Adult Development and Aging Biopsychosocial Perspectives, 4th Edition Test Bank

Adult Development and Aging Biopsychosocial Perspectives, 4th Edition By

Whitbourne, Whitbourne

Multiple Choice Questions The biopsychosocial perspective 1. Sociocultural example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Polly Ester is a 71-year-old woman just diagnosed with diabetes by her physician. She attributes her development of this illness to the fact that her family’s ethnic background relies on food high in refined sugars and carbohydrates. Polly’s cultural background represents the ________ component of the biopsychosocial model.

A. psychological B. physiological C. biological D. sociocultural 2. Definition- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C The term "biopsychosocial" in referring to development means that: A. greater emphasis is given to biological factors.

B. the period of infancy is regarded as most important.

C. change is understood from an integrative perspective.

D. later life is seen as involving inevitable decline.

3. Example- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Which of the following would be considered a “psychological” age-related factor in the biopsychosocial perspective?

A. Changes in cognitive abilities.

B. Increases in blood pressure.

C. Retirement from employment.

D. Marriage in middle age.

Four principles of adult development and aging 4. Continuity of changes- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B A premise of the life-span developmental perspective is that: A. psychological changes are the most important source of development over time.

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B. aging is a lifelong process that begins at conception and ends at death.

C. social change influences people but people have little impact on their societies.

D. events that happen in old age are of greater significance than early experiences.

5. Continuity of changes- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Which of the following statements accurately describes one of the principles of geropsychology?

A. It is important to see later life as continuous with earlier periods of development.

B. Most older people are quite similar to each other so we can ignore individual differences.

C. The best approach to the study of aging involves a specific focus on one discipline.

D. Diseases in later life are simply an exaggeration of normal aging processes.

6. Continuity of changes- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C The notion that development in later life builds upon changes that occurred earlier in development is known as the principle of: A. survival of the fittest.

B. inter-individual differences.

C. continuity of changes.

D. primary aging.

7. The survivors grow old- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B That older adults show fewer maladaptive personality traits and health habits might be explained by which principle of adult development and aging?

A. Individual differences become less important in later life.

B. It is the survivors who make it through life into old age.

C. Changes in later life are separate from those earlier in development.

D. Aging is best viewed from a strictly psychological perspective.

8. The survivors grow old- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A The principle that it is the survivors who grow old implies that: A. the older population is a select group.

B. individual differences should not be examined.

C. normal aging is similar to disease.

D. people become more similar as they get older.

9. Intra vs. inter-individual differences- choice IM-1 |2

Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B The principle of intraindividual differences in the study of adult development and aging refers to which concept?

A. Age-related changes are similar for all individuals as they grow older.

B. The process of change occurs along multiple dimensions of functioning.

C. People differ from each other in the rate at which they experience age-related changes.

D. The most significant age changes in later life occur in social functioning.

10. Continuity of change Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A The notion that development in later life builds upon changes that occurred earlier in development is known as the principle of: A. continuity of changes.

B. inter-individual differences.

C. survival of the fittest.

D. primary aging.

11. Optimal aging example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D 95-year-old Jack LaLanne, who is in outstanding physical and mental health, is an example of an older adult showing ________ aging.

A. primary B. social C. secondary D. optimal 12. Normal aging vs. disease Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D When a person is said to show signs of secondary aging, this means that the person: A. is experiencing normal age-related changes.

B. has suffered a reduction in social status.

C. is showing signs of successful adaptation.

D. has developed a disease more prevalent in later life.

13. Fruits and vegetables- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D The Centers for Disease Control regards which of the following as one of the five healthiest habits?

A. eating red meat IM-1 |3

B. having close friends C. reading good books D. eating vegetables 14. Cigarette smoking Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A The Centers for Disease Control regards the following as one of the five most important "bad habits" that can reduce the quality and quantity of a person's life: A. Drinking and driving.

B. Wearing headphones while jogging.

C. Paying taxes after the deadline.

D. Looking at the bright side of situations.

The meaning of age 15. Age when considered "adult" Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D The criterion suggested in the text for considering a person to be an "adult" is: A. physical maturity.

B. voting age.

C. drinking age.

D. ages 18-22.

16. Emerging adulthood- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Emerging adulthood is the term used to refer to which age period?

A. 15-16.

B. 30-35.

C. 18-25.

D. 65-70.

17. Young-old example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Mr. Sy Kai is 67 years old. Using the divisions of the over-65 population, he would be referred to as: A. young-old.

B. super-centenarian.

C. oldest-old.

D. old-old.

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18. Old-old- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The term "old-old" is used by gerontologists to describe: A. an unnatural aversion to the aging process.

B. the portion of the population between 75 and 84 years.

C. people who act older than they really feel.

D. the age at which people qualify for government support.

19. Oldest human Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Jeanne Louise-Calment, the oldest living documented human, died at the age of ____ years.

A. 114.

B. 107.

C. 136.

D. 122.

20. Social age- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D In categorizing people based on their “social age,” researchers in the psychology of aging would take into account their: A. ability to hear other people speak.

B. age as judged by other people.

C. familial inheritance of diseases.

D. roles in the family such as grandparent.

21. Biological age- choice Difficulty: Correct choice: A Having unusually strong muscles, a fit cardiovascular system, and good mobility would signify that an older adult has a young _____________ age.

A. biological B. normative C. maturational D. qualitative 22. Psychological age example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A

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Compared to other people his age, 68-year-old Harry Mann has excellent memory skills as shown by his ability to remember someone’s email address without having to write it down. Harry would be considered to have a particularly youthful ___________ age.

A. psychological B. sociological C. sociocultural D. ontological 23. Non-normative example- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Which of the following is a normative age-graded influence on a person’s life?

A. Becoming a parent for the first time in one’s 50s.

B. Going through a period of war in one’s 20s.

C. Retiring at the age of 65 or 70 years old.

D. Becoming a stepgrandparent in one’s 40s.

24. Non-normative - choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Which type of influence on development affects one person or family rather than everyone living in a certain place and time?

A. Non-normative.

B. Normative history-graded.

C. Normative socially-graded.

D. Normative age-graded.

25. Normative history-graded example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The Haitian earthquake of January 2010 would be considered an example of a(n) _______ influence on development of the people who were directly affect by it.

A. normative age-graded B. non-normative C. normatively graded D. normative history-graded Social factors in adult development and aging 26. Sex vs. gender definitions Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The term "gender" refers to: A. biologically assigned characteristics.

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B. self-identification as male or female.

C. treatment of women in society.

D. orientation toward sexual partners.

27. Race definition Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C The 2010 U.S. Census defined “race” on the basis of: A. standardized tests.

B. DNA results.

C. a person’s self-report.

D. birth certificate.

28. Socioeconomic status definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Sociologists use ______________ as part of the basis for defining socioeconomic status.

A. income B. race C. gender D. education 29. Socioeconomic status definition Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The individual's position within society based on indices of education and occupation is known as: A. Gender status.

B. Socioeconomic status.

C. Ethnicity.

D. Age-graded influences.

The Baby Boomers grow up: Changes in the middle-aged and older population in the United States and the world 30. Baby boom definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Baby Boomers were born in which span of years?

A. 1973-1996 B. 1929-1941 C. 1895-1924 D. 1945-1964

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31. Number over 65 Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C As of 2008, there were estimated to be ______ million people over 65 in the United States: A. 12.4.

B. 3.2 C. 36.7.

D. 56.7.

32. Percent over 65- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C The most recent census data in the U.S. tell us that ___percent of people in the U.S. are 65 years and older.

A. 2.5.

B. 27.8.

C. 12.4.

D. 55.7.

33. Oldest person was 122 Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C The person documented to have been the oldest ever was _____ when she died.

A. 115 B. 130 C. 122 D. 140 34. Number of centenarians Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B According to some estimates, there are approximately ______ centenarians currently alive in the U.S. A. 1 million B. 64,000 C. 25 million D. 400,000 35. Life expectancy definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The term _____________ is used to refer to the average number of years left for people born in a particular period of time.

A. life span IM-1 |8

B. biological clock C. social age D. life expectancy 36. Life expectancy definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Life expectancy refers to which demographic concept?

A. length of life of oldest person in population B. average length of life remaining for a given age group C. ratio of over-65 to under-65 groups in the population D. average desired length of life for a given population group 37. Life expectancy at age 65 Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B When looking at life expectancy in the U.S., demographers consistently find that life expectancy is higher: A. among men than women.

B. at age 65 than at birth.

C. among people in the South.

D. at age 18 than at age 65.

38. Number today- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C What was the average life expectancy at birth in 2007?

A. 89.3.

B. 65.2.

C. 77.9.

D. 47.8.

39. Gender proportions 40. S10-1#33 /SPARK/IM-4e Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Approximately what percent of the 65 and older population in the U.S. is female?

A. 75.

B. 58 C. 67 D. 44 41. State number IM-1 |9

Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Which U.S. state has the highest number of people 65 and older?

A. California.

B. Texas.

C. New York.

D. Florida.

42. State proportion Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Presidential candidates court heavily voters 65 and older in the state of _____, which has the highest percentage of older adults (and a large number of electoral votes).

A. Texas B. New York C. Illinois D. Florida 43. Future trends Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The fastest growing ethnic minority group in the U.S. of people 65 and older consists of: A. Asian Americans B. Non-Hispanic whites C. Blacks D. Hispanics 44. World population Difficulty: Difficult Correct choice: B Estimates are that as of 2010 the number of people 65 and older in the world today equaled approximately: A. 2 billion.

B. 531 million C. 62 thousand D. 740 million.

45. Highest percentage in world Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C As of 2010, Japan had the highest percentage of older adults in the world, estimated at __________ percent.

A. 34 IM-1 |10

B. 12 C. 20 D. 10 46. Oldest country Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B The “oldest” country in the world in terms of percent 65 and older is: A. Italy.

B. Japan.

C. Sweden.

D. China.

47. Developing nations Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Developing countries of the world will experience the greatest increase in the proportion of which age group in the population?

A. Adults 65 and older.

B. Children 6 to 10 years old.

C. Adults 25-34 years old.

D. Children 5 years and younger.

48. Developing nations growth Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C The greatest percentage growth in populations over the age of 65 will occur around the world in countries that are described as: A. developed.

B. urbanized.

C. developing.

D. industrialized.

49. Implications of changes in developing nations Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D As discussed in a class, a major consequence of the aging of the developing nations of the world will be that they will: A. Be able to reduce their taxes and social spending.

B. Need to increase their provisions for child care.

C. Experience rapid growth of new jobs.

D. Have difficulty providing economic support and health care.

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50. Country with greatest increase Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Between now and 2050, the country that is expected to show the greatest increase in the 65 and older population is: A. Indonesia.

B. Bangladesh.

C. Singapore.

D. Afghanistan.

Short Answer Questions The biopsychosocial perspective 1. What are three of the fields involved in the biopsychosocial perspective?

2. Why is the biopsychosocial perspective important in understanding the processes of adult development and aging?

Four principles of adult development and aging 1. What are the four principles underlying the study of adult development and aging?

2. Why is it important to distinguish normal aging from disease?

The meaning of age 1. What are advantages and disadvantages of using a particular age to define "adult"?

2. Define and explain the purpose of using alternative indices of age.

Personal vs. social aging 1. List the three influences on development and provide examples of each.

2. Why do researchers believe it is important to distinguish personal from social aging?

Social factors in adult development and aging 1. List and define the 5 major social categorizations used in describing the findings and theories in adult development and aging.

2. What might be the reasons for so few studies on the role of religion in aging? What might researchers be missing by failing to study this topic?

The Baby Boomers grow up: Changes in the middle-aged and older population in the United States and the world 1. What are the two main factors that have contributed to changes in life expectancy in the last 100 years?

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2. What are the four main implications of changes in the age distribution of the population in the U.S. over the next 30 to 40 years?

Essay Questions What is the value of using age as a means of understanding development? Would alternative indices be more useful? Why or why not?

Why is it important to understand individual differences in the process of development in later life?

How will changes in the age distribution of the population affect society as a whole? Provide specific examples.

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Multiple Choice Questions 1. Life-span perspective- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The term used to capture the idea that development is continuous from childhood through old age is: A. mechanistic model.

B. life-span perspective.

C. reciprocity principle.

D. programmed aging.

2. Developmental science definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The term “developmental science” is used instead of “developmental psychology” to make clear that changes over time are best viewed as: A. limited to childhood and adolescence.

B. primarily due to biological factors.

C. occurring in distinct age-related stages.

D. determined by multiple factors.

3. Developmental science definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C The idea that the study of changes in individuals should be studied over the entire lifespan as a function of complex, multiple systems, is captured in the term: A. psychological ecology.

B. mechanistic model.

C. developmental science.

D. humanist perspective.

Models of Individual-Environment Interactions 4. Organismic model example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A A biologist by training, gerontologist Frank Lee proposes that development throughout life is best understood as a series of genetically determined stages. Dr. Lee’s views come closest to which model of life-span development?

A. Organismic B. Normative.

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C. Interactionist.

D. Multidimensional.

5. Organismic model compared to others- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Which model of development places the least emphasis on the role of the environment?

A. Organismic B. Contextual C. Mechanistic D. Sociocultural 6. Interactionist model- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B The fact that identical twins could have very different amounts of skin wrinkling depending on their life style is an example of which model of development?

A. Somatic mutation.

B. Interactionist.

C. Error catastrophe.

D. Psychosocial.

7. Mechanistic model- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A According to the mechanistic model, life-span development is most strongly influenced by: A. the environment.

B. genetic inheritance.

C. hormonal changes.

D. individual choices.

8. Niche-picking definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B According to the principle of _________________, people seek out the environments that reflect their genetic inheritance; these environments in turn affect their further development.

A. reciprocity B. niche-picking C. generativity D. epigenesis 9. Plasticity and interactionist model - choice Difficulty: Hard IM-2 |2

Correct choice: C The concept of plasticity in development is most closely associated with which theoretical model?

A. Organismic B. Mechanistic C. Interactionist D. Genetic 10. Multidimensionality definition- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D The idea that development proceeds along a number of different trajectories within the person is known as: A. Niche-picking B. Reciprocity C. Epigenesis D. Multidimensionality 11. Reciprocity example- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A The principle of reciprocity in development is best illustrated by which of the following?

A. You leave your “life footprint” on those who know you.

B. Hereditary influences on your life led you to have certain abilities.

C. The neighborhood you grew up in had ample playgrounds.

D. Your grandparents helped to raise you when you were young.

12. Ecological perspective definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B According to Bronfrenbrenner’s ecological perspective, development reflects which process?

A. Changes in the environment over which the individual has virtually no control.

B. Multiple levels of the environment that interact with individual change processes.

C. Genetic inheritance with little contribution from the environment.

D. An unfolding of physiological changes associated with chronological age alone.

13. Proximal-social definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A In Bronfenbrenner's ecological model of development, the proximal-social level includes: A. friends, family, and others who are close to the individual.

B. other citizens of one’s own country.

C. government and other large-scale institutions.

D. public policy makers who create legislation.

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14. Adaptational level- choice Difficulty: Hard

Correct choice: C Coping processes are included in Bronfenbrenner’s model at the _______ level of development.

A. proximal B. sociocultural C. adaptational D. environmental 15. Sociocultural example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Changes in the U.S. economy since late 2008 would fall into the category of the ____________ in Bronfenbrenner’s model of development.

A. proximal-social B. sociocultural C. adaptational D. mechanistic Psychological models of development in adulthood 16. Epigenetic principle definition- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Which of the following is a correct interpretation of Erikson’s epigenetic principle?

A. The only possible psychosocial issue faced by college students involves identity.

B. Resolution of early childhood stages does not affect resolution of later stages.

C. Older adults are the only ones who experience concern over their mortality.

D. There is a series of stages that unfold from each other throughout life.

17. Generativity example- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Showing care and concern for a younger relative is typical of which of Erikson’s stages?

A. Intimacy vs. isolation B. Ego integrity vs. despair C. Generativity vs. stagnation D. Basic trust vs. mistrust 18. Generativity example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A IM-2 |4

Howie and Holly, a couple in their 60s, decide to retire and join the Peace Corps. They wish to serve others who are need so they can “make a difference” in the world. According to Erikson, this couple would be attempting to resolve which psychosocial issue?

A. Generativity vs. stagnation.

B. Basic trust vs. mistrust.

C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt.

D. Generousness vs. selfishness.

19. Ego integrity life review Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C The process of life review, in which the individual reconsiders past life events, is associated with which of Erikson’s psychosocial stages?

A. Generativity vs. stagnation B. Identity achievement vs. diffusion C. Ego integrity vs. despair D. Basic trust vs. mistrust 20. Intimacy stage example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B Jane and Jan have recently started dating but Jane gets annoyed by Jan's reluctance to make a commitment. What psychosocial stage do Jan and Jane differ on?

A. Intimacy vs. isolation.

B. Initiative vs. guilt.

C. Generativity vs. stagnation.

D. Industry vs. inferiority.

21. Piagetian Assimilation- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Using your existing knowledge as a basis for understanding new experiences shows, in Piaget’s theory, the process of: A. accommodation.

B. schematization.

C. identification.

D. assimilation.

22. Identity assimilation example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C An older relative of yours is having hearing problems but he doesn’t wish to acknowledge this. At a recent family gathering, it became somewhat embarrassing when people speaking to him had to shout IM-2 |5

in order to be heard. Your relative’s unwillingness to admit that he is having these difficulties might indicate that he is using the process known as: A. ego integrity.

B. plasticity.

C. identity assimilation.

D. interactionism.

23. Identity accommodation example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B People who become very convinced that they are going “over the hill” when they age are showing which type of identity process?

A. Multiple jeopardy.

B. Identity accommodation.

C. Replicative senescence.

D. Identity assimilation.

24. Identity accommodation example-choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C 67-year-old Ida Naugh is just now coming to terms with the term that she can no longer go out for a morning jog due to the fact that she is suffering chronic pain in her knees. Her realization that she will have to change to another form of exercise is an example of: A. identity assimilation.

B. the epigenetic principle.

C. identity accommodation.

D. disengagement theory.

25. Identity balance example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A A person using the process of identity balance would have which reaction to age-related changes in physical functioning?

A. Maintaining a stable view of self despite the change.

B. Becoming upset and disturbed over any sign of loss or decline.

C. Pretending that the change has not occurred.

D. Giving up entirely on any form of physical exercise.

26. Multiple threshold model- choice Difficulty: Correct choice: B According to the _______________, a middle-aged woman feels older in gradual steps when she notices that her hair is getting grayer and she cannot run as fast as she did in the past.

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A. B. C. D.

disengagement principle multiple threshold model social clock theory modernization hypothesis

Sociocultural models of development 27. Life course definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A In the ___________approach to development, emphasis is placed upon society’s expectations and the historical forces that shape the individual: A. life course B. cross-linking C. multiple threshold D. modernization 28. Life course definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The life course model proposes that development is primarily influenced by: A. genetic inheritance.

B. biological processes.

C. neurological changes.

D. age norms and attitudes.

29. Disengagement theory definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B The disengagement theory of aging proposed that as people grow older, they: A. lose sensation in their physical extremities B. wish to withdraw from society.

C. become more involved with their families.

D. prefer not to retire from their work role.

30. Disengagement theory example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Your 86-year-old great uncle says he is much happier when he can be by himself in his own home and would prefer not to spend much time with family or friends. In the past, though, he seemed happiest when he was with other people. He would be an example of which theory of aging?

A. assimilation B. social clock IM-2 |7

C. multiple threshold D. disengagement 31. Social clock definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The _______________ model of aging over the life course emphasizes the normative expectations associated with getting older.

A. wear-and-tear B. social clock C. multiple threshold D. reciprocal 32. Social clock definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B In adult development and aging, a “social clock” is defined as: A. influences on development due to heredity.

B. expectations for what is normal in the life course.

C. changes in the sense of time due to loss of neurons.

D. a preference to spend time with younger people.

33. Social clock example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Ranee Day enters graduate school in her 40s, much later than most of her friends, who either never went to graduate school or are finished with their degrees. Ranee would be considered to have an “offtime” _______ clock: A. social B. normative C. stereotype D. epigenetic 34. Ageism example- choice Difficulty: Correct choice: D A woman who has just turned 85 feels that everyone she meets treats her with less respect than she feels she used to have when she was younger. This woman sees herself as the target of: A. socialism.

B. accommodation.

C. disengagement.

D. ageism.

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35. Ageism research example Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Research by Chasteen in which college students described what they would be like at age 70 suggested those who have the most negative views about older adults: A. are closest to their own grandparents.

B. speak English as a second language.

C. strongly identify with their own age group.

D. have good friends who are in their 30s.

36. Modernization theory- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C According to modernization theory, attitudes toward older adults will be more negative the higher the society’s: A. feminism.

B. agrarianism.

C. industrialization.

D. illiteracy.

37. Modernization theory- choice Difficulty:Easy Correct choice: A The idea that the status of older people in society diminishes as that society becomes increasingly industrialized is known as the ____________ theory of ageism.

A. modernization B. inoculation C. multiple jeopardy D. possible selves 38. Multiple jeopardy definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B The idea that older adults who are subject to more than one type of discrimination in addition to ageism are particularly disadvantaged is known as the ____________ hypothesis.

A. possible selves B. multiple jeopardy C. social clock D. life course 39. Age-as-levelr Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D IM-2 |9

According to the age-as-leveler viewpoint, older adults should experience which type of outcome with regard to discrimination?

A. Each additional type of bias against an individual should be harmful.

B. Only those older adults who are White are immune from ageism.

C. As people age into their 90s and beyond, there is less ageism directed at them.

D. All older adults, regardless of ethnicity or gender, are victim of the same biases.

Biological approaches to aging in adulthood 40. Gompertz Curve- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D The Gompertz curve helps biologists to understand which aspect of aging?

A. Why radiation increases the rate of free radicals B. How unhealthy habits contribute to early death C. The impact of exercise on life extension D. The role of genetics in determining lifespan 41. Gompertz Curve- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C The relationship between death rate and age of organism shown for a species is known as the: A. social clock.

B. time of measurement effect.

C. Gompertz curve.

D. multiple threshold model.

42. Replicative senescence- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The principle of replicative senescence refers to the fact that: A. women are able to reproduce only until the age of menopause.

B. long-lived species have longer DNA molecules than short-lived species.

C. cells with larger amounts of DNA survive longer than cells with less DNA. D. the number of cell divisions possible for a given cell has an upward limit.

43. Evolutionary theory Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C The view that aging occurs due to “good genes gone bad” would be explained by a(n) ____________ explanation.

A. ecological B. environmental IM-2 |10

C. evolutionary D. replicative 44. Telomere theory- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A According to the telomere theory, the cause of aging is thought to be: A. loss of vital genetic information during cell division.

B. lack of sufficient hormones to keep the body alive.

C. decreases in the number of neurons in the brain.

D. buildup of free radicals and other deleterious substances.

45. Antioxidants Difficulty:Hard Correct choice: D Antioxidants are thought to be important to reversing or slowing down the aging process according to which biological theory?

A. telomere B. autoimmune C. replicative D. free radical 46. Cross-linking theory- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C As discussed in class, according to the cross-linking theory of aging, changes occur in collagen due to a process known as: A. overproduction.

B. telomerization.

C. glycosylation.

D. antioxidation.

47. Random error theory- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Random error theories propose that aging occurs as the result of: A. unplanned changes over time B. a combination of genes and the environment C. genetically programmed changes.

D. replicative senescence.

48. Resveratrol- stem IM-2 |11

Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Which type of beverage is thought to reduce the rate of aging because it contains resveratrol?

A. red wine B. coffee C. ginger ale D. sparkling water 49. Caloric restriction- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B According to the caloric restriction hypothesis, eating a diet low in total calories slows down the aging process by: A. slowing photosynthesis.

B. reducing free radicals .

C. increasing stress levels.

D. reducing cell division.

50. Autoimmune theory- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Which theory of aging proposes that the body loses its ability to recognize the body’s own cells, leading to harmful changes?

A. Autoimmune.

B. Error catastrophe.

C. Replicative senescence.

D. Gompertz curve.

Short Answer Questions Models of development 1.

2.

3.

What are the three major approaches to understanding development? How do they differ in their emphasis on the role of the individual in development?

What is niche-picking? Provide an example from your own experience that illustrates how this principle operates in development.

Define and contrast the terms: theory, hypothesis, model, and perspective.

Psychological models of development in adulthood 1.

2.

3.

Define the term "epigenetic" and explain how it relates to Erikson's psychosocial theory.

What are the four major psychosocial crises of adulthood according to Erikson? Define and provide an example of each.

What is an implication of the "matrix" as described within Erikson's theory regarding the relationship between age and specific psychosocial issues?

