Accounting Information Systems The Processes and Controls, 2E Leslie Turner, Andrea Weickgenannt Tes

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Accounting Information Systems The Processes nd and Controls, 2 Edition By Leslie Turner, Andrea Weickgenannt

Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 1: Introduction to AIS

NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

End of Chapter Questions: 1. When a company receives returned goods from a customer, the business process to accept the return would most likely be a(n): A. Administrative process B. Conversion process C. Expenditure process D. Revenue process 2. Which of the following is least likely to be an output of the accounting information system?

A. A check B. A report C. An invoice D. A bar code 3. Which of the following is not true of the supply chain?

A. The supply chain includes vendors.

B. The supply chain excludes customers.

C. The supply chain includes information flows.

D. The supply chain include secondary suppliers.

4. Which of the following is not an objective of IT enablement?

A. Increased accuracy of data B. Reduced cost C. Reduced security problems D. Increased efficiency 5. The correct order of the computer data hierarchy is: A. Byte, bit, record, field, file, database B. Bit, byte, record, field, file, database C. Bit, byte, field, record, file, database D. Bit, byte, field, record, database, file 6. The process of searching for identifiable patterns in data is called: A. Sequential processing B. Data warehousing C. Data mining D. Real-time processing 7. An IT enabled system for purchasing that is an “invoice-less” system is called a(n): A. Automated matching system B. Evaluated receipt settlement

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C. E-payables D. Point of sale system 8. The COSO report written for the purpose of assisting managers in the challenge of managing risk in their organization is entitled: A. Internal Control – Integrated Framework B. Enterprise Risk Management – Integrated Framework C. Corporate Governance Guidance D. IT Governance Guidance 9. Accountants have some form of use of the AIS in all but which role?

A. User B. Programmer C. Auditor D. Designer 10. Which of the following is not true of unethical behavior?

A. The only category of unethical behavior for accountants is inflating revenue.

B. Accountants are often pressured to help commit or coverup unethical behavior.

C. Hacking is an unethical behavior that accountants should be concerned about.

D. An accounting information system can be used to cover up unethical behavior.

ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS 1 - 10 (FROM THE TEXTBOOK) 1. D 6. C 2. D 7. B 3. B 8. A 4. C 9. B 5. C 10. A TEST BANK – CHAPTER 1 – MULTIPLE CHOICE 11. A prescribed sequence of work steps preformed in order to produce a desired result for the organization is called a(n): A. Accounting Information System B. Business Process C. Financial Transaction D. Capital Transaction Process 12. The process that must identify the transactions to be recorded, capture all the important details of the transactions, properly process the transaction details, and provide reports is termed the: A. Revenue Process B. Expenditure Process C. Accounting Information System D. Business Process 13. An accounting information system serves many functions - which of the following is NOT one of those functions?

A. Capture the details of a transaction B. Implement the start of a transaction C. Provide reports of transactions D. Process the transactions details into appropriate accounts

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14. The proper order of activity in an accounting information system would be as follows: A. Capture, Record, Process, Report B. Process, Record, Capture, Report C. Capture, Process, Report, Record D. Record, Capture, Process, Report 15. Which of the following is not one of the general types of business processes identified by the textbook?

A. Revenue Processes B. Expenditure Processes C. Conversion Processes D. Human Resource Processes 16. Which of the following statements, related to business processes, is false?

A. Each business process has a direct effect on the financial status of the organization.

B. A business process is initiated by a particular kind of event.

C. A business process has a well-defined beginning and end.

D. Each business process is usually completed in a relatively short period.

17. Which of the following is least likely to be part of an accounting information system function?

A. Record the accounting data in the appropriate records B. Generation of data to be part of the information system.

C. Process the detailed accounting data.

D. Report the summarized accounting data.

18. Work steps that are internal controls within the business process would include: A. Using an electronic register to record all sales transactions.

B. Combining both manual and computer based records.

C. Reconciling a cash register at the end of each day.

D. Preparation of internal reports to monitor the performance of a specific department.

19. Five different components of the accounting information system were presented in the textbook. Which of the following is not one of those components?

A. Work steps within a business process intended to capture accounting data as the business process occurs.

B. Work steps that are internal controls within the business process to safeguard assets and to ensure the accuracy and completeness of the data.

C. Work steps that generate both internal and external reports.

D. Work steps to assure that all business processes are recorded using computer-based procedures.

20. Output from an accounting information system would include: A. Checks to vendors B. Invoices from vendors C. Customer statements D. Purchase orders

21. The entities, processes, and information flows that involve the movement of materials, funds, and related information through the full logistics process, from the acquisition of raw materials to the delivery of the finished produces to the end use is a set of linked activities referred to as: A. Management Information System B. Supply Chain C. Accounting Information System

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D. Logistics Management 22. The organization and control of all materials, funds, and related information in the logistics process, from the acquisition of raw materials to the delivery of finished products to the end user is referred to as: A. Supply Chain Management B. Management Information System C. Logistics Management D. IT Enablement 23. When discussing the supply chain: A. Any concern about vendors would relate only to those vendors with which a company has direct contact.

B. Service providers would not be part of the supply chain.

C. Concern would not extend beyond the point where the product is shipped to a customer.

D. An entity may not be able to directly control all of the interrelated activities within the supply chain.

24. Using IT systems to enhance efficiency and effectiveness of internal or supply chain processes is called: A. Information Technology Enablement B. Information Systems Control C. Information Technology Process Engineering D. Information Technology Business Processes 25. The purposeful and organized changing of business processes to make them more efficient is referred to as: A. Information Technology Engineering B. Information Systems Management C. Business Process Reengineering D. Business Process Supply Chain 26. The use of BPR (Business Process Reengineerin) is a two-fold: (1) Aligns business processes with the IT systems used to recorded processes and, (2): A. Improves the efficiency and effectiveness of these processes.

B. Reduces the cost of these processes.

C. Enhances the usefulness of these processes.

D. Increases the accuracy of the process.

27. The smallest unit of information in a computer system can have only one of two values, zero or one, and is referred to as a(n): A. Field B. Record C. Byte D. Bit 28. A unit of storage that represents one character is referred to as a: A. Byte B. Bit C. Bat D. Field 29. A set of related fields is referred to as a: A. File B. Record C. Byte D. Binary Digit

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30. Each record is made up of related: A. Files B. Bytes C. Name D. Fields 31. A collection of data stored on a computer in a form that allows the data to be easily accessed, retrieved, manipulated, and stored is referred to as a(n): A. Accounting Information System B. Information Technology C. Database D. Master File 32. A collection of data stored in several small two-dimensional tables that can be joined together in many varying ways to represent many different kinds of relationships among the data is referred to as a(n): A. Database B. Master File C. Relational Database D. Relation Based Accounting Software 33. Accounting software traditionally uses two different types of files. The file type that is relatively permanent and used to maintain the detailed data for each major process is a(n): A. General Ledger B. Master File C. Transaction File D. Subsidiary File 34. Accounting software traditionally uses two different types of files. The file type that is the set of relatively temporary records that will be process to update the permanent file is referred to as a(n): A. Master File B. General File C. Transaction File D. Subsidiary File 35. The chart of accounts would be a good example of a: A. Transaction File B. Master File C. Field D. Record 36. The organization of files in a computer system normally uses one of two different access methods. The access method where the files store records in sequence, with one record stored immediately after another, is referred to as: A. Chronological Access B. Sequential Access C. Random Access D. Numerical Access 37. The organization of files in a computer system normally uses one of two different access methods. The access method where the files are not stored in sequence, one record not stored immediately after another, is referred

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to as: A. Indexed Access B. Batch Access C. Sequential Access D. Random Access 38. There are two modes of processing transactions in accounting systems. The mode that requires all similar transactions be grouped together and be processed at the same time, is referred to as: A. Batch Processing B. Online Processing C. Real-time Processing D. Sequential Processing 39. There are two modes of processing transactions in accounting systems. The mode that will record transactions, one at a time, is referred to as: A. Batch Processing B. Online Processing C. Real-Time Processing D. Sequential Processing 40. A type of online processing where a transaction is processed immediately so that the output is available immediately is termed: A. Virtual Processing B. Sequential Processing C. Real-Time Processing D. Batch Processing 41. An integrated collection of enterprise-wide data that includes five to ten fiscal years of non-volatile data, used to support management in decision making and planning is referred to as: A. Operational Database B. Relational Database C. Data Storage D. Data Warehouse 42. This type of database contains the data that are continually updated as transactions are processed and includes data for the current fiscal year and supports day-to-day operations is referred to as a(n): A. Data Warehouse B. Data Storage C. Relational Database D. Operational Database 43. The data in the data warehouse are said to be enterprise-wide because: A. The data relate to all areas of the business.

B. The data are pulled from each of the operational databases and maintained in the data warehouse for many fiscal periods.

C. All areas of the business are able to access the data warehouse.

D. All transactions across the all areas of the business are recorded in the data warehouse.

44. The process of searching data within the data warehouse for identifiable patterns that can be used to predict future behavior is referred to as: A. Data mining B. Data digging

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C. Data housing D. Data querying 45. Two or more computers linked together to share information and / or resources is referred to as a(n): A. Computer Intranet B. Computer Internet C. Computer System D. Computer Network 46. This type of computer network is one that spans a relatively small area - often confined to a single building or group of buildings, and are intended to connect computers within an organization.

A. Local Area Network B. Land Arena Network C. Extranet D. Internet 47. The global computer network, or “information super highway”, is the: A. WAN B. Intranet C. Internet D. LAN 48. A company’s private network, accessible only to the employees of that company is the: A. WAN B. Intranet C. Internet D. LAN 49. This computer network is similar to a company’s intranet except that it does allow access to selected outsiders, such as buyers, suppliers, distributors, and wholesalers.

A. Ultranet B. Internet C. Extranet D. LAN 49A. A contemporary type of computer infrastructure that is used by an increasing number of companies involves the use of shared services, software, and / or data stored on servers at a remote location, which are accessible over a network, is referred to as: A. Database B. Cloud Computing C. Internet D. Relational Internet 50. The use of electronic means to enhance business processes is termed: A. E-business B. Electronic data interchange C. Point of sale system D. E-commerce 51. The intercompany, computer-to-computer transfer of business documents in a standard business format is called: A. E-business B. E-commerce

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C. Local area network D. Electronic data interchange 52. Which of the following is NOT one of the three components of electronic data interchange?

A. Commerce - encompasses all forms of electronic trading.

B. Intercompany - two or more companies conducting business electronically.

C. Standard business format - necessary so that the various companies can interact and trade electronically.

D. Computer to computer - indicates that each company’s computers are connected via a network.

53. This term refers to a system of hardware and software that captures retail sales transactions by standard bar coding.

A. E-business B. Electronic data interchange C. Point of sale system D. E-commerce 54. When a point of sale system is used and a customer checks out through a cash register, which of the following processes occur?

A. Net income is computed B. Inventory values are updated C. Accounts payable balances are updated D. Replacement inventory is purchased 55. A system of computer hardware and software in which the software matches an invoice to its related purchase order and receiving report is called: A. Point of sale system B. Electronic data interchange C. Automated matching D. Evaluated receipt settlement 56. An invoice-less system in which computer hardware and software complete an invoice-less match that is a comparison of the purchase order with the goods received is termed: A. Evaluated receipt settlement B. Automated matching C. Electronic invoice presentation and payment D. Enterprise resource planning 57. This system enables a vendor to present an invoice to its trading partner via the internet, eliminating the paper, printing, and postage costs of traditional paper invoicing.

A. Evaluated receipt settlement B. Electronic invoice presentation and payment C. Automated matching D. Electronic data interchange

58. A multi-module software system designed to manage all aspects of an enterprise usually broken down into modules such as financials, sales, human resources, and manufacturing, is referred to as a(n): A. Electronic data system B. Electronic data interchange C. Enterprise resource planning D. Electronic resource program

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59X. Management has the responsibility, and the ability, to take action to reduce risks or to lessen the impact al nearly all risks an organization faces. The steps taken by management to lessen the risk or reduce the impact of the risk, are referred to as: A. Programs B. Risk assessment C. Information evaluation D. Controls 60. Which of the following groups of professionals within an organization have a history of designing and implementing the controls to lessen risks?

A. Management B. Accountants C. Human Resources D. Lawyers 61. Which of the following is not one of broad categories of controls?

A. The risk that assets will be stolen or misused.

B. The risk of errors in accounting data or information.

C. The risk of loss due to a natural disaster.

D. The risk of fraudulent activity by employees.

62. Which of the following is not a risk inherent in an IT system?

A. Computer security breaches.

B. Computers being stolen.

C. Erroneous input of data.

D. Hardware or software failure.

63X. A comprehensive report on enterprise risk management was issued by this organization.

A. American Accounting Association B. New York Stock Exchange C. Institute of Internal Auditors D. Committee on Sponsoring Organizations 64. A process, effected by an entity’s board of directors, management and other personnel, applied in strategy setting and across the enterprise, designed to identify potential events that may effect the entity, and manage risk to be withing its risk appetite, to provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of entity objectives is referred to as: A. Enterprise resource planning B. Enterprise risk management C. IT system control structure D. Corporate governance structure 65. In order to achieve the objective of managing risk, management should establish control structures that include, at a minimum: A. Accounting internal controls.

B. Accounting internal controls, IT controls, corporate governance, enterprise risk management, and IT governance.

C. IT controls, IT governance, corporate governance, and accounting internal controls.

D. IT controls and accounting internal controls.

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66. The company’s development and adherence to this should reduce the opportunities for managements or employees to conduct fraud.

A. Code of ethics B. Internal control structure C. Application controls D. Corporate governance 67X. The COSO report, Internal Controls – Integrated Framework, identified interrelated components of internal control. Which of the following is not one of those components?

A. Monitoring B. Risk assessment C. Control activities D. Enterprise risk management 68. IT controls can be divided into two categories. Which of the following is a correct statement of one of those categories?

A. Application controls apply overall to the IT accounting system.

B. Application controls apply to the prevention of erroneous or incomplete input or processing of data.

C. Application controls are used specifically in accounting applications to control inputs, processing, and output.

D. Application controls are used to prohibit fraudulent financial reporting.

69. An elaborate system of checks and balances, whereby a company’s leadership is held accountable for building shareholder value and creating confidence in the financial reporting processes, is referred to as: A. Enterprise risk management B. Corporate governance C. Application controls D. Internal control structure 70. The purpose of this 2002 act was to improve financial reporting and reinforce the importance of corporate ethics.

A. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act B. Sarbanes-Oxley Act C. Securities and Exchange Act D. Treadway Act 71. Which of the following is not one of the corporate functions interrelated within the corporate governance system?

A. Management Oversight B. Ethical Conduct C. Risk Assessment D. Financial Stewardship 72. The proper management, control, and use of IT systems are known as: A. IT Governance B. IT Controls C. IT Risk Management D. IT Code of Ethics 73. Accountants have several possible roles related to accounting information systems. Which of the following is not normally one of those roles?

A. Auditor of an AIS B. User of the AIS

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C. Programmer of the AIS D. Design of the AIS 74. There are many reasons for accountants to become aware of potential unethical behaviors. Which of the following is not one of the reasons identified by the authors?

A. Accountants are responsible for identifying unethical and illegal activities.

B. Accounts assist in developing and implementing internal control structures that should decrease the chance of unethical actions.

C. Accountants are often pressured to assist in, or cover up, unethical actions.

D. Accountants deal with assets or records that could easily tempt accountants to engage in unethical behavior.

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 1 – MULTIPLE CHOICE: 11. B 24. A 37. D 12. C 25. C 38. A 13. B 26. A 39. B 14. A 27. D 40. C 15. D 28. A 41. D 16. A 29. B 42. D 17. B 30. D 43. B 18. C 31. C 44. A 19. D 32. C 45. D 20. B 33. B 46. A 21. B 34. C 47. C 22. A 35. B 48. B 23. D 36. B 49. C 49A. B

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59X. 60.

61.

62.

A D A C B C A B C D B C B

63X. 64.

65.

66.

67X. 68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

D B C A D C B B C A C A

TEST BANK – CHAPTER 1 – TRUE/FALSE: 75. A business process has a well-defined beginning and end.

TRUE 76. Each business process has a direct effect on the financial status of an organization.

FALSE: The process could have an indirect effect.

77. Few accounting information systems rely on computer hardware and software to track business processes.

FALSE: Most accounting information systems rely on computer hardware and software.

78. The rethinking and redesigning that occur during business process reengineering are aided by the use of information technology.

TRUE 79. There are very few business processes that have the potential to be improved by IT enablement.

FALSE 80. Business process reengineering should leverage the capabilities of information technology to improve the efficiency of business processes.

TRUE 81. It is important for accountants to have some understanding of basic computer terminology.

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TRUE 82. When files are organized as sequential access, and the user needs to access record number 250, the previous 249 records will be read by the computer before reading record number 250.

TRUE 83. When files are organized as sequential access, the sequence is normally based on one key record in each file.

FALSE: the key is a field – not a record 84. Batch processing is best suited to applications that have large volumes of similar transactions that can be processed as regular intervals.

TRUE 85. Online processing is the opposite of real-time processing.

FALSE: Online processing is the opposite of batch processing.

86. Batch processing is best suited to sequential access files.

TRUE 87. Online processing is best suited to sequential access files.

FALSE: random access files, not sequential access files.

88. Online processing is best suited to situations were there is a large volume of records but only a few records are needed to process any individual transaction.

TRUE 89. Each time a new transaction is completed, parts of the data warehouse must be updated.

FALSE: parts of the operational database must be updated.

90. Data in the data warehouse are called nonvolatile because they do not change rapidly in the same way that operational data change.

TRUE 91. A system of local area networks connected over any distance via other net work connections is called a WAN, or wide area network.

TRUE 92. E-business is a type of e-commerce.

FALSE: e-commerce is a type of e-business 93. The “intercompany” component of electronic data interchange means that two or more companies are conducting business electronically.

TRUE 94. In order to have an automated matching system it is necessary to have access to paper copies of purchase orders and invoices.

FALSE: All of the related files need to be online.

95. When automated matching is used, the system will not approve an invoice for payment unless the items and quantities match with the packing slip and the prices match the purchase order prices.

TRUE

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96. The evaluated receipt settlement system is an IT enabled system that reduces the time and cost of processing customer payments.

FALSE: processing vendor payments.

97. ERP systems are based on a relational database system.

TRUE 98. Traditional accounting software is much more comprehensive and encompassing that ERP software.

FALSE 99. Before ERP software systems, modules such as human resources were in separate software but well integrated with the accounting software.

FALSE: were NOT well integrated.

100. Although accountants are heavily involved in the creation, implementation, and monitoring of the control structure, management has the ultimate responsibility to establish a control environment.

TRUE 101. Once a company has decided on the control processes needed, it is not necessary to have an ongoing assessment of risks.

FALSE: it is necessary to have an ongoing assessment of risks.

102. A code of ethics should reduce opportunities for employees to conduct fraud if management emphasizes the cost and disciplines or discharges those who violate it.

TRUE 103. IT systems are to be chosen and implemented to support the attainment of strategies and objectives.

TRUE 104. It is likely that an accountant will select a career path, within accounting, that will not in some way, involve the use of an accounting information system.

FALSE 105. An auditor cannot make informed decisions necessary to complete the audit without an understanding of the accounting information system.

TRUE 106. The accounting information system is often the tool used to commit or cover up unethical behavior.

TRUE

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 1 – TRUE/FALSE: 75. True 82. True 89. False 76. False 83. False 90. True 77. False 84. True 91. True 78. True 85. False 92. False 79. False 86. True 93. True 80. True 87. False 94. False 81. True 88. True 95. True

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96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

False True False False True False True

103.

104.

105.

106.

True False True True

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 2: Foundational Concepts of the AIS

NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

End of Chapter Questions:

1. Which of the following statements is not true?

A. Accounting information systems must maintain both detail and summary information.

B. Business processes may vary from company to company.

C. Regardless of the extent of computerization, all accounting information systems must capture data from the transactions within business processes.

D. Business processes categorized as expenditure processes are not intended to be processes that serve customers.

2. In a manual system, an adjusting entry would most likely be initially recorded in a: A. Special journal B. Subsidiary ledger C. General journal D. General ledger 3. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of maintaining legacy systems?

A. There are fewer programmers available to support and maintain legacy systems.

B. They contain invaluable historical data that may be difficult to integrate into newer systems.

C. Hardware or hardware parts may be unavailable for legacy systems.

D. It can be difficult to integrate various legacy systems into an integrated whole.

4. Which of the following is not an advantage of cloud computing when compared to client-server computing?

A. It is more calable.

B. It is less costly.

C. It increases the amount of computer infrastructure in a company.

D. It has expanded availability.

(Previous #4) 5. Which of the following is a disadvantage of purchased accounting software, compared with software developed in-house?

A. It is custom designed for that company.

B. It is less costly.

C. The implementation time is shorter.

D. There are fewer bugs.

(Previous #5) 6. Which of the following is not a method of updating legacy systems?

A. Enterprise application integration B. Backoffice ware C. Screen scraper

D. Complete replacement (Previous #6) 7. When categorizing the accounting software market, a company with revenue of $8 million would most likely purchase software from which segment?

A. Small company B. Midmarket C. Beginning ERP D. Tier 1 ERP (Previous #7) 8. An IT system that uses touch-screen cash registers as an input method is called: A. Electronic data interchange B. E-business C. Point-of-sale system D. Source documents and keying (Previous #8) 9. When similar transactions are grouped together for a specified time for processing, it is called: A. Online processing B. Real-time processing C. Batch processing D. Group processing (Previous #9) 10. Which of the following is not correct regarding the differences in the ways that real-time systems differ from batch systems?

A. B. C. D.

Real-Time Systems Must use direct access files.

Processing occurs on demand.

Processing choices are menu-driven.

Supporting documents are prepared as items are processed.

Batch Systems Can use simple sequential files.

Processing must be scheduled.

Processing is interactive.

Supporting documents are prepared during scheduled runs.

(Previous #10) 11. In documenting systems, which pictorial method is described as a method that diagrams the actual flow and sequence of events?

A. Systems flowchart B. Process map C. Data flow diagram D. Entity relationship diagram (Previous #11) 12. (CMA Adapted) A company in Florida provides certified flight training programs for aspiring new pilots of small aircraft. Although awarding a pilot’s license requires one-on-one flight time, there is also much preparatory training conducted in classroom settings. The company needs to create a conceptual data model for its classroom training program, using an entity-relationship diagram. The company provided the following information: Floridian Flight, Inc. has 10 instructors who can tach up to 30 pilot trainees per class. The company offers 10 different courses, and each course may generate up to eight classes.

Identify the entities that should be included in the entity-relationship diagram: A. Instructor, Floridian Flight Inc., Pilot Trainee

B. Instructor, Floridian Flight Inc., Course, Enrollment, Class C. Floridian Flight Inc., Enrollment, Course, Class, Pilot Trainee D. Instructor, Course, Enrollment, Class, Pilot Trainee ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS 1-12 (FROM THE TEXTBOOK) 1. D 4. A 7. B 10. C 2. C 5. A 8. C 11. B 3. B 6. B 9. C 12. D

TEST BANK – CHAPTER 2

1. IT systems have dramatically affected many aspects of business. Which of the following is not one of the changes?

A. Data input into accounting information systems.

B. The way that data is processed in the system.

C. The accounting information that is reported by the system.

D. The outputs of the system.

2. Which of the following statements is false?

A. Technology has allowed many industries to provide better, faster, and higher quality information.

B. Business process must adapt to the new technologies.

C. Business processes, IT systems, and the accounting information system are inextricably linked.

D. IT systems have not had a major impact on the input of data into the accounting information system.

3. The system that captures, records, processes, and reports accounting information is referred to as a(n): A. Accounting information system B. Management information system.

C. System of business processes.

D. Client-server system.

4. Information captured by a system is generated by financial transactions: A. Within the organization only.

B. Between an organization and its customers only.

C. Between an organization and its vendors only.

D. Within the organization and between an organization and its customers and vendors.

5. A prescribed sequence of work steps completed in order to produced a desired result for an organization is the definition of: A. Accounting information system B. Business process C. Business transaction D. Financial statement 6. Which of the following statements, related to a business process, is not a true statement?

A. It has a well-defined beginning and end.

B. Usually takes a long-period of time to complete.

C. Occur so that the organization may serve its customers.

D. Is initiated by a particular kind of event.

7. When a transaction occurs there are systematic and defined steps that take place within the organization to complete all of the underlying tasks. These “defined steps” are referred to as: A. Business Processes

B. Financial Transactions C. Accounting Information Systems D. Customer Service Arenas 8. The substance of an accounting information system includes: A. Initiate an event B. Steps taken to create a business process C. Capturing, recording, processing and reporting accounting information D. Selection of client-server computing 9. Which of the following is not one of the general categories of business processes?

A. Revenue Processes B. Inventory Processes C. Expenditure Processes D. Conversion Processes 10. Which of the following correctly states the order of steps in a manual accounting system?

A. Source Documents, Journals, Ledgers, Reports B. Journals, Source Documents, Ledgers, Reports C. Source Documents, Ledgers, Journals, Reports D. Ledgers, Reports, Journals, Source Documents 11. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Most accounting systems in use today are computerized systems.

B. All accounting systems, whether computerized or not, must capture data, process the data, and provide outputs C. It is not necessary for an accounting system to maintain summary information if it maintains detail information.

D. The general ledger will be summarized and then posted to the subsidiary ledger.

12. The choice of accounting information system will depend on all of the following except: A. The size of the organization B. The philosophy of management C. The ability of the company to capture information D. The nature of its processes 13. The record that captures the key data of a transaction is called: A. Turnaround document B. Ledger C. Journal D. Source document 14. In order to organize the study of accounting information systems, the authors divided the systems in place into three categories. Which of the following is not one of those categories?

A. Manual Systems B. Client-Server Systems C. Legacy Systems D. Integrated IT Systems 15. Which of the following statements is true related to manual systems?

A. Few small organizations use computerized accounting systems.

B. Computerized systems rely on some manual record keeping.

C. Most medium sized organizations rely on manual accounting systems.

D. When using a computerized system, it is not necessary to understand the manual system.

16. Which of the following is an example of a source document?

A. Purchase order B. Employee time card C. Cash receipts D. All of the above are examples of source documents.

17. A source document serves important functions in the accounting system. Which of the following is not one of those functions?

A. Provides the output data for financial reports B. Serves as part of the permanent audit trail C. Triggers beginning of business processes D. Provides the input data to record the transaction 18. An output of the accounting system that can be used as an input in a different part of the accounting system is referred to as: A. Round table document B. Source document C. Turnaround document D. Financial report 19. Which of the following provides details for the entire set of accounts used in the organization’s accounting systems?

A. General Ledger B. Special Journal C. Subsidiary Ledger D. General Journal 20. The book of original entry for any transaction not recorded in a special journal is the: A. Special Ledger B. General Ledger C. General Journal D. Subsidiary Journal 21. Special journals are created, or established, to record specific types of transactions. Which of the following is not one of the special journals?

A. Fixed Asset Journal B. Cash Receipts Journal C. Purchases Journal D. Payroll Journal 22. The purpose of this item is to maintain the detailed information regarding routine transactions, with an account established for each entity.

A. Purchases Journal B. Subsidiary Ledger C. General Journal D. General Ledger 23. Which of the following items is not one of the manual records in a manual accounting system?

A. Journals B. Ledgers C. Source Documents

D. Trial Balance 24. Many of the accounting software systems consist of modules. Which of the following statements is false related to these modules?

A. Are separate programs for different business processes B. Include accounts receivable, payroll, and accounts payable C. Have essentially the same purpose as special journals and special ledgers D. Are referred to as special purpose systems 25. An existing system within the organization that uses older technology is called a(n): A. Manual system B. Legacy system C. Client-server system D. Modern integrated system 26. Which of the following statements does not refer to a legacy system?

A. Includes source documents, journals, and ledgers.

B. Have been in place for may years.

C. Much time has been spent developing, maintaining, and customizing the system.

D. Often based on old or inadequate technology.

27. Organizations are often reluctant to abandon their legacy systems because: A. The system was customized to meet specific needs.

B. The process to replace the systems is inexpensive.

C. The time involved for replacement is minimal.

D. Information contained on the system is outdated.

28. Which of the following is not one of the advantages of maintaining the legacy systems?

A. The system often supports unique business processes not inherent in generic accounting software.

B. The system contains invaluable historical data that may be difficult to integrate into a new system.

C. The system is well supported and understood by existing personnel who are already trained to use the system.

D. The system has been customized to meet specific needs of the organization.

29. Which of the following is one of the disadvantages of maintaining the legacy systems?

A. Often support unique business processes not inherent in generic accounting software.

B. May not easily run on new hardware.

C. Contain invaluable historical data.

D. Existing personnel are already trained to use the system.

30. Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of maintaining the legacy systems?

A. They become difficult to integrate when companies merge or acquire other companies.

B. They are often difficult to modify to make them web based.

C. They are well supported and understood by existing personnel.

D. They lack adequate, up-to-date supporting documentation.

31. Frontware, which adds modern, user friendly screen interfaces to legacy systems are referred to as: A. Turnaround software B. Graphical user face C. COBOL D. Screen scrapers 32. Instead of completely replacing their systems, organizations often try to use new technology to enhance existing

systems. Which of the following is not one of the approaches taken by these organizations?

A. Enterprise application integration B. Screen scrapers C. Enterprise resource planning D. Using interface bridges 33. A set of processes, software and hardware tools, methodologies, and technologies to integrate software systems is referred to as: A. Enterprise application integration B. Client-server interface C. Screen scrapers D. Complete integration 34. An use of enterprise application integration would include: A. Bridge the legacy systems to the new hardware and software.

B. Intended to consolidate, connect, and organize all of the computer applications, data, and business processes.

C. Allow real-time exchange and management of all the critical information.

D. All of the listed items would be included.

35. Which of the following statements is false?

A. When a modern, integrated system is purchased, they are often modified by the IT staff to meet the needs of the organization.

B. New programs sold by software development companies are not as user friendly as the legacy systems.

C. Purchased software has a lower cost, shorter implementation time, and fewer bugs.

D. The modern, integrated systems typically use the latest technology.

35A. The modern integrated systems discussed by the authors include different types of architectures or model. Which of the following is not one of those models?

A. Client-server model B. Legacy accounting C. Cloud computing D. All of the listed are examples of the modern integrated systems.

35B. This type of computing means that there are two types of copmuters networked together to accomplish the application processing.

A. Cloud computing B. IT-Software computing C. Client-Server computing D. Web-Server computing 35C. The advantage of client-server computing is: A. PC clients perform as “smart” terminals that can accomplish some share of the process tasks.

B. The server is housed at the client’s location and is maintained by the client.

C. The client PC works with the entire database, whereas the server works with only a portoin of the client data.

D. Each of the parts - the client PC and the server - work separately and are viewed separately by the users.

35D. Which of the following is not a main characteristic of client-server system?

A. Client and server computer are networked together.

B. Individual parts of processing are shared between the server and the client.

C. The system appears to users to be one integrated whole.

D. The client does not participate in the processing or data manipulation.

35E. Which of the following statements is false related to client-server computing?

A. Tasks are assigned to either the server or the client based on the size of the task.

B. A large number of client-server applications are moving toward a web-based model.

C. The client is more efficient at manipulating subsets of data.

D. The server is more efficient in managing large databases.

35F. Which of the following is not an example of cloud computing?

A. The current method that Apple now uses to manage iTunes.

B. Google’s Gmail - e-mail software.

C. Purchasing songs from iTunes and downloading those songs onto your computer.

D. Email accounts such as Yahoo.

35G. Which of the following is not an advantage to a cloud model of e-mail?

A. It may be accessed and read from any device you use.

B. You are not required to maintain e-mail software and data storage.

C. Costs associated with maintaining are higher but are more controllable.

D. Fewer IT employees would be needed.

35H. There are a number of cloud computing services, and one of those services is called SaaS. This acronym stands for: A. Software as a Service B. Systems at a Server C. Server adding another System D. Software as actual Services 35I. There are a number of advantages to cloud computing. Which of the following is one of those advantages?

A. As a company grows, it can easily purchase new capacity from the cloud provider.

B. Once the software and data are stored in the cloud, it can be accessed by multiple devices from multiple locations.

C. The company has a reduced need for servers and data storage.

D. All of the above.

36. There were four market segments identified by the authors in chapter 2. Which of the following is not one of those segments.

A. Small Company Systems B. Midmarket Company Systems C. Legacy Company Systems D. Beginning ERP Systems 37.A company with revenue of $50 million would be most likely to purchase software from which one of the four market segments?

A. Midmarket Segment B. Beginning ERP Segment C. Tier 1: ERP Segment D. Integrated Segment 38. Quickbooks and Peachtree would be part of which market segment of accounting software?

A. Small Segment B. Midmarket Segment C. Beginning ERP Segment D. Legacy Segment

39. SAP and PeopleSoft are part of which market segment of accounting software?

A. Small Segment B. Midmarket Segment C. Beginning ERP Segment D. Tier 1 ERP Segment 40. Five different input methods were identified by the authors. Which of the following is one of those input methods.

A. EDI B. ERP C. EAI D. EPS 41. Source documents are usually preprinted and sequentially prenumbered. Which of the following is not one of the reasons for this prenumbering and preprinting?

A. To have an established format to capture data B. To assure that there are no duplicate source documents C. To be sure that all of the documents have been recorded D. To be sure that all of the documents are accounted for 42. This method of input for AIS is considered to be time consuming and error prone due to the human effort required to write on some documents and to manually key in the data: A. Bar Coding B. Key Punching C. Source Documents and Keying D. Point of Sale Systems 43. The use of employee prepared time cards and the entering of the time worked by the payroll department is a good example of which type of input method for AIS? A. EDI B. Bar Coding C. Point of Use System D. Source Documents and Keying 44. A printed code consisting of a series of vertical, machine readable, rectuangular bars and spaces, that vary in width and are arranged in a specific ways to represent letters and numbers are referred to as: A. COBOL Coding B. Bar Coding C. Key Coding D. EOS Coding 45. Bar codes can be used in a number of different instances for input: A. Products that are sold B. Identification of individuals C. Track work in process D. Prepare financial statements 46. A method of using hardware and software that captures retail sales transactions by standard bar coding is referred to as: A. Point of Sale System B. COBOL System C. Inventory Tracking System D. UPC System

47. The letter UPC, when relating to bar codes, stands for: A. United Price Code B. Universal Product Code C. Unity Product Cost D. Ulterior Price Company 48. The inter-company, computer-to-computer transfer of business documents in a standard business format is referred to as: A. Electronic Data Interchange B. E-Business Document Identification C. Earned Daily Interest D. Electronic Document Idea 49. The major difference between EDI and e-business is: A. EDI uses the internet and e-business uses dedicated networks B. EDI does not require the use of computers C. EDI uses dedicated networks and e-business uses the internet D. There is no difference between EDI and e-business 50. After the accounting information has been input into the accounting system, it must be processed. Process accounting data involves: A. Source documents and keying B. Bar codes and point of sale C. Electronic data interchange and e-business D. Calculations, classification, and summarization.

51. In a manual accounting system, the processing of accounting information includes: A. Recording in the ledger B. Posting to the journal C. Closing the necessary ledger accounts D. Adjusting the journal 52. When all similar transactions are grouped together for a specified time and then processed together as a group, the process is referred to as: A. Grouped processing B. Batch processing C. Bound processing D. Unit processing 53. An organization that has applications having large volumes of similar transactions that can be processed at regular intervals is best suited to use which method of processing?

A. Real-time processing B. Point of sale processing C. Batch processing D. Sequential processing 54. Which of the following is not one of the advantages of batch processing?

A. It is generally easier to control than other types of computerized systems.

B. It uses less costly hardware and software.

C. It is very efficient for large volumes of like transactions when most items in the master file are used.

D. Information can be provided to users on a timely basis.

55. Which of the following is one of the disadvantages to batch processing?

A. B. C. D.

The hardware and software are more expensive.

Integration across business processes is difficult in legacy systems that are batch oriented.

Batch systems can be difficult to audit because of the complexity of the system.

Errors can be corrected immediately because the system checks for input errors as the data is entered.

56. The processing system where transactions are processed immediately and where output is available immediately is referred to as: A. Real-time processing B. Online processing C. Batch processing D. Sequential processing 57. The advantages to real-time processing include: A. As the data are entered, the system checks for input errors - therefore, errors can be corrected immediately.

B. Information is provided to users on a timely basis.

C. All files are constantly up-to-date.

D. All of the above are advantages.

58. The disadvantages to real-time processing include: A. Processing can take longer than normal if the master files are large.

B. Adding or deleting records takes a considerable amount of time.

C. The single database that is shared is more susceptible to unauthorized access.

D. Data duplication is likely because each process uses its own master file.

59. Many different types of output are generated by an accounting information system. The authors identified general categories of output. The category that would include credit memorandums, receiving memorandums, and production schedules is: A. Internal documents B. Internal reports C. External reports D. Trading partner documents 60. Many different types of output are generated by an accounting information system. The authors identified general categories of output. The category that would include any document that management determines would be useful to the business is: A. Internal documents B. Internal reports C. External reports D. Trading partner documents 61. Documentation of the accounting system allows: A. The accountant to anaylze and understand the procedures and business process and the systems that capture and record the accounting data.

B. The non-accountant to create a picture or chart of what should happen within the accounting system.

C. The investor to see inside the accounting system so that he / she can better understand the financial statements.

D. The accountant to determine which financial statements will be necessary to properly report the results of operations.

62. Which of the following is not one of the popular documentation methods for processes and systems presented in the textbook?

A. Process maps B. Document flowcharts C. Entity relationship diagram

D. Document creation map 63. A pictorial representation of business processes in which the actual flow and sequence of events in the process are presented in the diagram form - the start of the process, the steps within the process, and the finish of the process is referred to as: A. System flowchart B. ER Diagram C. Process Map D. Data Flow Diagram 64. Which of the process map symbols is used to show the start and / or finish of a process?

A. Rectangle B. Oval C. Diamond D. Circle 65. Which of the process map symbols is used to show a task or activity in the process?

A. Rectangle B. Oval C. Diamond D. Circle 66. Which of the process map symbols is used to show a point in the process when a decision must be made?

A. Rectangle B. Oval C. Diamond D. Circle 67. A process map shows a circle with a letter or number in the middle. This symbol is used to show: A. That there is a break in the process.

B. That there is a decision to be made.

C. That a process is starting.

D. That there is an activity that will take place.

68. This method of system documentation is intended to show the entire system, including inputs manual and copmuterized processes, and outputs.

A. Procedure mapping B. System flowcharting C. Data flow diagramming D. Entity relationship diagrams 69. Systems professionals in the design and maintenance of IT systems use this documentation method.

A. Document flowcharts B. Process maps C. Data flow diagrams D. System flowcharting 70.Accountants and auditors are less likely to use which of the following system documentation methods?

A. Process maps B. System flowcharting C. Document flowcharting D. Data flow diagrams

71. When creating or reading a system flowchart, the triangle symbol represents a: A. File B. Direct access storage C. Manual input D. Document 72. When creating or reading a system flowchart, the diamond represents a(n): A. On-page connector B. Decision C. Data D. Process 73. When creating or reading a system flowchart, the rectangle represents a(n): A. Decision B. Off-page connector C. Document D. Process 74. The documenting system that shows the flow of documents and information among departments or units within an organization is called a: A. System Flowchart B. ER Diagram C. Document Flowchart D. Data Flow Diagram 75. This document system is used by systems professionals to show the logical design of a system. The advantage of the method is that it uses only four symbols.

A. Data Flow Diagram B. ER Diagram C. System Flowchart D. Document Flowchart 76. This document system is used by systems professionals to show the logical design of a system. The advantage of the method is that it uses only four symbols. The symbol used to represent both sources and destinations of data is a(n): A. Rectangle with rounded corners B. Open-ended rectangle C. Arrow D. Rectangle with squared corners 77. This document system is used by systems professionals to show the logical design of a system. The advantage of the method is that it uses only four symbols. The symbol used to represent any task or function performed is a(n): A. Rectangle with rounded corners B. Open-ended rectangle C. Arrow D. Rectangle with squared corners 78. This document system is used by systems professionals to show the logical design of a system. The advantage of the method is that it uses only four symbols. The symbol used to represent a data store or the storage of data is a(n): A. Rectangle with rounded corners B. Open-ended rectangle C. Arrow

D. Rectangle with squared corners 79. This document system is used by systems professionals to show the logical design of a system. The advantage of the method is that it uses only four symbols. The symbol used to represent the flow of data is a(n): A. Rectangle with rounded corners B. Open-ended rectangle C. Arrow D. Rectangle with squared corners 80X. This document system is a pictorial representation of the logical structure of databases. It identifies the entities, the attributes of the entities, and the relationship between the entities.

A. ER Diagram B. System Flowchart C. Entity Flowchart D. Process Map 81X. When discussing entity relationship diagrams, this is considered to be a noun, that represents items in the accounting system: A. Attribute B. Relationship C. Entity D. Flow 82. When discussing entity relationship diagrams, this is considered to be a characteristic of an entity.

A. Attribute B. Flow C. Relationship D. Field 83. The rectangle used in an entity relationship diagram is used to represent a(n): A. Attribute B. Relationship C. Entity 84. The diamond used in an entity relationship diagram is used to represent a(n): A. Attribute B. Relationship C. Entity 85. The oval used in an entity relationship diagram is used to represent a(n): A. Attribute B. Relationship C. Entity 86. The term that refers to how many instances of an entity relates to each instance of another entity is: A. Supervisor B. Symbol C. Relationship D. Cardinality 87. When an organization has this type of network, there are two types of computers networked together to accomplish the application processing: A. Point of sale

B. Batch processing C. Client-server computing D. General-subsidiary computing 88. This type of client terminal can accomplish some of the processing tasks in a client-server computing network: A. Application terminal B. Smart terminal C. Subset terminal D. Presentation terminal 89. Characteristics of a client-server system include all of the following except: A. The client and the server are networked together.

B. The client computer participates in either the processing or the data manipulation.

C. Individual parts of processing are shared between the server and the client.

D. The client normally stores the large database.

90. In this type of client-server computing, the client PC manipulates data for presentation but does not do any other significant processing.

A. Application presentation B. Distributed presentation C. Distributed application D. ERP application 91. In this type of client-server computing, the client PC participates in application processing - including the updates and changes to data that reside on the server.

A. Subset application B. Distributed presentation C. Distributed application D. Real-time application 92. Which of the following statements, regarding ethical considerations in an accounting information system is false?

A. The accounting information system is often the tool used to either commit or cover up unethical behavior.

B. If there is only one person within the organization with responsibility for maintaining the computer systems, it is not difficult to detect instances of computer fraud.

C. Fraud could be perpetrated and go undetected for a long time if the accounting information system is not carefully monitored.

D. If accountants are well informed about the risks of unethical behavior, they will be better prpared to control those risks.

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 2: 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

C D A D B B A C B A B C

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

D B A A A B C D C A D B

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

B A C D C B C D B A D C

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

B A B D C A D A B C A C

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

D B B D A C A C A B D

35A. B 35E. A

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

C B A D A C C D B D A

35B. C 35F. C

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

A B A D C B A C A B D

35C. A 35G. C

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

A C B A D C B D B C B

35D. D 35H. A

35I.

D

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 3: Fraud, Ethics, and Internal Control

NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

End of Chapter Questions: 1.

The careful and responsible oversight and use of the assets entrusted to management is called: A. Control environment B. Stewardship C. Preventive control D. Security

2.

Which of the following is not a condition in the fraud triangle?

A. Rationalization B. Incentive C. Conversion D. Opportunity

3.

There are many possible indirect benefits to management when management fraud occurs. Which of the following in not an indirect benefit of management fraud?

A. Delayed exercise of stock options.

B. Delayed cash flow problems.

C. Enhanced promotion opportunities.

D. Increased incentive-based compensation.

4.

Which of the following is not an example of employee fraud?

A. Skimming B. Larceny C. Kickbacks D. Earnings management

5.

Which of the following is not a common form of employee fraud?

A. Inventory theft B. Expense account fraud C. Payroll fraud D. Refund fraud Segregation of duties is a fundamental concept in an effective system of internal controls. Nevertheless, the effectiveness of this control can be compromised through which situation?

A. A lack of employee training B. Collusion among employees C. Irregular employee reviews D. The absence of an internal audit function

6.

7.

The most difficult type of misstatement to discover is fraud that is concealed by: A. Over-recording the transactions B. Nonrecorded transactions C. Recording the transactions in subsidiary records D. Related parties

8.

The review of amounts charged to the company from a seller that it purchased from is called a: A. Vendor audit B. Seller review C. Collusion D. Customer review

9.

Which of the following is generally an external computer fraud, rather than an internal computer fraud?

A. Spoofing B. Input manipulation C. Program manipulation D. Output manipulation

10.

Which control activity is intended to serve as a method to confirm the accuracy or completeness of data in the accounting system?

A. Authorization B. Segregation of duties C. Security of assets D. Independent checks and reconciliations

11.

COSO describes five components of internal control. Which of the following terms is best described as “policies and procedures that help ensure management directives are carried out and management objectives are achieved”?

A. Risk assessment B. Information and communication C. Control activities D. Control environment Proper segregation of functional responsibilities calls for separation of the functions of: A. Authorization, execution, and payment B. Authorization, recording, and custody C. Custody, execution, and reporting D. Authorization, payment, and recording

12.

13.

AICPA Trust Principles identify five categories of risks and controls. Which category is best described by the statement, “Information process could be inaccurate, incomplete, or not properly authorized”?

A. Security B. Availability C. Processing integrity D. Confidentiality

14.

A company’s cash custody function should be separated from the related cash recordkeeping function in order to: A. Physically safeguard the cash B. Establish accountability for the cash C. Prevent the payment of cash disbursements from cash receipts D. Minimize opportunities for misappropriations of cash

ANSWER TO QUESTIONS 1-14 (FROM THE TEXTBOOK) 1.

2.

3.

4.

B C A D

5.

6.

7.

8.

D B B A

9.

10.

11.

12.

A D C B

13. C 14. D

TEST BANK – CHAPTER 3 – MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The chance for fraud or ethical lapses will not be reduced if management: A. Emphasizes ethical behavior B. Models ethical behavior C. Hires ethical employees D. Is unethical 2. The Phar-Mor fraud began when management: A. Forgot to change the budgeted figures that had been incorrectly computed.

B. Attempted to make the actual net income match the budgeted amounts.

C. Overstated their expenses to cover amounts embezzled from the company.

D. Understated the revenue in order to reduce the tax payable to the IRS. 3. Each of the following companies was involved in fraudulent financial reporting during 2001 and 2002, except: A. Adelphia Communications Corp.

B. Microsoft Corporation C. Enron Corp.

D. Xerox Corporation 4. In addition to ethical practices, management has an obligation to maintain a set of processes and procedures to assure accurate financial reporting and protection of company assets. This obligation arises because: A. Many groups have expectations of management.

B. Management has a stewardship obligation to investors.

C. Management has an obligation to provide accurate reports to non-investors.

D. All of the above are reasons for the obligation.

5. The careful and responsible oversight and use of the assets entrusted to management is referred to as: A. Ethics B. Internal Control

C. Stewardship D. Confidentiality 6. A process, effected by an entity’s board of directors, management, and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of objectives related to the effectiveness and efficiency of operations, reliability of financial reporting, and compliance with applicable laws and regulations is: A. COSO’s definition of internal control B. AICPA’s definition of stewardship C. ACFE’s definition of confidentiality D. IMA’s definition of competency 7. If an organization’s IT systems are not properly controlled, they may become exposed to the risks of: A. Unauthorized access B. Erroneous processing C. Service interruption D. All of the above 8. A set of documented guidelines for moral and ethical behavior within an organization is termed a(n): A. Accounting Information System B. Code of Ethics C. Internal Control D. Sarbannes-Oxley 9. Which individual or group has the responsibility to establish, enforce, and exemplify the principles of ethical conduct within an organization?

