unevaluated. The effectiveness of OD techniques depends, in part, on the extent to which the OD values match the underlying values of the national culture in which it is employed.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 580-582 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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107) Is organizational development inherently unethical?

Answer: By its very nature, OD represents an attempt to change attitudes and behavior. Because of this, some have argued that OD is inherently unethical; arguing that changing people in ways they might not want is manipulative and inappropriate. It has been suggested, therefore, that OD techniques impose the values of the organization on workers without providing them with a free choice. Instead, they are faced with a coercive, “do it, or else” scenario. Another argument asserts that the unequal power relationship between the organization and its workers makes it possible for the true intent of OD techniques to be misrepresented.

The author of “The Ethics Angle” on p. 581 in the textbook asserts that OD is not inherently unethical, since admitting to that would be tantamount to saying that the practice of management itself is unethical. Recognizing, however, that abuses of organizational power are all too common, he states that OD itself is not the culprit, since OD is neither inherently good nor evil.

Rather, how OD is used will depend on the person who is using it. As such, the ethical use of OD will require the supervision of professionals in an organization that places a high value on ethical behavior. The author states that such supervision would be likely, as today’s OD practitioners subscribe to a code of ethics that holds them to clear standards with respect to ensuring the benefits to organizations and the well-being of all employees.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 581 AACSB: Ethical Reasoning

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