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Piaget's cognitive-developmental theory 1.

2.

Define and provide an example of these terms: a.

Assimilation. b.

Accommodation. c.

Equilibration.

How does Piaget's theory differ from that of Erikson?

Identity process model 1.

2.

3.

Define and provide an example of these terms: a. Identity assimilation. b. Identity accommodation. c. Identity balance.

What is the relationship of the multiple threshold model to the identity processes?

How does the multiple threshold model relate to the concept of reciprocity in development?

Sociocultural models of development 1.

2.

What is the major assumption of the life course perspective?

What are the major levels of organization in the ecological perspective?

Biological approaches to aging in adulthood 1.

2.

3.

Briefly describe the process of aging according to the telomere theory.

Define and contrast the random error theories of aging and provide an implication that each theory has for how individuals can slow the rate of their own aging.

Can random error theories be integrated with programmed aging theories? Why or why not?

Essay Questions 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Defend your position about "why" aging occurs, from an evolutionary perspective.

Describe and analyze a behavior of yours related to your own aging in terms of: a.

Identity processes. b.

Multiple threshold model. c.

Sociocultural perspectives.

What are two forms that "ageism" can take in terms of ways of thinking about older adults?

Provide your own analysis of why negative attitudes have existed toward older adults in Western society. How might these change in the future?

How do biological theories of aging relate to sociocultural views of development?

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Multiple choice questions Variables in developmental research

1. Age as an independent variable Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Because it can never be manipulated, age can never be considered to be a(n) ________ variable: A. dependent B. independent C. correlational D. experimental 2. Dependent variable example- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A A team of psychologists was called in by a nursing home administrator to find out how to increase the amount of food eaten by residents at meals. The researchers decided to vary the number of people seated at a table during mealtime and then compare the amount of food consumed by residents. In this study, the dependent variable was the: A. amount of food consumed.

B. type of food served.

C. number of people seated at the table.

D. age of the residents.

3. Quasi-experimental design- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Researchers use quasi-experimental designs due to which type of situation?

A. There are too few participants to allow for statistical analyses.

B. The variable of interest cannot be manipulated by the experimenter.

C. The experimenter has insufficient funding for the project.

D. Mean scores cannot be compared between groups.

4. Quasi-experimental design- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Because age is not a true independent variable, research on human development uses which type of research design?

A. true experimental B. pseudo correlational C. non statistical D. quasi experimental IM-3 |1

5. Cohort definition-stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The term “cohort” as used in research on adult development and aging refers to: A. the effects of practice on a test over time.

B. a group of people born within a given span of years.

C. individuals with a given education and occupational level.

D. people who exhibit the same dietary and exercise habits.

6. Cohort definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D In developmental research, everyone who was born within a given span of years, such as the years 1960-65, would be considered to represent the same: A. class.

B. sequence.

C. category.

D. cohort.

7. Cohort effects example- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Dr. Minnie Skurt is conducting a study on aging and memory abilities in which she compares college students and older adults but she is concerned about cohort effects. Specifically, this means that Dr. Skurt is concerned that: A. the older adults in the sample will become discouraged and quit the study.

B. generational differences other than age will produce the observed results.

C. the study will take too long to conduct and not be publishable.

D. the younger adults in the sample will tell their friends not to volunteer.

8. Time of measurement effect- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Dr. Chlora Fill is conducting a study on aging and stress that she just happens to be working on soon after a major earthquake hit a nearby town. She is concerned about time of measurement effects.

Specifically, this means that Dr. Skurt is concerned that the: A. older adults in the sample are somehow sturdier and more resilient than the younger adults.

B. study will take too long to conduct due to the disaster and therefore and not be publishable.

C. participants will still be feeling the effects of the disaster which will affect their scores.

D. younger adults in the sample will be afraid to volunteer because they are concerned about another earthquake.

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Descriptive research designs 9. Longitudinal study- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D In a(n) ______________ type of study, researchers follow the same individuals over a period of time, typically from several years to several decades.

A. observational B. behavioral C. chronological D. longitudinal 10. Longitudinal problem- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Measures becoming outdated or obsolete is a problem primarily affecting which type of research design used to study aging?

A. cross-sequential B. longisectional C. cross-sectional D. longitudinal 11. Selective attrition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C When a sample of people are followed over time, the less able ones tend to drop out of the sample, a problem known as: A. quasi-experimentation.

B. socio-historical aging.

C. selective attrition.

D. logistic regression.

12. Selective attrition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A The problem of attrition in longitudinal research on aging means that: A. the presence of people who are ill and will die after being tested artificially raises the scores of the survivors when they are retested.

B. participants who do well on the tests are likely to drop out sooner because they resent the interference of researchers in their lives.

C. people who drop out of a study are likely to be angry at the researchers and therefore want to make sure the results are not valid.

D. healthier people are less likely to remain in the sample because they tend to move away from the research laboratory.

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13. Selective attrition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Over the years of a longitudinal study, people in the sample may die off or for other reasons become unavailable for follow-up. This problem is referred to as: A. cause and effect.

B. random error.

C. selective attrition.

D. wear and tear.

14. Selective attrition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A In research on aging, the presence of people who are ill and will die after being tested artificially raises the scores of the survivors when they are retested, a problem known as: A. selective attrition.

B. experimental interference.

C. unbiased attrition.

D. longitudinal fatigue.

15. Selective attrition - choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B When the unhealthy members of a sample die out, the scores of the survivors seem to “rise.” This research problem in studies on aging is referred to as: A. altered time analysis B. selective attrition C. time of testing D. multiple analysis 16. Cross-sectional definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B In a cross-sectional study, which of the following designs is used?

A. Two cohorts are followed up over two or more time points.

B. People from different cohorts are compared at one time.

C. One cohort is studied at different historical periods.

D. People from one cohort are followed over time.

17. Cross-sectional definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate IM-3 |4

Correct choice: C A study on adult development and aging in which people of different ages are compared in one relatively short period of time such as weeks or months is called a(n) ______________ design.

A. efficient B. longitudinal C. cross-sectional D. sequential 18. Cross-sectional confound with cohort Difficulty: Correct choice: C A cross-sectional study is likely to reveal differences in performance between younger and older adults due to differences in: A. genetic inheritance.

B. time of measurement.

C. cohort or time of birth.

D. rate of living.

19. Cross-sectional problem- example Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Research reported in a major newspaper states that happiness decreases in midlife and increases again in middle age due to age changes in personality. The conclusion was based on a survey of adults of different ages using a cross-sectional design. Without knowing anything more about the study, what criticism would you make of its conclusions?

A. There was no control for education or occupational status.

B. The cross-sectional design did not permit conclusions about age changes.

C. Happiness cannot properly be measured by using a survey.

D. The study was unethical because it did not include informed consent.

20. Cross-sectional problem- example Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Dr. Beau Tocks published a study in 2009 comparing older and younger men on their attitudes toward exercise. The older adults were found to have more negative attitudes. The researcher concluded that attitudes toward exercise change in a negative direction as people get older. What is a valid criticism of Dr. Tocks's study?

A. He should not have measured attitudes toward exercise because behavior is more important than attitudes.

B. Dr. Tocks could not conclude that people "changed" in their attitudes, because the study was cross-sectional.

C. Men don't like to exercise as much as women do anyway, so Dr. Tocks should not have studied men at all.

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D. The year 2009) was a bad year to conduct research on exercise because most people were preoccupied with the economy.

Sequential research designs 21. Sequential design definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B In sequential studies of aging, researchers use which method?

A. Obtain information from people differing in age during one time period.

B. Collect data from more than one cohort at more than one time.

C. Examine in depth one carefully collected cohort that they follow over time.

D. Repeatedly investigate people born in one birth year over several decades.

22. Sequential design definition- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A The only type of design in the study of adult development and aging that allows for the possibility of separating age from cohort or time of measurement is known as: A. sequential.

B. cross-sectional.

C. longitudinal.

D. qualitative.

23. Cross-sequential design definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C The cross-sequential design is unique in studies on aging in that it is the only design that does NOT provide estimates of the effects of: A. time.

B. generation.

C. age.

D. cohort.

24. Cross-sequential design definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B In a cross-sequential design, researchers investigate the independent effects of time of measurement and: A. age B. cohort C. gender D. race IM-3 |6

25. Cross-sequential design definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A The developmental research design in which the effects of cohort and time of measurement are investigated is known as: A. cross-sequential.

B. quasi-sequential.

C. cross-sectional.

D. time-sequential.

26. Most Efficient Design definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C The “Most Efficient Design” was developed for research on aging as a way to: A. analyze longitudinal data on age differences in intelligence.

B. allow age to be an independent variable in experimental studies.

C. provide ways to separate age from cohort and time of measurement.

D. draw cause-and-effect conclusions about the effects of age on behavior.

27. Most Efficient Design definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Seattle researcher Warner Schaie developed which approach to separating age, cohort, and time of measurement in research on aging?

A. Least Effective Design.

B. Most Expensive Design.

C. Most Efficient Design.

D. Least Intelligent Design.

Correlational studies 28. Conclusions from correlational studies Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B A group of researchers testing the relationship between memory and aging find that there is a negative correlation between memory performance and age. What can the researchers justifiably conclude from this result?

A. Age caused poorer memory performance.

B. The older the adult, the poorer the memory performance.

C. Age caused better memory performance.

D. There was no relationship between age and memory performance.

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29. Multiple regression definition- choice Difficulty: Correct choice: D Researchers use multiple regression when they are seeking to accomplish what goal?

A. Eliminate age differences in responses.

B. Examine how two variables relate to each other.

C. Focus specifically on cognitive functioning.

D. Attempt to predict scores on dependent variables.

30. Structural equation models- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Researchers who want to test causal hypotheses about a set of relationships involving age are likely to use which specific type of design?

A. Cross-sequential.

B. Structural equation model.

C. Quasi-experimental.

D. Correlational.

31. Hierarchical Linear Modeling method- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Researchers who wish to examine patterns of individual change over time might use the multivariate correlational method known as: A. logistic regression.

B. structural equation modeling.

C. hierarchical linear modeling.

D. multiple regression analysis.

32. Logistic regression method- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Logistic regression is the best statistical method to use when researchers try to accomplish what objective of a study?

A. study gender differences B. construct a complex model C. predict an outcome D. obtain informed consent 33. Logistic regression method- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A

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Dr. Bob Loblaw is a researcher is trying to predict which participants in a study will develop cataracts, a visual impairment that becomes more frequent in older adults. People are classified according to whether or not they have cataracts, and then a set of predictor variables are assessed. It is likely that the researcher will use which statistical technique?

A. logistic regression B. focus groups C. observational method D. validity analysis Types of research methods 34. Laboratory method example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Dr. Ican Singh is conducting research on aging and color perception. He has arranged for participants to be tested at computer stations where their responses can be recorded. Dr. Singh is therefore planning to use the __________ in his study.

A. laboratory B. focus group C. survey D. archival 35. Focus group method example- choice Difficulty: Correct choice: D Drs. High and Lowe are planning a study on retirement adaptation but they wish to obtain some informal data from retirees before they begin their actual research. They solicit participants from a retirement community and ask them to participate in small discussions of 5 to 6 people each. The method they are using is called: A. laboratory study B. case report C. archival study D. focus group 36. Archival method definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D In an archival study, the researcher uses what type of data?

A. Responses from participants collected in a laboratory.

B. Observations of individuals in various settings.

C. Questionnaire responses gathered through surveys.

D. Information that was previously gathered or recorded.

37. Archival method example- choice

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Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B In a study on income and well-being among older adults, researchers examined data from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention that provided information from a large national data bank both on amount of yearly earnings and rates of admission to mental hospitals. This is known as a(n) ____________ method.

A. longitudinal B. archival C. observational D. focus group 38. Case report definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B In the case report method, researchers on aging gather data by: A. examining large amounts of information from previously established sources.

B. studying intensively one or a small number of individuals using many measures.

C. giving questionnaires to large, nationally representative samples of adults.

D. asking several people to provide candid reactions to a given problem or situation.

39. Survey research method definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Investigators who give short, relatively simple questionnaires to a large sample intended to represent a larger population in terms of age, gender, and social class are using which type of research?

A. Case study.

B. Focus group.

C. Survey method.

D. Laboratory study.

40. Survey research method definition – stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A In survey research on adult development and aging, investigators typically use which procedure?

A. Ask a large sample of participants a short series of simple questions.

B. Conduct intensive interviews with just a very few participants.

C. Examine data files from research conducted by other investigators.

D. Ask a few older people to discuss their ideas about the research topic.

41. Observational method example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D

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Counting the number of people during a given time span who engage in unhealthy behaviors such as wearing headphones and smoking would constitute what type of research?

A. Longitudinal B. Correlational C. Experimental D. Observational Measurement issues in adult development and aging 42. Validity definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Tests in adult development and aging that are valid are shown to: A. measure what they are supposed to measure.

B. provide proof of age differences in functioning.

C. produce consistent scores over time.

D. be more appropriate for older than younger adults.

43. Reliability definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Researchers attempt to use measures that are reliable, meaning that they: A. can be used in surveys.

B. yield consistent scores.

C. are easy to understand D. test what they should.

44. Reliability example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Dr. Sy Copath is conducting a study in which he wishes to compare perceptions of relationships in younger and older members of the same family. He must take steps to ensure that the test is _________, meaning that it produces consistent results, before he can compare responses of the family members.

A. quasi-experimental B. focused C. multi-dimensional D. reliable Ethical issues in research 45. Confidentiality- stem Difficulty: IM-3 |11

Correct choice: D The right to confidentiality in research on aging assures that data from older patients in hospitals and nursing homes will: A. not be used if patients die before the study is completed.

B. shared only with close family members.

C. not be labeled with the patient’s name at any time.

D. kept secured from everyone except the researchers.

46. HIPAA- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) provides individuals with protection of their: A. right to sue their physicians.

B. coverage of medical expenses.

C. protection of medical records.

D. right to decline medical treatment.

47. HIPAA definition- choice Difficulty: Correct choice: D Protection of medical records, including electronic forms of medical records, is provided by legislation called: A. APAGS. B. HLMMR. C. MEDRA. D. HIPAA. 48. IRB’s- choice Difficulty: Correct choice: B When investigators propose to conduct a new study, they are obligated to have the study reviewed by a(n): A. federal granting agency.

B. institutional review board.

C. professional standards association.

D. state licensing board.

49. Debriefing example- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Dr. Sherwood Forrest studies the effects of age on political attitudes. To avoid biasing their responses, he uses deception in the study. The APA ethical requirement that researchers debrief their participants means that Dr. Forrest must: IM-3 |12

A. B. C. D.

ask participants to provide their email address so that reporters can later contact them. inform participants prior to completing the study that deception will be used. ensure that political organizations do not obtain the data from the study. reveal the study’s true purpose to participants after they complete the study.

50. Informed consent example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Dr. Robin Banks is a researcher is conducting a study in which she asks widows to imagine they are in a conversation with their deceased spouse. According to the principle of informed consent, participants should be told that: A. the study involves feelings toward the deceased spouse.

B. there will be no questions about deceased relatives.

C. the study is really about attitudes toward the use of cellular telephones.

D. they cannot learn anything about the study until after it is over.

Short answer questions Variables in developmental research 1.

2.

3.

Compare an experimental with a quasi-experimental design. Which type of design is used in studies on aging?

Define age, cohort, and time of measurement. What is each variable intended to represent?

Why are age, cohort, and time of measurement dependent on each other? Why is this a problem in research on adult development and aging?

Descriptive research designs 1.

2.

Define a longitudinal and a cross-sectional design. Compare two advantages and two disadvantages of each.

What solutions have researchers developed to overcome the problems of descriptive research designs?

Sequential research designs 1.

2.

What is the purpose of sequential research?

What are the three sequential designs in the Most Efficient Design?

Correlational approaches in research on aging 1.

2.

What is the reason that researchers do not allow cause-and-effect conclusions to be drawn from correlational studies?

List and define two multivariate correlational approaches. How are these used to overcome the problem that "correlation does not equal causality"?

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Types of research 1.

2.

Provide examples of each of the following methods: 1) Case study 2) Observational study 3) Focus group You are hired to be a consultant in a nursing home to study socialization patterns of residents.

Which research method would give you the most useful data? Why?

Measurement issues in adult development and aging 1.

2.

3.

What are the two forms of reliability? Why are each important?

List the four forms of validity and provide an example of how each would be measured.

Describe why it is important for researchers to establish the reliability and validity of measures for each age group in a cross-sectional study.

Ethical issues in research 1.

2.

What are the four components of ethical standards in research?

Why were ethical standards developed and why are they important?

Essay questions 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Design a study on a topic of interest to you using longitudinal and cross-sectional methods.

Describe the potential problems you would have with each method and how you would overcome these problems.

Describe how you would apply the sequential designs to a study you develop. Analyze how the pattern of results you obtain would indicate the effects of age, cohort, and time of measurement.

Discuss the problems involved in simple correlational designs and explain the advantages to using multivariate designs instead. Think of a research example to illustrate these points.

Analyze the issue of psychometrics in research on aging. Why is it important for researchers to ascertain that measures are equally applicable to each age group in a study? Do the same considerations apply in longitudinal research designs?

Describe how you would go about ensuring the rights of participants in a study on memory and aging. Design a consent form, a debriefing form, and a set of guidelines to use that will ensure protection of the confidentiality of data.

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Multiple choice questions Appearance

1. Changes in elastin- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Changes in the _________ fibers of the dermis contribute to the wrinkling of the skin.

A. dermin B. melanin C. vascular D. elastin 2. Photoaging prevention Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The best way to prevent photoaging is to use what type of product?

A. rogaine B. sunscreen C. retinol D. earplugs 3. Androgenica alopecia definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C The loss of hair associated with aging due to hormonal changes is known as: A. melatonin minimization.

B. ostopenia orthologica.

C. alopecia androgenica D. lipoprotenia lipolysis.

4. Changes in body build example Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Mrs. Barb E. Dahl is a 75-year-old woman who can’t figure out why she’s getting shorter as she gets older. Her decrease in height is most likely due to: A. shrinking of the vertebrae.

B. thinning of the hair on her scalp.

C. reduction of fat free body mass.

D. rigidification of her arteries.

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5. Anorexia of aging definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Older adults may loss considerable amounts of fat-free mass due to a condition known as ________ of aging.

A. anorexia B. hyperoxia C. hydroxia D. nephrenia

Mobility 6. Sarcopenia definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C People who do not exercise by weightlifting or other forms of strength training are more likely to experience _____________ as they grow older.

A. cartilagia B. elastophobia C. sarcopenia D. osteoblasis 7. Sarcopenia definition- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A The term sarcopenia refers to which process associated with aging?

A. Progressive loss of muscle mass.

B. Increased joint stiffness.

C. Reduction of bone mineral content.

D. Changes in the skin due to sun exposure.

8. Sarcopenia example- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Because she is experiencing sarcopenia, 78-year-old Mrs.Tai Chee is most likely to have difficulty performing which type of activity?

A. reading a newspaper B. singing karaoke C. lifting weights D. digesting sweets 9. Loss of bone strength IM-4 |2

Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Mrs. Werka Holic is too busy in her job as a financial advisor to find time to work out in the gym although she occasionally uses the treadmill. She is likely to suffer a greater amount of which agerelated change in functioning?

A. reduction of estrogen B. loss of bone mineral content C. increase in arterial cartilage D. cross-linking of collagen 10. Factors related to bone loss Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Bone loss throughout adulthood is greatest for individuals with which characteristic?

A. White women.

B. People in rural areas.

C. African American women.

D. High muscle mass.

11. Treatment for joint damage example Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Mrs. Wikki Pedia is an 80-year-old woman who is suffering from limited range of motion due to degenerative changes in her knees, shoulders, and wrists. If you were her physical therapist, you might suggest that she offset these changes by engaging in: A. strenuous exercise.

B. high intake of sweets.

C. rest and relaxation.

D. flexibility training.

12. Prevention of damage Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Wearing proper shoes when exercising, such as well-cushioned sneakers, is the best way that you can prevent which age-related change in your body?

A. Reduction of cardiac output.

B. Accumulation of atherosclerotic plaque.

C. Damage to arterial cartilage.

D. Deterioration of bone mineral.

Vital bodily functions 13. Effects of normal aging- loss of aerobic capacity

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Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C A decrease in cardiac output with age is often described in terms of loss of: A. hyperintensities.

B. glucocorticoids.

C. aerobic capacity.

D. blood pressure.

14. 10% loss in aerobic power per decade Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Loss of about 10% per decade throughout adulthood can be expected in which measure of cardiovascular ability?

A. Epigenesis.

B. Skin conductance.

C. Aerobic power.

D. Magnetic resonance.

15. Smoking and lung age Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C People who smoke cigarettes throughout their adult years are likely to have a higher ___________ than people who do not.

A. alveolar ratio B. oxygen index C. lung age D. aerobic capacity 16. Effects of changes in the kidneys Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Any deleterious changes in the kidneys with age could have negative effects on which aspect of daily functioning?

A. Ability to adapt to exertion or extreme heat.

B. Efficiency of ventilation of the blood.

C. Regulation of glucose intake.

D. Control by the endocrine system.

17. Changes in the prostate Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C The normal enlargement of the ___________ gland in men may cause difficulties with urination and pain.

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A. B. C. D.

alveoli pituitary prostate somatin

18. Compensation for incontinence Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Mrs. Dee Pends is told by her physician that rather than use adult diapers, a better way to treat her occasional episodes of urinary incontinence is by: A. reducing the size of her prostate.

B. learning behavioral methods.

C. practicing Tai Chi. D. exercising her nephrons.

19. Effects of aging on digestion Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Which of the following statements about aging and digestion is true?

A. Older adults can benefit from eating food high in fiber.

B. Social factors have little effect on the dietary patterns of older adults C. Hormones are needed to maintain regular digestion in later life.

D. Regular use of laxatives by older adults is necessary for digestive health.

Bodily control systems 20. Adrenopause definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C The decrease with age in the hormone known as DHEA is referred to specifically as: A. corticopause B. melanopause C. adrenopause D. estrogenopause 21. Age changes in growth hormone- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Decreases in strength, changes in sleep patterns, and loss of bone mineral content are thought to be in part caused by alterations with age in ________.

A. cortisol.

B. growth hormone.

C. testosterone.

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D. insulin.

22. Glucocorticoid cascade hypothesis- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Cortisol, also known as the "stress hormone," is thought to have specific negative effects on which aspect of psychological functioning affected by the aging process?

A. Sexual interest.

B. Cognition.

C. Taste sensitivity.

D. Visual perception.

23. Cortisol as stress hormone- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Mr. Harry Nomore is experiencing a decrease in testosterone as he passes the age of 60. The term for this decrease is: A. menopause.

B. immunopause.

C. andropause.

D. estrogenopause.

24. Melatonin- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Changes in melatonin with age are thought to be related to which aspect of physical functioning in adulthood?

A. regulation of glucose B. circadian rhythm C. metabolic rate D. urinary functioning 25. Estrogen replacement therapy and colon cancer risk Difficulty: .94 Correct choice: B As reported in class, the most recent findings on hormone replacement therapy in women suggest that estrogen treatments may be related to lower rates of: A. incontinence.

B. colon cancer.

C. excretion rates.

D. melatonin production.

26. Testosterone and diabetes IM-4 |6

Difficulty: Correct choice: C Researchers report that older men with ___________ tend to have higher rates of testosterone loss.

A. ulcers B. high muscle mass C. diabetes D. sleep problems 27. Erectile dysfunction and exercise Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Dr. Hy Five specializes in sexual difficulties in older men. As a first step toward treatment of erectile dysfunction, Dr. Five suggests that his patients begin a program of ____________, known to help reduce incidence of this condition.

A. higher calcium intake B. melatonin injections C. aerobic exercise D. cholesterol supplements 28. Immune senescence- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The fact that older adults were less vulnerable to the H1N1 virus is an exception to the general process that occurs in later life known as: A. glucocorticoid cascade.

B. immune senescence.

C. regulatory dysthermia.

D. pulmonary deficiency.

Nervous system 29. Plasticity in nervous system- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Research in which exercise in later life was shown to be related to brain volume increases is consistent with the ____________ model of aging and the nervous system.

A. fallout B. thermic C. plasticity D. hormonal 30. Plasticity in nervous system- stem Difficulty: Moderate IM-4 |7

Correct choice: A The plasticity model of the nervous system proposes that: A. synaptic connections in the brain grow with increasing age and experience in life.

