Abnormal Psychology, 1st Edition Australia Edition , By test Bank

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Abnormal Psychology, 1st Edition Australia Edition

By Ann M. Kring , Sheri L. Johnson, Michael Kyrios, Daniel Fassnacht, Amanda Lambros , Maree Teesson

Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

Test Bank to accompany

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

by Kring et al.

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

Chapter 1 Introduction to abnormal psychology 1. ___________ is the scientific study of abnormal behaviour. @ Learning Outcome 1.1: Describe the basic features of psychological disorder. The term psychopathology describes the scientific study of abnormal behaviour in general, of specific psychological disorders (also commonly referred to as ‘mental disorders’) and the characteristics of mental health. Essential to the field of psychopathology is the definition of disorder. *a. Psychopathology b. Developmental psychology c. General psychology d. Psychoneuroimmunology e. Health psychology 2. _________ a medical classification list by the ________. @ Learning Outcome 1.1: Describe the basic features of psychological disorder. International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD), a medical Classification list by the World Health Organization (WHO). *a. ICD and WHO b. DSM and WHO c. ICD and DSM d. DSM and APA e. ICD and APA 3. Which of the following is relevant to defining a paradigm? @ Learning Outcome 1.1: Describe the basic features of psychological disorder. A paradigm, a conceptual framework or approach within which a scientist works — that is, a set of basic assumptions, a general perspective, that defines how to conceptualise and study a subject, how to gather and interpret relevant data, even how to think about a particular subject. A paradigm has profound implications for how scientists and clinicians operate at any given time. Paradigms specify what problems scientists will investigate and how they will go about the investigation. a. Conceptual framework. b. Basic assumptions. c. Specify the problems. d. Investigate the problems. *e. All of the above.

4. Destructive beliefs and attitudes held by a society is called ________. @ Learning Outcome 1.2: Understand stigma associated with psychological disorders and its historical context. Stigma refers to the destructive beliefs and attitudes held by a society that are ascribed to groups considered different in some manner, such as people with psychological disorders. a. disorders b. opinion c. suggestion d. concept

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*e. stigma 5. Which of the following does not describe what stigma encompasses? @ Learning Outcome 1.2: Understand stigma associated with psychological disorders and its historical context. Stigma encompasses: (a) ignorance or limitations in knowledge about mental health; (b) prejudice or negative attitudes to mental illness; and (c) unhelpful or discriminatory responses to people with mental health problems (see Thornicroft, Rose, Kassam, & Sartorius, 2007). a. Ignorance or limitations in knowledge about mental health. b. Negative attitudes to mental illness. c. Unhelpful or discriminatory responses to people with mental health problems. d. Prejudice to People with mental health problems. *e. Helpful or non-discriminatory responses to people with mental health problems.

6. People that have attitudes about themselves that are harsh or discriminatory are displaying: @ Learning Outcome 1.2: Understand stigma associated with psychological disorders and its historical context. Many people with mental illnesses can have attitudes about themselves that are harsh or discriminatory (‘I am no good’, ‘I can never function properly’, ‘I shouldn’t bother getting treatment’). These forms of stigma are commonly referred to as self-stigma and refer to the extent to which one accepts or internalises the negative attitudes of others towards one’s self. a. public stigma. b. perceived stigma. *c. self-stigma. d. stigma. e. All of the above.

7. ________ describes improving the genetic composition of the human race through selective breeding and sterilisation. @ Learning Outcome 1.2: Understand stigma associated with psychological disorders and its historical context. Eugenics movement a movement that aimed at improving the genetic composition of the human race through selective breeding and sterilisation. a. Demonology b. Stigma c. Moral Movement *d. Eugenics e. All of the above.

8. Reliving an earlier emotional trauma and releasing emotional tension is called ______. @ Learning Outcome 1.3: Understand early psychological approaches to psychopathology.

Reliving an earlier emotional trauma and releasing emotional tension by expressing previously forgotten thoughts about the event was called catharsis. *a. catharsis b. ventilation c. abreaction d. free association e. displacement 9. Psychoanalytic theory says that psychopathology results from _______.

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@ Learning Outcome 1.3: Understand early psychological approaches to psychopathology.

The central assumption of Freud’s theorising, often referred to as psychoanalytic theory, is that psychopathology results from unconscious conflicts in the individual. *a. unconscious conflicts b. unconscious thought c. unconscious images d. conscious thought e. conscious conflicts 10. According the Freud the id operates on the ______ principle? @ Learning Outcome 1.3: Understand early psychological approaches to psychopathology.

The id seeks immediate gratification of its urges, operating on what Freud called the pleasure principle. *a. pleasure b. moral c. reality d. oral e. All of the above.

11. A defence mechanism is used by the _______ to protect itself from _______. @ Learning Outcome 1.3: Understand early psychological approaches to psychopathology.

Defence mechanism is a strategy used by the ego to protect itself from anxiety. *a. ego, anxiety b. super ego, anxiety c. id, anxiety d. conscious, distress e. unconscious, psychological distress 12. A person who experiences either excessive or deficient amounts of gratification at a particular stage develops a: @ Learning Outcome 1.3: Understand early psychological approaches to psychopathology. A person who experiences either excessive or deficient amounts of gratification at a particular stage develops a fixation and is likely to regress to that stage when stressed. a. libido. b. struck. c. consistent. d. lack. *e. fixation.

13. Which of the following is correct order of the psychosexual developmental stages? @ Learning Outcome 1.3: Understand early psychological approaches to psychopathology.

Correct order of psychosexual development. Oral stage, anal stage, phallic stage, latency periods and genital stage. a. Anal stage, oral stage, phallic stage, latency periods and genital stage. b. Anal stage, phallic stage, oral stage latency periods and genital stage. c. Phallic stage, latency periods Oral stage, anal stage, and genital stage. *d. Oral stage, anal stage, phallic stage, latency periods and genital stage. e. Oral stage, anal stage, phallic stage, genital stage and latency periods.

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14. ______________ or the basic categories that all human beings use in conceptualising the world were a part of what Jung called the collective unconscious. @ Learning Outcome 1.3: Understand early psychological approaches to psychopathology Collective unconscious, the part of the unconscious that is common to all human beings and that consists primarily of what Jung called archetypes, or basic categories that all human beings use in conceptualising the world. *a. Archetypes b. Collective unconscious c. Transference d. Id e. Individualisation 15. Adler’s ______________ psychology regarded people as inextricably tied to their society because he believed that fulfilment was found in doing things for the social good. @ Learning Outcome 1.3: Understand early psychological approaches to psychopathology.

Adler’s theory, which came to be known as individual psychology, regarded people as inextricably tied to their society because he believed that fulfilment was found in doing things for the social good. *a. Individual b. Analytical b. Cognitive c. Gestalt d. Social 16. The ________ approach focuses on both heritability of traits and complex interactions between genes and environment. @ Learning Outcome 1.4: Describe the essentials of the genetic paradigm. We now know that (1) almost all behaviour is heritable to some degree (i.e., it involves genes) and (2) despite this, genes do not operate in isolation from the environment. Instead, throughout the life span, the environment shapes how our genes are expressed and our genes also shape our environments. *a. genetic paradigm b. social paradigm c. psychological paradigm d. neurological paradigm e. vulnerability paradigm 17. Which of the following is not correct when explaining heritability? @ Learning Outcome 1.4: Describe the essentials of the genetic paradigm. Heritability refers to the extent to which variability in a particular behaviour (or disorder) in a population can be accounted for by genetic factors. There are two important points about heritability to keep in mind. Heritability estimates range from 0.0 to 1.0: the higher the number, the greater the heritability. Heritability is relevant only for a large population of people, not a particular individual. *a. Relevant for a particular individual. b. Relevant for a large population. c. Estimates range from 0.0 to 1.0. d. Variability in a disorder. e. Variability in a population.

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18. _______ have much more effect on development of psychological disorders than other experiences. @ Learning Outcome 1.4: Describe the essentials of the genetic paradigm. Behaviour genetics research suggests that the non-shared, or unique, environmental experiences have much more to do with the development of psychological disorders than the shared experiences. a. Shared experiences *b. Non-shared experiences c. Genetics d. Biological experiences e. All of the above.

19. Which of the following is not related to behaviour genetics? @ Learning Outcome 1.4: Describe the essentials of the genetic paradigm. Behaviour genetics is the study of the degree to which genes and environmental factors influence behaviour. a. Genes and environmental factors. b. Genetic make-up. c. Genotype. d. Phenotype. *e. Conscious.

20. A ___________ means that a given person’s sensitivity to an environmental event is influenced by genes. @ Learning Outcome 1.4: Describe the essentials of the genetic paradigm. Life experience shapes how our genes are expressed and our genes guide us in behaviours that lead to the selection of different experiences. A gene–environment interaction means that a given person’s sensitivity to an environmental event is influenced by genes. *a. Gene–environment interaction b. Body- mind interaction c. Gene-body interaction d. Gene-mind interaction e. All of the above.

21. The study of how the environment can alter gene expression or function is called ______. @ Learning Outcome 1.4: Describe the essentials of the genetic paradigm. Other exciting research investigates changes in behaviour and gene expression under different environmental conditions. The study of how the environment can alter gene expression or function is called epigenetics. *a. epigenetics b. paradigm c. epidemiology d. genetics e. All of the above.

22. The ___________ paradigm believes that psychological disorders are linked to brain and nervous system abnormalities. @ Learning Outcome 1.5: Describe the essentials of the neuroscience paradigm. The neuroscience paradigm specifically holds that psychological disorders are linked to aberrant processes in the brain and nervous system.

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*a. neuroscience b. biological c. cognitive d. behavioural e. biopsychosocial 23. _______ in neural development, describes the selective loss of synaptic connections, especially in the fine-tuning of brain regions devoted to sensory processing @ Learning Outcome 1.5: Describe the essentials of the neuroscience paradigm. A number of synaptic connections begin to be eliminated a process called pruning. a. Neural plasticity b. Axon *c. Pruning d. Dendrites e. Cell body 24. The concept of __________ reflects the ability of the human brain to constantly change as a function of experience @ Learning Outcome 1.5: Describe the essentials of the neuroscience paradigm.

The concept of neuroplasticity, reflecting the ability of the human brain to constantly change as a function of experience. *a. neuroplasticity b. neurotransmitters. c. neurosurgery d. neurons e. All of the above.

25. Researching how psychological factors impact the immune system is called ________? @ Learning Outcome 1.5: Describe the essentials of the neuroscience paradigm. The field that studies how psychological factors impact the immune system is called psychoneuroimmunology. *a. psychoneuroimmunology b. psychoanalysis c. behavioural medicine d. health psychology e. positive psychology 26. The _______ framework highlights the significance of biological, psychological and social factors and their interactions in understanding behaviour. @ Learning Outcome 1.5: Describe the essentials of the neuroscience paradigm. The biopsychosocial framework highlights the significance of biological, psychological and social factors and their interactions in understanding behaviour. a. cognitive *b. biopsychosocial c. behavioural d. sociocultural e. neuroscience 27. Which of the following is not related to behaviour therapy:

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@ Learning Outcome 1.6: Describe the essentials of the cognitive–behavioural paradigm.

Important behaviour therapy techniques include: modelling, behavioural activation (BA) therapy, time‐out, inhibitory learning and systematic desensitisation.. a. modelling b. time out *c. catharsis d. systematic desensitisation e. inhibitory learning 28. Cognitive therapy emphasises the relationship between _________. @ Learning Outcome 1.6: Describe the essentials of the cognitive–behavioural paradigm.

Like Ellis, Beck (1967) also proposed that our thoughts determine our feelings and our behaviour. a. thought b. feeling c. behaviour d. a and c *e. a, b and c 29. ______: tendencies to perceive events in a negative manner. @ Learning Outcome 1.6: Describe the essentials of the cognitive–behavioural paradigm.

Cognitive biases: tendencies to perceive events in a negative manner, for example, by attending to or remembering negative information more than positive information; hypothesised to be driven by underlying negative schemas. *a. Cognitive biases b. Irrational thinking c. Metacognition d. Attribution e. All of the above.

30. Which of the following is not correctly matched? @ Learning Outcome 1.6: Describe the essentials of the cognitive–behavioural paradigm.

Post-rationalist approaches such as narrative therapy – Singer. Metacognitive therapy – Fisher & Wells. a. Attachment theory – John Bowlby and May Ainsworth. b. Person centred therapy – Rogers. c. Dialectical behaviour therapy – Linehan. d. Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy – Segal. *e. Metacognitive therapy – Singer.

31. The sociocultural approach places emphasis on: @ Learning Outcome 1.7: Understand factors that cut across the paradigms: emotion, culture, ethnicity and interpersonal factors in the study and treatment of psychopathology. A good deal of research has focused on the ways in which sociocultural factors, such as gender, race, culture, ethnicity and socioeconomic status, can contribute to different psychological disorders. a. age. b. gender. c. ethnicity and culture. d. socioeconomic status.

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*e. All of the above.

32. The basis of behavioural medicine lies within: @ Learning Outcome 1.7: Understand factors that cut across the paradigms: emotion, culture, ethnicity and interpersonal factors in the study and treatment of psychopathology.

Sociocultural factors such as gender, race, ethnicity and socioeconomic status are also important for understanding overall health. The many demonstrations of the pervasive role of these types of factors in health form the basis for the fields of behavioural medicine and health psychology a. thinking patterns. b. emotional regulations. c. reinforcement. *d. sociocultural factors. e. None of the above.

33. Transference refers to: @ Learning Outcome 1.7: Understand factors that cut across the paradigms: emotion, culture, ethnicity and interpersonal factors in the study and treatment of psychopathology.

Transference refers to a person’s responses to the psychoanalyst that seem to reflect attitudes and ways of behaving towards important people in the patient’s past, rather than reflecting actual aspects of the relationship between the person and the analyst. a. the relationship between person and psychoanalyst. b. A person’s response to the psychoanalyst. c. A psychoanalyst’s response to the person. *d. treating the psychoanalyst as the symbolic representative of someone important in the past. e. a, b and c 34. Which of the following is not related to person-centred therapy? @ Learning Outcome 1.7: Understand factors that cut across the paradigms: emotion, culture, ethnicity and interpersonal factors in the study and treatment of psychopathology. Carl Rogers is best known for his contributions to a therapeutic framework termed person-centred therapy (Rogers, 1954). Rogers saw three conditions as necessary for personal growth: unconditional positive regard, empathy and congruence. a. Unconditional positive regard. b. Empathy. c. Congruence. *d. Complexity. e. Personal growth.

35. Which one of the following does not describe the diathesis-stress paradigm? @ Learning Outcome 1.8: Recognise the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis: the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. The diathesis–stress paradigm is an integrative paradigm that links genetic, neurobiological, psycho logical and environmental factors. It is not limited to one particular school of thought. a. An integrative paradigm. b. Links genetic, neurobiological, psychological and environmental factors. *c. It is limited to one particular school of thought. d. Predisposition towards disease. e. Both diathesis and stress are necessary in the development of disorders.

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Test Bank to accompany

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

by Kring et al.

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

Chapter 2 Diagnosis and assessment 1. Taking the same test twice is called _______ reliability. @ Learning Outcome 2.1: Distinguish the different types of reliability and validity. Test– retest reliability measures the extent to which people being observed twice or taking the same test twice, perhaps several weeks or months apart, receive similar scores. *a. Test–retest. b. Interrater. c. Alternate-form. d. Internal consistency. e. Scorer.

2. _________ reliability uses two forms of a test rather than giving the same test twice. @ Learning Outcome 2.1: Distinguish the different types of reliability and validity.

Alternate-form reliability: the extent to which scores on the two forms of the test are consistent. a. Test–retest. b. Interrater. *c. Alternate-form. d. Internal consistency. e. Scorer.

3. ___________ assesses whether the items on a test are related to one another. @ Learning Outcome 2.1: Distinguish the different types of reliability and validity. Internal consistency reliability assesses whether the items on a test are related to one another. a. Test–retest reliability. b. Interrater reliability. c. Alternate-form reliability. *d. Internal consistency reliability. e. Scorer reliability.

4. Whether a measure adequately samples the domain of interest is called _______ validity. @ Learning Outcome 2.1: Distinguish the different types of reliability and validity. Content validity refers to whether a measure adequately samples the domain of interest. *a. Content. b. Criterion. c. Concurrent. d. Predictive. e. Construct.

5. Criterion validity can be assessed by evaluating the ability of the measure to predict some other variable that is measured at some point in the future is called ______. @ Learning Outcome 2.1: Distinguish the different types of reliability and validity. Criterion validity can be assessed by evaluating the ability of the measure to predict some other variable that is measured at some point in the future, often referred to as predictive validity. *a. Predictive validity. b. Content validity.

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c. Item validity. d. Construct validity. e. Face validity.

6. Criterion validity is evaluated by determining whether a measure is associated in an expected way with some other measure. If both variables are measured at the same point in time, the resulting validity is referred to as: @ Learning Outcome 2.1: Distinguish the different types of reliability and validity. If both variables are measured at the same point in time, the resulting validity is referred to as concurrent validity. a. Predictive validity. b. Content validity. c. Item validity. d. Construct validity. *e. Concurrent validity.

7. ____________ validity is relevant when we want to interpret a test as a measure of some characteristic or construct that is not observed simply or overtly. @ Learning Outcome 2.1: Distinguish the different types of reliability and validity.

Construct validity is a more complex concept. It is relevant when we want to interpret a test as a measure of some characteristic or construct that is not observed simply or overtly (Cronbach & Meehl, 1955; Hyman, 2002). A construct is an inferred attribute, such as anxiousness or distorted cognition. a. Predictive. b. Content. c. Item. *d. Construct. e. Concurrent.

8. In _____, the _____published its first Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM). @ Learning Outcome 2.2: Identify the basic features, historical changes, strengths and weaknesses of the DSM. In 1952, the American Psychiatric Association published its first Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM). a. 1947, APA. *b. 1952, APA. c. 1944, WHO. d. 1951, WHO. e. 1960, APA. 9. Which of the following is not correct? @ Learning Outcome 2.2: Identify the basic features, historical changes, strengths and weaknesses of the DSM. The DSM-5 does not use the five axes of DSM-IV-TR. a. The DSM-5 uses three axes. *b. The DSM-5 uses the five axes of DSM-IV-TR. c. The DSM-5 does not use the five axes of DSM-IV-TR. d. In the DSM-5 the first axes is psychiatric and medical diagnoses. e. The DSM-5 has axes which include psychosocial and contextual factors (ICD-10 Z codes) and disability.