A. Board of Directors B. Securities and Exchange Commission C. Management D. Audit Committee 10. The theft, concealment, and conversion of personal gain of another’s money, physical assets, or information is termed: A. Defalcation B. Skimming C. Larceny D. Fraud 11. An example of concealment would include: A. Changing the payee on a check improperly paid by the organization.

B. Selling a piece of inventory that has been stolen C. Stealing money from an organization before the related sale and cash receipt has been recorded.

D. All of the above are examples of concealment.

12. Changing the accounting records to hide the existence of a fraud is termed: A. Theft

B. Conversion C. Collusion D. Concealment 13. The definition of fraud includes the theft of: A. Assets B. Money C. Information D. All of the above 14. The theft of any item of value is referred to as: A. Fraudulent financial reporting B. Misappropriation of assets C. Misstatement of financial records D. Earnings management 15. Financial pressures, market pressures, job-related failures, and addictive behaviors are all examples of which condition of the Fraud Triangle?

A. Opportunity B. Conversion C. Incentive D. Rationalization 16. Circumstances that provide access to the assets or records that are the objects of the fraudulent activity describes which condition of the Fraud Triangle?

A. Rationalization B. Incentive C. Concealment D. Opportunity 17. Fraudsters typically try to justify their behavior by telling themselves that they intend to repay the amount stolen or that they believe the organization owes them the amount stolen. This justification is referred to as: A. Opportunity B. Rationalization C. Incentive D. Concealment 18. According to the authors of this textbook, which of the following is not one of general categories of people who commit fraud?

A. Employees B. Government Agencies C. Customers D. Management 18a1. Studies completed by the Association of Certified Fraud Examiners, have determined that what percent of revenues are lost annually as a result of occupational fraud and abuse?

A. 2%

B. 3% C. 6% D. 8% 18a2. In the 2010 study completed by the Association of Certified Fraud Examiners, the median loss due to fraud was: A. $160,000 B. $135,000 C. $250,000 D. $1,000,000 18a3. Which of the following types of fraud is the most common, according to the Association of Certified Fraud Examiners?

A. Corruption Schemes B. Asset Misappropriation C. Earnings Management D. Financial Statement Misstatement 18a4. Which of the following is the most common method of detecting occupational fraud?

A. Financial Statement Audit B. Management Review C. Internal Audit D. Tip from an employee, customer, or vendor

19. The falsification of accounting reports is referred to as: A. Defalcation B. Internal Theft C. Misappropriation of Assets D. Earnings Management

20. Management fraud may involve: A. Overstating expenses B. Understating assets C. Overstating revenues D. Overstating liabilities 21. Management misstatement of financial statements often occurs in order to receive indirect benefits such as: A. Decreased income taxes B. Delayed cash flows C. Increased stock prices D. Increased dividends 22. Management circumvention of systems or internal controls that are in place is termed: A. Management override B. Management collusion

C. Management stewardship D. Management manipulations 23. The theft of assets by a non-management employee is termed: A. Inventory theft B. Employee fraud C. Expense account fraud D. Skimming 24. A situation where the organization’s cash is stolen before it is entered in the accounting records is termed: A. Kickback B. Larceny C. Collusion D. Skimming 25. A situation where the organization’s cash is stolen after it is entered in the accounting records is termed: A. Kickback B. Larceny C. Collusion D. Skimming 26. A cash payment made by a vendor to an organization’s employee in exchange for a sale to the organization by the vendor is termed: A. Bribery B. Collusion C. Kickback D. Payment Fraud 27. When two or more people work together to commit a fraud, it is called: A. Collusion B. Larceny C. Skimming D. Override 28. Jamie Stark, a sales employee, stole merchandise from her employer, and Frank Adams, the accounting clerk, covered it up by altering the inventory records. This is an example of: A. Inventory theft B. Financial journal fraud C. Skimming D. Collusion 29. When a customer improperly obtains cash or property from a company, or avoids liability through deception, it is termed: A. Check fraud B. Customer fraud C. Credit card fraud

D. Refund fraud 30. Which of the following would be considered a vendor fraud?

A. The submission of duplicate or incorrect invoices.

B. A customer tries to return stolen goods to collect a cash refund.

C. The use of stolen or fraudulent credit cards.

D. Inflating hours worked.

31. The theft of proprietary company information is called: A. Vendor fraud B. Customer fraud C. Espionage D. Management fraud 32. Which of the following is a characteristic of computer fraud?

A. A computer is used in some cases to conduct a fraud more quickly and efficiently.

B. Computer fraud can be conducted by employees within the organization.

C. Computer fraud can be conducted by users outside an organization.

D. All of the above are characteristics 33. A fraudster uses this to alter a program to slice a small amount from several accounts, crediting those small amounts to the perpetrator’s benefit.

A. Trap door alteration B. Salami technique C. Trojan horse program D. Input manipulation 34. A small, unauthorized program within a larger legitimate program, used to manipulate the computer system to conduct a fraud is referred to as a(n): A. Trap door alteration B. Salami technique C. Trojan horse program D. Input manipulation 35. When a person alters a system’s checks or reports to commit fraud it is referred to as: A. Input manipulation B. Output manipulation C. Program manipulation D. Collusion 36. This type of external computer fraud is intended to overwhelm an intended target computer system with so much bogus network traffic so that the system is unable to respond to valid traffic.

A. DoS Attack B. Hacking C. Spoofing D. Phishing 37. When a person, using a computer system, pretends to be someone else, it is termed:

A. B. C. D.

DoS Attack Hacking Spoofing Phishing

38X. Which of the following is NOT one of the three critical actions that a company can undertake to assist with fraud prevention and fraud detection?

A. Maintain and enforce a cost of ethics.

B. Maintain an accounting information system C. Maintain a system of accounting internal controls D. Maintain a system of information technology controls 39. The Sarbanes-Oxley act was passed in 2002 as a Congress’s response to the many situations of fraudulent financial reporting discovered during 2001. The intention of the Act was: A. Police the accounting firms responsible for auditing the corporations.

B. Punish the companies that had been involved in the cases of fraudulent financial reporting.

C. Establish accounting standards that all companies are to follow.

D. Reform accounting, financial reporting, and auditing functions of companies that are publicly traded.

40. The types of concepts commonly found in a code of ethics would not include: A. Obeying applicable laws and regulations that govern business.

B. Avoiding all conflicts of interest.

C. Operating at a profit in all reporting periods.

D. Creating and maintaining a safe work environment.

41. The objectives of an internal control system include all of the following except: A. Maintain ongoing education B. Safeguard assets C. Maintain accuracy and integrity of accounting data D. Ensure compliance with management directives 42. The authors presented their “picture” of internal control as a series of umbrellas which represent different types of controls. Which of the following is not one of those types of controls?

A. Prevention B. Investigation C. Detection D. Correction 43. This type of control is designed to avoid errors, fraud, or events not authorized by management.

A. Prevention B. Judicial C. Detection D. Correction 44. This type of control is included in the internal control system because it is not always possible to

prevent all frauds. They help employees to discover or uncover errors, fraud, or unauthorized events.

A. Investigation B. Judicial C. Detection D. Correction 45. The accounting profession has accepted this report as the standard definition and description of internal control..

A. Sarbanes-Oxley Report B. FCPA Report C. ERI Report D. COSO Report 45a1. The COSO report is also known as: A. Fraud Triangle B. Internal Control Integrated Framework C. Code of Ethical Behavior D. Report to the Nation 45a2. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that is is not possible to eliminate all of the fraud risks?

A. Human Error B. Human Behavior C. Opportunity D. May not be cost effective 46. According to the COSO report, there are five different interrelated components of internal control. Which of the following is not one of those five components?

A. Code of Ethics B. Control Environment C. Information and Communication D. Monitoring 46a1. Which of the following statements related to the COSO report is false?

A. The COSO report provided the standard definition of internal control accepted be the accounting industry.

B. The COSO report is commonly known as the Internal Control Integrated Framework.

C. The COSO report has not been updated since it was issued in 1992.

D. The COSO report was the result of a comprehensive study of interest control.

47. The component of internal control, identified in the COSO report, that sets the tome of an organization and includes the consciousness of its employees is: A. Risk Assessment B. Control Activities C. Control Environment D. Information and Communication

48X. The control environment component of internal control was identified to have a number of different factors. Which of the following is NOT one of those factors?

A. Management’s oversight responsibility, including its philosophy and operating style B. The identification of sources of risk C. The integrity and ethical values of the entity’s people D. The attention and direction provided by the board of directors 49. One of the components of internal control identified by COSO required that management must be considering threats and the potential for risks, and stand ready to respond should these events occur. This component is referred to as: A. Control Environment B. Control Activities C. Risk Assessment D. Communication 50X. The process of risk assessment would include all of the following actions, except: A. Identify sources of risk, both internal and external B. Determine the impacts of identified risks C. Develop and execute an action plan to reduce the impact and probability of identified risks D. Report the risks to the audit committee 51. The COSO report identified a component of internal control as the policies and procedures that help ensure that management directives are carried out and that management directives are achieved The component is: A. Control activities B. Risk assessment C. Monitoring D. Information and communication 52X. The range of actions that make up the component of internal control referred to as control activities includes each of the following, except: A. Segregation of duties B. Risk assessment C. Independent checks and reconciliations D. Authorization of transactions 53. The approval or endorsement from a responsible person or department of an organization that has been sanctioned by top management is the process of: A. Securing assets B. Segregating duties C. Authorizing transactions D. Adequate recording 53A1. Which of the following statements is false, related to the authorization of transactions?

A. Every transaction that occurs must be properly authorized in some manner.

B. General authorization is the set of guidelines that allows transactions to be completed as long as they fall within established parameters.

C. It is not possible, nor is it important, to try to ensure that an organization egage only in

transactions that are authorized.

D. Specific authorization that explicit approval is needed for that single transaction to be completed.

54. The category of control activities referred to as segregation of duties requires that certain activities should be the responsibility of different person or department. The three duties that are to be separated are: A. Authorizing, recording, and paying B. Recording, custody, and disposition C. Authorizing, paying, and custody D. Authorizing, recording, and custody 55. If an accounting supervisor were allowed to hire employees, approve the hours worked, prepare the paychecks, and deliver the paychecks, which of the categories of control activities would be violated?

A. Adequate records B. Segregation of duties C. Authorization of transactions D. Independent checks 56. A good system of internal control includes many types of documentation. Which of the following types of documentation is not part of the adequate records and documents category of internal control?

A. Schedules and analyses of financial information B. Supporting document for all significant transactions C. Accounting cycle reports D. All of the following are types of documentation 57. The existence of verifiable information about the accuracy of accounting records is called a(n): A. Audit trail B. Internal control C. Risk assessment D. Supporting documentation 58. When discussing the security of assets and documents, there are many actions that can be taken. Which of the following would not be related to this category of internal control?

A. Securing the assets and records so that they are not misused or stolen.

B. Limiting access to certain assets to the extent that is practical.

C. Identifying sources of risk and estimating the possibility of that risk.

D. Enacting physical safeguards, such as security cameras, to protect some assets.

59. Independent checks on the performance of others is one of the categories of internal control.

These independent checks would include all of the following, except: A. Reviewing batch totals B. Reconciliation C. Comparison of physical assets with records D. Use of appropriate ID to enter restricted areas

59A1. This activity serves as a method to confirm the accuracy and completeness of data in the accounting system: A. Compensating control B. Independent checks C. Audit trail D. Supporting documentation 59A2. Which of the following was NOT listed as a procedure to accomplish independent checks?

A. Recalculation of amounts B. Analysis of reports C. Review of auditing procedures D. Reconciliation 60. Which of the following objectives were not identified as necessary to be provided by an effective accounting system?

A. Prepare the appropriate documents B. Identify all relevant financial events C. Capture the important data D. Proper recording and processing of the data 61. The ongoing review and evaluation of a system of internal control is referred to as: A. Risk assessment B. Monitoring C. Segregating D. Communication 62. This level of assurance means that controls achieve a sensible balance of reducing risk when compared with the cost of the control.

A. Absolute assurance B. Probable assurance C. Reasonable assurance D. Convincing assurance 63. Factors that limit the effectiveness of internal controls include all of the following except: A. Flawed judgment applied in decision making B. Human error C. Controls can be circumvented or ignored D. All of the above are factors that limit the effectiveness of internal controls 64. In order to have the segregation of duties recommended by COSO, it would be necessary for a small organization to hire two additional individuals. At this time, there is not enough work for the one office employee to stay busy. The reason for not hiring the additional people would have to do with: A. Human error B. Cost versus benefit C. Collusion D. Authorization

65. In response to the need for internal controls above and beyond what was described by COSO, the Information Systems Audit and Control Association developed an extensive framework of IT controls entitled: A. Trust Principles B. Control Objectives for Information Technology (COBIT) C. Control Instrument for Certified Accountants (CICA) D. American Internal Control Practice Association (AICPA) 66X. The Trust Services Principles document divided the risks and controls in IT into five categories.

Which of the following is not one of those categories?

A. Certification B. Security C. Processing Integrity D. Confidentiality 67X. The main risk related to this category of Trust Services Principles is unauthorized access.

A. Online privacy B. Confidentiality C. Processing integrity D. Security 68X. The risk related to this category of Trust Services Principles could be inaccurate, incomplete, or improperly authorized information.

A. Online privacy B. Confidentiality C. Processing integrity D. Security 69X. The risk related to this category of Trust Services Principles is that personal information about customers may be used inappropriately or accessed by those either inside or outside the company.

A. Confidentiality B. Online privacy C. Security D. Availability 70X. The risk related to this category of Trust Principles is system or subsystem failure due to hardware or software problems.

A. Availability B. Security C. Integrity D. Confidentiality ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 3 - MULTIPLE CHOICE: 1. D 2. B 3. B

15. C 16. D 17. B

29. B 30. A 31. C

43. A 44. C 45. D

57.A 58.C 59.D

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

D C A D B C D A D D B

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

B D C C A B D B C A D

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

D B C B A C B D C A B

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

A C B C D A B C D B D

60.A 61.B 62.C 63.D 64.B 65.B 66.A 67.D 68.C 69.B 70.A

46A1. C 53A1. C

59A1.B 59A2.C

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 3 - NEW MULTIPLE CHOICE 18A1. C 18A2. A

18A3. B 18A4. D

45A1. B 45A2. C

TEST BANK – CHAPTER 3 – TRUE / FALSE 1. When management does not act ethically, fraud is more likely to occur.

TRUE 2. In the Phar-Mor fraud case, management did not write or adopt a code of ethics.

FALSE: Phar-Mor did write and adopt a code of ethics, but most officers of the organization were not aware that it existed.

3. Maintaining high ethics can help prevent fraud but will not help to detect fraud.

FALSE: Maintaining high ethics can help to detect fraud.

4. Due to management’s responsibility to monitor operations by examining reports that summarize the results of operations, it is necessary that the system provide timely and accurate information.

TRUE 5. In order to fulfill the obligations of stewardship and reporting, management has to create a code of ethics.

FALSE: Management must create AND enforce a code of ethics.

6. In most cases, a fraud will include altering accounting records to conceal the fact that a theft has occurred.

TRUE 7X. According to the 2010 Report to the Nation by the Association of Certified Fraud Examiners, the estimate of global losses due to fraud would total approximately $650 billion.

FALSE: The amount is $2.9 Trillion 8. The most common method for detecting occupational fraud is a tip – from an employee, a customer, vendor, or anonymous source.

TRUE 8A1. Small business, those having fewer than 100 employees, are less vulnerable to fraud and abuse than are larger businesses.

FALSE: Small business is more vulnerable to fraud.

8A2. According to the ACFE 2010 Report to the Nation, fraudulent financial statements account for less than 5% of the cases, and were the least costly form of fraud.

FALSE: Fraudulent financial statements were the most costly form of fraud.

9. Defalcation and internal theft are names that refer to the misstatement of financial records.

FALSE: They are names that refer to the misappropriation of assets.

10. The three conditions that make up the fraud triangle are theft, concealment, and conversion.

FALSE: The three conditions are incentive (pressure), opportunity, and rationalization.

11X. A good set of internal controls may not be as effective in reducing the chance of management fraud as it would be in reducing the chance of fraud committed by an employee.

TRUE 12. The most effective measure to prevent management fraud is to establish a professional internal audit staff that periodically checks up on management and reports directly to the audit committee of the board of directors.

TRUE 13. Collusion between employees is one of the easiest frauds to detect and prevent.

FALSE: Collusion is one of the most difficult frauds to detect and prevent.

14. Collusion can make it much easier to commit and conceal a fraud or theft, even when proper internal controls are in place.

TRUE 15. Customer fraud is a common problem for companies that sell merchandise online.

TRUE 16. Collusion can occur only when two employees who work for the same firm conspire to circumvent the internal controls to commit fraud or theft.

FALSE: Collusion can also occur when two employees who work for different firms conspire to circumvent internal controls.

17. A vendor audit occurs when a vendor examines the books and records of a customer.

FALSE: Vendor audits involve the examination of vendor records in support of amounts charged to the company.

18. Industrial espionage can occur with or without the use of a computer.

TRUE 19. It is necessary to use a computer to accomplish software piracy.

TRUE 20. A hacker is someone who has gained unauthorized access to the computer and must be someone outside the organization.

FALSE: A hacker could be someone inside the organization.

21. If an organization has the policy of allowing employees to work from home via telecommunications, they could be opening themselves up to an opportunity for a hacker to break-in to their network.

TRUE 22. E-mail spoofing is more of an irritation to an organization that a fraud threat.

TRUE 23. In order for a code of ethics to reduce opportunities for managers and employees to commit fraud, it is necessary that management emphasizes this code. Punishment related to violations of the code are not necessary.

FALSE: The punishment of violators is necessary.

24. It is not always possible to avoid all mistakes and frauds because there will always be human error, human nature, and it is not always cost-effective to close all the holes.

TRUE 25. The risk assessment is the foundation for all other components of internal control and provides the discipline and structure of all other components.

FALSE: The description above applies to the control environment 26. Companies that reward management with incentives to achieve a growth in earnings is running the risk that management will also have more motivation and pressure to falsify the financial statements to show the higher amounts.

TRUE 27. The tone at the top of the organization tends to flow through the entire organization and affects behavior at all levels.

TRUE 28. A poor control environment can be overcome if the remaining components of internal control are strong.

FALSE: If the control environment is week, it is likely to be the cause of errors and irregularities occurring in an organization, regardless of the strength of the other components.

29. The difference between a general authorization and a specific authorization is that with a general authorization, a transaction is allowed if it falls within specified parameters, whereas with a specific authorization, explicit authorization is needed for that singe transaction to be completed.

TRUE

30. When safeguarding assets, there is no trade-off between access and efficiency.

FALSE: There is a trade-off. The more limited the access, the less efficient is operations.

31. Independent checks can serve as a preventive control in that they uncover problems in the data or the processing.

FALSE: The description has to do with detective controls, not preventive.

32. Feedback needed by management to assess, manage, and control the efficiency and effectiveness of the operations of an organization relates to both financial and operational information.

TRUE 33. A sophisticated accounting system will provide the necessary accurate and effective feedback needed by management to assess, manage and control the operations of an organization.

FALSE: Sophisticated is not the proper “adjective” – effective should be used.

34. Auditing, a monitoring activity, takes place only on a periodic basis.

FALSE: Auditing takes place on both a continuing basis and on a periodic basis.

35. It is not possible to have an internal control system that will provide absolute assurance.

TRUE 36. Computer systems increase the efficiency and effectiveness of an organization but also increases their vulnerability.

TRUE 37. The risks related to computerized systems are adequately covered by the COSO internal control report.

FALSE: The extra risks require that internal controls related to the computer system go beyond those stated in COSO. 38. The acronym COBIT stands for Control Objectives for Information Technology, an extensive framework of information technology controls developed by Information Systems Audit and Control Association.

TRUE 39. The AICPA and the Canadian Institute of Chartered Accountants worked together to develop IT guidelines, commonly referred to as COBIT. FALSE: The guidelines created were referred to as Trust Service Principles 40. The risk related to confidentiality category of Trust Principles is that confidential information about the company or its business partners may be subject to unauthorized access during its transmission or storage in the IT system.

TRUE ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 3 - TRUE/FALSE:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

T F F T F T F T

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

F F T T F T T F

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

F T T F T T F T

ANSWERS TO NEW TEST BANK - CHAPTER 3 - TRUE/FALSE: 8A1. F 8A2. F

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

F T T F T F F T

33.F 34.F 35.T 36.T 37.F 38.T 39.F 40.T

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 4: Internal Controls and Risks in IT Systems

NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

End of Chapter Questions: 1. Internal controls that apply overall to the IT system are called: A. Overall Controls B. Technology Controls C. Application Controls D. General Controls 2. In entering client contact information in the computerized database of a telemarketing business, a clerk erroneously entered nonexistent area codes for a block of new clients. This error reentered the block of contact useless to the company. Which of the following would most likely have led to discovery of this error into the company’s computerized system?

A. Limit check B. Validity check C. Sequence check D. Record count 3X. Which of the following is not a control intended to authenticate users?

A. User log–in B. Security token C. Encryption D. Biometric devices 4. Management of an internet retail company is concerned about the possibility of computer data eavesdropping and wiretapping, and wants to maintain the confidentiality of its information as it is transmitted. The company should make u se of: A. Data encryption B. Redundant servers C. Input controls D. Password codes 5. An IT governance committee has several responsibilities. Which of the following is least likely to be a responsibility of the IT governance committee?

A. Develop and maintain the database and ensure adequate controls over the database.

B. Develop, monitor, and review security policies.

C. Oversee and prioritize changes to IT systems.

D. Align IT investments to business strategy.

6. AICPA Trust Principles describe five categories of IT risks and controls. Which of these five categories would be described by the statement, “The system is protected against unauthorized access”?

A. Security B. Confidentiality C. Processing integrity D. Availability

7. The risk that an unauthorized user would shut down systems within the IT system is a(n): A. Security risk B. Availability risk C. Processing integrity risk D. Confidentiality risk 8. The risk of an unauthorized user gaining access is likely to be a risk for which of the following areas?

A. Telecommuting workers B. Internet C. Wireless networks D. All of the above 9. Which programmed input validation check compares the value in a field with related fields which determine whether the value is appropriate?

A. Completeness check B. Validity check C. Reasonableness check D. Completeness check 10. Which programmed input validation check determines whether the appropriate type of data, either alphabetic or numeric, was entered?

A. Completeness check B. Validity check C. Reasonableness check D. Field check 11. Which programmed input validation makes sure t hat a value was entered in all of the critical fields?

A. Completeness check B. Validity check C. Reasonableness check D. Field check 12. Which control total is the total of field values that are added for control purposes, but not added for any other purpose?

A. Record count B. Hash total C. Batch total D. Field total 13. A company has the following invoices in a batch: Invoice No. 401 402 403 404

Product ID H42 K56 H42 L27

Quantity 150 200 250 300

Which of the following numbers represents a valid record count?

A. 1 B. 4 C. 70 D. 900

Unit Price $30.00 $25.00 $10.00 $ 5.00

ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS 1 - 13 (FROM THE TEXTBOOK) 1. D 6. A 11. A 2. B 7. B 12. B 3. C 8. D 13. B 4. A 9. D 5. A 10. D TEST BANK - CHAPTER 4 - MULTIPLE CHOICE

13a1. The average annual cost of cyber crime to U.S. companies is: A. $3.8 million B. $6.2 million C. $1.1 billion D. Not determinable 14. Unchecked risks and threats to the IT could result in: A. An interruption of the computer operations B. Damage to an organization C. Incorrect or incomplete accounting information D. All of the above 15. In order to master risks and controls and how they fit together, which of the following is NOT one of the areas to fully understand?

A. The accounting information system.

B. The description of the general and application controls that should exist in IT system.

C. The type and nature of risks in IT systems.

D. The recognition of how controls can be used to reduce risk.

15a1. Internal controls that apply overall to the IT accounting system, that are not restricted to any particular accounting application, are referred to as a(n): A. Specific Controls B. Application Controls C. General Controls D. IT Controls 15a2. Internal controls used specifically in accounting applications to control inputs, processing, and outputs are referred to as a(n): A. Specific Controls B. Application Controls C. General Controls D. IT Controls

16. General controls in IT systems are divided into five broad categories. Which of the following is NOT one of those categories?

A. Authentication of uses and limiting unauthorized access B. Output controls C. Organization structure D. Physical environment and physical security of the system.

17. A process or procedure in an IT system to ensure that the person accessing the IT system is value and authorized is called:

A. B. C. D.

Hacking and other network break-ins Physical environment and physical security Authentication of users and limiting unauthorized access Organizational structure

18. This term relates to making the computer recognize a user in order to create a connection at the beginning of the computer session.

A. User ID B. Password C. Smart card D. Login 19. Which of the following is NOT one of the rules for the effective use of passwords?

A. Passwords should not be case sensitive B. Passwords should be at least 6 characters in length C. Passwords should contain at least one nonalphanumeric character.

D. Password should be changed every 90 days.

20. Which of the following is not a good example of an effective password?

A. ABC*$123 B. a1b2c3 C. A*1b?2C$3 D. MSU#Rules$ 21X. This item, that strengthens the use of passwords, is plugged into the computer’s card reader and helps authenticate that the use is valid; it has an integrated circuit that displays a constantly changing ID code. These statement describe: A. Security token B. USB control key C. Smart card D. Biometrics 22. A new technology that is used to authenticate users is one that plugs into the USB port and eliminates the need for a card reader. This item is called a: A. Biometric reader B. Smart card C. USB smart key D. Security token 23. The use of the smart card or security tokens is referred to as a two factor authorization because: A. It is based on something the user has, the token or card, and something the user knows, the password.

B. It requires that the user is granted the card / token in a secure environment and that the user actually uses the card / token.

C. It requires that the user has two different authorizations: (1) to receive the card / token, and (2) to use the card / token.

D. It requires the use the card / token to (1) login to the system and (2) access the applications.

24. This type of authentication uses some unique physical characteristic of the user to identify the user and allow the appropriate access to the system.

A. Nonrepudiation card B. Biometric device C. Configuration table D. Computer log

25. Which of the following is not an example of physical characteristics being used in biometric devices?

A. Retina scans B. Fingerprint matching C. Social security number D. Voice verification 25a1. This complete records of all dates, times, and uses for each person is referred to as a(n): A. User password B. Computer log C. User profile D. Configuration table 25a2. This term means that a user cannot deny any particular act that he or she did on the IT system is referred to as: A. Configuration B. Proliferation C. Verification D. Nonrepudiation 26. There are a number of reasons that all access to the IT system be logged - which includes a computer log of all dates, times, and uses for each user. Which of the following is not one of the reasons for the log to be maintained?

A. Any login or use abnormalities can be examined in more detail to determine any weaknesses in the login procedures.

B. A user cannot deny any particular act that he or she did on the system.

C. To establish nonrepudiation of sales transactions by a customer.

D. To establish a user profile.

27. This should be established for every authorized user and determines each user’s access level to hardware, software, and data according to the individual’s job responsibilities.

A. User profile B. User password C. User ID D. User log 28. This table contains a list of valid, authorized users and the access level granted to each one.

A. User table B. Authority table C. Authentication table D. Configuration table 29. The IT system includes this type of table for software, hardware, and application programs that contain the appropriate set-up and security settings.

A. Configuration table B. Authentication table C. User table D. Authority table 30. Nonrepudiation means that: A. A user is not authorized to change configuration settings.

B. A user is not allowed access to the authority tables.

C. A user can prevent the unauthorized flow of data in both directions.

D. A user cannot deny any particular act that he or she did on the IT system.

31. Hardware, software, or a combination of both that is designed to block unauthorized access to an IT system is called: A. Computer log B. Biometric device C. Firewall D. Security token 32. The process of converting data into secret codes referred to cipher text is called: A. Deciphering B. Encryption C. Nonrepudiation D. Enciphering 33. This form of encryption uses a single encryption key that must be used to encrypt data and also to decode the encrypted data.

A. Multiple encryption B. Public key encryption C. Wired encryption D. Symmetric encryption 34. This form of encryption uses a public key, which is known by everyone, to encrypt data, and a private key, to decode the data.

A. Multiple encryption B. Public key encryption C. Wired encryption D. Symmetric encryption 35. This encryption method, used with wireless network equipment, is symmetric in that both the sending and receiving network nodes must use the same encryption key. It has been proven to be susceptible to hacking.

A. Wired Equivalency Privacy (WEP) B. Wired Encryption Policy (WEP) C. Wireless Protection Access (WPA) D. Wired Privacy Authentication (WPA) 36. This encryption method requests connection to the network via an access point and that point then requests the use identity and transmits that identity to an authentication server, substantially authenticating the computer and the user.

A. Wired Equivalency Privacy (WEP) B. Wired Encryption Provider (WEP) C. Wireless Provider Authentication (WPA) D. Wireless Protection Access (WPA) 37. This security feature, used on wireless networks, is a password that is passed between the sending and receiving nodes of a wireless network.

A. Secure sockets layer B. Service set identifier C. Wired provided access D. Virtual private network 38. Authorized employees may need to access the company IT system from locations outside the organization. These employees should connect to the IT system using this type of network.

A. Secure socket network

B. Service set identifier C. Virtual private network D. Wireless encryption portal 39. The type of network uses tunnels, authentication, and encryption within the Internet network to isolate Internet communications so that unauthorized users cannot access or use certain data.

A. Residential user network B. Service internet parameter network C. Virtual private network D. Virtual public network 40. This communication protocol is built into web server and browser software that encrypts data transferred on that website. You can determine if a website uses this technology by looking at the URL. A. Secure sockets layer B. Service security line C. Secure encryption network D. Secure service layer 41. Which of the following URL’s would indicate that the site is using browser software that encrypts data transferred to the website?

A. shttp://misu B. https://misu C. http://smisus D. https://smisus 42. A self-replicating piece of program code that can attach itself to other programs and data and perform malicious actions is referred to as a(n): A. Worm B. Encryption C. Virus D. Infection 43. A small piece of program code that attaches to the computer’s unused memory space and replicates itself until the system becomes overloaded and shuts down is called: A. Infections B. Virus C. Serum D. Worm 44. This type of software should be used to avoid destruction of data programs and to maintain operation of the IT system. It continually scans the system for viruses and worms and either deletes or quarantines t hem.

A. Penicillin Software B. Antivirus Software C. Infection Software D. Internet Software 45. The process of proactively examining the IT system for weaknesses that can be exploited by hackers, viruses, or malicious employees is called: A. Intrusion detection B. Virus management C. Vulnerability assessment D. Penetration testing

46. This method of monitoring exposure can involve either manual testing or automated software tools. The method can identify weaknesses before they become network break-ins and attempt to fix these weaknesses before they are exploited.

A. Vulnerability assessment B. Intrusion detection C. Encryption examination D. Penetration testing 47. Specific software tools that monitor data flow within a network and alert the IT staff to hacking attempts or other unauthorized access attempts is called: A. Security detection B. Vulnerability assessment C. Penetration testing D. Intrusion detection 48.

The process of legitimately attempting to hack into an IT system to find whether weaknesses can be exploited by unauthorized hackers is referred to as: A. Vulnerability assessment B. Intrusion detection C. Penetration testing D. Worm detection

49. The function of this committee is to govern the overall development and operation of IT systems.

A. IT Budget Committee B. IT Audit Committee C. IT Governance Committee D. IT Oversight Committee 50. Which of the following would normally not be found on the IT Governance Committee?

A. Computer input operators B. Chief Executive Officer C. Chief Information Officer D. Heads of business units 51. The IT Governance Committee has several important responsibilities. Which of the following is not normally one of those responsibilities?

A. Align IT investments to business strategies.

B. Oversee and prioritize changes to IT systems.

C. Develop, monitor, and review security procedures.

D. Investing excess IT funds in long-term investments.

52. The functional responsibilities within an IT system must include the proper segregation of duties. Which of the following positions is not one of the duties that is to be segregated from the others?

A. Systems analysts B. Chief information officer C. Database administrator D. Operations personnel 53. The systematic steps undertaken to plan, prioritize, authorize, oversee, test, and implement large-scale changes to the IT system are called: A. IT Governance System B. Operations Governance C. System Development Life Cycle

D. Systems Analysis 54. General controls for an IT system include: A. Controls over the physical environment only.

B. Controls over the physical access only.

C. Controls over the physical environment and over the physical access.

D. None of the above.

55X. A battery to maintain power in the event of a power outage meant to keep the computer running for several minutes after the power outage is an example of a(n): A. Uninterruptible power supply B. System power supply C. Emergency power supply D. Battery power supply 56. An alternative power supply that provides electrical power in the event that a main source is lost is called: A. Uninterruptible power supply B. System power supply C. Emergency power supply D. Battery power supply 57. Large-scale IT systems should be protected by physical access controls. Which of the following is not listed as one of those controls?

A. Limited access to computer rooms.

B. Video surveillance equipment.

C. Locked storage of backup data.

D. Encryption of passwords.

58. A proactive program for considering risks to the business continuation and the development of plans and procedures to reduce those risks is referred to as: A. Redundant business planning B. Business continuity planning C. Unnecessary in the current safe environments D. Emergency backup power 59. Two or more computer network or data servers that can run identical processes or maintain the same data are called: A. Emergency power supply B. Uninterruptible power source C. Redundant servers D. Business continuity planning 60. Many IT systems have redundant data storage such that two or more disks are exact mirror images. This is accomplished by the use of: A. Redundant arrays of independent disks B. Redundant mirror image disks C. Mirror image independent disks D. Redundant mirror image dependent disks 61X. The AICPA Trust Services Principles categorizes IT controls and risks into categories. Which of the following is not one of those categories?

A. Confidentiality B. Security

C. Recovery D. Availability 62. The establishment of log-in procedures can help prevent or lessen security risks and are referred to as: A. Reactive controls B. Preventive controls C. Availability controls D. Confidentiality controls 63. Availability risks, related to the authentication of users would include: A. Shutting down the system and shutting down programs B. Altering data and repudiating transactions C. Stealing data and recording nonexistent transactions D. Sabotaging systems and destroying data 64. The accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of the process in IT systems is referred to as: A. Availability Risks B. Security Risks C. Confidentiality Risks D. Processing Integrity Risks 65. The software that controls the basic input and output activities of the computer are called: A. Operating System B. Application Software C. Data Base Management System D. Electronic Data Interchange 66. Unauthorized access to the operating system would allow the unauthorized user to: A. Browse disk files for sensitive data or passwords B. Alter data through the operating system C. Alter application programs D. All of the above 66a1. A large disk storage for accounting and operating data is referred to as a(n): A. Operating system B. Application software C. Database D. Binary monetary system 66a2. The database is an exposure area, and is susceptible to many types of risk. Which of the following is not one of those risk areas?

A. Hacking B. Security C. Availability D. Confidentiality 67. A software system that manages the interface between many users and the database is called: A. Database security system B. Database management system C. Database binary monetary system D. Database assessment 68. A computer network covering a small geographic area, which, in most cases, are within a single building or a local

group of buildings is called a: A. Land area network B. Local access network C. Local area network D. Locality arena network 69. A group of LANs connected to each other to cover a wider geographic area is called a: A. Connected local network B. Wide area network C. Connected wide area D. Wide geographic network 70. A popular activity is to find a company whose network signal bleeds outside the building to the sidewalk around it.

Abusers of this network then make identifiable chalk marks on the sidewalks so that others can find the network access. This process is referred to as: A. Chalkwalking B. Netwalking C. Network Warring D. Warchalking 71. The work arrangement where employees work from home using some type of network connection to the office is referred to as: A. Telecommuting B. Telemarketing C. Network Employment D. Electronic working 72. The company-to-company transfer of standard business documents in electronic form is called: A. facsimile Transmission B. PDF Interchange C. Electronic Data Interchange D. Tele-transmission 72A1. Companies who provide mobile devices for employees, normally has a policy that allows the company’s IT professional to remove company data and applications from the mobile device. This process is referred to as: A. Cloud exchange B. Operations removal C. Data integrity D. Remove wipe 72A2. Many companies use a public cloud computing model for software, data storage or both. Which of the following is an advantage to the public cloud computing model?

A. Expanded access B. Cost savings C. Scalability D. All of the above are advantages

72A3. A company using public cloud computing has the ability to purchase new capacity from the cloud provider, instead of buyer servers or new data storage. This ability is referred to as: A. Scalability B. Expanded access C. Infrastructure availability

D. Provider expansion 72A4. The outsourcing of IT infrastructure (hardware), data, and software to a third party describes: A. Scalability B. Public Cloud Computing C. Expansion D. Remote Access 72A5. Risks associated with public cloud computing include all of the following, except: A. Security B. Availability C. Processing Integrity D. Scalability 72A6. To avoid the risks associated with a public cloud, many companies establish their own computing cloud structure.

The cloud is developed, owned, maintained, and used by the user company. This cloud is referred to as: A. Company cloud B. User cloud C. Private cloud D. Internal cloud 73. The software that accomplishes end user tasks such as work processing, spreadsheets, and accounting functions is called: A. Operating Software B. Database Software C. Application Software D. Management Software 74. Internal controls over the input, processing, and output of accounting applications are called: A. Accounting Controls B. Application Controls C. Network Controls D. LAN Controls 75. This type of control is intended to ensure the accuracy and completeness of data input procedures and the resulting data: A. Input Controls B. Internal Controls C. Processing Controls D. Output Controls 76. This type of control is intended to ensure the accuracy and completeness of processing that occurs in accounting applications: A. Input Controls B. Internal Controls C. Processing Controls D. Output Controls 77. This type of control is intended to help ensure the accuracy, completeness, and security of outputs that result from application processing: A. Input Controls B. Internal Controls C. Processing Controls

D. Output Controls 78. The process of converting data from human readable form to computer readable form is referred to as: A. Transcription B. Data Input C. Keyboarding D. Scanning 79. Which of the following is NOT one of the types of input controls?

A. Source document controls B. Programmed edit checks C. Confidentiality check D. Control totals and reconciliation 80. The paper form used to capture and record the original data of an accounting transaction is called a(n): A. Input control B. Source document C. Sales invoice D. General ledger 81. Which of the following items is not one of the source document controls?

A. Validity check B. Form design C. Form authorization and control D. Retention of source documents 82. The process where the details of individual transactions at each stage of the business process can be recreated in order to establish whether proper accounting procedures for the transaction were performed is called: A. Source document reconciliation B. Range check C. Validity verification D. Audit trail 83. The procedures to collect and prepare source documents are termed: A. Input validation procedures B. Form authorization procedures C. Data preparation procedures D. Document retention procedures 84. The data preparation procedures are to be well-defined so that employees will be sure of: A. Which forms to use B. When to use them C. Where to route them D. All of the above 85. Field check, limit check, range check and sequence check are all examples of: A. Input Validation Checks B. Source Document Controls C. Control Reconciliation D. Application Controls 86. This type of input validation check examines a field to ensure that the data entry in the field is valid compared with a preexisting list of acceptable values.

A. B. C. D.

Field Check Completeness Check Validity Check Range Check

87. This type of input validation check assesses the critical fields in an input screen to make sure that a value is in those fields.

A. Field Check B. Completeness Check C. Range Check D. Limit Check 88. This type of input check ensures that the batch of transactions is sorted in order, but does not help to find the missing transactions.

A. Completeness Check B. Range Check C. Self-checking Digit Check D. Sequence Check 89. An extra digit added to a coded identification number, determined by a mathematical algorithm is called a: A. Coded Digit Check B. Self-Checking Digit Check C. Sequence Check D. Run to Run Check 90. Which of the following is NOT one of the types of control totals?

A. Digit Count B. Record Count C. Batch Totals D. Hash Totals 91. The totals of fields that have no apparent logical reason to be added are called: A. Record Totals B. Digit Totals C. Batch Totals D. Hash Totals 92. These controls are intended to prevent, detect, or correct errors that occur during the processing of an application.

A. Application Controls B. Source Document Controls C. Processing Controls D. Input Controls 93. A primary objective of output controls would be: A. Manage the safekeeping of source documents B. Assure the accuracy and completeness of the output C. Ensure that the input data is accurate D. Prevention and detection of processing errors 94. The responsibility of management to safeguard assets and funds entrusted to them by the owners of an organization is referred to as: A. Stewardship Responsibility

B. IT System Controls C. Application Controls D. Internal Controls 94A1. In addition to fraud, there are many kinds of unethical behaviors related to computers. Which of the following is one of those behaviors?

A. Misuse of confidential customer information B. Theft of data, such as credit card information, by hackers C. Employee use of the IT system hardware and software for personal use or personal gain D. All of the above.

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 4 – MULTIPLE CHOICE: 14. D 28. B 42. C 15. A 29. A 43. D 16. B 30. D 44. B 17. C 31. C 45. C 18. D 32. B 46. A 19. A 33. D 47. D 20. B 34. B 48. C 21. C 35. A 49. C 22. D 36. D 50. A 23. A 37. B 51. D 24. B 38. C 52. B 25. C 39. C 53. C 26. D 40. A 54. C 27. A 41. B 55. A

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

C D B C A C B A D A D B C B

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - NEW QUESTIONS - CHAPTER 4 - MULTIPLE CHOICE: 13A1. A 25A1. B 72A1. D 72A4. B 15A1. C 25A2. D 72A2. D 72A5. D 15A2. B 66A1. C 72A3. A

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

D A C C B A C D B C B A D C

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

D A C B D B A D C B A

72A6. C 94A1. D

TEST BANK - CHAPTER 4 - TRUE / FALSE 95. If a company’s IT system fails, it would have little or no effect on the company’s operations.

FALSE: IT systems have become so critical that a company would hardly be able to operate if the IT system failed.

96. It is necessary for students and accountants to understand the types of threats that may affect an accounting system, so that the threats can be avoided.

FALSE: ...., so that the threats can be minimized.

97. It is important for accountants to consider possible threats to the IT system and to know how to implement controls to try to prevent those threats from becoming reality.

TRUE 98. General controls apply to the IT accounting system and are not restricted to any particular accounting application.

TRUE 99. The use of passwords to allow only authorized users to log into an IT system is an example of an application control.

FALSE: This is an example of a general control.

100. Application controls apply to the IT accounting system and are not restricted to any particular accounting application.

FALSE: This describes the general controls.

101. The use of passwords to allow only authorized users to log into an IT system is an example of a general control.

TRUE 102. General controls are used specifically in accounting applications to control inputs, processing, and outputs.

FALSE: This is a description of application controls 103. Application controls are intended to ensure that inputs and processing are accurate and complete and that outputs are properly distributed, controlled, and disposed.

TRUE 104X. A validity check is an example of an input application control.

TRUE 105. To increase the effectiveness of login restrictions, user Ids must be unique for each user.

TRUE 106. To increase the effectiveness of login restrictions, passwords must be unique for each user.

FALSE: The user ID is described by the sentence.

107. Biometric devises use unique physical characteristics to identify users. The most common method used is retina scans.

FALSE: The most common method used is fingerprint matching.

108. There are a number of methods described that are intended to limit log-ins exclusively to authorized users. The only method that is foolproof is the biometric devices.

FALSE: None of the methods is foolproof.

109. The user ID and password for a particular user should not allow access to the configuration tables unless that user is authorized to change the configuration settings.

TRUE 110. It is necessary for an IT system to be networked to an external internet to be open to opportunities for unauthorized access.

FALSE: If networked to an internal network it may be open to unauthorized access.

111. Unauthorized access is a concern when an IT system is networked to either internal networks or the Internet.

TRUE 112. A firewall can prevent the unauthorized flow of data in both directions.

TRUE 113. Deciphering renders data useless to those who do not have the correct encryption key.

FALSE: Encryption ..... (not deciphering).

114. Discussing the strength of encryption refers to how difficult it would be to break the code.

TRUE 115. The longer the encryption key is bits, the more difficult it will be to break the code.

TRUE 116. The longest encryption keys are 128 bits.

FALSE: 256 bits.

117. Encryption is more important for dial-up networks than for wireless networks.

FALSE 118. Using a unique service set identifier (SSID) makes it more difficult for an outsider to access the wireless network.

TRUE

119. The VPN, virtual private network, uses the internet and is therefore not truly private – but is virtually private.

TRUE 120. Once an organization has set up an effective system to prevent unauthorized access to the IT system, it is not necessary to continually monitor the vulnerability of that system.

FALSE: continually monitoring and testing the vulnerability of the IT system is essential.

121. It is important to understand that the IT governance committee delegates many of its duties by the policies that it develops.

TRUE 122. The most important factor in controlling IT systems is the maintenance of the vulnerability assessment activities.

FALSE: ...the competence of the personnel.

123. In a properly segregated IT system, no single person or department should develop computer programs and also have access to data that is commensurate with operations personnel.

TRUE 124. It is proper that the database administrator develop and write programs.

FALSE 125. To the extent possible, IT systems should be installed in locations away from any location likely to be affected by natural disasters.

TRUE 126. It is not necessary to control the humidity and temperature in the location where the computer system is housed.

FALSE 127. Disaster recovery planning is a proactive plan to protect IT systems and the related data.

FALSE: ... reactive plan ...

128. Each organization has to decide which combination of IT controls is most suitable for its IT system, making sure that the benefits of each control outweigh its costs.

TRUE 129. Controls will help to reduce risks, but it is impossible to completely eliminate risks.

TRUE 130. It is possible to completely eliminate risks with the proper controls.

FALSE 131. The most popular type of type of unauthorized access is probably by a person known to the organization.

FALSE 132. Employees who hack into computer networks are often more dangerous because of their knowledge of company operations.

TRUE 133. It is necessary to identify the “entry points” in the IT system that make an organization susceptible to IT risks.

TRUE

134. Access to the operating system will not allow hackers access to the application software or the database.

FALSE 135. Controlling access to the operating system is critical because that access opens access to any data or program within the system.

TRUE 136. A database is often less open to unauthorized access than the physical, paper records, because the database has fewer access points.

FALSE 137. The workstations and the network cabling and connections represent spots were an intruder could tap into the network for unauthorized access.

TRUE 138. In a wireless network, signals are transmitted through the air rather than over cables. Anyone who want to gain access to the network would need to know the password to access these “air-borne” signals.

FALSE 139. The use of dual firewalls - one between the internet and the web server and one between the web server and the organization’s network - can help prevent unauthorized from accessing the organization’s internal network of computers.

TRUE 140. Telecommuting workers cause two sources of risk exposures for their organizations - the network equipment and cabling in addition to the teleworker’s computer - with only “entry-point” being teleworker’s computer.

FALSE 141X. Many IT systems do not use source documents; the input is automatic.

TRUE 141A1. A computer network coving a small geographic area is referred to as a LAN. TRUE 141A2. One of the sources of risk exposure related to telecommuting workers is that the company’s network equipment and cabling becomes an entry point for hackers and unauthorized users.

TRUE 141A3. The only risk related to the entry points of telecommuting workers is the interaction risk.

FALSE: the risks are security, confidentiality, availability, and processing integrity.

141A4. If an employee’s personal smart phone or tablet is lost or stolen, the company has the right to apply a remote wipe, to remove any company data.

FALSE: this would apply to company phones and tablets.

141A5. Many companies use a public cloud computing model for storage only.

FALSE: software and storage are both part of the public cloud computing model.

141A6. Scalability, related to public cloud computing, refers to the fact that as a company can easily purchase new capacity from the cloud provider.

TRUE 141A7. One of the advantages of private cloud computing is expanded access.

TRUE 141A8. Public and Private cloud computing both have the benefits of reduced infrastructure and reduced costs.