B. areas in the brain become less flexible as people grow older.

C. exposure to toxins in the environment contributes to neuronal loss with age.

D. aging involves a continuous loss of synapses in the central nervous system 31. White matter hyperintensities definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Areas that show up on MRI brain scans known as white matter hyperintensities are believed to be composed of: A. clumps of dying neurons.

B. well-developed dendrites.

C. areas lacking neurons.

D. deep traumatic injuries.

32. White matter hyperintensities definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Areas in the brain that show up as opaque spots on brain scans and that seem to contain parts of dying neurons are known as: A. ventricular enlargements.

B. white matter hyperintensities.

C. fiber tract abnormalities.

D. delta wave hyperplasias.

33. Circadian rhythms and aging example Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Ella Vador finds it difficult to sleep much past 5:30 am and by 9 in the evening she is tired and ready to go to bed. Based on what you know about circadian rhythms in adulthood, it is likely that Ella is most likely to be _____ years old.

A. 25 B. 40 C. 75 D. 50 34. Circadian rhythms and aging Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The majority of older adults fall into which category of circadian rhythms?

A. Definitely evening.

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B. Definitely mid-day.

C. Somewhat evening.

D. Mostly morning.

35. Insomnia and aging Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The most prevalent sleep problem for older adults is: A. circadismia.

B. Insomnia.

C. narcolepsy.

D. hypervigilance.

36. Heat-related deaths example Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Bob Loblaw’s relatives are worried about him because at the age of 82, he statistically is at greater risk of dying from hyperthermia. However, unless Bob suffers from _________, their anxieties are perhaps exaggerated.

A. hypersomnia B. heart disease C. tinnitus D. vertigo Sensation and perception 37. Age-related macular degeneration Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Age-related macular degeneration involves which set of changes in the retina?

A. Destruction of photoreceptors in the central region of the retina.

B. Loss of pigment in the rods, leaving the cones intact.

C. Excessive pressure in the area between the two eyeballs.

D. Significant drop in pressure within the eyeballs themselves.

38. Presbyopia definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A The condition known as presbyopia involves which normal age-related change?

A. Loss of flexibility of the lens B. Bone loss in the middle ear.

C. clouding of the cornea D. decline of taste receptors

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39. Presbyopia compensation Difficulty: .96 Correct choice: B Due to presbyopia, 55-year-old Mrs. Anne Teak needs to use: A. hearing aids.

B. bifocals.

C. a walking stick.

D. binoculars.

40. Cataract cause Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A The term _________ refers to a clouding of the lens of the eye, a condition that affects many older adults.

A. cataract B. cornea C. cochlea D. opacity 41. Age-related macular degeneration- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Mrs. Anita Rest is experiencing vision loss in later adulthood due to destruction of photoreceptors in the central region of the retina, a condition known as: A. age-related presbycusis.

B. cochlear disintegration.

C. age-related macular degeneration.

D. progressive tinnitus.

42. Presbycusis cause Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A The condition known as presbycusis is often associated with which high-risk behavior?

A. Listening to loud music.

B. Not wearing sunglasses.

C. Having a sedentary lifestyle.

D. Exposure to cold temperatures.

43. Presbycusis example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Jack Daniels, a 76-year-old man, is unable to hear sounds that are high in pitch such as the playing of a violin or the songs of a soprano. Jack suffers from which age-related form of hearing loss?

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A. B. C. D.

Presbyopia.

Tinnitus.

Presbyaudio.

Presbycusis.

44. Presbycusis example- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D 66-year-old Dee Troit was distressed to learn that, after years of listening to loud music, she is experiencing presbycusis. This means that Dee suffers from: A. overgrowth of hair cells.

B. contraction of the eardrum.

C. oversensitivity to noise.

D. loss of high-pitched acuity.

45. Fall prevention Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Al Zimer is worried because his father has become increasingly frail and unstable on his feet. Al decides to follow the advice of a gerontology blog, which advises that to reduce falls, older adults should: A. remove handrails from halls and stairways in the home.

B. avoid any kind of physical activity, especially exercise.

C. work on training their ability to maintain their balance.

D. increase their fear of falling so they avoid harm.

46. Tai Chi to maintain balance Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Research has shown that the regular practice of _________ can help reduce an older person’s risk of falling.

A. Karate B. Tai Chi. C. Judo.

D. Meditation.

47. Odor and cognition Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Researchers have found that older adults who suffer decreases in their sensitivity to _________ are also likely to show significant cognitive declines.

A. taste B. smell C. pain IM-4 |11

D. vertigo 48. Taste and dentures Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Older adults who experience age-related loss of sensitivity to subtle taste in food are more likely to: A. wear dentures.

B. suffer fatal falls.

C. eat more frequently.

D. be prone to vertigo.

49. Tooth loss and education Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Research presented in class shows that older adults who are most likely to experience tooth loss have low levels of: A. cigarette use.

B. back pain.

C. education.

D. kinesthesis.

50. Pain and cognitive performance Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Research shows that among older who suffer from chronic back pain there is a higher rate of: A. suicidality.

B. tooth decay.

C. memory loss.

D. brain damage.

Short answer questions Appearance 1.

2.

Summarize the major changes in the skin and hair.

Explain the major changes in height and weight in adulthood.

Mobility 1.

2.

3.

Describe the major changes that occur with age in the muscles, bones, and joints.

Indicate next to each change what steps individuals can take to prevent or offset these changes.

Indicate for changes in bone what variations exist by sex and race.

Vital bodily functions IM-4 |12

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Describe the major changes in the cardiovascular system.

What are three effects of aerobic exercise on cardiovascular functioning? How do these effects differ by sex?

Summarize the effects of aging on the lungs.

What are the two most important changes in the urinary system?

What are the lifestyle and social factors that can contribute to changes in digestion in older adults?

Bodily control systems 1.

2.

3.

Summarize the effects of aging on the seven major hormones in the endocrine system.

Compare the forms of hormone replacement therapy in terms of their demonstrated effectiveness and side effects.

What are the two major forms of immunity? Name the cells involved in each form of immunity.

Nervous system 1.

2.

3.

4.

Contrast the neuronal fallout and plasticity models of the aging nervous system.

What are the four major changes in sleep patterns and circadian rhythms in adulthood?

Name the four conditions that can interfere with sleep in older adults.

Describe four ways in which chronic medical conditions can interfere with body temperature control in later adulthood.

Sensation and Perception 1.

2.

3.

What are three forms of blindness that become more common in later adulthood? What is the cause of each?

List three hearing problems that are more prevalent among older adults.

Describe eight strategies that are recommended for improving communication with an older person who has hearing loss.

Balance 1.

2.

Contrast dizziness and vertigo.

List three ways that older adults can compensate for changes in balance to reduce the likelihood of a fall.

Smell and Taste 1.

2.

List five possible causes of reduced smell sensitivity in older adults.

Describe strategies that older adults can use to compensate for changes in smell and taste sensitivity.

Somatosensory system 1.

Summarize age-related changes in the three major components of the somatosensory system.

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2.

Describe how changes in the somatosensory system can contribute to changes in balance to increase the older adult's risk of falling.

Essay questions 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Describe an ideal exercise program that you would develop for older adults. Indicate which aspects of the program you would emphasize and how these would help to compensate for agerelated losses in a variety of bodily functions.

How does the description of age-related changes in physical and sensory functioning relate to the theories presented in Chapter 2?

Critique the research methods that were used to obtain the majority of findings presented in the chapter. What improvements would you suggest in the research procedures used to determine the effects of aging on various bodily systems?

What do you believe are the most significant age-related changes in the body? Why are these so important?

What areas of functioning are most in need of further research on aging? What would be the theoretical implications of such research? What would be the practical implications of the findings derived from this research?

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Multiple choice questions There are a few extra questions in this chapter given the fact that it includes dementia, an extensive topic in its own right.

1. Prevalence of chronic conditions Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Which is the most commonly experienced chronic condition in both men and women over the age of 65?

A. Arthritis.

B. Dysthermia.

C. Pseudodementia.

D. Delirium.

2. Prevalence of chronic conditions Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Starting at the age of 75, over half of all older adults suffer from which chronic health condition?

A. heart disease B. arthritis C. diabetes D. cancer Diseases of the cardiovascular system 3. Hypertension example- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Bud Weiser was disappointed to learn that his blood pressure was 140/90. This means that Bud has the chronic health condition known as: A. arteriosclerosis.

B. hypertension.

C. cardiac insufficiency.

D. hypotension.

4. Atherosclerosis definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D The disease in which fatty deposits accumulate in the walls of the arteries is known as: A. Congestive heart failure.

B. Cardiopathy.

C. Myocardial infarction.

D. Atherosclerosis.

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5. Cerebrovascular accident- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C The condition in which blood supply to the brain is temporarily cut off due to blockage or clotting in an artery is known as: A. atherosclerosis.

B. cerebrovascular accident.

C. myocardial infarction.

D. coronary artery disease.

6. Stroke definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The hemorrhage of a blood vessel leading to the brain is called a(n): A. plaque.

B. stroke.

C. tangle.

D. apraxia.

7. Stroke belt- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D The part of the U.S. associated with the highest risk of death from cerebrovascular accidents is known as the: A. cerebral sock.

B. ischemic scarf.

C. cardiac skirt.

D. stroke belt.

8. Cause of death Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Deaths due to cardiovascular disease are highest in which country?

A. Russia B. Japan C. Sweden D. U.S. 9. Percent obese in U.S. Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Approximately _% of the U.S. adult population is considered obese by government standards.

A. 30 IM-5 |2

B. 15 C. 60 D. 45 10. Geographic variations in U.S. Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C A person living in which region of the U.S. has the lowest risk of developing stroke?

A. Southeast.

B. Northwest.

C. Upper Midwest.

D. Southwest.

11. Sedentary lifestyle Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Behaviors likely to increase a person’s risk factor for developing cardiovascular disease includes which of the following?

A. Lack of vitamin D intake.

B. Overexposure to the sun.

C. Sedentary lifestyle.

D. High intake of olive oil.

12. Statins Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Medications that lower the amount of cholesterol in the blood are known as: A. statins.

B. triglycerides.

C. memantines.

D. insulins.

13. Mediterranean diet Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The Mediterranean diet includes relatively high intake of which of the following foods?

A. Potatoes B. Cheese C. Grains D. Nuts Cancer 14. Dallas highest skin cancer risk

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Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Mae Furst is trying to decide where to move after she graduates. If she wants to avoid getting skin cancer, she would be best off NOT living in which U.S. city?

A. Seattle.

B. Toronto.

C. Pittsburgh.

D. Dallas.

15. Mammograms Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C In 2009, a U.S. Task Force recommended that for women between 40-49 years of age, routine mammograms should be performed: A. twice per year.

B. every two years.

C. not at all.

D. once per year.

16. Colon cancer and red meat Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A The risk of developing colon cancer is higher in countries in which people consume large amounts of: A. red meat.

B. vegetables.

C. citrus fruit.

D. red wine.

17. Colon cancer and race Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Black people in the U.S. are more likely than other groups to suffer from which form of cancer?

A. skin B. rectal C. uterine D. colon 18. Tanning beds and cancer risk Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Researchers have found that women who use tanning beds before the age of 30 increase their risk of getting skin cancer by _____%.

A. 75 IM-5 |4

B. 10 C. 99 D. 35 19. Cancer in India Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B A large majority of people living in India put themselves at risk for cancer by: A. smoking cigarettes.

B. chewing betel quid.

C. using strong spices.

D. eating dried fish.

20. Mammogram rates Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C In which form of treatment for cancer are patients are given strong doses of medications that alter immune functioning?

A. Estrogen replacement.

B. Radiation therapy.

C. Biological therapy.

D. Lymphatic replacement.

Disorders of the musculoskeletal system 21. Osteoarthritis definition-choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B Painful joints are a symptoms associated with which chronic disease?

A. arteriosclerosis B. osteoarthritis C. emphysema D. osteoporosis 22. Osteoarthritis treatment Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Mrs. Ann Chovie is under treatment for a severe case of osteoarthritis. Her physician is most likely to prescribe which type of medication?

A. Insulin.

B. Androgens.

C. Anti-inflammatory drugs.

D. Elastase.

23. Osteoarthritis and obesity IM-5 |5

Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C One reason that obesity may increase a person’s risk for developing arthritis is that: A. being obese increases the blood levels of elastase.

B. people who are obese are more likely to smoke.

C. the increased weight strains the joints.

D. higher glucose levels reduce the cartilage.

24. Osteoporosis definition- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Deterioration of bone mineral far below the standard of young White women is the criterion used to diagnose: A. osteoporosis.

B. Pick’s disease.

C. osteoarthritis.

D. Korsakoff syndrome.

25. Risk factors for osteoporosis Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Higher rates of osteoporosis are found in older people who specifically: A. eat a diet high in green vegetables.

B. listen to loud music.

C. fail to exercise with weights.

D. have very few social contacts.

26. Prevention of osteoporosis Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Middle-aged and older women can best prevent osteoporosis by engaging in which health-related behavior?

A. Exercise that involves weight-lifting.

B. Eating a diet high in fats.

C. Avoiding leafy green vegetables.

D. Staying out of the sun.

Diabetes 27. Metabolic syndrome definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C The condition known as metabolic syndrome involves which of the following criteria?

A. low blood cholesterol IM-5 |6

B. below average blood pressure C. large waist circumference D. low levels of blood glucose 28. Metabolic syndrome example- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Mr. Dell Pickel has been told by his physician that he has metabolic syndrome and is at risk for heart disease and diabetes. This means that he has which of the following symptoms?

A. abnormally low blood pressure.

B. excessively high insulin resistance.

C. below average blood fat (triglyceride).

D. low levels of body fat mass.

29. Metabolic syndrome definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Waist size, cholesterol levels, blood pressure, and fasting glucose are among the critical measures for which condition related to heart disease in adulthood?

A. Diabetic propensity B. Insulin resistance C. Metabolic syndrome D. Transient ischemia 30. Undeveloped countries and diabetes Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C As discussed in the text, researchers and health experts are concerned because of the greater rise in diabetes expected to occur in which types of countries?

A. industrialized B. developed C. undeveloped D. materialized Respiratory diseases 31. Definition of COPD- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a general term for a group of diseases that include: A. chronic bronchitis and emphysema.

B. various forms of lung cancer.

C. pneumonia and tuberculosis.

D. asthma and acute upper respiratory infection.

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32. Definition of COPD- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C The combination of chronic bronchitis and emphysema is given the term ____________.

A. Chronic respiratory syndrome.

B. Acute pulmonary inflammation.

C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

D. Elastase resistance dysfunction.

33. Elastase- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Cigarette smoking increases the risk of developing COPD due to its effects on which enzyme?

A. Glucagon.

B. Presenilin.

C. Cholinesterase.

D. Elastase.

Dementia and related neurological disorders 34. Alzheimer’s disease definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A In which form of dementia do individuals lose their memory and cognitive functions in a series of stages corresponding to loss of neurons in the brain?

A. Alzheimer’s disease.

B. Korsakoff’s disorder.

C. Delirium.

D. Wernicke’s syndrome.

35. Dementia definition- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The term “dementia” is used to refer to: A. physiologically caused symptoms of depression.

B. progressive loss of cognitive functioning.

C. the growth of new synapses after brain damage.

D. normal age-related changes in cognition.

36. First known case Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C The first person to be officially diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease was: IM-5 |8

A. B. C. D.

Alois Alzheimer.

Auguste D. Emil Kraepelin.

Benjamin Gompertz.

37. Problems with prevalence Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B U.S. estimates of the prevalence of Alzheimer’s disease typically do not take into account ____________, a factor that can bias the percentages upwards.

A. nationality B. education C. gender D. genetics 38. Plaque definition- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Clumps of dead neurons found in the brain of people with Alzheimer’s disease are known as amyloid: A. tangles.

B. plaques.

C. pockets.

D. tips.

39. APP definition- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A What is the name of the protein that, when snipped, causes a plaque to form?

A. APP. B. Tau. C. BFF. D. TCA. 40. Tangle definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Neurofibrillary tangles cause which set of changes in neurons affected by Alzheimer’s disease?

A. Deterioriation of myelin sheath.

B. Twisting of the microtubules.

C. Overgrowth of dendrites.

D. Cutting of the blood supply.

41. Acetylcholine- choice IM-5 |9

Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Which neurotransmitter is thought to be involved in Alzheimer's disease?

A. Acetylcholine.

B. Serotonin.

C. Epinephrine.

D. Glutamate.

42. Caspase theory- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The explanation of Alzheimer’s disease known as ________ theory, proposes that Alzheimer’s disease is caused by a particular type of apoptosis.

A. osmosis B. caspase C. dendrase D. elastase 43. Behavioral risk factors Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Of the following, which lifestyle and environmental factor can increase the individual’s chances of developing dementia?

A. lack of exercise B. social support C. Mediterranean diet D. High HDL levels 44. Assessment example Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Dr. Dee Zyire is evaluating a new patient who she thinks may be suffering from Alzheimer’s disease. To arrive at a diagnosis, she realizes that she must do so by: A. completing a series of blood tests that will reveal a specific abnormality.

B. conducting a magnetic resonance imaging series that will show brain atrophy.

C. excluding all other possible diagnoses realizing that even this may not be certain.

D. asking family members and friends to provide answers to a behavioral checklist.

45. Autopsy diagnosis Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Though research on this is ongoing in an effort to improve diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease, a truly definitive diagnosis can only be obtained through which method?

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A. B. C. D.

personality testing. performing an autopsy. tests of blood cholesterol. interviews with relatives.

46. Apraxia definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C The symptom of Alzheimer's disease known as apraxia involves what change in behavior?

A. Loss of the ability to remember information from the distant past.

B. Inability to use language in a comprehensible manner.

C. Loss of the ability to carry out coordinated bodily movements.

D. Inability to remember the names of people recently met.

47. MCI- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D A memory disorder that researchers believe may be an early form of Alzheimer’s disease is known as: A. Minimum brain damage (MBD).

B. Multi-infarct dementia (MID).

C. Mixed dementia depression (MDD).

D. Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI).

48. Stages of Alzheimer’s Disease Difficulty: .38 Correct choice: A Forgetting the name of a good friend or family member first emerges in which stage of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A. Early B. Late C. Pre D. Middle 49. Medication effectiveness Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Researchers have showed that medications to treat Alzheimer’s disease have what effect?

A. They can reverse negative changes in the brain.

B. If taken early they can eliminate psychological symptoms.

C. They are more effective than psychosocial treatment.

D. Although effective for a time, they cannot reverse the disease.

50. Aricept as anticholinesterase treatment IM-5 |11

Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The medication Aricept used to treat some symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease falls in the category of agents known as: A. antioxidants.

B. glutamates.

C. presenilins.

D. anticholinesterases.

51. Caregiver advice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Which of the following is advice given to caregivers in helping them manage the symptoms of their loved one’s Alzheimer’s Disease?

A. Provide regular and consistent daily schedules.

B. Take over as many daily care tasks as possible.

C. Reduce participation in activities outside the home.

D. Encourage patients to walk outside on their own.

52. Polypharmacy Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Zoe Loft is concerned because her 84-year-old mother is taking several medications to treat her hypertension, urinary problems, and high cholesterol. In addition her physician has just prescribed an anti-anxiety medication to help her mother sleep. Zoe is, quite correctly, concerned that her mother may suffer memory problems due to this situation which is referred to as: A. pseudodementia.

B. hematoma.

C. delirium.

D. polypharmacy.

53. Multi-infarct dementia definition –choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B In ______________ dementia, individuals suffer a number of small strokes in which parts of the brain suffer loss of blood supply.

A. Korsakoff’s B. multi-infarct C. polypharmacy D. Pick’s 54. Multi-infarct dementia example- choice Difficulty: Moderate IM-5 |12

Correct choice: B Mrs. Donna Pezil has experienced a number of small strokes and as a result is suffering slight memory problems. Fortunately her physician has been trained in geriatric medicine and realizes that Mrs. Pezil does not have Alzheimer’s disease, but more likely suffers from the condition known as: A. fronterotemporal dementia (FTD).

B. multi-infarct dementia (MID).

C. Parkinson’s disease (PD).

D. Amotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).

55. Parkinson’s disease definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B In which form of dementia do individuals suffer PRIMARILY from disturbances of motor control, including tremors, shuffling gait, and inability to maintain their balance?

A. Korsakoff's syndrome.

B. Parkinson's disease.

C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus.

D. Wernicke’s disease.

56. Lewy Body Dementia definition- stem Difficulty: .76 Correct choice: A Individuals with a pure form of Lewy body dementia show disturbances of: A. movement B. breathing C. personality D. socialization Short answer questions Diseases of the cardiovascular system 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Describe five diseases of the cardiovascular system along with their causes.

What are two forms of cerebrovascular disease?

How do incidence rates of cardiovascular and cerebrovascular disease vary by sex and race in adulthood?

What are the four major risk factors for diseases of the cardiovascular system?

What three measures can people take to lower their risk of cardiovascular disease?

Cancer 1.

2.

3.

Describe five major forms of cancer according to their site in the body and the nature of the specific form of cancer.

What are the three greatest risk factors for the development of cancer?

What four forms of treatment are available for cancer? What are their side effects?

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Disorders of the musculoskeletal system 1.

2.

3.

List four forms of treatment for osteoarthritis.

What are five risk factors for the development of osteoporosis?

List five forms of treatment and prevention of osteoporosis.

Diabetes 1.

2.

Describe the disease process in Type 2 diabetes.

What are four interventions that can be implemented for people with Type 2 diabetes?

Chronic respiratory disease 1.

2.

List the two forms of respiratory disease that make up COPD. What two forms of treatment are available for people with COPD?

Dementia and related neurological disorders 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Describe the issues involved in determining the prevalence of Alzheimer's disease.

What are three major psychological symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?

What are the two major microscopic changes in the brain associated with Alzheimer's disease?

What processes are thought to be responsible for the development of these changes?

What are the three genes thought to be the major causes of Alzheimer's disease?

Describe three lifestyle or environmental factors thought to be causes of or contributors to Alzheimer's disease.

List the five diagnostic criteria of the American Psychiatric Association for the diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease.

What four types of medical treatment are currently being tested for people with Alzheimer's disease?

Psychosocial treatments for Alzheimer's disease attempt to change which two major categories of problems dealt with by caregivers?

List and describe six forms of dementia that may appear to be Alzheimer's disease. Indicate how each form of dementia is different from Alzheimer's disease.

What are six forms of reversible dementia that may be confused with Alzheimer's disease? Why is it important to identify these forms of dementia?

Essay questions 1.

2.

Take the role of a public health expert working on behalf of the American Heart Association.

Design a media campaign that would help lower the risk for cardiovascular and cerebrovascular disease among the groups with the highest rates of these diseases. Justify the steps you would take and the information you would provide.

Diseases of later life are becoming increasingly important for physicians to understand, diagnose, and treat. What would you regard as the main lessons that physicians should learn

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3.

4.

about these diseases? How can efforts to educate physicians about gerontology and geriatrics be improved?

Some scientists who conduct research on Alzheimer's disease argue that the newly revised prevalence figures, which estimate that 2 rather than 4 million adults have the disease, will lead to an under-serving of the older adult population. What is the basis for this argument? Why might some gerontologists prefer that the newly revised numbers be accepted? How do epidemiological studies of Alzheimer's disease fit into the political scene in terms of the funding of research and long-term care?

If you were designing a program to help family caregivers of people with Alzheimer's disease, what types of features would you emphasize to make your program as effective as possible?

Why would you include those features?

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Multiple choice questions Information processing

1. Reaction time and attention Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B Studies on attentional processes in older adults typically use which type of performance measure?

A. Rating scales.

B. Response time.

C. Remote memory.

D. Response frequency.

2. Multitasking Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Multitasking, a problem area for many older adults, is most like which type of cognitive task?

A. Sustained attention.

B. Source memory C. Procedural memory D. Divided attention 3. General Slowing Hypothesis- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A According to the General Slowing Hypothesis, older people perform more slowly on reaction time tasks because they are experience changes in: A. cognitive resources.

B. stereotype threat C. desire to succeed.

D. memory controllability.

4. General Slowing Hypothesis (Salthouse)- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Loss of __________, according to Salthouse, is the main reason for cognitive changes in later adulthood.

A. interest B. speed C. motivation D. calcium

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5. General Slowing Hypothesis- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Loss of cognitive resources is thought to be the main factor accounting for increases in reaction time according to the: A. psychomotor decay theory.

B. attentional priming model.

C. general slowing hypothesis.

D. sustained effort proposal.

6. Brinley plot- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B When older adults are compared to younger adults in their reaction times to tasks of greater and greater difficulty, the results are displayed using a: A. Schaie graph.

B. Brinley plot.

C. Salthouse stick.

D. Baltes bubble.

7. Brinley plot- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A The Brinley plot, in which scores of young adults are plotted against scores of older adults, is used to understand the effects of aging on: A. reaction time.

