Assessment in Special Education A Practical Approach, 5th edition Roger A Pierangelo Solution Manual

Instructor’s Resource Manual and Test Bank for

Assessment in Special Education: A Practical Approach Fifth Edition Roger Pierangelo Long Island University

George Giuliani Hofstra University

Contents Preface

1

Chapter 1:

Introduction to Assessment

3

Chapter 2:

Methods of Assessment and Testing Considerations

5

Chapter 3:

Basic Statistical Concepts

7

Chapter 4:

Scoring Terminology Used in Assessment

10

Chapter 5:

Response to Intervention

12

Chapter 6:

Child Study Team and Prereferral Strategies

14

Chapter 7:

The Multidisciplinary Team

16

Chapter 8:

Parental Consent and Evaluation Standards Under IDEIA

19

Chapter 9:

Assessment of Academic Achievement

21

Chapter 10: Assessment of Intelligence

24

Chapter 11: Assessment of Behavior

26

Chapter 12: Assessment of Perceptual Abilities

29

Chapter 13: Assessment of Speech & Language

32

Chapter 14: Early Intervention and Preschool Assessment

34

Chapter 15: Other Areas of Assessment

36

Chapter 16: Determining Whether a Disability Exists: Eligibility Criteria

38

Chapter 17: Writing as Comprehensive Report in Special Education

40

Chapter 18: Eligibility Procedures for Special Education Services

42

Chapter 19: Development of the IEP

44

Multiple Choice Questions

45

Answer Key

153

ii

Preface This instructor’s manual accompanies Assessment in Special Education: A Practical Approach (4th edition) by Pierangelo and Giuliani. It contains the following information for each chapter: Brief Summary Lecture and Discussion Outline Essay Questions Multiple Choice Questions The textbook we have written provides your students with a “real-world story” or process for the area of assessment that has a beginning, middle, and an end. Many texts we have reviewed on assessment have approximately 15 or more chapters that are not connected, but rather offer students separate pieces that never show clearly the overall process in a straight line. In this text, we provide you with the practical tools necessary to understand the process of assessment in schools and to learn how to “put it all together.”

Graduates of most assessment courses understand what constitutes validity and reliability, a description of the tests most often used in assessment, legal issues, and basic statistical terminology. Our textbook not only covers these areas, but it also focuses on the practical application of assessment in schools, discussing interpretation of results, diagnosing a suspected disability, writing a professional report, making recommendations from the data, presenting results to parents, and attending the eligibility committee meetings. From our market research, this is where our book is unique.

Other practical features of this text include the following: • Content that reflects the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act (IDEIA) • Combined coverage of formal and informal assessment • Thorough discussion of all the most up-to-date tests used in school systems • Opportunities to take test data and learn their practical application in both writing and recommendations • Practical approaches to parent–teacher conferences and the sensitivity required in discussing test results with parents • A step-by-step approach from identification of a high-risk child to placement • Comprehensive coverage of the latest tests and evaluation procedures for all areas of exceptionality • An emphasis on the application of information to meet the individual, often unique, requirements of students with special needs 1

• Coverage of assessment that spans infancy and preschool age through high school and into adulthood • An overall practical focus to balance out the strong grounding in theory so necessary for understanding exceptionality • Information about assessment vehicles, both formal and informal, to help you make informed decisions about which technique or tool is best with which students • Numerous teaching–learning aids • Samples of actual assessment, evaluation, and procedure forms utilized in school systems Besides the features addressed above, Assessment in Special Education: A Practical Approach, Fifth Edition, has many new features. These include: •

Latest updated information regarding the major principles of assessment under IDEIA • A new chapter specifically covering parental consent and evaluation principles under IDEIA • Numerous videos reflecting the content of the topics being covered • New appendices addressing independent educational evaluations, mediation and due process hearings as they related to assessment in special education • Greater coverage of curriculum based assessment (CBA) and curriculum based measurement (CBM) • New and updated information on cultural competency and its impact on the assessment process.

• Updated references in all chapters covering the most current research in the field • Comprehensive coverage of how RTI plays a significant role in the assessment of a child for a suspected disability • Analysis of the most current, valid, reliable, and popular intelligence, academic achievement, behavioral, perceptual, speech and language, early childhood, hearing, and physical and occupational therapy assessment measures • Comprehensive coverage of functional behavioral assessments (FBA) and behavioral intervention plans (BIP) • Latest information of eligibility in special education on all areas of classification and how the assessment process dictates classification • Updated academic evaluation report writing section, with more samples to review • Detailed information on IEP development and requirements under IDEIa After reading this textbook, your students should have a thorough understanding of the assessment process in special education from start to finish. Assessment in special education is a step-by-step approach, and the goal of this text is to give you all the tools necessary to understand what really happens in the assessment process.

2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Assessment Brief Summary Chapter 1 will present students with a general overview of assessment. After reading this chapter your students should be able to do the following: ➢ Define assessment ➢ Understand the purpose of assessment ➢ Understand the landmark court cases in special education ➢ Know the various federal legislation pertaining to special education and individuals with disabilities: Section 504 of the Vocational Rehabilitation Act P.L. 94-142: The Education of All Handicapped Children Act P.L. 99-457: Education of the Handicapped Act Amendments of 1986 P.L. 101-476: The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) P.L. 105-17: The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 1997 P.L. 108-446: The Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 ➢ Understand the purposes of IDEIA ➢ Understand how to read IDEIA citations under the U.S.C. and C.F.R. ➢ Know the classifications under IDEIA ➢ Know the prevalence of children receiving special education services under IDEIA ➢ Understand the steps involved in the assessment process in special education

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Overview of Assessment

II.

Stages of Assessment A. Collection B. Analysis C. Evaluation D. Determination E. Recommendations

III.

Purpose of Assessment A. Screening and identification of suspected disabilities B. Evaluation C. Eligibility and diagnosis D. IEP development and placement E. Instructional planning

3

IV.

Federal Legislation and Landmark Court Cases in Special Education A. Overview B. 1960s and John F. Kennedy C. PARC v. Commonwealth of Pennsylvania (1972) D. Mills v. Board of Education of District of Columbia (1972) E Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act F. P.L. 94-142: The Education for All Handicapped Children Act G. Public Law 99-457, the Education of the Handicapped Act Amendments H. Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act

V.

The Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act A. Overview B. Purpose of IDEIA C. Understanding IDEIA Citations D. Classifications under IDEIA E. Prevalence of Children Receiving Special Education Services under IDEIA

VI. Overview of the Assessment Process A. Identification of Children B. Full and Individual Evaluation of the Child by a Multidisciplinary Team C. Determination of Eligibility for Special Education D. Scheduling an IEP meeting E. Holding the IEP meeting and then writing the IEP F. Providing special education and related services to the student G. Progress Monitoring H. IEP is reviewed.

I. Child is reevaluated.

VII. Conclusion

Essay Questions ▪

Discuss the five components of the assessment process in order to determine the presence of a suspected disability.

▪

Discuss the purpose of assessment and the important decisions assessment addresses

▪

Discuss federal legislation and landmark court cases from 1948 to the present as it pertains to the history of special education and the rights of children with disabilities

▪

List, you do not have to explain, the 13 different classifications of disabling conditions as defined under IDEA.

▪

Discuss the nine-step special education assessment process from identification through reevaluation.

4

Chapter 2: Methods of Assessment and Testing Considerations Brief Summary The focus of Chapter 2 is to discuss various formal versus informal methods of assessment.

After reading this chapter you should understand the following: ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪

I.

Norm-Referenced Tests Intended Purposes of Norm Referenced Tests Standardization Concerns with Standardized Testing Criterion-Referenced Tests Standards-Referenced Tests Ecological Assessment Curriculum-Based Assessment (CBA) Curriculum-Based Measurement (CBM) Dynamic Assessment Portfolio Assessment Authentic/Naturalistic/Performance–Based Assessment Task Analysis Outcome-Based Assessment Learning Styles Assessment Selecting an Appropriate Instrument Selection of Test Content Test Interpretation Limitations of Testing

Norm-Referenced Tests A. Norm-referenced tests B. Norm group C. Basal levels D. Ceiling levels.

E. Norming group F. Standardization G. Standardized tests H. Concerns and criticisms of standardized testing

II.

Informal Assessment A. Criterion-Referenced Tests B. Standards-Referenced Tests C. Ecological Assessment D. Curriculum Based Assessment (CBA)

5

E. Curriculum Based Measurement (CBM) F. Dynamic Assessment G. Portfolio Assessment H. Authentic/Naturalistic I. Performance-Based Assessment J. Task Analysis K. Outcome-Based Assessment L. Learning Styles Assessment

III. IV.

Selecting an Appropriate Instrument Limitations of Testing

Essays ▪

Discuss norm-referenced tests. In your essay be sure to mention what the terms basal and ceiling mean. Finally, address the concerns and criticisms of standardized tests.

▪

Discuss what makes a criterion-referenced test different from a norm-referenced test. In your essay, give an example of a criterion referenced type of test.

▪

What is an ecological assessment? Discuss what should be included in doing a thorough ecological assessment.

▪

Discuss, in detail, dynamic assessment. In your essay be sure to address the test-trainretest approach, mediation, graduated prompting, and testing the limits.

▪

What is a portfolio assessment? Discuss the three types of portfolio assessments and define each.

6

Chapter 3: Basic Statistical Concepts Brief Summary Statistics! Just this one ten letter word by itself tends to instill more fear and anxiety in undergraduate and graduate students than any other word we know. We have learned from our experience as college professors that when we say we are going to cover statistics in our assessment courses, responses from students will be: ▪ Can we take this course Pass/Fail?

▪ What is the latest date to drop the course?

▪ I hate math-I always get confused!

▪ Do we really have to know this? If so how come?

The fact is, whether your students are avid fans of statistics or generally do not enjoy it, you have to teach statistics when you are teaching a course in special education assessment. Statistics play a vital role in the understanding of disability awareness. Although there are numerous reasons for students know statistics, of primary importance to special educators is that without a proper understanding of it, you can’t interpret test results.

When working with large sets of data it is important that they be organized in a fashion that makes some sense to the reader. In special education, this done through methods known as descriptive statistics. Descriptive statistics summarize and describe data. In this chapter, we will discuss basic descriptive statistics used every day in special education. By the end of this chapter, your students should understand (and in some cases be able to calculate) the following: ▪ Scales of measurement ▪ Frequency distributions ▪ Measures of central tendency (mean, median and mode) ▪ Range ▪ Variance ▪ Standard deviation ▪ The normal curve ▪ Skewed distributions ▪ Correlations

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Overview Of Statistics

II.

Scales of Measurement

III.

Measures of Central Tendency A. Mean 1. Calculation of the Mean 7

2. Statistical model problems B. Median 1. Calculation of the Median 2. Statistical model problems C. Mode 1. Calculation of the Mean 2. Statistical model problems

IV.

Frequency Distribution A. Creating a frequency distribution B. Model problems

V.

Range A. Calculation of the range B. Statistical model problems

VI.

Variance A. Calculation of the Variance B. Statistical model problems

VII. Standard Deviation A. Calculation of Standard Deviation: B. Normal Curve C. Statistical model problems

VIII. Skewed Distributions A. Positively skewed distribution B. Negatively skewed distribution

IX.

Correlations A. Types of correlations B. Correlations range from +1.00 to -1.00.

C. Correlations do not indicate cause and effect D. Practice problem

X.

Conclusion

8

Essay Questions ▪

Explain the importance of knowing statistics as a special educator.

If you didn’t

understand statistics, what are some problems you might encounter as a special educator?

▪

What are the four types of scales of measurement? Define each and give an example.

▪

What are the measures of central tendency?

Explain their importance in special

education.

▪

What does variance mean? How does it differ from the standard deviation?

▪

Draw the normal curve and label all of the percentages associated with it.

▪

What are the three types of correlations? Between what statistical ranges can correlation fall? Finally, what do correlations never indicate?

9

Chapter 4: Scoring Terminology Used In Assessment Brief Summary Chapter 4 focuses on calculation of age and scoring terminology used in the assessment process.

After reading this chapter your students should understand the following: ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪

Calculation of age Raw scores Standard scores Percentiles z scores T scores

Stanines Standard scores Age equivalents Grade equivalents Standard error of measurement Confidence intervals

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Calculation of Age A. Overview B. Calculation of Days C. Calculation of Months D. Calculation of Years E. Model problems F. Practice Problems

II.

Raw Scores A. Overview B. Importance of Raw Scores

III.

Percentile Ranks (Percentiles) A. Overview B. Quartiles C. Deciles D. Concerns about percentiles

IV.

Standard Scores A. Overview B. Standard scores and IQ C. Classifications and standard scores D. Types of standard scores

V.

z Scores 10

A. Overview B. Mathematical formula for calculating z scores

VI. T Scores A. Overview B. Mathematical formula for calculating T scores

VII. Stanines A. Overview B. Mathematical formula for calculating stanines

VIII. Comparing z scores, T scores and Stanines IX.

Age Equivalent Scores

VIII. Grade Equivalent Scores XI.

Concluding Remarks

XII.

Practice problems and answers

Essay Questions ▪

The calculation of a child’s age is of critical importance when doing an assessment in special education. Why do we calculate a child’s age as opposed to simply asking the child how old he or she is at the time of testing?

▪

What is a percentile rank? What does it mean when we say that a child falls into the 55th percentile?

▪

Define and explain the terms quartiles and deciles.

▪

What are standard scores? Draw the chart representing IQ standard scores (with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation 15) and their respective classifications.

▪

Define the terms z score, T score and stanine. Create a chart comparing these three types of scores to standard deviation scores ranging from –2.0 to –2.0.

▪

Define and explain the terms age equivalent and grade equivalent. Give an example of each.

11

Chapter 5 Response to Intervention (RTI) Brief Summary The Responsiveness to Intervention (RTI) process is a multi-tiered approach to providing services and interventions to struggling learners at increasing levels of intensity. RTI can be used for making decisions about general, compensatory, and special education, creating a wellintegrated and seamless system of instruction and intervention guided by child outcome data.

RTI calls for early identification of learning and behavioral needs, close collaboration among teachers and special education personnel and parents, and a systemic commitment to locating and employing the necessary resources to ensure that students make progress in the general education curriculum. RTI is an initiative that takes place in the general education environment. This chapter will focus on RTI and provide your students with a general working knowledge of what is, its importance, and the various stages involved.

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Overview of Responsiveness to Intervention (RTI) A. Purpose of RTI B. Importance of RTI C. Is RTI a “New Approach”?

D. Core Principles of RTI

II.

Events That Led to Changes in LD Identification in IDEA 2004 A. Rationale for Replacing the Discrepancy Model with RTI B. Major Issues Related to the Use of the Concept of Achievement-Ability Discrepancy C. Why RTI was Considered in the Process of SLD Determination D. The Role RTI Should Play in the Identification of Children with Specific Learning Disabilities E. How Does RTI Fit Into the Determination of LD Process?

III. Multitiered Service Delivery Model A. Tier I B. Tier II C. Tier III

12

IV.

Parent Involvement and Important Component for Successful RTI Programs

V.

Fidelity

VI

RTI and Teacher Roles A. The RTI Process for Teachers B. What Teachers Need in Terms of Professional Development and RTI

Essay Questions ▪

What is the purpose of RTI? Why is it important?

▪

Discuss the core principles of RTI

▪

What role should RTI play in the identification of children with specific learning disabilities?

▪

Discuss parent involvement and important component for successful RTI programs

▪

What do teachers need in terms of professional development and RTI?

13

Chapter 6 The Child Study Team and Prereferral Strategies Brief Summary Chapter 6 will focus on the Child Study Team and the various pre-referral procedures used in school systems. After reading this chapter, your students should be able to do the following: ▪ ▪ ▪

Understand the purpose of the Child Study Team Understand the purpose of pre-referral strategies Identify the most often used pre-referral strategies used in school systems These include: Team Meeting With Teachers Parent Interviews Classroom Management Techniques Help Classes Remedial Reading or Math Services In-School Counseling Daily/Weekly Progress Reports Hearing Test Vision Test Disciplinary Action Medical Exam Change of Program Consolidation of Program Referral to Child Protective Services Portfolio assessment Curriculum based assessment, authentic assessment, and performance assessment Observation Screening

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Overview Of The Child Study Team A. Child Study Team (CST B. School Building Level Committee (SBLC) C. Pupil Personnel Team (PPT) D. Pre-Referral Team (PRT) E. Overview of Pre-referral strategies

14

II.

Example Referral Forms to the CST

III. The Child Study Team Meeting A. School Records B. Prior Academic Achievement C. Prior Test Scores D. Group Standardized Achievement Test Results E. Attendance Records F. Prior Teacher Reports G. Group IQ Test Information H. Prior Teacher Referrals I. Medical History in the School Nurse’s Office J. Student Work

IV.

Recommendations By The Child Study Team-Pre-Referral Strategies A. Team Meeting With Teachers B. Parent Interviews C. Medical Exam D. Hearing Test E. Vision Test F. Classroom Management Techniques G. Help Classes H. Remedial Reading or Math Services I. In-School Counseling

V.

J. Daily/Weekly Progress Reports K. Disciplinary Action L. Change of Program M. Consolidation of Program N. Referral to CPS O. Informal Assessment Techniques P. Observation Q. Screening R. Informal Screening Tools

Conclusion

Essay Questions ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪

What is a Child Study Team? Discuss the purpose of having a Child Study Team in a school. Finally, list, you do not have to explain, the possible members of a Child Study Team.

School personnel can gather information for a Child Study Team Meeting from a variety of sources. Discuss, in detail, each of the possible sources of information and its purposes.

There are numerous recommendations and pre-referral strategies that can be made by the Child Study Team. Discuss, in detail, eight of them.

List, you do not have to explain, possible symptoms that might necessitate a vision test and a hearing test.

List, you do not have to explain, ten classroom techniques and modifications that could be used as pre-referral strategies.

15

Chapter 7 The Multidisciplinary Team, Testing Considerations And Parental Participation In The Assessment Process Brief Summary Chapter 7 will focus on the multidisciplinary team (MDT) and parental participation in the assessment process. After reading this chapter, your students should understand the following: ▪ Multidisciplinary Teams and Purpose of the MDT ▪ Membership of the Multidisciplinary Team ▪ Formal Referral for a Suspected Disability ▪ The Contents of a Referral to the MDT ▪ Initial Referral to the MDT From the School Staff ▪ Initial Referral to the MDT from a Parent/Guardian ▪ Assessment Plans/Consent for Evaluation and Assessment Options of the MDT ▪ Parental Participation In The Assessment Process ▪ Parent Intakes ▪ Confidentiality

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Overview and Purpose of Multidisciplinary Teams (MDT) A. Multidisciplinary Team (MDT) B. Multifactor Team (MFT) C. School Based Support Team (SBST)

II.

IDEA Guidelines that Must be Followed by the MDT

III. Membership of the Multidisciplinary Team A. School Psychologist B. School Nurse C. Classroom Teacher D. School Social Worker E. Special Education Teacher F. Educational diagnostician G. Physical Therapist H. Behavioral consultant I. Speech/Language clinician J. Audiologist K. Occupational Therapist L. Guidance Counselor M. Parents 16

IV. Formal Referral for a Suspected Disability V.

Assessment Plans/Consent for Evaluation

VI. Assessment Options of the MDT VII. Psychological and Intellectual Evaluation A. Overview B. Objectives of this evaluation C. Some symptoms that might suggest the recommendation for this evaluation

VIII. Achievement Evaluation A. Overview B. Objectives of this evaluation C. Some symptoms that might suggest the recommendation for this evaluation

IX. Oral Language Evaluation A. Overview B. Objectives of this evaluation C. Some symptoms that might suggest the recommendation for this evaluation

X.

Perceptual Evaluation A. Overview B. Objectives of this evaluation C. Some symptoms that might suggest the recommendation for this evaluation

XI. Occupational Therapy Evaluation A. Overview B. Objectives of this evaluation C. Some symptoms that might suggest the recommendation for this evaluation

XII. Physical Therapy Evaluation A. Overview B. Objectives of this evaluation C. Some symptoms that might suggest the recommendation for this evaluation

XIII. Parental Participation In The Assessment Process XIV. How To Conduct Parent Intakes and Interviews A. Goals of a Parent Intake 1. Identifying Data 2. Developmental History 3. Academic History 17

4. Social History 5. Example of a parent intake

XV. Confidentiality XVI. Conclusion

Essay Questions ▪

Discuss the purpose of a multidisciplinary team. In your discussion, be sure to address the guidelines that the multidisciplinary team must follow under IDEA.

▪

Discuss the different members who can participate on a multidisciplinary team. For each, be sure to discuss their roles and responsibilities.

▪

What are the objectives of an academic evaluation? What are symptoms that could warrant an academic evaluation?

▪

What are the objectives of a psychological evaluation? What are symptoms that could warrant a psychological evaluation?

▪

What are the objectives of a perceptual evaluation? What are symptoms that could warrant a perceptual evaluation?

▪

Discuss parental participation in the assessment process

▪

List, you do not have to explain, helpful guidelines when conducting a parent intake.

▪

There are four main areas covered in a parent intake. What are these four areas and explain each.

▪

Discuss the importance of confidentiality in assessment in special education.

18

Chapter 8 Parental Consent and Evaluation Standards Under IDEIA I.

Parental Consent

II.

Six Evaluation Standards Under IDEIA

III.

Multidisciplinary Teams

IV.

Nondiscriminatory Evaluations

V.