FALSE: only the public cloud computing has the benefits listed.

142. If no source documents are used by the IT system, then the general controls, such as computer logging of transactions, become less important.

FALSE ... more important.

143. The group of controls referred to as Source Document Controls does not include form design.

FALSE 144. The closer the source document matches the input screen, the easier it will be for the data entry employee to complete the input screen without errors.

TRUE 145. The form authorization and control includes the requirement that source documents should be prenumbered and are to be used in sequence.

TRUE 146. Once the data from the source documents have been keyed into the computer, the source document can be destroyed.

FALSE 147. With the proper training of employees and the adequate controls, it would be possible to eliminate all errors.

FALSE 148. To verify the accuracy of application software, an organization should be sure the software is tested before it is implemented and must regularly test it after implementation.

TRUE 149. An organization must maintain procedures to protect the output from unauthorized access in the form of written guidelines and procedures for output distribution.

TRUE 150. Management must discourage illegal behavior by employees, such misuse of computers and theft through the computer systems.

FALSE: Although unethical, the misuse of computers is not always considered to be illegal.

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 4 – TRUE / FALSE: 95. F 105. T 115. T 96. F 106. F 116. F 97. T 107. F 117. F 98. T 108. F 118. T 99. F 109. T 119. T 100. F 110. F 120. F 101. T 111. T 121. T 102. F 112. T 122. F 103. T 113. F 123. T 104. T 114. T 124. F

125.

126.

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134.

T F F T T F F T T F

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142.

143.

144.

T F T F T F T F F T

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147.

148.

149.

150.

T F F T T F

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 4 - NEW QUESTIONS - TRUE/FALSE 141A1. T 141A3. F 141A5. F 141A7. T 141A2. T 141A4. F 141A6. T 141A8. F

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 5: Corporate Governance and the Sarbanes-Oxley Act

NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

End of Chapter Questions: 1. Which of the following is not considered a component of corporate governance?

A. Board of Directors Oversight B. IRS Audits C. Internal Audits D. External Audits 2. Good corporate governance is achieved when the interests of which of the following groups are balanced?

A. Internal auditors and external auditors B. Shareholders and regulators C. Shareholders, the corporation, and the community D. Regulators and the community 3. Over time, corporate leaders establish trust by being active leaders, stressing integrity, clarity, and consistency.

This is referred to as: A. Internal control B. Corporate governance C. Fiduciary duty D. Tone at the top 4. Corporate governance is primarily concerned with: A. Enhancing the trend toward more women serving on boards of directors.

B. Promoting an increase in hostile takeovers.

C. Promoting the legitimacy of corporate charters.

D. Emphasizing the relative roles, rights, and accountability of a company’s stakeholders.

5. The governing body responsible for establishing the COSO framework for internal controls evaluations is the: A. Treadway Commission.

B. SEC. C. PCAOB. D. FASB. 6. When financial information is presented properly and its correctness is verifiable, it is: A. Transparent.

B. Compliant.

C. Accurate.

D. Accountable.

7.Which of the following nonaudit services may be performed by auditors for a public-company audit client?

A. IT consulting regarding the general ledger system for a newly acquired division.

B. Programming assistance on the new division’s general ledger system.

C. Human resource consulting regarding personnel for the new division.

D. Income tax return preparation for the new division.

8. Which of the following is not true regarding the requirements for reporting on internal controls under Section 404 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002?

A. Management must accept responsibility for the establishment and maintenance of internal controls and provide its assessment of their effectiveness.

B. The independent auditor must issue a report on management’s assessment of internal controls.

C. Management must identify the framework used for evaluating its internal controls.

D. Management must achieve a control environment that has no significant deficiencies.

9. In the corporate governance chain of command, the audit committee is accountable to: A. The company’s vendors and other creditors.

B. Management and employees.

C. Governing bodies such as the SEC and PCAOB. D. The external auditors.

10. Section 806 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act is often referred to as the whistle-blower protection provision of the Act because: A. It offers stock ownership to those who report instances of wrongdoing.

B. It specifies that whistelblowers must be terminated so as to avoid retaliation.

C. It protects whistleblowers’ jobs and prohibits retaliation.

D. It provides criminal penalties for the alteration of destruction of documents.

11. Which of the following is true regarding the post-Sarbanes-Oxley role of the corporate leader?

A. More emphasis is placed on strategic planning and less emphasis on financial information.

B. The corporate leader must be more in tune with IT to provide corporate governance solutions.

C. The corporate leader must be more focused on merger and acquisition targets.

D. The corporate leader tends to be less involved with the board of directors.

12. Many corporate frauds involve: A. Managers soliciting assistance from their subordinates.

B. A small deceptive act that intensifies into criminal behavior.

C. An earnings management motive.

D. All of the above.

ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS 1 - 12 (FROM THE TEXTBOOK) 1. B 5. A 9. C 2. C 6. C 10. C 3. D 7. D 11. B 4. D 8. D 12. D TEST BANK - CHAPTER 5 - MULTIPLE CHOICE 12A1. This company is well known for its best selling brands such as Jif® peanut butter, but is also recognized in the area of corporate governance: A. Unilever B. Johnson and Johnson C. Kraft Foods D. Proctor & Gamble Company 12A2. P&G’s reputation as a leader in corporate governance is based on which of the following?

A. Active and diligent board of directors that provide effective oversign and interactoin with management and investors.

B. Strong in ternal controls protect the company’s assets and information, and ensure compliance with applicable regulations, accounting standards, and disclosure requirements

C. Stressing a high rate of return to the stakeholders.

D. A code of conduct sets forth high ethical standards for all employees.

13.Which of the following groups would use factors such as those that affect the supply and demand of corporate leaders and tend to emphasize the importance of motivating leaders through the use of incentive programs as part of their definition of corporate governance?

A. Financiers B. Economists C. Accountants D. Lawyers 14. This group of business would tend to emphasize the role of corporate leaders to provide a good rate of return.

A. Financiers B. Economists C. Accountants D. Lawyers 15X. This group of business would tend to emphasize the role of corporate leaders as providing effective internal controls, accurate records, and required disclosures.

A. Financiers B. Economists C. Accountants D. Lawyers 16. A system of checks and balances where a company’s leadership is held accountable for building shareholder value and creating confidence in the financial reporting process is called: A. Internal Control B. Tone at the Top C. Code of Conduct D. Corporate Governance 17. Key ingredients in the concept of corporate governance include: A. Motivation of leaders B. Providing high rates of return and low costs of capital C. Building value and creating confidence D. Efficient use of resources 18. The set of values and behaviors in place for the corporate leaders is referred to as: A. Corporate Governance B. Tone at the Top C. Internal Control D. Stakeholders 19. There are a number of different participants in the corporate governance process. These participants are referred to as: A. Leaders B. Managers C. Shareholders D. Stakeholders 20. All of the different people who have some form of involvement or interest in the business are referred to as: A. Employees

B. Stakeholders C. Executives D. Shareholders 21. The group of people who participate in or with the business in a manner that puts them in a position of financial interest or risk, or is otherwise significant to the overall strategies and operations of a business are called: A. Managers B. Board of Directors C. Stakeholders D. Audit Committee 22. The internal stakeholders would not include: A. Creditors B. Shareholders C. Internal Auditors D. Audit Committee 23. The internal stakeholders who own a portion of the corporation are called: A. Directors B. Shareholders C. Audit Board D. Executives 23A1. This group of stakeholders are employees of the corporation who help management establish and monitor internal controls by continuously looking for red flags.

A. Audit Committee B. Executive Branch C. Board of Directors D. Internal Auditors 23A2. This group of internal stakeholders carry out the day-to-day operations and administrative functions of the company.

A. Management B. Employees C. Board of Directors D. Executive Branch 24. This group of stakeholders should have the highest level of authority related to the company’s objectives and strategies. Elected by the shareholders, it’s role is to align the interests of the shareholders and management.

A. Audit Committee B. Internal Auditors C. Board of Directors D. Executive Branch 25. This group of stakeholders is responsible for financial matters, including reporting, controls, and the audit function.

A. Audit Committee B. External Auditors C. Board of Directors D. Internal Auditors 26X. Which of the following properly identifies the top management level of the management team?

A. Guide the work of a number of employees doing similar tasks within a department or group.

B. Coordinate a number of different departments within the company by overseeing supervisors.

C. Made up of the company’s president and chief executive officer, in addition to other executive officers.

D. Carry out the day-to-day operations and administrative functions of the company.

27. This group of stakeholders help management establish and monitor the internal controls for the company. They rotate throughout the company, reviewing policies, procedures, and reports in each area to determine whether or not they are working as planned.

A. External Auditors B. Internal Auditors C. Audit Committee D. Top Management 28. People and organizations outside the corporation who have a financial interest in the corporation are referred to as: A. External Auditors B. External Stakeholders C. Securities and Exchange Commission D. Treadway Commission 29. Which of the following groups is NOT considered to be an external stakeholder?

A. Audit Committee B. External Auditors C. Governing Bodies D. Customers 30. The purpose of this group of stakeholders is to add credibility to the financial statements. They are responsible for evaluating whether or not the financial statements have been prepared according to the established accounting rules.

A. Internal Auditors B. Governing Bodies C. Audit Committee D. External Auditors 31X. The governing group responsible for establishing applicable financial accounting standards in the United States is: A. COSO B. SEC C. FASB D. IASB 32X. This governing group responsible for establishing applicable financial accounting standards globally is: A. COSO B. SEC C. FASB D. IASB 33. This governing group is the federal regulatory agency responsible for protecting the interests of investors by making sure that public companies provide complete and transparent financial information: A. COSO B. SEC C. FASB D. IASB 34. This governing group created the framework for internal controls evaluations:

A. B. C. D.

COSO SEC FASB IASB

35. It is necessary that certain stakeholders remain independent related to the corporation’s financial reporting.

Which of the following correctly states the stakeholders that should remain independent?

A. Internal Auditors, Audit Committee and External Auditors B. Audit Committee and Internal Auditors C. External Auditors and Audit Committee D. Both Internal and External Auditors 36. The system of checks and balances in corporate governance includes several interrelated functions. Which of the following is not one of those functions?

A. Management Oversight B. Financial Stewardship C. Ethical Conduct D. Governing Bodies 37. The concept that encompasses the policies and procedures in place to lead the directorship of the company is called: A. Financial Stewardship B. Management Oversight C. Ethical Conduct D. Internal Controls and Compliance 38. Which of the following is not typical relationship in an organization chart?

A. Supervisors report to managers B. Managers report to officers C. Managers report to supervisors D. Officers report to the board of directors 39. According to the authors, the downfall of Enron involved poor management oversight, and included the following criticism(s) of the board of directors: A. Board meetings were few and brief B. They did not challenge the company’s aggressive accounting policies C. Board allowed senior executives to be exempted from the company’s policies regarding conflicts of interest D. All of the above 40. The correctness of the financial information presented is called: A. Accuracy B. Transparency C. Stewardship D. Fiduciary 40A1. This characteristic of financial information is concerned with avoiding omissions of important information: A. Accuracy B. Completeness C. Transparency D. Stewardship 41X. This characteristic of financial information, relates to how clearly the information can be understood. It requires a straightforward and consistent approach.

A. B. C. D.

Accuracy Financial Stewardship Fiduciary Duty Transparency

42X. Companies that emphasize accuracy, transparency, and completeness: A. Will have internal controls in place to make sure that their financial reports do not contradict each other.

B. Will have fewer opportunities for errors or fraud.

C. Will be more likely to prevent opportunities for wrongdoers to cross the line into fraud.

D. All of the above.

43.A special obligation of trust, especially with respect to the finances of another, is called: A. Financial Stewardship B. Fiscal Transparency C. Fiduciary Duty D. Internal Controls 44. Within the corporate environment, this term means that management has been entrusted with the power to manage the assets of the corporation, which are owned by the shareholders.

A. Fiscal Transparency B. Fiduciary C. Stewardship D. Accuracy 45. The manner in which an agent handles the affairs and/or finances of another is referred to as: A. Financial Stewardship B. Fiscal Transparency C. Accuracy D. Fiduciary 46. The most important factors for success in a leader in fulfilling the duty of financial stewardship are: A. Financial Stewardship and Fiscal Transparency B. Financial Accuracy and Internal Control C. Fiduciary Duty and Ethical Conduct D. Good Communication and Open Dialogue 47.In order for an environment to thrive where corporate leaders can be good financial stewards: A. Well-defined rules and procedures must be in place for decision making.

B. It is necessary to consider objectives at the starting point.

C. Any decision made must be in the best interest of the shareholders.

D. All of the above.

48. The act of manipulating financial information in such a way as to shed more favorable light on the company or its management than is actually warranted is referred to as: A. Financial accountability B. Earnings management C. Income performance D. Financial stewardship 49. Which of the following is not one of the typical earnings management techniques?

A. Early revenue recognition B. Falsification of customers C. Creation of non-existent vendors

D. Early shipment of products 50. According to the authors, the origin of the corporate governance concept in the United States coincides with: A. The passage of Sarbanes-Oxley Act B. The creation of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board C. The establishment of the SEC and enactment of the securities laws D. The Treadway Commission and the ultimate creation of COSO 51. The Securities Act of 1933 requires: A. The implementation of a proper climate of internal controls B. The full disclosure of financial information through the filing of registration statements before the securities can be sold C. Ongoing disclosures for registered companies, in addition to the regulation stock exchanges, brokers, and dealers.

D. The legislation enacted to combat deceptive accounting practices by banks and financial institutions 52.The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 requires: A. The implementation of a proper climate of internal controls B. The full disclosure of financial information through the filing of registration statements before the securities can be sold C. Ongoing disclosures for registered companies, in addition to the regulation stock exchanges, brokers, and dealers.

D. The legislation enacted to combat deceptive accounting practices by banks and financial institutions 53. The establishment of the SEC and the enactment of securities laws were responses to: A. The stock market crash of 1929 and the Great Depression of the 1930s B. Market pressures during the 1980s C. Increased inflation and cost of capital during the 1970s D. High-profile accounting scandals in the early 2000s 53A1. The passage of this act prohibited briger payments associated with business transactions, and addressed the necessity for internal controls over financial reporting: A. Sarbanes-Oxley Act B. US Patriot Act C. Security and Exchange Act D. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act 53A2. During the early 2000s, legislation was passed to provide for improved financial systems for the financial services industry. This legislation included: A. Sarbanes-Oxley Act B. US Patriot Act C. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act D. Security Exchange Act

54. This legislation was enacted in an effort to curb the corruption and accounting blunders that had been discovered in connection with the bankruptcies of corporate giants, such as WorldCom. A. Securities Exchange Act B. US Patriot Act C. Sarbanes-Oxley Act D. Securities Act 55. The PCAOB was established to carry the provisions of the: A. Sarbanes-Oxley Act B. Securities Act C. US Patriot Act D. Securities Exchange Act 56. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act relates to: A. Private companies and auditors of public companies B. Public companies C. Auditors of public companies and public companies D. Auditors of private companies 57. Auditors of public companies are now prohibited from providing non-audit services to their audit clients as a result of which section of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act: A. Section 201 B. Section 301 C. Section 302 D. Section 401 58. Title II of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act relates to auditor independence and includes items such as: A. Requiring the lead partner on a public company audit to rotate off the engagement each year.

B. If an auditor is hired away from the audit firm to take a job with the client, there must be a cooling off period of three years if the new job is in a key accounting role.

C. If the auditor’s involvement with the design of the client’s accounting information system and expands into areas of IT system development, then the auditor is considered to have impaired independence.

D. Auditors of public companies are now allowed to provide non-audit services to their audit clients.

59. Which of the following is not considered to be a non-audit service?

A. Preparation of accounting records and financial statements B. Investment advisory, investment banking, or brokerage services C. External auditing services D. Internal audit outsourcing services 60X. This section of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires that public companies have an audit committee that is a subcommittee of the board of directors.

A. Section 201 B. Section 301 C. Section 401 D. Section 404

61. This section of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires that the CEO, CFO, and other responsible offices of the company submit a certified statement accompanying each annual and quarterly report acknowledging their responsibility for the contents of the reports and the underlying system of internal controls.

A. Section 301 B. Section 401 C. Section 302 D. Section 404 61A1. The certified statement, signed by the CEO, CFO, and other responsible offices, indicate their acceptable of the responsibilities. Those responsibilities include: A. The signing offices have reviewed the report in detail.

B. Based on the officer’s knowledge, the financial statements and related disclosures are fairly presented.

C. The signing officers are responsible for the establishment, maintenance, and effectiveness of internal controls.

D. All of the above.

62. This section of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires that there be disclosures in periodic reports disclosing any offbalance-sheet transactions, including obligations or arrangements that may impact the financial position of the company.

A. Section 201 B. Section 401 C. Section 906 D. Section 404 63. This section of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires management assessment and reporting of the company’s internal controls.

A. Section 404 B. Section 409 C. Section 301 D. Section 201 64. This section of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires that auditors include, as part of their audit procedures, an attestation to the internal control report prepared by management.

A. Section 404 B. Section 409 C. Section 301 D. Section 201 65. This section of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires that all public companies have in place a code of ethics covering its CFO and other key accounting officers. The code must include principles that advocate honesty and morat conduct, fairness in financial reporting, and compliance with applicable governmental rules and regulations.

A. Section 401 B. Section 404 C. Section 406 D. Section 409 66. The section of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act makes it a felony to knowingly alter, destroy, falsify, or conceal any records or documents with the intent to influence an investigation. This provision relates to both the company and its auditors.

A. Section 602 B. Section 802 C. Section 806 D. Section 409

67. Someone who reports instances of wrongdoing or assists in a fraud investigation is referred to as a(n): A. Ringer B. External Auditor C. Internal Auditor D. Whistleblower 68. This section of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act is referred to as the “whistleblower protection” provision.

A. Section 201 B. Section 306 C. Section 806 D. Section 1102 69X. Which of the following describes a change in management oversight as a result of Sarbanes-Oxley?

A. Management focus has gone from one of strategic decision making and risk management to overall accountability.

B. The board of directors and the audit committee have a lower level of accountability.

C. Members of upper management have the opportunity to focus on overall financial information and can leave the details to subordinates.

D. The jobs of management have been lightened as a result of the certification requirements.

70. Which of the following describes a change in internal controls and compliance as a result of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act? A. The corporate associates who are responsible for the development and maintenance of the accounting information system have become less important.

B. Although there are new management reporting requirements, the financial reporting has actually decreased.

C. The creation of new reporting requirements has created a large amount of extra work for accountants, IT departments, and executives.

D. A side effect of compliance with the internal control sections of the Act has resulted in a decrease in the amount of accounting information.

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 5 – MULTIPLE CHOICE: 13. B 25. A 37. B 14. A 26. C 38. C 15. C 27. B 39. D 16. D 28. B 40. A 17. C 29. A 41. D 18. B 30. D 42. D 19. D 31. C 43. C 20. B 32. D 44. B 21. C 33. B 45. A 22. A 34. A 46. D 23. B 35. C 47. D 24. C 36. D 48. B

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

C C B C A C A C A C C B

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 5 - NEW MULTIPLE CHOICE 12A1. D 23A1. D 40A1. B 53A2. B 12A2. C 23A2. B 53A1. D 61A1. D

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

C B A A C B D C A C

TEST BANK - CHAPTER 5 - TRUE / FALSE 71. Research indicates that companies who stress corporate governance tend to be rewarded with higher rates of return and a lower cost of capital.

TRUE 71A1. The rewards earned by leaders in corporate governance are minimal, and tend to be internal only.

FALSE 72. The high cost related to corporate governance far outweighs any of the related benefits.

FALSE 73. The purpose of corporate governance is to encourage the efficient use of resources and to require accountability of those resources.

TRUE 74. The various groups whose interests are related to corporate governance will generally have no conflicts with each other.

FALSE 75. In order to be considered a stakeholder in corporate governance, the participant must be external.

FALSE 75A1. An integral part of corporate governance is referred to as the tone at the top which refers to the set of values and behaviors in place for the corporate leaders TRUE 75A2. The tone at the top must be reinforced through the actions and behaviors of the corporate leaders, not the written policies.

FALSE 76. The management group tends to have an indirect impact on corporate governance, while the business community tends to have a direct affect.

FALSE 77. Even though shareholders are identified as internal stakeholders, they are often regarded as external stakeholders because of the lack of involvement.

TRUE 78. Top management is made up of managers who coordinate a number of different departments or groups within a company and lead the supervisors in their area of responsibility.

FALSE 79. The management team of a corporation is often divided into three layers – top management, middle management, and supervisors.

TRUE 80. The external auditors should approach every audit with an optimistic attitude which will help them to gain more cooperation from the employees within the organization.

FALSE 81. Even though the people and organizations within a community are not directly related to a corporation, they would still be considered one of the stakeholders.

TRUE 82. Internal auditors should not allow any financial connections to influence the decisions they make about the company’s financial statements or disclosures.

FALSE 83. Good management oversight involves leaders who are good communicators - responsive to both those above and below in the chain of command.

TRUE 83A1. The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) is the federal regulatory agency responsible for creating the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations.

FALSE 83A2. The Committee of Sponsoring Organizations was established by five different organizations that are influential in the practice of accounting, including the AICPA and the Financial Executives International.

TRUE 84X. The goal of corporate governance, with respect to internal controls and compliance, is to ensure that financial information is accurate, transparent, and complete.

TRUE 85. Maintaining effective internal controls and ensuring compliance is a six-step process which does not require continual monitoring.

FALSE 85A1. Good communication and open dialogue are undoubtedly the most important factors for a leader to successfully fulfill the duty of financial stewardshipo.

TRUE

86. Earnings management tends to have a snowball effect, which means that once it is started, it is necessary to continue the process in order to avoid a negative result.

TRUE 87. Earnings management is not unethical because it will result in a higher return for the shareholders.

FALSE 88. Because of its widespread relevance, ethical conduct is often valued as the most important part of corporate governance.

TRUE 89. Prior to the passage of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, an auditing firm was prohibited from providing non-audit services to their clients.

FALSE 90. Before the passage of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act it was common for auditors to perform many non-audit services for their customers.

TRUE 91. Non-audit services are now prohibited because of the potential to impair the auditor’s objectivity.

TRUE 92. Even though non-audit services are prohibited by Sarbanes-Oxley, the auditor may perform income tax services

for their audit clients if they are pre-approved by the CEO. FALSE 92A1. Auditors who perform non-audit services for their audit clients are likely to be placed in a position to audit their own work.

TRUE 92A2. Sarbanes-Oxley requires that the lead partner on a public company audit be rotated off the engagement after five years. This requirement is intended to improve impartiality.

TRUE 92A3. In order to avoid a conflict of interest, an auditor, who is hired away from the audit firm to take a job with a client, must take a cooling off period of one year, if the new job is in a key accounting role.

FALSE 93. The auditors report directly to the Board of Directors.

FALSE 94. The Audit Committee is responsible for hiring, firing, and overseeing the audit firm and serving as the liaison between the audit firm and management.

TRUE 95X. In order to remain independent, members of the audit committee must receive a fee from the company for their service to the company, beyond what is being paid to them for being a director or committee member.

FALSE 96. If an officer of a public company fails to certify financial reports or certifies those that are known to be misleading, the officer may be subject to stiff penalties of up to $1,000,000 and prison term up to 5 years.

FALSE 96A1. The SEC defines internal controls over financial reporting as a process that is the responsibility of the Audit Committee and the Board of Directors, to provide reasonable assurance that the financial reporting systems are reliable.

FALSE 96A2. A reliable system of internal controls must include policies and procedures that transactions are recorded in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.

TRUE 96A3. A reliable system of internal control must include policies and procedures to provide absolute assurance that unauthorized transactions are being prevented or detected.

FALSE 96A4. An auditor’s report on the overall fairness of financial statements is to include a statement regarding the effectiveness of the conpany’s controls over financial reporting.

TRUE 97. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act contains a section referred to as the “whistle-blower protection” section that is intended to protect a whistleblower from retaliation by the company or its employees.

TRUE 98. The audit committee is the point of contact on financial matters and serves as the supervisor of the board of directors.

TRUE 99. Corporate management serves as supervisors to the board of directors.

FALSE 100. Sarbanes-Oxley has resulted in increased levels of responsibility for business leaders at all levels.

TRUE 101. Even if top managers are intent to do wrong, it is likely that an organization could develop a set of checks and balances that could completely prevent them from doing so.

FALSE 102. Data mining software has become more important to corporate governance because of its ability to help signal frauds.

TRUE 103. When managers are faced with decision making in troubled times, it is necessary for them to protect as many jobs as possible, regardless of the impact on individual shareholders.

FALSE 104. It is not necessary for the audit committee to maintain independence, as long as they are performing their duties in the proper manner.

FALSE 105. In today’s business environment, there is not substitute for the integrity and ethics of a company’s leaders.

TRUE ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 5 – TRUE / FALSE: 71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

T F T F F F T

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

F T F T F T T

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

F T F T F T T

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

F F T F F T T

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

F T F T F F T

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 5 - NEW TRUE/FALSE: 71A1. F 75A1. T 75A2. F

83A1. F 83A2. T 85A1. T

92A1. T 92A2. T 92A3. F

96A1. F 96A2. T 96A3. F

96A4. T

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 6: IT Governance

NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

End of Chapter Questions: 1. IT governance includes all but which of the following responsibilities?

A. Aligning IT strategy with the business strategy B. Writing programming code for IT systems C. Insisting that an IT control framework be adopted and implemented D. Measuring IT’s performance 2. Which phase of the system development life cycle includes determining user needs of the IT system?

A. Systems planning B. Systems analysis C. Systems design D. Systems implementation 3. Which of the following is not part of the system design phase of the SDLC? A. Conceptual design B. Evaluation and selection C. Parallel operation D. Detailed design 4. Which of the following feasibility aspects is an evaluation of whether the technology exists to meet the need identified in the proposed change to the IT system?

A. Technical feasibility B. Operational feasibility C. Economic feasibility D. Schedule feasibility 5. The purpose of the feasibility study is to assist in A. Selecting software B. Designing internal controls C. Designing reports for the IT system D. Prioritizing IT requested changes 6. Within the systems analysis phase of the SDLC, which of the following data collection methods does not involve any feedback from users of the IT system?

A. Documentation review B. Interviews using structured questions C. Interviews using unstructured questions D. Questionnaires 7. A request for proposal (RFP) is used during the A. Phase-in period.

B. Purchase of software C. Feasibility study D. In-house design

8. Which of the following steps within the systems implementation phase could not occur concurrently with other steps, but would occur at the end?

A. Employee training B. Data conversion C. Software programming D. Post-implementation review 9. Each of the following are methods for implementing a new application system except: A. Direct cutover B. Parallel C. Pilot D. Test 10. A retail store chain is developing a new integrated computer system for sales and inventories in its store locations.

Which of the following implementation methods would involve the most risk?

A. Direct cutover B. Phased-in implementation C. Parallel running D. Pilot testing 11. The use of the SDLC for IT system changes is important for several reasons. Which of the following is not part of the purposes of the SDLC processes?

A. As a part of strategic management of the organization B. As part of the internal control structure of the organization C. As part of the audit of an IT system D. As partial fulfillment of management’s ethical obligations 12. Confidentiality of information is an ethical consideration for which of the following party or parties?

A. Management B. Employees C. Consultants D. All of the above.

ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS 1 - 12 (FROM THE TEXTBOOK) 1. B 5. D 9. D 2. B 6. A 10. A 3. C 7. B 11. C 4. A 8. D 12. D

TEST BANK - CHAPTER 6 - MULTIPLE CHOICE 13. The process of determining the strategic vision for the organization, developing the long-term objectives, creating the strategies that will achieve the vision and objections, and implementing those strategies is referred to as A. IT Governance B. Strategic Governance C. Strategic Management D. IT Management 14. A structure of relationships and processes to direct and control the enterprise in order to achieve the enterprises’s goals by adding value while balancing risk versus return over IT and its processes is called: A. IT Governance

B. Strategic Governance C. Strategic Management D. IT Management 15. To fulfill the management obligations that are an integral part of IT governance, management need not focus on: A. Aligning IT strategy with the business strategy B. Hiring an acceptable IT manager C. Measuring IT’s performance D. Insisting that an IT control framework be adopted and implemented 16. Which of the following is not one of the approaches used to achieve the management of an IT control framework?

A. Information Systems Audit and Control Association control objectives for IT B. The International Organization for Standardization 17799, Code of Practice for Information Security Management C. The Information Technology Infrastructure Library D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act section on IT Controls 17X. A group of senior managers selected to oversee the strategic management of IT is called: A. IT Strategic Committee B. IT Governance Committee C. Chief Information Officer (CIO) D. IT Management 18. The formal process that many organizations use to select, design, and implement IT systems is the: A. Systems Development Life Cycle B. Control Objectives for IT C. Practice for Security Management D. Information Technology Development

19. The IT governance committee is made up of many different individuals within the organization. Which of the following would not be one of those individuals?

A. Chief Information Officer B. Chief External Auditor C. Chief Executive Officer D. Top Managers from User Departments 20. The evaluation of long-term, strategic objectives and prioritization of the IT systems in order to assist the organizations in achieving its objectives is called: A. Systems Planning B. Systems Analysis C. Systems Design D. Systems Implementation 21. The phases of the SDLC include all of the following except: A. Systems Planning B. Systems Implementation C. Systems Analysis D. Systems Purchasing 22. This phase of SDLC involves the planning and continuing oversight of the design, implementation, and use of the IT systems.

A. Systems Analysis B. Systems Implementation C. Systems Planning D. Systems Design 23. The study of the current system to determine the strengths and weaknesses and the user needs of that system is called: A. Systems Analysis B. Systems Design C. Systems Planning D. Systems Implementation 24. This phase of SDLC requires the collection of data about the system and the careful scrutiny of those data to determine areas of the system that can be improved.

A. Systems Planning B. Systems Implementation C. Systems Analysis D. Systems Purchasing 25. The creation of the system that meets user needs and incorporates the improvements identified by the systems analysis phase is called: A. Systems Planning B. Systems Design C. Systems Analysis D. Operation and Maintenance

26. The set of steps undertaken to program, test, and activate the IT system as designed in the system design phase is called: A. Systems Planning B. Systems Implementation C. Systems Design D. Systems Analysis 27. The regular, ongoing, functioning of the IT system and the processes to fix smaller problems, or bugs, in the IT system is called: A. Systems Analysis B. Systems Planning C. Operation and Maintenance D. Systems Implementation 28. During this phase of the SDLC, management should request and receive ongoing reports about the performance of the IT system.

A. Operation and Maintenance B. System Analysis C. Systems Design D. Systems Planning 29. The expanded SDLC presented in the textbook expands the processes within the system design phase. This is necessary because: A. It necessary for most companies to create their own software.

B. The design phase needs to include the programming activities of self-created software.

C. There is usually more than one software or system type that will meet the needs of the organization.

D. Many organizations require a change in the type of operating system along with any changes in software.

30. The Evaluation and Selection cycle of the expanded SDLC would not include which of the following steps?

A. Design or buy the system selected.

B. Identify the alternative system approaches.

C. Evaluate the fit of each of the alternatives to company needs.

D. Implement the alternative selected.

31. The process of matching alternatives system models to the needs identified in the system analysis phase is called: A. Conceptual Design B. Systems Analysis C. Systems Planning D. Evaluation and Selection

32. The process of assessing the feasibility and fit of each of the alternative conceptual approaches and selecting the one that best meets the organization’s needs is termed: A. Conceptual Design B. Evaluation and Selection C. Systems Analysis D. Systems Implementation 33. The process of designing the outputs, inputs, user interfaces, databases, manual procedures, security and controls, and documentation of the new system is referred to as: A. Conceptual Design B. Software Selection C. Systems Design D. Detailed Design 34. When attempting to prioritize IT projects, the IT governance committee needs to consider: A. The assessment of IT systems and their match to strategic organizational objectives.

B. The feasability of each of the requested modifications or upgrades.

C. Both of the above.

D. None of the above.

35. A company has stated that the main strategic objective is to improve the accounts payable function within the organization. There are limited resources for IT upgrades and modifications. The IT governance committee has received IT update requests from the public relations department, human services, and vendor satisfaction department. Given this information, which would be the likely be the first upgrade implemented?

A. Public relations would be first because it would include all areas of the business - vendors, employees, and customers.

B. Vendor satisfaction would be first because it would be most in line with the strategic objective of the company.

C. Human services would be the first because the employees are the ones who are most affected by changes in the IT departments.

D. It is not possible to make a decision without further information.

36. The need to match IT systems to organizational objectives emphasizes the for the IT governance committee to include top management as its members because: A. These managers establish strategic objectives and are in the best position to assess the fit of the IT systems to those objectives.

B. These managers are in a position to allocate resources and or time to the projects.

C. Both of the above D. None of the above 37. The realistic possibility of affording, implementing, and using the IT systems being considered is referred to as: A. Feasibility B. Rationality C. Sequentiality D. Ranking

38. The assessment of the realism of the possibility that technology exists to beet the need identified in the proposed change to the IT system is called: A. Operational Feasibility B. Economic Feasibility C. Schedule Feasibility D. Technical Feasibility 39. The assessment of the realism of the possibility that the current employees will be able to operate the proposed IT system is referred to as: A. Operational Feasibility B. Economic Feasibility C. Schedule Feasibility D. Technical Feasibility

40. The assessment of the costs and benefits associated with the proposed IT system is referred to as: A. Operational Feasibility B. Economic Feasibility C. Schedule Feasibility D. Technical Feasibility 41. The assessment of the realistic possibility that the proposed IT system can be implemented within a reasonable amount of time is called: A. Operational Feasibility B. Economic Feasibility C. Schedule Feasibility D. Technical Feasibility 42. Typical steps within the systems analysis phase of the SDLC would not include which of the following?

A. Preliminary Investigation B. Survey of the Current System C. Economic Feasibility D. Determination of User Information Needs 43. The purpose of this step in the systems analysis phase is to determine whether the problem or deficiency in the current system really exists and to make a “go” or a “no-go” decision.

A. Survey of the Current System B. Determination of User Information Needs C. Business Process Reengineering D. Preliminary Investigation 44. A detailed study of the current system to identify weaknesses to improve upon and strengths that should be maintained is referred to as: A. Preliminary Investigation B. System Survey C. Process Reengineering D. Determination of User Information Needs

45. Watching the steps that employees take as they process transactions in the system is referred to as: A. Investigation B. Interrogation C. Observation D. Interview 46. The detailed examination of documentation that exists about the system to gain an understanding of the system under study is called a(n): A. Documentation Review B. Systems Audit C. System Survey D. Records Observation 47. Face-to-face, verbal questioning of users of an IT system to determine facts or beliefs about the system are called: A. Interrogation B. User Review C. Interviews D. System Survey 48. This type of question is designed such that the format and range of the answer is known ahead of time.

A. Structured Question B. Oral Question C. Unstructured Question D. Range Question 49. This type of question is completely op ended, and the respondent is free to answer in any way that he / she feels addresses the question.

A. Structured Question B. Oral Question C. Unstructured Question D. Range Question 50. A written, rather than an oral, form or questioning of users to determine facts or beliefs about a system is referred to as a(n): A. Interview B. Questionnaire C. Interrogation D. System Survey 51. The purpose of this phase is to question the current approaches in the system and to think about better ways to carry out the steps and processes of the system.

A. Systems Analysis B. Systems Survey C. Analysis of Systems Survey D. Preliminary Investigation

52. The fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to bring about dramatic improvements in performance is called: A. Business Process Reengineering B. Process Redesign C. Business Analysis and Design D. Business Process Design and Analysis 53. The many sets of activities within the organization performed to accomplish the functions necessary to continue the daily operations are referred to as: A. Business Systems B. Business Processes C. Business Activities D. Business Functions 54. The systems analysis report, which is sent to the IT governance committee, will inform the committee of all of the following, except: A. The results of the systems survey B. User needs determination C. Detailed design D. Recommendations regarding the continuation of the project 55. This document is sent to each software vendor offering a software package that meets the user and system needs and is sent to solicit proposals.

A. Requested Software Package B. Request for Proposal C. System Software Request D. Software Vendor Needs 56. When a vendor returns a request for proposal, it will include all of the following, except: A. Match of the system and user needs B. Description of the software C. The technical support it intends to provide D. Prices for the software 57. After all of the RFPs have been received, either the IT governance committee or the project team will evaluate the proposals in order to select the best software package. Things that must be considered would include: A. The match of the system and the user needs to the features of the software B. Testimonials from other customers who use the software C. Reputation and reliability of the vendor D. All of the above 58. This phase of the systems design for in-house development of software involves the identifying the alternative approaches to systems that will beet the needs identified in the system analysis phase.

A. Request for proposal B. Conceptual design C. Systems concept D. Systems analysis

59. The process of assessing the feasibility and fit of each of the alternative conceptual approaches and selecting the one that best fits the organization’s needs is called: A. Conceptual Design B. Systems Design C. Evaluation and Selection D. Systems Implementation 60. During this process, the project team must consider the number of employees, their capabilities and expertise, and any supporting systems necessary to operate each alternative design.

A. Operational feasibility B. Technical feasibility C. Economic feasibility D. Schedule feasibility 61. The purpose of this analysis is to determine which of the alternative designs is the most cost effective.

A. Operational feasibility B. Technical feasibility C. Economic feasibility D. Schedule feasibility 62. In this feasibility, the project team must estimate the total amount of time necessary to implement the each alternative design.

A. Operational feasibility B. Technical feasibility C. Economic feasibility D. Schedule feasibility 62A1. Which of the following is NOT one of the approaches to cloud computing?

A. Software as a Service B. Internet Clouds C. Platform as a Service D. Private Clouds 62A2. Considerations related to adopting or increasing cloud computing usage, include: A. The customer support provided by the cloud vendor B. The service level agreement with the cloud provider C. The manner of monitoring the could service usage D. All of the above 63. The purpose of this phase of systems design is to create the entire set of specifications necessary to build and implement the system.

A. Detailed design B. Evaluation and selection C. Operational design D. Detailed analysis 64. In the detailed design stage of systems design it is necessary that the various parts of the system be designed. The parts of the system to be designed at this point would include all of the following, except: A. Outputs B. Inputs C. Program Code D. Data Storage

65. Reports and documents, such as income statements, aged accounts receivable reports, checks, and invoices are referred to as: A. Outputs of the system B. Data storage C. Internal controls D. Inputs of the system 66. The forms, documents, screens, or electronic means used to put data into the accounting system are called: A. Outputs of the system B. Data storage C. Internal controls D. Inputs of the system 67. Which of the following is not a method of data input?

A. Keying in data with a keyboard from data on a paper form B. Electronic data interchange C. Bar code scanning D. Viewed on the screen 68. There are many different types of documentation necessary to operate and maintain an accounting system. These types of documentation include all of the following, except: A. Flowcharts B. Operator Manuals C. Output Examples D. Entity Relationship Diagrams 69. A system conversion method in which the old and the new systems are operated simultaneously for a short time.

A. Direct cutover conversion B. Phase-in conversion C. Pilot conversion D. Parallel conversion 70. A system conversion method in which on a chose date the old system operation is terminated and all processing begins on the new system.

A. Direct cutover conversion B. Phase-in conversion C. Pilot conversion D. Parallel conversion 71. A system conversion method in which the system is broken into modules, or parts, which are phased in incrementally and over a longer period.

A. Direct cutover conversion B. Phase-in conversion C. Pilot conversion D. Parallel conversion 72. A system conversion method in which the system is operated in only one or a few sub-units of the organization.

A. Direct cutover conversion B. Phase-in conversion C. Pilot conversion D. Parallel conversion 73. When the manager of the primary users of the system is satisfied with the system, an acceptance agreement will

be signed , the enforce of which makes it much more likely that project teams will seek user input and that the project team will work hard to meet user needs.

A. System Conversion B. Post-Implementation Acceptance C. User Review D. User Acceptance 74. A review of the feasibility assessments and other estimates made during the projects, the purpose of which is to help the organization learn from any mistakes that were made and help the company avoid those same errors in the future.

A. System Design Life Cycle B. Post-Implementation Review C. User Acceptance D. System Conversion Review 75. During the operation of an IT system, it is necessary that regular reports are received by management to monitor the performance of the system. These reports would include all of the following, except: A. IT Security and Number of Security Problems B. IT Customer Satisfaction C. Downtime of IT System D. User Acceptance of the IT System 76. Which of the following is not a major purpose served by the continual and proper use of the IT governance committee and the SDLC? A. The fulfillment of ethical obligations B. The strategic management process of the organization C. The conversion of the system D. The internal control structure of the organization 77. The careful and responsible oversight and use by management of the assets entrusted to management is called: A. IT Governance B. Stewardship C. Fiduciary Control D. System Access 78. Employee Ethical considerations, related to IT governance, would include which of the following?

A. Maintain a set of processes and procedures that assure accurate and complete records.

B. Confidentiality for those who serve on the project teams.

C. Not to disclose proprietary information from the company to clients.

D. Carefully consider the impact of system changes and to be ethical in the manner it which the changes are processed.

79. When an organization hires consultants to assist with any phase or any phases of the SDLC, there are at least four ethical obligations. Which of the following is not one of those obligations?

A. Bid the engagement fairly, and completely disclose the terms of potential cost increases.

B. Bill time accurately to the client and do not inflate time billed.

C. Do not oversell unnecessary services or systems to the client.

D. Make an honest effort to participate, learn the new system processes, and properly use the new system.

80. Which of the following relationships would be allowed for a CPA firm?

A. Offering IT consulting services and completing the external audit.

B. Completing the external audit and maintaining the bookkeeping work.

C. Internal audit outsourcing and financial information systems design and implementation.

D. Providing fairness opinions and completing the external audit.

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 6 – MULTIPLE CHOICE: 13. C 27. C 41. C 14. A 28. A 42. C 15. B 29. C 43. D 16. D 30. D 44. B 17. B 31. A 45. C 18. A 32. B 46. A 19. B 33. D 47. C 20. A 34. C 48. A 21. D 35. B 49. C 22. C 36. C 50. B 23. A 37. A 51. C 24. C 38. D 52. A 25. B 39. A 53. B 26. B 40. B 54. C

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 6 - NEW MULTIPLE CHOICE 62A1. B 62A2. D

B A D B C A C D A C A D D C

69.

70.

71.

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D A B C D B D C B B D C

TEST BANK - CHAPTER 6 - TRUE / FALSE 81. IT governance is an issue for executives and top management. Lower level managers and the board of directors are outsiders in the process.

FALSE 82. In order to meets it obligation of corporate governance, the board of directors must oversee IT. TRUE 83. In order to match company strategy to IT systems, the company needs to have an IT governance committee and a formal process to select, design, and implement IT systems.

TRUE 84. Either the IT governance or the system development life cycle are necessary in the strategic management of IT systems.

FALSE 85. Once the system development life cycle has determined the priority it places on IT systems, the IT governance committee will manage the development, implementation, and use of the systems.

FALSE 86. The IT governance committee should constantly assess the long-term strategy of the company and determine the type of IT systems to purchase, develop and use.

TRUE 87. The systems development life cycle is responsible for the oversight and management of the IT governance committee.

FALSE 88. Accounting software was often not available in the early days of computers which required that the organization would develop, program, and implement their in-house accounting software.

TRUE 89. Once the systems development life cycle (SDLC) is complete, it is not necessary to restart the cycle unless something is brought to the attention of the IT governance committee to indicate that another cycle is required.

FALSE 90. It is likely that the IT governance committee will go back through the phases of the SDLC to design new and improved IT systems.

TRUE 91. In the modern IT environment, it is necessary for an organization to follow each of the steps in the SDLC in the order presented.

FALSE 92. The exact steps in the SDLC and/or their sequence are not as important as is the need to formalize and conduct those steps completely and consistently.

TRUE 93. The IT governance committee will be constantly monitoring the IT system to look for fraud and system abuse.

FALSE 94. If the operational feasibility determines that the operation will require new training of employees, then the

proposed upgrade or modification should be rejected.

FALSE 95. The economic feasibility study would answer the question about whether the benefits of the proposed IT system outweigh the costs.

TRUE 96. When the IT governance committee uses both the strategic match and the feasibility study, they will be better able to prioritize proposed changes to the IT systems.

TRUE 97. When the IT governance committee has made the decision as to which IT upgrades and/or modifications are to made, their job is complete.

FALSE 98. Data collection in the system survey step of systems analysis involves documentation review only.

FALSE 99. The purpose of observation in the system survey is to enable the project team to gain an understanding of the processing steps within the system.

TRUE 100. During a documentation review, the team would examine only relevant documentation of the proposed upgrade or modification.

FALSE 101. In order to gain a complete understanding of the system under study, the project team should seek the opinions and thoughts of those who use the system in addition to observation and documentation review.

TRUE 102. The face-to-face nature of an interview is advantageous due to the fact that the interviewer can clear up any misunderstandings as they occur and can follow up with more questions, depending on the response of the interviewee.

TRUE 103. One advantage of the interview process is efficiency.

FALSE 104. One advantage to the use of questionnaires is that they an be answered anonymously, which allows the respondent to be more truthful without fear of negative consequences.

TRUE 105. The determination of user requirements is often discovered through the use of observation and documentation review.

FALSE 106. The analysis phase is the critical-thinking stage of systems analysis.

TRUE 107. IT and business process reengineering have mutually enhancing relationships. The business processes should be supported by the IT capabilities.

TRUE

108. Business process reengineering takes place at the systems design stage of the SDLC. FALSE 109. The last step of the systems analysis phase is to prepare a systems analysis report that will be delivered to the IT governance committee.

TRUE 110. The steps within the design phase of the SDLC is the same, whether the organization intends to purchase software or to design the software in-house.

FALSE 111. In general, purchased software is more costly but more reliable than software designed in-house.

FALSE 112. While it is not necessary to hire a consulting firm, many organizations find that the special expertise of consulting firms is most beneficial in the design and implementation of accounting system software.

TRUE 113. When in the systems design phase and creating an in-house accounting software, the feasibility aspect is the same as in the systems planning stage.

FALSE 114. In general, designs that require more complex technology have a higher feasibility than designs with less complex technology.

FALSE 115. When a company is revising systems, there are intangible benefits that are difficult to estimate in dollars. These intangible benefits should be included in the project team’s report.

TRUE 115A1. The incorporation of cloud computing requires a careful, controlled approach to system design related to the costs and benefits. Other issues are not important.

FALSE 115A2. Cloud computing results in greater availability, but also requires greater security and processing integrity.

TRUE 115A3. The cost of cloud computing is normally related to a period of time, and not to the use of the service.

FALSE 116. Because the users of reports need the reports on an ongoing basis as part of their jobs, it is critical to have user feedback in the design of the details of the output reports.

TRUE 117. In general, the manual input method is less error prone that the electronic methods.

FALSE 118. In the detailed design phase, all of the individual steps within a process must be identified and designed.

TRUE 119. The internal controls within a system must be designed in the implementation stage.

FALSE

120. It would not be necessary for the programming staff to have interaction with the accounting staff during the systems implementation process, as all systems design was previously completed.

FALSE 121. Software should never be implemented before it is tested.

TRUE 122. It is essential that accountants oversee the data conversion from the old system to the new system to make sure that all accounting data is completely and correctly converted.

TRUE 123X. The file or database storage for the new accounting system may is always be different from the old system.

FALSE 124. The longest and most costly part of the SDLC is the operation and maintenance.

TRUE 125. During the operation phase of the IT system, it is necessary that management receive regular reports that will enable management to determine whether IT is aligned with business strategy and meeting the objectives of the IT system.

TRUE 126. Once the SDLC has identified which types of IT systems are appropriate for the company, the IT governance committee becomes the mechanism to properly manage the development, acquisition, and implementation of the IT system.