B. accident rates C. health habits.

D. personality traits.

8. Brinley plot- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The Brinley plot is used to illustrate what aspect of aging and cognition?

A. How well an older adult can recognize sounds of different pitch as the sounds get louder and louder.

B. The percent of correct responses to a mathematical test by older adults under time pressure.

C. The length of time it takes an older adult to read a complex series of sentences written on a computer screen.

D. The relationship of performance of older adults to performance of younger adults on a reaction time test.

9. Divided attention task example- stem IM-6 |2

Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Mrs. Mary Land finds that as she gets older, it is harder for her to think about two different tasks at once and if she multi-tasks too much, she can make serious errors (such as paying her bills online while listening to music). In terms of research on cognitive functioning and aging, Mrs. Land is experiencing difficulty in which type of ability?

A. context processing B. exhibitory responding C. explicit encoding D. divided attention 10. Attentional resources theory- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C According to the attentional resources theory of aging, older adults do more poorly on attentional tasks because they: A. have little interest in devoting mental energy to lab tasks.

B. use the wrong areas of the brain to process information.

C. have limited processing energy for handling new information.

D. suffer from interference when trying to handle too much information.

11. Attentional resources theory- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A The _______________ theory of attention and aging proposes that limitations in energy make it more difficult for older adults to perform well on attentional tasks.

A. attentional resources B. inhibitory deficit C. context processing D. divided attention 12. Context processing deficiency- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D According to the ______________ deficiency theory of aging and attention, older adults have more difficulty on sustained attention tasks where they must keep instructions in mind while responding to targets.

A. inhibitory deficit B. phonological loop C. general slowing D. context processing 13. Context Processing Deficiency theory- stem

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Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D The context processing theory of attention and aging attributes the effects of aging to: A. inability to search for more than one stimulus at a time in an array.

B. difficulty maintaining attention to a stream of incoming stimuli.

C. inability to divide attention to two sets of incoming stimuli.

D. difficulty taking advantage of all the information available in a set of stimuli.

14. Inhibitory deficit hypothesis- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C According to the inhibitory deficit hypothesis, older adults have more memory problems because they are unable to: A. provide a fast and accurate response.

B. divide their attention between tasks.

C. tune out irrelevant information.

D. remember where they learned something.

15. Inhibitory deficit hypothesis and Stroop- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Performance of older adults on the Stroop test would be most relevant to which theory of memory and attention?

A. Inhibitory deficit.

B. General slowing.

C. Divided attention.

D. Varied mapping.

Driving and aging 16. Fatality rates Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A The fatality rate for 16-25 year old drivers is 27 per 100,000. The fatality rate for older adult drivers (65 and older) is _____ per 100,000.

A. 18 B. 35 C. 3 D. 27 17. Types of accidents Difficulty: .Easy Correct choice: C

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Data from studies of motor vehicle accidents and age show that older adults in the U.S. are most likely to suffer difficulties driving when they are confronted with which type of situation?

A. watching out for pedestrians B. navigating a straight piece of road C. making a left-hand turn D. having to slow down for a stop 18. Types of accidents- example Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Tad Pole is a 76-year-old man who has just had a car accident in which he was the driver. It is most likely that his accident involved: A. driving at an excessively high speed.

B. swerving from one lane to the next.

C. making a left-hand turn into oncoming traffic.

D. driving under the influence of alcohol.

19. Types of accidents Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Which of the following situations is most likely to be a cause of an automobile accident involving an older driver?

A. confusing intersection B. use of alcohol C. driving too fast D. having suspended license 20. Sociocultural factors Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Which of the following is a sociocultural factor affecting the driving behavior of older adults?

A. Changes in speed of processing.

B. Inability to remember traffic rules.

C. Lack of adequate public transportation.

D. Greater vulnerability to effects of alcohol.

21. Psychological factors Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C A psychological factor affecting the driving performance of older adults is: A. lack of adequate public transportation.

B. changes in speed limits on highways.

C. changes in decision-time speed.

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D. concern expressed by family members.

E. Memory 22. Working memory- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Of the following, _______ memory shows impairment due to the effects of normal aging.

A. flashbulb B. semantic C. working D. implicit 23. Working memory- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Because they have difficulty in working memory, older adults find it more challenging to: A. remember events from the distant past.

B. think of the meaning of specific words.

C. keep information actively in mind.

D. remember how to perform a familiar task.

24. Working memory results Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B ______ memory, which involves keeping information active in the mind for a short period of time, is significantly poorer in older adults: A. Semantic B. Working C. Procedural D. Verbal 25. Working memory results Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Many researchers have observed that older adults have more difficulty with ___________ memory, in which they must hold one item in mind while completing another task.

A. semantic B. remote C. working D. long-term 26. Scaffolding theory- stem Difficulty: Moderate IM-6 |6

Correct choice: A Scaffolding theory predicts that in the area of memory and other cognitive abilities, older adults: A. recruit one brain region to compensate for deficits in others.

B. ask for help from family when they forget something.

C. require additional physical support when completing mental tasks.

D. perform better on tasks that involve pictures rather than words.

27. Scaffolding theory- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D According to ______________theory, older adults recruit one part of the brain to compensate for deficits in other brain regions.

A. rooftop B. ceiling C. stairway D. scaffolding 28. Hippocampus in working memory Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Effects of age on the _________________ in the brain are believed to contribute to age differences in working memory.

A. postfrontal cortex B. hypothalamus C. hippocampus D. phonological loop 29. Flashbulb memory Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Research comparing younger and older adults on __________ memory, or recall of distinctive events, shows that there are few age differences.

A. rehearsed B. flashbulb C. lightning D. scaffolding 30. Semantic memory Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Which type of memory functioning is generally preserved in later adulthood?

A. speeded B. working IM-6 |7

C. semantic D. source 31. Prospective memory Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A According to the aging and memory “scorecard,” older adults have difficulty in which of the following memory tasks?

A. prospective B. flashbulb C. implicit D. autobiographical 32. Deese-Roediger-McDermott paradigm Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D When given a list of words to remember that fall into the same category, older people will make more errors than younger adults in falsely recalling the category name when it was not actually presented.

This type of memory task is known as the: A. Implicit memory manipulation.

B. Schaie-Baltes-Salthouse technique.

C. Memory control belief procedure.

D. Deese-Roediger-McDermott design.

33. Motor memory in monkeys Difficulty:Moderate Correct choice: A In a study investigating motor memory in rhesus monkeys, researchers found that over a 2-year time period: A. older monkeys retained what they originally learned.

B. younger monkeys could not focus on the task at all.

C. older monkeys became faster than younger monkeys.

D. only younger monkeys became faster with practice.

34. Procedural memory Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Good procedural memory would allow older adults to perform as well if not better than young adults on tasks such as: A. learning a new video game.

B. multitasking such as texting and driving.

C. remembering a list of verbally learned items.

D. playing a game for which they have expertise.

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35. Reminiscence bump Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Your older relative seems to have no difficulty recalling the events on the night of her high school prom.

In fact, when you look at her photos in her album, her memory seems very accurate and also fits with what her friends said about what they did that night. Your relative is showing the effect known as the: A. reminiscence bump.

B. prospective recall effect.

C. remote memory boost.

D. long-term memory slope.

36. Stereotype threat Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Researchers have found that when they are performing a cognitive test, older adults whose memory is affected by stereotype threat compared to those who do not show this effect are likely to: A. respond more quickly.

B. receive lower scores.

C. become more imaginative.

D. request more help.

37. Memory and control beliefs Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Researchers attempting to improve the memory of older adults found that older people with high ________ beliefs actually perform better on tests of recall.

A. processing B. sociocultural C. control D. semantic 38. Memory and self-efficacy: Dutch study Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Researchers in the Netherlands found that people 55 years of age and older who suffered the greatest decrease in actual memory performance also: A. became less aware of their surroundings.

B. felt less and less confident about their memories.

C. tended to become socially isolated.

D. were least likely to engage in physical exercise.

39. Exercise and memory IM-6 |9

Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Researchers have demonstrated that improved cognitive performance in older adults is linked to which lifestyle habit?

A. aerobic exercise B. television watching C. high-fat diet D. chronic stress exposure 40. Glucose and memory example Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B Mr. Ben Dover has just turned 70 and is worried about memory loss. He would be well-advised to switch to a ____________ diet to help maintain his cognitive performance.

A. high sugar B. low fat C. high carbohydrate D. high insulin 41. Metabolic syndrome and memory- example Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Mrs. Ester Gen was warned by her physician that some of her memory problems may have physical causes, as indicated by Mrs. Gen’s levels of high cholesterol and blood glucose, a condition known as: A. reminiscence bump.

B. scaffolding.

C. homocysteine overloading.

D. metabolic syndrome.

42. IGF-1 and memory Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Memory performance and metabolic abnormalities may be linked in older adults due to the involvement of a hormone involved with glucose metabolism known as: A. DSM-4.

B. IGF-1.

C. UMA-2.

D. IMF-3.

43. Vitamin B12 and cognition Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C

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Researchers have established that cognitive performance in older adults is improved by the addition of ____________ to the diet.

A. ginko biloba B. vitamin E C. vitamin B12 D. homocysteine 44. Chocolate and cognition Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Which food is shown to improve cognitive performance in adults of all ages, but particularly older adults?

A. eggs B. cottage cheese C. red meat D. dark chocolate 45. Widows and memory loss Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C In a study of memory in widows, researchers found that 6 years after the deaths of their husbands, these women showed: A. improvements in memory back to pre-widowhood levels.

B. similar memory performance as non-widows.

C. greater memory loss over the course of the study.

D. better memory performance than non-widows.

46. Stress and memory- attentional resources Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Researchers studying the relationship between stress and memory performance in older adults suggest that __________________ accounts for the poorer memories of people who report high daily stressors.

A. adoption of poorer eating habits B. lack of proper amounts of sleep C. greater loss of neurons D. drains on attentional resources 47. Stress and memory daily study Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A In a study of stress and its relationship to cognition, researchers found that when older adults reported they were stressed, they were more likely to: A. report memory failures.

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B. have difficulty concentrating.

C. experience flashbulb memories.

D. seek novel experiences.

48. Self-efficacy in memory training Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Studies in which older adults are given memory training report that improving an older adult’s __________ can be highly beneficial to boosting performance.

A. identity accommodation B. self-efficacy C. stereotype threat D. implicit theories 49. Memory controllability and performance Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Studies on memory controllability show that when older adults believe they can control their memories they: A. become more depressed and actually perform more poorly.

B. tend to perform well initially but then decline more rapidly.

C. are more likely to use strategies that improve their memory.

D. become more preoccupied about developing dementia.

50. ACTIVE study results on memory Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Results of training in the ACTIVE studies showed that over a 5-year period, ____% of participants in the memory training condition improved their memories.

A. 26 B. 87 C. 74 D. 12

Short answer questions Information Processing 1.

2.

Provide examples of three situations in which information processing changes are important in the functioning of older adults.

Indicate two situations in which divided and sustained attention might be used in everyday life.

What are the implications of the effects of aging on these components of attention?

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3.

Contrast the three major theoretical approaches to understanding age-related changes in attention.

Driving and Aging 1.

2.

What are the risks of having aging drivers on the road? On the basis of available evidence, should older adults be restricted in their driving?

Why might training not be as effective as you might expect on the accident rates of older drivers?

Memory 1.

2.

3.

4.

Provide a brief description of how working memory is affected by aging and summarize the neuropsychological data used to understand these effects.

Summarize the “score card” showing which memory functions decline and which do not in later life.

How do findings on identity, self-efficacy, control beliefs, and stereotype threat influence your interpretation of the effects of aging on working memory? Argue for or against the position that age differences in memory are an artifact of methods used to assess memory.

If you were developing a memory training program for older adults what approach would you choose? Why?

Essay questions 1.

2.

3.

Explain how you think that identity assimilation and identity accommodation relate to cognitive processes. What treatment strategies would you devise for people who are having difficulty with their memories in part due to these aspects of identity processes?

Which theory of information processing and aging do you believe holds greater promise as a method of intervention for older adults with cognitive problems?

Describe how the daily routines of older adults might be affected by changes in five aspects of memory functioning described in the chapter.

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Multiple choice questions Language

1. Effect of retrieval deficits on language- example Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Mrs. Ann Taylor and her friend Jane Crew are two older women talking to each other over a cup of coffee after having volunteered during the morning at a local school. As they compare notes about their experiences, research on aging and language suggests that they may have difficulty with which aspect of their conversation?

A. Using the right vocabulary words to express their thoughts.

B. Remembering what they actually did that morning at the school.

C. Understanding the meaning of what the other person is saying.

D. Expressing themselves through body language and other gestures.

2. Retrieval vs. grammar Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Whether an older adult’s language becomes simplified appears to reflect the balance of changes in working memory with changes in _________ memory.

A. semantic B. procedural C. implicit D. source 3. Right hemisphere activation Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Older adults compensate for changes in the left hemisphere of the brain, which is normally responsible for language, by activating the: A. occipital lobe B. right hemisphere C. limbic system D. brainstem 4. Effects of aging on grammar Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Senor Itis is a researcher studying the effects of cognitive changes on language ability in older adults. His findings, like many others in the literature, suggest that as people get older their language is negatively affected by changes in: IM-7 |1

A. B. C. D.

memory for vocabulary words. ability to hold information in working memory. ability to use and understand grammar. interest in speaking to other people.

5. Effect of aging on language Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C In the language and aging “scorecard,” a factor that helps to preserve language use in later adulthood is: A. working memory.

B. reading rate.

C. semantic memory.

D. cognitive speed.

6. Elderspeak example- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Calling an older person ____________ would be considered an example of “elderspeak.”

A. “ma’am” B. by her last name C. “honey” D. older adult 7. Elderspeak example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B A teenage girl is volunteering at a nursing home in the occupational therapy department. While working with the residents, she often rewards them by calling them “cutie” or “sweetie.” The girl’s behavior is an example of: A. the attraction effect.

B. elderspeak.

C. dialectical thinking.

D. postformal operations.

8. Communication predicament problem- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C When older people are treated as children by others because they seem infirmed or physically dependent, this is known as the: A. communication practice effect B. everyday language experience C. communication predicament model D. elderspeak preference belief IM-7 |2

9. Communication predicament problem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A A problem resulting from the communication predicament model is that: A. older adults become more cognitively infirmed when they are treated as children by younger adults.

B. changes in cognitive abilities make it harder for older adults to stay in touch with their relatives and friends.

C. as families move increasing distances away from each other, older adults lose touch with relatives.

D. memory changes lead older adults to adopt quicker but less efficient solutions to problems.

10. Communication predicament model- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C In the communication predicament model, older adults are seen as negatively affected by the tendency of younger people to use ________ when talking to them: A. reminiscence B. preformal thought C. elderspeak D. fixed intelligence Everyday problem solving

11. Stages of problem-solving Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D The last step in problem solving is evaluating the solution’s: A. expense.

B. purpose.

C. structure.

D. efficacy.

12. Difficult problems for older adults Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Problems in everyday life that are the most difficult to solve for older adults are those that: A. involve definite, well-stated goals.

B. are stated in vague or ambiguous terms.

C. have clear-cut outcomes or solutions.

D. are described with words and pictures.

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13. Perseveration and frontal lobe deficits Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D When older adults show extreme perseveration on a word fluency task, psychologists suspect there may be: A. left hemisphere damage.

B. poor cerebellar functioning.

C. right hemisphere damage.

D. frontal lobe deficits.

14. Older problem solver advantages Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A If you were going to ask for financial advice on an investment you planned to make, research on problem-solving would suggest that you would be better off seeking the services of someone who: A. has several decades of working with various options from stocks to mutual funds.

B. is a recent business school graduate who is familiar with the latest computer programs.

C. has spent many years becoming a specialist in a particular type of market option.

D. can quickly answer a series of speeded questions involving numerical calculations.

15. Monkey problem solvers Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A If we apply the results of research comparing older and younger monkeys on problem-solving skill to humans, it would suggest that older human problem-solvers: A. use inefficient strategies in planning solutions.

B. arrive at solutions faster than younger people.

C. ask other people for help in solving problems.

D. prefer strategies that involve complex steps.

16. Monkey problem solves Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Research on problem solving by older monkeys has shown that, compared to younger monkeys, they are more likely to: A. show disinterest in the task.

B. use poor solution strategies.

C. have excellent planning abilities.

D. ask other monkeys for help.

17. Attraction effect definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B IM-7 |4

Researchers tested whether younger and older adults differed on how easily they were swayed into choosing a product they initially did not prefer. The fact that young adults were more likely to change their original option is known as the ____________ effect.

A. tolerance B. attraction C. experience D. complexity 18. Attraction effect example- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Dr. Maxwell Haus is a market researcher planning advertising strategies to appeal to older and younger adults. Research involving the “attraction effect” suggests that, compared to younger adults, older adults might be: A. equally susceptible to product placement.

B. more suspicious of a discounted price.

C. less susceptible to choice manipulation.

D. more likely not to pay attention to any advertising.

19. Attraction effect application- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Based on what researchers have discovered about the attraction effect, it is likely that in considering their behavior as consumers older adults should be more likely to: A. buy products marketed with traditional logos.

B. prefer commercials that have softer music.

C. stick with their initial product choices.

D. try to save money on unnecessary purchases.

20. Difficulties in problem-solving for older adults Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Research shows that the problem-solving situations that presents the greatest challenge to an older adult is: A. Asking for help to solve a new problem.

B. Applying a new solution to a familiar problem.

C. Finishing a problem that someone else started.

D. Using a familiar solution to a familiar problem.

21. Formal operations definition – stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Adults who are in the stage of formal operations, in Piaget’s theory, tend to think in terms of: IM-7 |5

A. B. C. D.

simple, basic logical relationships. rigid rules and expectations. abstract symbols and logic. new ways of solving problems.

22. Dialectical thinking example- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Anita Restte is a 78-year-old woman who enjoys using dialectical thinking when she debates various political issues with her friends. This means that Anita engages in which type of behavior?

A. arriving at the clearest resolution of differences as quickly as possible.

B. asking her friends for their opinions and then accepting those as fact.

C. stating her opinions and then trying to make them agree with her.

D. taking the opposite position of what she believes just for the sake of argument.

23. Dialectical thinking- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Post-formal thought is most closely associated with which term?

A. crystallized memory B. mechanics of intelligence C. testing the limits D. dialectical thinking 24. Dialectical thinking definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Middle-aged and older adults who engage in dialectical thinking are more likely to enjoy which type of conversation with their friends and colleagues?

A. A vigorous debate in which opposing viewpoints are shared and discussed.

B. Providing advice on to how to solve common everyday situations.

C. Reading aloud from newspaper articles but now allowing discussion.

D. Talking about the latest cute antics of grandchildren and pets.

25. Percent of adult learners Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Estimates are that approximately __% of adults 41 to 50 years old are involved in adult education at the college level: A. 48% B. 13% C. 8% D. 37% IM-7 |6

26. Adult learners Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Compared to undergraduate students in their late teens and early 20s, so-called “adult” learners in their 30s and older tend to be: A. more likely to explore alternative angles, especially when taking tests.

B. less interested in learning new material that challenges their point of view.

C. more focused on getting higher grades on exams and papers.

D. less likely to explore different ways of understanding what they learn.

Intelligence 27. Classic aging pattern Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B The term ___________ describes the curve used to depict age differences in scores on intelligence tests such as the WAIS. A. marginal developmental growth B. classic aging pattern C. selective optimization D. primary mental graph 28. Crystallized is best in older adults- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B The type of intelligence test on which older adults are MOST likely to perform well taps which ability?

A. Inductive.

B. Crystallized.

C. Mechanical.

D. Post-formal.

29. Crystallized increase - choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Research on intelligence patterns over the years from early to later adulthood shows the greatest increase in which type of abilities?

A. multiple B. solidified C. liquid D. crystallized 30. Crystallized intelligence example- stem IM-7 |7

Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C In a test of crystallized intelligence, an ability that typically increases throughout life, an individual is asked questions involving: A. novel spatial relations.

B. synthesis of new information.

C. specific , learned skills.

D. analytic speed.

31. Fluid intelligence definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D A spatial pattern test such as a “Sudoko” problem fits into the type of intelligence that peaks in young adulthood, known as: A. pragmatic B. crystallized C. successful D. fluid 32. Fluid intelligence peak Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A The peak of fluid intelligence is reached during: A. adolescence.

B. late adulthood.

C. middle adulthood.

D. early adulthood.

33. Fluid intelligence decrease- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Findings from the Seattle Longitudinal Study, as summarized in the text, show the least decrease across adulthood in which type of intelligence?

A. numeric ability B. verbal ability C. inductive reasoning D. perceptual speed 34. Fluid the poorest Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B The type of intelligence test on which older adults are LEAST likely to perform well taps which ability?

A. Vocabulary B. Fluid IM-7 |8

C. Crystallized D. Mechanical 35. SLS general findings Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Which statement best characterizes Schaie’s overall findings based on the SLS? A. Decline in most abilities began at the age of 30.

B. Scores were mostly stable until at least the 50s.

C. No declines at all occurred even up until age 80.

D. Declines occurred in verbal abilities beginning at age 20.

36. Health and intelligence Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Results of studies on aging and intelligence showed that lower intelligence scores of adults in mid and later life were found in people with: A. low blood pressure.

B. high levels of exercise.

C. metabolic syndrome.

D. moderate alcohol intake.

37. Prefrontal and fluid Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Fluid intelligence seems most strongly related to activation of which part of the brain?

A. occipital cortex.

B. hypothalamus.

C. parietal lobe.

D. prefrontal cortex.

38. Twin studies on intelligence and aging Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Studies of aging twins carried out in Sweden and Denmark showed that the rate of change in intelligence over time was mainly a function of: A. environmental influences.

B. genetic variations in IQ. C. degree of crystallization.

D. inherited personality traits.

39. ACTIVE study and plasticity IM-7 |9

Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A The notion of _____________ in intelligence is best exemplified in studies such as ACTIVE, which examine training effects on scores of older adults.

A. plasticity B. fluidity C. optimization D. mechanics 40. ACTIVE study Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Using training in _____________, researchers carrying out the ACTIVE studies found that they could improve the ability of older adults to perform tasks of everyday living.

A. reasoning and speed B. food preparation C. weight lifting D. financial planning 41. ACTIVE study Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A In the ACTIVE study researchers found that, over a 5 years period, training people to improve their memory also improved which other aspect of functioning?

A. ability to perform everyday living tasks B. speed in running on a treadmill C. understanding of world politics D. metabolism of high calorie foods 42. Active study example Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Mrs. Ella Bean is trying to encourage her mother-in-law to try out some of the findings about new research she read about online based on the ACTIVE study. What are some of the findings that would be most helpful to Anita?

A. Get as much sleep as possible by taking extra naps during the day.

B. Eat more healthy foods that contain beta-carotene and antioxidants.

C. Ask for help from young people in solving every day problems.

D. Practice cognitive tasks involving memory, speed, and reasoning.

43. Reserve capacity- choice Difficulty:Moderate Correct choice: C IM-7 |10

According to the concept of ___________, older adults have a store of untapped or untested abilities: A. The "g" factor.

B. Dialectical thinking.

C. Reserve capacity.

D. Fluid intelligence.

44. Reserve capacity- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Baltes observed that because older adults have ____________, they are often able to perform better on difficult tasks than might be thought possible.

A. fluid intelligence B. dialectical skills C. life complexity D. reserve capacity 45. Testing the limits definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Helping older adults work on improving their performance with feedback about how fast they were responding is a method known as: A. pushing the buttons.

B. asking many questions.

C. testing the limits.

D. fixing what's wrong.

46. Selective optimization with compensation definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B According to Baltes, older adults use the process of selective optimization with compensation, meaning that they: A. prefer to take conservative approaches to investing their finances.

B. focus on maintaining the abilities that are most important to them.

C. adopt more rigid attitudes toward political and social change.

D. preserve cognitive abilities at the expense of the physical strength.

47. Wisdom example Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Mrs. Peppy Roni, the 66- year-old house mother for a campus sorority, is the person that the women in the house are most likely to turn to for help when they are having relationship problems. Mrs. Roni would be considered, according to Baltes, to show which quality of intelligence in later life?

A. balance IM-7 |11

B. premonition C. wisdom D. equilibrium 48. Wisdom Development Scale Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C The Widsom Development Scale includes _____________ among the components of wisdom it assesses.

A. Reserve Capacity B. Formal Operations C. Life Skills D. Selective Optimization 49. Wisdom example Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Kristin’s grandmother, Katherine, is able to provide her with useful advice about Kristin’s latest relationship problems. This is an example of what psychologists would call: A. selective optimization with compensation.