Validity and Reliability A. Criterion Related Validity B. Concurrent validity 1. Predictive validity 2. Content validity C. Construct Validity 1. Convergent validity 2. Discriminant validity D. Factors Affecting Validity E. Test-Retest Reliability F. Split-half Reliability or Internal Consistency G. Inter-rater reliability H. Alternate Forms Reliability I. Standard Error of Measurement J. Factors Affecting Reliability

VI.

Standardization

VII.

Comprehensive Assessment

VIII. Native Language Testing and Reports IX.

Conclusion

19

Essay Questions •

Define parental consent and the three criteria required under IDEIA

•

There are 6 evaluation standards under IDEIA. Discuss each one and explain

•

Define and explain each of the following types of validity: Criterion-related, Concurrent and Construct.

•

Discuss the difference between convergent validity and discriminant validity.

•

There are two types of criterion-related validity. Define each and explain the difference

•

between them.

•

There are four factors that can affect the validity of an assessment measure. Discuss each of these four factors.

•

Define and explain each of the following types of reliability: Test-retest, Split-half, Interrater

•

and Alternate-forms.

•

What is the standard error of measurement? Why is it important? In your answer, be sure to discuss the terms obtained score, true score and error score.

•

There are four factors that can affect the reliability of an assessment measure. Discuss each of these four factors.

•

List, you do not have to explain, the components of a comprehensive assessment

20

Chapter 9 Assessment of Academic Achievement Brief Summary Chapter 9 will examine all of the various issues surrounding assessment of educational achievement in special education. It will focus on what to expect on tests of reading, spelling, writing, mathematics, and comprehensive achievement tests that are available to special educators today. After reading this chapter, your students should be able to do the following: ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪

Understand the purpose of achievement tests Understand why individually administered achievement tests are preferred rather than group achievement tests Be able to discuss oral reading and miscues associated with it Understand the different types of reading comprehension Understand word recognition and word attack skills Thoroughly evaluate the various reading assessment measures Understand written composition and the tests associated with it Be able to differentiate between arithmetic and mathematics Identify and thoroughly evaluate the various arithmetic tests Identify and thoroughly evaluate tests that measure spelling ability Identify and thoroughly evaluate the various comprehensive achievement tests

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Overview of Achievement Tests

II.

Reading A. Overview B. Oral Reading 1. Common errors seen on oral reading tests 2. Analyzing Oral Reading Miscues a. Significant miscues b. Insignificant miscues c. Questions to ask when evaluating miscues C. Reading Comprehension 1. Overview 2. Reading Comprehension skills D. Word-Recognition Skills E. Word Attack Skills F. Summary of Reading Assessment G. Reading Assessment Measures 21

III.

Written Language A. Overview B. Analysis for Interpreting Written Composition 1. Composition 2. Spelling 3. Handwriting C. Tests Of Written Language

IV.

Math A. Overview B. Abilities involved in mathematics C. Mathematical Classifications 1. Content 2. Operations 3. Applications D. National Council of Supervisors of Mathematics-Basic Mathematics Skills E. Analysis and Interpretation of Math Skills F. Four error types in computational analysis 1. Incorrect operation 2. Incorrect number fact 3. Incorrect algorithm 4. Random error G. Assessment Of Mathematical Abilities

VI.

Comprehensive Tests of Educational Achievement

VII. Conclusion

22

Essay Questions ▪

Explain the most common errors seen on oral reading tests

▪

When are miscues significant? When are they insignificant?

▪

Explain the kinds of reading comprehension skills most often assessed by diagnostic reading tests

▪

What are the four error types in computational analysis? Give an example of each.

▪

What are some of the most important questions to ask when analyzing the results of spelling tests? Explain your answer for each question.

▪

Discuss spelling errors that may be evident in students with certain auditory channel deficits

▪

Discuss spelling errors that may be evident in students with certain visual channel deficits

▪

List, you do not have to explain, eight of the most often used comprehensive tests of academic achievement.

▪

Pick any comprehensive test of academic achievement and explain it in detail.

23

Chapter 10 Assessment of Intelligence Brief Summary Chapter 10 will discuss the importance of intelligence testing in the special education process.

After reading this chapter your students should be able to understand the following: ▪ The complexity of intelligence ▪ The purpose of intelligence testing ▪ What IQ scores represent ▪ Classification of IQ scores ▪ The Wechsler scales ▪ Indicators of greater potential on the Wechsler scales ▪ Other measures of intellectual ability

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Overview of Intelligence

II.

The Purpose of Intelligence Testing

III.

Skills that intelligence tests attempt to measure A. Social judgment B. Level of thinking C. Language skills D. Perceptual organization E. Processing speed F. Spatial abilities G. Common sense H. Long and short term memory I. Abstract thinking J. Motor speed K. Word knowledge

IV.

IQ Scores A. Intelligence Quotient B. Classification of IQ scores C. Advantages and Disadvantages of IQ Testing and IQ Scores

V.

Measures of Intellectual Ability

VI.

The Wechsler Scales of Intelligence 24

A. WPPSI-IV B. WISC-V C. WAIS-IV

VI.

Wechsler Subtests

VIII. Other Measures of Intelligence

Essay Questions ▪

What is the purpose of intelligence testing? In your answer, be sure to address the numerous skills that intelligence tests attempt to measure.

▪

Create a chart showing IQ Range, Classification and Percent Included (assuming a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15).

▪

List and define each of the Wechsler Scale subtests.

▪

Choose any measure of intelligence other than the Wechsler Scales and discuss it in detail.

25

Chapter 11 Assessment of Behavior Brief Summary Chapter 11 focuses on the assessment of behavior. After reading this chapter your students should be able to understand the following: ▪ The purpose of a behavioral assessment Projective drawing tests ▪ Observational techniques Apperception tests ▪ Recording behaviors Sentence completion tests ▪ Interviews Adaptive behavior ▪ A student’s behavior during testing Functional behavioral assessment ▪ Psychological tests Behavioral intervention plans

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Overview

II.

Assessing Problem Behavior

III.

Observation A. Observation of a specific situation B. Observation in various settings C. Observation at different times during the day D. Target behaviors E. Types of recording that are often used when doing an observation 1. Anecdotal recording 2. Event recording 3. Latency recording 4. Duration recording F. Goals of Observations

IV.

Interviews A. Structured interview B. Unstructured interview

V.

Understanding a Student’s Behavior During Assessment A. Adjustment to the Situation B. Reaction Time C. Nature of Responses D. Verbalizations E. Organizational Approach Used During Testing F. Adaptability 26

G. Attitude

VI.

Assessing Emotional and Social Development A. Psychological Tests 1. Projective Drawing Tests a. Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test (GHDT) b. Draw-A-Person: Screening for Emotional Disturbance (DAP: SPED) 2. Apperception Tests a. Children’s Apperception Test (CAT) b. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) 3. Sentence Completion Tests a. Examples from a sentence completion test 4. Rating Scales

VII. Assessment of Adaptive Behavior VII. Functional Behavioral Assessment VIII. Behavioral Intervention Plans VIII. Conclusion

27

Essay Questions ▪

Discuss the importance of doing observations in assessment. Explain the various types of observations that can be done and the different types of recording you can do when doing an observation on a student.

▪

Why are interviews necessary when doing an evaluation on children? What are the two types of interviews and define each?

▪

What are some of the most important behaviors to look for when doing an assessment of child? Explain each.

▪

What are projective drawing tests? Name some of the more frequently used projective tests used in schools.

▪

What are apperception tests? Name some of the more frequently used apperception tests used in schools.

▪

Why is it important to assess adaptive behavior in children? Explain.

▪

What is a functional behavioral assessment (FBA)? Why is it important to do a FBA in assessment in special education? Explain.

28

Chapter 12 Assessment of Perceptual Abilities Brief Summary Chapter 12 focuses on the importance of assessment of perceptual abilities in the special education process. After reading this chapter, your students should understand the following: ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪

The purpose of perceptual evaluations Visual perception Assessment of visual perception Auditory perception Assessment of auditory perception Comprehensive measures of perceptual abilities

Lecture and Discussion Outline I. Overview A. The learning process 1. Step 1: Input of Information 2. Step 2: Organization of Information 3. Step 3: Expression of Information B. Modalities 1. Auditory Modality 2. Visual Modality 3. Tactile Modality 4. Kinesthetic Modality 5. Gustatory Modality 6. Olfactory Modality C. Processes that comprise the learning process 1. Reception 2. Perception 3. Association or Organization 4. Memory 5. Expression

II.

Purpose of Perceptual Evaluations A. Skills most often associated with visual perception: 1. Visual coordination 2. Visual discrimination 29

3. Visual association 4. Visual long term memory 5. Visual short-term memory 6. Visual sequential memory 7. Visual vocal expression 8. Visual motoric expression 9. Visual figure ground discrimination 10. Visual spatial relationships 11. Visual form perception

III.

Diagnostic Symptoms for Visual Perceptual Disabilities

IV.

Assessment of Visual Perception

V.

Auditory Perception A. Overview 1. Auditory discrimination 2. Auditory association 3. Auditory long term-memory 4. Auditory short-term memory 5. Auditory sequential memory 6. Auditory vocal expression 7. Auditory motoric expression

VI.

Diagnostic Symptoms for Auditory Perceptual Disabilities

VII. Assessment of Auditory Perception VIII. Comprehensive Measures of Perceptual Abilities A. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency-2nd edition (BOT-2) B. Detroit Tests of Learning Aptitudes-4th Edition (DTLA-4) C. Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities-3rd edition (ITPA-3) D. Slingerland Screening Tests for Identifying Children with Specific Language Disability

IX.

Conclusion

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Essay Questions ▪

There are six types of modalities or channels that deliver information. Define each of these six modalities.

▪

Discuss the purpose of perceptual evaluations.

▪

There are numerous assessment area skills most often associated with visual perception.

Define 10 of these area skills.

▪

Discuss the various diagnostic symptoms for visual perceptual disabilities.

▪

Choose any assessment measure of visual perception and explain it in detail.

▪

Define all of the areas that comprise auditory perception.

▪

Discuss the various diagnostic symptoms for auditory perceptual disabilities.

▪

Choose any assessment measure of auditory perception and explain it in detail.

▪

Choose any comprehensive measure of perception and explain it in detail.

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Chapter 13 Assessment Of Speech and Language Brief Summary Chapter 13 focuses on the importance of assessment of speech and language in the special education process. After reading this chapter your students should understand the following: ▪ The difference between speech and language ▪ Types of speech and language disorders ▪ Assessment of speech and language ▪ Assessment measures of oral language

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Overview A. Speech B. Language C. Three general categories of language 1. Form a. Phonology b. Morphology c. Syntax 2. Content 3. Use

II.

Assessment of Speech and Language A. Birth to 6 months B. 6 to 12 months C. 12 to 18 months

III.

D. 18 to 24 months E. 2 to 3 years F. 3 to 4 years

Types of Speech and Language Disorders A. Speech Disorders 1. Articulation Problems 2. Phonological Processing Problems 3. Speech Fluency Problems 4. Voice Problems B. Language Disorders 1. Aphasia Syndromes 2. Central Auditory Processing Disorders 3. Expressive Language Disorders 4. Receptive Language Disorders

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G. 4 to 5 years

IV.

Assessment Measures of Speech and Language

IV.

Conclusion

Essay Questions ▪

Language processes can be broken down into three general categories. Define and explain each of these categories.

▪

Discuss the important milestones that occur in language from birth to 6 months, 6 to 12 months, 12 to 18 months, 18 to 24 months, 2 to 3 years, 3 to 4 years, and 4 to 5 years.

▪

Explain the various types of speech disorders commonly found in children

▪

Explain the various types of language disorders commonly found in children

▪

Choose any assessment measure of oral language and explain it in detail.

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Chapter 14 Early Intervention and Preschool Assessment Brief Summary Chapter 14 focuses on the importance of assessment and education in the birth to 5-year-old population. After reading this chapter, you should understand the following: • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • •

Overview and purpose of early intervention Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act Eligibility criteria for early intervention services Evaluation of infants and toddlers for early intervention services Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP).

Purpose of the initial IFSP process Notice required to families for an IFSP meeting Timeline corresponding with an IFSP Contents of an IFSP Early intervention services available to infants and toddlers IFSP Reviews Transition from early intervention to preschool settings Overview of preschool assessment The challenge of preschool assessment Working with families Early childhood and preschool assessment measures

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Overview of Early Intervention

II.

Eligibility Criteria for Early Intervention Services

III.

Evaluation of Infants and Toddlers for Early Intervention Services

IV.

The Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP) A. Purpose of the Initial IFSP Process B. Notice Required to Families for an IFSP Meeting C. Timeline Corresponding with an IFSP D. Contents of an IFSP E. Attendance at an Initial IFSP Meeting F. Early Intervention Services Available to Infants and Toddlers G. IFSP Reviews 34

V.

Preschool Assessment

VI.

The Challenge of Preschool Assessment

VII. Working With The Family In Early Intervention and Early Childhood Assessment VIII. Early Intervention and Early Childhood Assessment A. Bayley Scales Of Infant Development-3rd edition (Bayley-III) B. Preschool Language Scale-5th edition (PLS-5) C. Metropolitan Readiness Tests- 6th Edition (MRT-6) D. Boehm Test of Basic Concepts-3rd edition (BTBC-3) E. Bracken Basic Concept Scale-Revised (BBCS-R) F. The Preschool Evaluation Scales-2nd edition (PES-2) G. Developmental Indicators for the Assessment of Learning-4th ed. (DIAL-4) H. Kindergarten Readiness Test (KRT) I. Early Screening Profiles J. Battelle Developmental Inventory-2nd edition (BDI-2) K. McCarthy Scales of Children’s Abilities (MSCA)

VI.

Conclusion

Essay Questions ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪

What is early intervention?

Discuss, in detail, the IFSP. In your discussion, be sure to address the components that must be included under IDEA. According to Bagnato, Neisworth, and Munson (1997), there are six standards of assessment materials for use with young children. Define and explain each.

What are some of the greatest challenges facing special educators when doing preschool assessment Discuss the importance of working with families in early intervention and early childhood assessment. What are some practical suggestions for special educators when conducting parent interviews in early intervention Choose any assessment measure used in early childhood intervention and explain it in detail.

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Chapter 15 Other Areas of Assessment Assessment of Hearing Physical and Occupational Therapy Cultural Competency and Multicultural Assessment

Brief Summary Chapter 15 will discuss three other areas of assessment. These areas are the assessment of hearing, the roles and responsibilities of the physical and occupational therapist, and multicultural assessment. After reading this chapter your students should understand the following: ▪ Assessment of hearing ▪ Assessment measures of hearing ▪ Occupational and Physical therapy measures ▪ Multicultural assessment

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Assessment of Hearing A. Overview 1. Deafness 2. Hearing impairment B. Causes of Hearing Impairments 1. Conductive Hearing Loss 2. Sensorineural Hearing Loss 3. Mixed Hearing Loss 4. Functional Hearing Loss 5. Central Auditory Disorders C. Degrees of Hearing Impairment 1. Degree of decibel loss 2. Resulting impairment 3. Hearing loss D. Audiometric Tests 1. Audiometric Evaluation Measures 2. Special Audiometric Tests E. Assessment Measures

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II.

Occupational and Physical Therapy Assessment A. Overview B. Evaluations C. Assessment Areas D. The Therapist's Many Roles E. Assessment Measures

III.

Cultural Competency and Multicultural Assessment

Essay Questions ▪

There are several causes of hearing impairments. Define and explain each as discussed in your text.

▪

Create a chart showing degree of hearing loss, the corresponding decibel loss, and the resulting impairment.

▪

Define and explain some of the most frequently used assessment measures of hearing.

▪

Choose any test of hearing and explain it in detail.

▪

What do occupational and physical therapists do? What areas do they both assess?

▪

List, you do not have to explain, the responsibilities that occupational and physical therapists when acting as consultants.

▪

List, you do not have to explain, problems that could require occupational therapy.

▪

Discuss the importance of understanding cultural competency and multicultural assessment as a special educator.

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Chapter 16 Determining Whether A Disability Exists: Eligibility Criteria Brief Summary In this chapter you will learn about the eligibility criteria for each of the 13 IDEIA disabilities.

After reading this chapter, you should be able to understand the following: •

Diagnosing a disability

•

Overview of special education eligibility

•

Eligibility criteria for the following 13 IDEIA disabilities: Autism Deaf-Blindness Developmental Delay Emotional Disturbance Hearing Impairments Intellectual Disabilities Learning Disabilities Multiple Disabilities Orthopedic Impairments Other Health Impairments Speech & Language Impairments Traumatic Brain Injury Visual Impairment

Lecture and Discussion Outline I. II.

Diagnosing a Disability Overview of Special Education Eligibility

III.

Eligibility Criteria for IDEIA Disabilities A. Autism B. Deaf-Blindness C. Developmental Delay D. Emotional Disturbance E. Hearing Impairments F. Intellectual Disabilities G. Learning Disabilities H. Multiple Disabilities 38

I. Orthopedic Impairments J. Other Health Impairments K. Speech & Language Impairments L. Traumatic Brain Injury M. Visual Impairment

IV.

Conclusion

Essay Questions ▪

List, you do not have to explain, those disabilities that are considered higher prevalence and lower prevalence disabilities.

▪

Discuss, in detail, the eligibility criteria for each of the following disabilities: A. Autism B. Deaf-Blindness C. Developmental Delay D. Emotional Disturbance E. Hearing Impairments F. Intellectual Disabilities G. Learning Disabilities H. Multiple Disabilities I. Orthopedic Impairments J. Other Health Impairments K. Speech & Language Impairments L. Traumatic Brain Injury M. Visual Impairment

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Chapter 17 Writing A Comprehensive Report In Special Education Brief Summary Writing a report is not a simple task. It takes knowledge and skill because it is being written for parents, teachers, and administrators. After reading Chapter 17, your students should be able to understand why reports need to be written, general guidelines when writing a report, and all sections of a comprehensive report. These sections include: ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪ ▪

Identifying Data Reason for Referral Background History Observations Tests Administered Test Results Conclusions Recommendations

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Overview of Report Writing

II.

Practical Guidelines for Report Writing

III.

Criteria for Writing a Comprehensive Report A. Identifying Data 1. Overview 2. Model examples B. Reason for Referral 1. Overview 2. Model examples C. Background History 1. Overview a. Family History b. Developmental History c. Academic History d. Social History 2. Model example D. Behavioral Observations 40

E. Test Results F. Conclusions G. Recommendations

IV.

Model Reports

V.

Conclusion

Essay Questions ▪

The Background History section of an educational or psychological report normally consists of four parts. Define, explain, and give an example of each.

▪

Discuss, in detail, the way the Tests Results section can be written in an educational or psychological report.

▪

List, you do not have to explain, the sections of an educational or psychological report in the chronological order in which they normally occur.

▪

Discuss, in detail, the Recommendations section of an educational or psychological report.

▪

Write a model educational report for a child with a possible learning disability.

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Chapter 18 Eligibility Procedures For Special Education Services Brief Summary Chapter 18 will focus on the preparation for the presentation of the case, the Eligibility Committee, classification and placement. After reading this chapter your students should be able to understand the following: ▪ Overview of the Eligibility Committee (EC) ▪ Members of the Eligibility Committee ▪ Responsibilities of the Eligibility Committee ▪ IDEIA and Eligibility Committee Meetings ▪ Development of the Information Packet for Presentation to the Eligibility Committee ▪ Presentation at the EC by the Special Education Teacher as Educational Evaluator ▪ Recommendations for Classification ▪ Specific Placement (LRE) Considerations According to IDEIA ▪ Developing the IEP ▪ Presentation at the EC by the Special Education Teacher as Classroom Teacher ▪ The Annual Review ▪ Suggestions For the Special Educator’s Participation In The Annual Review ▪ Triennial Reviews ▪ Declassification Of A Child In Special Education

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Overview of the Eligibility Committee-IEP Teams

II.

Members of the Eligibility Committee (EC)

III.

Responsibilities of the Eligibility Committee

IV.

IDEIA and Eligibility Committee Meetings

V.

Developing the Information Packet for Presentation to the Eligibility Committee

VI. Classification Recommendations of the Eligibility Committee 42

VII. LRE Placement Considerations VIII. Developing the IEP IX.

Presentation at the EC by the Special Education Teacher as Classroom Teacher

X.

The Annual and Triennial Reviews

XI.

Declassification Of A Child In Special Education

XII. Conclusion

Essay Questions ▪

Discuss the purpose of an Eligibility Committee.

▪

List, you do have to explain, members of an Eligibility Committee.

▪

Discuss the responsibilities of the Eligibility Committee

▪

Discuss helpful guidelines to keep in mind when you are going to be a presenter at an Eligibility Committee meeting.

▪

Explain the concept of least restrictive environment. In your discussion be sure to list the possible placements for a child entering special education from the least restrictive to most restrictive.

▪

What is an annual review? What is a triennial review? Explain what actually occurs at an annual review.

▪

What are the four possible rationales for declassifying a child currently in special education?

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Chapter 19 Development Of The IEP Brief Summary Chapter 19 will focus on the Individualized Education Plan (IEP). After reading this chapter your students should be able to understand the following: ▪ The purpose of an IEP ▪ The components of an IEP ▪ How to read a sample IEP ▪ How to interpret all parts of an IEP

Lecture and Discussion Outline I.

Overview of the IEP

II.

Components to be Included in the IEP

III.

IEP Requirements Under IDEA

IV.