FALSE 127. Each organization may approach IT governance in a different manner, but each organization should establish procedures for IT governance.

TRUE 128. The AICPA Trust Principles failed to include any reference to the internal control structure of the IT systems.

FALSE 129. Diligent adherence to the SDLC process, by management, is part of fulfilling its ethical obligations of stewardship and fraud prevention.

TRUE 130. As the result of the passage of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, CPA firms have unlimited ability to provide non-audit services to their audit clients.

FALSE

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 6 – TRUE / FALSE: 81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

F T T F F T F T F T

91.

92.

93.

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100.

F T F F T T F F T F

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110.

T T F T F T T F T F

111.

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114.

115.

116.

117.

118.

119.

120.

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 6 - NEW TRUE/FALSE 115A1. F 115A2. T 115A3. F

F T F F T T F T F F

121.

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T T F T T F T F T F

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 7: Auditing Information Technology – Bases Processes

NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

End of Chapter Questions: 1. Which of the following types of audits is most likely to be conducted for the purpose of identifying areas for cost savings?

A. Financial Statement Audits B. Operational Audits C. Regulatory Audits D. Compliance Audits 2. Financial statement audits are required to be performed by: A. Governmental Auditors B. CPAs C. Internal Auditors D. IT Auditors 3. Which of the following is not considered a cause for information risk?

A. Management’s geographic location is far from the source of the information needed to make effective decisions.

B. The information is collected and prepared by persons who use the information for very different purposes.

C. The information relates to business activities that are not well understood by those who collect and summarize the information for decision makers.

D. The information has been tested by internal auditors and a CPA firm.

4. Which of the following is not a part of general accepted auditing standards?

A. General Standards B. Standards of Fieldwork C. Standards of Information Systems D. Standards of Reporting 5X. Which of the following best describes what is meant by the term “generally accepted auditing standards”?

A. Procedures used to gather evidence to support the accuracy of a client’s financial statements.

B. Measures of the quality of an auditor’s conduct carrying out professional responsibilities.

C. Professional pronouncements issued by the Auditing Standards Board.

D. Rules acknowledged by the accounting profession because of their widespread application.

6X. In an audit of financial statement in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards, an auditor is required to: A. Document the auditor’s understanding of the client company’s internal controls.

B. Search for weaknesses in the operation of the client company’s internal controls.

C. Perform tests of controls to evaluate the effectiveness of the client company’s internal controls.

D. Determine wether controls are appropriately operating to prevent or detect material misstatements.

7X. Auditors should develop a written audit program so that: A. All material transactions will be included in substantive testing.

B. Substantive testing performed prior to year end will be minimized.

C. The procedures will achieve specific audit objectives related to specific management assertions.

D. Each account balance will be tested under either a substantive test or a test of controls.

8. Which of the following audit objectives relates to the management assertion of existence?

A. A transaction is recorded in the proper period.

B. A transaction actually occurred (i.e., it is real) C. A transaction is properly presented in the financial statements.

D. A transaction is supported by detailed evidence.

9X. Which of the following statements regarding an audit program is true?

A. An audit program should be standardized so that it may be used on any client engagement.

B. The audit program should be completed by the client company before the aud planning stage begins.

C. An audit program should be developed by the internal auditor during the audit’s completion/reporting phase.

D. An audit program establishes responsibility for each audit test by requiring the signature or initials of the auditor who performed the test.

10X. Risk assessment is a process designed to: A. Identify possible circumstances and events that may effect the business.

B. Establish policies and procedures to carry out internal controls.

C. Identify and capture information in a timely manner.

D. Review the quality of internal controls throughout the year.

11. Which of the following audit procedures is most likely to be performed during the planning phase of the audit?

A. Obtain an understanding of the client’s risk assessment process.

B. Identify specific internal control activities that are designed to prevent fraud.

C. Evaluate the reasonableness of the client’s accounting estimates.

D. Test the timely cutoff of cash payments and collections.

12. Which of the following is the most significant disadvantage of auditing around the computer rather than through the computer?

A. The time involved in testing processing controls is significant.

B. The cost involved in testing processing controls is significant.

C. A portion of the audit trail is not tested.

D. The technical expertise required to test processing controls is extensive.

13. The primary objective of compliance testing in a financial statement audit is to determine whether: A. Procedures have been updated regularly.

B. Financial statement amounts are accurately stated.

C. Internal controls are functioning as designed.

D. Collusion is taking place.

14. Which of the following computer assisted auditing techniques processes actual client input data (or a copy of the

real data) on a controlled program under the auditor’s control to periodically test controls in the client’s computer system?

A. Test data method B. Embedded audit module C. Integrated test facility D. Parallel simulation 15. Which of the following computer assisted auditing techniques allows fictitious and real transactions to be processed together without client personnel being aware of the testing process?

A. Test data method B. Embedded audit module C. Integrated test facility D. Parallel simulation 16. Which of the following is a general control to test for external access to a client’s computerized systems?

A. Penetration tests B. Hash totals C. Field checks D. Program tracing 17. Suppose that during the planning phase of an audit, the auditor determines that weaknesses exist in the client’s computerized systems. These weaknesses make the client company susceptible to the risk of an unauthorized break-in. Which type of audit procedures should be emphasized in the remaining phases of this audit?

A. Tests of controls B. Penetration tests C. Substantive tests D. Rounding errors tests 18. Generalized audit software can be used to: A. Examine the consistency of data maintained on computer files.

B. Perform audit tests of multiple computer files concurrently.

C. Verify the processing logic of operating system software.

D. Process test data against master files that contain both real and fictitious data.

19.Independent auditors are generally actively involved in each of the following tasks except: A. Preparation of a client’s financial statements and accompanying notes.

B. Advising client management as to the applicability of a new accounting standard.

C. Proposing adjustments to a client’s financial statements.

D. Advising client management about the presentation of the financial statements.

20X. Which of the following is most likely to be an attribute unique to the financial statement audit work of CPAs, compared with work performed by attorneys or practitioners of other business professions?

A. Due professional care B. Competence C. Independence D. A complex underlying body of professional knowledge 21X. Which of the following terms in not associated with a financial statement auditor’s requirement to maintain independence?

A. Objectivity B. Neutrality C. Professional Skepticism D. Competence ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS 1 - 21 (FROM THE TEXTBOOK) 1. B 7. C 13. C 2. B 8. B 14. D 3. D 9. D 15. C 4. C 10. A 16. A 5. B 11. A 17. C 6. A 12. C 18. A

19. A 20. C 21. D

TEST BANK - CHAPTER 7 - MULTIPLE CHOICE 22. Accounting services that improve the quality of information provided to the decision maker, an audit being the most common type of this service, is called: A. Compliance Services B. Assurance Services C. Substantive Services D. Operational Services 23. A type of assurance services that involves accumulating and analyzing support for the information provided by management is called an: A. Audit B. Investigation C. Financial Statement Examination D. Control Test

24.The main purpose of an audit is to assure users of the financial information about the: A. Effectiveness of the internal controls of the company.

B. Selection of the proper GAAP when preparing financial statements.

C. Proper application of GAAS during the examination.

D. Accuracy and completeness of the information.

25. Which of the following is not one of the three primary types of audits?

A. Compliance Audits B. Financial Statement Audits C. IT Audits D. Operational Audits 26X. This type of audit is completed in order to determine whether a company has adhered to the regulations and policies established by contractual agreements, governmental agencies, or some other high authority.

A. Compliance Audit B. Operational Audit C. Information Audit D. Financial Statement Audit 27. This type of audit is completed to assess the operating policies and procedures of a client for efficiency and effectiveness.

A. Efficiency Audit B. Effectiveness Audit C. Compliance Audit D. Operational Audit 28X. This type of audit is completed to determine whether or not the client has prepared and presented its financial statements fairly, in accordance with established financial accounting criteria.

A. GAAP Audit B. Financial Statement Audit C. Compliance Audit D. Fair Application Audit 29. This type of auditor is an employee of the company he / she audits.

A. IT Auditor B. Government Auditor C. Certified Public Accountant D. Internal Auditor 30X. This type of auditor specializes in the information systems assurance, control, and security. They may work for CPA firms, government agencies, or with the internal audit group.

A. IT Auditor B. Government Auditor C. Certified Public Accountant D. Internal Auditor

31.This type of auditor conducts audits of government agencies or income tax returns.

A. IT Auditor B. Government Auditor C. Certified Public Accountant D. Internal Auditor 32. This type of audit is performed by independent auditors who are objective and neutral with respect to the company and the information being audited.

A. Compliance Audit B. Operational Audit C. Internal Audit D. External Audit 33. The independence of a CPA could be impaired by: A. Having no knowledge of the company or the company management B. By owning stock of a similar company C. Having the ability to influence the client’s decisions D. Being married to a stockbroker 34. The IT environment plays a key role in how auditors conduct their work in all but which of the following areas: A. Consideration of Risk B. Consideration of Information Fairness C. Design and Performance of Audit Tests D. Audit Procedures Used 35. The chance that information used by decision makers may be inaccurate is referred to as: A. Sample Risk B. Data Risk C. Audit Trail Risk D. Information Risk 36. Which of the following is not one of the identified causes of information risk?

A. Audited information B. Remote information C. Complexity of data D. Preparer motive 37. The main reasons that it is necessary to study information-based processing and the related audit function include: A. Information users often do not have the time or ability to verify information themselves.

B. It may be difficult for decision makers to verify information contained in a computerized accounting system.

C. Both of the above.

D. Neither of the above.

38.The existence of IT-based business processes often result in details of transactions being entered directly into the computer system, results in a lack of physical evidence to visibly view. This situation is referred to as: A. Physical Evidence Risk B. Loss of Audit Trail Visibility C. Transaction Summary Chart D. Lack of Evidence View 39. The existence of IT-based business processes, that result in the details of the transactions being entered directly into the computer system, increases the likelihood of the loss or alternation of data due to all of the following, except: A. System Failure B. Database Destruction C. Programmer Incompetence D. Environmental Damage 40. The advantages of using IT-based accounting systems, where the details of transactions are entered directly into the computer include: A. Computer controls can compensate for the lack of manual controls B. Loss of audit trail view C. Increased internal controls risks D. Fewer opportunities to authorize and review transactions 41. The ten standards that provide broad guidelines for an auditor’s professional responsibilities are referred to as: A. Generally accepted accounting standards B. General accounting and auditing practices C. Generally accepted auditing practices D. Generally accepted auditing standards 42. The generally accepted auditing standards are divided into three groups. Which of the following is not one of those groups?

A. General Standards B. Basic Standards C. Standards of Fieldwork D. Standards of Reporting 43X. GAAS, generally accepted auditing standards, provide a general framework for conducting quality audits, but the specific standards - or detailed guidance - are provided by all of the following groups, except: A. Public Company Accounting Oversight Board B. Auditing Standards Board C. Certified Fraud Examiners D. International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board

44.This organization, established by the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, was organized in 2003 for the purpose of establishing auditing standards for public companies.

A. Auditing Standards Board B. Public Company Accounting Oversight Board C. International Audit Practices Committee D. Information Systems Audit and Control Association 45. This organization is part of the AICPA and was the group responsible for issuing Statements on Auditing Standards which were historically widely used in practice.

A. Auditing Standards Board B. Public Company Accounting Oversight Board C. International Audit Practices Committee D. Information Systems Audit and Control Association 46X. This organization was established by the IFAC to set International Standards on Auditing (ISAs) that contribute to the uniform application of auditing practices on a worldwide basis.

A. International Systems Audit and Control Association B. Auditing Standards Board C. Public Company Accounting Oversight Board D. International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB)

47. This organization issues guidelines for conducting the IT audit. The standards issued address practices related to control and security of the IT system.

A. Auditing Standards Board B. Public Company Accounting Oversight Board C. International Audit Practices Committee D. Information Systems Audit and Control Association 48. The audit is to be performed by a person or persons having adequate technical training and proficiency as an auditor. This is one of the generally accepted auditing standards that is part of the: A. General Standards B. Operating Standards C. Fieldwork Standards D. Reporting Standards 49. Independence in mental attitude is to be maintained in all matters related to the audit engagement. This is one of the generally accepted auditing standards that is part of the: A. General Standards B. Operating Standards C. Fieldwork Standards D. Reporting Standards

50.The general guidelines, known as the generally accepted auditing standards, which include the concepts of adequate planning and supervision, internal control, and evidence relate to the: A. General Standards B. Operating Standards C. Fieldwork Standards D. Reporting Standards 51X. The general guidelines, known as the generally accepted auditing standards, which include the concepts of presentation in accordance with the established criteria, the consistent application of established principles, adequate disclosure, and the expression of an opinion, relate to the: A. General Standards B. Operating Standards C. Fieldwork Standards D. Reporting Standards 52X. Although there are a number of organizations that provide detailed guidance, it is still necessary for auditors to rely on other direction regarding the types of audit tests to use and the manner in which the conclusions are drawn. These sources of information include: A. Industry Guidelines B. PCAOB C. ASB D. ASACA 53X. Claims regarding the condition of the business organization and in terms of its operations, financial results, and compliance with laws and regulations, are referred to as: A. Financial Statements B. Management Assertions C. External Audit D. Presentation and Disclosure 54. Audit tests developed for an audit client are documented in a(n): A. Audit Program B. Audit Objective C. Management Assertion D. General Objectives 55X. The management assertion related to valuation of transactions and account balances would include all of the following, except: A. Accurate in terms of dollar amounts and quantities B. Supported by detailed evidence C. Real D. Correctly summarized 56. There are four primary phases of the IT audit. Which of the following is not one of those phases.

A. Planning B. Evidence Audit C. Tests of Controls D. Substantive Tests

57X. The proof of the fairness of the financial information is: A. Tests of Controls B. Substantive Tests C. Audit Completion D. Audit Evidence 58X. Techniques used for gathering evidence include all of the following, except: A. Physical examination of assets or supporting documentation B. Observing activities C. Adequate planning and supervision D. Analyzing financial relationships 59. During this phase of the audit, the auditor must gain a thorough understanding of the client’s business and financial reporting systems. When completing this phase, the auditors review and assess the risks and controls related to the business.

A. Tests of Controls B. Substantive Tests C. Audit Completion / Reporting D. Audit Planning 60. During the planning phase of the audit, auditors estimate the monetary amounts that are large enough to make a difference in decision making. This amount is referred to as: A. Risk B. Materiality C. Substantive D. Sampling 61. The likelihood that errors or fraud may occur is referred to as: A. Risk B. Materiality C. Control Tests D. Sampling 62. A large part of the work performed by an auditor in the audit planning process is the gathering of evidence about the company’s internal controls. This can be completed in any of the following ways, except: A. Interviewing key members of the accounting and IT staff.

B. Observing policies and procedures C. Review IT user manuals and systems D. Preparing memos to summarize their findings 63. The Accounting Standards Board issued the following SAS in recognition of the fact that accounting records and files often exist in electronic form. The statement was issued in 2001 to expand the historical concept of audit evidence to include electronic evidence.

A. SAS 82 B. SAS 86 C. SAS 94 D. SAS 101

64X. Auditing standards address the importance of understanding both the automated and manual procedures that make up an organization’s internal controls and consider how misstatements may occur, including all of the following, except: A. How transactions are entered into the computer B. How financial statement are printed from the computer C. How nonstandard journal entries and adjusting entries are initiated, recorded, and processed.

D. How standard journal entries are initiated, recorded, and processed.

65X. IT auditors may need to be called in to: A. Consider the effects of computer processing on the audit.

B. To assist in testing the automated processes.

C. Both of the above.

D. None of the above.

66. Many companies design their IT system so that all documents and reports can be retrieved from the system in readable form. Auditors can then compare the documents used to input the data into the system with reports generated from the system, without gaining any extensive knowledge of the computer system and does not require the evaluation fo computer controls. This process is referred to as: A. Auditing through the system B. Auditing around the system C. Computer assisted audit techniques D. Auditing with the computer 67. This approach, referred to as the whitebox approach, requires auditors to evaluate IT controls and processing so that they can determine whether the information generated from the system is reliable.

A. Auditing through the system B. Auditing around the system C. Computer assisted audit techniques D. Auditing with the computer 68X. The IT auditing approach referred to as “Auditing through the system” is necessary under which of the following conditions?

A. Supporting documents are available in both electronic and paper form.

B. The auditor does not require evaluation of computer controls.

C. The auditor wants to test computer controls as a basis for evaluating risk and reducing the amount of substantive audit testing required.

D. The use of the IT system has a low impact on the conduct of the audit.

69.Audit procedures designed to evaluate both general controls and application controls are referred to as: A. Substantive Tests B. Audit Planning C. IT Auditing D. Test of Controls 70. The automated controls that affect all computer applications are referred to as: A. General Controls B. Specific Controls C. Input Controls D. Application Controls 71. The two broad categories of general controls that relate to IT systems include which of the following: A. IT systems documentation B. IT administration and the related operating systems development and maintenance processes

C. Authenticity table D. Computer security and virus protection 72. Related audit tests to review the existence and communication of company policies regarding important aspects of IT administrative control include all of the following, except: A. Personal accountability and segregation of incompatible responsibilities B. Job description and clear lines of authority C. Prevention of unauthorized access D. IT systems documentation 73. Controls meant to prevent the destruction of information as the result of unauthorized access to the IT system are referred to as: A. IT administration B. System controls C. Information administration D. Security controls 73A1. These risks tend to escalate as companies embrace newer technologies and allow sensitive data to be shared via smar devices, web and mobile applications, and social networks.

A. Input Risks B. Authenticity Risks C. Access Risks D. Security Risks 73A2. Destruction of information may occur as a result of: A. Natural disasters B. Accidents C. Environmental conditions D. All of the above 74X. Auditors should perform this type of test to determine the valid use of the company’s computer system, according to the authority tables.

A. Authenticity tests B. Penetration tests C. Vulnerability assessments D. IT systems documentation 75X. These tests of the security controls involve various methods of entering the company’s system to determine whether controls are working as intended.

A. Authenticity tests B. Penetration tests C. Vulnerability assessments D. IT systems documentation 76X. These tests of security controls analyze a company’s control environment for possible weaknesses. Special software programs are available to help auditors identify weak points in their a company’s security measures.

A. Authenticity tests B. Penetration tests C. Vulnerability assessments D. IT systems documentation 77. One of the most effective ways a client can protect its computer system is to place physical controls in the computer center. Physical controls include all of the following, except:

A. B. C. D.

Proper temperature control Locks Security guards Cameras

78X. One of the most effective ways a client can protect its computer system is to place environmental controls in the computer center. Environmental controls include: A. Card keys B. Emergency power supply C. Alarms D. Security guards 79X. This type of application control is performed to verify the correctness of information entered into software programs. Auditors are concerned about whether errors are being prevented and detected during this stage of data processing.

A. Security controls B. Processing controls C. Input controls D. Output controls 80. IT audit procedures typically include a combination of data accuracy tests where the data processed by computer applications are reviewed for correct dollar amounts or other numerical values. These procedures are referred to as: A. Security controls B. Processing controls C. Input controls D. Output controls 81. This type of processing control test involves a comparison of different items that are expected to have the same values, such s comparing two batches or comparing actual data against a predetermined control total.

A. Validation Checks B. Batch Totals C. Run-to-Run Totals D. Balancing Tests 81A1. This law, also known as the first-digit law, was named after a physicist who discovered a specific, but non-uniform pattern in the frequency of digits occurring as the first number in a list of numbers: A. Number-up Law B. Benford’s Law C. Adams’ Digit Law D. Jackson First Digit Law 81A2. Frank Benford found that the number one is likely to be the leading digit, the first digit, approximately: A. One-third of the time B. One-fourth of the time C. One-fifth of the time D. One-sixth of the time 82X. This is one of the computer-assisted audit techniques, related to processing controls, that involves processing company data through a controlled program designed to resemble the company’s application. This test is run to find out whether the same results are achieved under different systems.

A. Integrated Test Facility B. Embedded Audit Module

C. Parallel Simulation D. Test Data Method 83. Regardless of whether the results are printed or retained electronically, auditors may perform all of the following procedures to test application outputs, except: A. Integrated Tests B. Reasonableness Tests C. Audit Trail Tests D. Rounding Errors Tests 83A1. A detailed report assessing the correctness of an account balance or transaction record that is consistent with supporting documentation and the company’s policies and procedures, is termed a(n): A. Integrated test B. Compliance test C. Simulation D. Reconciliation 84. The auditor’s test of the accuracy of monetary amounts of transactions and account balances is known as: A. Testing of controls B. Substantive tests C. Compliance tests D. Application tests 85X. A process of constant evidence gathering and analysis to provide assurance on the information as soon as it occurs, or shortly thereafter, is referred to as: A. Real-time auditing B. Virtual auditing C. E-auditing D. Continuous auditing 86. This phase of auditing occurs when the auditors evaluate all the evidence that has been accumulated and makes a conclusion based on that evidence.

A. Tests of Controls B. Audit Planning C. Audit Completion / Reporting D. Substantive Testing 87. This piece of audit evidence is often considered to be the most important because it is a signed acknowledgment of management’s responsibility for the fair presentation of the financial statements and a declaration that they have provided complete and accurate information to the auditors during all phases of the audit.

A. Letter of Representation B. Audit Report C. Encounter Statement D. Auditors Contract 88.Which of the following is a proper description of an auditor report?

A. Unqualified opinion - identifies certain exceptions to the clean opinion.

B. Adverse opinion - notes that there are material misstatements presented.

C. Qualified opinion - states that the auditors believe the financial statements are fairly and consistently presented in accordance with GAAP. D. Unqualified opinion - states that the auditors were not able to reach a conclusion.

89. When PCs are used for accounting instead of mainframes or client-server system, they face a greater risk of loss

due to which of the following: A. Authorized access B. Segregation of duties C. Lack of backup control D. All of the above 90X. When companies rely on external, independent computer service centers to handle all or part of their IT needs it is referred to as: A. External Processing B. WAN Processing C. Database Management System D. IT Outsourcing 90A1. When a company uses cloud computing, the auditor needs to thoroughly understand the underlying technologies and related risks and controls. When evaluating the security risk in a cloud computing environment, the auditor needs to consider all of the following, except: A. What damage would result if an unauthorized user accessed the company’s data?

B. How does the cloud service provider segregate information between clients?

C. How and when are data encrypted?

D. How does the cloud service provider handle internal security?

90A2. When a company uses cloud computing, the auditor needs to thoroughly understand the underlying technologies and related risks and controls. When evaluating the availability risk is a cloud computing environment, the auditor needs to consider all which of the following, except: A. How and when are data encrypted?

B. How does the cloud service provider handle internal security?

C. What disaster recovery and business continuity plans are in place?

D. What damage would result if an unauthorized user accessed the company’s data?

90A3. Which of the following properly describes the listed SOC Report?

A. SOC 1 Type 1 Report - Considers controls over compliance and operations B. SOC 1 Type II Report - Contains management’s assessment on the operating design of internal controls C. SOC 2 Report - Includes an evaluation of the operating effectiveness of internal controls D. SOC 1 Report - Addresses internal controls over financial reporting.

91. Because it is not possible to test all transactions and balances, auditors rely on this to choose and test a limited number of items and transactions and then make conclusions about the balance as a whole.

A. Sampling B. Materiality C. Compliance D. Substance 92X. All types of auditors must follow guidelines promoting ethical conduct. For financial statement auditors, the PCAOB/AICPA has established a Code of Professional Conduct, commonly called the Code of Ethics, which consists of two sections. Which of the following correctly states the two sections?

A. Integrity and responsibility B. Principles and rules C. Objectivity and independence D. Scope and nature 93X. The rule in thePCAOB/AICPA Code of Professional Conduct that is referred to as Responsibilities, can be stated as: A. CPAs should act in a way that will serve the public interest, honor the public trust, and demonstrate commitment to professionalism.

B. To maintain and broaden public confidence, CPAs should perform their professional duties with the highest sense of integrity.

C. In carrying out their professional duties, CPAs should exercise sensitive professional and moral judgments in all their activities.

D. CPAs in public practice should observe the principles of the Code of Professional Conduct in determining the scope and nature of services to be provided.

94. This concept means that the auditors should not automatically assume that their clients are honest, but that they (the auditors) must have a questioning mind and a persistent approach to evaluating evidence for possible misstatements.

A. Independence B. Integrity C. Due Care D. Professional Skepticism ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 7 – MULTIPLE CHOICE: 22. B 37. C 52. A 23. A 38. B 53. B 24. D 39. C 54. A 25. C 40. A 55. C 26. A 41. D 56. B 27. D 42. B 57. D 28. B 43. C 58. C 29. D 44. B 59. D 30. A 45. A 60. B 31. B 46. D 61. A 32. D 47. D 62. D 33. C 48. A 63. C 34. B 49. A 64. B 35. D 50. C 65. C 36. A 51. D 66. B

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

A C D A B C D A B C A B C B D

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

C A B D C A B C D A B C D

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK M- CHAPTER 7 – ADDITIONAL MULTIPLE CHOICE: 73. (A1) C and D 73. (A2) D 81. (A1) B 81. (A2) A 82. (X) C 83. (A1) D 90. (A1) D 90. (A2) B 90. (A3) D

TEST BANK - CHAPTER 7 - TRUE / FALSE 95. All users of financial data - business managers, investors, creditors, and government agencies - have an enormous amount of data to use to make decisions. Due to the use of IT systems, it is easy to verify the accuracy and completeness of the information.

FALSE 96. In order to properly carry out an audit, accountants collect and evaluate proof of procedures, transactions, and / or account balances, and compare the information with established criteria.

TRUE 97. The only person who can perform a financial statement audit of a publicly traded company is a government auditor who has extensive knowledge of generally accepted accounting principles.

FALSE 98. Any professionally trained accountant is able to perform an operational audit.

TRUE 99. An important requirement for CPA firms is that they must be personally involved with the management of the firm that is being audited.

FALSE 100. The most common type of audit service is the operating audit performed by internal auditors.

FALSE 101. All types of auditors should have knowledge abut technology-based systems so that they can properly audit IT systems.

TRUE 102. A financial statement audit is part of the IT audit.

FALSE 103. Auditors do not need to be experts on the intricacies of computer systems but they do need to understand the impact of IT on their clients’ accounting systems and internal controls.

TRUE 103A1. An internal auditor is not allowed to assist in the performance of a financial statement audit.

FALSE 104X. A financial statement audit is conducted in order for an opinion to be expressed on the fair presentation of financial statements. This goal is affected by the presence or absence of IT accounting systems.

FALSE 104A1. Information risk is the chance that information used by decision makers may be inaccurate.

TRUE 104A2. As a business grows, the volume and complexity of its transactions increase. At the same timed, there is a decrease in the chance that misstated information may exist undetected.

FALSE

105. The remoteness of information, one of the causes of information risk, can relate to geographic distance or organizational layers.

TRUE 106. The most common method for decision makers to reduce information risk is to rely on information that has been audited by an independent party.

TRUE 107. Auditors have the primary responsibility to make sure that they comply with international standards in all cases.

FALSE 108. There is not much room for professional judgement when performing audits, as a result of the detailed guidance provided by organizations, such as the PCAOB. FALSE 109X. The responsibility for operations, compliance, and financial reporting lies with the auditors.

FALSE

110X. The role of the auditor is to analyze the underlying facts to decide whether information provied by management is fairly presented.

TRUE 111. Management assertions relate to the actual existence and proper valuation of transactions and account balances.

TRUE 112. The same audit tests would test for completeness of a liability or an asset.

FALSE 113. Auditing testing for any single general auditing objective would involve the same testing techniques even though there are different types of information collected to support different accounts and transactions.

FALSE 114X. Auditors must think about how the features of a company’s IT systems influence its management assertions and the general audit objectives even though these matters have little or not impact on the choice of audit methodologies used.

FALSE 115X. Risk can be inherent in the company’s business, due to things such as the nature of operations, or may be caused by weak internal controls.

TRUE 115A1. The audit planning process is unlikely to vary if the company has adopted IFRS, or is in the process of convergence.

FALSE 115A2. Adapting to fair value measures in the preparation of IFRS-based financial statements will likely cause auditors to evaluate supporting evidence differently than if US GAAP was used.

TRUE 115A3. IFRS does not allow as much use of judgment as is allowed under GAAP. FALSE 116. Auditors do not need to concern themselves with risks unless there is an indication that there is an internal control weakness.

FALSE 117. The auditor’s understanding of internal controls provides the basis for designing appropriate audit tests to be used in the remaining phases of the audit.

TRUE 118. The process of evaluating internal controls and designing meaningful audit tests is more complex for manual systems than for automated systems.

FALSE 119. Computer-assisted audit techniques are useful audit tools because they make it possible for auditors to use computers to audit large amounts of evidence in less time.

TRUE 119A1. In order to enhance controls, reconciliations should be performed by company personnel who are independent from the tasks of initiating or recording the transactions with the accounts being reconciled.

TRUE 120. Substantive tests are also referred to as compliance tests.

FALSE 121. General controls relate to specific software and application controls relate to all aspects of the IT environment.

FALSE 122. General controls must be tested before application controls.

TRUE 123. Systems operators and users should not have access to the IT documentation containing details about the internal logic of computer systems.

TRUE 124. Control tests verify whether financial information is accurate, where substantive tests determine whether the financial information is managed under a system that promotes accuracy.

FALSE 125. Regardless of the results of the control testing, some level of substantive testing must take place.

TRUE 126. The use of generalized audit software is especially useful when there are large volumes of data and when there is a need for accurate information.

TRUE 127X. All of the risks and audit procedures that apply to a PC environment may also exist in networks, but the risk of loss of much lower.

FALSE 128X. Network operations typically involve a large number of computers, many users, and a high volume of data transfers, so any lack of network controls could cause widespread damage. Because of this, it is necessary for auditors to apply strict tests to a representative sample of the network.

FALSE 129. When audit clients use a database system, the relating data is organized in a consistent manner which tends to make it easier for auditors to select items for testing.

TRUE 130X. When a client company is using IT outsourcing, and that service center has its own auditors who report on internal control, the third-party report (from the independent auditors) can not be used as audit evidence without the auditor performing an adequate amount of compliance testing.

FALSE 130A1. Risk assessment in cloud computing is particularly challenging because the threats to a company’s data are uncontrolled, and often unforeseen, by the company.

TRUE 130A2. Within the cloud computing environment, the service provider is responsible to make sure that all relevant risks have been identified and controlled. Because of this, the company using the cloud computing does not need to repeat that evaluation.

FALSE

130A3. Because there is no such thing as a standard cloud, it is not possible to standardize a risk assessment process and audit procedures for a cloud computing environment.

TRUE 130A4. When an auditor is engaged to audit a company that uses cloud computing, the auditor must rely on the SOC reports provided by the service company’s auditors.

FALSE 131. When a client changes the type of hardware or software used or in other ways modifies its IT environment, the auditors need to test only the new system in order to determine the effectiveness of the controls.

FALSE 132. When a client plans to implement new computerized systems, auditors will find it advantageous to review the new system before it is placed in use.

TRUE 133. A sample is random when each item in the population has an equal chance of being chosen.

TRUE 134X. Of all the principles applicable to auditors, the one that generally receives the most attention is the requirement that financial statement auditors maintain integrity.

FALSE 135X. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act has placed restrictions on auditors by prohibiting certain types of services historically performed by auditors for their clients.

TRUE 136. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act decreased management’s responsibilities regarding the fair presentation of the financial statements.

FALSE 137. The responsibility of the auditor to search for fraud is less than the responsibility to search for errors.

FALSE 138. Even with a good system of internal controls, employee fraud, the theft of assets, may occur due to collusion of two or more employees to carry out the fraud.

TRUE 139. Management fraud is the intentional misstatement of financial information and may be difficult for auditors to find because the perpetrator will attempt to hide the fraud.

TRUE 140X. The PCAOB/AICPA Code of Professional Conduct is made up of two sections. One section, the rules, are the foundations for the honorable behavior expected of CPAs while performing professional duties.

FALSE

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 7 – TRUE / FALSE: 95.

96.

97.

98.

F T F T

105.

106.

107.

108.

T T F F

115.

116.

117.

118.

T F T F

125.

126.

127.

128.

T T F F

135.

136.

137.

138.

T F F T

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

F F T F T F

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

F T T F F F

119.

120.

121.

122.

123.

124.

T F F T T F

129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

134.

T F F T T F

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 7 - NEW TRUE/FALSE 103A1. F 104A1. T 104A2. F

115A1. F 115A2. T 115A3. F

119A1. T 130A1. T 130A2. F

130A3. T 130A4. F

139. T 140. F

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 8: Revenue and Cash Collection Processes

NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

End of Chapter Questions: 1. Within the revenue processes, a signed approval of a sales order indicates all of the following except: A. The date of delivery.

B. The sale is to an accepted customer.

C. The customer’s credit has been approved.

D. The sales price is correct.

2. An example of an independent verification in the sale process is: A. Preparation of packing lists on prenumbered forms.

B. Initialing the sales order.

C. Proof of recorded dates, quantities, and prices on an invoice.

D. Physical controls in record storage areas.

3. The purpose of tracing shipping documents to prenumbered sales invoices would be to provide evidence that: A. Shipments to customers were properly invoiced.

B. No duplicate shipments or billings occurred.

C. Goods billed to customers were shipped.

D. All prenumbered sales invoices were accounted for.

4. The purpose of tracing sales invoices to shipping documents would be to provide evidence that: A. Shipments to customers were properly invoiced.

B. No duplicate shipments or billings occurred.

C. Goods billed to customers were shipped.

D. All prenumbered sales invoices were accounted for.

5. To ensure that all credit sales transactions of an entity are recorded, which of the following controls wold be most effective?

A. On a monthly basis, the accounting department supervisor reconciles the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger to the accounts receivable control account.

B. The supervisor of the accounting department investigates any account balance differences reported by customers.

C. The supervisor of the billing department sends copies of approved sales orders to the credit department for comparison of authorized credit limits and current customer balances.

D. The supervisor of the billing department matches prenumbered shipping documents with entries recorded in the sale journal.

6.Under a system of sound internal controls, if a company sold defective goods, the return of those goods from the customer should be accepted by the: A. Receiving Clerk B. Sales Clerk C. Purchasing Clerk D. Inventory Control Clerk 7. The source document that initiates the recording of the return and the adjustment to the customer’s credit status

is the: A. Pick list B. Sales journal C. Credit memorandum D. Sales invoice 8. Which of the following is not a document that is part of the cash collection process?

A. Remittance advice B. Cash receipts journal C. Bank deposit slip D. Packing slip 9. Which of the following would represent proper segregation of duties?

A. The employee who has custody of cash also does accounts receivable record keeping.

B. The employee who has custody of cash completes the bank reconciliation.

C. The employee who opens mail containing checks prepares a list of checks received.

D. The employee who opens mail containing checks records transactions in the general ledger.

10. Immediately upon receiving checks from customers in the mail, a responsible employee working in an environment of adequate internal control should prepare a listing of receipts and forward it to the company’s cashier. A copy of this cash receipts listing should also be sent to the company’s: A. Treasurer for comparison with the monthly bank statement.

B. Internal auditor for investigation of any unusual transactions.

C. Accounts receivable clerk for updating of the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger.

D. Bank for comparison with deposit slips.

11. If a company does not prepare an aging of accounts receivable, which of the following accounts is most likely to be misstated?

A. Sales revenues B. Accounts receivable C. Sales returns and allowances D. Allowance for uncollectible accounts 12. When a company sells items over the Internet, it is usually called e-commerce. There are many IT risks related to Internet sales. The risk of invalid data entered by a customer would be a(n): A. Availability risk.

B. Processing integrity risk.

C. Security risk.

D. Confidentiality risk.

13. When a company sells items over the Internet, there are many IT risks. The risk of hardware and software failures that prevent website sales would be a(n): A. Availability risk.

B. Processing integrity risk.

C. Security risk.

D. Confidentiality risk.

14. The use of electronic data interchange (EDI) to conduct sales electronically has both risks and benefits. Which of the following is a benefit of EDI, rather than a risk?

A. Incomplete audit trail B. Repudiation of sales transactions C. Unauthorized access D. Shorter inventory cycle time

15. An IT system that uses touch screens, bar coded products, and credit card authorization during the sale is called a(n): A. Electronic data interchange system.

B. E-commerce system.

C. Point of sales system.

D. E-payables system.

16. Which of the following is not a method of unethically inflating sales revenue?

A. Channel stuffing B. Holding sales open C. Premature recognition of contingent sales D. Promotional price discounts

ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS 1 - 16 (FROM THE TEXTBOOK) 1. A 5. D 9. C 2. C 6. A 10. A 3. A 7. C 11. D 4. C 8. D 12. B

13.

14.

15.

16.

A D C D

TEST BANK - CHAPTER 8 - MULTIPLE CHOICE 17. In a large company, there are hundreds, possibly thousands, of sales transactions each day. The company needs to have in place, systems and processes to: A. Capture the results of the sales transactions B. Record the proper and complete sales transactions C. Summarize and report the results of the transactions D. All of the above 18. The policies and procedures that employees follow when completing the sale, capturing customer data and sales quantities, and routing the resulting sales documents to the right departments within the company are referred to as: A. Transactions B. Processes C. Posting D. Systems 19. When a sale occurs, the information resulting from that sale must flow into the sales recording systems, the accounts receivable and cash collection systems, and the inventory tracking systems. In IT accounting systems, these recording and processing systems are referred to as: A. Transaction Processing Systems B. Revenue and Cash Processing Systems C. Point of Sale System D. E-business System 20. The business processes that are common in company-to-company sales business types include all of the following, except: A. Collect order data B. Record receivable and bill the customer C. Update affected records, such as accounts payable and cash D. Handle any product returns from the customer

21. The business processes that are common in company-to-company sales business are divided into three groups.

Which of the following is not one of those groups?

A. Sales processes, including ordering, delivery, and billing B. Purchase of inventory, including ordering, delivery, and billing C. Sales Returns processes D. Cash Collection processes 22. The risks that may affect the revenue and cash collection processes include all of the following, except: A. Transactions recorded by the wrong company.

B. Valid transactions may have been omitted from the records.

C. Transactions may not have been recorded in a timely manner.

D. Recorded transactions may not be valid or complete.

23. The risks that may affect the revenue and cash collection processes include all of the following, except: A. Transactions may have been recorded in the wrong customer account.

B. Transactions may be recorded in the wrong amount.

C. Invalid transactions may have been omitted from the records.

D. Transactions may not have been accumulated or transferred to the accounting records correctly.

24. Common means of presenting the revenue and cash collections processes pictorially include: A. Data Flow Diagram B. Document Flowchart C. Business Process Map D. All of the above 25. The sales and cash collections process begins when: A. Merchandise is shipped to a customer B. A customer places an order with the company C. Merchandise is purchased D. A vendor places an order with the company 26. The form, or source document, that conveys the details about a customer’s order, prepared by the customer, is referred to as: A. Sales Order B. Sales Invoice C. Purchase Order D. Purchase Invoice 27. Sales orders are calculated based on current selling prices of the items sold. The source of these prices, which would include the entire set of preestablished and approved prices for each product, is referred to as a(n): A. Price list B. Purchase order C. Packing slip D. Pick list 28. The maximum dollar amount that a customer is allowed to carry as an accounts receivable balance: A. Maximum Limit B. Credit Balance C. Maximum Balance D. Credit Limit 29. This item documents the quantities and descriptions of items ordered. Items from this document should be pulled from the warehouse shelves and packaged for the customer.

A. B. C. D.

Packing Slip Price List Pick List Purchase Order

30. The terms of agreement between the company and the common carrier are documented in a(n): A. Pick List B. Bill of Lading C. Invoice D. Packing Slip 31. A chronological listing of shipments that allows management to track the status of sales and to answer customer inquiries regarding order status is called a(n): A. Invoice B. Bill of Lading C. Pick List D. Shipping Log 32. This document is prepared and sent to the customer once the shipment has occurred. The document provides the details of the sale and requests payment.

A. Sales Invoice B. Accounts Receivable Statement C. Bill of Lading D. Sales Order 33. A special journal that is used to record sales transactions and is periodically posted to the general ledger.

A. General Journal B. Subsidiary Journal C. Sales Journal D. Accounts Receivable Journal 34. This document is prepared on a regular basis to accumulated and summarize all the transactions that have taken place between the customer and the company within the period.

A. Accounts Receivable Journal B. Sales Invoice C. Subsidiary Journal D. Customer Account Statements

34A1. When a sales transaction has been authorized, by the signature of the designated employee, it means that the designated employee has done all of the following, except: A. Verified the sale is to an accepted customer B. The vendor’s credit has been approved C. The price is correct D. Approval documented by a signature or initials of the designated employee 35. Which of the following relationships does not violate the rules of segregation of duties?

A. Credit authorization and preparation of the sales order.

B. Preparation of the sales order and sales invoice.

C. Preparing goods for shipment and accounting for inventory.

D. Entering sales in the sales journal and handling the inventory.

36. The internal control activity related to the adequate records and documents, related to sales, includes which of

the following?

A. Those responsible for recording sales should ensure that the supporting documentation is retained and organized.

B. Information systems duties included in the revenue process includes the preparation of sales orders and shipping logs.

C. All records are to be prepared by someone other than the person who has custody of the assets.

D. The authorization process is to remain separate from the recording process.

37. Which of the following is not one of the stated physical controls for inventory in a warehouse?

A. Surveillance Cameras B. Alarm Systems C. Backup Copies D. Security Guards 38. In order to protect data files, production programs, and accounting records from unauthorized access, each of the following may be used, except: A. Passwords B. Physical controls (locked cabinets) C. Backup copies D. Surveillance cameras 39. Common types of independent checks within the revenue process include all of the following, except: A. Verification of information in the sales journal and on sales invoices.

B. Verification of the bank statement and the cash account in the general journal.

C. Reconciliation of accounts receivable detail with invoices and with the general ledger.

D. Reconciliation of inventory records with actual (counted) quantities on hand.

40. Examples of characteristics that indicate a company may be more risky with respect to the revenue process include all of the following, except: A. Changes in sales prices or customers are infrequent.

B. The pricing structure is complex or is based on estimates.

C. There is a large volume of transactions is carried out.

D. The company depends on a single or on very few customers.

41. The comparison of the shipping records with the sales journal and invoices is completed to minimize the related risk of: A. Invalid transactions B. Fictitious customers C. Omitted transactions D. Duplicate transactions 42. The preparation of packing lists and shipping records on prenumbered forms will help to minimize the related risk of: A. Incorrect amounts B. Invalid sales C. Wrong customers D. Omitted transactions 43. The separation of the responsibility for the authorization of new customers from the custody of inventory will help to minimize the related risk of: A. Invalid sales B. Fictitious customers C. Incorrect amounts

D. Timing issues 44. A document prepared that lists the chronological sequence of all returned items is referred to as a(n): A. Receiving log B. Receiving report C. Invoice D. Packing list 45. A source document prepared by the personnel in the receiving dock that documents the quantity and condition of the items received is called a(n): A. Invoice B. Receiving log C. Receiving report D. Credit memorandum 46X. A document completed to prepare a record of the sales return and to adjust the amount of the customer’s credit status is called a(n): A. Receiving log B. Credit memorandum C. Sales invoice D. Sales journal 47. The authorization of sales returns requires that certain individuals within the company be assigned the authority for all of the following, except: A. Authorize Sales Returns B. Approve Credit Memos C. Develop Sales Return Policies D. Record the Credit Memos 48. The segregation of duties related to sales returns would ideally separate the function of performing the credit memo activity and all of the following, except: A. Credit approval B. Approve the credit memos C. Billing D. Data entry 49. Circumstances within a company, related to sales returns, that indicate a high level of risk include all of the following, except: A. Returns are received a one location with credit memos issued at the same location.

B. Quantities of products returned are often difficult to determine.

C. There is a high volume of credit memo activity.

D. Returns are received by consignees or under other arrangements not directly controlled by the company.

50. Differences between a sales return and a sales allowance include: A. The issuance of a credit memorandum B. The existence of defective merchandise C. The documentation in a receiving report D. All of the above 51. The separation of the custody of inventory from the accounts receivable record keeping will help to minimize the related risk of: A. Incorrect amounts B. Invalid returns

C. Fictitious customers D. Timing issues 52. The documentation accompanying payment that identifies the customer account number and invoice to which the payment applies is referred to as a(n): A. Cash Receipts Journal B. Promissory Note C. Deposit List D. Remittance Advice 53. A special journal used to record all cash collections is called a(n): A. Cash Receipts Journal B. Remittance Advice C. Check Register Journal D. Customer Subsidiary Journal 54. In order to ensure that all records are updated only for authorized transactions, appropriate individuals should be assigned all of the following duties, except: A. Opening and closing all bank accounts.

B. Preparing the bank reconciliation.

C. Approving bank deposits.

D. Approving electronic transfers of funds.

55. The recording responsibilities for cash receipts includes all of the following, except: A. Maintaining a cash receipts journal B. Updating accounts receivable records for individual customers C. Posting subsidiary ledger totals to the general ledger D. Preparing bank deposits 56. The custody responsibilities for cash receipts includes all of the following, except: A. Updating accounts receivable records B. Opening mail C. Preparing a list of collections D. Handling receipts of currency and checks 57. The internal control of cash receipts related to adequate records and documents would include which of the following?

A. Cash receipts listings prepared on a daily basis and reconciled to supporting documentation from the bank deposit.

B. Bank deposit receipts should be retained and filed chronologically.

C. Detailed customer accounts should also be maintained and reconciled with customer statements regularly.

D. All of the above.

58. Independent checks and reconciliations, related to cash receipts, include all of the following, except: A. Cash counts should occur on a surprise basis and be conducted by someone not responsible for cash receipts functions.

B. Cash collections should be deposited in the bank in a timely manner to prevent the risk of theft.

C. Physical count of cash needs to be conducted from time to time in order to compare actual cash on hand with the amounts in the accounting records.

D. Daily bank deposits should be compared with the detail on the related remittance advice and in the cash receipts journal.

59. Bank reconciliation tasks include:

A. B. C. D.

Procedures to ensure that deposits are examined for proper dates Procedures to ensure that all reconciling items are reviewed and explained Both of the above None of the above

60. The following circumstances may indicate risks related to cash collections, except: A. High volume of cash collections B. Centralized cash collections C. Lack of consistency in the volume or source of collections D. Presence of cash collections denominated in foreign currencies 61. Whenever a company grants credit to customers, there is a danger that customers will not pay. In fact, most companies have occasional problems with customers who fail to pay which leads to writing off the accounts receivable. Proper controls related to these uncollectible accounts include all of the following, except: A. Segregation of responsibilities so that no one has the opportunity to write off an account to cover up stolen cash.

B. Thorough guidelines are to be established for determining the amount of an allowance for uncollectible accounts.

C. An accounts receivable aging report should be generated to analyze all customer balances and the lengths of time that have elapsed since the payments were due.

D. Mathematical verification of the cash receipts journal and the accounts receivable ledger.

62X. The separation of the responsibility for custody of cash from the responsibility for reconciling the bank accounts will help to minimize the related risk of: A. Wrong customers B. Incorrect amounts C. Invalid bank account D. Invalid transactions 63. The separation of the custody of cash from the accounts receivable record keeping will help to minimize the related risk of: A. Invalid cash receipts B. Incorrect amounts C. Invalid transactions D. Duplicate transactions 64. The preparation of deposit slips on prenumbered forms will help to minimize the related risk of: A. Invalid transactions B. Incorrect amounts C. Duplicate transactions D. Omitted transactions 65. The security of having cash receipts deposited in the bank on a daily basis will help to minimize the related risk of: A. Invalid receipts B. Invalid bank account C. Lost or stolen cash D. Duplicate transactions 66X. General controls of the IT system would include all of the following, except: A. Authentication of users B. Accuracy C. Physical access controls D. Business continuity planning

67. Application controls of the IT system would include: A. Availability B. Accuracy and Completeness C. Security D. Processing Integrity 68. This type of highly integrated IT system incorporates electronic processing of sales-related activities and, generally, the sales processes are transacted over the internet.