B. testing the limits of cognitive processing.

C. expertise in the pragmatics of everyday life.

D. tapping into reserve cognitive capacity.

50. Reserve capacity- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Baltes used the term "reserve capacity" to apply to which characteristic of older adults?

A. Less likely to spend their savings on frivolous items.

B. Having more cognitive resources than are usually tested.

C. Being less interested in the concerns of the young.

D. Better able to remember items from the distant past.

Short answer questions Language 1.

2.

3.

What are the five major changes in cognitive ability that affect language in older adults?

How do older adults compensate in their use of language for changes in cognitive ability?

Define and describe the communication predicament model. How does it relate to the concept of elderspeak?

Everyday problem solving IM-7 |12

1.

2.

3.

4.

What are five of the tests used in the Everyday Problems Test? What are these tests attempting to measure?

Describe two advantages and two disadvantages that older problem solvers have based on their greater experience.

Discuss three implications of age differences in problem solving and thinking for those who teach adult learners.

What are three characteristics of post-formal thinkers?

Intelligence 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

Outline the major developments in the measurement of intelligence.

Define and contrast fluid and crystallized intelligence. Provide two examples of each type of ability.

List and define the five scales on the PMA used in the Seattle Longitudinal Study.

Summarize the main findings of the SLS in terms of the scales of the PMA. Provide two examples of cohort effects as found in the SLS. Define the five aspects of intelligence and plasticity investigated by Baltes.

Essay questions 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

How do the concepts of problem-finding and post-formal operations relate to alternative views of intelligence in adulthood?

What are the practical implications of findings on intelligence for understanding the performance of older workers on the job?

How might training studies on intelligence incorporate the concept of wisdom?

Which do you think is more important for competent functioning in adulthood: the pragmatics or the mechanics of intelligence? Justify your answer.

How might age changes in intelligence relate to identity processes? What advice or counseling would you provide to older adults who are concerned about loss of their intellectual skills?

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Multiple choice questions

The psychodynamic perspective 1. Ego psychology and defense mechanisms Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Research and theories about changes in defense mechanisms in adulthood are based on which theoretical perspective?

A. Social cognitive.

B. Trait.

C. Cognitive.

D. Psychodynamic.

2. Ego psychology and defense mechanisms Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C The topic of changes in defense mechanisms in personality over adulthood and into old age falls into which theoretical perspective in psychology?

A. cognitive B. trait C. psychodynamic D. behavioral 3. Attachment theory in psychodynamic perspective Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Which of the following areas in personality theory fits within the psychodynamic perspective?

A. possible selves B. attachment C. socioemotional selectivity D. impossible selves 4. Conscientiousness-conformist most typical Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B In Loevinger’s theory, which is the highest level of ego development seen among adults in our society?

A. Inhibitionist-exhibitionist.

B. Conformist - conscientious.

C. Stability-change.

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D. Primary-secondary.

5. Integrated example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Mr. Frank Stein is a 67-year-old man who has a high sense of self-esteem, feels that his life has been successful, and although he is married and loves his family, can also enjoy time pursuing his own interests and needs. According to the personality theorist Loevinger, Mr. Stein has successfully resolved which stage of development?

A. Sublimation.

B. Post-formal.

C. Procedural.

D. Integrated.

6. Integrated highest stage- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D The highest stage for adults in Loevinger’s ego development theory is called: A. Secure.

B. Generativity.

C. Mature.

D. Integrated.

7. Pathways study Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Findings from the Rochester Adult Longitudinal Study are being used to explore the notion that: A. age determines the course of personality development B. very few adults undergo any type of personality change.

C. there are pathways or alternate routes of personality development D. there are declines in the stages defined by Erikson’s theory.

8. Rochester Adult Longitudinal Study findings Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D One notable finding from the Rochester Adult Longitudinal Study was that: A. identity and intimacy both decreased from college through midlife.

B. individuals with low intimacy scores in college never increased.

C. women but not men changed in psychosocial development scores.

D. some late bloomers were able to catch up to their age peers by midlife.

9. Meandering Way- stem Difficulty: Moderate IM-8 |2

Correct choice: B The Meandering Way identified as one of the five pathways in the Rochester Adult Longitudinal Study was characterized by: A. feeling trapped in early career choices that prevent the individual from changing.

B. lack of clear-cut set of identity commitments and life choices.

C. a pattern of poor decisions that led to midlife feelings of failure and bitterness.

D. remaining open to change and feelings of having achieved fulfillment.

10. Authentic Road definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Which pathway identified in the Rochester Adult Longitudinal Study was characterized by openness to change and feelings of having achieved fulfillment?

A. Authentic Road B. Meandering Way C. Triumphant Trail D. Straight and Narrow 11. Mills study independence increased Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A In longitudinal research on ego development in women conducted by Helson and her colleagues at Mills College, the results showed that during the years of adulthood, women increased in: A. independence and self-control B. femininity and dependence C. socioeconomic status D. agreeableness and openness.

12. Humor as mature defense mechanism- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Vaillant’s categorization of ego defense mechanisms from mature to immature considered ________ to be an example of a mature defense mechanism.

A. denial B. humor C. projection D. hypochondriasis

13. Humor as defense mechanism choice- example Difficulty: Hard IM-8 |3

Correct choice: B Bill Board is an 81-year-old man who enjoys taking out his feelings of stress by practicing jokes he can tell to his friends. According to Vaillant, Bill is using a defense mechanism that would be considered: A. Integrated.

B. Mature.

C. Flexible.

D. Immature.

14. Humor as mature defense mechanism choice- example Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D 65-year-old Anita Mann reacts to the loss of her cellphone by making a joke and saying she didn’t like it anyway. According to Vaillant, Anita is using a defense mechanism that he would rate as: A. immature B. psychotic C. neurotic D. mature 15. Mature defense mechanisms example Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Al Fresco is a middle-aged man who tends to become extremely angry and then say things to others that he later regrets. According to Vaillant’s theory of personality, it might be helpful for Al to learn to develop: A. higher levels of ego integrity.

B. a more adaptive attachment style.

C. mature defense mechanisms.

D. socioemotional selectivity.

16. Attachment theory and early parenting Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Which personality theory places the greatest emphasis on the role of early parenting as an influence on adult development?

A. informational B. coping C. attachment D. extraversion 17. Defense mechanism changes Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A

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Research on the use of defense mechanisms over adulthood by Vaillant and Cramer shows that older adults increase in the use of: A. mature defense mechanisms.

B. anger in response to stress.

C. immature defense mechanisms.

D. insecure attachment styles.

18. Secure attachment style example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B Mrs. Ella Bean is an 83-year-old widow who has recently lost her husband but who is managing her emotions successfully in her daily life. It is likely that Mrs. Bean has a(n)____________ attachment style.

A. stable B. secure C. defensive D. extraverted 19. Attachment style and age Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Research over the course of adulthood shows that older adults are more likely to have which type of attachment style?

A. insecure B. internal C. secure D. anxious 20. Gender differences in defense mechanisms Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Research on gender differences in the use of defense mechanisms shows that men are more likely to use: A. denial.

B. reaction formation.

C. self-blame.

D. regression.

The trait perspective 21. Example of extraversion Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C

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Mrs. Jean Poole is an 82-year-old woman who is very outgoing, sociable, and interested in other people.

According to Costa and McCrae's theory, Mrs. Poole is high on which personality dimension?

A. Neuroticism.

B. Conscientiousness.

C. Extraversion.

D. Pragmatics.

22. Deliberation increase Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Research by Costa and colleagues in which longitudinal studies were conducted based on the Five Factor Model, demonstrated that which of the facets of conscientiousness increased in adulthood?

A. Deliberation.

B. Excitement-seeking.

C. Neuroticism.

D. Self-consciousness.

23. Five Factor Model and Conscientiousness- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B Increases in some facets of Conscientiousness throughout adulthood were found in tests of which theory of personality?

A. Big Six Grouping (BSG) B. Five Factor Model (FFM) C. Triarchic Factor Template (TFT) D. Ten Pronged Model (TPM) 24. Five Factor Model and Conscientiousness- choice Difficulty: .32 Correct choice: B In tests of the Five Factor Model in adulthood, researchers found a decrease in which facet of the Conscientiousness trait?

A. Possible selves B. Self control C. Ego involvement D. Social concern 25. Five Factor Model and Deliberation- choice Difficulty: .58 Correct choice: B Somewhat surprisingly, researchers studying the Five Factor Model of personality reported that over time, older adults showed a decrease in which trait?

A. deliberation IM-8 |6

B. self-discipline C. altruism D. hostility 26. Five Factor Model- stem

27. Type A Behavior Pattern Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A One of the most important predictors of cardiovascular disease within the Type A Behavior Pattern is high scores on the personality trait of: A. hostility.

B. openness.

C. conscientiousness.

D. defensivenss.

28. Anxiety and cardiovascular disease Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B Even when controlling for other risk factors, researchers studying the links between personality and heart disease found higher rates of disease for individuals high in: A. agreeableness.

B. anxiety.

C. dutifulness.

D. impulsiveness.

29. BMI and personality example Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Mary Makker is a middle-aged woman with high levels of the personality trait known as conscientiousness. Based on research showing the relationship between conscientiousness and health, it is likely that Mary has which physiological characteristic?

A. high blood pressure B. moderate cholesterol C. high bone strength D. low body mass index 30. BMI and personality Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C The personality trait most related to BMI in adulthood is: A. depression.

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B. assimilation.

C. conscientiousness.

D. hostility.

31. Hostility and heart disease Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Researchers studying the relationship between personality traits and health found that, over time, people with high levels of __________ were more likely to have high levels of a blood protein that made them more susceptible to heart disease.

A. fear B. depression C. hostility D. self-esteem 32. Anxiety and cardiovascular disease example Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Ms. Dee Veedee is a chronic worrier who scores high on measures of anxiety such as those on the NEOPI-R. Research on the relationship between personality and health suggests that Ms. Veedee might be at risk for which type of disease?

A. Cancer.

B. COPD. C. Heart.

D. Skin.

Social cognitive perspective 33. Socioemotional selectivity theory definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B According to socioemotional selectivity theory, older people are most likely to value which function of relationships?

A. Informational.

B. Emotional.

C. Familial.

D. Cognitive.

34. Socioemotional selectivity theory definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C According to socioemotional selectivity theory, the main factor that predicts greater valuing of emotional functions in relationships is: A. membership in a cohort.

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B. specific age.

C. time left to live.

D. the individual’s gender.

35. Socioemotional selectivity theory definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D According to _________ theory, people will focus on a smaller number of people in their Facebook networks as they get older.

A. possible selves B. life structure C. defense mechanism D. socioemotional selectivity 36. Socioemotional selectivity theory definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A The notion that we become closer to our good friends as we get older is consistent with which personality theory?

A. socioemotional selectivity B. conformist conscientiousness C. cognitive behaviorist D. identity process 37. Research on socioemotional selectivity theory Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B Supporting the theory known as ____________, Isaacowitz’s research on eye movements showed that older people prefer to look at the happy parts of a face.

A. trait pattern stability B. socioemotional selectivity C. intrapsychic preference D. identity process The cognitive perspective and coping 38. Possible selves- stem Difficulty: .Moderate Correct choice: A According to the theory of "possible selves," behaviors related to aging are guided by: A. ideas about the self that serve as motivators for behavior.

B. fictional accounts about the lives of other people.

C. attempts by individuals to avoid the truth about themselves.

D. ways that people try to control the lives of friends and family.

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39. Possible selves- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Our vision for ourselves in the future, both positive and negative, can guide our actions according to which cognitive personality theory?

A. Impossible dream.

B. Coping resilience.

C. Multiple threshold.

D. Possible selves.

40. Possible self definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Wondering what you will be like in the future and basing your behavior on this view is known as a(n): A. life structure B. attachment style C. identity process D. possible self 41. Possible self example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Mrs. J. Crew is concerned that as she gets older, she will become develop Alzheimer’s disease because she reads so much about the prevalence of this disease in the media. This is an example of a(n): A. feared possible self.

B. immature defense mechanism.

C. depressive coping style.

D. life story.

42. Longevity and positive outlook Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B That some advantages may be associated with identity assimilation as an approach to negative stereotypes about aging was shown in research showing that older adults with positive outlooks had: A. larger families.

B. longer lives.

C. fewer plaques.

D. more friends.

Midlife crisis theories and findings 43. Midlife transition- choice

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Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Although eventually his work became popularized by Sheehy, psychologist Daniel Levinson originally thought of the period in the early 40s not as a “crisis” but as the midlife: A. cliff B. bridge C. decline D. transition

44. Passages title- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Criticism of the view that adults go through discrete stages of development was associated with the popular book known as __________, written by journalist Gail Sheehy.

A. Passages B. Gateways C. Bridges D. Wanderings 45. Life structure- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A In Levinson's theory of the “seasons” of life, the "life structure" is defined as: A. the pattern of the individual's total situation at any one point in time.

B. scores on neuroticism, extraversion, and agreeableness.

C. fears and concerns that people have about growing older.

D. ideas about the self that shape and direct future behavior 46. Origin of term Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A The term ________ was originally coined to refer to the period of life when adults realize their time will run out.

A. mid-life crisis B. mortality fear C. reminiscence bump D. generativity 47. Research on who experiences a midlife crisis Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Research on the midlife crisis shows that it is most likely to occur in people who: IM-8 |11

A. B. C. D.

live in highly conventional and traditional communities. have very low levels of formal education. become chronically ill before their 30th birthday. have always tended to be anxious and unhappy.

48. Percent who state they have a midlife crisis Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A About ____ % of middle-aged adults state that they have experienced a crisis such as that described by Levinson.

A. 26 B. 80 C. 50 D. D 60 49. Disillusionment definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C The theme of _____________ that is supposed to accompany the midlife crisis refers to the individual’s belief that the dreams of youth will never be realized.

A. neuroticism B. maturity C. disillusionment D. realization 50. Criticism of midlife crisis on basis of age Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D People who criticize the midlife crisis theory state that it is overly reliant on _________ as a predictor.

A. personality B. gender C. ethnicity D. age

Short answer questions The psychodynamic perspective 1.

2.

3.

4.

Briefly describe the six stages of ego development in Loevinger's theory.

Contrast the mature with the immature defense mechanisms in Vaillant's theory.

Summarize the major findings from the Rochester Study.

Provide a brief summary of five major findings from the Mills and Radcliffe Studies.

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The trait perspective 1.

2.

3.

Summarize the five factors in the Five Factor Model.

Indicate the three major findings in support of stability from research on the Five Factor Model.

Based on the Assess Yourself Box, what criticisms might you make of research based on the NEO-PI-R, the questionnaire measure used to assess the Five Factor Model?

The cognitive perspective 1.

2.

3.

What are the three major categories of theories within the cognitive perspective? What features about them are similar and what features about them are different?

Define and contrast the mechanisms of primary and secondary control in the theory of Heckhausen and Schulz. Provide an example of each type of control mechanism.

Define and contrast identity assimilation and identity accommodation. Which process is more adaptive in terms of self-esteem in later life?

Midlife crisis theories and findings 1.

2.

3.

Summarize the major stages of Levinson's theory.

What are three major criticisms of midlife crisis theory?

What type of evidence was provided by Levinson in support of the midlife crisis theory?

Essay questions 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

Compare predictions about adult personality development from the Five Factor Model with the results of studies based on theories of ego development. Which results do you find more convincing? Why? What are the implications of the alternative theories of personality in middle and later adulthood for treatment of psychological disorders?

What personal observations in your life have you made about the validity of the midlife crisis concept? How do these observations fit with the theories and research on this topic in the adult development literature?

Summarize the patterns of gender differences in development that are apparent from studies on personality in adulthood. What further work in this area needs to be done? Why? Which theories of personality development are most compatible with the midlife crisis theory?

Why? How do changes in physical functioning and health relate to personality changes in adulthood as described by the theories and research in this chapter?

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Multiple Choice Questions Marriage and intimate relationships 1. Currently married Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Approximately ______% of adults in the U.S. are currently married.

A. 24 B. 50 C. 95 D. 77 2. Ethnicity differences in marriage rates Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Which racial/ethnic group in the U.S. has the highest rate of marriage?

A. Asians B. Whites.

C. Native Americans.

D. Hispanics.

3. Gay marriage legalized in Canada Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Which country has legalized gay marriage?

A. Italy B. Costa Rica C. Argentina D. Canada 4. Cohabitation effect definition- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The cohabitation effect refers specifically to the higher divorce rate among couples who: A. know each other from high school.

B. lived together before getting engaged.

C. lived together after getting engaged.

D. remain apart in the first year of marriage.

5. Cohabitation effect definition- choice IM-9 |1

Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A The _____________ refers to the fact that couples most likely to divorce are those who live together before marriage.

A. cohabitation effect B. marital similarity phenomenon C. divorce proneness model D. family dynamic conflict 6. Percent in U.S. divorced Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C What is the percent of the adult U.S. population that is divorced?

A. 50 B. 33 C. 25 D. 10 7. Characteristics of divorced couples Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Jon and Kate are a middle-aged couple who have recently divorced. Research on divorce shows that they are likely, compared to comparable married couples, to have: A. lower mortality.

B. higher income.

C. poorer health.

D. lower depression.

8. Divorce proneness definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Couples high in the psychological quality of ______________ are more likely to contemplate ending their marriage when difficulties arise.

A. socioemotional selectivity B. divorce proneness C. marital similarity D. attachment style 9. Percent of 85+ women who are widowed Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D What is the proportion of U.S. women over 85 who are widowed?

A. 45% IM-9 |2

B. 7%.

C. 15%.

D. 76%.

10. Widowhood effect definition- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C As applied to aging men, the widowhood effect refers to the finding that men who lose their wives (compared to non-widowed men) have higher: A. involvement in their communities.

B. percentages of “good” cholesterol.

C. rates of dying from all causes.

D. ratings of relationships with children.

11. Widowhood effect definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A The ___________ effect refers to the fact that older men are more likely to die after losing their spouse.

A. widowhood B. mortality C. equity D. empty nest 12. Length of widowhood effect Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The widowhood effect can persist in men for as long as ______ after the death of their wives.

A. 6 months B. 35 years C. 2 years D. 8 years 13. Health risks of widowed women Difficulty: Hards Correct choice: C Research on long-term widows shows that they are likely to develop which of the following healthrelated behaviors?

A. Eating food with low fat content.

B. Increasing their alcohol intake.

C. Becoming more likely to smoke.

D. Exercising to the point of exhaustion.

14. Symptoms in widowed women IM-9 |3

Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Mrs. Anne Teak became a widow 20 years ago and has not remarried. Compared to other women her age who are currently married, Anne is likely to show: A. fewer depressive symptoms.

B. greater likelihood of alcohol use.

C. lower social functioning.

D. lower levels of anxiety.

15. Similarity hypothesis -stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The similarity hypothesis of relationship satisfaction proposes that people will be most happy with each other if they: A. are very different in personality and interests.

B. have something concrete to offer in the relationship.

C. feel that they each contribute equally to the relationship.

D. have personalities and interests that are very much alike.

16. Social exchange theory- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D In the _____ theory of interpersonal relationship satisfaction, you would feel happiest in relationships when you feel that the rewards of the relationship equal or exceed its costs.

A. social equity B. behavioral C. personal selectivity D. social exchange 17. Social exchange theory- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A In the social exchange theory of interpersonal relationship satisfaction you feel happiest when: A. the rewards of the relationship equal or exceed its costs.

B. you give more to your partner than your partner gives to you.

C. the costs of the relationship outweigh the rewards it provides.

D. your partner introduces you to new friends you would not otherwise have.

18. What men want in wives Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A

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In a study of the factors that led to men being happy in the early years of marriage, researchers who followed partners over the first 3 years of marriage found that men particularly valued what about their wives?

A. personality B. salary C. cooking D. interest in sports 19. What men want in wives- example Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Angie and Brad have been married for 2 years and seem to be quite satisfied. Researchers would suggest that Brad’s satisfaction is probably largely accounted for by which of Angie’s qualities?

A. Ability to cook B. Interest in his parents C. Dependability D. High paycheck.

20. Agreeableness and marital satisfaction Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A In a 13-year longitudinal study of marital satisfaction, researchers found that the personality trait of ____________ was positively related to whether or not couples remained in love.

A. agreeableness B. similarity C. dominance D. conscientiousness 21. Same-sex couples dynamics Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B In same-sex married and cohabitating couples, researchers find that theories of relationship satisfaction developed with heterosexual couples: A. have to be completely reworked.

B. apply in very similar ways.

C. only apply if the couple is the same race.

D. apply only to couples with children.

22. Sexuality in older adults Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C A recent national survey conducted in the U.S. on sexuality in later life showed that approximately ____% of men 75-84 with a regular partner engaged in sexual intercourse during the previous year.

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A. B. C. D.

12 93 47 62

23. Lesbians raising children % Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Approximately ___% of lesbians in the U.S. are estimated to be raising children.

A. 5 B. 34 C. 52 D. 67 Parenthood 24. Empty nest couples Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Research on the effects of the "empty nest" on married couples shows that: A. the couple's sexual relationship improves when children return home.

B. for most adults, the children's moving out of the home is not overly distressing.

C. women, but not men, become depressed after the last child leaves the home.

D. this transition is far more stressful than the transition into parenthood.

25. Transition to parenthood predictors of satisfaction Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A During the transition to parenthood. satisfaction in the new mother will be highest if she: A. remembers her parents as being happily married.

B. has an insecure attachment style.

C. is concerned that she may not be a good mother.

D. has low expectations for how she will adapt.

26. Doing gender definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B When women enact roles in the family that correspond to the stereotyped views of how they should behave, this is known as: A. role reversal.

B. doing gender.

C. blending families.

D. filial anxiety.

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27. Doing gender example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Lesley and Leslie are a married couple who have just had their first child. They find that despite their best efforts, they have divided the household tasks according to traditional gender roles, a phenomenon known as: A. trading places.

B. sandwiching.

C. doing gender.

D. attachment.

28. Doing gender example- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Which of the following couples would be an example of new parents who are “doing gender”?

A. Meredith and Derek, who have sex at least twice a week.

B. Ross and Rachel, who share equally in household duties.

C. Jim and Pam, because Pam now is a full-time mother.

D. Jin and Sun, because Jin is now a full-time father.

29. Percent of households with married couples Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Approximately ____% of households in the U.S. include married couples living together.

A. 54 B. 24 C. 5 D. 90

30. Developmental schism example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Martha, a family sociologist, is divorced from her husband Martin. Martha is concerned that she and her daughter Marty are experiencing a developmental schism. This means that Martha is afraid that Marty will: A. feel emotionally distant from her and close off their relationship.

B. become closer to her aunt than she is to her mother.

C. reject her father’s attempts to establish communication.

D. want to change her name because all their names are too similar.

31. Intergenerational solidarity model dimensions IM-9 |7

Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The Intergenerational Solidarity Model includes the dimension of: A. dysfunctional interaction.

B. developmental schism.

C. filial piety.

D. distance apart.

32. Intergenerational solidarity model research Difficulty: .Hard Correct choice: C As determined by research on the Intergenerational Solidarity Model, the relationship between adult children and their parents that is most frequently observed falls into the _____________ type: A. distant B. obligatory C. harmonious D. disengaged 33. Intergenerational solidarity model research Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Research based on Bengston’s Intergenerational Solidarity Model showed that the __________ adult parent-child combination was most likely to fit the criteria of obligatory.

A. father-son B. mother-son C. father-daughter D. mother-daughter 34. Role reversal a myth Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Research on adult parent-child relationships shows that ______________ is the norm.

A. role reversal B. reciprocal help C. filial harmony D. familial inequity 35. Developmental schism example- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Which of the following adult daughter-mother pairs would be considered by family psychologists to be experiencing a developmental schism?

A. Jennifer, who fears having to care for her aging mother, Jennifer.

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B. Sandra and Samantha, who spend much of their free time together.

C. Maria, who feels she can no longer confide in her mother, Maryann.

D. Rachel, who feels that she is obliged to care for her mother, Rebecca.

36. Filial piety definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Which term refers to the tradition in some cultures that adult children provide care and support for their aging parents?

A. Intergenerational solidarity.

B. Filial maturity.

C. Sandwiching.

D. Filial piety.

37. Filial piety example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Jen and Ben come from different cultures regarding attitudes of adult children toward their parents and so they occasionally have disagreements about how they should relate to their respective in-laws. Jen feels that children are obligated to care for their parents, a belief known as: A. parental attachment.

B. filial maturity.

C. maturational devotion.

D. filial piety.

38. Filial maturity definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Which term refers to the point in a family when children are treated as adults by their aging parents?