10. The DSM-5 was released in:

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@ Learning Outcome 2.2: Identify the basic features, historical changes, strengths and weaknesses of the DSM. DSM-5 is the current diagnostic system of the American Psychiatric Association. It was released in 2013. a. 2016. b. 2014. *c. 2013. d. 2010. e. 2008.

11. Which of the following is a cultural concept of distress? @ Learning Outcome 2.2: Identify the basic features, historical changes, strengths and weaknesses of the DSM. The DSM-5 includes nine cultural concepts of distress in the ‘Glossary of cultural concepts of distress’ to describe syndromes that are likely to be seen within specific regions. Dhat syndrome, Shenjing shuairuo (neurasthenia), Taijin kyofusho, Ataque de nervios, Amok, Ghost sickness. a. Hikikomori (withdrawal). b. Ataque de nervios. c. Amok. d. Hikikomori (withdrawal). *e. All of the above.

12. A therapist must be mindful of the role of _______ differences in the ways in which people describe their problems. @ Learning Outcome 2.2: Identify the basic features, historical changes, strengths and weaknesses of the DSM. A therapist must be mindful of the role of cultural differences in the ways in which people describe their problems. a. Social. b. Gender. c. Religious. *d. Cultural. e. None of the above.

13. The presence of a second diagnosis is called ________. @ Learning Outcome 2.2: Identify the basic features, historical changes, strengths and weaknesses of the DSM. One side effect of the huge number of diagnostic categories is a phenomenon called comorbidity, which refers to the presence of a second diagnosis. a. Prognosis. b. Overlapping. c. Dual diagnosis. *d. Comorbidity. e. None of the above.

14. ________ is the new classification system that is based on neuroscience and genetic data rather than just clinical symptoms. @ Learning Outcome 2.2: Identify the basic features, historical changes, strengths and weaknesses of the DSM. Termed the Research Domain Criteria, or RDoC, this system is currently conceived as a roadmap for research that will lead to the development of a new classification system that is based on neuroscience and genetic data rather than just clinical symptoms (Insel, 2014). a. DSM-5.

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b. ICD-10. *c. RDoC. d. (a) and (b). e. None of the above.

15. An approach to assessment in which a person is or is not a member of a discrete grouping is called _____________. @ Learning Outcome 2.2: Identify the basic features, historical changes, strengths and weaknesses of the DSM. Categorical classification: an approach to assessment in which a person is or is not a member of a discrete grouping. *a. Categorical classification. b. Classification. c. Dimensional diagnostic systems. d. Axial. e. None of the above.

16. Psychological assessment methods are often used to __________. @ Learning Outcome 2.3: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. To make a diagnosis, mental health professionals can use a variety of assessment measures and tools. Beyond helping to make a diagnosis, psychological assessment techniques are used in other important ways. For example, assessment methods are often used to identify appropriate therapeutic interventions. Furthermore, repeated assessments are very useful in monitoring the effects of treatment over time. Assessments are also fundamental to conducting research on the causes of disorder. a. Make a diagnosis. b. Identify appropriate therapeutic interventions. c. Monitoring the effects of treatment over time. d. Conducting research on the causes of disorder. *e. All of the above.

17. One way in which a ___________ is different from a casual conversation is the attention the interviewer pays to how the respondent answers questions—or does not answer them. @ Learning Outcome 2.3: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. One way in which a clinical interview is different from a casual conversation is the attention the interviewer pays to how the respondent answers questions— or does not answer them. a. Case study. b. Observation. *c. Clinical interview. d. Survey. e. All of the above.

18. A _________ sets out questions in a prescribed fashion for the interviewer. @ Learning Outcome 2.3: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. At times, mental health professionals need to collect standardised information, particularly for making diagnostic judgements based on the DSM. To meet that need, investigators use a structured interview, in which the questions are set out in a prescribed fashion for the interviewer. One example of a commonly used structured interview is the Structured Clinical Interview (SCID). a. Unstructured interview.

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*b. Structured interview. c. Observation. d. Survey. e. All of the above.

19. __________ can be conceptualised as the subjective experience of distress in response to perceived environmental problems. @ Learning Outcome 2.3: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Stress can be conceptualised as the subjective experience of distress in response to perceived environmental problems. a. Frustration. b. Conflict. *c. Stress. d. Pressure. e. All of the above.

20. The LEDS focuses on ______ stressors. @ Learning Outcome 2.3: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. The LEDS focuses on major stressors, such as deaths, job losses and romantic breakups. *a. Major. b. Minor. c. Daily. d. Perceived. e. All of the above.

21. In a ______________, the person is asked to complete a self-report questionnaire indicating whether statements assessing habitual tendencies apply to him or her. @ Learning Outcome 2.3: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. In a personality inventory, the person is asked to complete a selfreport questionnaire indicating whether statements assessing habitual tendencies apply to him or her. a. Survey. b. Interview. c. Observation. *d. Personality inventory. e. Case study.

22. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory was developed in _____ by ________. @ Learning Outcome 2.3: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) was developed in the early 1940s by Hathaway and McKinley (1943) and revised in 1989 (Butcher, Dahlstrom, Graham, Tellegen, & Kraemer, 1989). a. 1940; Tellegen. b. 1946; Butcher. *c. 1943; Hathaway and McKinley. d. 1947; Dahlstrom. e. 1989; Tellegen, & Kraemer.

23. Which of the following is not relevant to projective tests?

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@ Learning Outcome 2.3: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. A projective test is a psychological assessment tool in which a set of standard stimuli—inkblots or drawings—ambiguous enough to allow variation in responses is presented to the person. The assumption is that because the stimulus materials are unstructured and ambiguous, the person’s responses will be determined primarily by unconscious processes and will reveal his or her true attitudes, motivations and modes of behaviour. This notion is referred to as the projective hypothesis. a. They use a set of standard stimuli. b. The stimulus materials are unstructured and ambiguous. *c. The stimulus material elicit a conscious response. d. The person’s responses are determined primarily by unconscious processes. e. Unconscious processes reveal the person’s true attitudes, motivations and modes of behaviour.

24. Which of the following are types of intelligence tests? @ Learning Outcome 2.3: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. The most commonly administered tests include the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale, 4th edition (WAIS-IV, 2008); the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, 5th edition (WISC-IV, 2014); the Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence, 4th edition (WPPSI-IV, 2012); and the Stanford–Binet, 5th edition (SB5, 2003); IQ tests are regularly updated and, like personality inventories, they are standardised. a. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale. b. The Stanford–Binet test. c. Thematic Apperception Test. *d. (a) and (b). e. (a), (b) and (c).

25. Observing and tracking one’s own behaviour is called ________. @ Learning Outcome 2.3: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Cognitive behaviour therapists and researchers often ask people to observe and track their own behaviour and responses, an approach called self-monitoring.

Self-monitoring is used to collect a wide variety of data, including moods, stressful experiences, coping behaviours and thoughts. a. Self-motivation. *b. Self-monitoring. c. Self-analysis. d. Self-reinforcement. e. Self-control.

26. _________ scans and tests reveal the structure of the brain. @ Learning Outcome 2.4: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of neurobiological approaches to assessment. Brain imaging CT and MRI scans reveal the structure of the brain.

PET reveals brain function and, to a lesser extent, brain structure. fMRI is used to assess both brain structure and brain function. a. CT. b. MRI. c. PET. d. fMRI. *e. All of the above.

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27. Which of the following are relevant to neuropsychological assessment? @ Learning Outcome 2.4: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of neurobiological approaches to assessment. Neuropsychological assessment: behavioural tests such as the Halstead–Reitan and Luria–Nebraska assess abilities such as motor speed, memory and spatial ability. Deficits on particular tests help point to an area of possible brain dysfunction. a. Deficits on particular tests help point to an area of possible brain dysfunction. b. They assess abilities such as motor speed, memory and spatial ability. c. They assess intellectual functioning. *d. (a) and (b). e. (a), (b) and (c).

28. Which of the following is not a neuropsychological test? @ Learning Outcome 2.4: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of neurobiological approaches to assessment. Neuropsychological assessment: behavioural tests such as the Halstead–Reitan and Luria–Nebraska assess abilities such as motor speed, memory and spatial ability. Deficits on particular tests help point to an area of possible brain dysfunction a. The Halstead–Reitan test. b. The Luria–Nebraska battery. c. Bender-Gestalt test. d. Tower of London test. *e. Draw-a-person test.

29. Which assessment reveals electrical activity in the autonomic nervous system? @ Learning Outcome 2.4: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of neurobiological approaches to assessment. Psychophysiological assessment includes measures of electrical activity in the autonomic nervous system, such as skin conductance or in the central nervous system, such as EEG. a. Brain imaging. b. The Stanford–Binet test. c. Neurotransmitter assessment. d. Neuropsychological assessment. *e. Psychophysiological assessment.

30. A ___________ is a psychologist who studies how dysfunctions of the brain affect the way we think, feel and behave? @ Learning Outcome 2.4: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of neurobiological approaches to assessment. A neuropsychologist is a psychologist who studies how dysfunctions of the brain affect the way we think, feel and behave. a. Cognitive psychologist. *b. Neuropsychologist. c. Gestalt psychologist. d. Clinical psychologist. e. All of the above.

31. Types of psychophysiological assessments include _____________. @ Learning Outcome 2.4: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of neurobiological approaches to assessment. Electrocardiogram (EKG); electrodermal responding; electroencephalography. a. Electrocardiogram (EKG). b. Electrodermal responding.

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c. Electroencephalography. d. (a) and (b). *e. (a), (b) and (c).

32. _______ is used to assess both brain structure and brain function. @ Learning Outcome 2.4: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of neurobiological approaches to assessment. Brain imaging CT and MRI scans reveal the structure of the brain.

PET reveals brain function and, to a lesser extent, brain structure. fMRI is used to assess both brain structure and brain function. a. CT. b. MRI. c. PET. d. fMRI. *e. (c) and (d).

33. A _______, typically an acid, is produced when a neurotransmitter is deactivated. @ Learning Outcome 2.4: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of neurobiological approaches to assessment. A metabolite, typically an acid, is produced when a neurotransmitter is deactivated. *a. Metabolite. b. Portion. c. Glucose. d. HCL. e. All of the above.

34. __________ show brain activity changes while a person is doing different tasks. @ Learning Outcome 2.4: Describe the goals, strengths and weaknesses of neurobiological approaches to assessment. Functional magnetic resonance images (fMRI): with this method, researchers can measure how brain activity changes while a person is doing different tasks, such as viewing an emotional film, completing a memory test, looking at a visual puzzle or hearing and learning a list of words. a. CT. b. MRI. c. PET. *d. fMRI. e. Electroencephalography.

35. The Australian Psychology Accreditation Council requires all psychology graduates in Australia to have received training in _________. @ Learning Outcome 2.5: Discuss the ways in which culture and ethnicity impact diagnosis and assessment. The Australian Psychology Accreditation Council requires all psychology graduates in Australia to have received training in cultural competence, including with Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander cultures. a. Psychological assessment. b. Neurological assessment. c. Cognitive assessment. *d. Cultural competence. e. Aptitude.

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Test Bank to accompany

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

by Kring et al.

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

Chapter 3 Mood disorders 1. Persistent depressive disorder differs from major depressive disorder in that: @ Learning Outcome 3.1: Describe the symptoms of depression and mania, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders and bipolar disorders and the epidemiology of these disorders. People with persistent depressive disorder are chronically depressed — more than half of the time for at least 2 years, they feel blue or derive little pleasure from usual activities and pastimes. *a. Symptoms are less severe but last longer. b. Symptoms are more severe and last longer. c. Symptoms are less severe and less long lasting. d. Symptoms are more severe and less long lasting. e. It is marked by delusional thinking.

2. Symptoms of major depressive disorder include: @ Learning Outcome 3.1: Describe the symptoms of depression and mania, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders and bipolar disorders and the epidemiology of these disorders. Sad mood or loss of pleasure in usual activities; sleeping too much or too little; psychomotor retardation or agitation; weight loss or change in appetite; loss of energy; feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt; difficulty concentrating, thinking or making decisions and recurrent thoughts of death or suicide. a. Sad mood and loss of pleasure. b. Changes in appetite. c. Loss of energy. d. Sleep disturbance. *e. All of the above.

3. Seasonal affective disorder is believed to be related to an: @ Learning Outcome 3.1: Describe the symptoms of depression and mania, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders and bipolar disorders and the epidemiology of these disorders. It is believed that seasonal affective disorder is related to changes in the levels of melatonin in the brain. a. Imbalance in dopamine in the brain. b. Imbalance in GABA in the brain. c. Imbalance in serotonin in the brain. *d. Imbalance in melatonin in the brain. e. All of the above.

4. Types of bipolar disorder include: @ Learning Outcome 3.1: Describe the symptoms of depression and mania, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders and bipolar disorders and the epidemiology of these disorders. The DSM-5 recognises three forms of bipolar disorders: bipolar I disorder, bipolar II disorder and cyclothymic disorder. a. Bipolar I disorder. b. Bipolar II disorder. c. Cyclothymic disorder. d. (a) and (b).

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

*e. (a), (b) and (c ).

5. Depressive disorders are more common among: @ Learning Outcome 3.1: Describe the symptoms of depression and mania, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders and bipolar disorders and the epidemiology of these disorders. MDD and persistent depressive disorder are both twice as common among women as among men. a. Men. *b. Women. c. Children. d. The elderly. e. All of the above.

6. Which disorder has been linked to an increased likelihood of cardiovascular disease? @ Learning Outcome 3.1: Describe the symptoms of depression and mania, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders and bipolar disorders and the epidemiology of these disorders. Across 22 prospective studies, depression has been found to predict a 60 percent increase in the severity of cardiovascular disease over time. a. Anxiety. b. Mania. *c. Depression. d. Post-traumatic stress disorder. e. Obsessive-compulsive disorder.

7. Hypomania differs from mania in which of the following ways? @ Learning Outcome 3.1: Describe the symptoms of depression and mania, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders and bipolar disorders and the epidemiology of these disorders. Hypomania is less extreme than mania. Although mania involves significant impairment, hypomania does not. Hypomania involves a change in functioning that does not cause serious problems. The person with hypomania may feel more social, energised, productive and sexually alluring. a. It involves changes in functioning that does not cause serious problems. b. It is less extreme than mania. c. It involves changes in functioning that cause significant impairment. *d. (a) and (b). e. All of the above.

8. Which of the following is not a potential symptom of mania? @ Learning Outcome 3.1: Describe the symptoms of depression and mania, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders and bipolar disorders and the epidemiology of these disorders. Mania is a state of intense elation, irritability or activation accompanied by other symptoms shown in the diagnostic criteria. They may be difficult to interrupt and may shift rapidly from topic to topic, reflecting an underlying flight of ideas. During mania, people may become sociable to the point of intrusiveness. *a. Sad mood. b. Intense elation. c. Irritability. d. Rapid speech/difficult to interrupt. e. Extreme sociability.

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9. Approximately what percentage of people meet the criteria for bipolar I disorder? @ Learning Outcome 3.1: Describe the symptoms of depression and mania, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders and bipolar disorders and the epidemiology of these disorders. In an epidemiological study that involved structured diagnostic interviews with a representative sample of 61 392 people across 11 countries, about 6 out of 1000 (0.6%) people met the criteria for bipolar I disorder. a. 0.8 percent. b. 1.5 percent. c. 2.0 percent. *d. 0.6 percent. e. 0.2 percent.

10. What is the approximate percentage of heritability for bipolar disorder? @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. One community-based twin sample that used structured interviews to verify diagnoses obtained a heritability estimate of 93 percent (Kieseppa, Partonen, Haukka, Kaprio, & Lonnqvist, 2004). Adoption studies also confirm the importance of heritability in bipolar disorder (Wender et al., 1986). *a. 93 percent. b. 50 percent. c. 25 percent. d. 75 percent. e. 40 percent.

11. ________ plays a major role in the sensitivity of the reward system in the brain. @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Dopamine plays a major role in the sensitivity of the reward system in the brain, which is believed to guide pleasure, motivation and energy in the context of opportunities to obtain rewards (Depue & Iacono, 1989). *a. Dopamine. b. Serotonin. c. Cortisol. d. Epinephrine. e. GABA. 12. It is thought that the functioning of ________ in the brain might be compromised in people suffering from depression. @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. People with depression are less responsive than other people are to drugs that increase dopamine levels and it is thought that the functioning of dopamine might be lowered in depression (Naranjo, Tremblay, & Busto, 2001). In addition to dopamine, studies have also focused on the sensitivity of dopamine receptors. a. Dopamine. b. GABA. c. Serotonin. *d. Dopamine and serotonin. e. Higher dopamine.

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13. The ________ helps assess how salient and emotionally important a stiumus is. @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. The amygdala helps assess how salient and emotionally important a stimulus is. For example, animals with damage to the amygdala fail to react with fear to threatening stimuli and also fail to respond positively to food. In humans, the amygdala has been shown to respond when people are shown pictures of threatening stimuli. *a. Amygdala. b. Anterior cingulate. c. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex. d. Hippocampus. e. Striatum.

14. Cushing’s syndrome causes: @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. People with Cushing’s syndrome, which causes over secretion of cortisol, frequently experience depressive symptoms. *a. Oversecretion of cortisol. b. Lower secretion of cortisol. c. Lower secretion of dopamine. d. Oversecretion of thyroid. e. (a) and (b).

15. Expressed emotion is defined as: @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Expressed emotion (EE) — defined as a family member’s critical or hostile comments towards or emotional overinvolvement with the person with depression. High EE strongly predicts relapse in depression. a. A friend’s critical or hostile comments towards the person with depression. b. A family member’s kind and caring comments towards the person with depression. *c. A family member’s critical or hostile comments towards or emotional overinvolvement with the person with depression. d. A friend’s kind or caring comments towards the person with depression. e. The expression of emotion by the person with depression.

16. Childhood adversity and recent life events ________ the risk of depression. @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Research strongly suggests that childhood adversity and recent life events can increase the risk for MDD. Because many people do not become depressed after a life event, researchers have studied diatheses that could explain vulnerability to life events. *a. Increases. b. Decreases. c. Neither increases nor decreases. d. No. e. Predicts.