Understanding The IEP

V.

Sample IEP A. Background Information B. Present Levels of Performance and Individual Needs C. Long-Term Adult Outcome Statement D. Measurable Annual Goals and Short Term Instructional Objectives E. Special Education Programs and Related Services/Program Modifications F. Participation In General Education Classes, Nonacademic & Activities G. Participating Agencies For Students Who Require Transition Services H. Coordinated Set of Activities Leading to Long-Term Adult Outcomes I. Graduation Information for Secondary Students J. Summary of Selected Recommendations K. Reporting Progress to Parents

VI.

Conclusion

Essay Questions ▪ ▪

Under IDEA, explain the components that must be included in a student’s IEP. There are different sections of an IEP. Explain each one and give a brief description of the purpose of each section.

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Chapter 1 Multiple Choice Questions 1.1 Assessment in special education is a process that involves collecting information about a student for the purpose of making decisions. a. True b. False 1.2 The process of tracing and gathering information from the many sources of background information on a child such as school records, observation, parent intakes, and teacher reports is called: a. Collection b. Analysis c. Evaluation d. Determination 1.3 The processing and understanding of patterns in the child's educational, social, developmental, environmental, medical, and emotional history is called: a. Collection b. Analysis c. Evaluation d. Determination 1.4 The assessment of a child's academic, intellectual, psychological, emotional, perceptual, language, cognitive, and medical development in order to determine areas of strength and weakness is called: a. Collection b. Analysis c. Evaluation d. Determination 1.5 The measurement of the presence of a suspected disability and the knowledge of the criteria that constitute each category is called: a. Collection b. Analysis c. Evaluation d. Determination

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1.6 The final thoughts and ideas concerning educational placement and program that need to be made to the school, teachers and parents are called: a. Collection b. Analysis c. Evaluation d. Recommendation 1.7 Valuable information about the student's skills and needs can come from: a. Parents b. Teachers c. Specialists d. All of the above can give valuable information about a student’s skills and needs 1.8 Which of the following is the primary purpose of assessment? a. Screening and identification b. Evaluation c. Eligibility and diagnosis d. All of the above serve as primary purposes of assessment 1.9 Prior to 1975 in the United States, discrimination against those with disabilities was prevalent in schools. The type of discrimination most evident was: a. The exclusion of students with disabilities altogether from school b. The classification of students with disabilities when, in actuality, no disability was present. c. Both a and b d. Neither a or b.

1.10 In 1948, what percent of all children with disabilities received special education? a. 12 b. 25 c. 33 d. 53 1.11 By the early 1950s a. Special education services and programs were available in school districts, but often, undesirable results occurred b. Students in special classes were often considered unable to perform academic tasks. c. Students in special classes went to special schools or classes that focused on learning manual skills such as weaving and bead stringing. d. All of the above 1.12 Legislation and court cases to prevent discrimination in education first came to notice in 1954 with the famous case: a. Brown v. Board of Education b. Parc v. Mills c. Roe v. Wade d. Harrison v. Ford 46

1.13 In Brown, the Court ruled that it was illegal practice under which amendment of the US Constitution to arbitrarily discriminate against any group of people? a. 1st b. 6th c. 14th d. 17th 1.14 Brown v. Board of Education: a. Set the precedent for future discrimination cases in education.. b. Helped students with disabilities in the future claim that their segregation and exclusion from school violated their opportunity for an equal education under the 14th amendment of the US constitution c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 1.15 The 14th amendment of the United States is called a. The equal protection clause b. The necessary and proper clause c. The voting rights amendment d. Freedom speech amendment 1.16 Which case involved the ideas that schools may not exclude students who have been classified with mental retardation and that all students must be provided with a free public education? a. Diana v. Board of Education b. Parc v. Commonwealth of Pa. c. Mills v. Board of Education d. Larry P. v. Riles 1.17 Which case set forth future guidelines of P.L. 94-142, including the rights of students with disabilities to have access to a free public education and a mandated requirement to receive special education services even if the school states that it does not have the money to provide them? a. Diana v. Board of Education b. Mills v. Board of Education c. Larry P. v. Riles d. Pase v. Hannon 1.18 Section 504 of the Vocational Rehabilitation Act is a civil rights law enacted in a. 1973 b. 1980 c. 1990 d. 1993

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1.19 The enactment of P.L. 94-142 came in: a. 1970 b. 1975 c. 1980 d. 1985 1.20 The Education for all Handicapped Children’s Act is Public Law: a. 94-134 b. 94-142 c. 102-67 d. 101-443 1.21 In 1975 Public Law ______ set forth federal procedural safeguards for children with disabilities and their parents. a. 91-564 b. 101-931 c. 94-142 d. 100-32 1.22 The federal law requiring all states to provide a free and appropriate public education to children with disabilities from age 3 to 5 years. a. 99-457 b. 101-342 c. 94-132 d. 331-76 1.23 The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) was enacted in: a. 1970 b. 1980 c. 1985 d. 1990 1.24 An evaluation of a child with a suspected disability must be made by a multidisciplinary team. a. True b. False 1.25 A developmental disability significantly affecting verbal and nonverbal communication and social interaction, generally evident before age 3 years is called a. Autism b. Learning disability c. Emotional disturbance d. Speech and language disorder

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1.26 A disability where a child of typical intelligence has difficulty, over time and to a marked degree, building satisfactory interpersonal relationships; responds inappropriately behaviorally or emotionally under normal circumstances; demonstrates a pervasive mood of unhappiness; or has a tendency to develop physical symptoms or fears is called: a. Autism b. Learning disability c. Emotional disturbance d. Speech and language disorder 1.27 A disorder in one or more of the basic psychological processes involved in understanding or in using language, spoken or written, which may manifest itself in an imperfect ability to listen, think, speak, read, write, spell, or do mathematical calculations is called: a. Autism b. Learning disability c. Emotional disturbance d. Speech and language disorder 1.28 A communication disorder such as stuttering, impaired articulation, a language impairment or a voice impairment is called: a. Autism b. Learning disability c. Emotional disturbance d. Speech and language disorder 1.29 Asthma, epilepsy, lead poisoning and diabetes are examples of disorders which would most likely receive a classification of: a. Autism b. Learning disability c. Emotional disturbance d. Other Health Impairment 1.30 An acquired injury to the brain caused by an external physical force, resulting in total or partial functioning disability or psychosocial impairment or both is called: a. Autism b. Traumatic Brain Injury c. Emotional disturbance d. Speech and language disorder

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Chapter 2 Multiple Choice Questions 2.1 A _________ is a large number of children who are representative of all children in that age group. a. Curriculum group b. Dynamic group c. Norm group d. Task group 2.2 A _____ is a starting point that represents the level of mastery of a task below which the student would correctly answer all items on a test: a. Basal b. Ceiling c. Neither a nor b

2.3 A _____ is an ending point that represents the level of mastery of a task above which the student would incorrectly answer all future items on a test: a. Basal b. Ceiling c. Neither a nor b 2.4 ______ compare(s) a person’s score against the scores of a group of people who have already taken the same exam: a. Norm-referenced tests b. Curriculum based tests c. Task analysis d. Dynamic assessment 2.5 Standardized achievement tests generally rely heavily on: a. True false items b. Multiple choice c. Essays d. Fill in the Blanks 2.6 Which of the following is NOT a criticism of standardized tests? a. It puts too much value on recall and rote learning b. It turns students into passive learners c. It trivializes content and skills development d. All of the above are criticisms of standardized tests

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2.7 The phrase “acceptable level of mastery” normally applies to: a. Norm-referenced tests b. Criterion-referenced tests c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 2.8 __________ involves directly observing and assessing a child in the many environments in which he or she operates a. Ecological assessment b. Dynamic assessment c. Task analysis d. Learning styles assessment 2.9 A thorough ecological assessment should include: a. Interaction between students, teachers and others in the classroom b. Presentation of materials and ideas c. Selection and use of materials for instruction d. All of the above 2.10 Curriculum Based Measurement is most concerned with a. Fluency b. Norms c. Neither a nor b d. Both a and b 2.11 Which of the following involves a test-train-retest approach? a. Ecological assessment b. Dynamic assessment c. Task analysis d. Learning styles assessment 2.12 Which of the following involves “graduated prompting?” a. Ecological assessment b. Dynamic assessment c. Task analysis d. Learning styles assessment 2.13 Which type of portfolio involves the student, teacher, and parents contributing to it? a. Working portfolio b. Showcase portfolio c. Teacher portfolio d. None of the above

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2.14 Which type of portfolio houses only the student’s best work and generally does not include works in progress? a. Working portfolio b. Showcase portfolio c. Teacher portfolio d. None of the above 2.15 Naturalistic based assessment and performance based assessment are synonymous with: a. Ecological assessment b. Dynamic assessment c. Task analysis d. Learning styles assessment e. Authentic assessment 2.16 Breaking down a particular task into the basic sequential steps, component parts or skills necessary to accomplish the task is called: a. Ecological assessment b. Dynamic assessment c. Task analysis d. Learning styles assessment

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Chapter 3 Multiple Choice Questions 3.1 Which of the following is NOT a scale of measurement? a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Contemporary d. Interval e. Ratio 3.2 ________ data is categorical data. a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio 3.3 Numbers on a football jersey are examples of _______ data. a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio 3.4 _______ scales involve the rank order system. a. Nominal b Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio 3.5 First place, second place and third place finishes are examples of ________ data a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio 3.6 A ________ scale is one in which equal differences in scores represent equal differences in amount of the property measured but with an arbitrary zero point. a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio

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3.7 Distance, weight and duration are all examples of _________ data a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio 3.8 Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency: a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Range 3.9 The _______ is the mathematical average of the distribution of numbers. a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Range 3.10 The mean of the distribution 10, 5, 7, 3, and 5 is: a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 30 3.11 The _______ is greatly affected by extreme scores. a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. All of the above are greatly affected by extreme scores 3.12 The _______ is the middle score in a distribution. a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Range 3.13 In the distribution 9,11,9,15 and 18, what is the median? a. 15 b. 11 c. 10.5 d. 9

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3.14 In the distribution 6, 8, 8, 10,11, 14, 17, the median is: a. 11 b. 10 c. 10.5 d. 12 3.15 The ______ is less affected by extreme scores than the ______. a. Mean/median b. Median/mean c. Mean/mode d. Median/mode 3.16 The _______ is the number in the distribution that occurs most frequently. a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Range 3.17 In the distribution 9,11,9,15, and 20, what is the mode? a. 9 b. 11 c. 15 d. 20 3.18 What is(are) the mode(s) in the following distribution? 9,12,9,12,13, and 20? a. 9 b. 12 c. 9 and 12 d. 10.5 3.19 If in your distribution you have three or more modes, it is referred to as a a. Bimodal distribution b. Multimodal distribution c. Non-discriminatory distribution d. Truncated distribution 3.20 A ________ expresses how often a score occurs in a set of data. a. Frequency distribution b. Multimodal distribution c. Non-discriminatory distribution d. Truncated distribution

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3.21 Which of the following is not normally a column when setting up a frequency distribution? a. Test Score b. Tally c. Frequency d. All of the above are normally columns used when setting up a frequency distribution 3.22 When setting up a frequency distribution it is very easy to calculate the _______ simply by inspection. a. Mean b. Standard deviation c. Mode(s) d. Variance 3.23 The ________ of a distribution is the difference between the high score and the low score in the distribution. a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Range 3.24 If we had a distribution of 9,11,13,18, and 50, what is the range? a. 41 b. 51 c. 59 d. 20 3.25 For the following distribution, 30, 50, 45, 50, 25, 40, 10, 55, 65, 20, 60, 33, 45, 33, 20, the range is: a. 50 b. 61 c. 55 d. 75 3.26 Which of the following is/are greatly affected by an extreme score? a. Mean b. Range c. Mean and Range d. Neither the mean nor the range 3.27 The ______ the spread, the _______ the variance. a. Greater/greater b. Greater/smaller c. Smaller/greater

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3.28 In a distribution with a variance of 25, the standard deviation would be a. 25 b. 12.5 c. 5 d. Cannot be determined 3.29 In a distribution with a variance of 49, the standard deviation would be a. 49 b. 24.5 c. 7 d. Cannot be determined 3.30 In a distribution with a variance of 64, the standard deviation would be a. 64 b. 32 c. 8 d. Cannot be determined 3.31 If the standard deviation of a distribution is 9, then the variance is a. 3 b. 49 c. 81 d. 100 3.32 If the standard deviation of a distribution is 6, then the variance is a. 2.31 b. 30 c. 36 d. 66 3.33 If the standard deviation of a distribution is 4, then the variance is a. 2 b. 16 c. 25 d. 40 3.34 In a normal distribution with a mean of 90 and a standard deviation of 10, approximately what percentage of scores fall between 80 and 100? a. 13.5 b. 34 c. 68 d. 95

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3.35 In a normal distribution with a mean of 90 and a standard deviation of 10, approximately what percentage of scores fall between 80 and 90? a. 13.5 b. 34 c. 68 d. 95 3.36 In a normal distribution with a mean of 90 and a standard deviation of 10, what percentage of scores fall between 80 and 110? a. 13.5 b. 34 c. 68 d. 81.5 3.37 In a normal distribution with a mean of 90 and a standard deviation of 10, what percentage of scores fall between 100 and 110? a. 13.5 b. 34 c. 68 d. 95 3.38 In a normal distribution with a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 5, what percentage of scores fall between 45 and 55? a. 13.5 b. 34 c. 68 d. 95 3.39 In a normal distribution with a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 5, what percentage of scores fall between 55 and 60? a. 13.5 b. 34 c. 68 d. 95 3.40 In a normal distribution with a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 5, what percentage of scores fall between 55 and 65? a. 13.5 b. 16 c. 68 d. 95

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3.41 In a ________ skewed distribution the majority of scores fall below the mean. a. Positively b. Negatively c. Both positively and negatively d. Neither positively nor negatively 3.42 In a ________ skewed distribution the majority of scores fall above the mean. a. Positively b. Negatively c. Both positively and negatively d. Neither positively nor negatively 3.43 Correlations tell us the _________ between two variables. a. Range b. Standard deviation c. Variance d. Relationship 3.44 A _________ correlation has a direct relationship between the variables: a. Positive b. Negative c. Zero 3.45 A _________ correlation has an indirect relationship between the variables: a. Positive b. Negative c. Zero 3.46 A _________ correlation has no relationship between the variables: a. Positive b. Negative c. Zero 3.47 As X increases, Y increases is an example of a ________ correlation. a. Positive b. Negative c. Zero 3.48 As X increases, Y decreases is an example of a ________ correlation. a. Positive b. Negative c. Zero

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3.49 Correlations range from _______: a. +1.00 to -1.00 b. -2.00 to +2.00 c. -3.00 to +3.00 d. 0.00 to +1.00 3.50 Which of the following is the strongest correlation? a. +.50 b. -.85 c. +.71 d. -.34 3.51 Which of the following is the weakest correlation? a. +.50 b. -.85 c. +.71 d. -.34 3.52 Correlations _______ indicate a cause and effect. a. Always b. Sometimes c. Almost never d. Never

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Chapter 4 Multiple Choice Questions 4.1 ________ are any information gathered and collected through your research in the assessment process. a. Content validity b. Correlation coefficients c. Data d. Standard scores 4.2 A child’s actual age is referred to as the: a. Mental age b. Chronological age c. Standard age d. Content age 4.3 When doing an assessment, why calculate age as opposed to just asking children their age? a. Many children do not know when they were born. b. Children think they know their date of birth but are incorrect. c. Ages (when doing psychoeducational assessment) are broken down into years, months and days. d. All of the above are reasons to calculate age as opposed to just asking children their age 4.4 A child whose age is 13-7-24 is 13 years, 7 months and 24 days old: a. True b. False 4.5 A student is ten years, four months and twenty days old. How would her age be expressed numerically? a. 4-10-20 b. 10-4-20 c. 20-4-10 d. 10-0 4.6 A student is tested on April 16, 2015. His date of birth is February 12, 2005. His age at the time of testing is: a. 9-2-4 b. 10-2-4 c. 10-2-25 d. 10-5-4

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4.7 A student is tested on July 10, 2015. His date of birth is April 20, 2003. His age at the time of testing is: a. 12-3-20 b. 12-5-20 c. 12-2-10 d. 12-2-20 4.8 A student is tested on August 25, 2014. His date of birth is October 20, 2007. His age at the time of testing is: a. 7-10-5 b. 6-10-5 c. 6-7-9 d. 6-9-5 4.9 A student is tested on September 13, 2010. His date of birth is October 15, 1999. His age at the time of testing is: a. 10-10-28 b. 10-10-18 c. 9-10-28 c. 9-10-10 4.10 A student is tested on October 13, 2014. His date of birth is April 16th, 1999. His age at the time of testing is: a. 13-5-27 b. 14-5-27 c. 14-7-5 d. 14-11-0 4.11 A student is tested on June 4th, 2008. His date of birth is March 3, 1997. His age at the time of testing is: a. 11-3-1 b. 11-2-18 c. 11-4-18 d. 11-2-28 4.12 The _______ indicates the number of items correctly answered on a given test. In almost all cases, it is the first score a teacher obtains when interpreting data. a. Standard score b. T score c. Raw score d. z score

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4.13 A student gets 22 correct and 8 wrong on a test. His raw score is: a. 30 b. 22 c. 8 d. 14 4.14 On a 20 word spelling test, a student got 6 wrong. His raw score is: a. 20 b. 12 c. 8 d. 14 4.15 A percentile rank of 95 means that you did as well as or better than _______ percent of the students in the class. a. 5 b. 15 c. 60 d. 95 4.16 A percentile rank of 40 means that you did as well as or better than _______ percent of the students in the class. a. 60 b. 15 c. 40 d. 95 4.17 The percentage correct on a test is not the same as the percentage of people scoring below a given score, the percentile rank. a. True b. False 4.18 The _______ percentile normally signifies the average ranking or average performance. a. 25th b. 50th c. 75th d. 95th 4.19 Quartiles divide scores into ______ units: a. 4 b. 8 c. 10 d. 25

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4.20 Deciles divide scores into ______ equal units. a. 4 b. 10 c. 25 d. 50 4.21 The fifth decile is the point at which _______ of the scores fall below a. 5% b. 15% c. 50% d. 95% 4.22 The eighth decile is the point at which _______ of the scores fall below a. 8% b. 15% c. 50% d. 80% 4.23 Normally, standard scores have a mean of ____ and a standard deviation of ____. a. 50/5 b. 100/10 c. 100/15 d. 50/15 4.24 A student with a standard score of 90 on a test with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 5 would be __________ the mean. a. 2 standard deviations above b. 2 standard deviations below c. 1 standard deviation above d. 1 standard deviations below 4.25 On IQ tests with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15 (e.g. The Wechsler Scales) a score of 85 would be in the classification: a. Low Average b. Average c. High Average d. Superior 4.26 On IQ tests with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15 (e.g. The Wechsler Scales) a score of 95 would be a in the classification: a. Low Average b. Average c. High Average d. Superior

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4.27 On IQ tests with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15 (e.g. The Wechsler Scales) a score of 115 would be a in the classification: a. Low Average b. Average c. High Average d. Superior 4.28 On IQ tests with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15 (e.g. The Wechsler Scales) a score of 125 would be a in the classification: a. Low Average b. Average c. High Average d. Superior 4.29 On IQ tests with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15 (e.g. The Wechsler Scales)which of the following scores would be in the Low Average range a. 75 b. 85 c. 95 d. 105 4.30 On IQ tests with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15 (e.g. The Wechsler Scales)which of the following scores would be in the High Average range a. 75 b. 85 c. 105 d. 115 4.31 On IQ tests with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15 (e.g. The Wechsler Scales) which of the following scores would be in the Superior range a. 95 b. 105 c. 115 d. 125 4.32 _______ is a type of standard scores that is often seen when doing psychoeducational assessments: a. z scores b. T scores c. Stanines d. All of the above are types of standard scores

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4.33 A _______ indicates how many standard deviations a score is above or below the mean. a. z score b. T score c. Stanine d. All of the above 4.34 A ________ is a standard score distribution with a mean of zero and a standard deviation of one. a. z score b. T score c. Stanine d. All of the above have a mean of zero and a standard deviation of one 4.35 If a student has a z score of +1.5 this means that he scored: a. 1 standard deviation above the mean on the test b. 1.5 standard deviations above the mean on the test c. 1 standard deviation below the mean on the test d. 1.5 standard deviations below the mean on the test 4.36 If a student has a z score of -1.7, this means that he scored: a. 1 standard deviation above the mean on the test b. 1.7 standard deviations above the mean on the test c. 1 standard deviation below the mean on the test d. 1.7 standard deviations below the mean on the test 4.37 ______ = Test Score - Mean Score/Standard Deviation a. z scores b. T scores c. Stanines d. None of the above 4.38 Suppose a student had an IQ of 115 on an IQ test with a mean of 100 a standard deviation of 15. His z score is: a. -2.0 b. -1.0 c. +1.0 d. +2.0 4.39 _________ have a mean of 50 with a standard deviation of 10. a. z scores b. T scores c. Stanines d. None of the above