A. E-commerce B. Virtual commerce C. Electronic data interchange D. Point of sale 69. This type of highly integrated IT system, inter-company, computer-to-computer, communicates sales documents electronically with a standard business format.

A. E-commerce B. Virtual commerce C. Electronic data interchange D. Point of sale 70. This type of highly integrated IT system processes sales at a cash register in retail stores.

A. E-commerce B. Virtual commerce C. Electronic data interchange D. Point of sale 71. The advantages of e-commerce, or e-business, include all of the following, except: A. Reduced cost through lower marketing, employee, and paperwork costs.

B. Shorter sales cycles C. Repudiation of sales transactions D. Increased accuracy and reliability of sales data 72. The risks of e-commerce, or e-business, include all of the following, except: A. Confidentiality B. Accuracy C. Security D. Processing Integrity 73. Availability risks of e-commerce, or e-business, include all of the following, except: A. Hardware and software system failures B. Virus and work attacks C. Denial-of-service attacks by hackers D. Incomplete audit trail 74. Important characteristics of electronic data interchange (EDI) include all of the following, except: A. Sales register is used to record all transactions.

B. Inter-company refers to two or more companies conducting business electronically.

C. Computer-to-computer aspect indicates that each company’s computers are connected via a network.

D. A standard business format is necessary so that companies can interact and trade with a variety of buyers and sellers.

75X. The standard format used with electronic data interchange (EDI) allows all vendors and buyers to speak the same

language. This group has developed the standard format for the common documents used in the sales process: A. Electronic Data Systems B. American Common Forms Institute C. Association of Naturalized Documents D. American National Standards Institute 76X. The standard format for common forms used in the United States for electronic data interchange (EDI) data transmission is divided into three parts. Which of the following is one of those “parts”?

A. Availability Segment B. Labeling Interchanges C. Security Trailer D. Processing Data 77. This section of the common forms used as the standard format in EDI data transmission contains data about the file or transmission and identify the end of a particular transaction.

A. Header and Trailer Data B. Labeling Interchanges C. Data Segments D. Footer Data 78X. Because it can be expensive to develop and maintain a system that links two companies directly, the companies often use a third-party network. This third-party network provides other valuable services such as translation and encryption of the EDI data and authentication of a valid and authorized training partner. These third-party networks are called: A. EDI Mailboxes B. American National Standards Provider C. Value Added Networks D. Secured EDI Networks 79. EDI systems have many advantages within the revenue and cash collection processes. Which of the following is not one of those benefits?

A. Reduction or elimination of data keying.

B. Trading partners gaining access to data.

C. Elimination of postage costs.

D. Competitive advantage through better customer service.

80. The process of user identification to ensure that only authorized users are accessing the IT system, which occurs through the use of user ID, password, and other unique identifiers, is called: A. Processing Integrity B. Virtualization C. Availability D. Authentication 81. A control that limits the risk of network break-ins is the coding of data that makes data unreadable to those without the appropriate key. This process does not stop the breaches, but will make the data useless.

A. Encryption B. Encoding C. Repudiation D. Hacking 82. This occurs when the IT system automatically makes a list of users and the actions they take within the IT system.

A. Control Totals B. Transaction Logging

C. Encryption Keys D. Acknowledgment 83. The Point-of-sales (POS) systems capture all relevant sales data at the point of sale - the cash register. The data that is captured includes all of the following, except: A. Prices are determined by accessing inventory and price list data B. Sales revenue is recorded C. Ordering for low-inventory items D. Inventory values are updated 84X. Features that assist management and accountants, as the result of the point-of-sale systems, include all of the following, except: A. Bar code scanning eliminates the need to manually enter product codes, quantities, or prices.

B. Real-time update of cash, sales, and inventory records allows for immediate analysis of sales trends, inventory needs, and cash on hand.

C. List prices can be changed by the check-out clerks to take advantage of any price changes.

D. Credit card authorization during the sale save time and help prevent credit card fraud.

85X. This term refers to moving the current accounting period’s cut-off date forward to include sales that correctly occur in a future period. This activity occurs so that the selling company can inflate their sales in the current period.

A. Channel stuffing B. Leaving sales open C. Shipping reversal D. Sales deferral

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 8 – MULTIPLE CHOICE: 17. D 31. D 45. C 18. B 32. A 46. B 19. A 33. C 47. D 20. C 34. D 48. B 21. B 35. B 49. A 22. A 36. A 50. C 23. C 37. C 51. B 24. D 38. D 52. D 25. B 39. B 53. A 26. C 40. A 54. B 27. A 41. C 55. D 28. D 42. D 56. A 29. C 43. B 57. D 30. B 44. A 58. B

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 8 - NEW MULTIPLE CHOICE 34A1. B

C B D B A D C B B A C D C B

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

D A D B A C B D A B C C B

TEST BANK - CHAPTER 8 - TRUE / FALSE 86. Because different companies conduct business in different manners, there tends to be few similarities in the way the related business processes are carried out.

FALSE 87. Sales processes need supporting practices such as credit checks and stock authorization.

TRUE 88. Even though most companies collect order data from customers, the manner of receiving order data seldom varies.

FALSE

89. What a customer refers to as a purchase order is referred to as a sales order by the vendor.

TRUE 90. When a sales order has been entered into the system, the customer’s credit status must be checked. For existing customers, the sale on account should be approved only if the customer has exceeded their credit limit.

FALSE 91. If a sales order comes from a new customer, it is necessary to evaluate the creditworthiness of that customer before the sale is approved.

TRUE 92. When ever a sales order is received, it is necessary to check the inventory to make sure that the items ordered are in stock. If the items are in stock, a packing slip will be prepared.

FALSE 93. Billing to the customer should take place prior to shipment so that the customer receives the bill before the merchandise arrives.

FALSE 94. If a vendors waits too long to send the bill to the customer due to the fact that it could cause a delay of the collection of the cash.

TRUE 95. When the customer is billed, the accounts receivable records should be updated to reflect the decreased balance.

FALSE 96. The existence of good internal controls do not ensure high sales and profits.

TRUE 97. Effective and efficient internal control often takes up valuable management time that could otherwise be spent on attention to revenue growth and cost controls.

FALSE 98X. Proper sales authorization control requires obtaining approval before processing an order and again before the order is shipped.

TRUE 99. The internal control activity, related to the authorization of transactions, requires that only specific individuals

within the company should have the authoritative responsibility for establishing sales prices and credit terms.

TRUE 100. The individuals who are given the authority to establish sales prices, credit limits, and guidelines for accepting customers should be sure to keep most of the information confidential.

FALSE 101. In order to meet the objectives of internal controls, individuals with authoritative responsibilities need to have access to the record keeping functions.

FALSE 102. Record files related to sales can be organized by customer name or by the numerical sequence of the documents.

TRUE 103. A benefit of a company accounting for their documents in a numerical sequence is that it is much easier to see if a document or documents are missing.

TRUE 104. Independent checks and reconciliations should be preformed on a regular basis as part of the segregation of duties area of internal controls.

FALSE 105. A reconciliation should be prepared by the same person who is responsible for the recording function.

FALSE 106. A company is more likely to implement internal controls if they view the cost of the controls to be less than the benefits provided.

TRUE 107. When a credit memorandum has a reference to the original sales invoice and approved price list it will assure that the correct customer receives credit for the return.

FALSE 108. Internal controls over sales returns are similar to those for the revenue process where it is important to match receiving reports for returns with the related credit memos to ensure that the company issues credit for all returns for the correct amounts.

TRUE 109. Specific internal control procedures to be performed, specifically independent checks and reconciliations, should be performed by someone who as the responsibility for the recording of the transactions and the custody of the assets received.

FALSE 110. It is necessary for a company to consider the risks of its system to determine whether the costs of implementing a control procedure are worthwhile in terms of the benefits realized from the control.

TRUE 111. As a rule, the higher the risk, the more controls are generally required and the less costly its accounting system may become.

FALSE 112. Company to company sales normally occur on account and involve a time span given for the customer to pay the

vendor. The actual number of days will depend on the credit terms and the diligence of the customer concerning on-time payments.

TRUE 113X. The remittance advice sent by the customer with the related payment is used by the vendor to properly apply the payment to the customer’s account.

TRUE 114. The segregation of duties states that the authorization of duties is to be separated from the recording function but not from the custody function.

FALSE 115. At a minimum, those who handle cash should be the ones to reconcile the bank statement.

FALSE 116. Those who handle cash should not have access to the related accounting records.

TRUE 117. At a minimum, cash receipts should be deposited on a weekly basis.

FALSE 118. Detailed customer accounts should be maintained and reconciled with customer statements regularly.

TRUE 119. Access to cash collections needs to limited to those who are expressly authorized to record the cash transactions.

FALSE 120. Controls over cash collections are likely the most important control procedure because cash is the asset most susceptible to theft and misappropriation.

TRUE 121. Integrated IT systems that are used to conduct internet sales in a business to customer manner are referred to as e-commerce.

TRUE 122. Business to business sales on the internet are referred to as e-commerce.

FALSE 123. The use of control totals and related acknowledgments can reduce the risk of denial of service attacks by hackers.

FALSE 124. Because the point-of-sale systems are not normally connected to outside trading partners, they pose fewer risks related to security and confidentiality than e-commerce or EDI systems.

TRUE 125. Because the point-of-sale systems are not normally connected to outside trading partners, they pose fewer risks related to availability.

FALSE 126. Few deceptions and fraudulent acts in the business and accounting environment relate to revenue measurement and recognition.

FALSE

127. Regardless of how effective and good the accounting system is, if top management is intent on falsifying financial statements by inflating revenue, they can usually find ways to misstate revenue.

TRUE 128. In many cases where revenue has been overstated by management, accountants have participated in the deception. Thankfully, once the overstatement has occurred, it will be offset by lower revenues in the subsequent year and normally will not recur.

FALSE 129. When top management behaves ethically and encourages ethical behavior, there are usually fewer cases of frauds, errors, or other ethical problems.

TRUE 130. Establishing proper processes, internal controls, and ethical guidelines does not lead to better corporate governance, even though it does improve the financial stewardship.

FALSE

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 8 – TRUE / FALSE: 86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

F T F T F T F F T

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

F T F T T F F T T

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

F F T F T F T F T

113.

114.

115.

116.

117.

118.

119.

120.

121.

T F F T F T F T T

122.

123.

124.

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

130.

F F T F F T F T F

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 9: Expenditures Processes and Controls - Purchases

NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

End of Chapter Questions: 1. Within the purchases processes, which of the following is the first document prepared and thereby the one that triggers the remaining purchasing processes?

A. The invoice B. The receiving report C. The purchase order D. The purchase requisition 2X. Personnel who work in the receiving area should complete all of the following processes, except: A. Counting the goods received B. Inspecting goods received for damage C. Preparing a receiving report D. Preparing an invoice 3. Which of the given departments will immediately adjust the vendor account for each purchase transaction so that the company will know the correct amount owed to the vendor?

A. Purchasing B. Receiving C. Accounts Payable D. Shipping 4. One of the most critical controls to prevent theft of inventory purchased is to: A. Require authorization of the purchase requisition.

B. Segregate inventory custody from inventory record keeping.

C. Compare the purchase order, receiving report, and invoice.

D. Segregate the authorization of purchases from the inventory record keeping.

5. Internal control is strengthened by the use of a blind purchase order, upon which the quantity of goods ordered is intentionally left blank. This blind copy is used in which department?

A. The department that initiated the purchase request.

B. The receiving department.

C. The purchasing department.

D. The accounts payable department.

6. Which of the following questions would most likely be included in an internal control questionnaire concerning the completeness of purchasing transactions?

A. Is an authorized purchase order required before the receiving department can accept a shipment or the accounts payable department can record a voucher?

B. Are prenumbered purchase requisitions used and are they subsequently matched with vendor invoices?

C. Is there a regular reconciliation of the inventory records with the file of unpaid vouchers?

D. Are prenumbered purchase orders, receiving reports, and vouchers used, and are the entire sequences accounted for?

7. Which of the following controls is not normally performed in the accounts payable department?

A. The vendor’s invoice is matched with the related receiving report.

B. Vendor invoices are approved for payment.

C. Asset and expense accounts to be recorded are assigned.

D. Unused purchase orders and receiving reports are accounted for.

8. In a system of proper internal controls, the same employee should not be allowed to: A. Sign checks and cancel the supporting voucher package.

B. Receive goods and prepare the related receiving report.

C. Prepare voucher packages and sign checks.

D. Initiate purchase requisitions and inspect goods received.

9. The document prepared when purchased items are returned is a(n): A. Debit memo B. Invoice C. Receiving report D. Shipping notice 10. Within cash disbursements, all of the following should be true before a check is prepared, except that: A. The purchase order, receiving report, and invoice have been matched.

B. The purchased goods have been used.

C. Sufficient cash is available.

D. The invoice discount date or due date is imminent.

11X. A manager suspects that certain employees are ordering merchandise for themselves over the Internet without recording the purchase or receipt of the merchandise. When vendors’ invoices arrive, one of the employees approves the invoices for payment. After the invoices are paid, the employee destroys the invoices and related vouchers. To trace whether this is actually happening, it would be best to begin tracing from the: A. Cash disbursements.

B. Approved vouchers.

C. Receiving reports.

D. Vendors’ invoices.

12. Within accounts payable, to ensure that each voucher is submitted and paid only once, each invoice approved to be paid should be: A. Supported by a receiving report.

B. Stamped “paid” by the check signer.

C. Prenumbered and accounted for.

D. Approved for authorized purchases.

13. For proper segregation of duties in cash disbursements, the person who signs checks also: A. Reviews the monthly bank reconciliation.

B. Returns the checks to accounts payable.

C. Is denied access to the supporting documents.

D. Is responsible for mailing the checks.

14. Which of the following internal controls wold help prevent overpayment to a vendor or duplicate payment to a vendor?

A. Review and cancellation of supporting documents after issuing payment.

B. Requiring the check signer to mail the payment to the vendor C. Review of the accounts where the expenditure transaction has been recorded D. Approving the purchase before the goods are ordered from the vendor

15. Which of the following is not an independent verification related to cash disbursements?

A. The cash disbursements journal is reconciled to the general ledger.

B. The stock of unused checks should be adequately secured and controlled.

C. The bank statement is reconciled on a monthly basis.

D. The accounts payable subsidiary ledger is reconciled to the general ledger.

16X. Which of the following IT systems is designed to avoid the document matching process and is an “invoiceless” system?

A. Computer-based matching system B. Electronic data interchange C. Evaluated receipt settlement D. Microsoft Dynamics 17. Input controls such as field check, validity check, limit check, and reasonableness check are useful in IT systems of purchase to lessen which of the following risks?

A. Unauthorized access B. Invalid data entered by vendors C. Repudiation of purchase transactions D. Virus and worm attacks 18. Which of the following is most likely to be effective in deterring fraud by upper level managers?

A. Internal controls B. An enforced code of ethics C. Matching documents prior to payment D. Segregating custody of inventory from inventory record keeping ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS 1 - 18 (FROM THE TEXTBOOK) 1. D 5. B 9. A 2. D 6. D 10. B 3. C 7. D 11. A 4. B 8. C 12. B

13.

14.

15.

16.

B A B C

17. B 18. B

TEST BANK - CHAPTER 9 - MULTIPLE CHOICE 19X. The policies and procedures that employees follow when completing the purchase of goods or materials, capturing vendor data and purchase quantities, and routing the resulting purchasing documents to the proper departments within the company are called: A. Systems B. Processes C. Activities D. Requisitions 20X. The information from a purchase must flow into the purchase recording systems, the accounts payable and cash disbursement systems, and the inventory tracking systems. In an IT accounting system, these recording and processing systems are called: A. General Ledger Systems B. Integrated Accounting Systems C. Journal Application Systems D. Transaction Processing Systems 21. The acquisition of materials and supplies and the related cash disbursements is referred to as:

A. B. C. D.

The Procurement Process Systems and Control Process Expenditure and Return Process Conversion Process

22. Which of the following would be referred to as a common carrier?

A. Taxi-cab B. Trucking company C. City bus D. Fire department vehicle 23X. Common expenditure processes would include all of the following, except: A. Preparation of a purchase requisition B. Receipt of the goods or services C. Recording the liability D. Payment received on account 24X. The textbook referred to the three primary categories of processes in the typical purchasing system. Which of the following in not one of those categories?

A. Purchase Processes B. Cash Disbursement Processes C. Receiving Processes D. Purchase Return Processes 25. Each category of processes in the typical purchasing system would include controls and risks. For each of the categories, the goal of the internal controls system is to reduce specific types of business risks. Which of the following is not one of those risks?

A. Recording invalid transactions.

B. Recording transactions at the wrong amounts.

C. Omitting actual transactions from the accounting records.

D. Transactions properly accumulated or transferred to the correct accounting records.

26. This form is prepared to document the need to make a purchase and requests that the specific items and quantities be purchased.

A. Purchase order B. Purchase requisition C. Purchase invoice D. Purchase journal 27. This form is issued by the buyer, and presented to the seller, to indicate the details for products or services that the seller will provide to the buyer. Information included on this form would be: products, quantities, and agreedupon prices.

A. Purchase order B. Purchase requisition C. Purchase invoice D. Purchase journal 28. A record keeping tool used to record purchases in a manual accounting system. This “tool” would consist of recording all of the purchased orders issued to vendors in a chronological order.

A. Purchase order B. Purchase requisition C. Purchase invoice D. Purchase journal

29. There are different ways to issue a purchase order to a vendor. Which of the following is not one of the ways?

A. Hard copy via fax or mail B. Hard copy by hand C. Electronically via e-mail D. Directly through the computer network 30. When purchased goods are received, which of the following tasks should be completed in the receiving area?

A. An inspection of the goods - quantity counted and condition assessed.

B. Documenting the details of the receipt, before the carrier leaves.

C. Match the purchase order, the receiving report, and the purchase invoice to be sure that they agree.

D. Preparation of a receiving report detailing the contents and condition of the goods.

31. This document, prepared and maintained by the receiving department, is a sequential listing of all receipts.

A. Receiving report B. Packing slip C. Bill of lading D. Receiving log 32. This document, prepared by the purchasing department, for use by the receiving department, is copy of the purchase order that eliminates all data about the price and quantity of the items ordered.

A. Packing slip B. Blind purchase order C. Empty purchase order D. Receiving report 33. This document, prepared by the vendor, provides details of the items included in the delivery; and is normally signed by the receiving clerk as verification of receipt.

A. Packing slip B. Receiving report C. Bill of lading D. Purchase order 34X. This document, prepared by the vendor, is intended to show the quantities and descriptions of items included in the shipment.

A. Packing slip B. Sales invoice C. Bill of lading D. Purchase order 35. When goods are received at the end of the accounting period, and the invoice is not received until after the start of the following period, a problem may arise as to when to record the liability. This is referred to as a(n): A. Obligation referral B. Cutoff issue C. Liability deferral D. Channel stuffing 36. The date that is the end of the accounting period is referred to as the: A. Fiscal date B. Change off C. Accounting cut D. Cutoff 37X. The accounting record that includes the details of amounts owed to each vendor is called the:

A. B. C. D.

Accounts payable subsidiary ledger Purchases journal Accounts receivable subsidiary ledger Receiving log

38. The internal control activities within the purchasing process, related to authorization of transactions, would include which of the following?

A. The accounting duties related to requisitioning, ordering, and receiving goods should be performed by different individuals.

B. The custody of inventory and the recording of inventory transactions are required to be maintained.

C. Specific individuals are to be authoritative responsibility for preparing purchase requisitions and purchase orders which would include which items to purchase, how many items, and which vendor.

D. Periodic physical inventory counts are to be reconciled with the inventory ledger and general ledger.

39. Internal control activities within the purchasing process, identified as segregation of duties, would include all of the following, except: A. Responsibility for authorization, custody, and record keeping are to be assigned to different individuals.

B. Duties related to requisitioning, ordering, purchase approval, receiving, inventory control, accounts payable, and general accounting are to be delegated to separate departments or individuals.

C. Complete separation of inventory custody from inventory accounting.

D. Purchasing records and programs must be protected from unauthorized access.

40. Internal control activities within the purchasing process, identified as adequate records and documents, would include which of the following?

A. Files are to be maintained for purchase requisitions, purchase orders, receiving reports, and invoices.

B. Periodic physical inventory counts are to be reconciled with the inventory ledger.

C. Companies are to implement controls where the corresponding benefit exceeds the related cost.

D. Avoid having the same individuals who handle the inventory also have access to the related accounting records.

41X. A company should study risks common to its system prior to deciding the mix of controls needed. High-risk characteristics that might justify the need for extensive internal controls include all of the following, except: A. Goods received are especially difficult to differentiate, count, or inspect.

B. High volumes of goods are often received, or the goods are of high value.

C. Receiving and / or record keeping are performed at one centralized location.

D. Changes in price or vendors is frequent.

42. The internal control process of having the receiving reports prepared on pre-numbered forms so that the sequence of receipts can be reviewed for proper recording will help to minimize the related risk of: A. Invalid vendors B. Omitted purchases C. Fictitious purchases D. Timing issues 43X. The internal control process of separating the custody of inventory from the accounts payable record keeping will help to minimize the risk of: A. Fictitious purchases B. Invalid vendors C. Duplicate purchases D. Incorrect amounts 44. The internal control process of requiring physical controls in the warehouse and receiving areas, in order to limit access to inventory items, will help to minimize the risk of:

A. B. C. D.

Incorrect posting Omitted purchases Invalid vendors Stolen goods

45X. The internal control process that requires purchase records to be matched and verified for item descriptions, quantities, dates, authorized prices, and mathematical accuracy, will help to minimize the risk of: A. Stolen goods B. Omitted transactions C. Invalid purchases D. Incorrect accumulation 46. A company may reject goods received due to a number of reasons. The process related to this is referred to as: A. Purchases B. Purchase Returns C. Accounts Payable D. Receiving 47. Goods received are unacceptable due to may different situations. Which of the following is not one of those situations?

A. Damage or defects B. Changes in the company needs regarding future sales or production C. Errors in the type of goods delivered or ordered D. Timing issues 48. The document that identifies the items being returned, along with the relevant information regarding the vendor, quantity and price, is called: A. Credit memo B. Receiving report C. Purchase requisition D. Debit memo 49. Internal controls related to the purchase returns would include all of the following, except: A. The accounts payable employee who prepares the debit memo should also be responsible for handling the inventory and approving the return.

B. Special authorization should be required to officially reject and return the items.

C. Debit memos should be issued on pre-numbered forms in numerical sequence.

D. Accounts payable records and data files should be restricted to those who are specifically authorized to approve or record the related purchase return.

50. The internal control process that requires the approval of the purchase return transaction take place before the preparation of the debit memo, will help to minimize the risk of: A. Fictitious returns B. Omitted returns C. Invalid returns D. Wrong vendor 51. The internal control process that requires the segregation of the authorization of purchase returns and the accounts payable record keeping and the custody of inventory, will help to minimize the risk of: A. Incorrect amounts B. Fictitious returns C. Timing issues D. Duplicate returns

52. The internal control process that requires vendor statements to be reviewed monthly and reconciled with accounts payable records, will help to minimize the risk of: A. Invalid returns B. Stolen goods C. Wrong account numbers D. Omitted returns 53. The internal control process that requires purchase return records be matched with the original purchase documentation and verified for item descriptions, quantities, dates, and prices, will help to minimize the risk of: A. Incorrect amounts B. Omitted returns C. Fictitious returns D. Invalid vendors 54. The careful oversight of cash balances, forecasted cash payments, and forecasted cash receipts to insure that adequate cash balances exist to meed obligations is called: A. Cash disbursements B. Cash management C. Independent checks D. Accounts payable management 55. Which department is generally responsible for the notification of the need to make cash disbursements and the maintenance of vendor accounts?

A. Accounting department B. Purchasing department C. Accounts payable department D. Shipping department 56. It is important that documentation support or agree with an invoice before payment is approved and a check is issued. Which documents should be matched to make sure that the invoice received relates to a valid order that was placed and that the goods were received?

A. Purchase requisition, purchase order, and receiving report.

B. Purchase order, receiving log, and invoice.

C. Purchase requisition, receiving report, and statement.

D. Purchase order, receiving report, and invoice.

57. It is necessary for a company to maintain good control over their accounts payable and paying by the due date, for all of the following reasons, except: A. Avoid late payment fees B. Maintain relationships with customers C. To take advantage of discounts for early payment D. To stay on good terms with its vendors 58. A tear-off part of a check that has a simple explanation of the reasons for the payment is called: A. Remittance advice B. Disbursement journal C. Transaction description D. Cash register 59. When a payment has been made, the cash disbursements clerk will clearly mark the invoice with information pertaining to the date an the check number used to satisfy the obligation. This process is called: A. Marking the invoice B. Retiring the invoice C. Cancelling the invoice

D. Destroying the invoice 60. A chronological listing of all payments is referred to as a(n): A. Remittance Advice B. Cash Disbursements Journal C. Accounts Payable Ledger D. Purchases Journal 61. This control requires the approval and signature of two authorized persons, which reduces the risk of significant fraud or error.

A. Double Remittance B. Duo-Authorization C. Bi-Sign D. Dual Signature 62X. The security of assets and documents related to cash disbursements would include all of the following, except: A. Access to cash should be limited to the authorized check signers.

B. Physical controls should be in place where the cash is retained and disbursed.

C. Access to records should be limited to persons with the authority to sign checks.

D. The company’s stock of unused checks should be protected and controlled.

63X. The internal control process that requires the approval of a cash disbursement transaction to take place prior to the preparation of the check, will help to minimize the risk of: A. Fictitious payments B. Invalid payments C. Timing issues D. Stolen cash 64. The internal control process that requires that the bank reconciliation be performed monthly, will help to minimize the risk of: A. Invalid payments B. Invalid vendors C. Incorrect posting D. Duplicate payments 65X. A computer software technique in which the computer software matches an invoice to its related purchase order and receiving report is called a(n): A. Three way matching B. Document matching C. Disbursement approval D. Automated matching 66. Advantages of an automated system includes all of the following, except: A. Reduce time, costs, errors, and duplicate payments.

B. Increased cost of the system.

C. Provides management more timely information to forecast future cash outflows for payment of invoices.

D. Summarized detailed transactions into summary amounts that are posted to the general ledger accounts.

67. The security and confidentiality risks of computer based matching would include: A. Unauthorized access to the system’s ordering and matching functions would allow the insertion of fictitious vendors and / or invoices.

B. Errors in system logic can cause systematic and repetitive errors in matching.

C. The criteria used to identify duplicate payments may be too tightly defined and will overlook duplicate

payments.

D. System breakdowns or interruptions can stop or slow the processing of invoices and payments.

68. This type of system matching takes place without invoices. The receipt of goods is carefully evaluated an, if it matches the purchase order, settlement of the obligation occurs through the system.

A. Business Process Engineering B. Controlled Access Invoicing C. Evaluated Receipt Settlement D. Double Matching System 69. In order to help safeguard the security and confidentiality in an electronic business environment, a company should implement controls such as user ID, password, log-in procedures, access levels, and authority tables in order to reduce the risk of: A. Unauthorized access B. Incomplete audit trail C. Virus and worm attacks D. Repudiation of purchase transactions 70. In order to help safeguard the processing integrity in an electronic business environment, a company should implement input controls such as field check, validity check, limit check, reasonableness check, and computer logs in order to reduce the risk of: A. Worm attacks B. Hackers C. Unauthorized access D. Invalid data entry 71. In order to help safeguard the availability in an electronic business environment, a company should implement controls such as business continuity planning, backup data and systems, in order to reduce the risk of: A. Unauthorized access B. System failures C. Repudiation of purchase transactions D. Invalid data entry 72. The examination of the system to determine the adequacy of security measures and to identify security deficiencies is called: A. Intrusion detection B. Penetration testing C. Vulnerability testing D. Integrity testing 73. Intentionally attempting to circumvent IT system access controls to determine whether there are weaknesses in any controls is called: A. Penetration testing B. Intrusion detection C. Integrity testing D. Vulnerability testing 74. This type of software alerts the organization to hacking or other unauthorized use of the system or net work.

A. Penetration testing B. Intrusion detection C. Integrity testing D. Vulnerability testing

75. One of the newest technologies related to payables is one where invoices are exchanged and payments are made via the internet. The name given to this process is: A. Random Array of Invoice and Disbursements (RAID) B. Electronic Invoice Payment Procedures (EIPP) C. Electronic Invoice Presentment and Payment (EIPP) D. Routing Application Invoice Delivery (RAID) 76. Credit cards given to employees by the organization in order for the employees to make designated purchases are called: A. Employee Debit Cards B. Organization Purchase Cards C. Expenditure Cards D. Procurement Cards 77. Which of the following groups has an ethical obligation to establish the proper tone at the top, strong internal controls, and high ethical standards?

A. Stockholders B. Board of Directors and Management C. Employees D. Audit Committee 78. There are four primary functions of corporate governance. Which of the following is NOT one of those functions?

A. Availability B. Management Oversight C. Internal Controls and Compliance D. Financial Stewardship ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 9 – MULTIPLE CHOICE: 19. B 31. D 43. A 20. D 32. B 44. D 21. A 33. C 45. C 22. B 34. A 46. B 23. D 35. B 47. B 24. C 36. D 48. D 25. D 37. A 49. A 26. B 38. C 50. C 27. A 39. D 51. B 28. D 40. A 52. D 29. B 41. D 53. A 30. C 42. B 54. B

55.

56.

57.

58.

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61.

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66.

C D B A C B D C B A D B

67.

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78.

A C A D B C A B C D B A

TEST BANK - CHAPTER 9 - TRUE / FALSE 79. When the company is a vendor, goods flow into the company and cash is paid out.

TRUE 80. Companies in the same line of business are not likely to have many differences in their purchasing habits.

FALSE 81. The purchasing process starts when the purchase invoice is submitted by the vendor.

FALSE 82. A purchase order is essentially an internal document, one that does not go outside the company, whereas a

purchase requisition is an external document, which will be presented to an entity outside the company.

FALSE 83. A purchase requisition is essentially an internal document, one that does not go outside the company, whereas a purchase order is an external document, which will be presented to an entity outside the company.

TRUE 84. The use of a blind purchase order forces the receiving clerk to perform an independent check of the quantity and quality of the delivery.

TRUE 85. A company is not obligated to pay for goods until 30 days after the goods are received.

FALSE 86. Even though a company has an obligation to pay for goods as soon as the goods are received, it is common to not record the actual liability until the invoice is received.

TRUE 87. It is necessary for the purchasing department to set up the proper procedures to avoid problems related to cutoff issues.

FALSE 88. The accounts payable department keeps copies of purchase orders and receiving reports, that will be compared to the related invoice, to be sure that the invoices represent goods that were ordered and received.

TRUE 89. The accounting department is responsible for implementing internal controls over each business process.

FALSE 90. Independent reconciliation of the accounts payable subsidiary ledger to the general ledger control account will help to assure that all inventory has been properly recorded.

FALSE 91. Independent reconciliation of the periodic inventory counts and the inventory ledger and the general ledger will help to assure that inventory is being properly accounted for.

TRUE 92. For a number of different reasons, a company may find it necessary to reject goods received which will start the purchase returns process.

TRUE 93. The cash disbursement process must be designed to ensure that the company appropriately records all accounts payable transactions.

FALSE 94. Most companies conduct business transactions with checks so that a written record is established for cash disbursements.

TRUE 95. Copies of invoices should be filed in the account in alphabetic order by name of the vendors.

FALSE 96. When an invoice is paid, it should be canceled to indicate that it has been paid.

TRUE 97. When preparing the cash disbursement journals, it is important that the records have the actual date of cash disbursement, as is shown on the check.

TRUE 98. Cash should be periodically verified by comparing the balance in the check book with the balance in the cash account in the general ledger.

FALSE 99. Cash should be periodically verified by comparing the cash balance with the bank statement.

TRUE 100. Only the purchasing department should authorize the processing of a cash disbursement transaction.

FALSE 101. The authorization of a cash disbursement occurs when the accounts payable department matches the purchase order, receiving report, and the invoice, and then forwards the matched documents to the cash disbursements department.

TRUE 102. Designated members of management should be given the responsibility for authorizing the actual payments and sign their signatures on the face of the check.

TRUE 103. If the purchasing, receiving, accounts payable, and cash disbursements processes are completed by the same individuals, the internal controls will be stronger because someone in the company will have an overall view of company activities.

FALSE 104. In order to institute an automated matching system, all of the relevant files must exist in the same physical room.

FALSE 105. When an automated matching system is used, all of the relevant files must be online (or in databases). The system can then access the online purchase order and receiving files and check the match of items, quantities, and prices.

TRUE 106. A user who logs in to the computer-based accounting system to enter invoices should also have access to the portion of the system that would allow her / him to order goods.

FALSE 107. Computer logs should be maintained in order to have a complete record of who used the system and the histories of that use. This computer log would allow monitoring and identification of unauthorized accesses or uses.

TRUE 108. When a company implements an evaluated receipt settlement results in the increase in the strength of the internal controls.

FALSE 109. Because the evaluated receipts settlement process relies heavily on an IT system that can quickly access online

purchase-order files, a system slowdown could halt all receiving activity.

TRUE 110. E-business and EDI have much different advantages and risks to the vendor than what exists for the customer.

FALSE 111. Redundancy is needed for servers, data, and networks.

TRUE 112. It is likely that expenditure fraud and ethics violations could be eliminated by a strong, ethical “tone at the top” along with encouragement of ethical behavior by all employees, and strong internal controls.

FALSE 113. Corporate governance policies and procedures must be in place to assure that funds are expended only to the benefit the organization and its owners.

TRUE 114. It is necessary that managers remember that they are stewards of funds expended by a business - that the funds are not owned by the managers.

TRUE 115. Strong corporate governance will prevent fraud, theft, and mismanagement within the expenditure process.

FALSE ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 9 – TRUE / FALSE: 79.

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81.

82.

83.

84.

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86.

T F F F T T F T

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92.

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T T F F T T F T

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F T T F T F T T

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F F T F T F T F

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112.

113.

114.

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T F T T F

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 10: Expenditures Processes and Controls – Payroll and Fixed Assets

NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

End of Chapter Questions: 1. Which of the following statements about payroll and fixed asset processes is true?

A. Both have only routine processes B. Both have only non-routine processes C. Both have routine and non-routine processes D. Payroll has only routine processes, while fixed assets has only non-routine processes 2. For a given pay period, the complete listing of paychecks for the pay period is a: A. Payroll register B. Payroll ledger C. Payroll journal D. Paymaster 3. A payroll voucher A. Authorizes an employee paycheck to be written B. Authorizes the transfer of cash from a main operating account to a payroll account C. authorizes the transfer of cash from a payroll account to a main operating account D. Authorizes the paymaster to distribute paychecks 4. For proper segregation of duties, the department that should authorize new employees for payroll would be: A. Payroll.

B. Human resources.

C. Cash disbursements.

D. General ledger.

5. Which of the following is not an independent check within payroll processes?

A. Time sheets are reconciled with production records.

B. Time sheets are reconciled with the payroll register.

C. Paychecks are prepared on prenumbered checks.

D. The payroll register is reconciled with the general ledger.

6.An integrated IT system of payroll and human resources may have extra risks above those of a manual system.

Passwords and access logs are controls that should be used in these integrated systems to lessen the risk of: A. Hardware failures.

B. Erroneous data input.

C. Payroll data that does not reconcile to time cards.

D. Unauthorized access to payroll data.

7. Internal control problems would be likely to result if a company’s payroll department supervisor was also responsible for: A. Reviewing authorization forms for new employees.

B. Comparing the payroll register with the batch transmittal.

C. Authorizing changes in employee pay rates.

D. Hiring subordinates to work in the payroll department.

8. Which of the following procedures would be most useful in determining the effectiveness of a company’s internal controls regarding the existence or occurrence of payroll transactions?

A. Observe the segregation of duties concerning personnel responsibilities and payroll disbursement.

B. Inspect evidence of accounting for prenumbered payroll checks.

C. Recompute the payroll deductions for employee fringe benefits.

D. Verify the preparation of the monthly payroll account bank reconciliation.

9. In meeting the control objective of safeguarding of assets, which department should be responsible for distribution of paychecks ad custody of unclaimed paychecks, respectively?

A. B. C. D.

Distribution of Paychecks TreasurerTreasurer Payroll TreasurerPayroll Payroll

Custody of Unclaimed Paychecks Treasurer Payroll

10. A company’s internal controls policies may mandate the distribution of paychecks by an independent paymaster in order to determine that: A. Payroll deductions are properly authorized and computed.

B. Pay rates are properly authorized and separate from the operating functions.

C. Each employee’s paycheck is supported by an approved time sheet.

D. Employees included in the period’s payroll register actually exist and are currently employed.

11. The purpose of segregating the duties of hiring personnel and distributing payroll checks is to separate the: A. Authorization of transactions from the custody of related assets.

B. Operational responsibility from the record keeping responsibility.

C. Human resources function from the controllership function.

D. Administrative controls from the internal accounting controls.

12. Which of the following departments or positions most likely would approve changes in pay rates and deductions from employee salaries?

A. Personnel B. Treasurer C. Controller D. Payroll 13X. The purchase of fixed assets is likely to require different authorization processes than the purchase of inventory.

Which of the following is not likely to be part of the authorization of fixed assets?

A. Specific authorization.

B. Inclusion in the capital budget.

C. An investment analysis or feasibility analysis of the purchase.

D. Approval of the depreciation schedule.

14. Which of the following is not a part of “adequate documents and records” for fixed assets?

A. Fixed asset journal B. Fixed asset subsidiary ledger C. Purchase order D. Fixed asset tags 15. Which of the following questions would be least likely to appear on an internal control questionnaire regarding

the initiation and execution of new property, plant, and equipment purchases?

A. Are requests for repairs approved by someone higher than the department initiating the request.

B. Are prenumbered purchase orders used and accounted for?

C. Are purchase requisitions reviewed for consideration of soliciting competitive bids?

D. Is access to the assets restricted and monitored?

16. Which of the following reviews would be most likely to indicate that a company’s property, plant, and equipment accounts are not understated?

A. Review of the company’s repairs and maintenance expense accounts.

B. Review of supporting documentation for recent equipment purchases.

C. Review and recomputation of the company’s depreciation expense accounts.

D. Review of the company’s miscellaneous revenue account.

17. Which of the following is not an advantage of fixed asset software systems when compared with spreadsheets?

A. Better ability to handle non-financial data such as asset location.

B. Easier to apply different depreciation policies to different assets.

C. Manual processes to link to the general ledger.

D. Expanded opportunities for customized reporting.

18. The term “ghost employee” means that: A. Hours worked has been exaggerated by an employee.

B. False sales have been claimed to boost commission earned.

C. Overtime hours have been inflated.

D. Someone who does not work for the company receives a paycheck.

ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS 1 - 18 (FROM THE TEXTBOOK) 1. C 5. C 9. A 2. A 6. D 10. D 3. B 7. C 11. A 4. B 8. A 12. A

13.

14.

15.

16.

D A D A

17. C 18. D

TEST BANK - CHAPTER 10 - MULTIPLE CHOICE 19. Routine business transactions would include which of the following?

A. Purchase of merchandise inventory.

B. Payment of principal on a note.

C. Purchase of fixed asset.

D. Paying wages and salaries to employees.

20. This type of transaction is one that a business encounters on a regular, recurring basis. The volume of the transactions is so large that transactions and the related accounting activities become second nature to the employees responsible for handling them. Specific authorization for each of these transactions is not necessary.

The type of transaction referred to is: A. Non-routine transaction B. Payroll transaction C. Fixed asset transaction D. Routine transaction 21. Which of the following is a characteristic of a non-routine transaction?

A. A business encounters this type of transaction on a regular, recurring basis.

B. Required to have specific authorization.

C. Volume of transactions become second nature to the employees responsible.

D. Specific authorization for the specific transaction is not necessary.

22. A company must have systems in place to take care of all activities related to both routine and non-routine processes. The activities would include all of the following, except: A. Record B. Summarize C. Review D. Report 23. The policies and procedures that employees following in acquiring and maintaining human resources, capturing and maintaining employee data, paying employees for time worked, and recorded the related cash payroll liabilities and expenses are collectively referred to as: A. Payroll processes B. Human resources C. Salary administration D. Administrative procedures 24. The policies and procedures involved in purchasing property; capturing and maintaining relevant data abut the assets; paying for and recording the related assets; depreciation and other expenses; and gains or losses are collectively referred to as: A. Capital resources B. Fixed asset processes C. Property administration D. Capital procedures 25. There are many risks that may affect the payroll and fixed asset transactions. Which of the following is not one of those risks?

A. Recorded transactions may not be valid.

B. Expenditure transactions may be recorded in the wrong account.

C. Valid expenditures recorded properly by the wrong employee.

D. Transactions may not be recorded in a timely manner.

26. This department is responsible for maintaining records for each job and each employee within the organization , as well as tracking job vacancies and supporting the company’s recruitment efforts.

A. Salary and Wage Administration Department B. Vice President for Employees Department C. Employee Services Department D. Human Resources Department 27. The document is prepared in order to map out the jobs and reporting relationships within an organization. This may include only top branches of an organization or may include all positions within the company.

A. Employee List B. Organization Chart C. Hierarchy Tree D. Human Resources Listing 28. This item would include explanations concerning the qualifications and responsibilities of each position shown on organization chart. The item is also supported by policies and procedures manuals that outline specific activities performed by each position.

A. Job profile B. Human resources listing C. Organization chart description D. Position description

29. Personnel records will typically include all of the following, except: A. Documentation related to the initial hiring B. Personal information, such as the employee address C. Medical history subsequent to hiring D. Social security number 30. Each of the following items would likely be found in an employee’s personnel records related to the initial hiring, except: A. Employment application B. Recommendation letters C. Background investigation results D. Overtime and commission rates 31. It is necessary for employees to maintain adequate records of the hours worked and the projects worked on. The record of hours worked by an employee for a specific payroll period is reported on a document called: A. Time ticket B. Time sheet C. Salary document D. Wage report 32. Which of the following would be a correct way to compute the gross pay for an employee?

A. Hours Worked times Authorized Pay Rate B. Hours Worked times Authorized Pay Rate minus Withholding Taxes C. Net Pay minus Authorized Deductions D. Net Pay times Withholding Taxes 33. Which of the following would be a correct way to compute the net pay for an employee?

A. Hours Worked times Authorized Pay Rate B. Gross Pay minus Withholding Taxes C. Gross Pay minus Authorized Deductions D. Hours Worked times Withholding Tax Rate 34. This record, prepared by the payroll department, is a complete listing of salary or wage detail for all employees for a given time.

A. Payroll journal B. General ledger C. Employee record D. Payroll register 35. When accounting software is used to prepare the periodic payroll, which of the following items is necessary to input for each employee?

A. Employee Name B. Hours Worked C. Pay Rate D. Social Security Number 36. This document authorizes the transfer of cash from the company’s main operating account into the payroll cash account.

A. Payroll register B. Payroll disbursements journal C. Payroll voucher D. Paycheck

37. This record, prepared by the cash disbursements department, provides a listing of al paychecks written, in checknumber sequence, with the total supporting the amount of payroll funds to transfer to the payroll bank account.

A. Payroll Disbursements Journal B. Payroll Register C. Payroll Journal D. Cash Disbursements Journal 38. This individual is responsible for distributing the signed paychecks on the designated pay day.

A. Human Resources Director B. Department Supervisor C. Payroll Department Manager D. Paymaster 39. Types of fraud that may occur in the payroll function includes all of the following, except: A. Overstated hours B. Incorrectly computed tax withholdings C. False claims of sick leave D. Pay claims made by ghost employees 40X. Which of the following correctly states a reconciliation process to be completed related to payroll?

A. Time sheets reconciled to the payroll register.

B. Payroll register to the general ledger.

C. Time sheets to the production reports.

D. Production reports to the general ledger.

41. The internal control activity requiring that the manager approves payroll prior to signing paycheck is intended to minimize the risk of: A. Omitted paychecks B. Incorrect amounts C. Fictitious employee D. Stolen paychecks 42. The internal control process of requiring an independent paymaster, will help to minimize the risk of: A. Fictitious employees B. Incorrect amounts C. Omitted paychecks D. Timing issues 43. The internal control process of requiring the payroll register to be reconciled with the time sheets, will help to minimize the risk of: A. Invalid payroll transactions B. Omitted paychecks C. Duplicate paychecks D. Fictitious employees 44. Internal control activities within the payroll process, identified as adequate records and documents, would include which of the following?

A. Manager approval of payroll prior to signing checks B. Independent paymaster C. Physical controls in areas where cash and paychecks are held D. Paychecks are prepared on prenumbered checks

45. Internal control activities within the payroll process, identified as authorization, would include which of the following?

A. Preparation of a bank reconciliation B. Independent paymaster C. Manager approval of payroll prior to signing checks D. Physical controls in areas where cash and paychecks are held 46. Internal control activities within the payroll process, identified as segregation of duties, would include which of the following?

A. Payroll preparation, authorization of new hiring and pay rates, information systems, and general accounting should all be performed by different departments and / or different people.

B. IT controls over computer records and physical controls in records storage areas.

C. The payroll register is checked for mathematical accuracy and agreement with authorized pay rates and deductions.

D. Supervisor approval of time sheets prior to preparation of payroll documents.

47. Internal control activities within the payroll process, identified as independent checks and reconciliations, would include which of the following?

A. IT controls over computer records and physical controls in records storage area.

B. Time sheets reconciled with the payroll register.

C. The payroll register is checked for mathematical accuracy and agreement with authorized pay rates and deductions.

D. Supervisor approves time sheets prior to preparation of payroll documents.

48X. When payroll is processed using batch processing, which of the following would not be part of the payroll process?

A. Human resources department would be responsible for keying employee information into the master file.

B. The timekeeper will accumulate all time sheets and enter them into the computer system in batches.

C. The timekeeper should prepare control totals and hash totals in order to check the system before the paychecks are generated.

D. Human resources should prepare control totals and hash totals in order to check the system before the paychecks are generated.

49. An electronic payroll time keeping device that collects time and attendance data when employees enter their time sheets is called: A. Timekeeper B. Paymaster C. Electronic time clock D. Badge readers 50. An electronic payroll time keeping device that collects data when employee identification badges are swiped through an electronic reader are called: A. Timekeeper B. Badge reader C. Paymaster D. Electronic time clock 51. In order to smooth out the payroll process and avoid the heavy workload that falls at the end of the payroll period, many companies will use this type of system – one that integrates their human resources and payroll functions.

This system makes real-time personnel data available and the general ledger and production system can be automatically updated at the end of the payroll period.

A. Online Software Systems B. Batch Processing C. Electronic Timekeeping

D. Outsourcing of Payroll Services 52. Many companies use independent, internet-based service providers to handle their payroll processing. These payroll providers specialize in offering solutions and constant access to payroll information.

A. Online Software Systems B. Batch Processing C. Electronic Timekeeping D. Outsourcing of Payroll Services 53. There are many uses of electronic funds transfer related to the payroll process. Which of the following is not one of those uses?

A. Payments to the employees.

B. Payments to the federal taxing agencies.

C. Transfers to the payroll checking account.

D. All of the above are uses of electronic funds transfer.

54. Assets to be included in the fixed asset pool would include all of the following, except: A. Vehicles B. Furniture C. Office Supplies D. Real Estate 55. The fixed assets owned by a company are considered to be long-term because: A. The high cost of the fixed assets demands that they not be considered short term.