17. Diatheses are ________ that increase the risk for mood disorders. @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Why do some people, but not others, become

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depressed after stressful life events? The obvious answer is that some people must be more vulnerable to stress than others. Disturbances in many of the neurobiological systems we described above could increase reactivity to stress. Neurobiological factors, then, may be diatheses (pre-existing vulnerabilities) that increase risk for mood disorders in the context of other triggers or stressors. *a. Pre-existing vulnerabilities. b. Predictors. c. Risk factors. d. Stressors. e. Life events.

18. Diatheses could be: @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Psychological and cognitive vulnerabilities also appear to be important. The most common models, then, consider both diatheses and stressors. Diatheses could be biological, social or psychological. a. Biological. b. Social. c. Psychological. *d. (a), (b) and (c). e. (a) and (c).

19. Interpersonal diatheses include: @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. The interpersonal diatheses for depression include low social support, high expressed emotion, high need for reassurance and poor social skills. a. Low social support. b. High expressed emotion. c. High need for reassurance. d. Poor social skills. *e. All of the above.

20. A negative triad involves a: @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Aaron Beck (1967) argued that depression is associated with a negative triad: negative views of the self, their world and the future a. Negative view of the self. b. Positive view of the self, world and the future. *c. Negative view of the self, world and the future. d. Positive view of the self. e. All of the above.

21._________ are believed to cause cognitive biases, or tendencies to process information in certain negative ways. @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Once activated, negative schemas are believed to cause cognitive biases, or tendencies to process information in certain negative ways (Kendall & Ingram, 1989). *a. Negative schemas.

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

b. Cognitive distortions. c. Negative thoughts. d. Dysfunctional thoughts. e. Distortions.

22. What is the self-report scale known as DAS? @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. How has Beck’s theory been tested? One widely used instrument in studies of Beck’s theory is a self-report scale called the Dysfunctional Attitudes Scale (DAS). *a. Dysfunctional Attitudes Scale. b. Differential Aptitude Scale. c. Depression Assessment Scale. d. Difference Attitude Scale. e. Dissonance Assessment Scale.

23.____________ is the belief that desirable outcomes will not occur and that there is nothing a person can do to change this. @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. According to hopelessness theory (see figure 3.9; Abramson, Metalsky,& Alloy, 1989), the most important trigger of depression is hopelessness, which is defined by the belief that desirable outcomes will not occur and that there is nothing a person can do to change this. *a. Hopelessness. b. Rumination. c. Helplessness. d. Low self-esteem. e. Inferiority complex.

24. People who believe that negative life events are due to ________ are more prone to depression. @ Learning Outcome 3.2: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. People whose attributional style leads them to believe that negative life events are due to stable and global causes are likely to become hopeless and this hopelessness will set the stage for depression. a. External and unstable causes. *b. Stable and global causes. c. Internal and specific causes. d. External and specific causes. e. External and unstable causes.

25. Interpersonal therapy (IPT) focuses on: @ Learning Outcome 3.3: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. The core of the interpersonal therapy is to examine major interpersonal problems, such as role transitions, interpersonal conflicts, bereavement and interpersonal isolation. a. Interpersonal problems. b. Role transitions. c. Interpersonal conflicts. d. Bereavement and interpersonal isolation.

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*e. All of the above.

26. Which therapy emphasises how our thoughts can influence our moods and actions? @ Learning Outcome 3.3: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. In CBT the client is taught to understand how powerfully our thoughts can influence our moods and actions.

To make this connection between their negative self-talk, mood and behaviour, the client might be asked to complete daily monitoring homework that involves recording their thoughts whenever they experience a negative mood. a. Interpersonal therapy (IPT). b. Behaviour therapy (BT). c. Mindfulness meditation. d. Acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT). *e. Cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT).

27. Third wave cognitive therapies include: @ Learning Outcome 3.3: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Third wave cognitive therapies such as mindfulness-based cognitive therapy (MBCT), acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT) and dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) are increasing in popularity a. Mindfulness meditation. b. Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy (MBCT). c. Acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT). d. Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT). *e. All of the above.

28. Behavioural activation technique is used in _______ therapy. @ Learning Outcome 3.3: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Behavioural activation (BA) is a technique used in CBT in which people are encouraged to engage in pleasant activities that might bolster positive thoughts about one’s self and life. a. Interpersonal therapy (IPT). b. Emotion-focused therapy (EFT). c. Third wave cognitive therapy. *d. Cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT). e. All of the above.

29. Which therapy for bipolar disorder is designed to stabilise daily rhythms and avoid disruptions to the circadian system? @ Learning Outcome 3.3: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Interpersonal and social rhythm therapy (IPSRT) was designed to stabilise daily rhythms and thus avoid disruptions to the circadian system which can trigger episodes of mania. a. Interpersonal therapy (IPT). b. Emotion-focused therapy (EFT). c. Third wave cognitive therapy. *d. Interpersonal and social rhythm therapy (IPSRT). e. Cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT).

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30. Biological treatment of mood disorders include: @ Learning Outcome 3.3: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. A variety of biological therapies are used to treat depression and mania. The two major biological treatments are electroconvulsive therapy and drugs. We will also briefly discuss transcranial magnetic stimulation, a technique that is approved by the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) a. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). b. Drugs. c. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS). d. (a) and (b). *e. (a), (b) and (c).

31. Antidepressant drugs include: @ Learning Outcome 3.3: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. There are four major categories of antidepressant drugs: monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), tricyclic antidepressants, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and serotonin noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). a. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) and Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs). b. SSRIs and Serotonin Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs). c. Tricyclic antidepressants. *d. MAOIs, SSRIs, SNRIs and tricyclic antidepressants. d. MAOIs. 32. Which technique involves implanting electrodes into the brain? @ Learning Outcome 3.3: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. One newer approach is deep brain stimulation, a technique that involves implanting electrodes into the brain (Mayberg et al., 2005). By applying a small current to the electrodes, activity within that brain region can be manipulated. *a. Deep brain stimulation. b. Electroconvulsive therapy. c. Transcranial magnetic stimulation. d. Electro encephalogram. e. All of the above.

33. ECT is an effective treatment when: @ Learning Outcome 3.3: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Electroconvulsive therapy is an effective treatment for depression that has not responded to medication. ECT is more powerful than antidepressant medications for the treatment of depression, particularly when psychotic features are present (Sackeim & Lisanby, 2001). a. The patient is not cooperative. b. The patient’s depression has subsided. c. The patient has not responded to medication. d. Psychotic features are present. *e. (c) and (d).

34. Common side effects of ECT include:

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

@ Learning Outcome 3.3: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Most professionals acknowledge that people undergoing ECT face some risks of short-term confusion and memory loss. a. Headaches. b. Vomiting. *c. Short-term confusion and memory loss. d. Long-term memory loss. e. Stomach pains.

35. Which type of ECT has fewer cognitive side effects? @ Learning Outcome 3.3: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Using unilateral shock and muscle relaxants has reduced undesirable side effects. Unilateral ECT produces fewer cognitive side effects than bilateral ECT does. *a. Unilateral ECT. b. Bilateral ECT. c. (a) and (b). d. Brain stimulation. e. MRI. 36. In Australia, the overall suicide rate is about: @ Learning Outcome 3.4: Explain the epidemiology and risk factors associated with suicide, as well as methods for preventing suicide. In Australia, the overall suicide rate is about 12.6 per 100 000 in a given year (ABS, 2016a). *a. 12.6 per 100 000 in a given year. b. 20 per 100 000 in a given year. c. 30 per 100 000 in a given year. d. 15 per 100 000 in a given year. e. 5 per 100 000 in a given year.

37. Who is at greater risk of death by suicide? @ Learning Outcome 3.4: Explain the epidemiology and risk factors associated with suicide, as well as methods for preventing suicide. Male gender, older age and Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander ethnicity are associated with greater risk of death by suicide. *a. Older men. b. Adolescent men. c. Older women. d. Adolescent women. e. Middle-aged men.

38. Behaviour intended to injure oneself without the intent to die is called: @ Learning Outcome 3.4: Explain the epidemiology and risk factors associated with suicide, as well as methods for preventing suicide. Suicidal ideation: thoughts of killing oneself; suicide attempt: behaviour intended to kill oneself; suicide: death from deliberate self-injury; non-suicidal self-injury: behaviours intended to injure oneself without intent to die. a. Suicidal ideation. b. Suicide attempt. c. Self-abuse.

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*d. Non-suicidal self-injury. e. Self-harm attempt.

39. Death from deliberate self-injury is ________. @ Learning Outcome 3.4: Explain the epidemiology and risk factors associated with suicide, as well as methods for preventing suicide. Suicidal ideation: thoughts of killing oneself; suicide attempt: behaviour intended to kill oneself; suicide: death from deliberate self-injury; non-suicidal self-injury: behaviours intended to injure oneself without intent to die. a. Suicidal ideation. b. Suicide attempt. *c. Suicide. d. Homicide. e. Infanticide.

40. Poor problem-solving skills, hopelessness and impulsivity are: @ Learning Outcome 3.4: Explain the epidemiology and risk factors associated with suicide, as well as methods for preventing suicide. Psychological factors implicated in suicidality include poor problem-solving skills and hopelessness, with impulsivity said to be involved in the switch from thinking about suicide to acting on suicidal thoughts. a. Social factors implicated in suicidality. b. Biological factors implicated in suicidality. c. Medical factors implicated in suicidality. *d. Psychological factors implicated in suicidality. e. Spiritual factors implicated in suicidality.

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Chapter 3 Mood disorders 11

Test Bank to accompany

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

by Kring et al.

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

Chapter 4 Anxiety, obsessive-compulsive and trauma-related disorders 1. Which of the following is not classed as a major anxiety disorder in DSM-5? @ Learning Outcome 4.1: Describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders. In this section, we examine the major anxiety disorders included in DSM-5: specific phobias, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, agoraphobia and generalised anxiety disorder. Later in the chapter, obsessive-compulsive disorder and the trauma-related disorders are explored. These have a good deal in common with the anxiety disorders but are also distinct in some important ways. a. Specific phobia. b. Social anxiety disorder. c. Panic disorder. *d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder. e. Generalised anxiety disorder.

2. Which of the following is not correctly matched? @ Learning Outcome 4.1: Describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders. Overview of the major DSM-5 anxiety disorders. Specific phobia — fear of objects or situations that is out of proportion to any real danger. Social anxiety disorder — fear of unfamiliar people or social scrutiny. Panic disorder — anxiety about recurrent panic attacks. Agoraphobia — anxiety about being in places where escaping or getting help would be difficult if anxiety symptoms occurred. Generalised anxiety disorder — uncontrollable worry. a. Specific phobia — fear of objects or situations that is out of proportion to any real danger. b. Social anxiety disorder — fear of unfamiliar people. c. Panic disorder — anxiety about recurrent panic attacks. d. Agoraphobia — anxiety about being in places where escaping would be difficult. *e. Generalised anxiety disorder — fear of rejection.

3. ____________ is characterised by recurrent panic attacks that are unrelated to specific situations. @ Learning Outcome 4.1: Describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders. Overview of the major DSM-5 anxiety disorders. Panic disorder is characterised by recurrent panic attacks that are unrelated to specific situations. often seek cardiac tests because they are frightened by changes in their heart rate a. Specific phobia. b. Social anxiety disorder. *c. Panic disorder. d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder. e. Generalised anxiety disorder.

4. A feeling of being outside one’s body is called _________. @ Learning Outcome 4.1: Describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders. Overview of the major DSM-5 anxiety disorders. Other symptoms include depersonalisation (a feeling of being outside one’s body) and derealisation (a feeling of the world not being real). *a. Depersonalisation. b. Derealisation. © John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

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c. Levitation. d. Dissociation. e. Meditation.

5. Which of the following is not a symptom of generalised anxiety disorder? @ Learning Outcome 4.1: Describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders. Overview of the major DSM-5 anxiety disorders. The anxiety and worry are associated with at least three (or one in children) of the following: restlessness or feeling keyed up or on edge; easily fatigued; difficulty concentrating or mind going blank; irritability; muscle tension; sleep disturbance. a. Excessive anxiety and worry. b. Easily fatigued. c. Difficulty concentrating. d. Sleep disturbance. *e. Intrusive thoughts.

6. Common comorbid conditions with anxiety disorders include ___________. @ Learning Outcome 4.2: Describe how the anxiety disorders tend to co-occur and understand how gender and culture influence the prevalence of anxiety disorders. More specifically, about 60 percent of people in treatment for anxiety disorders meet the diagnostic criteria for major depression (Brown et al., 2001). We discuss this overlap in focus on discovery 3.4. Other conditions commonly comorbid with anxiety disorders include substance abuse (Jacobsen, Southwick, & Kosten, 2001) and personality disorders (Johnson, Weissman, & Klerman, 1992 a. Major depression. b. Substance abuse. c. Personality disorders. d. (a) and (b). *e. (a), (b), and (c).

7. About___________ percent of people with anxiety disorders will experience major depression during their life. @ Learning Outcome 4.2: Describe how the anxiety disorders tend to co-occur and understand how gender and culture influence the prevalence of anxiety disorders. About 60 percent of people with anxiety disorders will experience major depression during their life. a. 40 percent. *b. 60 percent. c. 50 percent. d. 70 percent. e. 30 percent.

8. ___________ influences the focus of fears and the way that symptoms are expressed. @ Learning Outcome 4.2: Describe how the anxiety disorders tend to co-occur and understand how gender and culture influence the prevalence of anxiety disorders. Culture influences the focus of fears, the ways that symptoms are expressed and even the prevalence of different anxiety disorders. a. Intelligence. b. Personality. c. Attitude. d. Aptitude.

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*e. Culture.

9. Fear and anxiety appear to be related to a set of structures in the brain called the ___________. @ Learning Outcome 4.3: Recognise commonalities in aetiology across the anxiety disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Fear and anxiety appear to be related to a set of structures in the brain called the fear circuit. a. Amygdala. *b. Fear circuit. c. Vulnerable area. d. (a) and (b). e. (a), (b), and (c).

10. What are the brain areas particularly involved in anxiety disorders? @ Learning Outcome 4.3: Recognise commonalities in aetiology across the anxiety disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Fear and anxiety appear to be related to a set of structures in the brain called the fear circuit. The amygdala and medial prefrontal cortex are particularly involved in anxiety disorders. a. Hippocampus. b. Amygdala. c. Medial prefrontal cortex. *d. (b) and (c). e. (a), (b), and (c).

11. Infants and toddlers showing ______________ are at greater risk of developing anxiety disorders during their lifetime. @ Learning Outcome 4.3: Recognise commonalities in aetiology across the anxiety disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Infants and toddlers showing behavioural inhibition — high anxiety about novel situations and people — are at greater risk of developing anxiety disorders during their lifetime. a. Introversion. *b. Behavioural inhibition. c. Neuroticism. d. Openness. d. (a), (c) and (d).

12. What are cognitive factors of anxiety disorders? @ Learning Outcome 4.3: Recognise commonalities in aetiology across the anxiety disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Researchers have focused on several separate cognitive aspects of anxiety disorders. Here, we concentrate on three: sustained negative beliefs about the future, a perceived lack of control and attention to signs of threat. a. Sustained negative beliefs about the future. b. Perceived lack of control. c. Attention to signs of threat. *d. All of the above. e. (b) and (c).

13. Evolution may have ‘prepared’ our fear circuit to learn fear of certain stimuli very quickly and automatically; hence, this type of learning is called ___________.

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@ Learning Outcome 4.3: Recognise commonalities in aetiology across the anxiety disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Researchers have suggested that during the evolution of our species, people learned to react strongly to stimuli that could be life threatening, such as heights, snakes and angry humans (Seligman, 1971). Evolution may have ‘prepared’ our fear circuit to learn fear of certain stimuli very quickly and automatically; hence, this type of learning is called prepared learning. a. Non-prepared learning. b. Rote learning. *c. Prepared learning. d. Conditioned learning. e. Modelling.

14. People with ___________ disorders tend to have unrealistically negative beliefs about the consequences of their social behaviours. @ Learning Outcome 4.3: Recognise commonalities in aetiology across the anxiety disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Theory focuses on several different ways in which cognitive processes might intensify social anxiety (Clark & Wells, 1995). First, people with social anxiety disorders appear to have unrealistically negative beliefs about the consequences of their social behaviours — for example, they may believe that others will reject them if they blush or pause while speaking. a. Specific phobia. *b. Social anxiety. c. Panic. d. Obsessive-compulsive. e. Generalised anxiety.

15. The locus coeruleus is especially important in which disorder? @ Learning Outcome 4.3: Recognise commonalities in aetiology across the anxiety disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. We have seen that the fear circuit appears to play an important role in many of the anxiety disorders. Now we will see that a particular part of the fear circuit is especially important in panic disorder: the locus coeruleus. a. Specific phobia. b. Social anxiety. *c. Panic. d. Obsessive-compulsive. e. Generalised anxiety.

16. Classical conditioning of panic attacks in response to bodily sensations is known as ___________. @ Learning Outcome 4.3: Recognise commonalities in aetiology across the anxiety disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Theory suggests that panic attacks are classically conditioned responses to either the situations that trigger anxiety or the internal bodily sensations of arousal (Bouton, Mineka, & Barlow, 2001).

Classical conditioning of panic attacks in response to bodily sensations has been called interoceptive conditioning. a. Operant conditioning. b. Avoidance conditioning. c. Behavioural conditioning. *d. Interoceptive conditioning.

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e. Classical conditioning.

17. Catastrophic misinterpretation of bodily cues occur in which disorder? @ Learning Outcome 4.3: Recognise commonalities in aetiology across the anxiety disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Catastrophic misinterpretation of bodily cues occur in panic disorder. a. Specific. b. Social anxiety. *c. Panic. d. Obsessive-compulsive. e. Generalised anxiety.

18. The fear-of-fear hypothesis is the principal cognitive model for the aetiology of _______________. @ Learning Outcome 4.3: Recognise commonalities in aetiology across the anxiety disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. The principal cognitive model for the aetiology of agoraphobia is the fear-of-fear hypothesis (Goldstein & Chambless, 1978), which suggests that agoraphobia is driven by negative thoughts about the consequences of experiencing anxiety in public. a. Specific phobia. b. Social anxiety disorder. c. Panic disorder. *d. Agoraphobia. e. Generalised anxiety disorder.