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4.40 T scores have a mean of _____ with a standard deviation of 10. a. 15 b. 50 c. 75 d. 95 4.41 T scores have a mean of 50 with a standard deviation of ____. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 50 4.42 A T score of 30 on a test puts a student: a. 1 standard deviation above the mean on the test b. 2 standard deviations above the mean on the test c. 1 standard deviation below the mean on the test d. 2 standard deviations below the mean on the test 4.43 A T score of 60 on a test puts a student: a. 1 standard deviation above the mean on the test b. 2 standard deviations above the mean on the test c. 1 standard deviation below the mean on the test d. 2 standard deviations below the mean on the test 4.44 The formula for _______ is 50 + 10z a. z scores b. T scores c. Stanines d. None of the above 4.45 A student who scored 1.5 standard deviations below the mean would have a T score of: a. 65 b. 55 c. 45 d. 35 4.46 A student who scored 2 standard deviations above the mean would have a T score of: a. 65 b. 70 c. 75 d. 30

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4.47 A _______ is a type of standard score that has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 2. a. z scores b. T scores c. Stanine d. None of the above 4.48 A stanine is a type of standard score that has a mean of _____ and a standard deviation of 2. a. 5 b. 10 c. 50 d. 90 4.49 A stanine is a type of standard score that has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of _____. a. 1 b. 2 c. 10 d. 15 4.50 Stanine scores can range from _________ . a. 1 to 5 b. 1 to 9 c. 1 to 15 c. -1.00 to +1.00 4.51 A student who gets an age equivalent score of 10-5 is performing as well as the average a. 10th grade student b. 10 year-5 month old student c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 4.52 A student who gets an age equivalent score of 9-4 is performing as well as the average a. 9th grade student b. 10 year-5 month old student. c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 4.53 A child who gets a grade equivalent score of 10.5 is performing as well as: a. A 10 year-5 month old student b. 10th grade-5 month old student c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b

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Chapter 5 Multiple Choice Questions 5.1 The Responsiveness to Intervention (RTI) process is a __________ approach to providing services and interventions to struggling learners at increasing levels of intensity. a. single level b. one-way c. two-way d. multi-tiered 5.2 Which of the following is not the purpose of RTI? a. RTI is intended to reduce the incidence of “instructional casualties” by ensuring that students are provided high quality instruction with fidelity. b. By using RTI, districts can provide interventions to students as soon as a need arises. c. RTI is very similar to the methods associated with the aptitude achievement discrepancy models traditionally utilized for SLD identification. d. All of the above are purposes of RTI 5.3 RTI is comprised of _________ core principles that represent recommended RTI practices a. four b. five c. six d. seven 5.4 IDEIA creates the option of using up to ___% of Part B funds for “early intervening services…for students…who have not been identified as needing special education or related services but who need additional academic and behavioral support to succeed in a general education environment.” a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30 5.5 The movement toward change towards RTI stems from criticisms of current _____ determination components, procedures, and criteria. a. specific learning disability (SLD) b. autism c. emotional disturbance (ED) d. intellectual disability (ID)

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5.6 Tier 1 is designed to meet the needs of a majority of the school population and has _____ critical elements: a. one b. two c. three d. four 5.7 _________ is for students who are falling behind same-age peers and need additional, targeted interventions to meet grade-level expectations. The goal is to accelerate learning for students who need more intensive support. a. Tier I b. Tier II c. Tier III d. All of the above 5.8 _________ is designed for students who still have considerable difficulty in mastering necessary academic and/or behavioral skills. It addresses students' needs through intensive individualized services. In this tier, students receive intensive and highly focused, intentional, research-based instruction, possibly over a long period of time. a. Tier I b. Tier II c. Tier III d. All of the above 5.9 IDEIA continues to define ___________ as "a disorder in 1 or more of the basic psychological processes involved in understanding or in using language, spoken, or written, which disorder may manifest itself in the imperfect ability to listen, think, speak, write, spell, or do mathematical calculations." a. autism b. specific learning disability c. other health impairment d. speech and language impairment 5.10 The process for determining the presence of a specific learning disability has involved the use of an intelligence-achievement discrepancy criterion for many years. This method has been widely criticized as the “wait-to-fail” method since students rarely qualify for special education services until third or fourth grade. a. True b. False 5.11 It is now widely acknowledged that there ________ a scientific basis for the use of a measured IQ achievement discrepancy as either a defining characteristic of or a marker for LD. a. is b. appears to be c. is a high probability d. is not 70

5.12 Response to Intervention offers the promise of “building better _____” through the provision of differentiated instruction based on data from ongoing assessments for all students in the early grades. a. mathematicians b. scientists c. readers d. athletes 5.13 Which of the following statements best reflects the importance of RTI within the larger context of the SLD determination process? a. RTI should be considered as the most important element within the larger context of the SLD determination process. b. RTI should be considered as the least important element within the larger context of the SLD determination process. c. RTI should be considered as merely one important element within the larger context of the SLD determination process d. None of the above 5.14 While RTI is not intended as a stand-alone approach to determining specific learning disabilities, it can be a key component of a comprehensive approach to disability determination. a. True b. False

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Chapter 6 Multiple Choice Questions 6.1 Many school systems recommend or require that, ________ an individualized evaluation of a student is conducted for possible placement in special education, his or her teacher meet with a pre-referral team to discuss the nature of the problem and what possible modifications to instruction or the classroom might be made. a. Before b. During c. After 6.2 The role of the CST is to: a. Work as a single unit in determining the possible cause, contributing behavioral factors, educational status, prognosis, and recommendations for a student. b. Bring together many disciplines and professional perspectives to help work on a case is the major objective of the CST so that a single person is not required to determine and assimilate all of the factors impacting a particular child. c. Gather all the necessary information on a child in order to determine the most effective and practical direction for him or her. d. All of the above 6.3 Which of the following is normally a member of the CST? a. Administrator-Normally the School Principal b. School Psychologist c. School Nurse d. All of the above 6.4 Which of the following is normally a member of the CST? a. Special Education Teacher b. Guidance Counselor c. Speech and Language Teacher d. All of the above 6.5 The members of the CST usually meet: a. On a regular basis, once or twice a week depending upon the caseload b. Once a month c. Every year d. Every 3 years 6.6 The Child Study Team does not and is not legally required to have a parent member. a. True b. False

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6.7 School records are important for the CST to review because: a. They can be a rich source of information about the student and his or her background. b. The number of times the student has changed schools may be of interest c. Frequent school changes can be disruptive emotionally as well as academically d. All of the above 6.8 In many cases, examining a child’s attendance records is an important area for the CST to assess a. True b. False 6.9 When examining a student’s attendance records the CST should look at: a. The number of days absent in the student’s profile b. The patterns of days absent c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 6.10 Single day absences may indicate the presence of possible: a. School avoidance b. Phobia c. Dysfunctional or chaotic home environment d. All of the above 6.11 Comments written on report cards or in permanent record folders can provide: a. A different perspective on the child under a different style of teaching. b. A clue to the child's learning style and the conditions under which the child responds best. c. Information important to understanding the child's patterns and history. d. All of the above 6.12 A decreasing grade pattern is exhibited by : a. Higher first quarter grades followed by a decent into very poor grades by the last marking period b. Lower first quarter grades followed by an ascent into very high grades by the last marking period. c. Higher first quarter grades followed by even higher grades by the last marking period. d. Low first quarter grades followed by a decent into even lower grades by the last marking period.

6.13 Which of the following should the CST examine? a. Number of Schools Attended by a student b. Prior Teacher Referrals c. Medical History in the School Nurse’s Office d. All of the above

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6.14. A pre-referral team might: a. Review student records b. Review work samples c. Conducting interviews and observations d. All of the above are examples of what the pre-referral team might do 6.15 A team meeting with teachers is a pre-referral procedure whereby teachers who have worked with the student and/or have ideas about this student come together to determine what strategies can be implemented to help this child. a. True b. False 6.16 Which of the following situations could warrant a parent interview? a. Divorce b. Recent separation c. Death of a loved one d. All of the above 6.17 Meeting the parent(s) is _______ recommended for a child having some difficulty in school. a. Never b. Not very often c. Highly 6.18 Even if a teacher or any other professional who works with a child feels that there is any possibility of a medical condition and the need for a complete medical work-up is evident, a recommendation for a medical examination should never be made as a pre-referral procedure. a. True b. False 6.19 Which symptom might indicate that an updated audiological examination may be necessary for a child? a. Child turns head when listening b. Child asks you to repeat frequently c. Child consistently misinterprets what he/she hears d. Child does not respond to auditory stimuli e. All of the above might indicate that an updated audiological examination may be necessary for a child

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6.20 Which symptom might indicate that an updated vision examination may be necessary for a child? a. Child turns head when looking at board or objects b. Child squints excessively c. Child rubs eyes frequently d. Child holds books and materials close to the face or at unusual angles e. All of the above might indicate that an updated vision examination may be necessary for a child 6.21 Which symptom might indicate that an updated vision examination may be necessary for a child? a. Child suffers frequent headaches b. Child avoids close work of any type c. Child covers an eye when reading d. Child consistently loses place when reading e. All of the above might indicate that an updated vision examination may be necessary for a child 6.22 Which of the following are classroom techniques and modifications that could be used as a pre-referral procedure? a. Display daily class schedule with times so the student has a structured idea of the day ahead b. Change seating c. Seat student with good role models d. Use peer tutors when appropriate e. All of the above 6.23 Which of the following are classroom techniques and modifications that could be used as a pre-referral procedure? a. Limit number of directions b. Simplify complex directions c. Give verbal as well as written directions d. Provide extra work time e. All of the above 6.24 Which of the following are classroom techniques and modifications that could be used as a pre-referral procedure? a. Shorten assignments b. Modify curriculum c. Identify and address preferred learning styles d. Provide manipulatives e. All of the above

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6.25 Which of the following are classroom techniques and modifications that could be used as a pre-referral procedure? a. Provide examples of what is expected b. Use color coding of materials to foster organizational skills c. Develop a homework plan with parental support d. Develop a behavior modification plan if necessary e. All of the above 6.26 Help classes are classes that provide a student with “extra help” in a given subject outside of the normal school day. a. True b. False 6.27 All schools provide resource room for students who are having academic problems that are not severe enough to warrant classification. a. True b. False 6.28 Remedial math and/or reading services are academic programs within a school are designed to: a. Help the student with math or reading by going slower in the curriculum b. Help the student by placing him or her with a smaller number of students in the classroom for extra attention. c. Help students when reading or math is the specific area of concern. d. All of the above 6.29 Which of the following professionals would most likely NOT do serious in-school counseling for a student? a. School psychologist b. School social worker c. The student’s classroom teacher d. All of the above would do serious in school counseling for a student 6.30 Children may experience a situational or adjustment disorder resulting from: a. Separation b. Divorce c. Health issues d. Newness to school district e. All of the above

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6.31 A _________ is a synopsis of the child’s work and behavior in the classroom sent home to the parents in order to keep them updated on the child’s strengths and weaknesses over a period of time (e.g. every day, each week, each month, etc.). a. Progress report b. Standard score c. Teacher conference d. Scaled data analysis 6.32 Daily progress reports for a week or two at first and then weekly reports may provide the child with: a. The kinds of immediate gratification and positive feedback necessary to get back on track. b. A greater sense of hope and control in getting back to a more normal academic pattern. c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 6.33 Disciplinary action as a pre-referral procedure is usually made when the child in question needs a structured boundary set involving inappropriate behavior. a. True b. False 6.34 If a child demonstrates a pattern of inappropriate behavior, disciplinary action is usually used in conjunction with other recommendations since such patterned behavior may be symptomatic of a more serious problem. a. True b. False 6.35 A change of program: a. Involves examining the child’s program and making adjustments to his or her schedule based on the presenting problem. b. Usually occurs when a student has been placed in a course that is not suited to his/her ability or needs. c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 6.36 Consolidation of a program involves: a. Taking the student’s program and modifying it so that the workload is decreased b. Temporarily consolidating or condensing the program allows for the possibility of salvaging some courses c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b

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6.37 A referral to Child Protective Services (CPS) is mandated for all educators if there is a suspicion of a. Abuse b. Neglect c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 6.38 A referral to Child Protective Services is warranted if there is suspected: a. Physical abuse b. Sexual abuse c. Emotional abuse d. Neglect e. All of the above 6.39 Informal screening tools may include: a. Abbreviated intelligence tests or selected subtests b. Informal reading inventories c. Selected subtests of achievement d. Checklists e. All of the above

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Chapter 7 Multiple Choice Questions 7.1 Many schools are moving towards a more global approach to the identification of potential high-risk students through the development of a school based team that, depending on the state in which the student resides, may be referred to as: a. The Multidisciplinary Team (MDT) b. School Based Support Team (SBST) c. Multifactor Team (MFT) d. All of the above 7.2 The MDT is responsible for gathering all the necessary information on a child in order to determine the most effective and practical direction for him or her in education: a. True b. False 7.3 The MDT should always use only one single procedure as criteria for determining an appropriate educational program for an individual with special needs: a. True b. False 7.4 The professional most often responsible for doing a comprehensive achievement battery to determine where the child’s strengths and weaknesses are with respect to academics when compared to national norms, doing classroom observations, making recommendations for the child’s future educational program (IEP) and monitoring the student’s progress over time is the a. Physical therapist b. Special education evaluator c. Speech and language pathologist d. Occupational therapist 7.5 Which of the following is not normally a responsibility of the speech and language pathologist? a. Determining where the child is functioning with respect to his speech and language abilities when compared to the norms. b. Determining if there are any significant difficulties in either expressing or understanding language c. Giving intelligence and achievement tests d. Making a recommendation for a hearing evaluation.

7.6 A ________ normally evaluates gross motor skills (e.g., walking, arm movements, throwing a ball), self-help skills, and job related skills when necessary. a. School psychologist b. Guidance counselor c. Physical therapist d. Occupational therapist 79

7.7 A ________ normally evaluates fine motor skills (e.g. picking things up with 2 fingers, holding a pencil, etc.). evaluates a. School psychologist b. Guidance counselor c. Physical therapist d. Occupational therapist 7.8 The ________ is normally the first link to determining whether a suspected disability exists. a. School psychologist b. Guidance counselor c. Physical therapist d. Regular education teacher 7.9 The regular education teacher will normally be the professional to: a. Inform other professionals within the school that a problem appears to be arising with a given child. b. Explain what the presenting concerns are and when she sees them occurring most often. c. Implement any pre-referral recommendations or implement the goals which are set forth by the Committee on Special Education for a child d. All of the above could be responsibilities of the regular education teacher 7.10 The role of the social worker is often to do which of the following? a. Compile all of the relevant background history on a child. b. Meet with parents to discuss family status, family dynamics, potential conflicts, and so on. c. Run group therapy within the school. d. All of the above may be the responsibility of the school social worker 7.11 The professional most often responsible for diagnosing intelligence, visual motor coordination, and emotional behavior of children is the a. School psychologist b. Guidance counselor c. Physical therapist d. General education teacher 7.12 A person under the age of 18 years of age who has been given certain adult rights by the court is an emancipated minor: a. True b. False 7.13 All of the following symptoms might suggest the recommendation for an academic evaluation EXCEPT: a. Consistently low test scores on group achievement tests b. Indications of delayed processing when faced with academic skills c. Labored handwriting after grade 3 d. Excellent word recall

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7.14. All of the following symptoms might suggest the recommendation for a speech and language evaluation EXCEPT: a. Difficulty pronouncing words through grade 3 b. Immature or delayed speech patterns c. Difficulty labeling thoughts or objects d. Difficulty putting thoughts into words e. All of the above would warrant a recommendation for a speech and language evaluation 7.15 All of the following symptoms might suggest the recommendation for a psychological evaluation EXCEPT: a. High levels of tension and anxiety exhibited in behavior b. Aggressive behavior c. High motivation d. Patterns of denial 7.16 All of the following symptoms might suggest the recommendation for a psychological evaluation EXCEPT: a. Oppositional behavior b. Despondency c. Inconsistent academic performance, ranging from very low to very high d. History of inappropriate judgment e. Strong impulse control 7.17 An objective of a psychological assessment is to: a. Determine the child's present overall levels of intellectual ability b. Determine the child's present verbal intellectual ability c. Determine the child's non-language intellectual ability d. Explore indications of greater potential e. All of the above 7.18 An objective of the psychological assessment is: a. To find possible patterns involving learning style i.e. verbal comprehension, concentration b. To ascertain possible influences of tension and anxiety on testing results c. To determine the child’s intellectual ability to deal with present grade level academic demands d. To explore the influence of intellectual ability as a contributing factor to a child's past and present school difficulties i.e. limited intellectual ability found in retardation e. All of the above 7.19 A perceptual evaluation is suggested when the team suspects discrepancies in the child’s ability to receive and process information. a. True b. False

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7.20 The auditory modality is: a. The delivery of information through sound b. The delivery of information through sight c. The delivery of information through touching d. The delivery of information through movement 7.21 __________ refers to whether a test measures what it is supposed to measure. a. Validity b. Reliability c. Neither a nor b d. Both a and b 7.22 __________ refers to consistency of test results. a. Validity b. Reliability c. Neither a nor b d. Both a and b 7.23 Parents have the ability to play a very important role in the assessment process. a. True b. False 7.24 Which of the following is an area covered in a parent intake? a. Identifying Data and family information b. Developmental history c. Academic history d. Social history e. All of the above 7.25 Reassuring parents of confidentiality in assessment is very important part of the parent intake. a. True b. False 7.26 Which of the following is FALSE? a. Parents may initiate the evaluation process by requesting that the school system evaluate their child for the presence of a disability and the need for special education. b. Parents must be notified by the school, and give their consent, before any initial evaluation of the child may be conducted. c. Parents may wish to talk with the person responsible for conducting the evaluation to find out what the evaluation will involve. d. All of the above are true

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7.27 Which of the following is FALSE? a. Parents may find it very useful to become informed about assessment issues in general and any specific issues relevant to their child (e.g., assessment of minority children, use of specific tests or assessment techniques with a specific disability). b. Parents should advocate for a comprehensive evaluation of their child c. Parents may not suggest specific questions they would like to see addressed through the evaluation. d. Parents should inform the school of any accommodations the child will need 7.28 Which of the following is FALSE? a. Parents should inform the school if they themselves need an interpreter or other accommodations during any of their discussions with the school. b. Parents may prepare their child for the evaluation process, explaining what will happen and, where necessary, reducing the child's anxiety. c. Parents need to share with the school their insights into the child's background (developmental, medical, and academic) and past and present school performance. d. Parents should avoid sharing with the school any prior school records, reports, tests, or evaluation information available on their child 7.29 When arranging and/or conducting a parent interview: a. Help the parent feel comfortable and at ease by setting up a receptive environment. b. Never view parents as adversaries even if they are angry or hostile. c. Inform parents every step of the way as to the purpose of meetings and the steps involved in the referral process. d. Inform parents of the purpose of any testing that the child will undergo. e. All of the above 7.30 When arranging and/or conducting a parent interview, which of the following is NOT true? a. Help the parent feel comfortable and at ease by setting up a receptive environment. b. View parents as adversaries if they are angry or hostile c. Inform parents every step of the way as to the purpose of meetings and the steps involved in the referral process. d. Inform parents of the purpose of any testing that the child will undergo. e. All of the above 7.31 When arranging and/or conducting a parent interview, which of the following is NOT true? a. Let parents know that if the testing reveals a significant discrepancy between ability and achievement, then the case needs to be reviewed by the CSE b. Reassure parents about the confidentiality of information gathered about their child c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b

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7.32 Of the following rights guaranteed to parents during the evaluation phase of the assessment process, which one is NOT true? a. The parent should receive a notice regarding the evaluation and their due process rights. b. The parent does not have to consent to the evaluation c. The parent may give consent for evaluation or withhold consent, or request a conference regarding an initial evaluation. d. It is the parents’ guarantee that more than one evaluation should be involved in assessing their child’s suspected disability.

7.33 Of the following rights guaranteed to parents during the evaluation phase of the assessment process, which one is NOT true? a. Evaluations should be administered in the child's dominant language. b. The child will undergo a complete evaluation and a recommendation will be made within 120 school days from the time of the parent’s consent c. The parent will be provided a list of resources where independent evaluations can be obtained. d. If the parents’ dominant language is other than English, all information provided to the parent must be in the dominant language.

7.34 Of the following rights guaranteed to parents during the evaluation phase of the assessment process, which one is NOT true? a. The child must be observed in his or her classroom by only the classroom teacher b. The parent should be given a description of the proposed evaluation and its intended purpose prior to testing. c. The parents are entitled to receive information on their child’s areas of educational need.