B. They are purchased with the intent of benefitting the company for a long period of time.

C. The assets will last for a long period of time.

D. All of the above are reasons the fixed assets are considered to be long-term.

56. The three phases of fixed assets processes, that span the entire useful life of the assets, include all of the following, except: A. Depreciation B. Acquisition C. Disposal D. Continuance 57. Notable differences between the acquisition of fixed assets and the acquisition of inventory includes: A. The placement of the acquired assets - user department for fixed assets, warehouse for inventory.

B. The inclusion of a fixed asset department instead of the inventory control department.

C. Both of the above.

D. None of the above.

58. This document is a financial plan detailing all of the company’s investments in fixed assets and other investments.

A. Investment Analysis B. Feasibility Study C. Operating Budget D. Capital Budget 59. A detailed listing of the company’s fixed assets, divided into categories consistent with the general ledger accounts is called a: A. Fixed Asset Journal B. Fixed Asset Subsidiary Ledger C. Fixed Asset Schedule D. Fixed Asset Budget

60X. This phase of the fixed asset processes relates to those required to maintain accurate and up-to-data records regarding all fixed assets throughout their useful lives.

A. Depreciation B. Acquisition C. Disposal D. Continuance 61. Activities involved with the fixed assets continuance phase of the fixed assets processes include all of the following, except: A. Updating depreciation prior to the disposal of fixed assets B. Updating cost data for improvements to assets C. Adjusting for periodic depreciation D. Keeping track of the physical location of the assets 62X. The record detailing the amounts and timing of depreciation for all fixed asset categories, except land and any construction-in-progress accounts, is called: A. Fixed asset subsidiary ledger B. Capital budget C. Depreciation schedule D. Depreciation method 63. This phase of the fixed asset processes relates to discarding fixed assets when they become old, outdated, inefficient, or damaged.

A. Depreciation B. Acquisition C. Disposal D. Continuance 64. Activities involved with the fixed assets disposal phase of the fixed assets processes include all of the following, except: A. Adjusting periodic depreciation B. Disposed assets are removed from the fixed asset subsidiary ledger C. Gains or losses resulting from disposal are computed D. The depreciation amounts related to the disposed assets are removed from the depreciation schedule and the fixed asset subsidiary ledger 65. Disposing of a fixed asset could include all of the following methods, except: A. Throwing it away B. Sending it to another department C. Exchanging it for another asset D. Donating it to another party 66. When high-dollar fixed assets are purchased, there should be a strict approval process which would include three formal steps. Which of the following is not one of those steps?

A. Review of the proposal and specific approval by the appropriate level of management.

B. Investment analysis.

C. Comparison with the capital budget.

D. Feasibility study.

67. The first part of the strict approval process for high-dollar fixed assets is the investment analysis. Which of the following is part of that analysis?

A. Capital budget comparison

B. Review of the proposal C. Financial justification D. Written requisition 68. Which of the following is a correct statement related to segregation of duties related to fixed assets?

A. Custody of fixed assets is to be separate from the related record keeping B. Custody of fixed assets need not be separate from the purchasing of fixed assets C. The IT function of programming need not be separated from the accounting for fixed assets.

D. All of the above are correct statements related to the segregation of duties.

69. The security of assets and documents would include all of the following, except: A. Supervisors need to make certain that the assets are being used for their intended purpose.

B. Designated members of management should be assigned responsibility for the disposal of any assets C. Maintaining adequate insurance coverage D. Electronic controls are needed to control access to automated records 70. Which of the following independent checks would be part of the internal controls for fixed assets?

A. Comparing actual fixed asset expenditures with the capital budget.

B. Periodic counts of fixed assets should be made by someone not otherwise responsible for fixed asset related activities.

C. Physical counts should be reconciled with the accounting records.

D. Book value of the assets should be compared to the insurance records.

71. The internal control process of requiring management approval of fixed asset changes prior to recording the transaction, will help to minimize the risk of: A. Incorrect amounts B. Lost or stolen assets C. Duplicate transactions D. Omitted transactions 72. The internal control process of requiring physical controls in place in areas where fixed assets are held, will help to minimize the risk of: A. Incorrect amounts B. Lost or stolen assets C. Duplicate transactions D. Omitted transactions 73. The internal control process of requiring the check of the fixed asset subsidiary ledger and depreciation schedule for mathematical accuracy and agreement with authorized documentation, will help to minimize the risk of: A. Incorrect amounts B. Lost or stolen assets C. Duplicate transactions D. Omitted transactions 74. Factors that indicate the need for internal controls over fixed assets processes include all of the following, except: A. General nature of fixed assets makes the susceptible to theft because they are distributed throughout the business and are in the hands of many B. Large quantities of fixed assets C. High likelihood of obsolescence due to technological changes D. The high cost of assets 75. Most companies can justify the use of specialized asset management software programs instead of the spreadsheets or traditional manual systems for all of the following reasons, except:

A. B. C. D.

The abundance of fixed asset data The time-consuming and tedious requirements for tracking changes The number of different methods of accounting for depreciation The intricacy of the tax laws

76. The shortcomings of a spreadsheet-based system include all of the following, except: A. The design of spreadsheets is very time consuming B. The abundance of fixed asset data C. It is difficult to apply varying depreciation policies within spreadsheets D. It is difficult to establish an audit trail with spreadsheets 77. The control environment related to the fixed asset processes can be enhanced through the implementation of various access controls, such as: A. Passwords B. Number of employees who have access to the system C. Limits on the number of computer workstations where information may be entered D. All of the above 78. An entity who receives a paycheck, but who does not actually work for the company is called: A. Ghost employee B. Shell employee C. Abundant employee D. Absent employee 79. There are a number of ways that frauds may be carried out to try to receive excess compensation. Which of the following is not one of those methods?

A. Exaggeration of hours worked B. Falsification of overtime or holiday time worked, payable at a higher rate C. Understatement of job related expenses D. Falsification of sales in order to increase commission payouts 80. Clues that a ghost employee may exist in the company would include all of the following, except: A. Payroll register identifies paychecks without adequate tax withholdings B. The personnel file contains no duplicate addresses C. Payroll expenses are over budget D. Paychecks were not claimed when the paymaster distributed them

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 10 – MULTIPLE CHOICE: 19. A 32. A 45. C 20. D 33. C 46. A 21. B 34. D 47. B 22. C 35. B 48. D 23. A 36. C 49. C 24. B 37. A 50. B 25. C 38. D 51. A 26. D 39. B 52. D 27. B 40. D 53. D 28. A 41. C 54. C 29. C 42. A 55. B 30. D 43. B 56. A 31. B 44. D 57. C

58.

59.

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D B D A C C A B D C A B D

71.

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80.

C B A D C B D A C B

TEST BANK - CHAPTER 10 - TRUE / FALSE 81. It is not necessary to get specific authorization for each individual routine transactions.

TRUE 82. Routine transactions refer to common business transactions such as payroll and fixed asset transactions.

FALSE 83. Accounting for a fixed asset over the life of the asset would have features of non-routine transactions only.

FALSE 84. The payroll process starts when an employee is hired by the organization.

TRUE 85. Members of management are not required to specifically approve an employee hired by the company when the new employee has been screened by an employment office.

FALSE 86. The hiring of employees is considered to be a routine process.

FALSE 87. A hiring decision normally occurs as the result of an interview or interviews and is documented on a signed letter and / or signed employment contract.

TRUE 88. Amounts withheld from an employee paycheck will ultimately be paid to another vendor.

TRUE 89. Most of the records found in an employee’s personnel file are accounting related.

FALSE 90. A unique feature of the information contained in an individual personnel file is that it is accessed infrequently but is changed relatively frequently.

FALSE 91. It is common that personnel related expenses are one of the largest expenses reported on the company’s income statement.

TRUE 92. A challenging area of payroll computation is computing the amount of deductions related to each employee’s pay.

TRUE 93. Accounting software is available to assist with payroll but it is not very efficient because of all the changes that occur to all payroll variables during the period.

FALSE 94. Preparing payroll manually is extremely time consuming due to the process of extracting all these inputs from the records and performing the mathematical computations.

TRUE 95. Overtime hours are paid at a rate different from the regular hours, usually one and one-half times the standard rate.

TRUE 96. Before the paychecks are sent to management for authorization, the human resources department should compare the hours reported on the time sheets with the hours shown on the payroll register.

FALSE 97. Although it is uncommon, some companies maintain separate checking accounts that are used for payroll transactions.

FALSE 98. When an organization uses a separate checking account to handle payroll transactions, it is easier to account for the payroll transactions and to distinguish them from cash disbursements for other business purposes.

TRUE 99X. It is the responsibility of the payroll department to make certain that all time sheets represent actual time worked by currently active employees.

FALSE 100. Payroll disbursements are to be authorized by the accounts payable department on the basis of the company’s need to satisfy its obligation to its employees.

TRUE 101. The human resources department should be responsible for the record keeping function related to payroll.

FALSE 102. The cash disbursements department should have the responsibility of signing, essentially approving, all paychecks.

FALSE 103. The paymaster should be independent from the departmental supervision responsibilities, so that it can be determined that the paychecks are being distributed to active employees.

TRUE 104. Payroll information includes personal information about employees, such as their pay rate and performance, and must be kept confidential.

TRUE 105. Strong internal controls are just as important for small organizations with few employees paid once per month as it is for large organizations with numerous employees being paid weekly.

FALSE 106. Because of the infrequency of payroll processing and the sequential nature of the payroll process, many companies find that real-time processing is well-suited for payroll activities.

FALSE 107. An alternative to batch processing is the use of electronic timekeeping devices, such as time clocks or badge readers.

TRUE 108. The electronic timekeeping devices accumulated data throughout the period and automatically calculate batch totals. At this time, the data batches are not able to prepare the paychecks or the payroll register.

FALSE

109. Payroll outsourcing has become popular (and prevalent) become is offers increased convenience and confidentiality.

TRUE 110. The investment in fixed assets is often the largest asset reported on the income statement.

FALSE 111. The acquisition of fixed assets is normally initiated by a user department when they identify a need for a new asset, either to replace an existing asset or to enhance its current pool.

TRUE 112. When a new asset is requested, and the cost is below a preestablished amount, it is necessary for specific authorization of the purchase.

FALSE 113. Many companies use a tracking system for their fixed assets that would include applying a fixed asset tag, number, or label to the asset.

TRUE 114. Organizations should have written procedures in place to identify when the costs related to fixed assets are capitalized (recorded to repair and maintenance expense).

FALSE 115. If a new cost is incurred related to an asset that is considered to enhance that, either by extending the useful life or increasing the efficiency, the fixed asset accountant must make sure the appropriate adjustments are made to the fixed asset subsidiary ledger.

TRUE 116. Accounting for fixed assets requires the use of estimates - specifically the cost and the salvage value.

FALSE 117. The use of estimates when accounting for fixed assets requires that the estimates may need to be changed as time passes and new information is discovered.

TRUE 118. For any company, and any asset, the method of depreciation and the related estimates (salvage value and useful life) are the same for financial statements and income taxes.

FALSE 119. In order to compute the book value of any asset, start with the cost of the asset and add the accumulated depreciation.

FALSE 120. In the case of high-dollar assets, there should be a strict approval process that requires the authorization of top management or the initiation of the capital budgeting procedures.

TRUE 121. For most companies, fixed asset acquisitions are considered to be routine processes.

FALSE 122. Fixed assets is one area where earnings management may be prevalent due to the judgmental nature of the underlying data.

TRUE

123. Earnings management related to fixed assets would occur when reducing expenses by decreasing the useful life of the fixed assets.

FALSE 124. A method of earnings management is to misclassify capitalized costs as repair and maintenance expenses.

FALSE 125. Although there is no direct benefit, in terms of cash received, when a fraudster engages in earnings management, it is still unethical because it results in the falsification of the company’s financial statements.

TRUE 126. Historically, there has been a large number of cases of fraud, theft, manipulation, and misuse of funds in the areas of payroll and fixed assets.

TRUE 127X. Corporate governance policies and procedures must be in place to enure that funds are expended to benefit managers and employees.

FALSE 128. The controls discussed in the chapter, related to safeguarding assets within the expenditures process and ensuring the accuracy and completeness of expenditure processes, help to enhance corporate governance structure.

TRUE ANSWERS TO TEST BANK – CHAPTER 10 – TRUE / FALSE: 81.

82.

83.

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85.

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88.

89.

90.

T F F T F F T T F F

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T T F T T F F T F T

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F F T T F F T F T F

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T F T F T F T F F T

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F T F F T T F T

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 11: Conversion Processes and Controls NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

End of Chapter Questions: 1. Manufacturing has changed in recent years as a result of each of the following factors except: A. globalization B. technological advances C. increased competition D. lack of economic prosperity 2. The term conversion processes is often used synonymously with A. Operations.

B. Production.

C. Manufacturing.

D. All of the above.

3. Which of the following activities is not part of the planning component of the logistics function?

A. Research and development B. Capital budgeting C. Human resource management D. Scheduling 4. Which of the following activities is an inventory control activity?

A. Engineering B. Maintenance C. Routing D. Quality control 5. Which of the following statements concerning an operations list is true?

A. It is an engineering document that describes the chain of events within a company’s conversion process.

B. It is an engineering document that specifies the descriptions and quantities of component parts within a product.

C. It is a capital budgeting document that describes the chain of events within a company’s conversion process.

D. It is a capital budgeting document that specifies the descriptions and quantities of component parts within a product.

6. Which of the following terms relates to the control of materials being held for future production?

A. Routing B. Work-in-process C. Stores D. Warehousing 7. Which of the following questions is most likely to be found on an internal control questionnaire concerning a company’s conversion processes?

A. Are vendor invoices for materials purchases approved for payment by someone who is independent of the cash disbursements function?

B. Are signed checks for materials purchased mailed promptly without being returned to the department responsible for processing the disbursement?

C. Are approved requisitions required when materials are released from the company’s warehouse into production?

D. Are details of payments for materials balanced to the total posted to the general ledger?

8. When additional procedures are necessary to bring a defective product up to its required specifications, this is referred to as A. Rework.

B. Scrap.

C. Work-in-process.

D. Variance reporting.

9. A firm expects to sell 1000 units of its best-selling product in the coming year. Ordering costs for this product are $100 per order, and carrying costs are $2 per unit. Compute the optimum order size, using the EOQ model.

A. 10 units B. 224 units C. 317 units D. 448 units 10. Which of the following internal controls is typically associated with the maintenance of accurate inventory records?

A. Performing regular comparisons of perpetual records with recent costs of inventory items B. Using a just-in-time system to keep inventory levels at a minimum C. Performing a match of the purchase request, receiving report, and purchase order before payment is approved D. Using physical inventory counts as a basis for adjusting the perpetual records 11. If a manufacturing company’s inventory of supplies consists of a large number of small items, which of the following would be considered a weakness in internal controls?

A. Supplies of relatively low value are expensed when acquired.

B. Supplies are physically counted on a cycle basis, whereby limited counts occur quarterly and each item is counted at least once annually.

C. The stores function is responsible for updating perpetual records whenever inventory items are moved.

D. Perpetual records are maintained for inventory items only if they are significant in value.

12. The goal of a physical inventory reconciliation is to A. Determine the quantity of inventory sold.

B. Compare the physical count with the perpetual records.

C. Compare the physical count with the periodic records.

D. Determine the quantity of inventory in process.

13. Which of the following is not considered a benefit of using computerized conversion systems?

A. Automatic computation of materials requirements B. Increased sales and cost of sales C. Increased efficiency and flexibility D. Early error detection and increased accuracy 14. Which of the following represents a method of managing inventory designed to minimize a company’s investment in inventories by scheduling materials to arrive at the time they are needed for production?

A. The economic order quantity (EOQ) B. Material resource planning (MRP) C. First-in, first-out (FIFO)

D. Just-in-time (JIT) 15. For which of the following computerized conversion systems is Wal-Mart well known?

A. CAD/CAM B. MRP-II C. CIMs D. JIT ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS 1 - 15 (FROM THE TEXTBOOK) 1. D 2. D 3. C

4. C 5. A 6. C

7. C 8. A 9. C

10. D 11. C 12. B

13. B 14. D 15. D

TEST BANK – CHAPTER 11 – MULTIPLE CHOICE 16. A company’s conversion processes includes all of the following except: A.Materials.

B.Office supplies.

C. Labor.

D. Overhead 17. A company must have systems in place to accomplish all of the following except: A. Capture data.

B. Vocalize data.

C. Record data.

D.Summarize data.

18. The conversion process is initiated when the company recognizes: A.The receipt of raw materials.

B.The shipment of finished goods to customers.

C.The need to conduct operations.

D.None of the above.

19X. Overhead includes all of the following except: A. Various other expenses necessary to run the operating facility.

B. The president’s salary.

C. Indirect labor.

D. Indirect materials.

20X. The major activities within the conversion process include all but A.Strategic planning that supports the company’s operational goals.

B.Optimizing the use of the employees, property, and inventories that are needed in operations.

C. Controlling production flows, ensuring product quality.

D. Preparing the related cost accounting and financial accounting records.

21X. Which of the following company activities would NOT be considered a productive activity?

A. The manufacture of automobiles.

B. The treatment of patients in a medical facility.

C. Providing consulting services.

D. All of the above, A, B, and C, are considered productive activities.

22. The process of logical, systematic flow of resources throughout the organization is referred to as: A.Logistics.

B.Planning.

C.Reporting.

D.Sales forecast.

23. The component of the logistics function that directs the focus of operations is referred to as: A.Logistics.

B. Planning.

C. Reporting.

D. Sales forecast.

24. The form that specifies the components of a product, including descriptions and quantities of materials and parts needed is the: A. Operations list.

B. Bill of materials.

C. Engineering.

D. Capital budgeting.

25. The form that describes the chain of events that constitute a product’s production is referred to as the: A.Operations list.

B. Bill of materials.

C. Engineering.

D. Capital budgeting.

26. The process that plans the timing for production activities is referred to as: A.Operations list.

B. Bill of materials.

C. Scheduling.

D. Capital budgeting.

27. The form that authorizes production activities for a particular sales order or forecasted needs is referred to as the: A. Production schedule.

B. Production orders.

C. Maintenance and control process.

D. Human resources process.

28. The process that is concerned with maintaining the capital resources used to support production is referred to as: A.The production schedule.

B. Production orders.

C. Maintenance and control.

D. The human resources process.

29X. This schedule outlines the specific timing required for a sales order, including the dates and times designated for the production run.

A. Production schedule B. Production orders schedule C. Maintenance and control schedule D. Human resources schedule 30X. The responsible for managing the placement and development of sufficient qualified personnel which includes hiring and training workers as well as maintaining records of their performance is the task of the:

A.Production schedule department.

B. Production orders department.

C. Maintenance and control department.

D. Human resources department.

31X. The responsibility for managing and recording the movement of inventory in the many different directions that it may go throughout the conversion process is assigned to the: A. Production schedule department.

B. Inventory control department.

C. Maintenance and control department.

D. Human resources department.

32. The issuance and movement of materials into the various production phases is referred to as: A. Production scheduling process.

B. Inventory control process.

C. The routing process.

D. The production orders process.

33. Which document provides the descriptions and quantities of materials taken into production for a specified sale or other authorized production activity?

A. The routing slip.

B. The shipping notice.

C. The purchase requisition.

D. The sales order.

34X. Which of the following involves managing the holding area for finished goods awaiting sale?

A. Purchase orders B. Shipping notices C. Purchase requisitions D. Inventory warehousing 35. The major function within the conversion process is the: A.Sales order function.

B. Sales forecast function.

C. Logistics function.

D. Reporting function.

36. The component of the logistics function that directs the focus of operations is the: A. Operations component.

B. Resource management component.

C. Planning component.

D. The sales component.

37X. The planning component of the logistics function has all of the following elements except: A. Maintenance and control.

B. Engineering.

C. Scheduling.

D. Capital budgeting.

38X. The resource management component of the logistics function has all of the following elements except: A. Maintenance and control.

B. Human resources.

C. Inventory control.

D. Capital budgeting.

39.

The operations component of the logistics function has which of the following elements?

A. Maintenance and control.

B. Production.

C. Inventory control.

D. Capital budgeting.

40. The responsibility to conduct make/buy decisions is usually given to: A.Engineering.

B. Capital budgeting.

C. Operations.

D. Research and development.

41. Capital budgeting: A. Is responsible for the issuance of stocks and bonds to finance operations.

B. Plans the capital resources needed to support operations.

C. Is responsible for the procurement of production materials.

D. Is not a function of a company once established and functioning.

42. Engineering is responsible for: A.Designing the product while operations is responsible the bill of materials and the operations list.

B. Designing the plant and equipment used in manufacturing.

C. Is responsible for the procurement of production equipment.

D. Designing the product and creating the bill of materials and the operations list.

43. The bill of materials is the: A. Cost of raw materials purchased from a vendor.

B. Document of instructions utilized to assemble a product.

C. Form that specifies the components of a product.

D. Designing the product and creating the bill of materials and the operations list.

44X. The operations list is the: A. Schedule of production for the day, week, or month as specified by the company.

B. Document of instructions utilized to assemble a product.

C. Form that specifies the components of a product.

D. Designing the product and creating the bill of materials.

45. Scheduling: A.Plans the timing for acquisition of fixed assets.

B. Does not take into account machine breakdowns.

C. Takes into consideration all the open sales orders.

D. Does not take inventory needs.

46. Production orders: A.Outline the specific timing required for sales orders.

B. Authorize production activities for a particular need or order.

C. Are forecasts of needs based on known and anticipated sales.

D. Are issued by the engineering department to correct product deficiency issues.

47. A production schedule: A.Does not contain requirements due to sales forecasts.

B. Does not contain information from the bill of materials.

C. Contains information from the operations list.

D. Are issued by the maintenance and control department.

48. The department responsible for training production personnel is the: A. Production department.

B. Human resources department.

C. Engineering department.

D. None of the above.

49. Economic order quantity (EOQ) is a function: A. Of the purchasing customer or client.

B. Of the sales force to provide the purchasing customer or client with the greatest value.

C. Of the responsibility of engineering through the operations list.

D. Associated with inventory control.

50X. Routing is the: A.Path electronic messages follow in the inventory system.

B. Issuance and movement of materials into the various production phases.

C. Physical movement of materials from the point of sale to the customer.

D. Physical movement of materials from the vendor to the inventory stores facility.

51X. Inventory status reports are: A.Generated only for raw materials.

B.Only generated for finished goods.

C.Prepared at various stages of the production process.

D. Only generated for work in process.

52. Select the true statement from the choices below.

A.Inventory stores and warehousing are both concerned with raw materials.

B. Neither inventory stores nor warehousing are concerned with raw materials.

C. Inventory stores is concerned with raw materials and warehousing is concerned with finished goods.

D. Inventory stores is concerned with finished goods and warehousing is concerned with raw materials.

53X. The term “operations” is commonly used to refer to: A.The main function of the business.

B. Any function of the business which generates revenues.

C. Only those functions of the business accomplished by the operations department.

D. Only those functions which move inventory through the production cycle.

54X. Operations may be performed by all of the following except: A.Continuous processing of homogeneous products.

B. Batch processing.

C. Custom, made-to-order processing.

D. Each of the above is a valid form of operations.

55. The final hub in the logistics function is: A. Packaging.

B. Quality control.

C. Sales.

D. Shipping to the customer.

56. Rework refers to: A.Generating a better quote for a customer.

B. Overhaul of a manufacturing machine.

C. Additional procedures to bring a product up to specifications.

D. Parts that are beyond repair at any cost.

57. The final hub in the logistics function which involves a follow-up to production, where the products are inspected before they are moved to the warehouse or shipping area is referred to as: A. Quality control.

B. Shipping notice.

C. Purchase requisition.

D. Warehousing.

58. The expected cost based on projections of a product’s required resources which includes direct materials, direct labor and overhead is referred to as: A.Quality control costs.

B. Sales order cost.

C. Rework costs.

D. Standard costs.

59. A system which involves recording purchases of raw materials inventory, recording all the components of work in process, and recording the total cost of sales for products completed and sold is referred to as: A.A perpetual inventory system.

B. The accounting information system.

C. A periodic inventory system.

D. None of the above.

60. Perpetual inventory systems: A.Record changes in inventory categories only at the end of each period.

B. Record changes in inventory categories only when sales are made.

C. Record changes in inventory categories whenever material is moved from one category to another.

D.Does not address raw materials.

61. Variances represent the differences between: A. actual costs and the standard costs applied.

B. raw materials ordered and raw materials received.

C. the sales targets and sales accomplishments.

D. actual quantity on hand and quantity according to the inventory system.

62X. Standard costs are the: A. Responsibility of production accountants.

B. Expected costs based on required resources.

C. Costs normally paid for a component.

D. Prices the customer is expected to pay upon sale.

63X. Standard costs take into consideration all of the following except: A. The cost of materials utilized to maintain production equipment.

B. The cost of labor used to operate the production machinery.

C. The cost of the sales manager’s salary.

D. Factory overhead items that cannot be directly correlated to product production.

64. Perpetual inventory systems: A. Are only updated at the end of each fiscal period.

B. Are concerned only with finished goods.

C. Are not concerned with raw materials.

D. Involve every level of inventory necessary for production.

65. Periodic inventory systems: A. Are only updated at the end of each fiscal period.

B. Are concerned only with finished goods.

C. Are not concerned with raw materials.

D. May not reflect current inventory levels.

66. Variances: A. Represent the differences between actual costs and the standard costs applied.

B. Represent the difference between design specifications and production results.

C. Represent flaws in the production results.

D. Each of the answers, A, B, and C are correct.

67. Variances: A. Are only investigated if they are unfavorable.

B. Are always investigated.

C. Will always result in the improvement of the logistics function.

D. May not result in any changes in the logistics function.

68X. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility given to the individuals making purchases for the company?

A.Purchasing raw materials for production.

B. Specifying the order and sequence of payments to vendors.

C. Selecting vendors.

D. Specifying the quantities to be ordered.

69X. Which of the following activities in the conversion process does NOT require express authorization?

A.Initiation of production orders.

B. Issuance of materials into the production process.

C. Transfer of finished goods to the warehouse or shipping areas.

D. Initiation of a sales order.

70. Segregation of duties is accomplished by which of the following?

A.Accounting personnel having restricted access to physical inventory.

B. Warehouse personnel signing all documents related to material movements.

C. Production personnel restricted to one manufacturing station at all times.

D. None of the above.

71X. Security of assets and documents include all of the following except: A.Water sprinklers.

B. Adequate insurance coverage.

C. Restricted movement of office supplies.

D. Security guards.

72. In inventory systems, when the actual quantity and the accounting records quantity are compared it is referred to as: A. Perpetual inventory.

B. Inventory resolution.

C. The physical inventory reconciliation.

D. Periodic inventory.

73X. Cost-benefit can be defined as: A.Gross profit after sales are made.

B.Cameras and security guards to protect construction materials in a restricted access warehouse.

C.Verifying inventory levels at the end of each working shift.

D.Alarm systems and vaults for fine jewelry inventories.

74X. The activity in the conversion process that does NOT require express authorization is the: A. Initiation of production orders.

B. Issuance of materials into the production process.

C. Transfer of finished goods to the warehouse or shipping areas.

D. Movement of production pieces from one stage of production to the next.

75. Within the logistics function, segregation of duties means: A.One person should not have both inventory and accounting responsibilities.

B. One person should not have production responsibilities over more than one station.

C. One person should not have quality assurance responsibilities over a work station other than his own.

D. Each person can only have one duty or function in the production function.

76. Physical controls include all but: A.Fences and alarm systems.

B.Security guards.

C.High tech security tools.

D.Each of the answers, A, B, and C are correct.

77. Physical inventory counts should only include: A. Finished goods.

B. Finished goods and raw materials.

C. Finished goods and work-in-process.

D. Raw materials, work-in-process, and finished goods.

78. When there is a difference between the inventory records quantity and the physical count of inventory: A.There is a variance.

B. The difference can be ignored if minor.

C. The difference is resolved through inventory reconciliation.

D. The difference is ignored if the physical quantity exceeds inventory record quantity.

79. Which of the following factors does NOT influence the need to safeguard and monitor inventory movement?

A.Inconsistent or high levels of inventory movement.

B. If the inventory is held at various locations.

C. If a company’s inventory items are difficult to differentiate.

D. Each of the answers, A, B, and C are correct.

80X. This software allows engineers to work with advanced graphics at electronic work stations to create 3-D models that depict the production environment.

A. Computer-integrated manufacturing systems (CIMs) B. Computer aided design (CAD) C. Material resource planning (MRP) D. Computer aided manufacturing (CAM) 81. _________________ involves the automated scheduling of production orders and movement of materials in the production process.

A.Computer-integrated manufacturing systems (CIMs) B. Computer aided design (CAD) C. Material resource planning (MRP) D. Computer aided manufacturing (CAM)

82. _____________ integrates all of the conversion processes to allow for minimal disruptions due to reporting requirements or inventory movement issues.

A. Computer-integrated manufacturing systems (CIMs) B. Computer aided design (CAD) C. Material resource planning (MRP) D. Computer aided manufacturing (CAM) 83X. IT systems permit or allow all of the following except: A.Automatic computation of materials requirements based on sales orders.

B. Reduced internal security measures.

C. Automatic updating of inventory status reports D. Timely transfer of inventories throughout the process.

84X. Computerization of the conversion process results in all except: A. Automatic computation of materials requirements based on purchase orders.

B. Timely transfer of inventories throughout the process.

C. Automatic updating of inventory status reports.

D. Automatic computation of materials requirements based on sales orders.

85. Select the false completion to the statement which starts “A computer-based conversion A.Requires less data input into the system.

B. Automatically prepares financial accounting entries and cost accounting reports.

C. Yields greater benefits in terms of workforce efficiency.

D. Permits more systematic scheduling which allows for greater flexibility.

process:”

86. Select the true statement.

A.Computer-aided manufacturing (CAM) requires computer-aided design.

B.Computer-aided design is always two dimensional.

C.Computer-aided design may be three dimensional.

D. Computer-aided design requires additional manpower during assembly.

87. Just-in-time (JIT) production systems: A.Require close communications with the engineering department.

B. Do not require close communications with vendors.

C. Require closely controlled inventory levels.

D. Do not require additional monitoring.

88. The act of misstating financial information in order to improve financial statement results is referred to as: A. Just in time production systems.

B. Manufacturing resource planning.

C. Earning management.

D. Absorption costing.

89X. Which of the following involves the inclusion of both variable and fixed costs in the determination of unit costs for ending inventories and cost of goods sold?

A. Just in time production systems B. Manufacturing resource planning C. Earning management D. Absorption costing 90X. Ethical issues of manufacturing include all except: A. Reassignment or retraining employees terminated due to automation.

B. Absorption costing.

C. Production of excessive inventory levels.

D. Earnings management.

91X. When absorption costing is used: A.Production inefficiencies are immediately identified.

B.Production to absorb the cost of waste and yield factors not considered in other costing methods.

C.Both variable and fixed costs are included in unit costs.

D.The transfer of values to the income statement through inventory accounts.

92. Earnings management: A.Is the act of misstating financial information.

B. Is the goal of cost/benefit relationships.

C. Accomplished through the proper management of inventory and sales.

D. Is an ethical goal of management.

93. Manpower displacement through automation: A.Is considered a benefit through cost/benefit analysis.

B. Should be a concern of management.

C. Is the goal of proper engineering.

D. Seldom results in termination of employees.

94X. Functions of corporate governance includes all of the following except: A. Management oversight B. Earnings management C. Financial stewardship D. Internal control system.

95. When the proper tone of corporate governance is in place: A.Encouraging ethical conduct is unnecessary.

B. Effectiveness is not improved.

C. Risk of fraud tends to increase.

D. Proper stewardship of assets increases.

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 11 - MULTIPLE CHOICE: 16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

B B C B A D A B B A C B C A D B

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

C A D C C A D B D B D D C C B C

TEST BANK – CHAPTER 11– TRUE / FALSE

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

B D B C C A D B C A D A C A B C

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

D D A D B D A C C D D A D D C D

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

B C A B A A C C C D B C A B C D

96. Resources required in the conversion process include materials, labor, overhead, and fixed assets.

FALSE 97. Even if a firm is a service or sales firm it may conduct some sort of manufacturing operation.

TRUE 98.

The major function within the conversion process is the logistics function.

TRUE

99. The three primary components of the logistics function are 1) planning, 2) production, and 3) sales.

FALSE 100. The research and development effort is part of the planning process rather than the operations process.

TRUE 101. A bill of materials lists both physical items and skill requirements needed to construct an item of inventory.

FALSE 102. Maintenance and control is concerned with maintaining the capital resources used to support production, including production facilities and other fixed assets.

TRUE 103. Routing is the issuance and movement of materials through the sales process.

FALSE 104. Inventory warehousing involves managing the holding area for finished goods awaiting sale.

TRUE 105. The final hub in the logistics function is sales.

FALSE 106. Standard costs are expected costs based on projections of a product’s required resources.

TRUE 107. Standard costs include direct materials, direct labor, and overhead.

TRUE 108. Perpetual inventory systems involve updating the inventory and cost of sales accounts only at the end of the period.

FALSE 109. Because conversion processes involve the physical movement of inventory throughout the operating facility and these movements are normally accomplished by material handling personnel the burden of sufficient internal controls is not required.

FALSE 110. Complete, up-to-date, and accurate documentation on production orders is needed to support the conversion process.

TRUE 111. Physical controls should be in place in the company’s storerooms, warehouses, and production facilities in order to safeguard the inventories held therein.

TRUE 112. When perpetual inventory concepts are utilized, a physical inventory count to determine the quantity of inventory on hand is not required.

FALSE 113. Computer-aided manufacturing (CAM) involves the complete automation of the production process, including the full replacement of human resources with computers.

TRUE 114. MRP stands for Management Resource Projections.

FALSE 115. Just-in-time (JIT) production systems are concerned with minimizing or eliminating inventory levels of all inventory items.

TRUE 116. Earnings management is the act of misstating financial information in order to improve financial statement results.

TRUE 117. Absorption costing involves the inclusion of both variable and fixed costs in the determination of unit costs for ending inventories and cost of goods sold.

TRUE 118X. Based on the cost/benefit concept, it is not necessary for management to consider the moral implications of replacing human resources with electronic resources.

FALSE 119X. The corporate governance structure includes internal controls in addition to systems and processes.

TRUE 120. Corporate governance requires proper financial stewardship, and since inventories, fixed assets, and office supplies are the largest assets reported on a balance sheet, financial stewardship in these areas is especially important.

FALSE ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 11 - TRUE/FALSE: 96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

F T T F T

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

F T F T F

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

T T F F T

111.

112.

113.

114.

115.

T F T F T

116.

117.

118.

119.

120.

T T F T T

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 12: Administrative Processes and Controls NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS: 1X. Which of the following is NOT part of an administrative process?

A.The sale of stock B.The sale of bonds C.The write-off of bad debts D.The purchase of marketable securities 2X. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding source of capital transactions?

A.These processes should not be initiated unless there is specific authorization by management at a top level.

B.Source of capital processes will result in potential dividend or interest payments.

C.Retirement of debt is a source of capital process.

D.The fact that these transactions and processes cannot occur without oversight by top management means other controls are not necessary.

3. The officer within a corporation that usually has oversight responsibility for investment processes is the A.Controller.

B.Treasurer.

C.Chief executive officer (CEO).

D.Chief accounting officer (CAO).

4X. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding internal controls of capital and investment processes?

A.Internal controls aimed at preventing and detecting employee fraud in capital and investment processes are not as effective.

B.Top management fraud, rather than employee fraud, is more likely to occur.

C.Any fraud is likely to involve manipulating capital and investment processes.

D.Because of top management oversight, the auditor need not review these processes.

5. Which of the following statements is true?

A.Routine transactions are recorded in the general journal.

B.Nonroutine transactions are entered in the general journal.

C.Nonroutine transactions are recorded in a subsidiary ledger.

D.Nonroutine transactions are recorded in a special journal.

6X. Regarding subsidiary ledgers and general ledger control accounts, which of the following is NOT true?

A.Total balances in a subsidiary ledger should always equal the balance in the corresponding general ledger account.

B.The general ledger maintains details of subaccounts.

C.Control is enhanced by separating the subsidiary ledger from the general ledger.

D.Reconciling a subsidiary ledger to the general ledger can help to detect errors or fraud.

7X. Which of the following statements regarding the authorization of general ledger posting is NOT true?

A.Posting to the general ledger always requires specific authorization.

B.User IDs and passwords can serve as authorization to post transactions to the general ledger.

C.A journal voucher serves as authorization for manual systems.

D.As IT systems become more automated, the authorization of general ledger posting is moved to lower levels of employees.

8. In a manual system with proper segregation of duties, an employee in the general ledger department should only A.Authorize posting to the general ledger.

B.Post transactions to the general ledger.

C. Reconcile the subsidiary ledger to the general ledger.

D.Post transactions to the subsidiary ledger.

9. Which of the following statements about reporting is true?

A.External users need detailed, rather than summarized, information.

B.All reports, internal and external, are derived only from general ledger data.

C.All organizations need similar internal reports.

D.Internal reports are tailored to the specific needs of each management level and function.

10X. Which of the following is NOT generally an area of measure in a balanced scorecard?

A.Vendor B.Customer C.Financial D.Learning and growth ANSWERS: 1. C 2. D

3. B 4. B

5. B 6. B

7. A 8. B

9. D 10. A

TEST BANK – CHAPTER 12 – MULTIPLE CHOICE 11. Capital or investment processes: A.Is a regular and frequent event.

B.Only requires the specific approval of someone such as a senior accountant.

C.Requires the specific approval of top management or board of directors.

D.Can be considered revenue since it results in cash inflows.

12. Capital or investment processes: A.Is a regular and frequent event.

B.Do not require established procedures or internal controls due to their infrequency.

C.Require established procedures and internal controls even though they are considered infrequent events.

D.Do not involve the company’s own bond issues.

13X. Conversion processes, systems and controls result from transactions that are: A.Large volumes of daily materials transactions.

B.Large volumes of daily sales and cash inflow transactions.

C.Periodic.

D. Infrequent.

14X. Revenue and return processes, systems and controls result from transactions that are: A.Large volumes of daily materials transactions.

B.Large volumes of daily sales and cash inflow transactions.

C.Periodic.

D.Infrequent.

15X. Administrative processes, systems and controls result from transactions that are: A.Large volumes of daily materials transactions.

B.Large volumes of daily sales and cash inflow transactions.

C.Periodic.

D.Infrequent or intermittent.

16. External reports do not include: A.Balance sheets.

B.Income statements.

C.Sales reports.

D.Cash flows.

17. Internal reports do not include: A.Balance sheets.

B.Sales reports.

C.Cash flows.

D.Inventory status reports.

18. Select the answer that contains only external reports.

A.Balance sheet, income statement, cash flow statement.

B.Sales, balance sheet, income statement.

C.Balance sheet, income statement, aged receivables.

D.Sales, inventory, aged receivables.

19. Select the answer that contains only internal reports.

A.Balance sheet, income statement, cash flow statement.

B.Sales, balance sheet, income statement.

C.Balance sheet, income statement, aged receivables.

D.Sales, inventory, aged receivables.

20. Payroll transactions are considered: A.Large volume daily events.

B.Small volume daily events.

C.Periodic events.

D.Intermittent or infrequent events.

21. Raw material events can be found in which two processes?

A.1) Revenue and return processes, systems & controls and 2) expenditures and return processes, systems & controls.

B.1) Expenditures and return processes, systems & controls and 2) conversion processes, systems & controls.

C.1) Conversion processes, systems & controls and 2) Administrative processes, systems & controls.

D.1) Administrative processes, systems & controls and 2) Revenue and return processes, systems & controls.

22. Capital is/are the funds: A.Utilized to acquire long-term and short-term or current assets.

B.Received from customers from accounts receivable.

C.Utilized to acquire long-term assets D.That are cash inflows regardless of source.

23. The decision to raise or acquire capital funds is: A.The responsibility of contract stock underwriters.

B.The responsibility of contract bond underwriters.

C.Affects only bonds.

D.Is the responsibility of the board of directors.

24X. Capital funds are acquired through the issuance of: A.Bonds only.

B.Stocks and/or bonds.

C.Stocks only.

D.Debt instruments only.

25X. Long-term debt results from borrowing funds via: A.Bonds and loans with payment schedules several years in the future.

B.Stocks.

C.Loans with payment due in the near future.

D.All of the above, A, B, and C, are examples of long-term debt.

26. Equity is considered: A.Bonds and loans with payment schedules several years in the future.

B.Stocks.

C.Loans with payment due in the near future.

D.All of the above, A, B, and C, are examples of long-term debt.

27X. The transactions and resulting processes related to loans, bonds payable, and stock should be executed only when A.Received funds have been expended through the purchase of fixed assets.

B.The transactions are completed.

C.Top supervisors authorize them D.Top management or the board of directors authorize them.

28. Select the correct statement from those listed below.

A.Issuance of bonds and the origination of loans are considered debt while the issuance of stock is considered equity.

B.Issuance of bonds and the origination of loans are considered debt while the issuance of stock is considered revenue.

C.Issuance of bonds, the origination of loans, and the issuance of stock are all considered debt.

D.Issuance of bonds, the origination of loans, and the issuance of stock are all considered equity.

29X. Items associated with debt do NOT include: A.Interest.

B.Maturity date.

C.Dividends.

D.Changes in stockholders’ equity.

30. Items associated with equity include all but: A.Interest.

B.Maturity date.

C.Dividends.

D.Changes in stockholders’ equity.

31. Investment processes: A.Issue stock.

B.Issue bonds.

C.Purchase of fixed assets.

D.Invest excess funds.

32X. Which of the following, within the corporation, has the responsibility for making investment decisions?

A.Board of directors.

B.Chief financial officer.

C.Treasurer.

D.President/CEO. 33X. Which of the following, withing the corporation, usually has physical custody of securities held as investments?

A.Treasurer.

B.President/CEO. C.Board of directors.

D.Chief financial officer.

34. Corporations with complex IT systems: A.May automate their investment process.

B.Still handle all investment processes manually.

C.Generally isolate the investment process from their accounting application.

D.Cannot forecast surplus cash levels.

35. Select the true statement from those given below.

A.Capital processes require top management approval while investment processes only require treasurer approval.

B.Both the capital process and the investment process require only treasurer approval.

C.Both the capital process and the investment process require top management approval.

D.Neither the capital process nor the investment processes require top management approval.

36. Fraud associated with the capital and investment process is: A.Is generally the actions of the employees handling the cash associated with transactions.

B.Usually related to management fraud.

C.Prevented by the use of electronic funds transfers.

D.Usually not pursued by the Securities and Exchange Commission.

37. The proper sequence of events for the accounting cycle is: A.Journalize, post, trial balance, adjusting entries, financial statements, and closing entries.

B.Journalize, post, trial balance, adjusting entries, closing entries, and financial statements.

C.Journalize, post, adjusting entries, trial balance, closing entries, and financial statements.

D.Trial balance, adjusting entries, journalize, post, closing entries, and financial statements.

38. Special journals include: A.Accounts receivable journal, cash receipts journal, payroll journal, purchases journal, and sales journal.

B.Accounts payable journal, cash disbursements journal, payroll journal, purchases journal, and sales journal.

C.Cash disbursements journal, cash receipts journal, general journal, payroll journal, purchases journal, and sales journal.

D.Cash disbursements journal, cash receipts journal, payroll journal, purchases journal, and sales journal.

39X. Which of the following is NOT a special journal?

A.Sales journal B.Inventory journal.

C.Cash receipts journal.

D.Payroll journal.

40. Special journals include the: A.Accounts receivable journal.

B.Accounts payable journal.

C.Purchases journal.

D.Inventory journal.

41. Select the correct statement from the following.

A.To review purchases from a vendor inspect the purchases journal, to review payments to a vendor inspect the cash receipts journal.

B.To review purchases from a vendor and review payments to a vendor inspect the cash disbursements journal.

C.To review the purchases from a vendor inspect the purchases journal, to determine inventory levels of a specific item inspect the inventory journal.

D.To review the payments to a vendor inspect the cash receipts journal, to determine inventory levels of a specific item inspect the inventory journal.

42X. Select the correct statement from the following: A.The accounts payable journal will not show detail of purchases from a vendor.

B.Details of amounts owed by a customer in are the accounts payable journal.

C.The sales journal contains all sales information.

D.Details of amounts owed to a vendor are contained in the purchases journal.

43. Select the correct statement from the following: A.If the trial balance debits equal the trial balance credits, adjusting entries are not necessary.

B.Adjusting entries are made after the adjusted trial balance report is printed.

C.Accounts payable information in detail can be found in both the general ledger and the accounts payable subsidiary ledger.

D.Financial statements must be prepared before the closing entries are journalized.

44. Sales and sales returns can affect which journals?

A.Accounts receivable, accounts payable, inventory, and sales.

B.Accounts receivable, cash, inventory, and sales.

C.Accounts receivable, accounts payable, purchases, and inventory.

D.Sales, cash receipts, cash disbursements, inventory, and purchases.

45. Special journals are: A.Utilized for infrequent special journal entries.

B.For regular and recurring transactions.

C.Not utilized in automated accounting processes.

D. Oten the source of information regarding a specific customer.

46X. The sales journal would have columns for a: A.Debit to sales, a credit to accounts receivable.

B.Debit to cash, a debit to accounts receivable, and a credit to sales.

C.Debit to accounts receivable and a credit to cost of goods sold.

D.Debit to accounts receivable and a credit to sales.

47. Subsidiary ledgers: A.Would not contain the detailed information of a customer’s account.

B.Would contain the detailed information of a customer’s account.

C.Would contain only information related to secondary interests of the organization.

D.Would not be utilized in automated accounting processes.

48. When special journals are utilized: A.A general journal is not required.

B.Segregation of duties is required.

C.A general journal is still utilized for infrequent and unique journal entries.

D.A general ledger is not required.

49. Corrections to posting errors are made: A.Before the first trial balance.

B.Only after the first trial balance.

C.When discovered.

D. Only when directed by top management.

50. Closing entries are: A.Journalized in all of the special journals.

B.Journalized in the general journal.

C.Journalized in the subsidiary ledgers.

D.Journalized in the general ledger.

51. Closing entries: A.Close all of the general ledger accounts.

B.End the fiscal period.

C.Close all of the subsidiary ledger accounts.

D.Are journalized in the subsidiary ledgers.

52. Today’s automated accounting process: A.Is built on a structure independent of manual accounting.

B.Does not require special journals or subsidiary ledgers.

C.Is built on an operational structure similar to manual accounting.

D.Eliminate errors in the accounting process.

53. Today’s automated accounting process: A.Helps the user by identifying modules for activities.

B.Precludes the use of subsidiary ledgers.

C.Requires manual posting of general journal transactions.

D.All of the above, A, B, and C, are correct.

54. Transactions are recorded in the special journals and subsidiary ledgers: A.At the time of the transaction.

B.Only when approved by top management.

C.Only during the adjusting process.

D.Only during the closing process.

55. Posting to the general ledger occurs: A.As the transaction is recorded in the special journals.

B.Is not required if special journals are utilized.

C.Automatically at the end of each business day.

D.Only when proper authorization has been given.

56. In automated accounting: A.Paper vouchers are still required before the posting process is started.

B.Transaction information may be held in a special module awaiting posting.

C.General ledger accounts are updated as transactions are recorded in special journals.

D.Authorization is required for each specific transaction.

57. As computerized accounting systems get more and more complex and integrated:

A.The level of authorization for posting gets higher in the level of responsibilities.

B.The level of authorization for posting has not changed.

C.The level of authorization for posting gets lower in the level of responsibilities.

D.More levels of authorization are required.