19. The excessive worry of _________ disorder may be an attempt to avoid intense emotions. @ Learning Outcome 4.3: Recognise commonalities in aetiology across the anxiety disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. The excessive worry of GAD may be an attempt to avoid intense emotions. a. Specific phobia. b. Social anxiety. c. Panic. d. Agoraphobia. *e. Generalised anxiety.

20. Exposure therapy is the most validated psychological treatment for ______________ disorder. @ Learning Outcome 4.4: Describe treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders.

Exposure treatment is the most validated psychological treatment for anxiety disorders. a. Specific phobia. b. Social anxiety. c. Panic. d. Agoraphobia. *e. All of the above.

21. The most effective treatment for panic disorders is: @ Learning Outcome 4.4: Describe treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders.

Cognitive strategies, such as teaching a person to focus less on internal thoughts and

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sensations, are a helpful addition to exposure treatment. The most effective treatments for panic disorder include exposure to somatic sensations, along with cognitive techniques to challenge catastrophic misinterpretations of those symptoms. Cognitive–behavioural treatment of GAD can include relaxation training, strategies to help a person tolerate uncertainty and face core fears, and specific tools to combat tendencies to worry. a. Cognitive–behavioural treatment. b. Exposure to somatic sensations. c. Relaxation training. *d. All of the above. e. Acceptance–commitment therapy (ACT).

22. Common medications to help treat anxiety disorders are _________. @ Learning Outcome 4.4: Describe treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Two types of medications are most commonly used for the treatment of anxiety disorders: benzodiazepines (e.g., Valium and Xanax) and antidepressants, including tricyclic antidepressants, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and serotonin–norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). a. Benzodiazepines. b. Tricyclics. c. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). d. Serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). *e. All of the above.

23. Which of the following is related to obsessive-compulsive disorder? @ Learning Outcome 4.5: Define the symptoms and epidemiology of the obsessivecompulsive and related disorders and the trauma-related disorders. Body dysmorphic disorder and hoarding disorder share symptoms of repetitive thoughts and behaviours. a. Generalised anxiety disorder. b. Body dysmorphic disorder. c. Hoarding disorder. d All of the above. *e. (b) and (c).

24. People with obsessive-compulsive disorder are prone to _________________. @ Learning Outcome 4.5: Define the symptoms and epidemiology of the obsessivecompulsive and related disorders and the trauma-related disorders. In addition to obsessions and compulsions, people with OCD are prone to extreme doubts, procrastination and indecision. a. Extreme doubts. b. Procrastination. c. Indecision. d. a and b. *e. (a), (b) and (c).

25. People with body dysmorphic disorder and hoarding disorder often have a history of _________ disorder. @ Learning Outcome 4.5: Define the symptoms and epidemiology of the obsessivecompulsive and related disorders and the trauma-related disorders. People with BDD and hoarding disorder often have a history of OCD. Beyond this, the obsessive-compulsive and

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related disorders are commonly comorbid with anxiety disorders and major depressive disorder. OCD and BDD are often comorbid with substance abuse. *a. Obsessive-compulsive. b. Panic. c. Generalised anxiety. d. Borderline personality. e. Histrionic personality.

26. Obsessive-compulsive and related disorders are commonly comorbid with what other disorder? @ Learning Outcome 4.5: Define the symptoms and epidemiology of the obsessivecompulsive and related disorders and the trauma-related disorders. People with BDD and hoarding disorder often have a history of OCD. Beyond this, the obsessive-compulsive and related disorders are commonly comorbid with anxiety disorders and major depressive disorder. OCD and BDD are often comorbid with substance abuse. a. Anxiety disorders. b. Major depressive. c. Substance abuse. d. Borderline personality. *e. (a), (b) and (c).

27. Which closely related areas of the brain are unusually active in people with obsessivecompulsive disorder? @ Learning Outcome 4.6: Describe the commonalities in the aetiology of obsessivecompulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Brain imaging studies indicate that three closely related areas of the brain are unusually active in people with OCD: the orbitofrontal cortex, caudate nucleus and anterior cingulate. a. Orbitofrontal cortex. b. Caudate nucleus. c. Anterior cingulate. d. Amygdala. *e. (a), (b) and (c).

28. Which of the following is not relevant to obsessive-compulsive disorder? @ Learning Outcome 4.6: Describe the commonalities in the aetiology of obsessivecompulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. There is no absolute signal from the environment.

Rather, most of us stop when we have the sense of ‘that is enough’. Yedasentience is defined as this subjective feeling of knowing that you have thought enough, cleaned enough or in other ways done what you should to prevent chaos and danger from low-level threats in the environment (Woody & Szechtman, 2011). As a consequence of these two factors, they are more likely to attempt thought suppression (Salkovskis, 1996). Consistent with this theory, people with OCD report engaging in thought suppression more than others do (Amir, Cashman, & Foa, 1997). a. Thought suppression. *b. Arousal. c. Yedasentience. d. Anxiety. e. Avoidance.

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29. __________ are the most commonly used medications for the obsessive-compulsive and related disorders? @ Learning Outcome 4.7: Describe the medication and psychological treatments for the obsessive-compulsive and related disorders. Antidepressants are the most commonly used medications for the obsessive-compulsive and related disorders. *a. Antidepressants. b. Analgesics. c. Benzodiazepines. d. Opioids. e. All of the above.

30. The most widely used psychological treatment for the obsessive-compulsive and related disorders is __________. @ Learning Outcome 4.7: Describe the medication and psychological treatments for the obsessive-compulsive and related disorders. The most widely used psychological treatment for the obsessive-compulsive and related disorders is exposure and response prevention (ERP). *a. Exposure and response prevention (ERP). b. Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT). c. Cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT). d. Acceptance–commitment therapy. e. Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy.

31. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and acute stress disorder are diagnosed only when a person develops symptoms after a ____________. @ Learning Outcome 4.8: Summarise how the nature and severity of the trauma, as well as biological and psychological risk factors, contribute to whether trauma-related disorders, such as post-traumatic stress disorder, develop. Post-traumatic stress disorder and acute stress disorder are diagnosed only when a person develops symptoms after a traumatic event. *a. Traumatic event. b. Natural disaster. c. Bereavement. d. (a) and (b). e. (a) and (c).

32. Which of the following is not a symptom of PTSD? @ Learning Outcome 4.8: Summarise how the nature and severity of the trauma, as well as biological and psychological risk factors, contribute to whether trauma-related disorders, such as post-traumatic stress disorder, develop. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) entails an extreme response to a severe stressor, including recurrent memories of the trauma, avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma, negative emotions and thoughts, and symptoms of increased arousal. a. Recurrent memories or intrusively re-experiencing. b. Avoidance. *c. Repetitive actions or behaviours. d. Negative emotions and thoughts. e. Increased arousal or hypervigilance.

33. Acute stress disorder diagnosis is only applicable when the symptoms last for ___.

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@ Learning Outcome 4.8: Summarise how the nature and severity of the trauma, as well as biological and psychological risk factors, contribute to whether trauma-related disorders, such as post-traumatic stress disorder, develop. Like PTSD, acute stress disorder (ASD) is diagnosed when symptoms occur after a trauma. The symptoms of ASD are fairly similar to those of PTSD, but the duration is shorter; this diagnosis is only applicable when the symptoms last for three days to one month. a. Thirty days to three months. *b. Three days to one month. c. Four days to two months. d. Eight days to six months. e. Thirty days to six months.

34. A smaller _________ brain area may be related to the risk of developing PTSD. @ Learning Outcome 4.8: Summarise how the nature and severity of the trauma, as well as biological and psychological risk factors, contribute to whether trauma-related disorders, such as post-traumatic stress disorder, develop. We noted that PTSD appears to be related to dysregulation of the fear circuit, as with anxiety disorders discussed earlier. PTSD appears to be uniquely related to the function of the hippocampus. (Shin & Liberzon, 2010). Brainimaging studies show that the volume of the hippocampus is smaller among people with PTSD than among those who do not have the condition (Bremneret al., 2003). *a. Hippocampus. b. Amygdala. c. Medial prefrontal cortex. d. Hypothalamus. e. Thalamus.

35. Which part of the brain comprises the fear circuit? @ Learning Outcome 4.8: Summarise how the nature and severity of the trauma, as well as biological and psychological risk factors, contribute to whether trauma-related disorders, such as post-traumatic stress disorder, develop. PTSD appears to be related to dysregulation of the fear circuit (hippocampus, amygdala and medial prefrontal cortex) as with anxiety disorders discussed earlier. a. Hippocampus. b. Amygdala. c. Medial prefrontal cortex. b. (b) and (c). *e. (a), (b) and (c).

36. What coping strategies may leads to post-traumatic stress disorder? @ Learning Outcome 4.8: Summarise how the nature and severity of the trauma, as well as biological and psychological risk factors, contribute to whether trauma-related disorders develop. Several types of studies suggest that people who cope with a trauma by trying to avoid thinking about it are more likely than others to develop PTSD. *a. Avoidance. b. Problem solving. c. Emotional coping. d. Task-oriented coping. e. None of the above.

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37. Two protective factors that may help a person cope with severe trauma more adaptively are ______________. @ Learning Outcome 4.8: Summarise how the nature and severity of the trauma, as well as biological and psychological risk factors, contribute to whether trauma-related disorders develop. Two protective factors that seem particularly important are high intelligence (Breslau, Lucia, & Alvarado, 2006; Kremen et al., 2007) and strong social support. a. Below average intelligence and strong social support. b. High intelligence and low social support. *c. High intelligence and strong social support. d. Personality and attitude. e. Social and cultural.

38. Which class of antidepressant has received the most support as a treatment? @ Learning Outcome 4.9: Describe the medication and psychological treatments for the trauma-related disorders. One class of antidepressant, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), has received strong support as a treatment. a. Tricyclic. *b. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). c. Serotonin–norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). d. Benzodiazapines. e. None of the above.

39. Trials suggest that _____________ treatment provides more relief from symptoms of PTSD than supportive psychotherapy or medication. @ Learning Outcome 4.9: Describe the medication and psychological treatments for the trauma-related disorders. Randomised controlled trials suggest that exposure treatment provides more relief from the symptoms of PTSD than supportive unstructured psychotherapy (Powers, Halpern, Ferenschak, Gillihan, & Foa, 2010) or medication (Bradley, Greene, Russ, Dutra, & Westen, 2005). a. Cognitive behaviour therapy. *b. Exposure treatment. c. Interpersonal therapy. d. Behaviour therapy. e. Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR).

40. Visualising feared scenes for extended periods of time is called ___________. @ Learning Outcome 4.9: Describe the medication and psychological treatments for the trauma-related disorders. Imaginal exposure: treatment for anxiety disorders that involves visualising feared scenes for extended periods of time; frequently used in the treatment of post-traumatic stress disorder when in vivo exposure to the initial trauma cannot be conducted. a. Graded exposure. *b. Imaginal exposure. c. Vivo exposure. d. In vivo exposure. e. All of the above.

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Test Bank to accompany

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

by Kring et al.

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

Chapter 5 Dissociative disorders, and somatic symptom and related disorders 1. Which of the following is not a type of dissociative disorder? @ Learning Outcome 5.1: Summarise the symptoms, aetiological models and available treatments for dissociative disorders. Diagnoses of dissociative disorders DSM-5: Depersonalisation/derealisation disorder; dissociative amnesia, dissociative identity disorder (DID); other specified dissociative disorder — (subclinical) presentation of DID; dissociative states resulting from brainwashing or thought reform; mixed dissociative symptoms; dissociative trance, dissociative stupor or coma, and Ganser’s syndrome.) a. Depersonalisation/derealisation disorder. b. Dissociative amnesia. *c. Borderline personality disorder. d. Dissociative identity disorder. e. Ganser’s syndrome.

2. A person experiencing disruptions of consciousness is suffering from a ________. @ Learning Outcome 5.1: Summarise the symptoms, aetiological models and available treatments for dissociative disorders. In the dissociative disorders, the person experiences disruptions of consciousness — he or she loses track of self-awareness, memory and identity *a. Dissociative disorder. b. Depression. c. Delirium. d. Dementia. e. Substance withdrawal.

3. In the somatic and related disorders, a person complains of bodily symptoms due to ________ factors?. @ Learning Outcome 5.1: Summarise the symptoms, aetiological models and available treatments for dissociative disorders. In the somatic symptom and related disorders, the person complains of bodily symptoms that suggest a physical defect or dysfunction, sometimes dramatic in nature. For some of the somatic symptom and related disorders, no physiological basis can be found, and for others, the psychological reaction to the symptoms appears excessive. a. Biological. b. Neurological. c. Unconscious. *d. Psychological. e. Evolutionary.

4. Which model is based on the premise that dissociation is a reaction to traumatic stress? @ Learning Outcome 5.1: Summarise the symptoms, aetiological models and available treatments for dissociative disorders. The trauma model is based on the premise that dissociation is a reaction to traumatic stress or severe psychological adversity. a. Psychodynamic model. *b. Trauma model. c. Fantasy model. © John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

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e. Neurobiological model. e. Aetiological model.

5. Depersonalisation can occur during or as a result of ___________. @ Learning Outcome 5.1: Summarise the symptoms, aetiological models and available treatments for dissociative disorders. Depersonalisation is also relatively common during panic attacks (Marquez, Segui, Garcia, Canet, & Ortiz, 2001) and from using marijuana, hallucinogens, MDMA or ketamine (Simeon,2009). a. Panic attacks. b. Using psychoactive drugs (e.g. marijuana, hallucinogens, MDMA, ketamine). c. Depression. d. (a), (b) and (c). *e. (a) and (b).

6. What other disorders are often comorbid with dissociative disorders? @ Learning Outcome 5.1: Summarise the symptoms, aetiological models and available treatments for dissociative disorders. Comorbid personality disorders are frequent, and during their lifetime, about 90 percent of people with this disorder will experience anxiety disorders and depression (Simeon et al., 2003). a. Personality disorders. b. Anxiety disorders. c. Depression. *d. (a), (b) and (c). *e (a) and (b).

7. What does DES stand for?. @ Learning Outcome 5.1: Summarise the symptoms, aetiological models and available treatments for dissociative disorders. Dissociative Experiences Scale (DES), *a. Dissociative Experiences Scale (DES). b. Depersonalisation Experiences Scale. c. Derealisation Experiences scale. d. Depression Experiences scale. e. None of the above.

8. The person with ___________ is unable to recall important personal information? @ Learning Outcome 5.1: Summarise the symptoms, aetiological models and available treatments for dissociative disorders. The person with dissociative amnesia is unable to recall important personal information, usually information about some traumatic experience. The holes in memory are too extensive to be explained by ordinary forgetfulness. a. Borderline personality disorder. b. Depersonalisation. *c. Dissociative amnesia. d. Ganser’s syndrome. e. Somatic symptom disorder.

9. Physical or sexual abuse in childhood is regarded as a major factor in the development of ___________. @ Learning Outcome 5.1: Summarise the symptoms, aetiological models and available treatments for dissociative disorders. Physical or sexual abuse in childhood is regarded as a major factor in the development of dissociative disorders.

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

a. Anxiety disorder. b. Bipolar disorder. c. Depression. *d. Dissociative disorder. e. All of the above.

10. Which disorder is characterised by physical symptoms that cannot be fully explained by, any underlying general medical condition? @ Learning Outcome 5.2: Summarise the symptoms, aetiology and available treatments for somatic symptom and related disorders. Somatic symptom and related disorders are characterised by physical symptoms that are inconsistent with, or cannot be fully explained by, any underlying general medical or neurologic condition, and are associated with significant distress and impairment including abnormal thoughts, feelings and behaviours in response to these symptoms rather than the absence of a medical explanation for somatic symptoms (APA, 2013). *a. Somatic symptom and related disorders. b. Generalised anxiety disorder. c. Bipolar disorder. d. Depression. e. Dissociative identity disorder.

11. What factors may contribute to somatic symptom and related disorders? @ Learning Outcome 5.2: Summarise the symptoms, aetiology and available treatments for somatic symptom and related disorders. A number of factors may contribute to somatic symptom and related disorders, including genetic and biological vulnerability (e.g., increased sensitivity to pain), learning (e.g., attention obtained from illness, lack of reinforcement of non - somatic expressions of distress), and cultural and social norms that devalue and stigmatise psychological suffering as compared with physical suffering. a. Genetic and biological vulnerability (e.g. increased sensitivity to pain). b. Malingering. c. Learning (e.g. attention obtained from illness). d. Cultural and social norms that stigmatise psychological suffering. *e. (a), (c) and (d).

12. In infancy ________ attachment styles leads to somatic symptoms in adulthood. @ Learning Outcome 5.2: Summarise the symptoms, aetiology and available treatments for somatic symptom and related disorders. The quality of the relationship the person had with their primary caregiver in infancy is also predictive of somatisation in adulthood with individuals that have fearful or preoccupied attachment styles reporting significantly more somatic symptoms than individuals with a secure attachment style. a. Secure attachment. *b. Fearful or preoccupied attachment. c. Insecure attachment. d. Avoidant attachment. e. (c) and (d).

13. Somatic symptom and related disorders tend to co-occur with _____________ disorders? @ Learning Outcome 5.2: Summarise the symptoms, aetiology and available treatments for somatic symptom and related disorders. Somatic symptom and related disorders tend to cooccur with anxiety disorders, mood disorders, substance use disorders and personality

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disorders (Kirmayer, Robbins, & Paris, 1994) and in dissociative disorders (Brown et al., 2007; Dell, 2006). For instance, an Australian study found 71 percent of individuals with DID met the diagnostic criteria for somatisation disorder, which is now classified as somatic symptom disorder (Middleton & Butler, 1998). a. Anxiety disorders. b. Mood disorders. c. Substance use disorders. d. Personality disorders. *e. All of the above.

14. Somatic symptom and related disorders are more common among _____________. @ Learning Outcome 5.2: Summarise the symptoms, aetiology and available treatments for somatic symptom and related disorders. Somatic symptom and related disorders also appear to be more common in women than men (Demyttenaere et al., 2004). a. Men. *b. Women. c. Children. d. Adolescents. e. The elderly.

15. People with somatic symptom and related disorders appear to have increased activity in which region of the brain? @ Learning Outcome 5.2: Summarise the symptoms, aetiology and available treatments for somatic symptom and related disorders. People with somatic symptom and related disorders appear to have increased activity in brain regions implicated in evaluating the unpleasantness of body sensations: the rostral anterior insula, the anterior cingulate and the somatosensory cortex. The anterior cingulate is also involved in depression and anxiety. a. The rostral anterior insula. b. The anterior cingulate. c. The somatosensory cortex. d. (b) and (c). *e. (a), (b) and (c).