A. Filial piety.

B. Skip generation.

C. Filial maturity.

D. Sandwich generation.

39. Filial maturity example- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Mr. and Mrs. Hilton find that their daughter Nikki seems to relate to them differently now that she has turned 25. When children are regarded as adults by their parents, this is known as: A. filial maturity.

B. social equality.

C. filial anxiety.

D. parental piety.

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Siblings 40. Longest relationship Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Which family relationship is typically the longest one of an individual’s life?

A. Sibling.

B. First cousin.

C. Child.

D. Spouse.

41. Sibling perception of inequality Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Siblings are likely to experience tension in adulthood when they perceive that in childhood their parents: A. wanted more children.

B. argued frequently.

C. favored one sibling.

D. wanted fewer children.

42. Research on sibling relationships Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D The majority of relationships between siblings in adulthood are characterized by: A. hostility and frequent arguments.

B. extreme warmth and closeness.

C. high levels of rivalry.

D. few arguments or competitiveness.

Grandparents 43. Number of grandparents raising grandchildren Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Approximately _______ million grandchildren in the U.S. are currently being raised solely by their grandparents, who are solely responsible for their care.

A. 2.5 B. 6.1 C. 12.3 D. 20.5 44. Problems in skip generation families Difficulty: Moderate IM-9 |10

Correct choice: B One of the major problems within a skip generation family is that: A. parents inherit too much wealth B. grandparents are in poverty or poor health C. cousins become emotionally detached D. children become too pampered 45. Grandparent types example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Mrs. Jenna Ration is the type of grandmother that gerontologists call “Reservoir of family wisdom.” This means that she is likely to have what type of relationship with her grandchildren?

A. Spoiling her grandchildren as much as possible.

B. Paying for her grandchildren's college educations.

C. Trying to stay distant and respect generational boundaries.

D. Maintaining traditions and connections among family members.

46. Grandparent types example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Mrs. Kenya Dewitt is a 68-year-old woman who has taken over the major responsibility of caring for her two grandchildren because their mother has serious drug and alcohol problems. According to the classification of grandparent types, Mrs. Dewitt would be considered to fit the _____________ type.

A. Surrogate parent B. Empty nest C. Distant but close D. Reservoir of family wisdom Friendships 47. Peripheral ties example- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Which of the following examples would quality as people who have peripheral friendship ties?

A. Emily and Emma, who were close as children and still see each other frequently B. Jane and Jenna, who take the same yoga class at their gym and see each other only then C. Connie and Collie, who have maintained a close long-distance relationship since college D. Kellie and Kenny, who each married siblings and are now in-laws as well as friends 48. Recently divorced highest friends Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D IM-9 |11

Researchers have found that which of the following people is likely to have the most number of close friends?

A. Recently divorced woman.

B. Newly married woman.

C. Recently widowed woman.

D. Long-time married man.

49. Dyadic withdrawal definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D When couples enter into long-term intimate relationships, the principle of dyadic withdrawal means that they: A. become closer to their in-laws.

B. decrease their number of joint friendships.

C. spend less money on entertainment.

D. increase their number of joint friendships.

50. Dyadic withdrawal definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C According to the principle of _____________, when couples enter into long-term intimate relationships they become less likely to have individual friendships.

A. filial anxiety B. intergenerational solidarity C. dyadic withdrawal D. sandwich generation

Short Answer Questions

Marriage 1.

2.

3.

Describe three findings relevant to socioemotional selectivity theory as an explanation of agerelated changes in marital relationships. think provides a better framework for analyzing close relationships in adulthood?

Contrast the major approaches to analyzing marital satisfaction.

Children and Family Relationships 1.

2.

Describe three factors that influence the quality of the marital relationship as it changes over the transition to parenthood.

Summarize the three forms of "filial" attitudes as these exist in the relationships between adult children and their parents.

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3.

4.

What are three factors that influence the extent to which an adult daughter experiences caregiver stress?

What are the risks and benefits involved in grandparents raising grandchildren?

Friendships 1.

2.

3.

What are the three phases of friendships described by Adams and Blieszner?

What are the three friendship styles described by Matthews?

How do friendship patterns vary according to the individual’s family position in adulthood?

Essay Questions 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Summarize the trends over the past 50 years in marriage and family statistics and provide an analysis of the causes of these changes.

Provide an analysis of the transition to parenthood from a biopsychosocial perspective.

Describe how the developmental schism might apply to fathers and sons.

What are the common features or dimensions shared by models of adult child-parent, grandparent, and sibling relationship?

Think of an example of a recent film in which the relationship between friends in adulthood was portrayed. Did this example support or contradict socioemotional selectivity theory?

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Multiple choice questions

Work patterns in adulthood

1. Percent in late 60s in labor force Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A As of 2010, approximately ____% of people in their late 60s were still in the labor force.

A. 30 B. 83 C. 74 D. 12 2. Labor force participation by age group Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D By the year 2018, the percentage of the labor market consisting of workers 55 and older will be approximately: A. 18 B. 13 C. 46 D. 24 3. Labor force participation of women Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Since the year 2000, the percent of women under 25 with young children in the labor force has: A. increased for married and unmarried women.

B. decreased only for married women.

C. decreased for both married and unmarried women.

D. increased only for unmarried women.

4. Highest educated age group Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B The age group with the highest percentage of college graduates is: A. 35-44 B. 25-34 C. 55-64 D. 65-74 IM- 10 |1

5. Highest gender gap by occupation Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Tthe greatest gender gap is found for which type of worker?

A. Lawyer B. Cook C. Construction worker D. Social worker 6. Highest gender gap by age Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D The greatest gender gap is found among workers in which age group?

A. 25-34 B. 35-44 C. 45-54 D. 55-64 7. Gender gap definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C It is the year 2016, and the next female candidate to run for president announces that she intends to eliminate the disparity between men’s and women’s earnings, a situation known as the: A. occupational divide.

B. pink collar dilemma.

C. gender gap.

D. negative spillover.

Vocational development 8. Realistic type example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Which of the following occupations would be considered an example of a Realistic type, in the RIASEC model?

A. Guidance counselor B. Sales manager C. Construction worker D. Graphic designer 9. Social type example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D IM- 10 |2

High school science teacher is an occupation high in which RIASEC type?

A. Investigative B. Enterprising C. Conventional D. Social 10. Incongruence definition Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B In Holland’s theory of vocational development, the term used to describe a mismatch between a worker’s personality and the characteristics of the job is: A. spillover.

B. incongruent.

C. gender gap.

D. detached.

11. Incongruence example- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Which of the following people suffers from incongruence according to Holland's model?

A. John, who works as a physician and feels that he is good at diagnosis.

B. Jacob, who is a plumber and likes to figure out real-life problems.

C. Janet, who teaches in a dance school and likes to be around young people.

D. Jane, who works as a file clerk but would prefer to be a musician.

12. Incongruence and career changing Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Dr. Bob Loblaw does research on career changers. Based on Holland’s RIASEC model, Dr. Loblaw would be likely to find the lowest levels of ____________ among those who are actively trying to make a job switch.

A. realism B. establishment C. conventionality D. congruence 13. Incongruence and career changing example Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A After several years at his current job as a sales manager, Don Draper decides he would rather go into the field of health care. Based on the RIASEC model, you would expect that Don’s score on a measure of career _________ would therefore be lower than would someone else’s score who did not desire a career change.

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A. B. C. D.

congruence adaptation realism conservatism

14. Origin of name of Holland Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A The name “Holland” as applied to the RIASEC model refers to the: A. person who invented the theory.

B. country where the theory was invented.

C. company where the research was conducted.

D. source of funding for the original study.

15. O*NET Model definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C People who are trying to find a job that suits their interests can use which U.S. online database of occupations?

A. R*EAL B. S*JOB C. O*NET. D. B*LAS 16. Establishment stage example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Angela is a 30-year-old assistant editor at a fashion magazine is in the process of making her reputation in the world of publishing. In Super’s theory, she would be considered to be in the ___________ stage of vocational development.

A. disengagement B. establishment C. plateau D. recycling 17. Establishment stage and embeddedness Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Mentoring is particularly important for helping workers become embedded both in their organization and their companies in the ___________ stage of vocational development.

A. maintenance B. protean IM- 10 |4

C. plateau D. establishment 18. Maintenance stage and embeddedness- example Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Michael Scott is a middle-aged manager who is in the maintenance stage of Super’s theory. Based on the research on organizational embeddedness, his employer should help Michael develop: A. more social ties in the company.

B. a better routine of work hours.

C. more responsibilities and leadership.

D. a good retirement plan.

19. Disengagement stage and embeddedness Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B During the disengagement stage of Super’s theory of vocational development, workers will feel most embedded in their occupation if they can be encouraged to: A. invest wisely in mutual funds.

B. take a leadership role in the profession.

C. reduce their family commitments.

D. be mentored by older workers.

20. Protean career definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C The idea that workers will set their own career direction rather than be guided by outside forces is known as the: A. Oedipal trajectory.

B. Plateau problem.

C. Protean career.

D. Recycling phase.

21. Boundaryless career example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Michael Weston is progressing up the salary and grade level of his government job but he is thinking of switching to the private sector to be able to progress at a faster level. Michael is an example of a worker with a(n) ___________ career mindset.

A. boundaryless B. embedded C. recycling IM- 10 |5

D. plateau 22. Recycling definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D In the _____________ variant of Super’s theory, the worker seeks to determine his or her own career path.

A. recycling B. plateau C. boundaryless D. protean Vocational satisfaction

23. Intrinsic motivation example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Barb Dwyer enjoys her job as a jewelry maker because she feels it satisfies her creative desires of selfexpression. She also is very successful and has a steady flow of orders from clients around the world.

Barb would be considered high on which type of vocational motivation?

A. Extrinsic B. Boundaryless C. Intrinsic D. Maintenance 24. Extrinsic motivation example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Anita Rest is an insurance agent who openly admits that she is only in the job for the paycheck. In terms of Self-Determination Theory, Anita would be considered high on which type of job motivation?

A. Dispositional.

B. Extrinsic.

C. Spillover.

D. Fractionated.

25. Motivational crowding out definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B The phenomenon of motivational crowding out refers specifically to situations when workers: A. do not receive income equivalent to their training.

B. lose interest in their work due to extrinsic rewards.

C. feel that they are getting too old to perform their job duties.

D. experience stress between work and family conflict.

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26. Names of factors in two-factor theory Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A In the two-factor theory of vocational satisfaction proposed by Herzberg, the two factors are job motivators and: A. hygiene B. self-determination C. dispositions D. spillover 27. Occupational reinforcement patterns example Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B According to the classification of occupational reinforcement patterns, the job of travel guide is high on: A. recognition.

B. independence.

C. support.

D. relationships.

28. Work-family identity example Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Nan Drew feels that it is almost impossible to keep up with her many demands at work and at home.

According to research on the spillover model of work-family satisfaction, Nan would be better able to handle the balance between the two if her _______ identity was stronger.

A. community B. family C. personality D. managerial 29. Spillover model example- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Kim and Jack are both in very high stress jobs. According to the ___________ model of work-family relationships, they should experience difficulties at home.

A. spillover B. extrinsic C. conventional D. blurred 30. Affective evaluation theory definition- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D IM- 10 |7

According to ______________ theory, work satisfaction depends on whether people experience positive or negative events on the job.

A. motivational crowding out B. two-factor C. self-directed D. affective evaluation 31. Personality and job satisfaction Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Research examining the relationship between personality and job satisfaction find that people high in the trait of ____________ are more content with their work.

A. conscientiousness B. neuroticism C. hostility D. congruence 32. Work stress and metabolic syndrome Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Researchers studying middle-aged workers found the highest level of _______ associated with the jobs of people who fit the criteria for metabolic syndrome.

A. stress B. motivation C. income D. satisfaction Age and vocational performance

33. Age and job performance in Warr’s model Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Warr's model of age and job performance predicts the effects of aging based on the extent to which experience benefits performance and: A. how interesting the job is.

B. number of hours worked per week.

C. whether the job exceeds capacities.

D. friendliness of co-workers.

34. Age and job performance Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D IM- 10 |8

Research in which thousands of studies were analyzed comparing the performance of older and younger workers showed that younger workers were more likely to: A. attempt to embezzle or cheat at work.

B. volunteer for extra duties.

C. control their emotions at work.

D. engage in unsafe work behaviors.

35. Older workers and absenteeism Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Older workers have lower rates of which type of absenteeism on the job?

A. voluntary only B. all types C. involuntary only D. personal 36. Driving-related fatalities on the job Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C The highest rate of fatalities for all workers, including those 65 and older, are due to: A. unintentional falls.

B. job-related illness.

C. vehicular accidents.

D. metabolic syndrome.

37. Mandatory retirement and ADEA Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Due to the city’s mandatory retirement law, firefighter Tommy Gavin could no longer work after he turned 65 years old though he was given a generous pension. According to the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, Tommy’s forced retirement was: A. illegal because it was based on age rather than ability.

B. legal because mandatory retirement is permissible for all occupations in the U.S. C. legal because he was in a protective services occupation.

D. illegal and therefore could be contested if hewanted to take the city to court.

38. Self-efficacy and job performance Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Raising an older worker’s ____________ may help to retain job-related skills by boosting feelings of confidence in the ability to perform.

A. extrinsic motivation IM- 10 |9

B. self-determination C. affective evaluation D. self-efficacy 39. ADEA example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Patty H. is a lawyer who specializes in age discrimination cases, particularly those that are based on forcing people to retire on the basis of their age alone. She bases her work on federal legislation that protects the rights of older workers against discrimination, known as the: A. Defamation against Age and Prosecution Bill (DAPB).

B. Anti-Retirement and Wages Act (ARWA).

C. Special Protection Against Retirement Knowledge (SPARK).

D. Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA).

Retirement

40. Bridge employment definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A The situation in which a retired person takes on a new job primarily due to financial need is called: A. bridge employment.

B. crisp retirement.

C. occupational reinforcement.

D. anticipatory retirement.

41. Percent of income from Social Security Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Approximately 36% of the income of people 65 and older comes from what source?

A. Medicare B. Salaries C. Social Security D. Private pensions 42. Total paid in 2009 by Social Security Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A In 2009, approximately ______ billion dollars were paid out in the U.S. to retired workers through Social Security.

A. 548 B. 802 IM- 10 |10

C. 746 D. 34 43. Role theory definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Which theory proposes that retirees are unable to recover psychologically from the loss of their job?

A. life course B. role C. continuity D. resource 44. Continuity theory- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A According to the continuity theory of retirement: A. retirees maintain a sense of identity and therefore do not experience retirement in a negative manner.

B. loss of the work role is devastating to the individual’s sense of identity and relationships with others.

C. when older workers retire their loss of income causes stress, leading them to seek re-entry into the labor force.

D. workers who maintain connections with their fellow workers have more difficult retirement experiences.

45. Continuity theory- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A According to ________ theory, individuals do not suffer negative effects from the loss of the work role when they retire: A. Continuity.

B. Role theory.

C. Life course.

D. Self-concept.

46. Resource model definition- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B According to the resource model of retirement adjustment, people are able to handle retirement more successfully if they: A. are in need of attention and concern by their children.

B. have a number of areas of life in which they are active.

C. were in working class jobs that didn’t interest them.

D. retire very suddenly without much advance preparation.

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47. Resource model definition- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C The idea that people are able to draw on their physical, psychological, and social capabilities to allow them to adjust to retirement is referred to as the ________ model.

A. continuity B. life course C. resource D. self-concept 48. Amount of time for retirement planning- example Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Penny Lane is worried about her grandfather because he made the decision to retire only 2 weeks before his last day of work. Penny’s grandfather, in order to adjust most successfully, should have given himself how long to prepare?

A. 2 years.

B. 10 years.

C. 3 months.

D. 9 months.

49. Orderly career pattern example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Max Well has worked for 35 years in the same career, having progressed from sales agent to senior manager of a large regional health insurance company. Max would be considered to have what type of career pattern?

A. spillover B. flexible C. crisp D. orderly 50. Crisp retirement example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D 65-year-old Jay Walker retired from his job as a school teacher and moved from his home in Ohio to reside permanently in Alabama. Jay is an example of someone who shows a(n) ________ retirement pattern.

A. extrinsic B. incongruent C. indistinct D. crisp IM- 10 |12

Short answer questions Work patterns in adulthood 1.

2.

Summarize the projected changes in the U.S. labor market as Baby Boomers grow older.

How are women affected by the gender gap? Do current statistics indicate any improvement in this situation for the future?

Vocational development 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

List the six types described in Holland's vocational development theory. Provide an example of an occupation in each type.

What are five criticisms of Holland's vocational development theory?

How will the RIASEC model most likely change in the future as it is applied to vocational development?

What are two important differences between Super's and Holland's models of vocational development?

Name and describe the four stages in Super's self-concept theory. What are two alternative paths added by Super in later versions of the theory?

Vocational satisfaction 1.

2.

3.

4.

Contrast intrinsic and extrinsic work factors and provide examples of each.

What are the major differences between two-factor theory and self-determination theory?

List the six types of occupational reinforcement patterns (ORP's) in the theory of Dawis and Lofquist.

What are the three major models describing conflict between work and family involvement in adulthood?

Age and vocational performance 1.

2.

Summarize the pros and cons of older workers based on Warr’s model.

Describe the results of research examining injuries and absences in which older and younger workers are compared.

Retirement 1.

2.

3.

Contrast the three theories regarding the effects of retirement on the individual.

Examine the positive and negative factors in the retirement experience of people from high socioeconomic levels compared to those of low socioeconomic status.

What are the three patterns of retirement and how are each associated with health and activity outcomes?

IM- 10 |13

Essay questions 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Analyze the relationship between age and vocational satisfaction, taking into account job tenure, intrinsic and extrinsic factors, Super's theory of career development, and the effects of job discrimination.

You are the personnel manager of a large company. Based on research on age and vocational performance, and keeping in mind the ADEA, what factors would you consider when deciding how best to use the older workers in your company?

How does the history of attitudes toward retirement parallel the changes in the age distribution of the U.S. population in the 20th Century?

What is the possible relationship of identity processes to the decision to retire and adjustment to retirement of people who (a) undergo forced layoffs, and (b) make a voluntary decision to retire?

What advice might a vocational counselor give to women compared to men in preparing for their retirement?

IM- 10 |14

Multiple Choice questions Psychological disorders in adulthood

1. Abnormality definition Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A An older adult who hoards unnecessary objects to the point that the home has become cluttered and unhealthy would be considered to have a psychological disorder because: A. this behavior presents a risk to the individual’s health.

B. other people might complain about the accumulation of dirt.

C. collecting unnecessary items inherently reflects a disturbance.

D. the behavior cannot be treated with psychotherapy.

2. Axis I classification Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Major clinical syndromes are classified in the DSM-IV-TR along Axis: A. Two. B. Three.

C. One. D. Six. 3. Disorders on Axis I Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Which of the following psychological disorders would be diagnosed on Axis I of the DSM-IV-TR? A. Antisocial personality disorder B. Suicidality C. Major depressive disorder D. Significant life stresses.

4. Axis II example- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B 60-year-old Adam has mental retardation and lives in a group home with other adults who have this condition. Adam has also developed hypertension. Adam’s mental retardation would be categorized on Axis ____ of the DSM-IV-TR. A. One B. Two C. Three IM- 11 |1

D. Five 5. Axis III definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D When diagnosing adults with psychiatric disorders, clinicians must also provide classifications on Axis III, which is used to characterize: A. mental retardation.

B. personality disorders.

C. medical conditions.

D. psychosocial stressors.

6. DSM-IV and aging Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A The DSM-IV-TR, the diagnostic manual used to categorize psychological disorders, has which feature with regard to older adults?

A. Disorders for older adults are not specifically addressed.

B. Each disorder specifies how it differs by age group.

C. Not even Alzheimer’s disease is included in it.

D. There is a separate axis that can be used to categorize age.

7. DSM-IV and aging Difficulty: .95 Correct choice: The DSM-IV-TR, the diagnostic manual used to categorize psychological disorders, has which feature with regard to older adults?

A. Has clinicians rate each client on an Axis VI, which contains age groupings.

B. Does not specifically address disorders for older adults.

C. Provides a way for older adults to rate their own problems on a 5-point scale.

D. Contains a special section for disorders in people 65 and older.

8. DSM-IV and aging- example Difficulty: .82 Correct choice: B Dr. Sue Flay is a psychotherapist who specializes in work with older adults. She therefore finds it frustrating that the DSM-IV-TR, which was developed to diagnose psychological disorders: A. regards childhood disorders as more severe than those that afflict older adults.

B. does not separately deal with disorders in the older adult population.

C. has far too much detail on diagnosing disorders in people 65 and older.

D. focuses too much on medical rather than psychiatric treatment of older adults.

9. Major Depressive Disorder prevalence IM- 11 |2

Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Among the population in the U.S. who are 60 years and older, approximately ____% have experienced major depressive disorder at some point during their lives.

A. 26 B. 2 C. 53 D. 18 10. Depressive symptoms in older adults Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Older adults, in contrast to young adults, are likely to report _____________ when in fact they are experiencing symptoms of major depressive disorder.

A. suicidal thoughts B. abdominal disturbances C. low self-esteem D. dysphoric emotions 11. Risk factors for major depressive disorder in older adults Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Behavioral and health factors such as poor fitness level, tooth loss, hip fracture, obesity, and arthritis place an older adult at greater risk for which psychological disorder?

A. Schizophrenia B. Borderline personality disorder C. Major depressive disorder D. Post-traumatic stress disorder 12. Risk factors for major depressive disorder in older adults Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Which condition might be overlooked by mental health professionals as a possible contributor to major depressive disorder in older adults?

A. excess vitamin B12 B. tooth loss C. sarcopenia D. psychosocial stress 13. Mental health parity Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D

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When mental health parity for Medicare was passed in 2008 by the U.S. Congress, this meant that older adults could receive: A. generic prescription medications at half price.

B. vocational counseling as well as medical treatment.

C. longer visits with mental health professionals.

D. copayments for mental health services equal to those for medical.

14. Bipolar disorder and white matter hyperintensities Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Older adults who have bipolar disorder also show a higher than average risk for: A. major depressive disorder.

B. immunological dysfunction.

C. periodontal disease.

D. white matter hyperintensities.

15. Racial/ethnic differences in generalized anxiety disorder risk Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Older adults who are of _____________ ethnicity seem to have a higher risk of generalized anxiety disorder.

A. Asian-American B. Native American C. Latino/Latina D. Eastern European 16. Hoarding as a version of OCD Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B 75-year-old Martha lives in a small house with 200 cats and 35 dogs, a condition that is a variant of hoarding. Martha’s disorder would be categorized as a form of ___________ disorder.

A. major depressive B. obsessive compulsive C. severe agoraphobic D. borderline personality 17. Symptoms of LOSS Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Older veterans who show symptoms of LOSS typically develop them: A. late in life, years after combat.

B. during actual combat experiences.

C. immediately upon return home from war.

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D. only after beginning therapy.

18. Schizophrenia mortality risk Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B One reason that the rates of schizophrenia are lower in older than younger adults is because: A. most people with the disorder recover in their 30s.

B. many do not live into their older adult years.

C. medications can take decades to become effective.

D. young adults are more likely to report symptoms.

19. Late onset schizophrenia symptoms Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C When schizophrenia-like symptoms first develop among older adults these seem to be related to: A. increased involvement with friends and family members.

B. a completely separate version of schizophrenia found only in the old.

C. sensory deficits, substance abuse, or a cognitive disorder.

D. improved socioeconomic status associated with retirement.

20. Retrograde amnesia symptoms- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D The symptoms of retrograde amnesia include forgetting of what type of information?

A. New material learned after the brain injury occurred.

B. Material specific to events occurring at the time of brain injury.

C. Any time of information, both recently learned and learned in the past.

D. Information learned before the brain injury occurred.

21. Anterograde amnesia definition- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C In ________________ amnesia, the individual forgets information learned after the brain injury occurred.

A. retrograde B. late onset C. anterograde D. maturational 22. Most prevalent form of substance abuse in older adults Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D IM- 11 |5

Older adults are most likely to abuse what type of illicit substance?

A. alcohol B. marijuana C. heroin D. non-medical prescriptions 23. Percent of adults 50+ illicitly using drugs Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Approximately ______% of adults 50 and older are reported ot have engaged in some form of illicit drug use in the past year.

A. 10.3 B. 4.7 C. 36.2 D. 19.9

24. Psychopathy stable over adulthood Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B The personality trait of ___________, characteristic of people with antisocial personality disorder, tends to remain stable over the course of adulthood.

A. narcissism B. psychopathy C. impulsiveness D. depression 25. Maturation hypothesis example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D As a young adult, Sabine showed extreme symptoms of the personality disorder known as narcissism involving extremes of self-interest. However, as she has gotten older, she seems to be less self-centered and her symptoms have subsided. Sabine’s changes are an example of the _______________ hypothesis of aging and personality disorders.