7.35 Confirmation of names, addresses, phone numbers, dates of birth, siblings names ages and dates of birth, parent’s occupations, other adults residing within the home, marital status of parents are covered in the area: a. Identifying Data and Family Information b. Developmental History c. Academic History d. Social History e. All of the above 7.36 Length of delivery, type of delivery, complications if any, approximate ages of critical stages i.e. walking, talking, hospital stays, illnesses other than normal ones, sleeping habits, eating habits, high fevers, last eye exam, last hearing exam, falls of injuries, traumatic experiences, medications, prior testing, are covered in the area of: a. Identifying Data and Family Information b. Developmental History c. Academic History d. Social History e. All of the above

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7.37 Number of schools attended, types of schools attended, adjustment to kindergarten, best school years, worse school year, best subject, worse subject, prior teacher reports, prior teacher comments, homework behavior are covered in the area of: a. Identifying Data and Family Information b. Developmental History c. Academic History d. Social History e. All of the above 7.38 Groups or organizations, social behavior in a group situation, hobbies, areas of interest, circle of friends, sports activities are covered in the area of: a. Identifying Data and Family Information b. Developmental History c. Academic History d. Social History e. All of the above

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Chapter 8 Multiple Choice Questions 8.1 Under IDEIA, an evaluation means procedures used to determine whether a child has a disability and the nature and extent of the special education and related services that the child needs a. True b. False 8.2 Before any evaluations, testing, and placement can be done, there must be parental consent a. True b. False 8.3 How many criteria are there for parental consent? a. None b. One c. Two d. Three 8.4 When used with reference to a person of limited English-speaking ability, native language means the language normally used by the individual, or in the case of a child, the language normally used by whom? a. The parents of the child b. The child c. Grandparents of the child d. Teachers of the child 8.5 Mode of communication refers to communication normally used by individuals who are deaf, blind or have no written language, and may include Braille, sign language, oral communication or some form of technologically enhanced communication a. True b. False 8.6 When can consent for an initial evaluation of a child with a disability be revoked? a. Within 5 days of parental signature b. Within 5 days of parental signature c. Never d. Consent is voluntary and may be revoked at any time 8.7 The initial evaluation for a suspected disability must be conducted within how many days of receiving parental consent? a. 15 b. 30 c. 60 d. 90 86

8.8 All testing materials and procedures used for the purposes of evaluation and placement of children with disabilities must be selected and administered so as not to be racially or culturally discriminatory a. True b. False 8.9 _______ refers to the extent to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure. a. Validity b. Reliability c. Both validity and reliability d. None of the above 8.10 _________ is a method for assessing the validity of an instrument by comparing its scores with another criteria known to already be a measure of the same trait or skill. a. Criterion related validity b. Construct validity c. Content validity d. Reliability 8.11 Criterion related validity is usually expressed as a _______ between the test in question and the criterion measure. a. Mean b. Standard deviation c. Correlation d. Median 8.12 Which of the following is the strongest validity coefficient? a. +.32 b. +.46 c. +.67 d. +.91 8.13 Which of the following is the weakest validity coefficient a. +.32 b. +.46 c. +.67 d. +.91 8.14 _______ is/are an example(s) of a type of criterion related validity: a. Concurrent validity b. Predictive validity. c. Concurrent and predictive validity d. Neither concurrent nor predictive validity

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8.15 _________ is the extent to which a procedure correlates with the current behavior of subjects. a. Concurrent validity b. Construct validity c. Content validity d. Predictive validity 8.16 ________ refers to how precisely a person’s present performance (for example, a test score) estimates that person’s performance on the criterion measure at approximately the same time. a. Concurrent validity b. Construct validity c. Content validity d. Predictive validity 8.17 ________ is the extent to which a procedure allows accurate predictions about a subject’s future behavior. a. Concurrent validity b. Construct validity c. Content validity d. Predictive validity 8.18 ________ is a measure of a specific instrument’s ability to predict future performance on some other measure or criterion at a later date. a. Concurrent validity b. Construct validity c. Content validity d. Predictive validity 8.19 Many colleges believe that the SAT has ________ with respect to how well a student will do in college. a. Concurrent validity b. Construct validity c. Content validity d. Predictive validity 8.20 _________ refers to whether the individual items of a test represent what you actually want to assess. a. Concurrent validity b. Construct validity c. Content validity d. Predictive validity

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8.21 When we evaluate _______, we are asking “ Does the content of our measure fairly and accurately reflect the content desired to be measured?” a. Concurrent validity b. Construct validity c. Content validity d. Predictive validity 8.22 ________ describes how well a test’s items reflect the area of learning to be assessed. a. Concurrent validity b. Construct validity c. Content validity d. Predictive validity 8.23 ________ is the extent to which a test measures a theoretical construct or attribute. a. Concurrent validity b. Construct validity c. Content validity d. Predictive validity 8.24 An example of a constructs is: a. Reasoning ability b. Self-concept c. Creativity d. All of the above are examples of constructs 8.25 A test that has good _______ validity has high positive correlations with other tests measuring the same construct. a. Convergent b. Discriminant c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 8.26 A test that has good ________ validity has low correlations with tests that measure different constructs. a. Convergent b. Discriminant c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 8.27 Which of the following are test related factors which could affect the validity of a test? a. Anxiety b. Motivation c. Understanding test instructions d. Deficiencies in educational opportunities e. All of the above

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8.28 Which of the following are intervening events which could affect the validity of a test? a. Death of a parent b. Parental divorce c. Breakup with a boyfriend d. Move to a new school district e. All of the above 8.29 If the reliability of a test is ______ then the validity will also be _____. a. Low/low b. Low/high c. High/low d. High/high 8.30 ________ refers to the consistency of measurements. a. Criterion related validity b. Construct validity c. Content validity d. Reliability 8.31 If a test lacks reliability, it is not: a. Stable b. Reproducible c. Predictable d. Dependable e. All of the above 8.32 Reliability coefficients can range in value from: a. -1.00 to +1.00 b. 0.00 to 1.00 c. -1.00 to 0.00 d. -1.00 to -2.00 8.33 The larger the reliability coefficient, the more repeatable or reliable the test scores a. True b. False 8.34 The symbol used to denote a reliability coefficient is the letter _____ with two identical subscripts. a. p b. r c. f d. y

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8.35 A reliability coefficient value below ______may have limited applicability. a. rxx = .99 b. rxx = .88 c. rxx = .75 d. rxx = .70 8.36 A reliability coefficient value of rxx = .75 is interpreted as: a. Excellent b. Good c. Adequate d. May have limited applicability 8.37 A reliability coefficient value of rxx = .96 is interpreted as: a. Excellent b. Good c. Adequate d. May have limited applicability 8.38 A reliability coefficient of rxx = .45 is interpreted as: a. Excellent b. Good c. Adequate d. May have limited applicability 8.39 ________ suggests that subjects tend to obtain the same score when tested at different times. a. Test-retest reliability b. Alternate forms reliability c. Inter-rater reliability d. Split-half reliability 8.40 If a test has high ________, a student who produces a low score now should also produce a low score later, and a student scoring high now should also produce a high score later. a. Test-retest reliability b. Alternate forms reliability c. Inter-rater reliability d. Split-half reliability 8.41 _________ is evident when there is a high positive correlation between the scores obtained from two testings. a. Test-retest reliability b. Alternate forms reliability c. Inter-rater reliability d. Split-half reliability

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8.42 ________ indicates that subjects’ scores on some trials consistently math their scores on other trials. a. Test-retest reliability b. Alternate forms reliability c. Inter-rater reliability d. Split-half reliability 8.43 ________ is often done by computing each subject’s total odd score and correlate it with the even scores. a. Test-retest reliability b. Alternate forms reliability c. Inter-rater reliability d. Split-half reliability 8.44 ________ is a procedure for determining accuracy that involves correlating two halves of the same test. a. Test-retest reliability b. Alternate forms reliability c. Inter-rater reliability d. Split-half reliability 8.45 _________ involves having two raters independently observe and record specified behaviors during the same time period. a. Test-retest reliability b. Alternate forms reliability c. Inter-rater reliability d. Split-half reliability 8.46 In order to assess interrater reliability, you work with someone to examine how many times a child gets up from his chair over the course of the day. You agree with your partner 80 times but had different recordings on 20 separate occasions. What is the interrater reliability? a. 80% b. 65% c. 75% d. 50% 8.47 ________ is also known as equivalent forms reliability or parallel form reliability. a. Test-retest reliability b. Alternate forms reliability c. Inter-rater reliability d. Split-half reliability e. Alternate forms reliability

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8.48 Determining _________ requires a test developer to create two forms of the same test, giving both forms to students, and comparing the scores from the two forms. a. Test-retest reliability b. Alternate forms reliability c. Inter-rater reliability d. Split-half reliability e. Alternate forms reliability 8.49 When you administer a test you get a score. This score is known as the a. Obtained score b. True score c. Error score 8.50 In theory, the obtained score consists of ______: a. True score b. Error score c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 8.51 The statistical method to determine the amount of error in a given instrument is the : a. SPD b. SDR c. SEM d. SLR 8.52 Which of the following are NOT factors which can affect reliability? a. Test Length b. Test-retest interval c. Variability of scores d. Guessing e. All of the above can affect reliability 8.53 No single procedure can be used as the sole criterion for determining an appropriate educational program for a child. a. True b. False 8.54 In general, which of the following are general objectives of a comprehensive assessment? a. Identify the language needed for instruction and special education services b. Identify a student's strengths and weaknesses in each of these areas in order to formulate realistic expectations for achievement; c. Identify a student's strengths and weaknesses in each of these areas in order to facilitate enhanced student outcomes through effective teaching; d. All of the above

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8.55 When doing an evaluation of a child for a suspected disability, all tests must be given in the child’s native language and all reports must be written in the parent’s native language a. True b. False

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Chapter 9 Multiple Choice Questions 9.1 A student’s academic achievement skills are reviewed to determine how well he or she is performing in which core skill area? a. Reading b. Spelling c. Mathematics d. Writing e. All of the above 9.2 Individual achievement tests rather than group achievement tests are preferred for assessment of school performance in special education. a. True b. False 9.3 Which of the following is NOT a reason why individually administered achievement tests are used in assessment in special education? a. They are designed to assess children at all ages and grade levels. b. They can assess the most basic skills of spelling, math, and reading. c. They allow the examiner to observe a child’s test taking strategies. d. They can focus on a specific area of concern. e. All of the above are reasons why individually administered achievement tests are used in assessment in special education 9.4 With respect to oral reading errors, omissions of a word or groups of words means: a. The student will skip individual words or groups of words b. The student inserts one or more words into the sentence being read. c. The student replaces one or more words in the passage by one or more meaningful words. d. The student replaces one or more words in the passage by one or more meaningful words.

9.5 With respect to oral reading errors, insertion of a word or groups of words means: a. The student will skip individual words or groups of words b. The student inserts one or more words into the sentence being read c. The student replaces one or more words in the passage by one or more meaningful words. d. The student replaces one or more words in the passage by one or more meaningful words. e. The student's pronunciation of a word bears so little resemblance to the proper pronunciation.

9.6 With respect to oral reading errors, substitution of one meaningful word for another means: a. The student will skip individual words or groups of words b. The student inserts one or more words into the sentence being read. c. The student replaces one or more words in the passage by one or more meaningful words d. The student replaces one or more words in the passage by one or more meaningful words. e. The student's pronunciation of a word bears so little resemblance to the proper pronunciation.

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9.7 With respect to oral reading errors, gross mispronunciation of a word means: a. The student will skip individual words or groups of words b. The student inserts one or more words into the sentence being read c. The student replaces one or more words in the passage by one or more meaningful words d. The student replaces one or more words in the passage by one or more meaningful words e. The student's pronunciation of a word bears so little resemblance to the proper pronunciation 9.8 With respect to oral reading errors, hesitation means: a. The student hesitates for 2 or more seconds before pronouncing a word b. The student changes the order of words appearing in a sentence c. The student fails to observe punctuation d. The student's pronunciation of a word bears so little resemblance to the proper pronunciation 9.9 With respect to oral reading errors, inversion or changing of word order means: a. The student hesitates for 2 or more seconds before pronouncing a word b. The student changes the order of words appearing in a sentence c. The student fails to observe punctuation d. The student's pronunciation of a word bears so little resemblance to the proper pronunciation 9.10 With respect to oral reading errors, disregard of punctuation means: a. The student hesitates for 2 or more seconds before pronouncing a word b. The student changes the order of words appearing in a sentence c. The student fails to observe punctuation d. The student's pronunciation of a word bears so little resemblance to the proper pronunciation 9.11 A miscue is the difference between what a reader states is on a page and what is actually on the page. a. True b. False 9.12 Miscues are generally significant when: a. The meaning of the sentence or passages is significantly changed or altered and the student does not correct the miscue b. A non word is used in place of the word in the passage c. Only a partial word is substituted for the word or phrase in the passage d. A word is pronounced for the student e. All of the above 9.13 Miscues are generally not significant when: a. The meaning of the sentence or passage undergoes no change or only minimal change b. They are self-corrected by the student c. They are acceptable in the student's dialect d. They are later read correctly in the same passage e. All of the above

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9.14 _________ assesses a student’s ability to understand what he or she is reading. a. Reading decoding b. Spelling c. Reading comprehension d. Oral reading 9.15 With respect to reading comprehension skills, literal comprehension means: a. The student reads the paragraph or story and is then asked questions based on it b. The student reads a paragraph or story and must interpret what has been read. c. The student is read a paragraph or story by the examiner and is then asked questions about what he or she has read. d. The student reads a paragraph or story and then analyzes, evaluates, or makes judgments on what he or she has read. e. The student reads a paragraph or story and his or her emotional responses to the text are evaluated by the examiner.

9.16 With respect to reading comprehension skills, inferential comprehension means: a. The student reads the paragraph or story and is then asked questions based on it b. The student reads a paragraph or story and must interpret what has been read c. The student is read a paragraph or story by the examiner and is then asked questions about what he or she has read d. The student reads a paragraph or story and then analyzes, evaluates, or makes judgments on what he or she has read 9.17 With respect to reading comprehension skills, listening comprehension means: a. The student reads the paragraph or story and is then asked questions based on it. b. The student reads a paragraph or story and must interpret what has been read. c. The student is read a paragraph or story by the examiner and is then asked questions about what he or she has read d. The student reads a paragraph or story and then analyzes, evaluates, or makes judgments on what he or she has read e. The student reads a paragraph or story and his or her emotional responses to the text are evaluated by the examiner.

9.18 With respect to reading comprehension skills, critical comprehension means: a. The student reads the paragraph or story and is then asked questions based on it. b. The student reads a paragraph or story and must interpret what has been read. c. The student is read a paragraph or story by the examiner and is then asked questions about what he or she has read. d. The student reads a paragraph or story and then analyzes, evaluates, or makes judgments on what he or she has read e. The student reads a paragraph or story and his or her emotional responses to the text are evaluated by the examiner.

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9.19 With respect to reading comprehension skills, affective comprehension means: a. The student reads the paragraph or story and is then asked questions based on it. b. The student reads a paragraph or story and must interpret what has been read. c. The student is read a paragraph or story by the examiner and is then asked questions about what he or she has read. d. The student reads a paragraph or story and then analyzes, evaluates, or makes judgments on what he or she has read. e. The student reads a paragraph or story and his or her emotional responses to the text are evaluated by the examiner 9.20 When evaluating the reading behavior of a child on reading comprehension subtests, which of the following questions should be asked? a. Does the student guess at answers to the questions presented? b. Does the student show an unwillingness to read or attempts at reading? c. Does the student skip unknown words? d. Does the student disregard punctuation? e. All of the above 9.21 When evaluating the reading behavior of a child on reading comprehension subtests, which of the following questions should be asked? a. Does the student exhibit inattention to the story line? b. Does the student drop the tone of his or her voice at the end of sentences? c. Does the student display problems with sounding out word parts and blends? d. Does the student exhibit a negative attitude towards reading? e. All of the above 9.22 The purpose of word recognition tests are to explore the student’s ability with respect to sight vocabulary. a. True b. False 9.23 Word attack skills are those used to derive meaning and/or pronunciation of a word through context clues, structural analysis or phonics. a. True b. False 9.24 Which of the following is NOT used primarily as a reading assessment measure? a. GORT-5 b. SORT-R3 c. WRMT-3 d. TWS-5

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9.25 The term “writing” refers to a variety of interrelated graphic skills, including composition, which is: a. The ability to generate ideas and to express them in an acceptable grammar, while adhering to certain stylistic conventions b. The ability to use letter to construct words in accordance with accepted usage c. The ability to physically execute the graphic marks necessary to produce legible compositions or messages d. None of the above 9.26 The TOWE, WPT, and TOWL-4 are examples of ________ tests a. Reading b. Math c. Reading comprehension d. Written Language 9.27 Which of the following is NOT a written language test? a. TOWE b. TEWL-2 c. TOWL-4 d. TEMA-2 9.28 _______ refers to the study of numbers and their relationships to time, space, volume, and geometry, while ________ refers to the operations or computations performed. a. Arithmetic/Mathematics b. Mathematics/Arithmetic c. Mathematics/Reading d. None of the above 9.29 Mathematics involves which of the following skills? a. The ability to solve problems b. The ability to recognize how to interpret results c. The ability to apply mathematics in practical situations d. The ability to use mathematics for prediction e. All of the above 9.30 Mathematics involves which of the following skills? a. The ability to estimate b. The ability to do computational skills c. The ability to understand measurement d. The ability to create and read graphs and charts e. All of the above

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9.31 The Arithmetic classifications that consist of Numeration, Fractions, Geometry and Algebra is called: a. Content b. Operations c. Applications d. None of the above 9.32 The Arithmetic classifications that consist of Counting, Computation and Reasoning is called: a. Content b. Operations c. Applications d. None of the above 9.33 The Arithmetic classifications that consist of Measurement, Reading Graphs and Tables, Money and Budgeting Time, and Problem Solving is called: a. Content b. Operations c. Applications d. None of the above 9.34 The mathematical error a student makes when he uses subtraction when he should have added is called: a. Incorrect operation b. Incorrect number fact c. Incorrect algorithm d. Random error 9.35 If a student recalls the product of 8 x7 as 49, this is the mathematical error of: a. Incorrect operation b. Incorrect number fact c. Incorrect algorithm d. Random error 9.36 If the procedures used by the student to solve the problem are inappropriate where he skips a step, applies the correct steps in the wrong sequence or use an inaccurate method, this is the mathematical error called: a. Incorrect operation b. Incorrect number fact c. Incorrect algorithm d. Random error 9.37 Handwriting can play an important role in mathematics. a. True b. False

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9.38 The TOMA-3 and TEMA-3 are examples of ________ assessment measures: a. Reading b. Mathematics c. Spelling d. Reading comprehension 9.39 ________ is the ability to use letters to construct words in accordance with accepted usage. a. Reading b. Math c. Reading comprehension d. Spelling 9.40 Learning to spell is a developmental process, and young children go through a number of stages as they begin to acquire written language skills. a. True b. False 9.41 Which of the following questions should be addressed before one begins to analyze the results of the spelling subtest? a. Does the child have sufficient mental ability to learn to spell? b. Are the child’s hearing, speech, and vision adequate? c. What are the child’s general level of spelling ability according to teachers’ comments and past evaluations or standardized tests? d. All of the above 9.42 Which of the following is important to know when analyzing a child’s spelling ability? a. The child’s attitude towards spelling in the classroom b. The extent to which the child relies on a dictionary in the classroom c. The extent of spelling errors in classroom written work d. Any patterns of procrastination or avoidance of written work e. All of the above 9.43 Which of the following is important to know when analyzing a child’s spelling ability? a. The student’s study habits and methods of work in the classroom b. The history of scores on classroom spelling tests c. Any observable handwriting difficulties d. Any evidence of fatigue as a factor in the child’s spelling performance e. All of the above 9.44 The TWS-5 is a _______ assessment measures: a. Reading b. Reading comprehension c. Spelling d. Mathematics

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9.45 Which of the following is NOT a comprehensive test of educational achievement? a. WIAT-III b. KTEA-3 c. PIAT-R/NU d. TAT 9.46 Which of the following is NOT a comprehensive test of educational achievement? a. WIAT-III b. WRAT4 c. WJ-IV ACH d. TWS-5

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Chapter 10 Multiple Choice Questions 10.1 ________ is a general term referring to the ability to learn and to behave adaptively. a. Academic achievement b. Transitional assessment c. Intelligence d. None of the above 10.2 Which term/phrase is associated with intelligence? a. Ability to learn b. Adaptive behavior c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 10.3 In special education, intelligence testing is usually completed by a: a. Psychologist b. Special education teacher c. Social worker d. Physical therapist 10.4 Which of the professionals in special education do not need to understand intelligence tests and what they mean? a. Psychologist. b. Special education teacher c. Social worker d. Physical therapist e. All professionals in special education need to understand intelligence tests and what they mean 10.5 It is very important that special educators learn how to interpret the results of intellectual measures so that they can: a. Substantiate a diagnosis b. Help determine learning style c. Assist in making recommendations d. Arrive at accurate levels of intellectual expectation e. All of the above 10.6 Which skill does intelligence tests NOT attempt to measure? a. Social judgment b. Level of thinking c. Language skills d. Perceptual organization e. Intelligence tests attempt to measure all of the above

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10.7 Which skill does intelligence tests NOT attempt to measure? a. Processing speed b. Spatial abilities c. Common sense d. Long and short term memory e. Intelligence tests attempt to measure all of the above 10.8 Which skill does intelligence tests NOT attempt to measure? a. Abstract thinking b. Motor speed c. Word knowledge d. Intelligence tests attempt to measure all of the above 10.9 On intelligence tests, responses to items concerning perceptual organization, processing speed, and spatial abilities are less dependent on experience and verbal skill and more on handeye coordination and reasoning abilities. a. True b. False 10.10 Most individually administered intelligence tests can determine, at least to some degree, a child's ability to attend, process information quickly, distinguish relevant from less relevant details, put events in sequence, and retrieve words from memory. a. True b. False 10.11 When children take intelligence tests they normally receive an overall: a. ID score b. IQ score c. II score d. IX score 10.12 IQ is an abbreviation for: a. Intelligence Quotient b. Intellectual Quality c. Intelligence Quality d. Intellectual Quasi terminology 10.13 The IQ score often represents a measure of the child’s overall potential relative to the norms of his or her age group a. True b. False

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10.14 On almost all intelligence tests, the mean IQ score is _____ with a standard deviation of _____. a. 100/10 b. 100/15 c. 50/5 d. 50/15 10.15 For IQ tests with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15, a score of 73 would represent a classification of: a. Borderline b. Low Average c. Average d. High Average e. Superior 10.16 For IQ tests with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15, a score of 83 would represent a classification of: a. Borderline b. Low Average c. Average d. High Average e. Superior 10.17 For IQ tests with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15, a score of 93 would represent a classification of: a. Borderline b. Low Average c. Average d. High Average e. Superior 10.18 For IQ tests with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15, a score of 103 would represent a classification of: a. Borderline b. Low Average c. Average d. High Average e. Superior 10.19 For IQ tests with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15, a score of 113 would represent a classification of: a. Borderline b. Low Average c. Average d. High Average e. Superior 105

10.20 For IQ tests with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15, a score of 123 would represent a classification of: a. Borderline b. Low Average c. Average d. High Average e. Superior 10.21 The percentage of students that have an IQ in the Developmentally Delayed range is a. 2.2 b. 6.7 c. 16.1 d. 50 10.22 The percentage of students that have an IQ in the Borderline range is a. 2.2 b. 6.7 c. 16.1 d. 50 10.23 The percentage of students that have an IQ in the Low Average range is a. 2.2 b. 6.7 c. 16.1 d. 50 10.24 The percentage of students that have an IQ in the Average range is a. 2.2 b. 6.7 c. 16.1 d. 50 10.25 The percentage of students that have an IQ in the High Average range is a. 2.2 b. 6.7 c. 16.1 d. 50 10.26 The percentage of students that have an IQ in the Superior range is a. 2.2 b. 6.7 c. 16.1 d. 50

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10.27 The percentage of students that have an IQ in the Very Superior range is a. 2.2 b. 6.7 c. 16.1 d. 50 10.28 Which of the following is NOT true about IQ scores: a. IQ scores are less stable for school-aged children than for preschoolers and less stable among individuals with disabilities than among those without disabilities. b. IQ scores can change from childhood to adulthood. c. It is likely that environmental factors, socioeconomic status, values, family structure, and genetic factors all play a role in determining IQ scores. d. Factors such as low birth weight, malnutrition, anoxia (lack of oxygen), and fetal alcohol exposure have a negative impact on IQ scores. e. Intelligence and academic achievement appear to be highly related.