16. Which of the following cognitive variables is important in somatic symptom and related disorders? @ Learning Outcome 5.2: Summarise the symptoms, aetiology and available treatments for somatic symptom and related disorders. Once a somatic symptom develops, two cognitive variables appear important: attention to body sensations and interpretation of those sensations. a. Attention to body sensations. b. Interpretation of those sensations. c. Hypervigilance. *d. (a) and (b). e. (a), (b) and (c).

17. ___________ can help patients recognise links between their negative moods and somatic symptoms. @ Learning Outcome 5.2: Summarise the symptoms, aetiology and available treatments for somatic symptom and related disorders. Psychoeducation programs can help patients recognise links between their negative moods and somatic symptoms (Morley, 1997).

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Techniques such as relaxation training and various forms of cognitive–behavioural treatment have proven useful in reducing depression and anxiety, and these reductions in turn lead to reductions in somatic symptoms (Payne & Blanchard, 1995). a. Relaxation training. b. Cognitive–behaviour therapy. *c. Psychoeducation programs. d. Biofeedback therapy. e. All of the above.

18. Cognitive–behaviour techniques for somatic symptom and related disorders include ________. @ Learning Outcome 5.2: Summarise the symptoms, aetiology and available treatments for somatic symptom and related disorders. Techniques include helping people (1) identify and change the emotions that trigger their somatic concerns, (2) change their cognitions regarding their somatic symptoms and (3) change their behaviours to stop playing the role of a sick person and to gain more reinforcement for engaging in other types of social interactions (Looper & Kirmayer, 2002). More specific information on the treatment of the specific disorders is listed in the relevant section below. a. Identify and change the emotions that trigger their somatic concerns. b. Change their cognitions regarding their somatic symptoms. c. Change their behaviours to stop playing the role of a sick person. d. To gain more reinforcement for engaging in other types of social interactions. *e. All of the above.

19. In _________ disorder, people intentionally produce physical or psychological symptoms to assume the role of a patient. @ Learning Outcome 5.2: Summarise the symptoms, aetiology and available treatments for somatic symptom and related disorders. In factitious disorder, people intentionally produce physical or psychological symptoms to assume the role of a patient. Factitious disorder behaviours include providing a false medical history; simulating physical symptoms; modifying physiology to create physical signs and inducing physical illness. *a. Factitious disorder. b. Malingering. c. Munchausen-by-proxy. d. Conversion disorder. e. Generalised anxiety disorder.

20. What mode or modes of therapy are effective in treating somatic symptom and related disorders? @ Learning Outcome 5.2: Summarise the symptoms, aetiology and available treatments for somatic symptom and related disorders. A review of the effectiveness of cognitive– behavioural therapy (CBT) for treating somatic illness and related syndromes found it was effective in reducing physical symptoms in 71 percent of studies, yet was only effective in reducing psychological distress in 8 percent of studies. Behavioural therapy, relaxation therapy, biofeedback and antidepressants, even in the absence of depression, have been demonstrated to be beneficial (Kroenke & Swindle, 2000). a. Cognitive–behaviour therapy. b. Biofeedback therapy. c. Behavioural therapy. d. Relaxation therapy.

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

*e. All of the above.

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Chapter 5 Dissociative disorders, and somatic symptom… 7

Test Bank to accompany

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

by Kring et al.

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

Chapter 6 Schizophrenia 1. Which of the following is a symptom of schizophrenia? @ Learning Outcome 6.1: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative and disorganised symptoms. Schizophrenia is a disorder characterised by faulty perception and beliefs; a change in levels of motivation and emotional expressiveness; disordered thinking and behaviour; and changes in cognition. a. Faulty perception and beliefs. b. Change in levels of motivation and emotional expressiveness. c. Disordered thinking and behaviour. d. Changes in cognition. *e. All of the above.

2. Which of the following domains are symptoms of schizophrenia grouped into? @ Learning Outcome 6.1: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative and disorganised symptoms. Schizophrenia symptoms can be grouped in a number of ways, but are perhaps best described in five broad domains: positive, negative, disorganised, and cognitive and mood/anxiety. a. Positive symptoms. b. Negative symptoms. c. Disorganised symptoms. d. Cognitive and mood/anxiety symptoms. *e. All of the above.

3. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include _________. @ Learning Outcome 6.1: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative and disorganised symptoms. Positive symptoms comprise excesses and distortions, and include hallucinations and delusions. For the most part, acute episodes of schizophrenia are characterised by positive symptoms. a. Hallucinations and delusions. b. Excesses and distortions. c. Poverty of speech. *d. (a) and (b). e. (a), (b) and (c).

4. __________ are beliefs contrary to reality and firmly held in spite of disconfirming evidence. @ Learning Outcome 6.1: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative and disorganised symptoms. Delusions, which are beliefs contrary to reality and firmly held in spite of disconfirming evidence, are common positive symptoms of schizophrenia. a. Hallucinations. *b. Delusions. c. Poverty of speech. d. Apathy. e. Alogia.

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5. Schizophrenia is a ________ disorder with a significant __________ input. @ Learning Outcome 6.2: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioural and molecular, in the aetiology of schizophrenia. Given its complexity, a number of causal factors are likely to contribute to schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is a polygenetic disorder with a significant environmental input. The genetic evidence is strong, with much of it coming from family, twin and adoption studies. *a. Polygenetic; environmental. b. Behavioural; biological. c. Monogenetic; biological. d. Neurological; psychological. e. None of the above.

6. Children with a biological parent with schizophrenia are more likely to __________. @ Learning Outcome 6.2: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioural and molecular, in the aetiology of schizophrenia. Familial high-risk studies have found that children with a biological parent with schizophrenia are more likely to develop adult psychopathology, including schizophrenia, and have difficulties with attention and motor control, among other things. a. Develop schizophrenia. b. Not develop schizophrenia. c. Have difficulties with attention and motor control. d. Not develop psychopathology. *e. (a) and (c).

7. Twin study research also suggests that _______ symptoms may have a stronger genetic component than do _____ symptoms. @ Learning Outcome 6.2: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioural and molecular, in the aetiology of schizophrenia. Twin study research also suggests that negative symptoms may have a stronger genetic component than do positive symptoms (Dworkin, Lenzenwenger, & Moldin, 1987; Dworkin & Lenzenwenger, 1984). a. Positive; negative. b. Disorganised; positive. *c. Negative; positive. d. Disorganised; negative. e. Negative; disorganised.

8. Genome-wide association studies have identified a large number of genes of _______ associated with genetic vulnerability to schizophrenia. @ Learning Outcome 6.2: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioural and molecular, in the aetiology of schizophrenia. Genome-wide association studies have identified a large number of genes of small effect associated with genetic vulnerability to schizophrenia. It is expected that more of these will be identified as the studies grow in size. a. Large effect. b. Positive effect. *c. Small effect. d. Medium effect. e. Negative effect.

9. It is believed that schizophrenia is related to excess activity of _________.

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@ Learning Outcome 6.3: Describe how the brain has been implicated in schizophrenia. The theory that schizophrenia is related to excess activity of the neurotransmitter dopamine is based principally on the knowledge that drugs effective in treating schizophrenia reduce dopamine activity. a. Serotonin. *b. Dopamine. c. Norepinephrine. d. Monoamine. c. All of the above.

10. Parkinson’s disease is caused in part by ________. @ Learning Outcome 6.3: Describe how the brain has been implicated in schizophrenia.

Researchers have noted that antipsychotic drugs, in addition to being useful in treating some symptoms of schizophrenia, produce adverse effects resembling the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. Parkinson’s disease is caused in part by low levels of dopamine in a particular area of the brain. *a. Low levels of dopamine. b. High levels of dopamine. c. Low levels of norepinephrine. d. High levels of norepinephrine. c. None of the above.

11. A spike in dopaminergic activity is associated with ___________ symptoms of schizophrenia. @ Learning objective 6.3: Describe how the brain has been implicated in schizophrenia. It is this spiking of dopaminergic activity that is associated with disorganisation and positive symptoms. a. Cognitive and positive. b. Negative and cognitive. *c. Disorganisation and positive. d. Negative and positive. e. Disorganised and cognitive.

12. The decrease in glutamatergic activity and associated dopaminergic activity in the prefrontal cortex (PFC) is accompanied by the __________ symptoms of schizophrenia. @ Learning Outcome 6.3: Describe how the brain has been implicated in schizophrenia. The decrease in glutamatergic activity and associated dopaminergic activity in the prefrontal cortex (PFC) is accompanied by the negative and cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia.

These changes are also related to alterations in the underlying cortical network, which we will review below. a. Cognitive and positive. *b. Negative and cognitive. c. Disorganisation and positive. d. Negative and positive. e. Disorganised and cognitive.

13. Which drug has been identified as a risk factor for schizophrenia among adolescents? @ Learning Outcome 6.4: Describe the role of environmental factors in the aetiology and relapse of schizophrenia. An additional environmental factor that has been studied as a risk factor for schizophrenia among adolescents is cannabis (marijuana) use. Among people

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already diagnosed with schizophrenia, cannabis use is associated with a higher level of positive symptoms, depression and poorer functioning, particularly in people early in the course of their illness (Mullin et al., 2012). a. Alcohol. b. Nicotine. *c. Cannabis (marijuana). d. LSD. e. Morphine.

14. The highest rates of schizophrenia are found in people with the ______ socioeconomic status (SES). @ Learning Outcome 6.4: Describe the role of environmental factors in the aetiology and relapse of schizophrenia. For many years we have known that schizophrenia can be found at all levels of socioeconomic status (SES) in many countries, but that the highest rates of schizophrenia are found in people with the lowest SES. a. Highest. b. Middle. *c. Lowest. d. Upper middle. e. Lower middle.

15. Which of the following is not relevant to expressed emotion? @ Learning Outcome 6.4: Describe the role of environmental factors in the aetiology and relapse of schizophrenia. Expressed emotion, which includes hostility, critical comments and emotional over involvement, has been linked with relapse in schizophrenia. *a. Emotional investment. b. Hostility. c. Critical comments. d. Emotional overinvolvement. e. Relapse in schizophrenia.

16. A ___________ is a design that identifies people with early, attenuated signs of schizophrenia. @ Learning Outcome 6.4: Describe the role of environmental factors in the aetiology and relapse of schizophrenia. The clinical high-risk study has been used in more recent research.

A clinical high-risk study is a design that identifies people with early, attenuated signs of schizophrenia, most often milder forms of hallucinations, delusions or disorganisation that nonetheless cause impairment (see focus on discovery 6.3). a. Retrospective study. *b. Clinical high-risk study. c. Familial high-risk study d. Prospective study. e. None of the above.

17. Treatments for schizophrenia include: @ Learning Outcome 6.5: Discuss the appropriate use of medication and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Treatments for schizophrenia most often include a combination of short-term hospital stays (during the acute phases of the illness), medication and psychosocial treatment. A problem with treatment is that some people with schizophrenia

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

lack insight into their impaired condition and may refuse treatment — both medication and psychological treatment (Amador et al., 1994). a. Short-term hospital stays during acute phases. b. Medication. c. Psychosocial treatment. d. (b) and (c). *e. (a), (b) and (c).

18. Adverse effects of antipsychotics include ________. @ Learning Outcome 6.5: Discuss the appropriate use of medication and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. The commonly reported adverse effects of all antipsychotics include sedation, dizziness, blurred vision, restlessness and sexual dysfunction. In addition, some particularly disturbing adverse effects, termed extrapyramidal adverse effects, resemble the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. People taking antipsychotics may develop tremors of the hands and fingers, a shuffling gait, a blank masklike face and drooling. a. Tardive dyskinesia and extrapyramidal symptoms. b. Sedation and dizziness. c. Blurred vision, restlessness and sexual dysfunction. d. (b) and (c). *e. (a), (b) and (c).

19. Antipsychotics may cause the mouth muscles to make sucking, lip-smacking and chinwagging motions, and the whole body can be subject to involuntary motor movements. This is called _________. @ Learning Outcome 6.5: Discuss the appropriate use of medication and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. In a neurological disturbance called tardive dyskinesia, the mouth muscles involuntarily make sucking, lip-smacking and chin-wagging motions. In more severe cases, the whole body can be subject to involuntary motor movements. *a. Tardive dyskinesia. b. Extrapyramidal symptoms. c. Parkinson’s disease. d. Alzheimer’s disease. e. Dementia.

20. Psychosocial interventions for schizophrenia include ______. @ Learning Outcome 6.5: Discuss the appropriate use of medication and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. A number of psychosocial interventions, including skills training, cognitive–behavioural therapy, cognitive remediation therapy and family-based treatments, have a solid evidence base to support their use as an adjunctive treatment to medications (Dixon et al., 2010; Wykes, Huddy, Cellard, McGurk, & Czobor, 2011). a. Skills training. b. Cognitive–behavioural therapy. c. Cognitive remediation therapy. d. Family-based treatments. *e. All of the above.

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Chapter 6 Schizophrenia 6

Test Bank to accompany

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

by Kring et al.

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

Chapter 7 Substance use disorders 1. Select which of the following is wrong. @ Learning Outcome 7.1: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with substance use disorders. While people make decisions about whether or not to try alcohol or drugs, the ways in which these decisions and the substances involved interact with an individual’s neurobiology, social setting, culture and other environmental factors all conspire to create a substance use disorder. Thus, it is a mistake to consider substance use disorders as somehow being the result of moral failing, personal choice or lack of willpower. a. Substance use disorder is the result of a moral failing. b. Substance use disorder is the result of personal choice. c. Substance use disorder reflects a lack of willpower. d. Substance use disorder is the result of a substance’s interaction with an individual’s neurobiology, social setting, culture and environmental factors. *e. (a), (b) and (c).

2. Tolerance is indicated by: @ Learning Outcome 7.1: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with substance use disorders. Tolerance is indicated by either (1) larger doses of the substance being needed to produce the desired effect or (2) the effects of the drug becoming markedly less if the usual amount is taken. a. Larger doses of the substance being needed to produce the desired effect. b. The negative physical and psychological effects that develop when a person stops taking the substance. c. The effects of the drug becoming markedly less if the usual amount is taken. *d. (a) and (c). c. (a), (b) and (c).

3. Withdrawal refers to: @ Learning Outcome 7.1: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with substance use disorders. Withdrawal refers to the negative physical and psychological effects that develop when a person stops taking the substance or reduces the amount. a. Larger doses of the substance being needed to produce the desired effect. *b. The negative physical and psychological effects that develop when a person stops taking the substance. c. The effects of the drug becoming markedly less if the usual amount is taken. d. (a) and (c). c. (a), (b) and (c).

4. Alcohol use disorders are particularly high among ____________ in Australia. @ Learning Outcome 7.1: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with substance use disorders. Alcohol use disorders are particularly frequent among young adults in the Australian population. Data from the 2007 NSMHWB indicated that 11.1 percent of young adults (aged 16–24 years) met criteria for alcohol abuse or dependence in the previous 12 months (Mewton, Teesson, Slade, & Grove, 2011). *a. Young adults. b. The elderly.

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

c. Middle-aged people. d. Children. e. Adolescents.

5. Alcohol increases levels of ____________, which may lead to pleasurable effects. @ Learning Outcome 7.1: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with substance use disorders. Alcohol also increases levels of serotonin and dopamine, which may be the source of its ability to produce pleasurable effects. a. Dopamine. b. Serotonin. c. Glutamate. d. Norepinephrine. *e. (a) and (b).

6. Dopamine pathways in the brain produce ___________ feelings. @ Learning Outcome 7.2: Understand the major aetiological factors for substance use disorders, including genetic factors, neurobiological factors, mood and expectancy effects and sociocultural factors. Dopamine pathways in the brain are linked to pleasure and reward.

Drug use typically results in rewarding or pleasurable feelings and it is via the dopamine system that these feelings are produced. a. Pleasurable. b. Rewarding. c. Sad. *d. (a) and (b) e. None of the above.

7. Nearly all drugs, including alcohol, stimulate the ________ systems in the brain. @ Learning Outcome 7.2: Understand the major aetiological factors for substance use disorders, including genetic factors, neurobiological factors, mood and expectancy effects and sociocultural factors. Research with both humans and animals shows that nearly all drugs, including alcohol, stimulate the dopamine systems in the brain particularly the mesolimbic pathway (Camí & Farré, 2003; Koob, 2008) *a. Dopamine. b. Norepinephrine. c. Glutamate. d. Serotonin. e. All of the above.

8. Which types of personality dimensions are consistently linked with substance use? @ Learning Outcome 7.2: Understand the major aetiological factors for substance use disorders, including genetic factors, neurobiological factors, mood and expectancy effects and sociocultural factors. Recent research has focused on specific neurotic and disinhibitory personality dimensions that appear to be consistently linked with the initiation and maintenance of substance use; namely, hopelessness, anxiety sensitivity, impulsivity and sensation-seeking (Newton, Barrett, et al., 2016; Woicik, Stewart, Pihl, & Conrod, 2009). a. Neurotic. b. Disinhibitory. c. Anxiety sensitivity. d. Impulsive and sensation-seeking. *e. All of the above.

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

9. What are the social factors that play a role in substance use? @ Learning Outcome 7.2: Understand the major aetiological factors for substance use disorders, including genetic factors, neurobiological factors, mood and expectancy effects and sociocultural factors. Sociocultural factors play a role, including culture, availability of a substance, family factors, social settings and networks, and advertising a. Culture. b. Availability of a substance. c. Family factors and social settings. d. Networks and advertising. *e. All of the above.

10. Which of the following is not correct? @ Learning Outcome 7.2: Understand the major aetiological factors for substance use disorders, including genetic factors, neurobiological factors, mood and expectancy effects and sociocultural factors. Expectancies about the effects of drugs, such as reducing tension and increasing social skills, have been shown to predict drug and alcohol use. These expectancies are also powerful: the greater the perceived risk of a drug, the less likely it will be used. *a. Expectancies about the effects of drugs is not linked to substance use. b. Expectancies about the effects of drugs is linked to substance use. c. A belief that a substance reduces tension and increases social skills predicts their use. d. The greater the perceived risk of a drug, the less likely it will be used. e. All of the above.