58. Select the correct statement from the following.

A.General ledger employees should have custody of any assets that they record in the general ledger.

B.General ledger employees should never be given responsibility for authorizing any journal vouchers.

C.General ledger employees should record journal vouchers from any operational departments when received.

D.All of the above, A, B, and C, are correct.

59. Select the correct statement from the following.

A.General ledger employees should not have custody of any assets that they record in the general ledger.

B.General ledger employees should never be given responsibility for authorizing any journal vouchers.

C.General ledger employees should only record journal vouchers that have been authorized by the appropriate manager.

D.All of the above, A, B, and C, are correct.

60. General ledger employees should record journal vouchers, but they should not A.Have recording responsibility for any special journals or subsidiary ledgers.

B.Authorize journal vouchers.

C.Have custody of assets.

D.All of the above, A, B, and C, are correct.

61. Segregation of duties: A.Remains unchanged between computerized and manual accounting.

B.May be more difficult in less complex computerized accounting systems.

C.Is not a factor with computerized accounting systems.

D.Is not a factor with manual accounting systems.

62X. When transactions are posted in a computerized accounting system: A.The user must post all transactions awaiting in the module.

B.Segregation of duties is not a factor.

C.The user can select which batches of transactions to post.

D.Anyone with general ledger access can post the transactions.

63. Within ERP systems: A.A single user with a password may be authorized to purchase and receive the item.

B.Segregation of duties and responsibilities allows incompatible privileges.

C.Purchasing requires a different approval than receiving.

D.User profiles are not recorded within the system.

64. While using a manual general ledger system, the audit trail could consist of: 1. general ledger 2. electronic images.

3. journal vouchers.

4. paper documents.

5. source documents.

6. special journals.

7. subsidiary ledgers.

A.1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7.

B.1, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7.

C.1, 2, 4, 5, 6, and 7.

D.1, 2, 4, 6, and 7.

65. While using a computerized IT accounting system, the audit trail could consist of: 1. general ledger.

2. electronic images.

3. journal vouchers.

4. paper documents.

5. source documents.

6. special journals.

7. subsidiary ledgers.

A.1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7.

B. 2.

C.2, 4, 5, and 7.

D.1, 4, 6, and 7.

66. Audit trails: A.Can proceed only from the source document to the journal entry.

B.Can proceed only from the journal entry to the source document.

C.Is only utilized by the CPA auditors.

D.Can be from the source document to the journal entry or from the journal entry to the source document.

67. Security of source documents: A.Is essential for both manual general ledger systems and IT accounting systems.

B.Is not a factor with IT accounting systems since the source documents are electronic images.

C.Is not a factor with manual general ledger systems since they are printed documents in archive files.

D.None of the options, A, B, or C, are correct.

68. Select the correct statement from those listed below.

A.Investors and creditors use nonfinancial feedback to evaluate business performance.

B.Internal managers need only nonfinancial feedback for proper planning and control of operations.

C.Internal managers need reports at the same frequency as external users.

D.Internal managers need much more frequent and detailed reports than external users.

69. Internal users: 1.

2.

3.

4.

Need more frequent reports than external users.

Need the same reports as external users to manage the operation.

Do not utilize nonfinancial information in the planning and control of operations.

Utilize nonfinancial information in the planning and control of operations.

A.Only 1.

B.Only 1 and 4.

C.Only 1 and 2.

D.Only 4.

70. The external general purpose financial statements/reports are the: 1.

Aged accounts payable report.

2.

Aged accounts receivable report.

3.

Balance sheet.

4.

Income statement.

5.

Inventory statement.

6.

Statement of cash flows.

7.

Statement of retained earnings.

A.1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7.

B.Only 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, and 7.

C.Only 3, 4, 6, and 7.

D.Only 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7.

71. Financial statements: A.Are generated from the values of the special journals and subsidiary ledgers.

B.Are presented with complete chart of account detail.

C.May contain condensed data from the general ledger.

D.Show units in inventory and dollar value of those units.

72X. The four general purpose financial statements are: A.Generated at the end of each month.

B. Generated at the end of each fiscal period.

C. Distributed only to external users.

D. Distributed only to internal users.

73. Internal reports of financial information: A.Are standardized by the AICPA. B.Are the same as those distributed to the external users.

C.Vary by the user.

D.Are distributed on the same time schedule as external reports.

74X. The factor that does NOT affect internal reports is: A.The type of organization.

B. The audit status of the organization.

C.The underlying function being managed.

D.The time horizon.

75X. The account that a manufacturing operation and a retail firm would have in common would be: A.Raw materials.

B.Work in process.

C.Manufacturing Labor.

D.Inventory.

76. A service firm would focus on: A.Raw materials and work in process.

B.Sales and project status.

C.Work in process and labor.

D.Raw materials and labor.

77. A common interest for manufacturing, retail, and service firms is: A.Inventory.

B.Revenues.

C.Profitability.

D.Both B and C. 78. Not-for-profit organizations would be interested in: A.Cash flows, revenues, and expenditures.

B.Cash flows, funding sources, and expenditures.

C.Revenues, expenses, and funding sources.

D.Cash inflows, cash outflows, and profits.

79. Select the true statement from those listed below.

A.Managers only need reports showing dollar values.

B.Managers only need reports showing unit data.

C.All managers need the same information.

D.Managers need the information associated with their area of responsibility.

80. Studies show: A.That for day-to-day operations unit data is the critical element.

B.That for day-to-day operations general ledger dollar value is the critical element.

C.That the general ledger dollar values have little impact on long-term time horizons.

D.Both A and B are correct.

81X. Unethical or fraudulent behavior 1.

Can occur in administrative processing of an organization.

2.

Can occur in the reporting functions of an organization.

3.

Are much more likely to be initiated by management.

4.

Are much more likely to be initiated by employees.

A.Only 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

B.Only 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

C.Only 1 and 3 are correct.

D.Only 2 and 4 are correct.

82. Select the true statement from the following.

A.Employee fraud is more prevalent in the routine processes. Management fraud is more prevalent in administrative processes and reporting.

B.Employee fraud is less prevalent in the routine processes and administrative processes. Management fraud is more prevalent in operational processes and reporting.

C.Employee fraud is less prevalent in the administrative processes. Management fraud is more prevalent in operational processes and reporting.

D.Employee and managerial fraud is prevalent in the routine processes as well as the administrative processes and reporting equally.

83. in a properly controlled system of administrative and reporting functions, 1.

Employees have access to related assets or source documents.

2.

Administrative processes are tightly controlled by supervisors.

3.

Employees have the authority to initiate processes such as investing.

4.

On processes such as sales and cash receipts employees are given general authorization to initiate and process transactions.

A.Only 1 and 4 are true.

B.Only 1, 2, and 4 are true.

C.Only 4 is true.

D.Only 1, 3, and 4 are true.

84X. Examples of employee initiated fraud would NOT include: A.The writing off uncollectible accounts of a friend even when it could be collected.

B.The inflation of hours worked on time card C.The theft of cash or checks from the mailroom.

D.The release of false or misleading general purpose financial statements.

85X. Fraud is: A.Harder to conceal in the routine events of conversion and sales.

B.Harder to conceal in the administrative processes such as investments because the are nonroutine and the number of transactions varies.

C.Harder to conceal when initiated by top management due to limited access to the records.

D.Precluded by proper internal control processes.

86. The raising of capital: A.Requires the complete and honest details of the utilization of the funds.

B.Should be supported by correct and factual financial statement values.

C.Should be supported by correct and factual financial statement footnotes.

D.All of the above, A, B, and C, are correct.

87. The four primary functions of corporate governance do not include: A.Management oversight.

B.Inventory control.

C.Financial stewardship.

D.Ethical conduct.

88. A proper corporate governance structure must be in place in order to properly deter instances of: A.Fraud.

B.Theft.

C.Misuse or manipulation of administrative resources.

D.All of the above, A, B, and C, are correct.

89. When management designs and implements effective administrative processes: A.Delegation of responsibility is prohibited.

B.The ability to steal or misuse capital is eliminated.

C.Constant monitoring is necessary.

D.The responsibility of executing related capital functions to employees is prohibited.

90. When management designs and implements effective administrative processes: A.Delegation of responsibility is prohibited.

B.A budgeting process is a method of corporate governance.

C.The responsibility of executing related capital functions to employees is prohibited.

D.The ability to steal or misuse capital is eliminated.

90A. There are a number of increased reporting requirements as the result of Sarbanes-Oxley and IFRS. These requirements include: A.Adjust the systems and controls B.Collect additional information needed for compliance.

C.Well organized with the right resources to carry out the new tasks.

D.All of the above are required.

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 12 - MULTIPLE CHOICE: 11. C 28. A 45. B 12. C 29. C 46. D 13. A 30. A 47. B 14. B 31. D 48. C 15. C 32. C 49. C 16. C 33. C 50. B 17. A 34. A 51. B 18. A 35. C 52. C 19. D 36. B 53. A 20. C 37. A 54. A 21. B 38. D 55. D 22. C 39. B 56. B 23. D 40. C 57. C 24. B 41. C 58. B

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

C A B B D A D B C C B C B D

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

90A.

D A A A C C D D B D C B D

25. A 26. B 27. D

42. A 43. D 44. B

59. D 60. D 61. B

76. B 77. D 78. B

TEST BANK – CHAPTER 12 – TRUE / FALSE 1. The sale of bonds should be considered a regular, recurring process since these types of transactions are recorded in the general ledger.

FALSE 2. Administrative processes are transactions and activities that either are specifically authorized by top managers or are used by managers to perform administrative functions.

TRUE 3. Not all organizations require long-term, capital assets such as land, buildings, and equipment to operate.

FALSE 4. Capital usually comes from assets or short-term debt.

FALSE 5X. Source of operational processes are those processes to authorize the raising of capital, execute the raising of capital, and to properly account for that capital.

FALSE 6. The board of directors must decide between debt, assets, or equity for capital funds.

FALSE 7X. An underwriter is a third party that contracts with a corporation to bring new securities issues to the public market.

TRUE 8X. Operations processes authorize, execute, manage, and properly account for debt.

FALSE 9. A corporation’s own stock that is repurchased by the company on the open market is a marketable security.

FALSE 10. For both source of capital processes and investment processes, the important control is the specific authorization and oversight by top management.

TRUE 11. Business processes in an organization do not include events that are accounting transactions.

FALSE 12. Subsidiary ledgers maintain the detail information regarding routine transactions, with an account established for each entity.

TRUE 13. Special journals are journals that are established to record the transactions of specific customers and vendors.

FALSE

14. In the case of a manual accounting system, an approved journal voucher must be forwarded to the general ledger department before transactions can be recorded.

TRUE 15. Approvals for each journal voucher are specific authorizations.

FALSE 16. An example of good internal control is having one person responsible for the value of the total of the sales in the sales journal and another person responsible for the balance of sales in the general ledger.

TRUE 17. General ledger employees should record journal vouchers, but they should not authorize journal vouchers, have custody of assets, or have recording responsibility for any special journals or subsidiary ledgers.

TRUE 18. A well-defined chart of accounts would contain an account titled “Rent.”

FALSE 19. Because of their access to the accounting system, internal managers need less detailed reports than external users.

FALSE 20. External users need detailed balance information on every existing account in the general ledger.

FALSE 21. Service firm internal reports are more likely to focus on sales and the status of projects.

TRUE 22. Unethical and fraudulent behaviors are much more likely to be initiated by employees, not management.

FALSE 23. One of the reasons that management, not employees, initiate more unethical and fraudulent activities are that employees do not have access to much of the documentation needed to affect the event.

TRUE 24. Employees are more likely to hide or conceal fraudulent activity in the records of fixed assets and capital acquisition events than elsewhere.

FALSE 25. Reports disseminated to lower level managers are usually used to provide feedback and establish production schedules or sales goals.

FALSE 26. To set a proper ethical tone, top managements should measure several factors of managerial performance without over-emphasizing profitability or cost cutting.

TRUE 27. The only method of exercising corporate governance over administrative processes and financial reporting is through the company’s budgeting process.

FALSE 28. Because of regulatory and auditing issues, good corporate governance does not depend upon the ethical conduct of management.

FALSE ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 12 - TRUE/FALSE: 1. F 7. T 13.

2. T 8. F 14.

3. F 9. F 15.

4. F 10. T 16.

5. F 11. F 17.

6. F 12. T 18.

F T F T T F

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

F F T F T F

25.

26.

27.

28.

F T F F

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 13: Data and Databases NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS 1X. Which of the following best describes the relationship between data and information?

A.Data are interpreted information.

B.Information is interpreted data.

C.Data are more useful than information in decision making.

D.Data and information are not related.

2. A character is to a field as A.Water is to a pool.

B.A pool is to a swimmer.

C.A pool is to water.

D.A glass is to water.

3. Magnetic tape is a form of A.Direct access media.

B.Random access media.

C.Sequential access media.

D.Alphabetical access media.

4. Which of the following is not an advantage of using real-time data processing?

A.Quick response time to support timely record keeping and customer satisfaction B.Efficiency for use with large volumes of data C.Provides for random access of data D.Improved accuracy due to the immediate recording of transactions 5. If a company stores data in separate files in its different departmental locations and is able to update all files simultaneously, it would not have problems with A.Attributes.

B.Data redundancy.

C.Industrial espionage.

D.Concurrency.

6. When the data contained in a database are stored in large, two-dimensional tables, the database is referred to as a A.Flat file database.

B.Hierarchical database.

C.Network database.

D.Relational database.

7. Database management systems are categorized by the data structures they support. In which type of database management system is the data arranged in a series of tables?

A.Network B.Hierarchical C.Relational

D.Sequential 8. A company’s database contains three types of records: vendors, parts, and purchasing. The vendor records include the vendor number, name, address, and terms. The parts records include part numbers, name, description, and warehouse location. Purchasing records include purchase numbers, vendor numbers (which reference the vendor record), part numbers (which reference the parts record), and quantity .What structure of database is being used?

A.Network B.Hierarchical C.Relational D.Sequential 9. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to a relational database?

A.It is flexible and useful for unplanned, ad hoc queries.

B.It stores data in tables.

C.It stores data in a tree formation.

D.It is maintained on direct access devices.

10. A collection of several years’ nonvolatile data used to support strategic decision-making is a (n) A.Operational database.

B.Data warehouse.

C.Data mine.

D.What-if simulation.

11. Data mining would be useful in all of the following situations except A.Identifying hidden patterns in customers’ buying habits.

B.Assessing customer reactions to new products.

C.Determining customers’ behavior patterns.

D.Accessing customers’ payment histories.

12. A set of small databases where data are collected, processed, and stored on multiple computers within a network is a: A.Centralized database.

B.Distributed database.

C.Flat file database.

D.High-impact process.

13. Each of the following is an online privacy practice recommended by the AICPA Trust Services Principles Privacy Framework except: A.Redundant data should be eliminated from the database.

B.Notification of privacy policies should be given to customers.

C.Private information should not be given to third parties without the customer’s consent.

D.All of the above.

ANSWERS TO TEXTBOOK – CHAPTER 13 – END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS 1. B 4. B 7. C 2. A 5. D 8. C 3. C 6. A 9. C TEST BANK – CHAPTER 13 – MULTIPLE CHOICE 14X. Data is A.The interpretation of facts that have been processed.

B.The set of facts collected from transactions.

10. B 11. C 12. B

13. A

C.The set of facts pertaining to accounts payable.

D.The set of facts pertaining to accounts receivable.

15X. Information is the: A.Interpretation of data that have been processed.

B.Set of facts collected from transactions.

C.Set of facts pertaining to accounts payable.

D.Set of facts pertaining to accounts receivable.

16X. Data collected would be all but the: A.Name of the customer.

B.Selling company’s name.

C.Address of the customer.

D.Credit card number of the customer.

17. Examples of data collection events are A. Transactions that fill customer orders.

B. Transactions to replenish inventory.

C. Neither A nor B are examples of data collection.

D. Both A and B are examples of data collection.

18X. The reason that detailed data must be collected and stored is: 1.

The data must be stored for future transactions or follow-up.

2.

The data must be incorporated into the accounting system so that regular financial statements can be prepared.

3.

Management needs to examine and analyze data from transactions to operate the organization.

A.Only 1.

B.Only 1 and 2.

C.Only 1, 2, and 3.

D.Include 1, 2, and 3 among other reasons.

20A. Structured data: A.Includes data collected from transactions.

B.Easily fit into rows and columns C.Include accounting data D.All of the above are true of structured data 19. Detailed information from a sale may be used by: 1.

The sales department.

2.

The accounts receivable section.

3.

The inventory department.

4.

General ledger accountants.

5.

Customer service.

A. Only 1, 3, and 5.

B. Only by 1, 2, 3, and 5.

C. Only by 1, 2, and 3.

D. Only by 1, 2, 3, and 4.

20X. The reasons for storing data to complete a customer sales transactions include all of the following EXCEPT: 1.

Taking the order.

2.

Pulling the items from the warehouse.

3.

Shipping the items to the customer.

4.

Billing the customer.

5.

6.

A. B. C. D.

Providing feedback to the customer on the order.

Updating the customer account for payment.

1.

1 and 5.

2 and 3.

5.

21X. The reasons to store customer names, addresses, and other similar information include all but: A. To follow up with the customer.

B. To create financial reports.

C. To expedite future orders.

D. To ease the customer’s follow-on ordering processes.

22.

Storage media and methods of processing are: A. Sequential and random access storage with random and batch data processing.

B. Sequential and real time access storage with batch and real time data processing.

C. Batch and random access storage with random and batch data processing.

D. Sequential and random access storage with batch and real time data processing.

23.

Select the false statement from the following.

A. A character is a single letter only.

B. A field is a set of characters.

C. A field can be thought of as a column of data.

D. A record is the entire set of fields.

24.

Select the true statement from the following.

A. A character is a single letter only.

B. A character is a single number only.

C. A character is a single symbol only.

D. A character is a single letter, number, or symbol.

A field is a: A. Row within a record.

B. Column within a record.

C. Series or collection of records.

D. Character is a single letter, number, or symbol.

25.

26.

27.

28.

A record is: A. B. C. D.

An entire set of fields for a specific entity.

A series of characters.

A collection of files.

Another name for a database.

A field is a (n): A. B. C. D.

Entire set of records within a file.

Row within a record.

Set of characters.

Set of files within a database.

A file is a: A. B. C. D.

Set of characters.

Column within a record.

Row within a record.

Collection of related records.

29X.

A database is a (n): A. Set of characters.

B. Row within a file.

C. Collection of related records.

D. Entire set of files.

30.

Magnetic tape storage medium allows: A. Sequential access storage with random data processing.

B. Random access storage with random data processing.

C. Batch access storage with random data processing.

D. Sequential access storage with sequential data processing.

31X. Random access means: A. All data items in the group must be read but the groups do not need to read in order.

B. Any data item can be directly accessed without reading in sequence.

C. All data items must be read in the order placed into the system, not alphabetically.

D. All data items must be read in alphabetical order, not in the order they were placed in the system.

32. Direct access: A. Means no passwords are required to access data items in a database.

B. Is the same as sequential access.

C. Is the same as random access.

D. Is the process used by magnetic tape storage medium.

33. (Magnetic) Disk storage is: A. The same as magnetic tape storage.

B. Sequential access.

C. Random access.

D. Not direct access.

34. (Magnetic) Disk storage is: A. Preferred over magnetic tape storage.

B. Sequential access.

C. Not random access.

D. Not direct access.

35X. Batch processing: A. Occurs when dissimilar transactions are grouped and processed as a group.

B. Occurs when similar transactions are grouped together and processed as a group.

C. Occurs when the transaction is processed as soon as it is entered.

D. Would not be used for payment to vendor type transactions since they are time sensitive.

36X. Real-time processing: A. Would not be used for payment to vendor type transactions since they are not time sensitive.

B. Occurs when similar transactions are grouped into a batch and processed as a group.

C. Would be utilized for processes such as payroll due to their time-sensitive nature.

D. Occurs when the transaction is processed immediately.

37. Select the true statement from those provided.

A. Batch processing fails to attain the efficiency of real-time processing.

B. Real-time processing fails to attain the efficiency of batch processing.

C. Real-time processing is efficient for large groups of similar data.

D. Real-time processing has less complex audit trails.

38. Select the false statement from those provided.

A. Batch processing attains a greater efficiency than real-time processing for large amounts of data items.

B. Batch processing has a faster response time than real-time processing due to the grouping of like data items.

C. Batch processing should be utilized for payroll type processes as it groups these similar data items.

D. Real-time data processing has more complex audit trails for data items than batch processing.

39X. Select the false statement from those provided.

A. Real-time processing is more complex because of the interactive nature of data processing.

B. Real-time processing must use sequential storage concepts.

C. The audit trail is as complex within both real-time and batch processing systems.

D. Control totals are difficult within real-time processing due to the lack of data item groupings.

40. Real-time data item processing is more complex because: A. It must utilize sequential storage medium.

B. It must group data items together before processing.

C. The slower response times indicate more systems activity.

D. There is duplication of effort in processing transactions.

41. Batch processing of data items is less complex because: A. Entries are recorded as soon as entered, eliminating queues of data.

B. Audit trails are not required as required with real-time processing.

C. The individuals doing data entry need not learn their jobs to high skill levels.

D. The individual processes are not as complex as with real-time processing.

42X. Select the correct statement from those provided below.

A. Batch processing has a slow response time and must use sequential data storage.

B. Batch processing is very efficient for large volumes of transactions while real-time processing has a slower processing time.

C. Batch processing is complex while real-time processing is simple.

D. Data may be stored sequentially batch processing and but must be random access real-time processing.

43X. Select the false statement from those provided below.

A. Data must be stored sequential order for batch processing and in random order for real-time processing.

B. Batch processing is very efficient for large volumes of transactions while real-time processing has a rapid processing time.

C. Batch processing is simple while real-time processing is more complex.

D. Batch processing has a slow response time and may use random order data access.

44. Select the correct statement from those provided below.

A. If batch processing is selected due to payroll and production type processing mandates, the entire system must be batch processing.

B. If real-time processing is selected due to sales and inventory type processing mandates, the entire system must be real-time processing.

C. If sales and inventory are real-time, payroll and production may be batch processing in a well-designed system.

D. Because sales are frequently shipped out of warehouses, sales, inventory, and payroll are all good candidates for batch processing concepts.

45. Data redundancy occurs: A. When shared databases are utilized.

B. When inventory has the same data in its files as sales has in its files.

C. When customer addresses are needed by both shipping and billing.

D. In all properly designed database management systems.

46X. Concurrency: A. Provides all departments with the same data at the same time.

B. All of the multiple instances of the same data are exactly alike.

C. Is a feature of a properly designed database to protect data.

D. Occurs when inventory and sales can access the same data files.

47X. Select the correct statement from the following.

A. Data redundancy and concurrency are features of well-designed database management systems.

B. Data redundancy, not concurrency, is a feature of a well-designed database management system.

C. Concurrency not, data redundancy, is a feature of a well-designed database management system.

D. Data redundancy and concurrency are not features of well-designed database management systems.

48X. Database management systems, DBMS, is (are): A. Software that manages a database and controls access and use of data B. Printed policies about the use and access to data.

C. Systems which require each user to create his own master data file.

D. Systems that allow unlimited access to the data files by all users.

49X. Data reveal relationships between records. These can be thought of as: A. One-to-one relationships.

B. Many-to-many relationships.

C. One-to-many relationships.

D. All of the above are examples of relationships.

50. Database relationships may be: 1.

One-to-one relationships.

2.

One-to-one relationships only.

3.

One-to-many relationships.

4.

One-to-many relationships only.

5.

Many-to-one relationships.

6.

Many-to-one relationships only.

7.

Many-to-many relationships.

8.

Many-to-many relationships only.

A. 1, 3, 5, and 7 only.

B. 2 or 4 or 6 or 8 only, each is exclusive of the others.

C. 1 and 3 only.

D. 1 or 3 or 5 or 7 only, each is exclusive of the others.

51. An example of a one-to-one relationship would be: A. One employee, three timecards for the pay period.

B. One customer, one billing address.

C. One customer, four shipping addresses.

D. Two employees, one skill set.

52. An example of a one-to-many relationship would be: A. One employee, three timecards for the pay period.

B. One customer, one billing address.

C. One customer, one shipping invoice.

D. Two employees, one skill set.

53. An example of many-to-many relationship would be: A. One customer for one billing date.

B. Multiple customers for one inventory item.

C. Multiple vendors for multiple items.

D. One employee, three timecards for the pay period.

54X. A flat file database has: A. The ability to call necessary information from linked databases.

B. Two dimensions, rows and depth.

C. Only columns.

D. Two dimensions, rows and columns.

55. Processing of a flat file table is: A. Random.

B. Sequential.

C. Random or sequential, selectable by the user.

D. Direct.

56. Flat file records are: A. Kept in random order.

B. Kept is sequential order.

C. Linked to other records by a common attribute.

D. Interactive and real-time processed.

57. Tables in a flat file database must: A. Must contain at least two data items at the intersection of each row and column.

B. Contain similar data throughout the row.

C. Label all columns the same to maintain the relationships of the rows.

D. Contain similar data in the column.

58X. Hierarchical databases are NOT: A. Inverted tree structures.

B. One-to-one relationships.

C. One-to-many relationships.

D. Many-to-one relationships.

59X. A record pointer is a: A. Column value that relates to all other values in the row.

B. Column value that points to the next address with the linked attribute.

C. Row value that points to the next address with the linked attribute.

D. Link that is only required in one-to-many relationships.

60. Hierarchal databases: A. Are effective in retrieving records without explicit linkages.

B. Are efficient in processing large volumes of transactions with explicit linkages.

C. Do not require built-in linkages, they can be created with queries.

D. Do not require record pointers.

61. Network databases: A. Allow shared branches within the inverted tree structure.

B. Allow creation of records without complete information.

C. Are popular today because of LAN and WAN usage.

D. Are very flexible because of the network access.

62. Relational databases are: A. Two-dimensional tables which can be joined in only one way.

B. Three-dimensional tables allowing increased data relationships.

C. Two-dimensional tables which can be joined in many ways.

D. Either two- or three-dimensional as defined by the user.

63. Relational databases are: A. Many large tables linked together to associate data.

B. Many large tables to isolate data within common identifiers.

C. Many small tables linked by primary keys to associate data.

D. Single tables with multi-dimensional characteristics – rows, columns, and depth.

64. The primary key of a relational database: A. Must be a common identifier for all of the data within the table.

B. Must never be the first field of the table.

C. Represents a value that is used to sort, index, and access records with.

D. Is the password which allows unlimited access to the database.

65. Structured query language (SQL): A. Isolates data within tables.

B. Takes advantage of the primary record key to link tables.

C. Is a complex language used to extract data from a limited number of tables.

D. Does not allow conditions to be put on the query.

66. With structured query language (SQL): A. One-to-one relationships can be determined.

B. One-to-many relationships can be determined.

C. Many-to-one relationships can be determined.

D. All of the possibilities, A, B, and C, are correct.

67. A “Where” condition within a structured query of a relational database: A. Must be limited to a location such as “Warehouse #1.”

B. May establish a requirement where the results are equal to a specific value.

C. May establish a requirement where the results are not equal to a specific value.

D. Both B and C are correct.

68. The additive characteristic means: A. The linked tables are synergetic within themselves – linked they are more powerful than alone.

B. The values in the preceding fields must total into a following field.

C. That if the preceding rules are met, the rule can be met.

D. That if the preceding rules are not met, the rule must be met.

69. Data normalization: A. Requires repeated groups to be deleted from the same row.

B. Requires repeated groups to be deleted from the same column.

C. Allows repeated groups if contained within the column.

D. Allows repeated rows of information within two or more tables.

70. Select the correct statement from those provided.

A. The hierarchal and relational database models are both extremely flexible in their queries.

B. The hierarchal model is better suited to queries than the relational database model.

C. The relational database model is more flexible in its queries than the hierarchal mode.

D. The relational database model has better processing of large volumes of transactions.

71. In today’s IT environment: A. Processing speed is compromised for query capability with relational databases.

B. Query capability is compromised for processing speed with relational databases.

C. Neither querying nor processing speed need be compromised with relational databases.

D. Both querying and processing speed are compromised with relational databases.

72. The loss of transaction processing efficiency: A. Is substantial but a necessary trade-off with relational databases.

B. Is minimized because of the increased computing power available.

C. Is a primary reason why relational databases are not utilized.

D. Both B and C are correct.

73. Select the true statement from those provided below.

A. Managers use much the same data as operational departments to manage the organization.

B. All users, managers, sales, production, utilize the features of a data warehouse equally.

C. Data warehouses are isolated to protect operational information from unauthorized access.

D. Managers require access to historical data this is generally not available to other individuals.

74. Select the true statement from those provided below.

A. The data warehouse has five to ten years of data while the operational database has current year data.

B. The data warehouse has current year data while the operational database has five to ten years of data.

C. The data warehouse archives both current and long-term, five to ten years of data, within its storage.

D. The data warehouse contains only general ledger type information while the operational database has detail.

75X. Data within the data warehouse is: A. Volatile – its release is restricted and potentially hazardous to the organization.

B. Volatile – it may be deleted by specific users.

C. Nonvolatile – it does not change rapidly.

D. Nonvolatile – is protected against deletion.

76. The data warehouse: A. Contains five to ten years of historical data in detail for planning and analysis.

B. Contains the current fiscal year in detail for planning, analysis, and reporting.

C. Contains the historical information needed for planning and analysis.

D. Is not utilized for planning and analysis, this information is extracted from the operational database.

77X. High-impact processes (HIPs) are: A. Critical to the short-term objectives of the organization.

B. Only associated with events such as sales and collections.

C. Identified and established by single-functional teams.

D. Critical to the long-term objectives of the organization.

78. High-impact processes (HIPs): A. Determine the structure of the data in the data warehouse.

B. Address the short-term goals of the organization.

C. Must compromise user requirements for organizational needs.

D. Determine the structure of the data in the operational database.

79. Select the true statement from the following.

A. High-impact processes (HIPs) are identified by single-functional teams.

B. High-impact processes (HIPs) and user’s needs determine the data in the data warehouse.

C. High-impact processes (HIPs) address both short-term and long-term objectives.

D. High-impact processes (HIPs) determine the long-term strategy of the organization.

80. Standardizing data: A. Configures all of the data from one department into a single database for analysis.

B. Configures all of the data from numerous departments into a single data configuration.

C. Is not required within relational databases.

D. Requires sales to keep its own files and references apart from marketing (example).

81. Cleansed or scrubbed data: A. Has had all viruses removed.

B. Has had all fields standardized.

C. Has had errors and problems fixed.

D. Is data that has been stored in the data warehouse.

82X. Uploading data is putting: A. Scrubbed files into the operational database.

B. Files from each HIP system into the operational database.

C. Standardized files onto local desktop systems for access.

D. Files from each HIP system into the data warehouse.

83. The purpose of the data warehouse does NOT include: A. Giving managers rich sources of current trends and data.

B. Storing current fiscal data and activity records.

C. Providing sales with current customer information.

D. Giving managers rich sources of historical trends and data.

84. Data is the data warehouse: A. Is analyzed by data mining.

B. Is analyzed by SQL. C. Is analyzed by analytical processing.

D. Both A and C are correct.

85. Proper data analysis of data warehouse files: 1.

Improves short-term planning.

2.

Improves long-term planning.

3.

Enhances the ability to meet customer needs.

4.

Increase performance.

A. 1, 2, 3, and 4.

B. 2, 3, and 4.

C. 1, 3, and 4.

D. 1, 2, and 4.

86X. The various types of online analytical processing (OLAP) does NOT include: A. MOLAP – Multidimensional online analytical processing.

B. NOLAP – Notational online analytical processing.

C. ROLAP – Relational online analytical processing.

D. All of the above, A, B, and C are types of OLAP systems.

87X. Data mining: A. Searches for random patterns.

B. Searches for patterns in the operational database.

C. Results will not generally predict customer preferences.

D. Analyzes past patterns to predict future events.

88X. OLAP tools include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Drill down.

B. Drill up.

C. Pivoting.

D. Time series analysis.

86X. OLAP tools include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Consolidation.

B. Inclusion reports.

C. Exception reports.

D. What if simulations.

90. Drill down within OLAP is: A. Identifying trends in the comparison of data in several databases.

B. The aggregation or collection of similar data from several databases.

C. The presentation of variances from the expected in dollar value.

D. Is the successive expansion of data as lower levels of data are exposed.

91. Potential variations in conditions that are used to understand interactions between different parts of the business is referred to as: A. Exception reports.

B. Pivoting.

C. What-if simulations.

D. Time series analysis.

92. Data processing and storage: A. Must be kept centralized for control and security.

B. Must be distributed for control and security.

C. Can be distributed to meet organizational requirements.

D. Must be kept centralized for efficient operations.

93. Select the correct statement from the following.

A. DDP and DDB require dependable and extensive processing power for large organizations.

B. Distributed databases can only be accessed by local queries.

C. Centralized data processing and databases require dependable and extensive processing power for large organizations.

D. The trend in data processing and databases is towards centralization due to reliable internet access and increased computer power.

94X. Advantages of distributed databases include all EXCEPT: A. Reduced hardware costs.

B. Improved responsiveness.

C. Eased managerial obligations.

D. Easier incremental growth.

95X. Disadvantages of distributed databases include all EXCEPT: A. Increased difficulty in managing the database.

B. Maintaining integrity of the data.

C. Easier security controls.

D. Easier control of the database configuration.

96X. Advantages of distributed databases include all EXCEPT: A. Easier incremental growth.

B. Multiple site access for processing.

C. Decreased user involvement.

D. Increased user control.

97. Automatic integrated backup means: A. That each site must accomplish its own backup.

B. One site may backup sites it does not normally support.

C. If data is lost at one site it may be available from another site.

D. All of the above are correct.

98X. Automatic integrated backup A. May create problems because a single site’s data may be at multiple locations.

B. May create problems because backups at multiple sites may have hardware differences.

C. At remote sites may not all be the same configuration as the central configuration.

D. All of the above are correct.

99. Distributed data processing and databases: A. May require management to enforce hardware and software configuration policies.

B. Make hardware and software configuration easier as local assets can be utilized.

C. Ease security concerns as remote systems are not required to maintain connectivity.

D. All of the above are correct.

100X. Client systems usually rely on the network for all EXCEPT: A. File sharing.

B. Printing.

C. Video presentation.

D. Network/Internet access.

101. Select the true statement from the following: A. Clients are usually workstations that contain data files.

B. Servers are usually less capable computing power since their function is routing requirements to resources.

C. Servers may contain shared files and resources.

D. Servers usually do not control assets such as printers and Internet portals.

102X. The three major concerns related to database control and security do NOT include: A. Unauthorized access.

B. Inadequate backup.

C. Data integrity.

D. Adequate backup.

102A. In this type of distributed system, each computer or process on the network is either a Client or a server.

A.Distributed Data Processing B.Client / Server System C.Online Analytical Processing D.Distributed Database System 102B. The fastest growing area of IT is: A.Cloud-based database services B.Online analytical processing C.Distributed data storage

D.Distributed database processing 102C. When a company buys data storage from a cloud provider, the arrangement is referred to as: A.Online analytical processing B.Cloud services assessment C.Distributed data storage D.Database as a service 102D. The advantages of cloud-based computing includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A.Scalability - as the company grows, it can easily purchase additional capacity.

B.Expanded access - once the data are store in the cloud, it can be accessed by multiple devices form different locations.

C.Increased infrastructure - the company has more need for servers and data storage.

D.Cost savings - because of the advantages related to cloud-based computing, there are usually significant cost savings recognized.

103X. Database security includes all EXCEPT: A. Password protection.

B. Encryption C. LAN structure.

D. Firewalls.

104X. Unauthorized users might include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Hackers attempting to penetrate firewalls.

B. Sales personnel accessing inventory files.

C. Human resource managers accessing production reports.

D. Payroll clerks accessing pay rate databases.

105X. Ethical issues associated with data collection and storage include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Collecting only the necessary information for the transaction.

B. Selling non-sensitive information only to trusted agents.

C. Correcting errors in data as quickly as possible.

D. Precluding unnecessary access of customer data by employees.

106X. It is the ethical responsibility of employees: A. To review customer records not associated with their division for errors.

B. Disclose customer data to related parties C. To collect only necessary data from customers D. To sell customer data to competitors.

107. A bank would consider which of the following as nonprivate information?

A. Customer name.

B. Customer address if the customer is a business.

C. Customer phone number if it is listed number.

D. All of the above, A, B, and C, are private and privileged types of information.

108X. Appropriate information for a medical facility would NOT include: A. Social Security number.

B. Health insurance company.

C. Next of kin notification information.

D. Personal spending habits.

109. The AICPA Trust Services Principles include:

A.Management, notice, choice & consent, collection, use & retention, detention, and disclosure to third parties.

B. Management, choice & consent, collection, use & retention, backup, access, disclosure to third parties, and security for privacy.

C. Choice & consent, collection, use & retention, access, disclosure to third parties, redundancy for privacy, and quality.

D. Management, choice & consent, use & retention, access, disclosure to third parties, and monitoring & enforcement.

110X. The prevention of industrial espionage is aided by all EXCEPT: A. Password protection B. Smart cards.

C. Federal and state laws.

D. Encryption of data.

111X. While an employee may have access to privileged information, an example of unethical activities would be a: A. Nurse viewing the medications of the next patient.

B. Car salesman viewing the credit rating of a customer with a car in for warranty repairs.

C. Manager reviewing the hours worked of an assigned employee.

D. Warehouseman viewing the availability of materials needed for production.

112X. Proper IT controls will NOT: A. Prevent a hacker from penetrating the firewall.

B. Prevent an unauthorized user from using the computer systems.

C. Restrict employee access to any information.

D. Prevent an employee from sharing his password.

113X. Ethical responsibilities are shared by: A. Company employees only.

B. Company employees and management only.

C. Company employees, IT, and management only.

D. All concerned including employees, customers, and management.

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 13 - MULTIPLE CHOICE: 14. B 34. A 54. D 15. A 35. B 55. B 16. B 36. D 56. B 17. D 37. B 57. D 18. D 38. B 58. D 19. B 39. B 59. B 20. D 40. D 60. B 21. B 41. D 61. A 22. D 42. D 62. C 23. A 43. B 63. C 24. D 44. C 64. C 25. B 45. B 65. B 26. A 46. B 66. D 27. C 47. D 67. D 28. C 48. A 68. C 29. D 49. D 69. B 30. D 50. A 70. C 31. B 51. B 71. A 32. C 52. A 72. B

74.

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80.

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83.

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A C C D A B B C D A D B B D B B D C C

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C C C D D A C C B C C B C D D D C B D

33. C New Questions: 20A. D 102A. B 102B. A 102C. D 102D. C

53. C

73. D

93. C

113. D

TEST BANK – CHAPTER 13 – TRUE / FALSE 114. Data are the set of facts collected from transactions.

TRUE 115. Information is the set of facts collected from transactions.

FALSE 116. Information is the interpretation of data that have been processed.

TRUE 117. Data must be collected to complete a transaction such as a sale.

TRUE 118. Data does not need to be stored in most cases.

FALSE 118A. An example of unstructured data would be customer telephone numbers.

FALSE 119. The requirements to frequently or infrequently access data are not relevant to the way that the data is stored due to computer access speed.

FALSE 120. A character is a customer, client, or vendor.

FALSE 121. A character is a single letter, number, or symbol.

TRUE 122. A field is a set of characters that fill a space reserved for a particular kind of data.

TRUE 123. A record is the entire set of fields for a specific entity.

TRUE 124. An entire set of files is a database.

TRUE 125. An entire record forms a “database.”

FALSE 126. Magnetic tape is a storage medium that allows only a sequential access type of storage.

TRUE 127. Sequential access means that data are stored in sequential or chronological order.

TRUE 128. Random access means that any data item on the storage media can be directly accessed without reading in sequence.

TRUE 129. Random access means that you are searching for specific data but do not know where it is within the database.

FALSE 130X. Batch processing occurs when similar transactions are grouped together, and that group is processed as a batch.

TRUE 131. Real-time processing occurs when transactions are processed as soon as they are entered.

TRUE 132. Batch processing occurs when transactions are processed as soon as they are entered.

FALSE 133. Real-time processing occurs when similar transactions are grouped into a batch and that batch is processed as a group.

FALSE 134. If real-time processing is to occur, database records must be stored on random access media.

TRUE 135. Data redundancy occurs when the same customer has more than one database record.

FALSE 136. Concurrency means that all of the multiple instances of the same data are exactly alike.

TRUE 137.

A record pointer identifies a specific record in a flat database.

FALSE

138. A relational database stores data in two-dimensional tables that are joined in many ways to represent many different kinds of relationships in the data.

TRUE 139. Within are relational database a record may have more than one primary key.

FALSE 140. SQL stands for Sequential Query Language.

FALSE 141. When using a SQL query language you are restricted to searching two tables for common values such as Vendor Name.

FALSE 142. Data normalization allows repeating groups such as the same vendor name in multiple locations of the primary key field of the same table.

FALSE

143. A data warehouse is a temperature controlled building where files and records are retained.

FALSE 144. Data warehouse files are non-volatile, and not frequently updated while operational databases are updated with each transaction that affects them.

TRUE 145. HIPs, or high-impact processes, are the critically important processes that must be executed correctly if the organization is to survive and thrive.

TRUE 146. Tools commonly used in data mining are OLAP, ROLAP, and MOLAP. TRUE 147. Data mining is the process of searching an operational database for identifiable patterns in the data.

FALSE 148. To “drill down” is the process of successive expansion of data into more detail, going from high-level data to successively lower levels of data.

TRUE 149. Because of today’s computing power and Internet accessibility, there has been a substantial increase in the use of centralized databases and centralized processing.

FALSE 150. In distributed data processing (DDP) and distributed databases (DDB), the processing and the databases are dispersed to different locations of the organization.

TRUE 151. In centralized data processing the processing and the databases are stored and maintained in a central location.

TRUE 152. When data and processing are distributed across several computers, as occurs in a system of distributed processing, the failure of one site will be harmful and bring down the entire system.

FALSE 153. Since distributed databases are under the control of many individual sites rather than a single, centralized site, configuration, conformity, and security are less of an issue.

FALSE 153A. To database user, the question of how or where data is stored continues to be less important.

TRUE 154. With a client/server system all processing is done on the server.

FALSE 155X. IT general controls assist in preventing unauthorized access while providing adequate backup, and are the responsibility of the user.

FALSE 155A. A cloud provider generally provides only the data storage space.

FALSE

155B. The customer company, who uses a cloud provides, must have some IT structure to access and use the data stored in a cloud.

TRUE 155C. The amount of IT structure maintained by a client would not change if the database is stored with a cloud provider rather than onsite.

FALSE 155D. Scalability is one of the advantages of cloud-based databases. What this means is that as the company grows, they can easily purchase new capacity from the cloud provider.

TRUE 156. Ethical issues related to data utilization are not a consideration for data collection.

FALSE 157. Since database management and information is the responsibility and asset of the database owner, customers should not have the privilege to restrict information contained within it.

FALSE 158. The organization should institute procedures to insure that all customer data collected retains accuracy, is complete, is current, is relevant, and is reliable”.

TRUE ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 13 - TRUE/FALSE: 114. T 115. F 116. T 117. T 118. F 119. F 120. F 121. T 122. T New Questions: 118A. F 153A. T 155A. F 155B. T 155C. F 155D. T

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F F T F T F T F F

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F F F T T T F T F

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T T F F F F F F T

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 14: E-Commerce and E-Business

NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS 1. Which of the following statements is true?

A. E-business is a subset of e-commerce.

B.E-commerce is a subset of e-business.

C.E-business and e-commerce are exactly the same thing.

D.E-business and e-commerce are not related.

2X. An electronic hardware device that is located at the gateway between two or more networks is a(n): A. Packet switch.

B. URL. C. Router.

D. Protocol.

3. The type of organization that serves as the main trunk line of the Internet is called a A.Local ISP. B. Regional ISP. C. Global ISP. D. Backbone provider.

4X. Which of the following is NOT a direct advantage for the consumer from e-commerce?

A. Access to a broader market B. More shopping convenience C. Reduced order-processing cost D. Information sharing from the company 5X. Each of the following represents a characteristic of B2B commerce EXCEPT: A. Electronic data interchange.

B. Electronic retailing.

C. Data exchanges.

D. Preexisting business relationships.

6X. Each of the following represents an application of B2C commerce EXCEPT: A. Software sales.

B. Electronic retailing.

C. Data exchanges.

D. Stock trading.

7. Before forwarding customer data, an organization should receive explicit or implicit consent of the customer. This describes which of the AICPA Trust Services Principles online privacy practices?

A. Consent B. Use and retention C. Access D. Onward transfer and disclosure

8. Which of the following process within a supply chain can benefit from IT enablement?

A. All process throughout the supply chain B. Only internal process within the supply chain C. Only external process within the supply chain D. Exchange process between a company and its suppliers 9. When a company has an e-business transaction with a supplier, it could be using A. The Internet.

B. An intranet.

C. An extranet.

D. Either the Internet or an extranet.

10X. Intranets are used for each of the following EXCEPT A. Communication and collaboration.

B. Business operations and managerial monitoring.

C. Web publishing.

D. Customer self-service.

11X. When there is no necessity for a preexisting relationship between buyer and seller, that transaction is more likely to be classified as A. B2B. B. B2C. C. B2E. D. Either B2B or B2C. 12X. Which of the following IT controls would NOT be important in an extranet?

A. Encryption B. Password C. Antivirus software D. Penetration testing E.All of the above are important IT controls.

13. A company’s computer network uses web servers, HTML, and XML to serve various user groups. Which type of network best serves each of the following users?

Employees A.Intranet B.Intranet C.Internet D.Internet

Suppliers Extranet Internet Extranet Internet

14. An extensible markup language designed specifically for financial reporting is: A.Internet DI B.XML C.XBRL D.XFRL ANSWERS TO TEXTBOOK – CHAPTER 14 – END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS 1. B 4. C 7. D 2. C 5. B 8. A 3. D 6. C 9. D

10. A 11. B 12. E

13. A 14. C

TEST BANK – CHAPTER 14 – MULTIPLE CHOICE 15X. E-commerce is: A. Business-to-business electronic trading and process integration.

B. Electronically enabled transactions between a business and its vendors.

C. Electronic recording and control of internal processes.

D. Electronically enabled transactions between a business and its customers.

16. E-business: 1.

2.

3.

4.

Is a narrower concept than e-commerce.

Services the customers and the vendors.

Is electronic recording and control of internal processes.

Uses electronic means to enhance business processes.

A. 1 only.

B. 2 and 3 only.

C. 2, 3, and 4 only.

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4.

17X. The internal processes of e-business do NOT include: A. Access to personnel records.

B. Access to fringe benefit information.

C. On-line sales to customers.

D. Travel and expense reporting.

18. E-commerce: A. Sales will usually be large dollar amounts with only a few items are sold.

B. Is the sale of goods or services from a business to retailers.

C. Is the sale of goods or services to an end-user consumer.

D. Both A and B are correct answers.

19. E-business 1.

2.

Includes the sale of raw materials between companies.

Includes using the Internet as an electronic network.

3.

Sales will usually be smaller dollar amounts with many sales.

4.

Is a broader concept than e-commerce.

A.1, 2, 3, and 4.

B.2, 3, and 4 only.

C.1, 3, 4 only.

D.1, 2, and 4 only.

20. Packet switching is a method of: A. Turning routers off and on to send messages between computers.

B. Dividing large messages into bundles for transmission over a network.

C. Isolating computers connected to the network by disconnecting them.

D. Keeping all associated bundles of the message on one network path.

21. The transmission of packets: A. Must be determined by the sender manually.

B. Must be accomplished via the same network path.

C. Allows great versatility in the transmission of data.

D. Has diminished because of advances in connectivity.

22. The transmission of packets:

A. B. C. D.

Are usually sent in sequential order.