10.29 Once an IQ score is calculated, the psychologist can make which determination? a. The child's present overall levels of intellectual ability b. The child's present verbal intellectual ability c. The child's nonlanguage intellectual ability d. Indications of greater intellectual potential e. All of the above 10.30 Once an IQ score is calculated, the psychologist can make which determination? a. Possible patterns involving learning style, i.e., verbal comprehension, concentration b. Possible influence of tension and anxiety on testing results c. Intellectual ability to deal with present grade-level academic demands d. The influence of intellectual ability as a contributing factor to a child's past and present school difficulties, i.e., limited intellectual ability found in retardation e. All of the above 10.31 Which of the following is NOT an index on the WISC-V? a. Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI) b. Visual Spatial Index (VSI) c. Common Sense Index (CSI) d. Processing Speed Index (PSI) 10.32 On each subtest on the WISC-V, the student receives a scaled score, ranging from: a. 1 to 10 b. 1 to 13 c. 1 to 19 d. 1 to 25

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10.33 Scaled scores on the WISC-V have a mean of ____ and a standard deviation of _____. a. 10/3 b. 10/5 c. 3/1 d. 100/15 10.34 Which of the following is NOT an index on the WISC-V? a. Working Memory Index (VCI) b. Fluid Reasoning Index (FSI) c. Reading Speed Index (RI) d. Processing Speed Index (PSI) 10.35 A scaled score of 7 on one of the Wechsler subtests would represent a classification of: a. Low Average b. Average c. High Average d. Superior 10.36 A scaled score of 10 on one of the Wechsler subtests would represent a classification of: a. Low Average b. Average c. High Average d. Superior 10.37 A scaled score of 13 on one of the Wechsler subtests would represent a classification of: a. Low Average b. Average c. High Average d. Superior 10.38 A scaled score of 15 on one of the Wechsler subtests would represent a classification of: a. Low Average b. Average c. High Average d. Superior 10.39 The Wechsler scale to use for a child 5 years old would be the: a. WISC-V b. WAIS-IV c. WPPSI-IV 10.40 The Wechsler scale to use for a student 13 years old would be the: a. WISC-V b. WAIS-IV c. WPPSI-IV

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10.41 The Wechsler scale to use for an adult 25 years old would be the: a. WISC-V b. WAIS-IV c. WPPSI-IV 10.42 The WISC-V is : a. An individualized IQ test b. A group IQ test c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 10.43 The Stanford Binet-5 comprises ____ tests divided according to _____ areas: a. 15/2 b. 15/4 c. 17/10 d. 14/3 10.44 Which of the following is not an area on the Stanford Binet-5? a. Verbal Reasoning b. Quantitative Reasoning c. Abstract/Visual Reasoning d. Projective Reasoning 10.45 Which of the following is NOT a subtest on the KABC-2? a. Hand Movements b. Number Recall c. Word Order d. Similarities 10.46 Which intelligence test measures the six cognitive areas of Vocabulary, General Information, Similarities and Differences, Comprehension, Quantitative, and Auditory Memory? a. WISC-IV b. K-BIT-2 c. K-ABC-2 d. Slosson Intelligence Test-R3 10.47 Which intelligence test has no oral responses, reading, writing or object manipulation involved? a. WISC-V b. K-BIT-2 c. K-ABC-2 d. C-TONI-2

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Chapter 11 Multiple Choice Questions 11.1 When a referral is made on a child for a suspected disability, a behavioral and emotional assessment is a normal part of the psychoeducational evaluation. a. True b. False 11.2 Behavioral and emotional measures are usually administered and reported on by the: a. School psychologist b. School nurse c. School social worker d. Special education evaluator 11.3 The purpose of a(n) ________ assessment is to gain an awareness of what environmental factors, if any, are influencing the behavior that the child is exhibiting. a. Perceptual b. Behavioral c. Intellectual d. Academic achievement 11.4 In order to do a complete and thorough evaluation of behavior, which of the following situations should be assessed? a. Observation of a specific situation. b. Observation in various settings c. Observation at different times during the day d. All of the above 11.5 The first goal of observation is to determine the target behaviors. a. True b. False 11.6 ______ behaviors are those which the person seeks to observe when doing the observation. a. Projective b. Perceptual c. Target d. Performance 11.7 In which type of recording does the observer record all behaviors and interactions within a given time frame (e.g. Recording a child’s behavior from 9:00 a.m. until 10:00 a.m.)? a. Anecdotal recording b. Event recording c. Latency recording d. Duration recording 110

11.8 In which type of recording does the observer look specifically for one target behavior and record the frequency with which it occurs? a. Anecdotal recording b. Event recording c. Latency recording d. Duration recording 11.9 In which type of recording does the observer determine the amount of time between a given stimulus for the child and the response (e.g. The time it takes a student to get out his pencil after the teacher says “Take out your pencil”)? a. Anecdotal recording b. Event recording c. Latency recording d. Duration recording 11.10 In which type of recording does the observer note the amount of time a target behavior occurs (e.g. Watching a child for one hour who is supposed to be reading-The child reads only 12 minutes of that time)? a. Anecdotal recording b. Event recording c. Latency recording d. Duration recording 11.11 Observations should provide which of the following? a. The nature of the most frequently seen behaviors b. Information which can be related to the types of services the child may need c. Information to help with intervention plans and instructional goals for the child d. Baseline information against which progress can be measured once intervention begins e. All of the above 11.12 Interviews can be very effective because they are: a. Personal b. Emotional c. Flexible. d. All of the above 11.13 Which of the following interviews has a predetermined set of questions asked? a. Structured Interview b. Unstructured Interview c. Both and b d. Neither a nor b

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11.14 Which of the following could have an adverse impact on a student during testing? a. Noise b. Poor lighting c. The presence of antagonistic peers d. An intimidating examiner e. All of the above 11.15 The ability of a student to adapt or shift from one task to another without difficulty is a very important factor in determining learning style and may be one predictor for his or her successful completion of a task. a. True b. False 11.16 Assessment of a child's behaviors involves knowledge about all of the following EXCEPT: a. The degree to which he or she believes that personal behaviors make a difference in his or her life b. His or her tolerance for frustration c. General activity level d. How the child views him or herself e. All of the above 11.17 _________ tests try to elicit feelings from the student about he or she feels about life through projection of emotions. a. Intelligence b. Achievement c. Visual-motor d. Projective 11.18 The three most common types of _______ tests used in school systems for assessment are drawing tests, apperception tests, and sentence completion tests a. Intelligence b. Achievement c. Visual-motor d. Projective 11.19 In which projective test does the examiner look for certain patterns in the drawings and the way in which the child handles what is being asked of him? a. Drawing tests b. Apperception tests c. Sentence completion tests d. None of the above

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11.20 The Goodenough Harris and the DAP:SPED are examples of which type of projective test? a. Drawing tests b. Apperception tests c. Sentence completion tests d. None of the above 11.21 _________ require the child to view various picture cards and “tell a story” about what it is he is seeing. a. Drawing tests b. Apperception tests c. Sentence completion tests d. None of the above 11.22 The CAT and TAT are examples of: a. Drawing tests b. Apperception tests c. Sentence completion tests d. None of the above 11.23 “I could do better if ______” or “When I grow I _______” are examples of statements made on the: a. TAT b. CAT c. WISC-IV d. Sentence Completion Test 11.24 A _________ gives a statement about a behavior of a child whereupon the individual has to rate the frequency, intensity and/or duration. a. Rating scale b. Thematic test c. Sentence completion test d. Visual motor test 11.25 The tremendous value of a rating scale is that it allows the examiner to get a differing viewpoint from other people who interact with the child. a. True b. False 11.26 The Conners 3 and the ADDES-3 are examples of: a. Rating scales b. Thematic tests c. Sentence completion tests d. Visual motor tests

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11.27 _________ refers to the effectiveness or degree with which individuals meet the standards of personal independence and social responsibility expected for age and cultural groups. a. Adaptive behavior b. Projections c. Standard scores d. Clarifying behavior 11.28 When doing an evaluation of adaptive behavior there which area should be studied? a. Communication b. Community use c. Self-direction d. Health and safety e. All of the above 11.29 When doing an evaluation of adaptive behavior there which area should be studied? a. Self-care b. Home living c. Social skills d. Leisure e. All of the above 11.30 Perhaps the greatest problem with doing an assessment on adaptive behavior is the fact that many of the scales and tests do not have high: a. Validity b. Reliability c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 11.31 The ABAS-3 and the ABES-R are examples of: a. Drawing tests b. Apperception tests c. Sentence completion tests d. Adaptive behavior scales 11.32 The Vineland (VABS-2) is an example of a(n): a. Drawing test b. Apperception test c. Sentence completion test d. Adaptive behavior scale 11.33 Functional Behavioral Assessment can provide information about: a. Why a student engages in certain behaviors b. When a student will most likely engage in a behavior c. Situations in which a behavior is least likely to occur d. All of the above

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Chapter 12 Multiple Choice Questions 12.1 When we evaluate a child's _______ we are looking to see if there is a deficit in some area of the learning process that may be slowing down the processing of information, thereby interfering in the child's ability to receive, organize, memorize or express information. a. Academic achievement b. Intelligence c. Perceptual abilities d. Psychological processes 12.2 Which of the following steps describes the learning process? a. Input of Information, Organization of Information, Expression of Information b. Organization of Information, Expression of Information, Input of Information c. Expression of Information, Input of Information, Organization of Information d. None of the above 12.3 Auditory Modality is: a. The delivery of information through sound b. The delivery of information through sight c. The delivery of information through touching d. The delivery of information through movement 12.4 Visual Modality is: a. The delivery of information through sound b. The delivery of information through sight c. The delivery of information through touching d. The delivery of information through movement 12.5 Tactile Modality is: a. The delivery of information through sound b. The delivery of information through sight c. The delivery of information through touching d. The delivery of information through movement 12.6 Kinesthetic Modality is: a. The delivery of information through sound b. The delivery of information through sight c. The delivery of information through touching d. The delivery of information through movement

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12.7 Gustatory Modality is: a. The delivery of information through taste b. The delivery of information through sight c. The delivery of information through touching d. The delivery of information through movement 12.8 Olfactory Modality is a. The delivery of information through taste b. The delivery of information through sight c. The delivery of information through touching d. The delivery of information through movement e. The delivery of information through smell 12.9 Reception is: a. The initial receiving of information b. The initial organization of information c. Relating new information to other information and giving meaning to the information received d. A storage or retrieval process e. The output of information through vocal, motoric or written responses 12.10 Perception is: a. The initial receiving of information b. The initial organization of information c. Relating new information to other information and giving meaning to the information received d. A storage or retrieval process e. The output of information through vocal, motoric or written responses 12.11 Association or Organization is: a. The initial receiving of information b. The initial organization of information c. Relating new information to other information and giving meaning to the information received d. A storage or retrieval process e. The output of information through vocal, motoric or written responses 12.12 Expression is: a. The initial receiving of information b. The initial organization of information c. Relating new information to other information and giving meaning to the information received d. A storage or retrieval process e. The output of information through vocal, motoric or written responses

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12.13 The objective of a perceptual evaluation is: a. To help determine the child's stronger and weaker modality for learning: b. To help determine a child's stronger and weaker process areas: c. To develop a learning profile d. To help determine if the child's learning process deficits are suitable for a regular class e. All of the above 12.14 The ability to follow and track objects with coordinated eye movements is called: a. Visual coordination b. Visual discrimination c. Visual association d. Visual long term memory 12.15 The ability to differentiate visually the forms and symbols in one’s environment is called: a. Visual coordination b. Visual discrimination c. Visual association d. Visual long term memory 12.16 The ability to organize and associate visually presented material in a meaningful way is called: a. Visual coordination b. Visual discrimination c. Visual association d. Visual long term memory 12.17 The ability to retain and recall general and specific short-term visual information is called: a. Visual coordination b. Visual discrimination c. Visual association d. Visual long term memory 12.18 The ability to retain and recall general and specific short-term auditory information: a. Visual short-term memory b. Visual sequential memory c. Visual vocal expression d. Visual motoric expression 12.19 The ability to recall in correct sequence and detail prior auditory information a. Visual short-term memory b. Visual sequential memory c. Visual vocal expression d. Visual motoric expression

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12.20 The ability to vocally reproduce prior visually presented material or experiences: a. Visual short-term memory b. Visual sequential memory c. Visual vocal expression d. Visual motoric expression 12.21 The ability to motorically reproduce prior visually presented material or experiences: a. Visual short-term memory b. Visual sequential memory c. Visual vocal expression d. Visual motoric expression 12.22 A symptom of a student that may reflect perceptual disabilities is : a. Exhibits poor motor coordination b. Awkward motorically-frequent tripping, stumbling, bumps into things, has trouble skipping, jumping c. Demonstrates restlessness, short attention span, perseveration d. Exhibits poor handwriting, artwork, drawing e. All of the above 12.23 A symptom of a student that may reflect perceptual disabilities is : a. Exhibits reversals of b,d,p,q,u,n when writing beyond a chronological age of 7 or 8 b. Inverts numbers (17 for 71), reverses as well c. Gives correct answers when teacher reads test, but can't put answers down on paper d. Exhibits poor performance in group achievement tests e. All of the above 12.24 Which of the following is NOT an example of a Visual-Receptive Process Disability? a. The student does not enjoy books, pictures b. The student fails to understand what is read c. The student is unable to give a simple explanation of contents of a picture d. The student is able to categorize pictures 12.25 Which of the following is NOT an example of a Visual-Association Disability? a. The student is unable to tell a story from pictures; can only label objects in the pictures b. The student is able to understand what he or she reads c. The student fails to handle primary workbook tasks d. The student needs auditory cues and clues 12.26 Which of the following is NOT an example of a Manual-Expressive Disability? a. The student has poor handwriting and drawing b. The student communicates infrequently with gestures c. The student is excellent at "acting out" ideas, feelings d. The student is clumsy, uncoordinated e. The student plays games poorly

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12.27 Which of the following is NOT an example of a Visual-Memory Disability? a. The student exhibits frequent misspellings, even after undue practice b. The student misspells his own name frequently c. The student has little difficulty writing the alphabet, numbers, and computation facts d. The student identifies words one day and fails to the next 12.28 The ability to differentiate auditorially the sounds in one’s environment is called: a. Auditory discrimination b. Auditory association c. Auditory long term-memory d. Auditory short-term memory e. Auditory sequential memory 12.29 The ability to organize and associate auditorily presented material in a meaningful way is called: a. Auditory discrimination b. Auditory association c. Auditory long term-memory d. Auditory short-term memory e. Auditory sequential memory 12.30 The ability to retain and recall general and specific long-term auditory information is called: a. Auditory discrimination b. Auditory association c. Auditory long term-memory d. Auditory short-term memory e. Auditory sequential memory 12.31 The ability to retain and recall general and specific short-term auditory information is called: a. Auditory discrimination b. Auditory association c. Auditory long term-memory d. Auditory short-term memory e. Auditory sequential memory 12.32 The ability to recall in correct sequence and detail prior auditory information is called: a. Auditory discrimination b. Auditory association c. Auditory long term-memory d. Auditory short-term memory e. Auditory sequential memory

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12.33 Which of the following is NOT an example of an Auditory Receptive Process Disability?

The student: a. Fails to comprehend what he or she hears b. Exhibits good receptive vocabulary c. Fails to identify sounds correctly d. Fails to carry out directions 12.34 Which of the following is NOT an example of an Auditory Association Disability? The student: a. Fails to enjoy being read to him by someone else b. Has difficulty comprehending questions c. Raises hand to answer question, but gives foolish response d. Is quick to respond; takes little time to answer e. Has difficulty with abstract concepts presented auditorily 12.35 Which of the following is NOT an example of a Verbal Expressive Disability? The student: a. Mispronounces common words b. Uses correct word endings and plurals c. Omits correct verbal endings d. Makes grammatical or syntactical errors that do not reflect those of his or her parents e. Has difficulty blending sounds 12.36 Which of the following is NOT an example of a Auditory Memory Disability? The student: a. Does not know address or phone number b. Fails to remember instructions c. Memorizing nursery rhymes or poems comes easily d. Has difficulty knowing the alphabet e. Has difficulty counting

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Chapter 13 Multiple Choice Questions 13.1 _________ is the physical process of making the sounds and sound combinations of a language. a. Speech b. Language c. Projection d. None of the above 13.2 ________ is essentially the system according to which a people agree to talk about or represent environmental events. a. Speech b. Language c. Projection d. None of the above 13.3 Phonology is: a. The knowledge a student has of sounds in language b. The smallest meaningful unit of language and involves the stringing together of sounds c. The rules used in combining words to make a sentence. d. The importance of meaning. It involves knowledge of vocabulary, relationships between words and time and event relationships e. The pragmatic functions of language in varying contexts. It sees the individual as an active communicator whose words and sentences are intentionally selected in relation to the effect the speaker wishes to have on a listener.

13.4 Morphology is: a. The knowledge a student has of sounds in language. b. The smallest meaningful unit of language and involves the stringing together of sounds c. The rules used in combining words to make a sentence. d. The importance of meaning. It involves knowledge of vocabulary, relationships between words and time and event relationships e. The pragmatic functions of language in varying contexts. It sees the individual as an active communicator whose words and sentences are intentionally selected in relation to the effect the speaker wishes to have on a listener.

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13.5 Syntax is: a. The knowledge a student has of sounds in language. b. The smallest meaningful unit of language and involves the stringing together of sounds c. The rules used in combining words to make a sentence d. The importance of meaning. It involves knowledge of vocabulary, relationships between words and time and event relationships e. The pragmatic functions of language in varying contexts. It sees the individual as an active communicator whose words and sentences are intentionally selected in relation to the effect the speaker wishes to have on a listener.

13.6 Content is: a. The knowledge a student has of sounds in language. b. The smallest meaningful unit of language and involves the stringing together of sounds c. The rules used in combining words to make a sentence. d. The importance of meaning. It involves knowledge of vocabulary, relationships between words and time and event relationships e. The pragmatic functions of language in varying contexts. It sees the individual as an active communicator whose words and sentences are intentionally selected in relation to the effect the speaker wishes to have on a listener.