11. Most services in Australia adopt a __________________ approach to alcohol and drug use. @ Learning Outcome 7.3: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications and drug substitution treatments. Most services in Australia adopt a harm-minimisation, rather than an abstinent-based, approach to treatment. *a. Harm-minimisation. b. Abstinent-based. c. Therapy-based. d. Punitive. e. Detox.

12. A person who tries to stop drinking after a pattern of daily high alcohol use will experience ____________. @ Learning Outcome 7.3: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications and drug substitution treatments. After a pattern of daily high alcohol use, withdrawal symptoms may occur when a person tries to stop drinking. a. Detox. b. Intoxication. c. Heightened tolerance. *d. Withdrawal symptoms. e. Sobriety.

13. Withdrawal symptoms from alcohol can include:

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Chapter 7 Substance use disorders 4

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

@ Learning Outcome 7.3: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications and drug substitution treatments.

Withdrawal symptoms can include nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, sweating, fever, tremors, anxiety, psychomotor agitation and disturbed sleep. Severe withdrawal symptoms from alcohol can include dehydration, seizures, hallucinations and delirium. a. Tremors. b. Dehydration. c. Seizures. d. Hallucinations. *e. All of the above.

14. Reinforcing behaviours inconsistent with drinking is called ____________. @ Learning Outcome 7.3: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications and drug substitution treatments.

Contingency management therapy is a cognitive–behavioural treatment for alcohol and drug use disorders that involves teaching people and those close to them to reinforce behaviours inconsistent with drinking. *a. Contingency management therapy. b. Positive reinforcement therapy. c. Negative reinforcement therapy. d. Shaping. e. Cognitive–behavioural therapy.

15. In nicotine replacement therapy, nicotine may be supplied via: @ Learning Outcome 7.3: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications and drug substitution treatments. In nicotine replacement therapy nicotine may be supplied in gum, patches, inhalers or e-cigarettes. a. Gum. b. Patches. c. E-cigarettes. d. Inhalers. *e. All of the above.

16. A synthetic substitute for treating those addicted to heroin is____________. @ Learning Outcome 7.3: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications and drug substitution treatments. Methadone is a synthetic addictive heroin substitute for treating those addicted to heroin that eliminates its effects and the cravings a. Amphetamines. b. Cocaine. c. Marijuana. *d. Methadone. e. All of the above.

17. The content of school-based prevention programs for alcohol and drugs is typically based on: @ Learning Outcome 7.4: Delineate the major approaches to preventing substance use disorders. The content of school-based prevention programs for alcohol and drugs is typically based on social competence models or social norms approaches, and tends to include aspects of psychoeducation (Faggiano, Minozzi, Versino, & Buscemi, 2013).

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

a. Social competence models. b. Social norms approaches. c. Psychoeducation. d. (a) and (b). *e. (a), (b) and (c).

18. Social competence approaches include: @ Learning Outcome 7.4: Delineate the major approaches to preventing substance use disorders. Social competence approaches tend to teach skills based on the principles of cognitive–behavioural therapy and might include social skills training, goal setting, problem solving and decision making. a. Social skills training. b. Goal setting. c. Problem solving. d. Decision making. *e. All of the above.

19. Social norms approaches include: @ Learning Outcome 7.4: Delineate the major approaches to preventing substance use disorders. Social norms approaches correct over-estimations of the substance use of peers and society at large, and teach techniques for recognising high-risk situations, negative influences of peers, family and media, as well as drug refusal skills. a. Recognising high-risk situations. b. Recognising negative influences of peers, family and media. c. Correct over-estimations of the substance use of peers. d. Drug refusal skills. *e. All of the above.

20. Approaches to preventing substance use disorders include: @ Learning Outcome 7.4: Delineate the major approaches to preventing substance use disorders. Approaches to preventing substance use disorders include school-based prevention, prevention involving parents and families, mass media campaigns to prevent substance use and policy approaches to prevent alcohol and tobacco use. a. School-based prevention. b. Prevention involving parents and families. c. Mass media campaigns to prevent substance use. d. Policy approaches to prevent alcohol and tobacco use. *e. All of the above.

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Chapter 7 Substance use disorders 6

Test Bank to accompany

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

by Kring et al.

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

Chapter 8 Eating disorders 1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of anorexia nervosa? @ Learning Outcome 8.1: Describe the symptoms associated with anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa and binge-eating disorder and be able to distinguish among the different eating disorders. Anorexia nervosa has three characteristics: restriction of energy intake leading to low body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight and being fat, and a distorted body image. a. Restriction of energy intake leading to low body weight. b. An intense fear of gaining weight and being fat. c. A distorted body image. *d. A healthy BMI. e. Frequent weighing.

2. BMI is an abbreviation for: @ Learning Outcome 8.1: Describe the symptoms associated with anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa and binge-eating disorder and be able to distinguish among the different eating disorders. body mass index [BMI] a. Body maintenance index. *b. Body mass index. c. Body measurement index. d. Body movement index. e. Body maintenance instrument.

3. Anorexia refers to: @ Learning Outcome 8.1: Describe the symptoms associated with anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa and binge-eating disorder and be able to distinguish among the different eating disorders. The term anorexia refers to loss of appetite and nervosa indicates that the loss is due to emotional reasons. a. Loss of interest. b. Loss of sleep. *c. Loss of appetite. d. Loss of body weight. e. All of the above.

4. Nervosa indicates a loss of appetite due to________. @ Learning outcome 8.1: Describe the symptoms associated with anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa and binge-eating disorder and be able to distinguish among the different eating disorders. The term anorexia refers to loss of appetite and nervosa indicates that the loss is due to emotional reasons. a. Biological reasons. *b. Emotional reasons. c. Social reasons. d. Religious reasons. e. All of the above.

5. Amenorrhoea means:

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Chapter 8 Eating disorders 2

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

@ Learning Outcome 8.1: Describe the symptoms associated with anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa and binge-eating disorder and be able to distinguish among the different eating disorders. Prior to the DSM-5, amenorrhoea (loss of menstrual period) was one of the diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa. a. Loss of interest. b. Loss of sleep. c. Loss of appetite. d. Loss of body weight. *e. Loss of menstrual period.

6. Anorexia nervosa typically begins in the ______________. @ Learning Outcome 8.1: Describe the symptoms associated with anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa and binge-eating disorder and be able to distinguish among the different eating disorders. Anorexia nervosa typically begins in the early to middle teenage years, often after an episode of dieting and the occurrence of life stress a. Late adolescence. *b. Early to middle teenage years. c. Early to middle adulthood. d. Early childhood. e. Middle age.

7. A common comorbid disorder with anorexia nervosa is: @ Learning Outcome 8.1: Describe the symptoms associated with anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa and binge-eating disorder and be able to distinguish among the different eating disorders. For both men and women, anorexia nervosa is frequently comorbid with depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder, specific phobias, panic disorder and various personality disorders. a. Depression. b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. Specific phobias and panic disorder. d. Personality disorders. *e. All of the above.

8. First-degree relatives of women with eating disorder are more than ____________ times more likely than average to have the disorder themselves. @ Learning Outcome 8.2: Describe the genetic, neurobiological, sociocultural and psychological factors implicated in the aetiology of eating disorders. Eating disorders run in families. First-degree relatives of women with anorexia nervosa are more than 10 times more likely than average to have the disorder themselves. a. Twenty times. b. Thirty times. c. Five times. *d. Ten times. e. Four times.

9. What neurotransmitters may be involved in eating disorders? @ Learning Outcome 8.2: Describe the genetic, neurobiological, sociocultural and psychological factors implicated in the aetiology of eating disorders. Finally, some research has focused on two neurotransmitters (Kaye, 2008): serotonin, which is related to eating and

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

satiety (feeling full), and dopamine, which is related to the rewarding/pleasing aspects of food. a. Norepinephrine. b. Serotonin. c. Dopamine. *d. (b) and (c). e. (a), (b) and (c).

10. ___________ substances are released by the body during starvation? @ Learning Outcome 8.2: Describe the genetic, neurobiological, sociocultural and psychological factors implicated in the aetiology of eating disorders. Endogenous opioids are substances produced by the body that reduce pain sensations, enhance mood and suppress appetite, and are also released during starvation. a. Serotonin. b. Dopamine. *c. Endogenous opioids. d. Norepinephrine. e. Insulin.

11. Which part of the brain may play a role in anorexia nervosa? @ Learning Outcome 8.2: Describe the genetic, neurobiological, sociocultural and psychological factors implicated in the aetiology of eating disorders. The hypothalamus is a key brain centre for regulating hunger and eating; thus, it is not surprising that the hypothalamus has been proposed to play a role in anorexia nervosa. a. Thalamus. *b. Hypothalamus. c. Cerebrum. d. Amygdala. e. Hippocampus.

12. Behaviours that achieve or maintain thinness are developed and maintained by: @ Learning Outcome 8.2: Describe the genetic, neurobiological, sociocultural and psychological factors implicated in the aetiology of eating disorders. People who develop anorexia nervosa symptoms report that the onset followed a period of weight loss and dieting.

Behaviours that achieve or maintain thinness are negatively reinforced by the reduction of anxiety about gaining weight as well as positively reinforced by comments from others (‘Did you lose weight? You look great!’). a. Positive reinforcement. b. Negative reinforcement. c. Increased anxiety levels. *d. (a) and (b). e. (a), (b) and (c).

13. Which of the following is not correct in relation to bulimia nervosa? @ Learning Outcome 8.2: Describe the genetic, neurobiological, sociocultural and psychological factors implicated in the aetiology of eating disorders. People with bulimia nervosa have low self-esteem and high negative affect. They try to follow a very rigid pattern of restrictive eating, with strict rules regarding how much to eat, what kinds of food to eat and when to eat. These strict rules are inevitably broken and the lapse escalates into a binge.

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Chapter 8 Eating disorders 4

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

After the binge, feelings of disgust and fear of becoming fat build up, leading to compensatory actions such as vomiting a. People with bulimia follow very rigid patterns of restrictive eating. b. they have strict rules regarding how much to eat, what kinds of food to eat and when to eat. *c. People with bulimia have high self-esteem and low negative affect. d. When these strict rules are broken, the lapse escalates into a binge. e. After binging, feelings of disgust and fear of becoming fat build up, leading to compensatory actions such as vomiting.

14. Which of the following is not correct to people with bulimia nervosa or binge-eating disorder? @ Learning Outcome 8.2: Describe the genetic, neurobiological, sociocultural and psychological factors implicated in the aetiology of eating disorders. The meta-analysis of EMA studies also showed that people with bulimia nervosa or binge-eating disorder experienced more negative affect after the binge, so the use of binge eating as a way to regulate affect appears not to be successful. Evidence also supports the idea that stress and negative affect are relieved by purging. That is, negative affect levels decline and positive affect levels increase after a purge event, supporting the idea that purging is reinforced by negative affect reduction. a. They experienced more negative affect after binging. *b. The use of binge eating helps to regulate affect. c. Stress and negative affect are relieved by purging. d. Purging is reinforced by negative affect reduction. e. All of the above.

15. When patients have been malnourished over long periods, reinstitutions of nutrition can lead to: @ Learning Outcome 8.3: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. When patients have been malnourished over long periods, reinstitutions of nutrition can lead to the so-called refeeding syndrome, a dangerous and sometimes fatal metabolic disturbance a. Munchausen syndrome. b. Cushing’s syndrome. *c. Refeeding syndrome. d. Obesity. e. None of the above.

16. Cognitive–behaviour therapy for anorexia nervosa focuses on: @ Learning outcome 8.3: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. CBT focuses primarily on the maintaining processes of anorexia nervosa by directly challenging cognitions and patterns of thinking (e.g., cognitive biases such as ‘People only like thin women!’). a. The resumption of normal eating and restoration of weight. b. Identifying the maintaining process of the problems. c. Challenging cognitions and patterns of thinking. *d. (b) and (c) e. (a), (b) and (c).

17. Preventive interventions for eating disorders include:

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Chapter 8 Eating disorders 5

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

@ Learning Outcome 8.3: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Three different types of preventive interventions have been developed and implemented.

1. Psychoeducational approaches. The focus is on educating children and adolescents about eating disorders in order to prevent them from developing the symptoms.

2. Deemphasising sociocultural influences. The focus here is on helping children and adolescents resist or reject sociocultural pressures to be thin.

3. Risk factor approach. The focus here is on identifying people with known risk factors for developing eating disorders and intervening to alter these factors. a. Psychoeducational approaches. b. Deemphasising sociocultural influences. c. Risk factor approach. d. (b) and (c) *e. (a), (b) and (c).

18. Specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM) focuses on: @ Learning Outcome 8.3: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM), which primarily focuses on the resumption of normal eating and restoration of weight, is another recommended treatment option for adults with anorexia nervosa. *a. The resumption of normal eating and restoration of weight. b. Identifying maintaining processes of the problems. c. challenging cognition and patterns of thinking. d. Identifying cognitive biases. e. All of the above.

19. Treatments for eating disorders include: @ Learning Outcome 8.3: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. For anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa and binge-eating disorders, both psychological treatments and medications have been used. a. Interpersonal therapy. b. Cognitive–behaviour therapy. c. Antidepressants. d. Family-based therapies. *e. All of the above.

20. Which of the following is correct? @ Learning Outcome 8.3: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Both CBT and IPT seem to be effective treatments for binge eating disorders; however, more studies are needed. CBT alone is more effective than medication treatment. Antidepressant medications have shown some benefit in the treatment of bulimia nervosa, but not anorexia nervosa or binge-eating disorder. However, people with bulimia nervosa are likely to discontinue medication or relapse after medication is withdrawn. a. Antidepressants have shown some benefit in bulimia nervosa, but not anorexia nervosa or binge-eating disorder. b. CBT and IPT seem to be effective treatments for binge-eating disorders. c. People with bulimia nervosa are likely to discontinue medication or relapse after medication is withdrawn. d. CBT alone is more effective than medication in bulimia nervosa.

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Chapter 8 Eating disorders 6

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

*e. All of the above.

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Chapter 8 Eating disorders 7

Test Bank to accompany

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

by Kring et al.

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

Chapter 9 Sexual disorders 1. Which of the following is not correct? @ Learning Outcome 9.1: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms and summarise the sexual response cycle for men and women. What society defines as normal or desirable in human sexual behaviour varies with time and place. In contemporary Western worldviews, inhibition of sexual expression is seen as a problem. a. In contemporary Western worldviews, inhibition of sexual expression is seen as a problem. *b. In contemporary Western worldviews, sexual expression is seen as a problem. c. Norms about sexuality have fluctuated over time. d. Technology has changed sexual experiences. e. All of the above.

2. In the nineteenth and early twentieth century, it was believed that: @ Learning Outcome 9.1: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms and summarise the sexual response cycle for men and women. Nineteenth - and early - twentieth century views that excess was the culprit; in particular, excessive masturbation in childhood was widely believed to lead to sexual problems in adulthood. Von Krafft-Ebing (1902) proposed that early masturbation damaged the sexual organs and exhausted a finite reservoir of sexual energy, resulting in diminished ability to function sexually in adulthood. Even in adulthood, excessive sexual activity was thought to underlie problems such as erectile failure. a. Excessive masturbation in childhood lead to sexual problems in adulthood. b. Early masturbation damaged the sexual organs. c. Early masturbation exhausted a finite reservoir of sexual energy. d. Excessive sexual activity lead to erectile failure. *e. All of the above.

3. Which of the following is not correct? @ Learning Outcome 9.1: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms and summarise the sexual response cycle for men and women. Technology has changed sexual experiences, as the number of people accessing sexual content on the internet increased dramatically over the past decade. Even as the accessibility of sexual content increased dramatically, AIDS and other sexually transmitted diseases changed the risks associated with sexual behaviour. Rates of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) in Australia have increased, while HIV rates remain stable (Kirby Institute, 2016). a. Technology has changed sexual experiences. b. The number of people accessing sexual content on the internet increased dramatically over the past decade. c. Rates of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) in Australia have increased. *d. The accessibility of sexual content has not increased. e. All of the above.

4. Which of the following is correct? @ Learning Outcome 9.1: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms and summarise the sexual response cycle for men and women. Compared to women, men report thinking about sex, masturbating and desiring sex more often, as well as desiring more sexual

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Chapter 9 Sexual disorders 2

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

partners, having more sexual partners, oral sex, anal sex, having more extramarital affairs, using condoms and engaging in cybersex a. Compared to women, men report thinking about sex, masturbating and desiring sex more often b. Compared to women, men report having more sexual partners, oral sex, anal sex, having more extramarital affairs, using condoms and engaging in cybersex. c. Compared to men, women report having more sexual partners, oral sex, anal sex, using condoms and engaging in cybersex. *d. Compared to men, women report having more extramarital affairs. *e. (a) and (b).

5. A person who feels that their physical body does not match their emotional/psychological identity has which disorder? @ Learning Outcome 9.1: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms and summarise the sexual response cycle for men and women. Gender dysphoria: a disorder in which the person feels that their biological sex (physical body) does not match their emotional/psychological identity. *a. Gender dysphoria. b. Paraphilia. c. Dissociative identity. d. Egodystonic. e. None of the above.

6. The sexual response cycle is made up of how many phases? @ Learning Outcome 9.1: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms and summarise the sexual response cycle for men and women. Sexual response cycle: the general pattern of sexual physical processes and feelings, made up of four phases: desire, excitement, orgasm and resolution. a. Six. b. Eight. *c. Four. d. Two. e. Seven.

7. Select the correct order of phases of the sexual response cycle: @ Learning Outcome 9.1: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms and summarise the sexual response cycle for men and women. Sexual response cycle: the general pattern of sexual physical processes and feelings, made up of four phases: desire, excitement, orgasm and resolution. a. Excitement, desire, orgasm and resolution. b. Orgasm, excitement, desire and resolution. *c. Desire, excitement, orgasm and resolution. d. Desire, excitement, resolution and orgasm. e. Excitement, orgasm, desire and resolution.

8. Sexual problems may lead to: @ Learning Outcome 9.2: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for sexual dysfunctions. When sexual problems emerge, they can wreak havoc on our self-esteem and relationships. a. Low self-esteem.

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

b. Relationship problems. c. Depression. d. Anxiety. *e. All of the above.