Must be received in sequential order.

Must follow the same network path.

Will bundle small messages into larger bundles for transmission.

23X. A router: A. Is a software application that creates path instructions for packets.

B. Is hardware that connects two or more networks.

C. Must receive its instructions from the user manually.

D. Both B and C are correct.

24. The proper actions and capabilities is: A. Packet switching bundles small messages into large messages for transmission while routers determine the best path through the network.

B. Packet switching replaces the need for routers to determine the best path for the message through the network.

C. Packet switching and routers both bundle small messages into large messages for transmission.

D. Packet switching divides large messages into small bundles for transmission while routers determine the best path through the network.

25. A protocol is required so that: A. Computers from the same manufacturer can communication with each other.

B. Computers from different manufacturers can communicate with each other.

C. So that communications within the network can be routed properly.

D. Answers A, B, and C are all correct.

26. Protocols can be considered: A.A proprietary language to a specific computer manufacturer.

B. A language native to the network so all computers can translate it.

C. Unnecessary if the computer is communicating on a LAN. D. Unnecessary if the computer is using packet switching and routers.

27. TCP/IP is: A. Trunk controlling protocol/intranet protocol.

B. Transmission control protocol/intranet protocol.

C. Trunk controlling protocol/Internet protocol.

D. Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol.

28X. During the 1970s and 1980s, the ARPANET was: A. Restricted to universities, libraries, research organizations, and commercial carrier access.

B. Was designed in the 1990s to augment the growing Internet and intranet systems.

C. Does not require the use of protocols such as TCP/IP because of the limited access.

D. Restricted to universities, libraries, and research organizations.

29X. The Internet: A. Is a series of LANs connected together to increase their local capability.

B. Is a series of networks connected to provide a global connectivity.

C. Is generally restricted to universities, libraries, and research organizations.

D. Comes from the concept of international networks.

30X. The Internet: A. Utilizes LANs as a backbone to increase connectivity.

B. Is a system of unconnected networks.

C. Utilizes the World Wide Web as a backbone.

D. Is not compatible with graphic user interface tools.

31X. The growth of the Internet over its life has: A. Been exponential during the early 1990s.

B. Been slowing down since 2006.

C. Seen a few periods of decline in the number of web servers.

D. Seen an overall trend showing growth of approximately 10 percent per year.

32. The proper sequence of Internet connectivity between users is: A. Regional ISP to national backbone provider to regional ISP. B. Local ISP to national backbone provider to network access point to national backbone provider to local ISP. C. Regional ISP to national network access points to regional ISP. D. Local ISP to regional ISP to national backbone provider to network access points to national backbone provider to regional ISP to local ISP. 33X. A backbone provider is an organization that provides: A. Direct Internet access to the end users.

B. Regional ISPs direct access to the Internet.

C. High-speed access to local ISP users.

D. High-speed access to regional ISP users.

34X. The Internet backbone is the network between: A. The local ISP and the regional ISP. B. The regional ISP and the local ISP. C. The local ISP and the national backbone provider.

D. National backbone providers.

35. Regional ISPs: A. Connect directly to the Internet backbone through network access points.

B. Connect to the Internet backbone through local ISPs utilizing network access points.

C. Provide the connection between local ISPs and national backbone providers.

D. Provide end users direct connects to the Internet backbone through network access points.

36X. Regional ISPs do NOT include: A. EarthLink.

B. BellSouth.

C. MCI. D. America Online.

37X. Backbone providers would NOT include: A. MCI. B. Sprint.

C. America Online.

D. BBN. 38. Local ISPs would include: A. MCI and Sprint.

B. America Online and EarthLink.

C. BBN and a local cable company.

D. Television and cable companies.

39X. A web server is: A. Always located at national backbone provider levels.

B. Always located at regional ISP provider levels.

C. A computer and hard drive space that stores web pages and data.

D. Always the access between the national backbone provider and the backbone.

40X. HTML is: A. A language which allows computers to connect to the Internet and WWW. B. A protocol language allowing user level computers to connect to local ISPs. C. A language utilized to present website words, data, and pictures.

D. Used for information sharing between the Internet and WWW. 41. HTML allows: A. User level computers to connect to the Internet through an ISP. B. User level computers a way to display information the way it was intended to be displayed.

C. Local and regional ISPs to interact with national backbone providers.

D. National backbone providers to exchange information about trunk traffic.

42. An example of a URL is: A. cjb@jhs-email.com.

B. http://www.cjb.org.

C. jhs-email.com.

D. All of the above, A, B, and C, are examples of URLs. 43. Select the true statement from the following.

A. URL stands for uniform real-time locator while http stands for hypertext transmission protocol.

B. URL stands for uniform resource location while http stands for hypertext translation protocol.

C. URL stands for uniform resource locator while http stands for hypertext transmission protocol.

D. URL stands for uniform real-time location while http stands for hypertext transmission protocol.

44X. When a valid URL is entered into your web browser: A. Your computer will send a network access protocol (NAP) command to your network server.

B. Your computer will send an http command to a web server, directing the server to find and transmit the web page requested.

C. Your command will be translated into TCP/IP and sent directly to a national backbone provider.

D. Your computer will directly access the Internet and WWW in its search for the information.

44A. The current standard HTML 5 has the following benefits over previous versions: A.Allows a much richer use of video and audio B.Improved connectivity C.Better security D.Both A and C 45. HTTP stands for: A. Hypertext transmission protocol.

B. Hypertransmission terminal protocol.

C. Hypertext terminal protocol.

D. Hypertext translation protocol.

46. An example of a domain name is: A. jhs-email.com.

B. cjb@jhs-email.com.

C. http://www.cjb.org.

D. All of the above, A, B, and C, are examples of domain names.

46A. The unique name that identifies the internet site is referred to as:

A.URL B.HTTP C.Domain name D.HTML 46B. The suffix of the domain name will identify the type of organization that owns the rights to that domain. Which of the following is a correct example of the suffix and related organization type?

A..gov = governmental organization or unit B..net = television network C..com = community D..org = organization 47X. A URL is converted to an IP by: A. TCP/IP capabilities of the user level computer.

B. A DNS accessed when the browser sends the command.

C. The local ISP provider.

D. The national backbone provider.

47A. This type of address is the unique information that allows a specific website or server to be located.

A.URL B.DNS C. IP D.HTML 48X. SSL – secure sockets layering: A. Reduces the frequency of Internet connection disconnects.

B. Ensures that TCP/IP is correctly configured for Internet browsing.

C. Is an encryption system in which the web server and the user’s browser exchange data in encrypted form.

D. Is an encryption system which eliminates the probably of improper use of transmitted data.

49X. The ways to determine a secure sockets layering connection is: A. The “s” at the end of “www”.

B. The “s” at the end of “http.”

C. The padlock on the lower bar of most web browsers.

D. Both answers, B and C, are correct.

50. Select the correct statement from the following.

A. B2C and B2B are both considered e-commerce.

B. B2C is considered e-commerce while B2B is considered e-business.

C. B2B is considered e-commerce while B2C is considered e-business.

D. B2C and B2B are both considered e-business.

51. The common element in B2B and B2C is: A. Both require a physical selling point.

B. A downloadable product.

C. Both require access to the business’s website.

D. Both require SSL (secure sockets layering) to complete the transaction.

52X. Advantages of e-commerce include all EXCEPT: A. A narrower market for goods and services.

B. Increased access to information.

C. The lack of geographic constraints.

D. All of the answers, A, B, and C, are advantages of e-commerce.

53X. All of the following are true statements about e-commerce EXCEPT: A. E-commerce sites normally conduct sales 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, 12 months a year.

B. E-commerce sales reduce the opportunity for fraud, theft of assets, and theft of data.

C. E-commerce consumers can search for better prices and more information easily.

D. E-commerce consumers may incur shipping and handling charges not incurred by retail customers.

54. E-commerce sites may: 1.

Provide access to manufacturer information on the product.

2.

May provide tax free sales of retail goods.

3.

Require shipping and handling fees to be paid.

4.

Provide links to live or video presentations of product information.

5.

Not provide as quick order processing as the company’s retail locations.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are correct.

B. 1, 3, 4, and 5 are correct.

C. 1, 2, 4, and 5 are correct.

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

55. Select the true statements from the following.

1.

Fraud, theft, or theft of data on the Internet and WWW are reduced by its regulated and controlled state.

2.

A customer may feel isolated from the product because of the inability to touch or handle the product.

3.

E-commerce customers may be targeted for solicitations based on their purchasing history.

4.

E-commerce customers will often incur a shipping and handling charge with purchases.

5.

E-commerce customers will always find the best product at the best price.

A.1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are all true statements.

B.2, 3, and 4 are all true statements.

C.1, 3, 4, and 5 are all true statements.

D.1, 4, and 5 are all true statements.

56X. E-commerce business benefits include all EXCEPT: A. A lower cost of advertising per customer reached.

B. More interaction with video and audio product comparisons.

C. More rigid advertising and product presentation requirements.

D. All of the above, A, B, and C, are benefits of e-commerce.

57X. E-commerce businesses: A. Are normally confined to more restrictive marketing due to the larger market.

B. Experience dramatically reduced marketing costs as the rsult of the expanded market.

C. Requires longer period for delivery of a product due to the processing time of e-commerce.

D. Less flexible in pricing structures due to WWW and Internet distribution of information.

58X. All of the following are disadvantages of e-commerce EXCEPT: A. Faster order processing prevents good assurance of order correctness.

B. Greater probability of fraud or compromised customer privacy.

C. The inability to handle or try out the product.

D. All of the above, A, B, and C, are disadvantages of e-commerce.

59. With the advent of technology, the Internet, and the WWW: A. Commerce is moving only from physical to electronic positioning.

B. Commerce has maintained its stance of physical and electronic.

C. Commerce is moving both from electronic to physical and from physical to electronic.

D. No notable trends have been identified.

60. Select the correct statement from those below.

A.Bricks and mortar refer to traditional stores while e-tailers are both brick and mortar and e-commerce businesses.

B.Bricks and mortar refer to stores with both physical and electronic presences while e-tailers are ecommerce businesses only.

C.Bricks and mortar refer to traditional stores while brick and click businesses are both brick and mortar and e-commerce businesses.

D.Bricks and mortar refer to traditional stores while brick and click refers to e-commerce businesses.

61. The AICPA’s Trust Services Principles state that online privacy focuses on: 1.

Name 2.

Address 3.

Social Security number 4.

Government ID numbers 5.

Employment history 6.

Personal health conditions 7.

Personal financial information 8.

History of purchases 9.

Credit records A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9.

B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, and 9 only.

C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 9 only.

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 8 only.

62. The AICPA’s Trust Services Principles practice that states a specific person or persons should be assigned the responsibility to insure that privacy practices are followed by employees is under the title of: A. Monitoring and enforcement.

B. Security for privacy.

C. Management.

D. Choice and consent.

63. The AICPA’s Trust Services Principles practice that states a company should have policies and practices to maintain the privacy of customer data is under the title of: A. Choice and consent.

B. Collection.

C. Use and retention.

D. Notice.

64. The AICPA’s Trust Services Principles practice that states the organization should provide the choice to its customers regarding the collection of data is under the title of: A. Choice and consent.

B. Collection.

C. Use and retention.

D. Notice.

65. The AICPA’s Trust Services Principles practice that states the organization should ask about the collection, retention, and of the use is under the title of: A. Use and retention.

B. Access.

C. Choice and consent.

D. Disclosure to third parties.

66. The AICPA’s Trust Services Principles practice that states that only the data that is necessary for the purpose of conducting the transaction should be collected is under the title of: A. Use and retention.

B. Collection.

C. Choice and consent.

D. Security for privacy.

67. The AICPA’s Trust Services Principles practice that states the organization should use customers’ personal data only in the manner described in “notice” is under the title of: A. Security for privacy.

B. Monitoring and enforcement.

C. Use and retention.

D. Choice and consent.

68. The AICPA’s Trust Services Principles practice that states that customers should have access to the data provided so that the customer can view, change, delete, or block further use of the data provided is under the title of: A. Access.

B. Choice and consent.

C. Security for privacy.

D. Use and retention.

69. The AICPA’s Trust Services Principles practice that states that organizations should receive explicit or implicit consent of the customer before providing information to third parties is under the title of: A. Choice and consent.

B. Security for privacy.

C. Monitoring and enforcement.

D. Disclosure to third parties.

70. The AICPA’s Trust Services Principles practice that states that the organization has the necessary protections to try to insure that customer data is not lost, destroyed, altered, or subject to unauthorized access is under the title of: A. Choice and consent.

B. Security for privacy.

C. Monitoring and enforcement.

D. Disclosure to third parties.

71. The AICPA’s Trust Services Principles practice that states that all customer data collected remains “accurate, complete, current, relevant, and reliable” is under the title of: A. Choice and consent.

B. Quality.

C. Monitoring and enforcement.

D. Use and retention.

72. The AICPA’s Trust Services Principles practice that states that the organization should have procedures to address privacy related inquiries or disputes is under the title of: A. Choice and consent.

B. Quality.

C. Monitoring and enforcement.

D. Use and retention.

73X. Internal processes of the organization include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Transactions involving suppliers.

B. Movement of raw materials.

C. Timekeeping and labor management.

D. Sharing of data files among workers.

74. The supply chain: A. Is usually smaller at the customer end.

B. Is usually more complex for service firms.

C. Includes manufacturing facilities.

D. Does not include any internal resources.

75. The supply chain: A. Ends once the raw materials arrive at the manufacturing facility.

B. Is an external process only.

C. Is both an internal and external process.

D. Ends once the product is manufactured and ready for sale.

76. The correct sequence of the supply chain is: A. Secondary suppliers, suppliers, manufacturer, warehouses, distributors, retailers, and customers.

B. Suppliers, secondary suppliers, manufacturer, warehouses, distributors, retailers, and customers.

C. Suppliers, secondary suppliers, manufacturer, distributors, warehouses, customers, and retailers.

D. Suppliers, secondary suppliers, manufacturer, distributors, warehouses, retailers, and customers.

77X. The correct statement regarding the supply chain and B2C is the supply chain extends from the secondary supplier and ends with the: A. Retailer while B2C is from the manufacturer to the final consumer.

B. Retailer while B2C is from the customer to the manufacturer.

C. Manufacturer while B2C is from the retailer to the final consumer.

D. Final customer while B2C is from the retailer to the final consumer.

78X. The correct statement regarding the supply chain and B2B is the supply chain extends from the secondary supplier and ends with the: A. Retailer while B2B is from the manufacturer to the final consumer.

B. Final customer while B2B is from the secondary supplier to the distributor.

C. Manufacturer while B2B is from the supplier to the retailer.

D. Final customer while B2B is from the retailer to the final consumer.

79. Vertical integration of the supply chain occurs when: A. One organization owns all of the companies capable of accomplishing a specific task.

B. All of the organizations that can accomplish a specific task are located in one geographic region.

C. Several organizations agree to produce a single product under a common label.

D. One organization owns the supply chain from raw materials through distribution and sales.

80. Select the correct statement from the following: A. B2C is typically many line items per order while B2B is typically few line items per order.

B. B2C is typically few line items per order while B2B is typically many line items per order.

C. B2C uses purchase order forms while B2B utilizes credit card purchasing.

D. B2C buyers usually have a relationship with the seller while B2B do not have a prior relationship.

81X. An intranet is a: A. Private network accessible only to the employees of a company.

B. Public network accessible by the customers and vendors of a company.

C. Public network accessible by the entire supply chain of a company.

D. Private network accessible by the entire supply chain of a company.

82. B2C e-commerce requires: A. Access to the intranet.

B. Access to the extranet.

C. Access to the Internet.

D. All of the above, A, B, and C. 83X. An extranet is a: A. Private network accessible only to the employees of a company.

B. Public network accessible by the customers and vendors of a company.

C. Public network accessible by the entire supply chain of a company.

D. Private network accessible by select members of the supply chain.

84. Select the correct statement from those provided below.

A. Intranet access is generally open to select members of the supply chain.

B. Internet access is generally open to select members of the supply chain.

C. Extranet access is generally restricted to company employees.

D. Extranet access is generally open to select members of the supply chain.

85. When a company uses the: A. Intranet for exchanges such as B2C transactions, it must give access to potential customers.

B. Internet for exchanges such as B2C transactions, it must give access to potential customers.

C. Internet for exchanges such as B2C transactions, it must preclude potential customers default access.

D. Extranet for exchanges such as B2C transactions, it must preclude potential customers default access.

86. Firewalls: A. Prevent internal users from accessing unacceptable web sites through the intranet.

B. Permit internal users direct access to the Internet to accomplish B2B transactions.

C. Prevent vendors from viewing inventory levels via the intranet.

D. Prevent external users from accessing the extranet or intranet.

87. Select the correct statement from the following.

A. XML is extensible markup language while XBRL is extensible business reporting language.

B. XML is extensive markup language while XBRL is extensive business reporting language.

C. XML is example markup language while XBRL is example business reporting language.

D. XML is extensible manipulation language while XBRL is extensible business reporting language.

88. XML: A. Allows dynamic financial statements to be published on websites.

B. Provides standards for the automatic exchange of financial data.

C. Facilitates the exchange of data between organizations via web pages.

D. Is based on XBRL language for the construction of business web pages.

89. EDI via ANSI X.12 implementation is hampered by: A. High costs.

B. Usable only on small projects.

C. Limited transfer of files and data formats.

D. Both A and C above are correct answers.

90X. Internet EDI, or EDIINT, features all of the following EXCEPT: A. Low cost.

B. Heavy infrastructure.

C. Industry standard.

D. Entire supply chain integration.

91X. Value added networks or VANs, features all of the following EXCEPT: A. Transaction fees.

B. Complicated.

C. Industry standard.

D. Limited access.

92. As a metalanguage, XML: A. Places a data tag that the beginning and end of each page identifying the contained data.

B. Places a data tag that the beginning and end of each data item identifying the contained data.

C. Places a data tag only at the beginning of the data identifying the following data item.

D. Is usable on both EDI and EDIINT networks.

93. XBRL: A. Is a language that allows data extraction from financial statements.

B. Is the base or core language for XML, also a metalanguage.

C. Requires that financial statements be submitted in printed format.

D. Both answers B and C are correct.

94. Companies that engage in e-commerce, B2C sales with consumers: A. Have the legal obligation of complying with the AICPA Trust Services Principles.

B. Have the same kind of obligations to conduct their business ethically as companies transacting business any other way.

C. Have legal obligations that suggest that customers should be so informed regarding customer privacy.

D. Are required by law to have a local presence for the resolution of customer complaints.

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 14 – MULTIPLE CHOICE: 15. D 16. C 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. D 26. B 27. D 28. D 29. B 30. C New Questions: 44A. D 46A. C 46B. A 47A. C

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

C D D D C C C D C C B B C B A A

TEST BANK – CHAPTER 14 – TRUE / FALSE

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

B C D B C A B D B C B A C C A C

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

D A C B C A D B B C A C C A D B

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

D B A C D D B D A C D B C B A B

95. E-business is the use of electronic means to enhance business processes.

TRUE 96. E-commerce is electronically enabled transactions between a business and its customers.

TRUE 97. E-commerce is the use of electronic means to enhance business processes.

FALSE 98. E-commerce only involves transactions between the business and its customers.

FALSE 99. Packet switching is the method used to send data over a computer network.

TRUE 100. A router is an electronic hardware device that is connected to each computer to connect it to a network.

FALSE 101. A protocol is a standard data communication format that allows computers to exchange data.

TRUE 102. TCP/IP is an abbreviation for terminal communications protocol/Internet protocol.

FALSE 103. The Internet (interconnected networks) serves as the backbone for the World Wide Web (WWW).

TRUE 104. A backbone provider is an organization such as the National Science Foundation (NSF) which funded the Internet and/or the WWW. FALSE 105. Regional ISPs connect to the backbone through lines that have less speed and capacity than the backbone.

TRUE 106. Local ISPs connect to the backbone through lines that have less speed and capacity than the backbone.

FALSE 107. A web server is a computer and hard drive space that connects to the backbone through lines that have less speed and capacity than the backbone.

FALSE 108. A web server is a computer and hard drive space that stores web pages and data.

TRUE 108A. HTML has evolved over the years to increase functionality and security.

TRUE 109. The standard form of encryption embedded in e-commerce sites and in web browser software is “Safe Sending Language” (SSL).

FALSE 110. Due to interstate trade events and taxation issues the U.S. Government has standardized the definition of ecommerce.

FALSE

111. The common term for business-to-consumer e-commerce is B2C. The common term for business-to-business electronic sales is B2B. TRUE 112. E-commerce provides the potential for much richer marketing concepts that include video, audio, product comparisons, and product testimonials or product tests.

TRUE 113. Because of computer interaction and the capability of almost instant verification business across the World Wide Web has a lower probably of fraud, hackers, and compromised customer privacy.

FALSE 114. The AICPA Trust Services Principles do not protect the history of purchases since these are classified as “public knowledge events.”

FALSE 115. The AICPA Trust Services Principles state that the customer should be given the choice regarding the collection and retention of data.

TRUE 116. The AICPA Trust Services Principles state that the customer need not be contacted if a business is going to release non-sensitive information about the customer to a third party.

FALSE 117. The supply chain is the linked processes from the raw material vendor through the manufacturer ending at the stage of finished goods.

FALSE 118. The supply chain may be larger at either or both ends as more than one vendor may supply the same materials and more than one customer may purchase the finished products.

TRUE 119. A strength of the supply chain concept is that inconsistencies or poor quality within the supply chain will be compensated by other strengths resulting in an overall satisfactory product.

FALSE 120. An example of vertical integration is a manufacturer who mines the raw materials, produces the product, and then sells it in company owned stores.

TRUE 121. The differentiating factor between B2C and B2B is where B2C might purchase two books; a B2B purchase might involve ten thousand books.

TRUE 122. One advantage in the B2B e-business environment is that operations costs can be reduced through inventory reductions and efficiencies can be increased by location of nearby assets when needed.

TRUE 123. An intranet is a private network accessible only to the employees of a company.

TRUE 124. Because intranets do not transmit information through the Internet or WWW they do not use protocols such as

TCP/IP. FALSE 125. An extranet is similar to an internet except that it offers access to a greater number of sites than a standard Internet or WWW connection.

FALSE 126. One characteristic that the Internet, intranets, and extranets have in common is that they are all networks that are intended for the sharing of information and the conducting of transactions.

TRUE 127. The general public has general access to the intranet and extranet networks.

FALSE 128. XML is a rich language that facilitates the exchange of data between organizations via web pages.

TRUE 129. In XBRL complex financial statements are presented only in a static mode.

FALSE 130. Traditional EDI is a real-time processing system due to the 24 hour, 7 day a week operation of computers and servers.

FALSE 131. Management has an ethical obligation to create and enforce policies and practices which ensure that private customer data are not misused.

TRUE 132. Because of their sensitive nature, companies seldom sell or share customer lists or customer data.

FALSE 133. While there is no requirement to disclose a privacy policy on a website, it is an ethical obligation to disclose and follow the policy.

TRUE ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 14 - TRUE/FALSE: 95. T 103. T 111.

96. T 104. F 112.

97. F 105. T 113.

98. F 106. F 114.

99. T 107. F 115.

100. F 108. T 116.

101. T 109. F 117.

102. F 110. F 118.

New Question 108A. T

T T F F T F F T

119.

120.

121.

122.

123.

124.

125.

126.

F T T T T F F T

127.

128.

129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

F T F F T F T

ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS/2e TURNER / WEICKGENANNT Test Bank: CHAPTER 15: IT Infrastructure for E-Business NOTE: All new or adjusted questions are in red. New questions are identified by the letter A as part of the question number; adjusted questions are identified by the letter X as part of the question number.

END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS 1. Which of the following advantages is least likely to be experienced by a company implementing an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system?

A. Reduced cost B. Improved efficiency C. Broader access to information D. Reduced errors 2X. An ERP system is a software system that provides each of the following EXCEPT: A. Collection, processing, storage, and reporting of transactional data.

B. Enhancement of e-commerce and e-business.

C. Coordination of multiple business processes.

D. Physical controls for the prevention of inventory theft.

3X. Which of the following is NOT a feature of an ERP system’s database?

A. Increased efficiency B. Increased need for data storage within functional areas C. Increased customer service capability D. Increased data sharing across functional areas 4. Manufacturing companies implement ERP systems for the primary purpose of A. Increasing productivity.

B. Reducing inventory quantities.

C. Sharing information.

D. Reducing investments.

5. What company developed the first true ERP systems?

A. Microsoft B. Peoplesoft C. SAP D. IBM 6. In the late 1990s, the Y2K compatibility issue was concerned primarily with computer systems’ A. File retrieval capability.

B. Data storage.

C. Human resource comparisons.

D. Capital budgeting.

7. The primary difference between ERP and ERP II systems is that ERP II may include A. Internet EDI. B. Logistics modules.

C. Reporting modules.

D. A data warehouse.

8X. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for increased spending on ERP systems in recent years?

A. The need for Sarbanes-Oxley compliance B. Globalization and increased competitive pressures C. The need for earnings management D. The need for customer service enhancements 9. Supply chain management (SCM) is a critical business activity that connects a company more closely with its A. Customers.

B. Suppliers.

C. Subsidiaries.

D. Customers and suppliers.

10. The type of ERP system used by large, multinational corporations is known as A. Big bang implementation.

B. Modular implementation.

C. Tier one software.

D. Tier two software.

11. Which of the following ERP approaches accomplishes the ERP implementation beginning with one department?

A. The pilot method B. The modular implementation approach C. The big bang approach D. The location-wise implementation method 12. Which of the following statements best describes the risks of ERP systems?

A. The risks of implementing and operating ERP systems are nearly identical to the risks of implementing and operating IT systems.

B. The risks of operating and implementing ERP systems are greater than the risks of implementing and operating IT systems, due to the scope, size, and complexity of ERP systems.

C. The risks of implementing ERP systems are greater than the risks of implementing IT systems, but the operating risks are nearly identical.

D. The risks of operating ERP systems are greater than the risks of operating IT systems, but the implementation risks are nearly identical.

ANSWERS TO TEXTBOOK – CHAPTER 15 – END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS 1. A 2. D 3. B

4. C 5. B 6. B

7. A 8. C

9. D 10. C

11. B 12. A

TEST BANK – CHAPTER 15 – MULTIPLE CHOICE 13. Select the true statement from those provided below.

A. An ERP system is designed to interact with a stand-alone sales and inventory application to create general ledger information.

B. An ERP system is designed to be a stand-alone software application to accomplish revenue, expenditures, conversion, and administrative processes.

C. An ERP system will accomplish e-commerce but relies on other software applications for the accomplishment of e-business transactions.

D. An ERP system will not collect, process, store, and report the data resulting from e-business transactions.

14. An ERP system uses: A. One database for each module associated with the organization – sales, inventory, human resources, etc.

B. One database for manufacturing, one database for sales, one database for administrative, and one database for design and research.

C. One database which contains all data items associated with the organization.

D. Relational databases for interactive queries between modules and departments.

15. An enterprise resource planning (ERP) system would: A. Update both accounts receivable and inventory when purchased goods are received from a vendor.

B. Update both accounts payable and accounts receivable when inventory purchased from a vendor is received.

C. Update both accounts payable and sales when purchased goods are received from a vendor.

D. Update both accounts payable and inventory when purchased goods are received from a vendor.

16X. An enterprise resource planning (ERP) system allows a sales representative to provide a customer with all of the following information EXCEPT: A. Is the product in stock?

B. What is the price of the product?

C. What is the cost of the product?

D. When will it be shipped?

17X. MRP applications are: A. Management resource programs software B. Manufacturing resources planning software C. Management reporting programs software D. Manufacturing reporting programs software 18X. ERP modules include all EXCEPT: A. Financial.

B. Operational database.

C. Sales and services.

D. Product development and manufacturing.

19. Within an ERP program: A. The operational database contains five to ten years of transaction histories.

B. The data warehouse is updated as daily transactions are recorded.

C. The data warehouse contains five to ten years of transaction histories.

D. The data warehouse information is available to sales personnel for customer histories.

20X. Interfaces between modules of ERP systems would be accepted for all of the following EXCEPT: A. Sales and inventory.

B. Sales and human resources.

C. Sales and accounts receivable.

D. Sales and manufacturing.

21. Material requirements planning (MRP) software: 1.

Calculated raw materials quantities needed for manufacturing.

2.

Calculated lead times on raw materials orders.

3.

Calculated material needs on accounts payable data.

A. 1, 2, and 3.

B. 1 and 2 only.

C. 2 and 3 only.

D. 1 and 3 only.

22X. The purpose of MRP II was to integrate all of the following into a single database EXCEPT: A. Human resources.

B. Manufacturing.

C. Marketing.

D. Finance.

23X. SAP R/3 operates on a: A. Mainframe environment with closed architecture.

B. Client-server environment with open architecture.

C. Client-server environment with closed architecture.

D. Mainframe environment with open architecture.

24. Y2K compatibility issues arose because: A. Older computer systems recorded dates in mm/dd/yyyy formats and memory for these was expense.

B. Older computer systems recorded dates in mm/dd/yyyy formats and memory in older systems was unreliable.

C. Old computer systems kept dates in mm/dd/yy formats.

D. Memory in older systems would fail when challenged with a mm/dd/yy formatted date.

25. Select the correct statement from those provided below.

A. MRP II allows interaction between suppliers and their customers via the internet or other electronic means.

B. While MRP II provides automatic inventory reordering, it does not allow suppliers to see customer inventory levels.

C. MRP II systems preclude e-commerce and e-business transactions due to internal security measures to protect data.

D. To increase operational response times, MRP II systems utilize operational databases but not data warehouses.

26X. Spending on ERP systems increased or decreased based on several factors. These factors include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Y2K compliance concerns.

B. The need for better customer service.

C. Multi-national sites of operation.

D. Compliance with the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.

26A. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for the increased spending on ERP systems since 2004?

A.Bigger IT budgets replaced leaner budgets as economic conditions improved.

B.Many companies needed upgraded systems to enhance compliance with the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. C.Business processes were separated and standardized.

D.ERP has become so important to daily operations that many companies cannot allow their ERP system to become outdated.

27X. The financials module of an ERP such as SAP would include all of the following components EXCEPT: A. Inventory.

B. Financial accounting.

C. Management accounting.

D. Corporate governance.

28X. The sales and services module of an ERP such as SAP would include all of the following components EXCEPT: A. Sales order management.

B. Procurement.

C. Professional service delivery.

D. Incentive and commissions management.

29X. The analytics module of an ERP system such as SAP would include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Financial analysis B. Strategic enterprise management C. Project portfolio management D. Workforce analysis 30. Management would use the _____________ module for feedback from the ERP system to assist in the proper management and control of operations.

A. Financials.

B. Corporate services.

C. Analytics.

D. Human capital management.

31. To employ analytical processes on the organization’s data: A. Data mining is performed on the operational database.

B. Data is uploaded to the analytics module’s database.

C. Data mining is performed on the data warehouse.

D. Data is uploaded to the financials module’s database.

32. Supply chain management is: 1.

The management and control of all materials.

2.

The management and control of all funds related to purchasing.

3.

The management of information related to the logistics process.

4.

Limited to the flow of materials from vendors into the production cycle.

A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 are all correct.

B. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

C. 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

D. 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

33. Processes in supply chain management: 1.

Involve trading processes from a supplier to the business.

2.

Involve trading processes from the business to a customer.

3.

Involve trading between the business and other intermediaries.

4.

Do not include any transactions once raw materials are put into production.

A.1, 2, 3, and 4 are all correct.

B. 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

C. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

D. 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

34. The term for software solutions that help businesses manage customer relationships in an organized way is: A. Sales and service.

B. Customer relationship management.

C. Corporate services.

D. Human capital resources.

35. Critical factors of CRM success include: A. Successful software implementation and effective employee utilization.

B. Effective use of the analytics module’s data.

C. The effective use by employees of the sales and services module’s data.

D. All of the above, A, B, and C, are correct.

36. The two tiers of ERP systems are: A. The internal tier and external tier.

B. The vendor & customer tier and the employee tier.

C. The large, multinational corporation tier and the midsize business tier.

D. The acquisitions tier and the sales tier.

37. The ERP program that uses the term “back office” in reference to managerial functions and “front office” in reference to customer and sales functions is: A.SAP R/3.

B.Oracle Applications.

C.Peoplesoft.

D.mySAP. 38. The first “pure Internet” architecture, with no programming code residing on the client computer was: A. SAP R/3.

B. Oracle Applications.

C. Peoplesoft.

D. mySAP. 39X. ERP tier two software applications include: A. Axapta, Epicor, MAS 500 ERP, Microsoft Dynamics ERP, and Macola ERP. B. Axapta, Epicor, MAS 500 ERP, JD Edwards, and Macola ERP. C. Axapta, Epicor, MAS 500 ERP, Microsoft Access, and Macola ERP. D. Axapta, Epicor, SAP R/1, Microsoft Dynamics ERP, and Macola ERP. 40. Select the true statement from the following: A. The strength of SAP is its human resources capabilities.

B. The strength of Peoplesoft is its manufacturing capabilities.

C. The strength of SAP is its financial reporting capabilities.

D. The strength of Peoplesoft is its human resources capabilities.

40A. One of the largest risks of ERP systems in the cloud is: A.The potential service outage that might cause the system to be unavailable.

B.The risk of hacking into the system by competitors.

C.The intense cost of training employees to work in the cloud environment.

D.The high cost of the investment in hardware to handle the systems in the cloud.

41. ERP implementation: A. Must accomplish a full ERP system implementation.

B. May install only selected modules.

C. Must be done one module at a time.

D. Is a short duration process due to total integration of the software.

42. Best of breed means: A. Picking the best ERP software on the market for the particular type of business or organization.

B. Picking the best software on the market for a particular type of business process for this size of an organization.

C. Picking the best consulting firm to accomplish implementation of the ERP software.

D. Utilizing the most capable employees within the organization work with the implementation of the ERP application.

43. The advantage of “best of the breed” is: A. The best functionality of the ERP system as a result of total implementation.

B. The best functionality of a unique process of the organization.

C. Best cost of implementation of the ERP system.

D. Total integration of the ERP modules 44. Business process reengineering (BPR): 1. Aligns business processes with IT systems to record processes.

2. Reengineer the underlying processes to be more effective.

3. Improves the efficiency of the underlying process through automation.

4. Requires significant investment in IT resources.

5. Does not have a mutual enhancement effect with IT. A. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.

B. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only.

C. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only.

D. 1, 3, and 4 only.

45. When computerized technology is introduced into processes, the processes A. Must utilize standardized forms and screens for data entry.

B. Can be radically redesigned to take advantage of the speed and efficiency of computers to improve processing efficiency.

C. Data retrieval from the databases will be restricted to upper management for analysis.

D. Both B and C are correct.

46. Business process reengineering means: A. Configuring the business processes to conform to the functionality of the IT system.

B. Configuring the IT system to the business process for best processing speed.

C. Matching the IT and business processes to achieve the greatest mutual benefit from each.

D. Configuring both IT and business processes to meet the goals of ERP. 47. Business process reengineering means: A. Reconfiguring the ERP system to fit the current methods of the organization.

B. Retaining general software applications as legacy systems to reduce training and implementation costs.

C. Modifying business processes to take advantage of the capabilities of the ERP system.

D. Acquiring additional computer networking resources to effectively handle current business processes.

48. Customizing an ERP system: 1. Will tailor the ERP system to the user.

2.

3.

4.

A. B. C. D.

May have a prohibitive cost.

May hinder future system upgrades.

Is recommended wherever possible.

1, 2, 3, and 4.

1, 2, and 4 only.

1, 3, and 4 only.

1, 2, and 3 only.

49X. Data conversion will: 1.Require an appropriate amount of time be devoted to the conversion.

2.Be done at a minimal cost.

3.Import data from many legacy systems into a single RDBMS. 4.Require cleansing of errors and configuration inconsistencies.

A. B. C. D.

1, 2, 3, and 4.

1, 2, and 4 only.

1, 3, and 4 only.

1, 2, and 3 only.

50X. The big bang approach to implementation means that the company: A. Will buy one integrated system to accomplish all business processes.

B. Implements all modules and all function areas of the ERP system at one time.

C. Commences training and data cleansing throughout the organization on one date.

D. Implements the business process reengineering process on a predetermined date.

51X. All of the following are implementation of software systems EXCEPT: A. The big bang implementation.

B. Location-wise implementation.

C. Progressive implementation.

D. Modular implementation.

52X. When one site is utilized as the pilot approach to ERP, the implementation method is referred to as: A. Big bang implementation.

B. Hardware implementation.

C. Location-wise implementation.

D. Modular implementation.

53X. The advantages and disadvantages of modular implementation are: A. Full system integration is available but hardware incompatibilities exist.

B. Reduces the risks associated with installation and operation of the system, but full system integration is not available.

C. All employees are exposed to some portion of the ERP system but critical information is still in the legacy system.

D. Critical information is still available in the legacy system but technical support is not readily available for the legacy system.

54X. Benefits of an ERP system include all of the following EXCEPT: A. The real-time nature of processing increases the total processing time.

B. The interactive nature of the modules allows processes to interact with each other.

C. ERP systems have evolved from many years of software experience so the software reflects tried and true practices.

D. There is the capability to analyze large amounts of data in a single database.

55X. ERP system benefits include all EXCEPT: A. ERP systems are built to interact with the IT systems of trading partners such as customers and suppliers.

B. ERP systems are configured upon implementation to exceed any reasonable business growth in the future.

C. The ERP systems incorporate modules to conduct e-commerce and e-business.

D. Analytical tools that enable detailed analysis of the data are incorporated into ERP systems.

56X. Organizational benefits of ERP implementation include all EXCEPT: A. Retaining long-held work patterns and work focus.

B. Facilitating organizational learning.

C. Building a common vision.

D. Increased employee morale and satisfaction 57X. Factors which adversely affect the implementation of an ERP system do NOT include: A. Cost.

B. Complexity.

C. Size.

D. Scope.

58X. If one module in the ERP system fails, A. The rest of the system will operate correctly.

B. It has the potential to stop or disrupt all processes across the entire enterprise C. That one module will automatically revert to the legacy system.

D. Will result in the entire system reverting to the legacy system.

59X. Operation risks with an ERP system includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Security is a greater risk because processes are integrated.

B. An unauthorized user can affect more processes in the legacy system.

C. Incorrect data generated in a given process can automatically post flawed data to other processes.

D. Online privacy and confidentiality risks are magnified.

60X. As required by Sarbanes-Oxley, enhanced ERP systems provide feedback to management regarding internal controls. To effectively use the function, there are important steps that need to be taken.

1.Establish and maintain a list of compatible duties.

2.Insure that employees are given access and authority only to those parts of the system required.

3.Periodically review the user profile and change any access and authority levels as necessary.

4.Configure the ERP system to track and report any instances where an employee initiated or records any event.

5.Monitoring the periodic reports or real-time reports by the appropriate manager to determine if user profiles have changed.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 2, 3, 5 C. 1, 2, 4, 5 D. 2, 3, 4, 5 61. With the proper implementation of an ERP system: A.Fraud due to inappropriate transaction recording is eliminated.

B. Employee IDs, passwords, and segregated duties aid in internal control measures.

C. Audit trails are not necessary due to ID and password security concepts.

D. All of the above, A, B, and C, are correct answers.

ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 15 – MULTIPLE CHOICE: 13. B 23. B 33. C 14. C 24. C 34. B

43. B 44. D

53. B 54. A

15. D 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. B 21. B 22. A New Questions: 26A. C 40A. C

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

A A A B C C C B

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

A C B C A D B B

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

B C C D C B C C

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

B A A B B B B

TEST BANK – CHAPTER 15 – TRUE / FALSE 62. The intent of an ERP (enterprise resource planning) system is to provide a single software application for revenue, expenditures, conversion, and administrative processes.

TRUE 63. The intent of an ERP (enterprise resource planning) system is to provide a sales and inventory software application that will interact with the general ledger software with its sales and inventory transactions.

FALSE 64. An enterprise resource planning (ERP) system integrates all business processes and functions into a single software system using a single database.

TRUE 65. An enterprise resource planning (ERP) system would update accounts receivable and inventory when purchased goods are received from a vendor.

FALSE 66. An enterprise resource planning (ERP) system allows a sales representative to provide the date that inventory for sale will be received from a vendor to a customer upon order placement.

TRUE 67. Manufacturing resource planning software systems are outgrowths of the ERP concept.

FALSE 68X. ERP applications use modules such as financials, human resources, data warehouse, and analytics.

FALSE 69. ERP data is stored in both financial and operational databases.

FALSE 70. The data warehouse is up dated as transactions are processed.

FALSE 71. Today’s ERP systems can be traced back to the first generation of materials requirements planning software.

TRUE 72. Early MRP applications utilized sales forecasts to compute material requirements for production.

TRUE 73. The purpose of MRP II was to integrate manufacturing, engineering, marketing, finance, and human resources

units to run on the same information system.

FALSE 74. SAP R/3 had tremendous growth due to the use of closed architecture and client-server hardware compatibility.

FALSE 75. Y2K compatibility issues arose because computers kept dates in mm/dd/yy type formats.

TRUE 76X. ERP II has additional modules including customer relationship management and supply chain management for enhanced e-commerce transactions.

TRUE 77. MRP II systems let vendors track customer inventory levels and trigger inventory shipments when prearranged levels are met.

TRUE 78. Spending for ERP and ERP II systems has been consistently growing since the mid 1990s and the Y2K events.

FALSE 79. The financial module of an ERP such as SAP might contain such components as financial accounting, management accounting, corporate governance, and inventory.

FALSE 80X. The product development module of an ERP such as SAP might contain such components as production planning, manufacturing execution, operations analysis, and enterprise asset management.

FALSE 81. ERP systems such as SAP normally batch their financial transactions for processing due to the large amounts of data.

FALSE 82. ERP systems such as SAP normally post their financial transactions in real-time for current information through all of the appropriate modules.

TRUE 83. Management must examine feedback from the ERP system to assist in the proper management and control of operations and financial conditions.

TRUE 84. Supply Chain Management integrates supply and demand management within and across companies.

TRUE 85. Processes in supply chain management involve trading processes from a supplier to a business only.

FALSE 86. Sales and service is a term for software solutions that help businesses manage customer relationships in an organized way.

FALSE 87. CRM is a term for software solutions that help businesses manage customer relationships in an organized way.

TRUE

88. CRM success depends entirely on the implementation of the software package designed for customer relationship support.

FALSE 89. Tier one includes software often used by large, multinational corporations.

TRUE 90. Tier two describes software used by midsize businesses and organizations.

TRUE 91. Tier one describes software used by midsize businesses and organizations.

FALSE 92. Tier two includes software often used by large, multinational corporations.

FALSE 93. Peoplesoft uses the terms “back office” in reference to managerial functions and “front office” in reference to customer and sales functions.

FALSE 94X. SAP was the first “pure Internet” architecture, with no programming code residing on the client computer.

FALSE 95. The strength of SAP is the human resources aspects of an organization.

FALSE 96. The strength of Peoplesoft is the human resources aspects of an organization.

TRUE 96A. The differences between Tier One and Tier Two software are becoming more definitive as the Tier One vendors attempt to attract larger companies.

FALSE 96B. All ERP vendors have developed cloud-based ERP products.

TRUE 96C. One of the greatest risks of ERP cloud systems is the potential service outage that might cause the system to be unavailable.

TRUE 96D. One of the greatest risks of ERP cloud systems is their vulnerability to hackers.

FALSE 97. The best fit software is usually defined by the client’s hardware and intranet structure.

FALSE 98. When ERP implementation is started all of the legacy system must be replaced for proper operation.

FALSE 99. Best of breed means picking the best ERP software on the market for the particular type of business or organization.

FALSE

100. Business process reengineering (BPR) is the purposeful and organized changing of business processes to make them more efficient.

TRUE 101. Business process reengineering means tailoring both the business process to IT and the IT process to the business process for best functionality and processing.

TRUE 102. Customizing an ERP system is recommended wherever the business has an existing process to accomplish a goal and that process is not compatible with the ERP system.

FALSE 103. Customizing an ERP system should be limited due to cost and upgrading to the system in the future.

TRUE 104. ERP implementation costs are kept to a minimum by retaining the legacy computer hardware and operating systems.

FALSE 104A. The decision as to whether to adopt cloud-based ERP systems will not have much impact on the computer hardware and IT infrastructure needed.

FALSE 104B. A cloud-based ERP system will require less infrastructure at the company.

TRUE 105. Due to the integration of design, ERP systems do not require extensive testing if implementation does not entail best of breed or legacy modules.

FALSE 106. Because the ERP system will cleanse and correct data errors while importing legacy data into its RDBMS, a minimum of time, effort, and dollars will be spent on data conversion.

FALSE 107. Training of employees will be minimal due to BPR and system’s integration.

FALSE 108. The big bang theory is the easiest to implement since the switch from the legacy system to the ERP system is done on a single date throughout the organization.

FALSE 109. The big bang theory of implementation is preferred due to the limited problems incurred in transition.

FALSE 110X. Modular implementation and pilot implementation are both considered methods of implementation.

FALSE 111X. Location-wise implementation and pilot implementation are both considered methods of implementation.

TRUE 112. The real-time nature of processing decreases the total processing time and allows more immediate feedback to management.

TRUE 113. The real-time nature of processing increases the total processing time and precludes immediate feedback to management.

FALSE 114. ERP systems are built to interact with the IT systems of trading partners such as customers and suppliers.

TRUE 115. ERP systems can grow with the business.

TRUE 116. ERP implementation regarding IT infrastructure benefits include building business flexibility for current and future changes TRUE 117. The integration of an ERP system compensates for its scope, size, and complexity to make implementation less risky than most IT systems.

FALSE 118. Since the sale of goods in an ERP system may automatically trigger more production, which in turn would trigger the purchase of raw materials there is a significant need to ensure that these integrated processes are triggered at the correct time and in the correct amounts.

TRUE 119. Since ERP systems are modular the risks of implementation enterprise-wide are minimized.

FALSE 120. Within an ERP system unauthorized access to a purchase module could trigger a related unauthorized payment within accounts payable.

TRUE 121X. Conflicting abilities are also referred to as incompatible duties.

TRUE 121A. The assigning of access and authority for a specific user ID is referred to as a user profile.

TRUE 121B. Segregation of duties require within an ERP system is difficult due to the free access allowed to employees.

FALSE 121C. As the result of promotions or job changes, an employee may have different access or authorizations.

Because of this, it is important that a company review user profiles and make changes to access and authority levels.

TRUE 121D. ERP will automatically track and report any instances where an employee initiates or records an event with conflicting abilities. It is not necessary to configure the system to accomplish this.

FALSE 121E. Based on each employee’s user profile, audit trails can be constructed and reported which employees initiated or conducted individual processes.

TRUE

122. Due to their level of integration, ERP systems have difficulties in properly segregating duties.

FALSE 123. The ERP system can incorporate a matrix of tasks that are compatible.

TRUE ANSWERS TO TEST BANK - CHAPTER 15 - TRUE/FALSE: 62. T 63. F 64. T 65. F 66. T 67. F 68. F 69. F 70. F 71. T 72. T 73. F 74. F New Questions: 96A. F 96B. T 96C. T 96D. F

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

T T T F F F F T T T F F T

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

F T T F F F F F T F F F T

104A. F 104B. T

121A. 121B. 121C. 121D.

T F T F

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

T F T F F F F F F F T T F

121E. T

114.

115.

116.

117.

118.

119.

120.

121.

122.

123.

T T T F T F T T F T