13.7 Use means: a. The knowledge a student has of sounds in language. b. The smallest meaningful unit of language and involves the stringing together of sounds c. The rules used in combining words to make a sentence. d. The importance of meaning. It involves knowledge of vocabulary, relationships between words and time and event relationships e. The pragmatic functions of language in varying contexts. It sees the individual as an active communicator whose words and sentences are intentionally selected in relation to the effect the speaker wishes to have on a listener 13.8 A child with a speech disorder may have difficulty with which of the following: a. Producing sounds properly b. Speaking in a normal flow c. Speaking with a normal rhythm d. Using his or her voice in an effective way e. All of the above 13.9 A child with a language disorder may exhibit which of the following: a. difficulty in comprehending questions and following commands (receptive language) b. difficulty in communicating ideas and thoughts (expressive language) c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b

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13.10 Speech and language evaluations are normally done by the: a. Speech and language pathologists in the school b. School psychologist c. School nurse d. Classroom teacher 13.11 Which of the following developmental events does NOT normally happen in the first year of life? a. The child’s voice begins to rise and fall while making sounds b. The child begins to understands certain words c. The child begins to form words into short sentences d. The child may perform an action when asked e. The child may respond appropriately to the word or his own name 13.12 The PPVT-4, the TACL-4, and the CREVT-3 are examples of ________ tests a. Intelligence b. Achievement c. Projective d. Speech and language e. Early intervention 13.13 The TOAL-4, TELD-3 and the PAT-3 are examples of ________ tests a. Intelligence b. Achievement c. Projective d. Speech and language e. Early intervention 13.14 Apraxia is a motor disorder in which voluntary movement is impaired without muscle weakness. a. True b. False 13.15 ________ is the process by which sounds, syllables, and words are formed when the jaw, teeth, tongue, lips, and palate alter the airstream coming through the vocal folds; it is the production of speech sounds. a. Apraxia b. Articulation c. Voice d. Aphasia 13.16 Cluttering occurs when speech becomes literally cluttered with faulty phrasing and unrelated words to the extent that it is unintelligible. a. True b. False

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13.17 ______ is the sound produced by humans and other vertebrates using the lungs and the vocal folds in the larynx, or voice box. a. Apraxia b. Articulation c. Voice d. Aphasia 13.18 ____________ is a language disorder caused by damage to portions of the brain responsible for language, which for most people is on the left side (hemisphere) of the brain. a. Apraxia b. Articulation c. Voice d. Aphasia 13.19 The most intensive period of speech and language development for humans is during the first three years of life, a period when the brain is developing and maturing. a. True b. False 13.20 Expressive language disorders involve difficulties in the ability to attend to, process, comprehend, retain, or integrate spoken language. a. True b. False

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Chapter 14 Multiple Choice Questions 14. 1 In 1986, Congress created a nationwide incentive for states to implement coordinated systems of early intervention services for infants and toddlers with disabilities and their families by enacting which Public Law? a. P.L. 94-142 b. 99-457 c. 101-476 d. 108-446 14. 2 Under which Part of IDEIA must states provide services to any child “under 3 years of age who needs early intervention services? a. Part A b. Part B c. Part C d. Part D 14.3 Under IDEIA (Part C), individual states retain the right to determine eligibility criteria for early intervention services, and some require referral within a certain time period. a. True b. False 14.4 The F in IFSP stands for: a. France b. Foreign c. Family d. Feingold 14.5 The I in IFSP stands for: a. Intelligence b. Intermittent c. Itinerant d. Individualized 14. 6 Which of the following is TRUE? a. The IFSP identifies and describes the services that are going to be provided and who will provide the services. b. The IFSP also identifies the service coordinator who will assist families throughout the child’s eligibility. c. Both a and b d. Neither a or b

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14.7 Which of the following is a purpose of an IFSP? a. To summarize all information known regarding the child's strengths and needs and the family's strengths, concerns, priorities, preferences, and current resources b. To review the family’s identified routines, daily activities, and natural environments c. To develop and refine outcomes the family has chosen (includes outcomes for both the child and the family) d. All of the above 14.8 Which of the following is a purpose of an IFSP? a. To develop a written document that will guide the family, the family service coordinator, and the other service providers b. To determine the responsibilities of each team member c. To determine how communication between the parent and other team members will be maintained d. All of the above 14.9 According to the law, an IFSP must be developed within how many days of the time the initial referral is made to the state’s early intervention program? a. 30 b. 45 c. 60 d. 90 14.10 The contents of the IFSP must include a statement of the child's present levels of physical development (including vision, hearing, and health status), cognitive development, communication development, social or emotional development, and adaptive development...based on professionally acceptable objective criteria a. True b. False 14.11 Which of the following is not required to be present at an IFSP meeting a. The parent or parents of the child b. A person or persons directly involved in conducting the evaluations and assessments c. The principal of the school where the infant or toddler will be attending upon turning 5 years of age d. The intake coordinator who has been working with the family since the initial referral for evaluation 14.12 Which of the following is not an early intervention service? a. Audiology services b. Resource room c. Transportation d. Vision services

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14.13 Periodic IFSP reviews for a child and his or her family must be conducted every ______ or more frequently if conditions warrant, or if the family requests a review a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 12 months d. 18 months 14.14 Which of the following is a purpose of periodic IFSP reviews? a. To determine whether modification or revision of the outcomes or services is necessary b. To discuss the family's satisfaction with services being received c. To review the results of any new evaluations and ongoing assessments d. All of the above 14.15 When the child with a disability nears the age of ______, he or she must be considered for services beyond early intervention services. a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 14.16 If a child is eligible for preschool special education services, he or she must have an Individualized Education Program (IEP) in place by age three. a. True b. False 14.17 The goal of assessment in early childhood is the same as it is for an individual of any age—that is, to derive information to facilitate decision making with respect to that individual. a. True b. False 14.18 Early intervention is rapidly becoming an area of study for many special educators. a. True b. False 14.19 The question “Does the assessment focus on actual child behavior in real settings?” is an example of: a. Authenticity b. Convergence c. Collaboration d. Equity e. Sensitivity

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14.20 The question “Does the assessment rely on more than one source of information?” is an example of: a. Authenticity b. Convergence c. Collaboration d. Equity e. Sensitivity 14.21 The question “Does the assessment involve cooperation and sharing, especially with parents?” is an example of: a. Authenticity b. Convergence c. Collaboration d. Equity e. Sensitivity 14.22 The question “Does the assessment accommodate special sensory, motor cultural or other needs rather than penalize children who have special needs?” is an example of: a. Authenticity b. Convergence c. Collaboration d. Equity e. Sensitivity 14.23 The question “Does the assessment include sufficient items for planning lessons and detecting changes?” is an example of: a. Authenticity b. Convergence c. Collaboration d. Sensitivity 14.24 The question “Was the assessment developed and field tested with children similar to those being assessed?” is an example of: a. Authenticity b. Congruence c. Collaboration d. Equity 14.25 Which influences must be considered when testing young children? a. Environmental b. Cultural c. Both a and b d. Neither a or b

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Chapter 15 Multiple Choice Questions 15.1 Under IDEA, deafness is" A hearing impairment that is so severe that the child is impaired in processing linguistic information through hearing, with or without amplification, that adversely affects a child's educational performance.” a. True b. False 15.2 __________ result from damage to the cochlea or the auditory nerve. This damage is caused by illness and disease and are not medically or surgically treatable. a. Sensorineural Hearing Loss b. Mixed Hearing Loss c. Functional Hearing Loss d. Central Auditory Disorders 15.3 _______ is a hearing loss caused by both sensorineural and conductive problems. a. Sensorineural Hearing Loss b. Mixed Hearing Loss c. Functional Hearing Loss d. Central Auditory Disorders 15.4 __________ are those problems which are not organic in origin. a. Sensorineural Hearing Loss b. Mixed Hearing Loss c. Functional Hearing Loss d. Central Auditory Disorders 15.5 ________ result in no measurable peripheral hearing loss. Children with this disorder have trouble learning and are often considered students with learning disabilities. a. Sensorineural Hearing Loss b. Mixed Hearing Loss c. Functional Hearing Loss d. Central Auditory Disorders 15.6 A symptom of a hearing loss is: a. Significant problem in expressive language b. Significant problems in receptive language c. Difficulties with speech development d. Problems in socialization e. All of the above

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15.7 Which of the following would be the best test to use for a child with a serious hearing impairment? a. WISC-V b. Stanford Binet-5 c. LEITER International Performance Scale-3rd edition d. WIAT-III 15.8 ________ focuses mainly on fine motor/upper body functions , whereas __________ concentrates on lower body/gross motor difficulties. a. Physical therapy/Occupational therapy b. Occupational therapy/Physical therapy c. Physical therapy/Physical therapy d. Occupational therapy/occupational therapy 15.9 In general, both occupational therapy and physical therapy assess: a. Range of motion b. Sensory integration c. Activities for daily living d. Physical and mental development e. All of the above 15.10 Which of the following do both occupational and physical therapists do? a. Refer families to appropriate sources for assistance b. Help families order adaptive or prosthetic equipment c. Coordinate with physical education programs d. Instruct families regarding methods used in physical therapy e. All of the above 15.11 Which of the following problems might require occupational therapy: a. Perceptual problems (eye-hand coordination) b. Sensory problems (sensitive to sound, sensitive to visual changes, sensitive to odors, overly sensitive to touch) c. Fine motor problems (difficulty with coordination, handwriting, using scissors) d. Hardship with daily living activities (cannot dress, feed, or care for self) e. All of the above 15.12 Culture is often described as the combination of a body of knowledge, a body of belief and a body of behavior. a. True b. False

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15.13 Cultural competence is critical to reducing disparities and improving access to highquality education, education that is respectful of and responsive to the needs of diverse children and their respective parents. a. True b. False 15.14 Examiners need to be aware that it is not a violation of federal and state law to evaluate students in English when that is not their native language a. True b. False 15.15 Multicultural assessment refers to the cultural context in which the assessment is conducted, namely one in which people of differing cultures interact. a. True b. False

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Chapter 16 Multiple Choice Questions 16. 1 According to the U.S. Dept. of Education’s latest data on prevalence of students in special education, more than _________ million U.S. children between 6 and 21 years of age receive special education services. a. six b. eight c. ten d. fifteen 16.2 Today, the number of children served under IDEIA represent approximately what percentage of all children in school? a. 8 b. 13 c. 20 d. 25 16.3 Which of the following has the highest prevalence of students receiving special education? a. Autism b. Learning Disabilities c. Speech & Language Impairments d. Other Health Impairments 16.4 In interpreting evaluation data for the purpose of determining if a child is a child with a disability, and the educational needs of the child, each public agency must: a. Draw upon information from a variety of sources, including aptitude and achievement tests, parent input, and teacher recommendations, as well as information about the child’s physical condition, social or cultural background, and adaptive behavior. b. Ensure that information obtained from all of these sources is documented and carefully considered. c. Both a and b d. Neither a or b 16.5 Which of the following is NOT an eligibility criteria for autism? a. The student exhibits impairments in communication b. The student exhibits an abnormal range of activities c. The student exhibits difficulties in forming appropriate relationships d. The student exhibits unusual responses to sensory information

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16.6 One of the eligibility criteria for deaf-blindness is that the student’s disability has an adverse impact on the student’s educational performance when the student is at the age of eligibility for kindergarten through age 21, or has an adverse impact on the student’s developmental progress when the student is age three through kindergarten. a. True b. False 16.7 Developmental Delay covers age ranges: a. 3 through 7 years of age b. 3 through 9 years of age c. 3 through 12 years of age d. 3 through 21 years of age 16.8 Which of the following is NOT one of the eligibility criteria for an emotional disturbance? a. An inability to learn that cannot be explained by intellectual, sensory, or health factors b. An inability to build or maintain satisfactory interpersonal relationships with peers and teachers c. Appropriate types of behaviors or feelings under normal circumstances d. A general pervasive mood of unhappiness or depression 16.9 A social maladjustment is a persistent pattern of violating societal norms, such as multiple acts of truancy, or substance or sex abuse, and is marked by struggle with authority, low frustration threshold, impulsivity, or manipulative behaviors a. True b. False 16.10 Deafness is a hearing impairment so severe that the child is impaired in processing linguistic information through hearing, with or without amplification, that adversely affects a child’s educational performance. a. True b. False 16.11 Significantly impaired intellectual functioning is normally indicated by IQ scores that are two or more standard deviations below the mean. Given that most IQ tests have a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15, an IQ score of less than what score would be considered “significantly impaired intellectual functioning”? a. 90 b. 80 c. 75 d. 70

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16.12 Which disability includes conditions such as perceptual disabilities, brain injury, minimal brain dysfunction, dyslexia, and developmental aphasia? a. Traumatic Brain Injury b. Other Health Impairment c. Learning Disabilities d. Speech and Language Impairments 16.13 Which disability is defined as “concomitant impairments (such as intellectual disability– orthopedic impairment), the combination of which causes such severe educational problems that the problems cannot be accommodated in special education programs solely for one of the impairments”. a. Traumatic Brain Injury b. Other Health Impairment c. Multiple Disabilities d. Speech and Language Impairments 16.14 An individual can be considered eligible for services under Multiple Disabilities if the adverse effects are from environmental, cultural, or economic disadvantage as a result of such factors as: Second language, limited English proficiency, other cultural values and experiences and experiential differences. a. True b. False 16.15 Which disability includes impairments caused by congenital anomaly (e.g., clubfoot, absence of some member), impairments caused by disease (e.g., poliomyelitis, bone tuberculosis), and impairments from other causes (e.g., cerebral palsy, amputations, and fractures or burns that cause contractures)? a. Traumatic Brain Injury b. Other Health Impairment c. Orthopedic Impairments d. Speech and Language Impairments 16.16 In order to identify and be determined as eligible for special education services as a student with an Other Health Impairment, the Eligibility Committee must a medical statement or a health assessment statement indicating a classification of health impairment or a description of the impairment, and that the student’s condition is permanent or is expected to last for more than how many days? a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60

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16.17 Which disability requires having limited strength, vitality, or alertness due to chronic or acute health problems, such as a heart condition, tuberculosis, rheumatic fever, nephritis, asthma, sickle cell anemia, hemophilia, epilepsy, lead poisoning, leukemia, or diabetes, that adversely affects a child’s educational performance? a. Traumatic Brain Injury b. Other Health Impairment c. Orthopedic Impairments d. Speech and Language Impairments 16.18 Which type of speech and language impairment means the intrusion or repetition of sounds, syllables, and words; prolongation's of sounds; avoidance of words; silent blocks; or inappropriate inhalation, exhalation, or phonation patterns? a. Fluency disorder b. Voice disorder c. Articulation disorder d. Language disorder 16.19 Which type of speech and language impairment means the absence of voice or presence of abnormal quality, pitch, resonance, loudness, or duration? a. Fluency disorder b. Voice disorder c. Articulation disorder d. Language disorder 16.20 Which type of speech and language impairment means the absence of or incorrect production of speech sounds or phonological processes that are developmentally appropriate (e.g. lisp, difficulty articulating certain sounds, such as l or r)? a. Fluency disorder b. Voice disorder c. Articulation disorder d. Language disorder 16.21 Which type of speech and language impairment means a breakdown in communication as characterized by problems in expressing needs, ideas, or information that may be accompanied by problems in understanding? a. Fluency disorder b. Voice disorder c. Articulation disorder d. Language disorder 16.22 Auditory processing or comprehension includes which of the following? a. Semantics b. Syntax c. Phonology d. All of the above

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16.23 Auditory processing or comprehension includes which of the following? a. Recalling information b. Following directions c. Pragmatics d. All of the above 16.24 Traumatic Brain Injury applies to open or closed head injuries resulting in impairments in one or more areas, such as cognition; language; memory; attention; reasoning; abstract thinking; judgment; problem solving; sensory, perceptual, and motor abilities; psychosocial behavior; physical functions; information processing; and speech. a. True b. False 16.25 Traumatic Brain Injury applies to brain injuries that are congenital or degenerative or to brain injuries induced by birth trauma. a. True b. False 16.26 Visual Impairments includes both partial and total sight blindness. a. True b. False

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Chapter 17 Multiple Choice Questions 17.1 All of the following are practical guidelines to follow when writing an educational report EXCEPT: a. Write the report in the third person b. Single space the report to condense the length c. Write reports using complete sentences d. Write all reports in the future tense 17.2 Which phrase should NOT be used when writing an educational report? a. According to the examiner... b. It was felt that... c. There seems to be.... d. I believe that.... e. It is the professional opinion of this evaluator that...

17.3 Professional reports should be written in the: a. First person b. Third person c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 17.4 Reports should be __________ to condense the length. a. Single spaced b. Double spaced c. Either a or b d. Neither a nor b 17.5 Which of the following is not recommended for report writing? a. In general, try to separate your recommendation section into three parts b. Try to write the report in the past tense as often as possible. c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 17.6 Report recommendations should be broken down into how many parts? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

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17.7 Reports should be written in the: a. Past tense b. Present tense c. Future tense 17.8 Which of the following phrases in a report is incorrectly written? a. On the Reading subtest, Billy scored in the 95th percentile b. During testing, Sally exhibits shyness c. Throughout the interview, Tommy showed no signs of hyperactivity d. Karen appeared to lack confidence when doing tasks which required hand-eye coordination 17.9 The first section is called ________ and contains all the necessary basic information about the child. a. Identifying Data b. Reason for Referral c. Background History d. Observations e. Tests Administered 17.10 Identifying Data will contain all of the following information EXCEPT: a. Student’s name b. Behavioral observations of student c. Student’s parents’ names d. Student’s address e. Student’s telephone number 17.11 The student’s chronological age at the time of testing will be found in which section of a report? a. Identifying Data b. Reason for Referral c. Background History d. Observations e. Tests Administered 17.12 Which section of the report explains to the reader the specific reasons why this evaluation is taking place? a. Identifying Data b. Reason for Referral c. Background History d. Observations e. Tests Administered

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17.13 Which of the following is NOT an example of a phrase that would found in the Reason for Referral section of a report? a. John was referred by his teacher for evaluation as a result of inconsistent academic performance and poor social skills. b. Mary was referred by her parents for evaluation in order to determine if a learning disability was interfering in her ability to learn. c. On the WISC-V Timmy scored in the 70th percentile d. Benjamin is being tested as part of the triennial evaluation. e. Matthew is being screened for a suspected disability.

17.14 Which section of a report contains a very thorough description of the child's Family History, Developmental History, Academic History and Social History? a. Identifying Data b. Reason for Referral c. Background History d. Observations e. Tests Administered 17.15 The Background History of a report contains a very thorough description of the child's: a. Family History b. Developmental History c. Academic History d. Social History e. All of the above 17.16 The section of the Background History that provides the reader with a general understanding of the family structure, siblings, and parental perceptions is the: a. Family History b. Developmental History c. Academic History d. Social History e. All of the above 17.17 Which of the following is NOT an example of a phrase pertaining to a child’s family history? a. Billy lives at home with his mother and a younger brother, Tommy. His parents are divorced and Billy has no contact with his father b. Sally lives at home with her father, mother, and two older sisters c. In school, Billy has many friends and gets along well with others d. Karen is an only child who was adopted at the age of 6 months by her parents, Ted and Jane.

She knows that she is adopted and has never had any contact with her biological parents

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17.18 Which of the following is NOT an example of a phrase pertaining to a child’s developmental history? a. All of Billy’s developmental milestones were reached in the normal limits. b. During testing, Billy was shy and hesitant to respond c. Sally started to talk only at the age of 2 years of age and received early intervention to help her with language ability. d. Teddy had many ear infections during the first year of life and needed tubes put in when he was 13 months of age. e. Billy started to walk later than the norm, as he started at 21 months of age.

17.19 Which of the following is NOT an example of a phrase pertaining to a child’s academic history? a. Billy has always done poorly in math and has never received a grade of higher than C throughout his educational career. b. Sally’s first grade teacher reported that she had great difficulty in the area of spelling. c. Teddy had many ear infections during the first year of life and needed tubes put in when he was 13 months of age d. Fred’s Reading scores on the ABC National Standardized Test were well below the norm (8th percentile) when he took it two years ago in the 4th grade.

17.20 Which of the following is NOT an example of a phrase pertaining to a child’s social history? a. According to Billy, he enjoys playing baseball and hanging out with his friends at the mall. b. Sally reported that she has no friends and does not participate in any extracurricular activities. c. Teddy is the 11th Grade Class President of his school and plays on the Junior Varsity Basketball and Varsity Baseball teams. d. Joe does very poorly in reading but excels in mathematics 17.21 The section of the report that includes a description of the child's behavior during the testing sessions is called: a. Identifying Data b. Reason for Referral c. Background History d. Observations e. Tests Administered 17.22 Which section of a report are you providing the reader for the first time with your professional and first hand observation of this child in a controlled setting. a. Identifying Data b. Reason for Referral c. Background History d. Observations e. Tests Administered

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17.23 Which of the following is NOT an example of a phrase found in the Observations section of a report? a. Sally approached the testing situation in a reluctant and hesitant manner. b. Test results on the WISC-V indicated that Billy received Full Scale IQ score of 120 c. During testing, it was evident that Billy was frustrated with many of the reading tasks. d. Throughout the assessment, Connie appeared anxious and nervous, as she was biting her nails and always asking whether her answers were correct.