A. cluster B. egocentricity C. antisocial D. maturation 26. Maturation hypothesis- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B

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According to the maturation hypothesis, older adults with personality disorders show which pattern of symptoms?

A. Increased tendencies to act out.

B. Improved coping abilities.

C. More abuse of substances.

D. Greater experience of depression.

27. MMSE example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Dr. Amy Loid is a psychologist who screens the patients of a nursing home for Alzheimer’s disease. She wishes to use a test that is relatively quick to administer, though she realizes it is far from perfect. It is most likely that Dr. Loid will use the: A. GDS B. ADIS-R C. MMSE D. MMPI Elder abuse 28. Title XX of Social Security Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C The creation of an Adult Protective Services program to ensure that vulnerable older adults are not abused is associated with which federal legislation?

A. Age Discrimination in Employment Act. B. Medicare Insurance Parity Bill.

C. Title XX of the Social Security Act. D. Federal Protection of Elders Bill.

29. Overall prevalence in past year Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D A national survey conducted in 2010 provided an estimate of ___% of older adults reporting abuse or neglect within the past year.

A. 32 B. 15 C. 23 D. 10 30. Prevalence since age 60 Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B IM- 11 |7

In 2010, a national survey on elder abuse reported that ___% of older adults reported emotional mistreatment after the age of 60 years old.

A. 4.1 B. 13.5 C. 0.3 D. 21.4 31. Financial most prevalent Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C As reported in class, a 2010 survey on elder abuse in the U.S. found that the most prevalent form of abuse in people 60 years and older was: A. self-neglect.

B. verbal abuse.

C. financial mistreatment.

D. sexual mistreatment.

Suicide 32. Highest rates Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C The highest rate of suicides, adjusted for age, among all groups in the United States is for: A. White males 18 and younger.

B. Black females 65-74.

C. White males 85 and older.

D. Black males 25-34.

33. Symptoms Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Older adults contemplating suicide may show which of the following symptom patterns?

A. Mild to moderate symptoms of depression.

B. Excessive anxiety and physical symptoms.

C. Strong feelings of guilt and hopelessness.

D. Severe weight loss over the previous 6 months.

34. Problems in diagnosis Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Dr. Al Italia works in an emergency room where he has just treated an 88-year-old man who recently attempted suicide. Based on research on suicide risk in older adults, it’s likely that Dr.Italia’s patient: A. had seen a health care worker within the past month.

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B. was unlikely to have a diagnosable psychiatric condition.

C. has an extensive family network including a living spouse.

D. actually has no serious medical diagnosis or physical illness.

Treatment issues in mental health care 35. Professional geropsychology example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Minnie Mintale is a college student who wishes to pursue a career providing psychological services to older adults. The field she wishes to enter is known as: A. clinical geriatrics.

B. geriatric psychiatry.

C. professional geropsychology.

D. older adult psychology.

36. Mini-mental state exam example- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Dr. Frank Lee is a psychologist conducting an assessment of a woman in a nursing home referred to him by her physician. He decides to use the Mini-Mental State Exam which, among other factors, assesses: A. depressive symptoms.

B. past history of substance use.

C. orientation to time and place.

D. serious mental distress.

37. Use of clinical interview Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B An unstructured clinical interview may be especially appropriate when assessing older adults who have: A. extreme anxiety symptoms.

B. difficulties with attentional focus.

C. severe sensory deficits.

D. largely intact cognitive functioning.

38. Benzodiazepine risk Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Benzodiazepines for the treatment of anxiety disorders in older adults can carry the risk of: A. exacerbating cardiovascular diseases.

B. impaired cognitive functioning.

C. causing neuromuscular tremors.

D. severe liver damage.

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39. SSRI’s Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A The most commonly used antidepressants for older adults fall into the category of: A. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

B. lithium carbonates.

C. benzodiazepines.

D. buspirones.

40. Alternatives to medication example Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Dr. Rico Costa is a geriatric psychiatrist who specializes in treating depression. Prior to prescribing medications, however, he suggests that his clients try ____________ which has been shown to help reduce depressive symptoms in older adults.

A. acupuncture B. watching television C. exercise D. eating carrots 41. Geropsychology guidelines Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C The Geropsychology Guidelines of the APA suggest that clinicians should: A. treat older adults in the same way as they do children.

B. refer all assessment services out to physicians.

C. be aware of their own attitudes and beliefs about aging.

D. choose assessment tools shown to work with young adults.

42. Depression vs. dementia Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A A characteristic symptom of depression vs. dementia is that older adults with depression are more likely to: A. show wide variation in performance from test to test.

B. be overconfident about their memory abilities.

C. experience depression after memory loss.

D. progress directly downward in their cognitive abilities.

43. Depression vs. dementia example Difficulty: Moderate IM- 11 |10

Correct choice: D A middle-aged daughter brings her father to see a psychologist because she believes that he is beginning to show signs of dementia. Yet, the father also shows symptoms of depression. What evidence will the psychologist use to determine whether the father is suffering from dementia rather than depression?

A. signs of extreme sadness preceding memory loss.

B. exaggeration of his cognitive symptoms.

C. wide variation from one cognitive test to another.

D. evidence of steady downward cognitive losses.

44. Parkinson’s and neuroleptics Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The second most common cause of Parkinsonian symptoms in older adults is the category of antipsychotic medications known as: A. buspirones.

B. electroconvulsives.

C. lithium carbonates.

D. neuroleptics.

45. Electroconvulsive therapy- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Older adults who do not respond to antidepressant medications may be treated with another somatic method, _____________, which serves as a method of last resort.

A. meditation B. electroconvulsive therapy C. hypnosis D. interpersonal therapy 46. Cognitive-behavioral therapy definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Clinicians using ______________ therapy with older adults focus on helping them increase their social skills and think more positively about their lives.

A. cognitive-behavioral B. life review C. antianxiety D. nontraditional 47. Psychodynamic therapy Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D

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Psychodynamic therapy as applied to treatment of older adults addresses ____________ as the source of psychological symptoms.

A. dysfunctional thoughts B. social skills C. thoughts and behaviors D. underlying conflicts 48. Interpersonal therapy Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C In __________ therapy with older adults, the focus is on helping the client improve social relationships but also to develop more positive thoughts about these relationships.

A. psychodynamic B. behavioral C. interpersonal D. pharmacological Serious psychological distress 49. Age differences Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Surveys on adult populations measuring serious psychological distress show that the lowest rates of distress are reported in which age group?

A. 18-24 B. 35-44 C. 55-64 D. 65 and older 50. Factors that contribute Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B As discussed in the text, national survey results on serious psychological distress in adults suggest that older adults are able to adapt to changes associated with the aging process through: A. intensive psychological therapy.

B. optimism and coping with adversity.

C. heavy reliance on medications.

D. government-sponsored subsidies.

Short Answer Questions Psychological disorders in adulthood 1. Summarize the four major Axis I disorders in DSM-IV in terms of their symptoms and the variations in the way they appear in older adults.

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2. Describe the three clusters of personality disorders and the changes that occur in the way they appear in older adults.

3. Describe five possible reasons for the misdiagnosis of mood disorders in older adults.

4. Summarize the six forms of anxiety disorders. Describe how these do or do not appear different in older adults.

5. Describe the three possible courses of schizophrenia along with the percentage of adults who fall into each of these courses. What are two differences between schizophrenia that arises in early adulthood and late-onset schizophrenia?

6. Summarize the prevalence of substance abuse disorders in adulthood. What are three possible reasons that substance abuse rates are lower in older compared to younger adults?

Elder Abuse & Suicide 1. List six forms of elder abuse. Why is it difficult to obtain accurate statistics on the prevalence of elder abuse?

2. Who is most at risk for committing suicide in later adulthood? List three factors that are related to higher suicide rates in older adults.

Treatment Issues: Health and mental health care 1.

2.

3.

Describe the major assessment techniques used for older adults. Contrast their advantages and disadvantages.

What are the three major categories of somatic treatments for older adults? Describe the forms of disorder which are most responsive to these treatments.

Analyze five major forms of individual psychotherapy that are used in the treatment of psychological disorders in terms of their appropriateness for older adults.

Essay questions 1.

You are a clinician seeing an 86-year-old white male complaining of shortness of breath, stomach upset, problems with memory, and difficulty sleeping. This client has recently experienced the loss of his wife. a.

What assessment measures would you use? b.

What are the possible diagnoses you would consider? c.

What possible serious difficulties might you envision for this client in terms of risk? How would you assess this risk? d.

Describe the alternative treatments you would recommend for this client.

2.

Explain the maturation hypothesis of personality disorders and aging. How does this hypothesis relate to research on personality traits in middle and later adulthood?

3.

Analyze the possible reasons for elder abuse. If you were the director of a social services agency how would you train your staff to recognize and intervene in cases of abuse?

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Multiple choice questions

Institutional facilities for long-term care

1. Nursing home definition- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Which of the following long-term care facility is considered a “nursing home”?

A. board and care home B. skilled nursing facility C. foster group home D. geriatric day hospital 2. Nursing home definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A An institutional environment that provides housing, meals, medical services, rehabilitation, and continuous supervision and nursing care is called a(n): A. nursing home.

B. assisted living facility.

C. comprehensive care community.

D. nursing hospital.

3. Rate of nursing home residence Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Approximately _____% of adults 85 and older currently reside in nursing homes.

A. 22 B. 14 C. 45 D. 6 4. Skilled nursing facility definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C An institutional facility that provides the most intensive level of care to residents is called a(n): A. assisted living home.

B. intermediate care facility.

C. skilled nursing facility.

D. geriatric partial day hospital.

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5. Nursing home expenditures Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A As of 2006, nursing home expenditures amounted to about ___% of all health care expenditures in the United States.

A. 5 B. 25 C. 67 D. 10 6. Residential care facility example- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Jay Burd is looking for an institutional facility for his father who only needs supportive care but not nursing services. Jay would probably be most satisfied with which type of nursing home?

A. skilled nursing facility B. intermediate care facility C. board and care home D. residential care facility 7. Costs of assisted living Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Of the following types of institutions, which is the most expensive in terms of out-of-pocket costs for the resident?

A. Adult foster home.

B. Home health services.

C. Board and care home.

D. Assisted living facility.

8. Problem in adult foster care Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A A problem in many adult foster care homes is that residents are afforded little in the way of: A. privacy.

B. home-like environment.

C. housekeeping.

D. help with dressing.

9. Intermediate care facility- choice IM- 12 |2

Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D In a(n) ________, older individuals live in their own apartments but have services provided such as cooking, laundry, and medication reminders.

A. assisted living facility B. custodial home C. geriatric partial hospital.

D. intermediate care facility.

Community-based services and facilities 10. Home health care Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Older adults receiving home health care services: A. can be taught strategies to maintain independence.

B. typically are more seriously ill than nursing home residents.

C. must do all their cooking and cleaning on their own.

D. are prohibited from leaving their homes unassisted.

11. Accessory dwelling unit example- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B Sara Lee has decided to place her 87-year-old mother into an accessory dwelling unit. This means that Sara will be: A. moving her mother into a nursing home.

B. building a separate apartment attached to her house.

C. moving her mother into an adult-only condominium.

D. bringing her mother for day treatment at a nursing home.

12. Accessory dwelling unit definition- choice Difficulty:Easy Correct choice: C A(n) __________________ is a separate apartment built onto an adult child’s existing home to accommodate an older parent or other relative.

A. continuing care retirement community B. assisted living facility C. intermediate care facility D. accessory dwelling unit 13. Subsidized senior housing definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate IM- 12 |3

Correct choice: D In subsidized senior housing, older adults are given which of the following types of services?

A. Occupational and physical therapy.

B. Personalized exercise training.

C. Supervised nursing assistance.

D. Help with routine tasks of daily living.

14. Geriatric partial hospital definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C A unique feature of geriatric partial hospitals is that they provide ______________ services.

A. rehabilitation B. supervised nursing C. psychiatric D. nutritional 15. CCRC definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D In a(n) __________________, residents live in apartments on their own but can move in and out of more intensive treatment should they become ill or disabled.

A. subsidized housing B. accessory dwelling units C. adult foster homes D. continuing care retirement communities 16. CCRC certification Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B The certification for Continuing Care Retirement Communities (CCRC’s): A. consists of informal visits by local or state health officials.

B. requires passing extensive multi-day examinations by a certification board.

C. is determined by an elected board of patient representatives.

D. focuses entirely on the facility’s cleanliness and sanitation.

The financing of long-term care 17. Who signed Medicare bill Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A President _____________ signed the legislation that resulted in creation of Medicare.

A. Lyndon Johnson B. Harry Truman IM- 12 |4

C. Franklin Roosevelt D. John Kennedy 18. Funding sources of Medicare Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Medicare is funded through a variety of sources, including: A. direct payments by retirees.

B. contributions from local governments.

C. voluntary contributions by bankers.

D. payroll taxes on working adults.

19. How many covered by Medicare Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B In the year 2008, approximately _____ million Americans were covered by Medicare.

A. 26 B. 38 C. 11 D. 67 20. Medicare Part A- choice Difficulty: Correct choice: C The hospital insurance (HI) portion of Medicare is covered in Part: A. B B. C C. A D. E 21. Coverage provided in Part A example Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Mrs. Vickie Secrette was surprised and disappointed to find out that Medicare Part A would not cover the cost of her: A. laboratory tests.

B. rehabilitation.

C. eyeglasses.

D. intensive care.

22. Coverage provided in Part B IM- 12 |5

Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Medicare Part B coverage includes what type of services?

A. Annual physicals B. Chiropractor visits C. Prescription costs D. Fitness memberships 23. Part C coverage Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Part C of Medicare includes insurance provided to beneficiaries through: A. state health compensation boards.

B. regional nursing home panels.

C. health care financing administrations.

D. preferred provider organizations.

24. Part D of Medicare- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Part D of Medicare covers which health care cost for older adults?

A. Hospital insurance.

B. Health care aides.

C. Skilled nursing.

D. Prescription drugs.

25. Donut hole in Medicare definition- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D The gap in Medicare Part D that forces older adults to pay 100% out-of-pocket expenses for prescription drugs before they reach the next threshold for coverage by Medicare is referred to as the: A. insurance bridge.

B. coverage cliff.

C. payment plateau.

D. donut hole.

26. Donut hole in Medicare amount amount Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C The “donut hole” in Medicare currently applies to prescription drug coverage given to recipients until they reach the catastrophic limit of: A. $310.

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B. $8335.

C. $6154 D. $2246.

27. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D In 2010, changes to health care in the U.S. were signed into a law known as the: A. Medicare Feasibility Legislation.

B. Nursing Home Reform Act C. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act D. Insurance Reform and Services Legislation.

28. CMS definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C The Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) is responsible for overseeing: A. judicial review of medical disability claims.

B. privately funded health insurance.

C. federal and state funded health programs.

D. healthcare legislation for government workers.

29. Medicaid definition- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C The medical funding program known as Medicaid provides coverage only for: A. government workers.

B. medically needy individuals.

C. privately insured employees.

D. workers retired 5 years or more.

30. State variations in Medicaid spending for long-term care Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B The U.S. state with the highest percent paid by Medicaid for long-term care is: A. California.

B. Louisiana.

C. Hawaii.

D. Florida.

31. Spending down example IM- 12 |7

Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Sandy Hill recently broke her hip and needs extensive rehabilitation but her assets and income are too high to qualify her for Medicaid after her Medicare and other insurance run out. In order to be able to claim Medicaid reimbursement she will have to reduce her assets, a process referred by the term: A. profit share.

B. spend down.

C. double dip.

D. cash out.

32. Medicare exhausted by 2018 Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B Polly Ester is starting her primary run for the U.S. House of Representatives. She is basing her candidacy on the crisis in Medicare, pointing out that budget experts now predict that by the year _______, Medicare trust funds will be exhausted.

A. 2099 B. 2018 C. 2121 D. 2011

Legislative issues in care of older adults

33. Nursing Home Reform Act Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Stipulations of the 1987 Nursing Home Reform Act included ensuring that facilities: A. do not allow residents to have a voice in their care.

B. provide care at the lowest possible cost.

C. employ one nurse for every two residents.

D. maintain resident confidentiality and privacy.

34. 1997 Balanced Budget Act- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Passage of the __________________ Act in 1997 established the system in which Medicare paid nursing homes fixed amounts for treating specific illnesses.

A. Nursing Home Reform B. Nursing Home Quality Initiative C. Balanced Budget D. Patient Protection and Affordable Care

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35. 1998 Nursing Home Initiative- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Passage of the Nursing Home Initiative in 1998 resulted in which change in nursing home regulations?

A. Higher frequency of inspections, including weekends.

B. Reductions in nursing home fees for quality control.

C. Increased fees for Medicare rehabilitation services.

D. Mandatory hiring of psychologists to perform assessments.

36. 2002 Nursing Home Quality Initiative- stem Difficulty:Moderate Correct choice: B The focus of the 2002 Nursing Home Quality Initiative passed by the federal government in the U.S. was to: A. ensure that families had less involvement in the decision-making process.

B. provide consumers with information about the quality of their local nursing homes.

C. remove volunteers from nursing homes and replace them with professionals.

D. establish and enforce harsh punishment for poor quality nursing homes.

37. GAO Report example Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Florida Representative Cal Zone in his run for re-election claims that, as reported by the General Accounting Office, there are deficiencies in the online reporting system of nursing home quality that need to be fixed. What is the problem?

A. Abuses that should result in sanctions are not being penalized.

B. Nursing homes are being penalized too heavily for minor infractions.

C. Geriatric training facilities are running improper operations.

D. Family members are given too much power to complain about abuse.

Characteristics of nursing homes and their residents

38. Non-profit- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Nursing homes that fall into the category of ____________ include those run by religious organizations.

A. non-profit B. private pay C. for-profit D. subsidized

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39. OSCAR definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Reporting to consumers of nursing home deficiencies and problems is provided by the system known as: A. HCFA. B. OSCAR. C. CMS. D. NHRA. 40. Delaware was worst state Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D In 2008, the state with the highest number of reported nursing home deficiencies was: A. Connecticut.

B. Louisiana.

C. New Mexico.

D. Delaware.

41. Lack of continence training Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B The mayor of a small town found it necessary to have his mother admitted to the local nursing home because she was no longer able to care for herself, including self-toileting. He was distressed to find that, like many nursing homes around the country, this one did not provide residents with: A. physical or chemical restraints.

B. training in bladder and bowel continence.

C. wheelchairs for residents with mobility problems.

D. nurses to administer daily medications.

42. Top problem is accident prevention Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B The top deficiency in U.S. nursing homes as of the 2008 Nursing Home Survey is in the area of: A. pressure sores.

B. accident prevention.

C. infection control.

D. housekeeping.

Psychological issues in long-term care

43. Biopsychosocial model Difficulty: Hard IM- 12 |10

Correct choice: C In terms of the biopsychosocial perspective, the competence-press model of institutional adaptation, the factor of ___________ would fall into the category of biological.

A. staff expectations B. stimulation C. mobility D. cognitive resources 44. Competence-press model definition of “press”- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A In the competence-press model of institutional adaptation, the “press” variables focus on: A. how many demands are placed on the person.

B. whether the individual is entitled to dry cleaning.

C. the cost of institutional care.

D. how much training the staff receive.

45. Competence-press model definition of “press”- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A In the competence-press model of institutional adaptation, the ”press” variables focus on: A. the amount of activity and cognitive demands placed on the resident.

B. whether the resident has the cognitive capacity to adapt.

C. how often and frequently family members come to visit.

D. the ability of the resident to pay for extra health care services.

46. Competence press-model definition of “competence”- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B In the competence-press model of institutional adaptation, what is included in the “competence” side of the model?

A. financial resources B. cognitive abilities C. environmental stress D. nurse staffing ratio 47. Improvements in care Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Dr. Earl Grey serves as a consultant to area nursing homes, basing his work on research conducted in the area of new models of care. When asked by one nursing home to revamp their patient care services, he suggested that they switch to a system shown to improve resident adaptation in which: A. families take over basic staff duties such as dispensing medications and assisting with activities of daily life.

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B. staff are reorganized so that they take care of specific residents rather than handle specific tasks.

C. meals are served on individual plates to residents in their rooms rather than in group dining areas.

D. residents are encouraged to become more dependent on staff for assistance in activities of daily living.

48. Changes in meal-serving Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Researchers studying possible improvements in institutional care are suggesting that when it comes to serving meals, there are advantages to: A. family-style B. individual plating C. shorter mealtimes D. take-out options 49. Green House Model- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D The Green House model involves which approach to skilled nursing care?

A. Encouraging residents to assist in recycling food and medical waste.

B. Placing residents in larger and more energy-efficient facilities.

C. Giving residents their own plants to care for within their rooms.

D. Having residents live in individual homes within small communities.

50. Green House Model- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C In the _____________ model, residents live in individual homes within a small community, where skilled nursing care is provided.

A. Blue Room B. White Plan C. Green House D. Yellow Hall

Short answer questions Institutional Facilities for Long-Term Care 1. What are the three forms of institutional facilities for long-term care in the treatment of older adults?

2. Briefly describe the seven types of community-based facilities for older adults.

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3. What legislative reform was instituted in the late 1980s to ensure better care for older adults living in nursing homes? What were the major provisions of this legislation?

4. List the top five deficiencies noted in the 1997 survey of U.S. nursing homes. Why do you think these problems exist?

Community-based Services and Facilities 1. What are the four major categories of community-based services and facilities?

2. Indicate one advantage and one disadvantage of each community-based service and facility.

The Financing of Long-term Care 1. Summarize the main features of the four parts of Medicare.

2. How does Medicare differ from Medicaid?

3. What are three government insurance programs intended to provide additional coverage beyond Medicare?

Legislative Issues in the Care of Older Adults 1. Summarize the four major legislative initiatives intended to reform nursing home care.

Characteristics and Needs of Nursing Home Residents 1. Describe the major shortcomings of nursing homes in terms of the categories of the National Nursing Home Study.

Essay questions 1. What is the basis for current controversies over Medicare funding? Do you feel that Medicare should be expanded or do you think it is too extensive already? Provide data to support your argument.

2. Discuss the implications of the competence-press model for the design of nursing home environments. How would you put this model into practice if you were a psychologist consulting in a nursing home?

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Multiple choice questions Technical perspectives on death

1. Anorexia-cachexia syndrome- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A The anorexia-cachexia syndrome involves which set of changes in dying individuals?

A. loss of appetite and atrophy of muscle mass.

B. pain and chest congestion while breathing.

C. heightened sensitivity to the surroundings.

D. a desire to say goodbye to loved ones.

2. Symptoms of the dying Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B During their final days, patients who have been terminally ill and are about to die typically experience which symptom?

A. heightened physiological arousal.

B. accumulation of fluids in the extremities.

C. inability to fall or stay asleep during the night.

D. improved memory and cognitive function.

3. ICD-10 definition- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C The cause of an individual’s death is reported by a medical examiner using which internationally accepted system?

A. DSM-IV-TR. B. MMPI-2.

C. ICD-10.

D. NEO-PI-R. 4. International mortality rates Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A The country with the highest age-adjusted death rate in the world is: A. Zimbabwe.

B. Bulgaria.

C. Rumania.

D. India.

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5. Age-specific death rate- stem Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C The age-specific death rate refers to the statistic that reflects: A. total deaths in a population adjusted for age distribution.

B. total number of deaths in a given age group.

C. number of deaths per 100,000 in a given age group.

D. percent of deaths in the entire population.

6. Age-adjusted death rate in U.S. Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C In 2007, the age-adjusted death rate in the U.S. was: A. 804.

B. 332.

C. 760.

D. 777.

7. Age-adjusted death rate definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Weighted averages of deaths in the population on the basis of age are known as what type of death rate?

A. Time-adjusted.

B. Decade-adjusted.

C. Age-adjusted.

D. Crude.

8. Age-adjusted death rate example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Dr. Mort Issian is a health psychologist who calculates weighted averages of deaths in the population on the basis of age. This statistic is known as what type of death rate?

A. Crude B. Decade-adjusted C. Age-adjusted D. Raw 9. Lowest age-adjusted mortality rate Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C IM- 13 |2

The lowest age-adjusted mortality rate is found in which sector of the U.S. population?

A. non-Hispanic Black males.

B. non-Hispanic White males.

C. non-Hispanic White females D. Hispanic males.

10. Lowest rates in Midwest Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Which region of the U.S. has the lowest mortality rate, even after accounting for race and sex?

A. Southeast B. Midwest C. Northwest D. Northeast 11. Increased age-adjusted death rates for accidents Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The age-adjusted death rate for ____________ has increased in the past decade.