9. Sexual dysfunction categories include: @ Learning Outcome 9.2: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for sexual dysfunctions. The DSM-5 divides sexual dysfunctions into three categories: those involving sexual desire, arousal and interest; orgasmic disorders; and a disorder involving sexual pain (see table 9.2). Separate diagnoses are provided for men and women. a. Sexual desire, arousal and interest. b. Paraphilia. c. Orgasmic disorders. d. Disorder involving sexual pain. *e. (a), (c) and (d).

10. Which of the following is a category for sexual dysfunction in women? @ Learning Outcome 9.2: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for sexual dysfunctions. Diagnoses in women: female sexual interest/arousal disorder; female orgasmic disorder; genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder. a. Female sexual interest/arousal disorder. b. Female orgasmic disorder. c. Premature ejaculation. d. Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder. *e. (a), (b) and (d).

11. Which of the following is not a category for sexual dysfunction in men? @ Learning Outcome 9.2: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for sexual dysfunctions. Diagnoses in men: male hypoactive sexual desire disorder; erectile disorder, premature ejaculation and delayed ejaculation. a. Male hypoactive sexual desire disorder. b. Erectile disorder. c. Premature ejaculation. d. Delayed ejaculation. *e. Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder.

12. DSM-5 criteria for sexual dysfunction disorders specify that symptoms must last at least _______ months. @ Learning Outcome 9.2: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for sexual dysfunctions. DSM-5 criteria for sexual dysfunction disorders specify that symptoms must last at least 6 months. a. One. b. Three. c. Four. *d. Six. e. Two. 13. When we diagnosis sexual dysfunctional disorder it is important to rule out:

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Chapter 9 Sexual disorders 4

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

@ Learning Outcome 9.2: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for sexual dysfunctions. Before diagnosing sexual dysfunction, it is important to rule out medical explanations for a symptom. a. Psychological explanations. *b. Medical explanations. c. Physiological explanations. d. Environmental explanations. e. All of the above.

14. Persistent deficits in sexual interest, biological arousal or subjective arousal among women is called: @ Learning Outcome 9.2: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for sexual dysfunctions. The DSM-5 includes three disorders relevant to sexual interest, desire and arousal. Female sexual interest/arousal disorder refers to persistent deficits in sexual interest (sexual fantasies or urges), biological arousal or subjective arousal. *a. Female sexual interest/arousal disorder. b. Erectile disorder. c. Premature ejaculation. d. Delayed ejaculation. e. Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder.

15. Deficient or absent sexual fantasies and urges among men is called: @ Learning Outcome 9.2: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for sexual dysfunctions. For men, the DSM-5 diagnoses consider sexual interest and arousal separately.

Male hypoactive sexual desire disorder refers to deficient or absent sexual fantasies and urges, and erectile disorder refers to failure to attain or maintain an erection through the completion of the sexual activity. *a. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder. b. Erectile disorder. c. Premature ejaculation. d. Delayed ejaculation. e. Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder.

16. Recurrent sexual attraction to unusual objects or sexual activities is called: @ Learning Outcome 9.3: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for paraphilic disorders. The DSM-5 defines the paraphilic disorders as recurrent sexual attraction to unusual objects or sexual activities lasting at least six months. In other words, there is a deviation (para) in what the person is attracted to (philia). a. Sexual dysfunction. *b. Paraphilic disorder. c. Dissociative identity disorder. d. Gender dysphoria. e. None of the above.

17. Which of the following are classed as paraphilic disorders in the DSM? @ Learning Outcome 9.3: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for paraphilic disorders. Paraphilic disorders included in DSM: fetishistic disorder; transvestic disorder; paedophilic disorder; voyeuristic disorder; exhibitionistic disorder; frotteuristic disorder; sexual sadism disorder; sexual masochism disorder. a. Voyeuristic disorder.

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

b. Exhibitionistic disorder. c. Fetishistic disorder. d. Transvestic disorder. *e. All of the above.

18. Which of the following is not matched correctly? @ Learning Outcome 9.3: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for paraphilic disorders. Fetishistic disorder: an inanimate object or non-genital body part. Transvestic disorder: cross-dressing. Paedophilic disorder: children. Voyeuristic disorder: watching unsuspecting others undress or have sex. Exhibitionistic disorder: exposing one’s genitals to an unwilling stranger. Frotteuristic disorder: sexual touching of an unsuspecting person.

Sexual sadism disorder: inflicting pain. Sexual masochism disorder: receiving pain. a. Fetishistic disorder – an inanimate object or non-genital body part. b. Transvestic disorder – cross-dressing. *c. Sexual sadism disorder – receiving pain. d. Paedophilic disorder – children. e. Voyeuristic disorder – watching unsuspecting others undress or have sex.

19. Children who are exposed to child sexual abuse will develop symptoms such as: @ Learning Outcome 9.3: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for paraphilic disorders. About half of children who are exposed to child sexual abuse will develop symptoms, such as depression, low self-esteem, conduct disorder and anxiety disorders like post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). a. Depression. b. Low self-esteem. c. Conduct disorder. d. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). *e. All of the above.

20. Incest refers to and may include: @ Learning Outcome 9.3: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for paraphilic disorders. Incest refers to sexual relations between close relatives for whom marriage is forbidden. It is most common between brother and sister. The next most common form, which is considered more pathological, is between father and daughter. a. Sexual relations between close relatives. b. Sexual relations between brother and sisters. c. Sexual relations between father and daughter. d. (b) and (c). *e. (a), (b) and (c).

21. Paraphilia may be linked to: @ Learning outcome 9.3: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for paraphilic disorders. Psychological theories focus on impulsivity, poor emotion regulation and distorted cognitions. Alcohol use and negative affect are often immediate triggers of inappropriate sexual behaviours. a. Impulsivity. b. Poor emotional regulation. c. Distorted cognitions. d. Alcohol use and negative affect. *e. All of the above

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

22. Training in __________ is a cognitive technique for treatment of paedophilic disorders. @ Learning Outcome 9.3: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for paraphilic disorders. Training in empathy towards others is another increasingly common cognitive technique. a. Understanding. d. Sympathy. c. Empathy towards self. *d. Empathy towards others. e. All of the above.

23. On average, men with aedophilic disorder have: @ Learning Outcome 9.3: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for paraphilic disorders. On average, men with paedophilic disorder have a slightly lower IQ and higher rates of neurocognitive problems than the general population. a. Higher IQ and higher rates of neurocognitive problems. b. Lower IQ and lower rates of neurocognitive problems. *c. Lower IQ and higher rates of neurocognitive problems. d. Average IQ and average rates of neurocognitive problems. e. All of the above.

24. Treatment programs for paraphilic disorders include: @ Learning Outcome 9.3: Explain the symptoms, causes and treatments for paraphilic disorders. Treatment programs for paraphilic disorders are motivational strategies, a range of cognitive–behavioural techniques (aversion techniques) and pharmacological treatments. a. Motivational strategies. b. A range of cognitive–behavioural techniques. c. Pharmacological treatments. d. Aversion techniques. *e. All of the above.

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Chapter 9 Sexual disorders 7

Test Bank to accompany

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

by Kring et al.

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

Chapter 10 Disorders of childhood 1. Which of the following is correct? @ Learning Outcomes 10.1: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Developmental psychopathology focuses on the disorders of childhood within the context of life-span development, enabling us to identify behaviours that are considered appropriate at one stage but not at another. *a. Developmental psychopathology focuses on the disorders of childhood. b. Development psychopathology focuses on the disorders of adults. c. Development psychopathology focuses on the disorders of old age. d. Development psychopathology focuses on the disorders of adolescence. e. All of the above.

2. Externalising disorders are characterised by: @ Learning Outcomes 10.1: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Externalising disorders are characterised by more outward-directed behaviours, such as aggressiveness, non-compliance, overactivity and impulsiveness; the category includes attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder. a. Outward-directed behaviours. b. Aggressiveness. c. Overactivity and impulsiveness. d. Non-compliance. *e. All of the above.

3. Internalising disorders are characterised by: @ Learning Outcomes 10.1: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Internalising disorders are characterised by more inward-focused experiences and behaviours, such as depression, social withdrawal and anxiety; the category includes childhood anxiety and mood disorders. a. Inward-focused behaviours. b. Depression. c. Social withdrawal. d. Anxiety. *e. All of the above.

4. Internalising disorders do not include: @ Learning Outcomes 10.1: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Internalising disorders are characterised by more inward-focused experiences and behaviours, such as depression, social withdrawal and anxiety; the category includes childhood anxiety and mood disorders. a. Anxiety and mood disorders. b. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. c. Conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder. *d. (b) and (c). e. (a) and (c).

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

5. Symptoms of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) include: @ Learning Outcome 10.2: Discuss the description, aetiology and treatments for externalising disorders, including ADHD and conduct disorder. The child who is constantly in motion — tapping fingers, jiggling legs, poking others for no apparent reason, talking out of turn and fidgeting — is often called hyperactive. Often, these children also have difficulty concentrating on the task at hand for an appropriate period of time. When such problems are severe and persistent enough, these children may meet the criteria for diagnosis of attentiondeficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). a. Tapping fingers, jiggling legs, poking others for no apparent reason. b. Talking out of turn. c. Fidgeting. d. Difficulty in concentrating. *e. All of the above.

6. In ADHD _____________ characteristics may lead to problems with peers. @ Learning Outcome 10.2: Discuss the description, aetiology and treatments for externalising disorders, including ADHD and conduct disorder. A longitudinal study of children with and without ADHD who were followed up every year for six years found that poor social skills, aggressive behaviour, and self-overestimation of performance in social situations all predicted problems with peers up to six years later. a. Poor social skills. b. Aggressive behaviour. c. Self-overestimation of performance in social situations. d. (a) and (b). *e. (a), (b) and (c).

7. Children with the predominantly inattentive specifier may suffer from: @ Learning Outcome 10.2: Discuss the description, aetiology and treatments for externalising disorders, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Children with the predominantly inattentive specifier have more difficulties with focused attention or speed of information processing (Barkley, Grodzinsky, and DuPaul, 1992), perhaps associated with problems involving dopamine and the prefrontal cortex (Volkow et al., 2009) a. Difficulties in focusing attention. b. Difficulties in speed of information processing. c. Imbalance in dopamine. d. Problems in prefrontal cortex. *e. All of the above.

8. ADHD and ___________ frequently co-occur. @ Learning Outcome 10.2: Discuss the description, aetiology and treatments for externalising disorders, including ADHD and conduct disorder. ADHD and conduct disorder frequently co-occur and share some features in common (Beauchaine, Hinshaw, and Pang, 2010). Internalising disorders, such as anxiety and depression, also frequently co-occur with ADHD a. Conduct disorder. b. Anxiety disorder. c. Depression. d. (a) and (b). *e. (a), (b) and (c).

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

9. Children and adolescents who are depressed are more prone to suffering _____ than adults. @ Learning Outcome 10.3: Discuss the description, aetiology and treatments for internalising disorders, including depression and anxiety disorders. In depressive disorder children and adolescents differ from adults in showing more guilt but lower rates of early-morning wakefulness, early-morning depression, loss of appetite and weight loss. *a. Guilt. b. Early-morning wakefulness. c. Early-morning depression. d. Loss of appetite and weight loss. e. All of the above.

10. A child with a depressed parent has _____ times the risk of developing depression. @ Learning Outcome 10.3: Discuss the description, aetiology and treatments for internalising disorders, including depression and anxiety disorders. A child with a depressed parent has four times the risk of developing depression as a child without a depressed parent. *a. Four. b. Two. c. Five. d. Ten. e. Six. 11. Which of the following is not a symptom of separation anxiety disorder? @ Learning Outcome 10.3: Discuss the description, aetiology and treatments for internalising disorders, including depression and anxiety disorders. Criteria for separation anxiety disorder: repeated and excessive distress when separated; excessive worry that something bad will happen to an attachment figure; refusal or reluctance to go to school; refusal or reluctance to sleep away from home; nightmares about separation from attachment figure and repeated physical complaints (e.g., headache, stomach ache) when separated from attachment figure. *a. Repeated and excessive distress when with attachment figure. b. Excessive worry that something bad will happen to an attachment figure. c. Refusal or reluctance to go to school, work, or elsewhere. d. Refusal or reluctance to sleep away from home. e. Repeated physical complaints (e.g., headache, stomach ache) when separated from attachment figure.

12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a specific learning disorder? @ Learning Outcome 10.4: Understand the learning disorders dyslexia and dyscalculia as well as learn the causes and treatments for dyslexia. A specific learning disorder is a condition in which a person shows a problem in a specific area of academic, language, speech or motor skills that is not due to intellectual disability or deficient educational opportunities. *a. Intellectual disability b. Deficient educational opportunities. c. Problems in language. d. Problems in speech. e. (a) and (b).

13. Children with a specific learning disorder are usually: @ Learning Outcome 10.4: Understand the learning disorders dyslexia and dyscalculia as well as learn the causes and treatments for dyslexia. Children with a specific learning disorder are usually of average or above-average intelligence but have difficulty learning

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

some specific skill in the affected area (e.g., arithmetic or reading), and thus their progress in school is impeded. a. Below-average intelligence. b. Borderline intelligence. c. Mild intellectual functioning. *d. Average or above-average intelligence. e. Suffering from an intellectual impairment.

14. Which areas of the brain involved in dyslexia? @ Learning Outcome 10.4: Understand the learning disorders dyslexia and dyscalculia as well as learn the causes and treatments for dyslexia. Areas of the brain implicated in dyslexia include parts of the frontal, parietal and temporal lobes. a. Frontal lobe. b. Parietal lobe. c. Temporal lobe. *d (a), (b) and (c). e. (b) and (c).

15. The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for intellectual disability includes: @ Learning Outcome 10.5: Describe the description and diagnosis of intellectual disability and the current research on causes and treatments. The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for intellectual disability include three criteria: (1) deficits in intellectual functioning, (2) deficits in adaptive functioning, and (3) an onset during development. a. Deficits in intellectual functioning. b. Deficits in adaptive functioning. c. Onset during development. *d. (a), (b) and (c). e. (a) and (b).

16. When assessing adaptive behaviour, the ___________ must be considered. @ Learning Outcome 10.5: Describe the description and diagnosis of intellectual disability and the current research on causes and treatments. When assessing adaptive behaviour, the cultural environment must be considered. A person living in a rural community may not need the same skills as those needed by someone living in Sydney, and vice versa. *a. Cultural environment. b. Physical environment. c. Social environment. d. Family environment. e. All of the above.

17. People with Down syndrome have: @ Learning Outcome 10.5: Describe the description and diagnosis of intellectual disability and the current research on causes and treatments. The normal complement of chromosomes is 23 pairs. In Down syndrome, there are three copies (a trisomy) of chromosome 21. *a. Three copies of chromosome 21. b. Six copies of of chromosome 21. c. 21 chromosomes instead of 23. d. 18 chromosomes instead of 21. e. Three copies of chromosome 23.

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Chapter 10 Disorders of childhood 5

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

18. Which of the following were combined into one category called autism spectrum disorder under the DSM-IV-TR? @ Learning Outcome 10.6: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. In DSM-5, four diagnostic categories from DSM-IV-TR — autistic disorder, Asperger’s disorder, pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified, and childhood disintegrative disorder — were combined into one category called autism spectrum disorder. a. Autistic disorder. b. Asperger’s disorder. c. Pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified. d. Childhood disintegrative disorder. *e. All of the above.

19. The DSM-5 criteria for autism spectrum disorder (ASD) include problems in: @ Learning Outcome 10.6: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. The DSM-5 criteria for ASD have problems in social and emotional interactions and in communication as well as on repetitive or ritualistic behaviours a. Social behaviour. b. Emotional interactions. c. Communication. d. Displaying repetitive or ritualistic behaviours. *e. All of the above.

20. Children with autism have problems in paying ___________ when communicating with another person. @ Learning Outcome 10.6: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. This is often referred to as a problem in joint attention. That is, interactions that require two people to pay attention to each other, whether speaking or communicating emotion nonverbally, are impaired in children with autism. a. Selective attention. b. Sustained attention. *c. Joint attention. d. Serious attention. e. All of the above.

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Chapter 10 Disorders of childhood 6

Test Bank to accompany

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

by Kring et al.

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

Chapter 11 Late life and neurocognitive disorders 1. Older adults experience _____________ than young people. @ Learning Outcome 11.1: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes and discuss issues involved in conducting research on ageing.

Older adults actually experience less negative emotion than do young people. a. More negative emotion. b. Less positive emotion. *c. Less negative emotion. d. Less knowledge. e. All of the above.

2. Which of the following is not correct? @ Learning Outcome 11.1: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes and discuss issues involved in conducting research on ageing.

Many older people under-report somatic symptoms, perhaps because of beliefs that aches and pains are an inevitable part of late life. People in late life are no more likely to meet criteria for somatic symptom disorders than are the young. a. Many older people under-report somatic symptoms. b. Older people may believe that aches and pains are an inevitable part of late life. c. People in late life are no more likely to meet criteria for somatic symptom disorders. *d. Many older people over-report somatic symptoms. e. None of the above.

3. A late-life shift in interest away from seeking new social interactions and towards cultivating those few social relationships that matter most is called: @ Learning Outcome 11.1: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes and discuss issues involved in conducting research on ageing.

Social selectivity: the late-life shift in interest away from seeking new social interactions and towards cultivating those few social relationships that matter most, such as with family and close friends. a. Social confirmation. b. Social withdrawal. *c. Social selectivity. d. Midlife crisis. e. Empty-nest syndrome.

4. Social selectivity could be misinterpreted as _____________. @ Learning Outcome 11.1: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes and discuss issues involved in conducting research on ageing.

Older people do not tend to report that they want more social contacts. To those unfamiliar with these age-related changes social selectivity could be misinterpreted as harmful social withdrawal. a. Social confirmation. b. Self-isolation. *c. Social withdrawal. d. Rejection.

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Chapter 11 Late life and neurocognitive disorders 2

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

e. Empty-nest syndrome.

5. Which of the following is correct? @ Learning Outcome 11.1: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes and discuss issues involved in conducting research on ageing.

Many stereotypes we hold about the elderly are false, but considerable research suggests that the negative attitudes about the elderly learned early in life persist and become negative selfperceptions as people move into their later years (Levy, 2003). These negative selfperceptions have serious consequences. a. Many stereotypes we hold about the elderly are false. b. Negative attitudes about the elderly are learned early in life. c. Negative attitudes towards ageing persist and become negative self-perceptions as people move into their later years. d. Negative self-perceptions have serious consequences. *e. All of the above.