17.24 Which section of the report includes a simple list of the individual tests included in the test battery and any procedures used to enhance the report i.e. classroom observation, review of records, parent intake? a. Identifying Data b. Reason for Referral c. Background History d. Observations e. Tests Administered 17.25 Which of the following would not be found in the Tests Administered section of a report? a. Wechsler Individualized Achievement Test-3RD edition (WIAT-III) b. Detroit Tests of Learning Aptitude-4th Edition (DTLA-4) c. Gray Oral Reading Test-4th Edition (GORT-4) d. All of the above could be found in the Tests Administered section of a report 17.26 Which section analyzes the results of each test and looks at the child's individual performance on each measure? a. Test Results b. Test by Test Analysis c. Content Area by Content Area Analysis d. Conclusions e. Recommendations 17.27 In which section of the report does the examiner indicate in very simple terms to the reader the trends in the child's testing results that may indicate academic strengths, academic weaknesses, modality strengths, modality weaknesses, process strengths and weaknesses and overall diagnosis and level of severity of the problems areas indicated? a. Test Results b. Test by Test Analysis c. Content Area by Content Area Analysis d. Conclusions e. Recommendations

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17.28 Which section of the report is normally the last section and the most valuable section for the because it hopefully bring some hope and direction for the identified problem areas? a. Test Results b. Test by Test Analysis c. Content Area by Content Area Analysis d. Conclusions e. Recommendations

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Chapter 18 Multiple Choice Questions 18.1 According to IDEA, every public school district is required to have a Committee on Special Education. a. True b. False 18.2 The CSE is usually made up of mandated members and assigned members whom the board of education deems necessary. Most states require that certain professionals and individuals be core members. These usually include all of the following EXCEPT: a. An administrator or director of pupil personnel services or director of special education b. School psychologist c. Medical doctor ( does not need to be in attendance at every meeting but should be present anytime medical issues are involved i.e. health related classifications, issues involving medication etc.) d. The siblings of the student e. Parent of a child with a disability residing within the district 18.3 Which of the following is a responsibility of The Committee on Special Education? a. Following appropriate procedures and taking appropriate action for a child referred as having a suspected disability. b. Determining the suitable classification for a child with a suspected disability c. Reviewing and evaluating all relevant information. d. Determining the least restrictive educational setting for any child having been classified as having a disability e. All of the above 18.4 Which of the following is a responsibility of The Committee on Special Education? a. Reviewing, at least annually, the status of the child? b. Evaluating the adequacy of programs, services and facilities for the child c. Maintaining ongoing communication in writing to parents in regards to planning, modifying, changing, reviewing, placing or evaluating the program, classification or educational plan of the child . d. Advising the Board of Education as to the status and recommendations of the child e. All of the above 18.5 Reviewing, at least once a year, the status of the child is called: a. Bimodal review b. The bimonthly review c. The annual review d. The triennial review

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18.6 Reevaluating and testing, every three years, the status of the child is called: a. Bimodal review b. The bimonthly review c. The annual review d. The triennial review 18.7 Which of the following is filled out by the Child Study Team when the team suspects that the child being reviewed may have an educational disability, and occurs when a child is being reviewed for special education by the CSE for the very first time and usually involves children previously in the mainstream who have had no prior services? a. Initial Referral To CSE From School Staff b. Initial Referral To CSE From Parent/Guardian c. Parent Consent For Initial Evaluation d. Notice to Principal of Initial CSE Referral 18.8 Which of the following is filled out if the parent makes the initial referral to the CSE for a suspected disability which is part of the parents due process rights? a. Initial Referral To CSE From School Staff b. Initial Referral To CSE From Parent/Guardian c. Parent Consent For Initial Evaluation d. Notice to Principal of Initial CSE Referral 18.9 Which of the following must be signed and dated by a parent prior to evaluation and is part of the parents’ due process rights? a. Initial Referral To CSE From School Staff b. Initial Referral To CSE From Parent/Guardian c. Assessment Plan and Parent Consent d. Notice to Principal of Initial CSE Referral 18.10 Which of the following will the CSE need for the Committee meeting? a. Child's Schedule b. Transcript Of Past Grades c. Latest Report Card d. Teachers’ Reports e. All of the above 18.11 Which of the following is not a SPAM need? a. Social b. Physical c. Academic d. Measurement

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18.12 If a child’s disability prevents him/her from participating in a regular mainstreamed physical education program, then the district must provide adaptive alternatives which capitalize on the student’s abilities. a. True b. False 18.13 The members of the team that evaluated the child should meet with the parents to discuss the results of the testing: a. Before the CSE meeting b. After the CSE meeting c. Never d. Only in a letter-never in person 18.14 If your role on the committee has resulted from your evaluation of the child, then you need to keep which of the following in mind: a. Prior to the meeting, you should meet with the parents and go over your results. b. Make sure that you have your report complete and typed at least one week to ten days prior to the CSE meeting. In some districts, the CSE requires that the entire packet be forwarded a week in advance. c. Prior to the meeting, outline the important points of the report that you wish to make. Do not go through the report at the CSE meeting looking for the issues that you feel need to be discussed. Preparation will make you look more professional. d. Make sure you report strengths as well as weaknesses. e. All of the above 18.15 This placement is the least restrictive placement for all non child with a disability. This placement alone without some type of special education supportive services is not suitable for a child with a disability and is usually not considered suitable by the CSE. a. Regular class placement b. Inclusion Classroom c. Regular class placement with resource room assistance d. Full time special class in a regular school e. Hospital or institution 18.16 This placement involves the maintenance of the child in a regular mainstreamed classroom assisted by the presence of a second teacher who is certified in special education. a. Regular class placement b. Inclusion Classroom c. Regular class placement with resource room assistance d. Full time special class in a regular school e. Hospital or institution

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18.17 This placement is usually provided for students who need supportive services but can successfully remain within the regular classroom for the majority of the day. a. Regular class placement b. Inclusion Classroom c. Regular class placement with resource room assistance d. Full time special class in a regular school e. Hospital or institution 18.18 This placement is viewed as the LRE setting for students whose disability does not permit successful participation in any type of regular class setting, even for part of the day. These are students who usually require a very structured, closely monitored program on a daily basis but not so restrictive as to warrant an out-of-district placement. a. Regular class placement b. Inclusion Classroom c. Regular class placement with resource room assistance d. Full time special class in a regular school e. Hospital or institution 18.19 The most restrictive setting used is: a. Regular class placement b. Inclusion Classroom c. Regular class placement with resource room assistance d. Full time special class in a regular school e. Home schooling 18.20 An impartial hearing officer may be requested to intervene when there is a difference of opinion between the parents and the CSE. a. True b. False 18.21 Sometimes, a “special meeting” will be called by the parents or CSE. Which of the following could be a reason for a “special meeting”? a. Change in a child’s IEP b. Change in a child’s program c. Declassification request d. Addition or deletion of a modification e. All of the above 18.22 Sometimes, a “special meeting” will be called by the parents or CSE. Which of the following could be a reason for a “special meeting”? a. Parental request for a CSE meeting b. Disciplinary concerns c. New student to district previously identified as a student with a disability d. Referral from the building administrator e. All of the above

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18.23 Annual review meetings are required for ALL students receiving special instruction and/or related services. a. True b. False 18.24 A professional attending an annual review meeting as a special educator may do which of the following? a. Suggest ways to meet the child's proposed goals and objectives as specified in the IEP b. Discuss changes or additions for the child's upcoming program and services c. Present the areas where the child showed success and significant progress d. Discuss high school diploma and credential options e. All of the above 18.25 A child in special education will have a triennial review which occurs every three years to provide current assessment information to help determine his/her continued placement in special education. a. True b. False

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Chapter 19 Multiple Choice Questions 19.1 All students in special education are expected to leave school prepared to: a. Enjoy self-determination b. Make choices c. Contribute to society d. Pursue meaningful careers e. All of the above 19.2 The Committee on Special Education is charged with insuring that each student with a disability is educated to the maximum extent appropriate in classes and programs with their peers who do not have disabilities. a. True b. False 19.3. The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) requires that all students in special education have an Individualized Education Program (IEP). a. True b. False 19.4 What is the purpose of an IEP? a. It is a written plan for a student in special education: Simply stated, the IEP explains the specific educational objectives and placement for a particular student. It is a management tool for the entire assessment teaching process b. The IEP becomes the critical link between the student in special education and the special teaching that the student requires c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 19.5 An IEP must include all of the following EXCEPT: a. The present levels of educational performance and how the student's disability affects his or her involvement and progress in the general education curriculum. b. A statement of programs and services that the student needs in order to participate in the general education curriculum as well as to participate in extracurricular and nonacademic activities. c. An explanation of the extent to which the student will not participate with non-disabled students in general education classes and in extracurricular and nonacademic activities. d. The student's participation in statewide and district-wide assessments and, if the student will not participate in such assessments, include a statement of how the child will be assessed. e. All of the above must be included in an IEP

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19.6 When writing an IEP, it is very important to remember that it is being written for: a. Administrators b. Parents c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 19.7 An IEP should be: a. Clear and concise b. User friendly c. A working document d. A reflection of the abilities of the student e. An IEP should be all of the above 19.8 In an IEP, in the part that is called The Current Grade Assignment, the current grade is designated as of the: a. Date of the referral b. Date of the testing c. Date of the Committee meeting d. Date services will be implemented 19.9 In an IEP, in the part that is called Date of Initiation of Services, this is the: a. Date of the referral b. Date of the testing c. Date of the Committee meeting d. Date services will be implemented 19.10 Reevaluations in special education must occur at least every: a. One year b. Two years c. Three years d. Five years 19.11 The IEP must describe the student's present levels of educational performance, including the student's abilities and needs. a. True b. False 19.12 The Committee on Special Education must assess a student’s present levels of performance and individual needs in which area? a. Academic/Educational Achievement b. Social Development c. Physical Development d. Management Needs e. All of the above

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19.13 Which of the following statements are TRUE? a. There must be a direct relationship between the annual goals and the present levels of performance. b. Annual goals focus on addressing needs resulting from the disability so that the student can appropriately participate in the general curriculum. c. Goals should be considered from all areas of the student’s individual needs, including those associated with behavior and long-term adult outcomes, where appropriate. d. All of the above are true 19.14 In an IEP, there must be a direct relationship between the annual goals and the present levels of performance. a. True b. False 19.15 Which of the following criteria should be considered when establishing annual goals? a. Annual goals should be determined from the abilities and needs of the student as described in the present levels of performance. b. Annual goals should focus on offsetting or reducing the learning or behavioral problems resulting from the student's disability. c. Annual goals should focus on meeting the special education needs of the student. d. Annual goals must be written in measurable terms e. All of the above should be considered when establishing annual goals 19.16 The IEP must indicate which of the following? a. The special education programs and related services b. Supplementary aids and services c. Assistive technology devices and program supports or modifications that are to be provided to the student, or on behalf of the student. d. All of the above 19.17 Which of the following is a related service? a. In school individual counseling b. In school group counseling c. Resource Room d. Speech/Language therapy e. All of the above 19.18 Which of the following is a related service? a. Physical therapy and Occupational therapy b. Art therapy c. Adaptive Physical Education d. Music Therapy e. All of the above

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19.19 The CSE should consider an extended school year programs for all of the following EXCEPT: a. Students whose management needs are determined to be highly intensive, and who require a high degree of individualized attention and intervention and who are placed in special classes. b. Students with severe multiple disabilities, whose programs consist primarily of rehabilitation and treatment and who are placed in special classes. c. Students who are recommended for home and hospital instruction, whose special education needs are determined to be highly intensive, who require a high degree of individualized attention and intervention or who have severe multiple disabilities and require primarily rehabilitation and treatment. d. Students whose needs are so severe that they can be met only in a seven-day residential program. e. The CSE should consider an extended school year programs for all of the following 19.20 An IEP developed for an extended school year program may differ from the IEP developed for the school year program. a. True b. False 19.21 Which of the following is an example of a supplementary aid or service? a. A note taker b. Written materials in Braille format c. Extra time to go between classes d. Modification of curriculum e. All of the above are examples supplementary aids or services 19.22 IDEA requires each school district to ensure that assistive technology devices and/or services are made available to a preschool or school-age student with a disability as part of the student's special education, related services or supplementary aids or services as described in the IEP. a. True b. False 19.23 _________ are any items, pieces of equipment, or product systems, whether acquired commercially off the shelf, modified, or customized, that is used to increase, maintain, or improve the functional capabilities of a child with a disability. a. Benchmarks b. Standard scores c. Percentiles d. Assistive technology devices

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19.24 Which of the following is an example of a modification or supports that may be provided for school personnel? a. Information on a specific disability and implications for instruction. b. Training in use of specific positive behavioral interventions. c. Information on the need for special placement of the student within the classroom. d. Training in the use of American Sign Language e. All of the above 19.25 The IEP must explain: a. How the student will participate in general education classes, programs and activities b. The extent to which, if any, the student will not participate in general education classes, programs and activities with non-disabled peers. c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 19.26 The IEP must specifically indicate how the school-age student will participate in: a. Physical education or adaptive (adapted) physical education b. Occupational education, if appropriate c. Nonacademic activities d. Extracurricular activities e. All of the above

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ANSWER KEY Chapter 1 1.1 a 1.2 a 1.3 b 1.4 c 1.5 d 1.6 d 1.7 d 1.8 d 1.9 c 1.10 a 1.11 d 1.12 a 1.13 c 1.14 c 1.15 a 1.16 b 1.17 b 1.18 a 1.19 b 1.20 b 1.21 c 1.22 a 1.23 d 1.24 a 1.25 a 1.26 c 1.27 b 1.28 d 1.29 d 1.30 b

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Chapter 2 2.1 c 2.2 a 2.3 b 2.4 a 2.5 b 2.6 d 2.7 b 2.8 a 2.9 d 2.10 a 2.11 b 2.12 b 2.13 a 2.14 b 2.15 e 2.16 c

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Chapter 3 3.1 c 3.2 a 3.3 a 3.4 b 3.5 b 3.6 c 3.7 d 3.8 d 3.9 a 3.10 c 3.11 a 3.12 b 3.13 b 3.14 b 3.15 b 3.16 c 3.17 a 3.18 c 3.19 b 3.20 a 3.21 d 3.22 c 3.23 d 3.24 a 3.25 c 3.26 c

3.27 a 3.28 c 3.29 c 3.30 c 3.31 c 3.32 c 3.33 b 3.34 c 3.35 b 3.36 d 3.37 a 3.38 c 3.39 a 3.40 b 3.41 a 3.42 b 3.43 d 3.44 a 3.45 b 3.46 c 3.47 a 3.48 b 3.49 a 3.50 b 3.51 d 3.52 d

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Chapter 4 4.1 c 4.2 b 4.3 d 4.4 a 4.5 b 4.6 b 4.7 d 4.8 b 4.9 a 4.10 a 4.11 a 4.12 d 4.13 b 4.14 d 4.15 d 4.16 c 4.17 a 4.18 b 4.19 a 4.20 b 4.21 c 4.22 d 4.23 c 4.24 b 4.25 a 4.26 b 4.27 c

4.28 d 4.29 b 4.30 d 4.31 d 4.32 d 4.33 a 4.34 a 4.35 b 4.36 d 4.37 a 4.38 c 4.39 b 4.40 b 4.41 b 4.42 d 4.43 a 4.44 b 4.45 d 4.46 b 4.47 c 4.48 a 4.49 b 4.50 b 4.51 b 4.52 d 4.53 b

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Chapter 5 5.1 d 5.2 c 5.3 d 5.4 a 5.5 a 5.6 c 5.7 b 5.8 c 5.9 b 5.10 a 5.11 d 5.12 c 5.13 c 5.14 a

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Chapter 6 6.1 a 6.2 d 6.3 d 6.4 d 6.5 a 6.6 a 6.7 d 6.8 a 6.9 c 6.10 d 6.11 d 6.12 a 6.13 d 6.14 d 6.15 a 6.16 d 6.17 c 6.18 b 6.19 e 6.20 e 6.21 e 6.22 e 6.23 e 6.24 e 6.25 e 6.26 a 6.27 b 6.28 d 6.29 c 6.30 e 6.31 a 6.32 c 6.33 a 6.34 a 6.35 c 6.36 c 6.37 c 6.38 e 6.39 e

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Chapter 7 7.1 a 7.2 a 7.3 b 7.4 b 7.5 b 7.6 c 7.7 d 7.8 d 7.9 d 7.10 d 7.11 a 7.12 a 7.13 d 7.14 e 7.15 c 7.16 e 7.17 e 7.18 e 7.19 a 7.20 a 7.21 a 7.22 b 7.23 a 7.24 e 7.25 a 7.26 d 7.27 c 7.28 d 7.29 e 7.30 b 7.31 c 7.32 b 7.33 b 7.34 a 7.35 a 7.36 b 7.37 c 7.38 d

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Chapter 8 8.1 a 8.2 a 8.3 d 8.4 a 8.5 a 8.6 d 8.7 c 8.8 a 8.9 a 8.10 a 8.11 c 8.12 d 8.13 a 8.14 c 8.15 a 8.16 a 8.17 d 8.18 d 8.19 d 8.20 c 8.21 c 8.22 c 8.23 b 8.24 d 8.25 a 8.26 b 8.27 e 8.28 e

8.29 a 8.30 d 8.31 e 8.32 a 8.33 a 8.34 b 8.35 d 8.36 c 8.37 a 8.38 d 8.39 a 8.40 a 8.41 a 8.42 d 8.43 d 8.44 d 8.45 c 8.46 a 8.47 b 8.48 b 8.49 a 8.50 c 8.51 c 8.52 e 8.53 a 8.54 d 8.55 a

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Chapter 9 9.1 e 9.2 a 9.3 e 9.4 a 9.5 b 9.6 c 9.7 e 9.8 a 9.9 b 9.10 c 9.11 a 9.12 e 9.13 e 9.14 c 9.15 a 9.16 b 9.17 c 9.18 d 9.19 e 9.20 e 9.21 e 9.22 a 9.23 a

9.24 d 9.25 c 9.26 d 9.27 d 9.28 b 9.29 e 9.30 e 9.31 a 9.32 b 9.33 c 9.34 a 9.35 b 9.36 c 9.37 a 9.38 b 9.39 d 9.40 a 9.41 d 9.42 e 9.43 e 9.44 c 9.45 d 9.46 d

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Chapter 10 10.1 c 10.2 c 10.3 a 10.4 e 10.5 e 10.6 e 10.7 e 10.8 e 10.9 a 10.10 a 10.11 b 10.12 a 10.13 a 10.14 b 10.15 a 10.16 b 10.17 c 10.18 c 10.19 d 10.20 e 10.21 a 10.22 b 10.23 c 10.24 d

10.25 c 10.26 b 10.27 a 10.28 a 10.29 e 10.30 e 10.31 c 10.32 c 10.33 a 10.34 c 10.35 a 10.36 b 10.37 c 10.38 d 10.39 c 10.40 a 10.41 b 10.42 a 10.43 b 10.44 d 10.45 d 10.46 d 10.47 d

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Chapter 11 11.1 a 11.2 a 11.3 b 11.4 d 11.5 a 11.6 c 11.7 a 11.8 b 11.9 c 11.10 d 11.11 e 11.12 d 11.13 a 11.14 e 11.15 a 11.16 e 11.17 d 11.18 d 11.19 a 11.20 a 11.21 b 11.22 b 11.23 d 11.24 a 11.25 a 11.26 a 11.27 a 11.28 e 11.29 e 11.30 c 11.31 d 11.32 d 11.33 d

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Chapter 12 12.1 c 12.2 a 12.3 a 12.4 b 12.5 c 12.6 d 12.7 a 12.8 e 12.9 a 12.10 b 12.11 c 12.12 e 12.13 e 12.14 a 12.15 b 12.16 c 12.17 d 12.18 a 12.19 b 12.20 c 12.21 d 12.22 e 12.23 e 12.24 d 12.25 b 12.26 c 12.27 c 12.28 a 12.29 b 12.30 c 12.31 d 12.32 e 12.33 b 12.34 c 12.35 b 12.36 c

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Chapter 13 13.1 a 13.2 b 13.3 a 13.4 b 13.5 c 13.6 d 13.7 e 13.8 e 13.9 c 13.10 a 13.11 c 13.12 d 13.13 d 13.14 a 13.15 b 13.16 a 13.17 c 13.18 d 13.19 a 13.20 b

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Chapter 14 14.1 b 14.2 c 14.3 a 14.4 c 14.5 d 14.6 c 14.7 d 14.8 d 14.9 b 14.10 a 14.11 c 14.12 b 14.13 b 14.14 d 14.15 a 14.16 a 14.17 a 14.18 a 14.19 a 14.20 b 14.21 c 14.22 d 14.23 d 14.24 b 14.25 c

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Chapter 15 15.1 a 15.2 a 15.3 b 15.4 c 15.5 d 15.6 e 15.7 c 15.8 b 15.9 e 15.10 e 15.11 e 15.12 a 15.13 a 15.14 b 15.15 a

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Chapter 16 16.1 a 16.2 b 16.3 b 16.4 d 16.5 b 16.6 a 16.7 b 16.8 c 16.9 a 16.10 a 16.11 d 16.12 c 16.13 c 16.14 b 16.15 c 16.16 d 16.17 b 16.18 a 16.19 b 16.20 c 16.21 d 16.22 d 16.23 d 16.24 a 16.25 b 16.26 a

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Chapter 17 17.1 d 17.2 d 17.3 b 17.4 a 17.5 c 17.6 c 17.7 a 17.8 b 17.9 a 17.10 b 17.11 a 17.12 b 17.13 c 17.14 c 17.15 e 17.16 a 17.17 c 17.18 b 17.19 c 17.20 d 17.21 d 17.22 d 17.23 b 17.24 e 17.25 d 17.26 a 17. 27 d 17.28 e

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Chapter 18 18.1 a 18.2 d 18.3 e 18.4 e 18.5 c 18.6 d 18.7 a 18.8 b 18.9 c 18.10 e 18.11 d 18.12 a 18.13 a 18.14 e 18.15 a 18.16 b 18.17 c 18.18 d 18.19 e 18.20 a 18.21 e 18.22 e 18.23 a 18.24 e 18.25 a

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Chapter 19 19.1 e 19.2 a 19.3 a 19.4 c 19.5 e 19.6 c 19.7 e 19.8 c 19.9 d 19.10 c 19.11 a 19.12 e 19.13 d 19.14 a 19.15 e 19.16 d 19.17 e 19.18 e 19.19 e 19.20 a 19.21 e 19.22 a 19.23 d 19.24 e 19.25 c 19.26 e

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