A. heart disease B. cancer C. COPD D. accidents 12. Highest rate for cardiovascular disease Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The highest age-adjusted death rate for cardiovascular disease out of all countries in the world is found in: A. the United States.

B. Zimbabwe.

C. Saudi Arabia.

D. Kazakhstan.

13. Socioeconomic status and mortality Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D As shown in Whitehall II, lower socioeconomic status is associated with higher risk of death from: A. chronic emphysema B. accidental injuries C. food poisoning D. cardiovascular disease

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14. Stress and mortality Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Researchers have identified ___________ as a major psychological risk factor for early death among people of lower socioeconomic status: A. neuroticism B. stress C. memory loss D. unsanitary habits 15. Compression of morbidity popular term- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A The term “compression of morbidity” comes closest to the popular concept of a person’s: A. dying with my boots on B. riding off into the sunset C. kicking the bucket D. biting the dust 16. Crude death rate Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B Dr. Mort Ician is an epidemiologist who works for the CDC. He reports the data on crude death rates, which provide information consisting of: A. a weighted average of deaths in the population.

B. the raw numbers of deaths occurring by age group.

C. death rates for a specific age group.

D. comparisons between male and female death rates.

Cultural perspectives 17. Death with dignity- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The view developed late in the 20th Century proposing that dying patients should be given the chance to end their lives on their own terms was known as: A. tame death.

B. awareness of finitude.

C. bargaining.

D. death with dignity.

18. Death ethos- choice IM- 13 |4

Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B A society’s philosophy of death as reflected in its attitudes and treatment of the subject of dying is known as its: A. advance directive.

B. death ethos.

C. dying trajectory.

D. awareness of finitude.

19. Death ethos example- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A The death ethos of a culture can be inferred, for example, from: A. belief in the presence of ghosts.

B. prevalence of chronic diseases.

C. physical changes preceding death.

D. age distribution of mortality.

20. Pre-Middle Ages view of death Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D The earliest cultural views in Western society, prior to the Middle Ages, viewed death as a(n): A. experience to be feared.

B. scientific phenomenon.

C. private experience.

D. natural ending to life.

21. Current views of death Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Current views of death in Western society regard it as: A. invisible B. tame C. beautiful D. romantic 22. Kevorkian name- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C The physician who first publicized the practice of facilitating suicide for terminally ill patients was: A. Elisabeth Kűbler-Ross.

B. Terry Schiavo.

C. Jack Kevorkian.

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D. Lawrence Egbert.

23. Religion and mortality Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Research examining the role of religious beliefs and mortality find that _____________ may be a particularly beneficial aspect of involvement in religion.

A. belief in the afterlife B. financial assistance C. social support D. healthier lifestyle 24. Terror management theory definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D People in Western society engage in extensive efforts to avoid thinking about death according to the perspective known as __________ theory.

A. awareness of finitude B. dying trajectory C. social death D. terror management

The dying process 25. Dying trajectory example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D A woman’s 90-year-old grandfather was in vigorous health right up until the time he died as the result of suddenly contracting a virus. His death came so suddenly that she only just made it home a few hours before his death. The grandfather’s __________ fits the pattern of sudden death from an unexpected cause.

A. social death B. death ethos C. advance directive D. dying trajectory 26. First stage of dying Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C In the Kübler-Ross framework, the first stage of dying is considered to be: A. acceptance.

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B. bargaining.

C. denial.

D. anger.

27. Criticism of five stages Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Critics of the stages of dying described by Kübler-Ross point out that: A. acceptance should be the first, not the last stage.

B. there is very little data to support the validity of the stages.

C. her work led society to view death as invisible.

D. she encouraged healthcare workers to promote denial.

28. Legitimization of biography definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The process of legitimization of biography that occurs at the end of life is said to involve: A. trying to sell one’s memoirs.

B. seeking religious conversion.

C. spending more time alone.

D. wrapping up one’s life into a story.

29. Awareness of finitude definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Reaching the point in life of realizing that you are the same age or older than a close relative or friend who died is referred to as: A. terror management B. life review C. awareness of finitude D. death ethos 30. Advance Directive definition- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B An advance directive, written by patients in medical care settings, refers to a person’s A. a desire to have financial resources distributed to children after the person is no longer alive.

B. wishes for what care should be provided if the person cannot make a decision at the time.

C. plans for where to go for further treatment after discharge from acute to chronic care hospital.

D. predictions about what will happen to the future of Medicare after Social Security becomes depleted.

31. PSDA and Advance Directive IM- 13 |7

Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B The Patient Self-Determination Act of 1990 included the provision that all hospital patients be given the opportunity to write a(n): A. code status warning.

B. advance directive.

C. family geneology.

D. terminal plan.

32. Advance Directive example- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B An 89-year-old woman is admitted to a hospital emergency room after suffering a stroke. Her physician checks with the woman’s daughter to find out if her mother has made her wishes known about being kept alive on life support should this become necessary. In other words, the physician is requesting whether the mother has a(n): A. euthanasia wish.

B. advance directive.

C. life support request.

D. palliative instruction.

33. Five Wishes and the living will Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C One of the “Five Wishes” in a living will includes honoring the patient’s desire for: A. having a larger income.

B. life-support or resuscitation.

C. gaining access to medical records.

D. post-mortem absentee ballots 34. Palliative care definition- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Palliative care, in which a dying patient is made to feel comfortable, is most likely to be provided in what type of specialized setting?

A. emergency room B. operating room C. geriatric day center D. hospice 35. Palliative care definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A

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The medical specialty in which patients are given support at the end of life rather than active interventions to prolong life is known as: A. palliative care.

B. self-determination.

C. life review.

D. terror management.

36. Overtreatment definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D Medical care that is more aggressive than a dying patient desires at the end of life is known as: A. palliative.

B. supportive.

C. self-determined.

D. overtreatment.

37. DNR order- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A When admitted to a hospital, patients are asked about their wishes for life support should this be required. Patients who ask not have any heroic efforts used to keep them alive are issuing a(n) __________ order.

A. do not resuscitate (DNR) B. death with dignity (DWD) C. physician-assisted suicide (PAS) D. self-determination (SDT) 38. More recent SUPPORT study findings Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Findings published several years after SUPPORT was completed, and possibly in response to the Schiavo case, revealed that dying patients: A. tended to choose to end life support regardless of age.

B. were more likely to have their end-of-life preferences met.

C. moved to states in which physician-assisted suicide is legal.

D. tended to refuse pain-alleviating medications.

39. Peaceful awareness example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B A 56-year-old mother and grandmother dying from terminal cancer expressed to her family her feelings that though she would miss them, she was accepting of her imminent death. The term that refers to her state of mind is: IM- 13 |9

A. B. C. D.

death with dignity peaceful awareness. palliative acceptance. advance directive.

40. Euthanasia and palliative care Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Research in Belgium on dying patients showed a greater acceptance of euthanasia and physicianassisted suicide in settings where patients received: A. overtreatment.

B. terror management.

C. palliative care.

D. life reviews.

41. Hospice definition- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A A hospice is defined as a medical setting in which patients receive: A. palliative care.

B. life support.

C. active resuscitation.

D. rehabilitation therapy.

42. States with legalized PAS Difficulty: MOderate Correct choice: C The two states that have legalized physician-assisted suicide are ___________ and Oregon.

A. Massachusetts B. Connecticut C. Washington D. California

Bereavement 43. Dual-process model loss dimension- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D In the dual-process model of coping with bereavement, dealing with the emotional consequences of the death is referred to as the ___________ dimension.

A. denial.

B. overtreatment.

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C. palliative.

D. loss.

44. Dual-process model loss dimension – stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B The loss dimension in the dual process model of coping with bereavement involves: A. working through the death and moving on.

B. dealing with the emotional consequences .

C. making practical arrangements for the funeral.

D. informing other relatives of the death.

45. Dual-process model restoration dimension – choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B In the dual-process model of coping with bereavement, the ____________ dimension occurs as the individual begins to make practical adjustments to the loved one’s death.

A. loss B. restoration C. palliative D. acceptance 46. Theories of bereavement Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Theories of bereavement focusing on attachment propose that adjustment to the loss of a close friend or relative is can be helped if the bereaved person: A. thinks only about the negative qualities of the deceased.

B. maintains at least some emotional connection to the deceased.

C. finds distractions to avoid thinking about the death for at least 6 months.

D. eliminates any physical reminders such as clothing or possessions.

47. Theories of bereavement example Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Current views of bereavement would regard which of the following behavior as a healthy step in working through loss of a spouse?

A. Ridding the house of all reminders of the spouse.

B. Keeping the spouse an active mental presence.

C. Opening a new, single bank account.

D. Finding new friends to replace the spouse.

48. Repressive coping definition- choice IM- 13 |11

Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Adapting to a loved one’s death by refusing to think consciously about the loss is termed _______ coping.

A. restorative B. loss-related C. repressive D. flexible 49. Flexible adaptation example- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D A woman grieving after the sudden and unexpected death of her husband shows the characteristics defined by psychologists as “flexible adaptation.” This means that she is: A. refuses to think about the death unless forced to do so by relatives.

B. requests that her children take over all of the household duties.

C. enters a period of mourning that is to last for the next five years.

D. makes the necessary changes in her life though continuing to miss him.

50. Consequences of bereavement Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B People who have lost loved ones are likely to experience which psychological symptoms of bereavement?

A. Feelings of relief that an ill individual has died.

B. Impairments in attention and memory.

C. Greater alertness to possible fraud or abuse by others.

D. Increased desire to participate in social activities.

Short answer questions Technical perspectives on death 1.

2.

What are 5 medical symptoms that are often present when death is imminent?

List three reasons for conducting an autopsy, including a medicolegal autopsy.

Mortality facts and figures 1.

2.

Describe three differences within the age group of 15-44 between mortality rates for blacks and whites.

Summarize four trends occurring in mortality rates throughout the world.

Cultural perspectives IM- 13 |12

1.

2.

Summarize the timeline of changes in attitudes toward death and dying from the Middle Ages to the present.

What are four cultural factors contributing to contemporary attitudes toward death and dying?

The dying process 1.

2.

3.

4.

Describe the three dying trajectories shown in Figure 12-7. Indicate what types of deaths are most highly associated with each trajectory.

Summarize the five stages of dying in the theory of Kübler-Ross. Describe four criticisms of the theory.

Briefly analyze the processes of awareness of finitude, legitimization of biography, and life review. How are these three processes related to each other?

What were the four main findings to emerge from the SUPPORT study? What are the implications of these findings for end-of-life care?

Bereavement 1.

2.

3.

4.

What are five differences between the bereavement experiences of younger and older widows?

Contrast the traditional views of bereavement with more contemporary views based on attachment theory.

Summarize the bereavement process for death of an adult child, a grandchild, a parent, a sibling, and a friend.

What are the five patterns of reactions to the death of a spouse? Which of these is the most common?

Essay questions 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

How do mortality rates enhance our understanding of the factors influencing adult development and aging in terms of the biopsychosocial perspective? Be sure to elaborate on the biological, psychological, and sociocultural meaning of mortality rates.

Examine historical trends in attitudes toward death and dying and contrast previous views with contemporary portrayals of death. In your opinion, how do these changes in attitudes affect the experience of dying for individuals?

If you were a counselor working with dying patients and their families, how would you handle end-of-life decisions? Use the findings from the SUPPORT study to expand on your recommendations.

What is your position on euthanasia and physician-assisted suicide? Do you feel that Dr. Jack Kevorkian was justified or unjustified in his actions in support of this movement?

A recently widowed woman sees you in therapy for help in adapting to bereavement. Which theory of bereavement would you use as the basis for your treatment? Why?

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Multiple choice questions

Theoretical perspectives on successful aging

1. Successful aging example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B Mr. Warren Peese is a 78-year-old man in good health, has excellent cognitive functioning, is involved in his community, and feels close to his family and friends. Mr. Peese would be considered to meet the criteria for being a(n): A. age buster B. successful ager C. resilient elder D. super-centenarian 2. Successful aging definition- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B Successful aging is similar to the concept of ____________ in its emphasis on optimal functioning.

A. old age style B. mental health C. career age D. productivity 3. Components of successful aging (vs. disengagement theory) Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Unlike the model of aging proposed by disengagement theory, the model of successful aging regards _______________ as an essential component.

A. self-indulgence B. vital engagement C. social isolation D. high income 4. Successful aging and longevity Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Research on successful aging shows that not contributing positively to the welfare of others in later life is associated with: A. higher levels of cognitive functioning.

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B. greater overall life satisfaction.

C. more artistic productivity and creativity.

D. higher rates of illness and mortality.

5. Super-centenarian definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C A person known as a “super-centenarian” is someone who is: A. 120 years or older.

B. a physically fit 100-year-old.

C. 110 years or older.

D. a mentally fit 100-year-old.

6. Super-centenarian definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D An individual who is 110 years or older is known as a(n): A. successful ager.

B. age buster.

C. hardy survivor.

D. super-centenarian.

7. Social indicator model definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D The social indicator model of well-being suggests that older adults who are happiest are the ones who are: A. most creative.

B. least involved with family.

C. live in their own homes.

D. have the highest incomes.

8. Social indicator example- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A Mr. Buzz Saw is an 89-year-old man who is living entirely on his Social Security payments, has fairly severe arthritis, and sees his family only a few times a year. Yet, when a survey researcher calls and asks about his subjective well-being, he says it is “very high.” What model of successful aging does Mr. Saw’s response contradict?

A. Social indicator B. Unsuccessful aging C. Compositional fallacy D. Ideational fluency IM- 14 |2

9. Set point perspective definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D According to the ____________ perspective, people’s personalities determine their levels of happiness and subjective well-being.

A. social comparison.

B. compositional.

C. habituation.

D. set point.

10. Percent in Pew survey who said they were happy Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C A national survey of over 3,000 adults in the U.S. showed that among adults 75 and older, ____% said they were happy.

A. 19 B. 45 C. 81 D. 95 11. Gap in Pew study between actual and expected memory loss Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B In a national survey in the U.S., researchers observed a gap of approximately ___% between the extent of loss that older adults actually experienced compared to what younger adults thought would occur.

A. 32 B. 66 C. 5 D. 14 12. Older adults feeling they were a burden in the Pew study Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: C Approximately ___% of older adults in a national survey of happiness stated they felt they were a burden to others.

A. 57 B. 34 C. 10 D. 29 13. Young adult predictions of changes in later life IM- 14 |3

Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D When younger adults in a national survey were asked to predict age-related changes, most believed that older adults experience: A. serious illness.

B. loneliness.

C. sexual activity.

D. memory loss.

14. Subjective well-being definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A The definition of "subjective well-being" is that it represents: A. overall sense of happiness.

B. willingness to try new activities.

C. acceptance of age-related illnesses.

D. right-brain flexibility.

Subjective well-being

15. Subjective well-being components Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: A Which is a key component of subjective well-being?

A. Positive affect.

B. Financial status.

C. Marital status.

D. Number of friends.

16. Subjective well-being example- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B A participant in a study at his local university, 80-year-old Senor Itis scored high on measures of positive affect and life satisfaction, and low on a measure of negative affect. He clearly meets the criteria involved in determining: A. set point perspective.

B. subjective well-being.

C. social support.

D. successful aging.

17. Personality and well-being Difficulty: Moderate IM- 14 |4

Correct choice: B Low scores on the personality trait of _____________ were related to lower well-being scores among men of all ages in MIDUS. A. neuroticism B. extraversion C. engagement D. sociability 18. Paradox of well-being definition- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: B According to the _____________________, it is suprising that older adults are able to maintain high levels of well-being than would be suggested by their actual situations in life.

A. social indicator model B. paradox of well-being C. compositional fallacy D. simple adaptation model

19. Paradox of well-being definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D According to the “paradox of well-being,” older adults can be high on subjective well-being when they have: A. financial resources.

B. large families.

C. physical health.

D. objective limitations.

20. Paradox of well-being example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C 88-year-old Donna Reed feels genuinely satisfied with her life even though most people would regard her as potentially depressed because she is infirmed and living on a very limited budget. Ms. Reed’s situation can be explained by the: A. successful aging model.

B. paradox of well-being.

C. equal odds rule.

D. extraversion principle.

21. Relative deprivation example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D

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Although he owns several homes and has a retirement income of nearly three million dollars, Steve feels that he has not succeeded in his life because his best friend, Bill, is even wealthier. Steve’s situation is an example of the phenomenon known as: A. paradox of well-being.

B. relative deprivation.

C. problem-focused coping.

D. identity assimilation.

22. Adaptation definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D One explanation of the paradox of well-being is the notion that older adults maintain their positive evaluations of life by adjusting to their objective circumstances through the process of: A. objectification.

B. religious conversion.

C. social disengagement.

D. adaptation.

23. Coping and adaptation to stress Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Older adults most likely to use problem-focused coping as a way of adapting to stress tend to be high in: A. social comparison.

B. relative deprivation.

C. self-efficacy.

D. disengagement.

Productivity and creativity

24. Planck hypothesis definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A The “Planck hypothesis” regarding age and productivity states that: A. peak scientific discoveries occur for scientists before 40 years of age.

B. as artists become older, they have a tendency to paint with brighter colors.

C. the most creative individuals have the most well-developed right hemispheres.

D. with increasing age, scientists are more likely to study aging processes.

25. Planck hypothesis example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B IM- 14 |6

At the age of 59, Thomas Edison became the first to invent a means of recording motion pictures with sound, though the device was later abandoned in favor of a different method. Edison’s work, however, disputes the ____________, which states that scientists produce their greatest discoveries before the age of 40.

A. set point perspective B. Planck hypothesis C. Lehman principle D. relative deprivation model 26. Planck hypothesis field of science Difficulty: Correct choice: C The Planck hypothesis applies to accomplishments of people in their 30s in the area of: A. music.

B. literature.

C. science.

D. politics.

27. Early death of Mozart- implications for research on age and creativity Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B His relatively early death at the age of 35 meant that the composer ____________’s potential to remain productive into old age cannot be estimated.

A. Verdi B. Mozart C. Beethoven D. O’Keeffe 28. Creative potential example- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B The fashion designer Coco Chanel produced innovative designs throughout her entire life, suggesting that her _______________ was very high.

A. social support B. creative potential C. subjective well-being D. social engagement 29. Creative potential definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D The total number of original ideas that an individual might be able to produce throughout life is known, in Simonton’s model, as: IM- 14 |7

A. B. C. D.

elaboration rate. ideation rate. set point. creative potential.

30. Compositional fallacy definition- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C When describing the productivity of creative older individuals, the idea that overall trends may not adequately account for the outstanding accomplishments of unusual people is known as the: A. dying trajectory.

B. set point perspective.

C. compositional fallacy.

D. paradox of well-being.

31. Ideation definition- choice Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: A In Simonton's model, the rate at which a creative person develops new thoughts and that will later be developed into products is known as: A. ideation.

B. creative potential.

C. old age style.

D. euthanasia.

32. One-Hit Wonder example- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B An example of a late-life “one-hit wonder” is the author: A. Ernest Hemmingway.

B. Margaret Mitchell.

C. Laurie London.

D. Paul Gauguin.

33. One-Hit Wonder definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B Artists, authors, and musicians who become known for one great accomplishment (“One Hit Wonders”) are considered by Simonton to be low in: A. subjective well-being.

B. creative potential.

C. career age.

D. compositional style.

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34. Elaboration process example- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C It was not enough to have the idea to photograph his beloved Yosemite Park. Ansel Adams had to hike up to considerable heights in order to produce his artistic works, illustrating the creative process of: A. collaboration.

B. integration.

C. elaboration.

D. ideation.

35. Late career age Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A All other things being equal, a creative individual will show greater productivity into old age if that individual has a(n): A. late career age.

B. low ideation rate.

C. early career age.

D. low elaboration rate.

36. Equal odds rule definition- choice Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: D According to the ____________, an individual who produces many creative works will have a better chance of producing a major success.

A. compositional fallacy B. Planck hypothesis C. equal odds rule D. Simonton law 37. Equal odds rule definition- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C The equal odds rule proposed by Simonton states that: A. older artists produce simpler works.

B. in late life, musicians produce richer harmonies.

C. the more a person produces, the greater the chance of a hit.

D. greater experience is beneficial to older politicians.

38. Openness to experience and creativity Difficulty: Easy IM- 14 |9

Correct choice: D Researchers believe that brain activation and the cognitive operations involved in creativity are related to high scores on the personality trait of: A. extraversion.

B. neuroticism.

C. subjective well-being.

D. openness to experience.

39. Anterior cingulate and creativity Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B In addition to the prefrontal cortex, researchers believe that the _______________ region of the cortex serves an important role in promoting cognitive flexibility.

A. occipital B. anterior cingulate C. temporal D. posterior deltoid 40. Prefrontal cortex and creativity Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A The prefrontal cortex seems to play what role in the neuroscience of creativity?

A. Serving as the basis for more creative ideas.

B. Increasing the amount of lateral inhibition.

C. Restricting creative thoughts.

D. Causing people to be more aggressive.

41. Old age style example- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Michelangelo’s last works were considered to be examples of old age style because they: A. emphasized basic shape and form rather than detail.

B. were painted in brighter and more striking colors.

C. were far more carefully composed and planned.

D. integrated many elements from his earlier works.

42. Verdi last opera Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C Which Italian composer wrote his /last/opera “Falstaff” when he was 7980 years old?

A. Shakespeare B. Michelangelo C. Verdi IM- 14 |10

D. LaLanne 43. Paring life to the essentials Difficulty: Hard Correct choice: D Research on the life of educator Charles Handy suggested that in late life, a sense of time urgency prompted the process of: A. increasing his number of friendships.

B. finding his inner sense of purpose.

C. developing more complex new ideas.

D. trying harder to satisfy his supervisors.

44. Famous First example- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: B Which of the following individuals would be an example of a “Famous First”?

A. Henri Matisse.

B. Booker T. Washington C. William Carlos Williams.

D. Margaret Mitchell.

45. Lack of attention to women Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: D Studies of creativity tend to focus on white men as evidenced by the fact that women constituted close to 50% of the famous contributors only in the area of: A. cooking.

B. dramatic acting.

C. painting.

D. children’s literature.

Successful aging: final perspectives

46. Age buster definition- stem Difficulty: Easy Correct choice: C “Age busters” are defined as older adults who: A. live to the age of 110 or older and are in good health.

B. outperform expectations for people of their age.

C. show unusually high levels of subjective well-being.

D. become unable to produce new works in late life.

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47. Passionate commitment to the discipline- choice Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C Which of the following traits was identified by research on a selected handful of highly creative individuals as a commonality?

A. strong interest in other people.

B. willingness to make sacrifices.

C. passionate commitment to their discipline.

D. low degree of intellectual curiosity.

48. Passionate commitment to the discipline- stem Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: A Mental flexibility, passionate commitment to their discipline, and a focus on the future are the characteristics identified as crucial to: A. the success of older creative geniuses.

B. accumulation of a lifetime of wealth.

C. high subjective well-being in late life.

D. focusing on the essentials of life.

49. Creativity “with a small c” benefits Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: B In defining creativity with a “small c,” researchers point out that activities such as gardening, cooking, and story-telling in late life can have the benefit of: A. producing additional retirement income.

B. stimulating cognitive functioning.

C. leading to greater respect from family.

D. helping older adults connect to the past.

50. Personal narrative Difficulty: Moderate Correct choice: C For individuals who do not achieve major success in their fields throughout their lives, creativity may also be defined as: A. having children.

B. making a large salary.

C. constructing a personal narrative.

D. abandoning the old age style.

Short answer questions IM- 14 |12

Theoretical perspectives on successful aging 1.

What are the three components of successful aging according to the MacArthur Foundation study?

Subjective well-being 1.

Describe the four processes proposed to account for the paradox of well-being in later adulthood.

Productivity and creativity 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Discuss these two concepts from the work of Simonton: compositional fallacy and equal-odds rule. How do these concepts relate to the work of Lehman and Dennis on the relationship between age and creative productivity?

What are the three basic assumptions of Simonton's model of creative productivity?

What are the advantages of using career age rather than chronological age in understanding the effects of age on creativity?

Describe three characteristics of the old age style.

What three factors appear to stimulate the development of old age style?

Successful aging: Final perspectives 1.

2.

What three factors contribute to the creative potential of older artists?

How might creativity be expressed at the end of life in an "ordinary" older person?

Essay questions 1.

2.

3.

What is the basis for the social indicator model of aging and well-being? How does the paradox of well-being contradict or support this model?

Provide an example from your own experience of the "old age style." Indicate the nature of the work, why you think it exemplifies the old age style, and the factors that may have led to its creation.

Did creative geniuses who experienced difficulties in old age, such as Picasso, Matisse, and O'Keeffe fit psychology's definition of "successful aging"? Why or why not?

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