6. Negative self-views about ageing might influence: @ Learning Outcome 11.1: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes and discuss issues involved in conducting research on ageing. Of much more concern than how stereotypes might influence memory and walking speed, researchers have also shown that negative self-views about ageing can predict earlier death, even controlling for baseline health status and many other potential confounds. a. Memory. b. Walking speed. c. Earlier death. d. Poor health. *e. All of the above.

7. Which of the following is correct? @ Learning Outcome 11.1: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes and discuss issues involved in conducting research on ageing. Not only do we need to challenge our own negative stereotypes, but we also need to help older adults challenge those views. a. We need to challenge our own negative stereotypes about ageing. b. We need to help older adults challenge their own views about ageing. c. We need to accept the inevitability of age-related decline. *d. (a) and (b). e. (b) and (c).

8. The quality of sleep _________ as people age. @ Learning Outcome 11.1: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes and discuss issues involved in conducting research on ageing. The quality of sleep diminishes as people age. Rates of sleep apnoea, a disorder in which a person stops breathing for seconds to minutes during the night, also increase with age. a. Improves. b. Stays the same. *c. Diminishes. d. Increases. e. None of the above.

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

9. A disorder in which a person stops breathing for seconds to minutes during the night is called _________. @ Learning Outcome 11.1: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes and discuss issues involved in conducting research on ageing. The quality of sleep diminishes as people age. Rates of sleep apnoea, a disorder in which a person stops breathing for seconds to minutes during the night, also increase with age. *a. Sleep apnoea. b. Insomnia. c. Narcolepsy. d. Night terrors. e. Somnambulism.

10. Untreated and chronic sleep deficits can: @ Learning Outcome 11.1: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes and discuss issues involved in conducting research on ageing.

Untreated and chronic sleep deficits can worsen physical, psychological and cognitive problems and can even increase the risk of mortality. a. Physical. b. Psychological. c. Cognitive problems. d. Increase the risk of mortality. *e. All of the above.

11. Which of the following is wrong? @ Learning Outcome 11.2: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. DSM criteria specify that a psychological disorder should not be diagnosed if the symptoms can be accounted for by a medical condition or medication side effects. a. A psychological disorder should not be diagnosed if the symptoms can be accounted for by a medical condition. b. A psychological disorder should be diagnosed if the symptoms can be accounted for by a medication’s side effects. c. A psychological disorder should be diagnosed if the symptoms can be accounted for by a medical condition *d. (b) and (c). e. (a), (b) and (c).

12. Persons over the age of 65 have the lowest prevalence of __________. @ Learning Outcome 11.2: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Findings indicate that persons over age 65 have the lowest prevalence of psychological disorders of all age groups. a. Medical diseases. *b. Psychological disorders. c. Life-threatening conditions. d. Heart disease. e. None of the above.

13. Older adults may be more _____________ discussing mental health or drug use problems compared to younger people.

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Chapter 11 Late life and neurocognitive disorders 4

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

@ Learning Outcome 11.2: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Methodologically, older adults may be more uncomfortable acknowledging and discussing mental health or drug use problems compared to younger people. Discomfort discussing symptoms may minimise prevalence estimates. a. Comfortable. *b. Uncomfortable. c. Interested. d. Experienced. e. None of the above.

14. People with psychological disorders are at risk for dying earlier — before age 65 — due to: @ Learning Outcome 11.2: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. People with psychological disorders are at risk for dying earlier — before age 65 — for several different reasons. Among heavy drinkers, the peak years for death from cirrhosis are between 55 and 64 years of age and cardiovascular disease is also common. a. Complications from substance use. b. Compromised immunity. c. Increased suicide risk. d. (b) and (c). *e. (a), (b) and (c).

15. What methodological issues may help explain the low rate of psychological disorders in late life? @ Learning Outcome 11.2: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. These three methodological issues— response biases, cohort effects and selective mortality — could help explain the low rates of psychological disorders in late life. a. Response biases. b. Cohort effects. c. Selective mortality. d. (a) and (b). *e. (a), (b) and (c).

16. A clinical syndrome characterised by progressive deterioration of cognitive abilities to the point that functioning becomes impaired is called _________. @ Learning Outcome 11.3: Explain the symptoms, aetiology and treatment of cognitive disorders in the elderly. Dementia is not a single specific disease. It is an ‘umbrella’ term used to describe a clinical syndrome characterised by progressive deterioration of cognitive abilities to the point that functioning becomes impaired. a. Delirium. *b. Dementia. c. Mild cognitive impairment. d. Dissociation. e. All of the above.

17. Types of dementia include:

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Chapter 11 Late life and neurocognitive disorders 5

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

@ Learning Outcome 11.3: Explain the symptoms, aetiology and treatment of cognitive disorders in the elderly. There are many different types of dementia, including Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, vascular dementia and dementia with Lewy bodies. a. Alzheimer’s disease. b. Frontotemporal dementia. c. Vascular dementia. d. Dementia with Lewy bodies. *e. All of the above.

18. Generally the symptoms of dementia are: @ Learning Outcome 11.3: Explain the symptoms, aetiology and treatment of cognitive disorders in the elderly. Generally the symptoms of dementia have a gradual onset, and are progressive and irreversible. a. Gradual in onset. b. Progressive. c. Irreversible. d. (a) and (b). *e. (a), (b) and (c).

19. _________ is a separate diagnostic category used to describe signs of cognitive decline before functional impairment is present. @ Learning Outcome 11.3: Explain the symptoms, aetiology and treatment of cognitive disorders in the elderly. Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a separate diagnostic category used to describe signs of cognitive decline before functional impairment is present. a. Delirium. b. Dementia. c. Amnestic syndrome. *d. Mild cognitive impairment (MCI). e. All of the above.

20. What factors may increase vulnerability to the onset of Alzheimer’s disease? @ Learning Outcome 11.3: Explain the symptoms, aetiology and treatment of cognitive disorders in the elderly. Immune and inflammation processes may increase vulnerability to Alzheimer’s disease. Lifestyle and psychological factors (e.g. depression, exercise and cognitive engagement) also appear to play a part. a. Immune and inflammation processes. b. Lifestyle. c. Psychological factors. b. (a) and c). *e. (a), (b) and (c).

21. The most common symptom of Alzheimer’s disease is _________. @ Learning Outcome 11.3: Explain the symptoms, aetiology and treatment of cognitive disorders in the elderly. The most common symptom of Alzheimer’s disease is memory loss. *a. Memory loss. b. Cognitive impairment. c. Depersonalisation. d. Derealisation. e. All of the above.

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Chapter 11 Late life and neurocognitive disorders 6

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Chapter 11 Late life and neurocognitive disorders 7

Test Bank to accompany

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

by Kring et al.

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

Chapter 12 Personality and personality disorders 1. In DSM-5, the _______ different personality disorders are classified in _______ clusters. @ Learning Outcome 12.1: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, key concerns with this approach and the DSM-5 alternative approach to diagnosis; define the key features of each DSM-5 personality disorder. In DSM-5, the 10 different personality disorders are classified in three clusters. a. Ten; two. *b. Ten; three. c. Thirteen; three d. Thirteen; five e. Twelve; three 2. Which of the following is not matched correctly? @ Learning Outcome 12.1: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, key concerns with this approach and the DSM-5 alternative approach to diagnosis; define the key features of each DSM-5 personality disorder. In DSM-5, the 10 different personality disorders are classified in three clusters, reflecting the idea that these disorders are characterised by odd or eccentric behaviour (cluster A); dramatic, emotional or erratic behaviour (cluster B); or anxious or fearful behaviour (cluster C). a. Odd or eccentric behaviour — cluster C. b. Dramatic, emotional or erratic behaviour — cluster B. c. Anxious or fearful behaviour — cluster A. *d. (a) and (c) e. (a), (b) and (c).

3. About ____ out of every 10 people meet the diagnostic criteria for a personality disorder? @ Learning Outcome 12.1: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, key concerns with this approach and the DSM-5 alternative approach to diagnosis; define the key features of each DSM-5 personality disorder. About 1 out of every 10 people meet the diagnostic criteria for a personality disorder. a. Two. b. Five. *c. One. d. Three. e. Four.

4. Personality disorders tend to be comorbid with ____________. @ Learning Outcome 12.1: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, key concerns with this approach and the DSM-5 alternative approach to diagnosis; define the key features of each DSM-5 personality disorder. Personality disorders tend to be more common among people with a psychological disorder such as major depressive disorder, an anxiety disorder and substance abuse. a. Major depressive disorder. b. Anxiety disorders. c. Substance use. *d. All of the above.

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 2018

Chapter 12 Personality and personality disorders 2

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

e. (a), (b) and (c).

5. What factors may contribute to a person developing a personality disorder? @ Learning Outcome 12.2: Describe commonalities in the risk factors across the personality disorders. Genetics and environmental factors have been suggested to contribute to developing personality disorders. a. Biological factors. b. Psychological factors. c. Genetic factors. d. Environmental factors. *e. All of the above.

6. All personality disorders are at least _______ heritable. @ Learning Outcome 12.2: Describe commonalities in the risk factors across the personality disorders. All personality disorders are at least moderately heritable. *a. Moderately. b. Severely. c. Mildly. d. Partially. e. None of the above.

7. Environmental factors such as childhood abuse or neglect are significantly correlated with ____ of the 10 personality disorders. @ Learning Outcome 12.2: Describe commonalities in the risk factors across the personality disorders. Environmental factors such as childhood abuse or neglect are significantly correlated with 6 of the 10 personality disorders. a. Eight. *b. Six. c. Four. d. Five. e. Seven.

8. What are the environmental factors contribute to developing personality disorders? @ Learning Outcome 12.2: Describe commonalities in the risk factors across the personality disorders. Individuals who reported higher rates of psychological or emotional abuse, longterm physical abuse or sexual abuse in childhood are more likely to experience personality disorders. a. Psychological abuse. b. Emotional abuse. c. Physical abuse. d. Sexual abuse. *e. All of the above.

9. Attachment trauma very early in life, in particular under age two, adversely affects the brain structure and development and can lead to development of ______________________. @ Learning Outcome 12.2: Describe commonalities in the risk factors across the personality disorders. Attachment trauma including tragic physical abuse or neglect, very early in life, in particular under age two, adversely affects the brain structure and development and can lead to development of antisocial personality disorder. a. Avoidant personality disorder.

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*b. Antisocial personality disorder. c. Paranoid personality disorder. d. Schizoid personality disorder. e. All of the above.

10. The odd/eccentric cluster of personality disorders does not include: @ Learning Outcome 12.3: Discuss the clinical description and aetiology of the odd/eccentric cluster of DSM-5 personality disorders. The odd/eccentric cluster of personality disorders includes paranoid personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder and schizotypal personality disorder. a. Paranoid personality disorder. b. Schizoid personality disorder. c. Schizotypal personality disorder. *d. Antisocial personality disorder. e. None of the above.

11. Paranoid personality disorder co-occurs most often with _______________ personality disorders. @ Learning Outcome 12.3: Discuss the clinical description and aetiology of the odd/eccentric cluster of DSM-5 personality disorders. Paranoid personality disorder co-occurs most often with schizotypal, borderline and avoidant personality disorders a. Schizotypal. b. Borderline. c. Avoidant. *d. (a), (b) and (c). e. (a) and (b).

12. Which of the following is not a possible symptom of paranoid personality disorder? @ Learning outcome 12.3: Discuss the clinical description and aetiology of the odd/eccentric cluster of DSM-5 personality disorders. Paranoid personality disorder: a personality disorder defined by expectation of mistreatment at the hands of others, suspicion, secretiveness, jealousy, argumentativeness, unwillingness to accept blame and cold and unemotional affect a. Expectation of mistreatment at the hands of others. b. Suspicion. c. Secretiveness. *d. Solitary interests e. Jealousy.

13. The dramatic/erratic cluster of personality disorders does not include: @ Learning Outcome 12.4: Discuss the clinical description and aetiology of the dramatic/erratic cluster of DSM-5 personality disorders. The disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster — antisocial personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, histrionic personality disorder and narcissistic personality disorder. a. Antisocial personality disorder. b. Borderline personality disorder. *c. Schizoid personality disorder. d. Histrionic personality disorder. e. Narcissistic personality disorder.

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14. People with antisocial personality disorder (APD) often report a history of ____________ by early adolescence. @ Learning Outcome 12.4: Discuss the clinical description and aetiology of the dramatic/erratic cluster of DSM-5 personality disorders. People with APD often report a history of such symptoms as truancy, running away from home, frequent lying, theft, arson and deliberate destruction of property by early adolescence. a. Truancy. b. Running away from home. c. Frequent lying. d. Deliberate destruction of property. *e. All of the above.

15. The key features of borderline personality disorder (BPD) include: @ Learning Outcome 12.4: Discuss the clinical description and aetiology of the dramatic/erratic cluster of DSM-5 personality disorders. The core features of borderline personality disorder are impulsivity and instability in relationships and mood. a. Impulsivity. b. Instability in relationships and mood. c. Fear of abandonment. d. Recurrent periods of suicidality. *e. All of the above.

16. __________ are common among people suffering from BPD. @ Learning Outcome 12.4: Discuss the clinical description and aetiology of the dramatic/erratic cluster of DSM-5 personality disorders. Suicidal behaviour is all too common in BPD. Many people with this disorder make multiple suicide attempts during their lifetime. a. Truancy. b. Running away from home. c. Frequent lying. d. Deliberate destruction of property. *e. Suicide attempts.

17. The anxious/fearful cluster of personality disorders does not include: @ Learning Outcome 12.5: Discuss the clinical description and aetiology of the anxious/fearful cluster of DSM-5 personality disorders. The anxious/fearful cluster includes avoidant personality disorder, dependent personality disorder and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. People with these disorders are prone of the above to worry and distress. a. Avoidant personality disorder. b. Dependent personality disorder. c. Obsessive-compulsive disorder. *d. Histrionic personality disorder. e. Any of the above.

18. Characteristics of people with avoidant personality disorder include: @ Learning Outcome 12.5: Discuss the clinical description and aetiology of the anxious/fearful cluster of DSM-5 personality disorders. People with avoidant personality disorder believe they are incompetent and inferior to others, and they are reluctant to take risks or try new activities. Even though they would like to form close relationships, their fears often make it difficult for them to do so.

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a. They believe they are incompetent. b. They believe they are inferior to others. c. They are reluctant to take risks or try new activities. d. Their fears often make it difficult for them to form relationships. *e. All of the above.

19. Characteristics of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder include: @ Learning Outcome 12.5: Discuss the clinical description and aetiology of the anxious/fearful cluster of DSM-5 personality disorders. The person with obsessivecompulsive personality disorder is a perfectionist, preoccupied with details, rules and schedules. Although order and perfectionism have their adaptive sides, particularly in fostering success in complex occupational goals, people with this disorder often pay so much attention to detail that they fail to finish projects. a. Perfectionism. b. Preoccupation with details, rules and schedules. c. Excessive attention to detail. d. Failure to finish projects. *e. All of the above.

20. Which of the following is correct? @ Learning Outcome 12.6: Describe the available psychological treatments of the DSM-5 personality disorders. People with a personality disorder do not have particularly strong insight towards their problems; so many of them enter treatment for a condition other than their personality disorder. a. People with a personality disorder do not have particularly strong insight towards their problems. b. People with a personality disorder tend to enter treatment for a condition other than their personality disorder. c. People with a personality disorder are acutely aware of their problems. *d. (a) and (b). e. None of the above.

21. Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) includes: @ Learning Outcome 12.6: Describe the available psychological treatments of the DSM-5 personality disorders. Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) combines client-centred empathy and acceptance with cognitive–behavioural problem solving, emotion-regulation techniques and social skills training. a. Client-centred empathy and acceptance. b. Cognitive–behavioural problem solving. c. Emotion-regulation techniques. d. Social skills training. *e. All of the above.

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Test Bank to accompany

Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

by Kring et al.

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Abnormal Psychology 1st edition

Chapter 13 Legal and ethical issues 1. What must be established in a successful insanity defence? @ Learning Outcome 13.1: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various defences.

The insanity defence requires a court to find that at the time of committing the illegal act, the accused’s state of mind was such that they did not know what they were doing, or if they did, they did not know that it was wrong. a. Medical diagnosis of a psychiatric condition in the accused. b. A diagnosis of mental impairment in the accused. *c. The court must find the accused did not know what they were doing at the time of the offence, or if they did, that it was wrong. d. Diminished responsibility in the accused.

2. What is the second line of defence in insanity cases? @ Learning Outcome 13.1: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various defences.

A second defence of insanity is diminished responsibility. a. Total incapacity. b. Mental impairment. c. Reduced capacity. *d. Diminished responsibility.

3. Where did the defence of diminished responsibility originate? @ Learning Outcome 13.1: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various defences.

Diminished responsibility originated in Scotland as a plea in mitigation of the death penalty for murder. *a. Scotland. b. England. c. Ireland. d. Australia.

4. Name the section of the Criminal Code Act 1899 that provides provisions for diminished responsibility. @ Learning Outcome 13.1: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various defences.

If a person is charged with murder, section 304A of the Criminal Code Act 1899 (the diminished responsibility provision) refers to an abnormality of mind (i.e., either arising from a condition of arrested or retarded development of mind or inherent causes or induced by disease or injury) that is found to substantially impair one or more of the capacities mentioned earlier in section 27 (above). a. Section 204A of the Criminal Code Act 1899. *b. Section 304A of the Criminal Code Act 1899. c. Section 104A of the Criminal Code Act 1899. d. Section 314A of the Criminal Code Act 1899.

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5. Which section of the Criminal Code describes an unsound mind? @ Learning Outcome 13.1: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various defences.

For a reference to be made to the Mental Health Court, there must be reasonable cause to believe that a person who is alleged to have committed an indictable (serious) offence was of unsound mind (a state of mental disease of natural mental infirmity as described in s27 of the Criminal Code) when the offence was allegedly committed. a. Section 21. b. Section 30. *c. Section 27. d. Section 25.

6. Where was the Mental Health Court established in Australia? @ Learning Outcome 13.1: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various defences.

The Mental Health Court was established in Queensland by the Mental Health Act. *a. Queensland. b. New South Wales. c. Victoria. d. South Australia.

7. Name the application for the right to receive particular information about the person who has committed an unlawful act. @ Learning Outcome 13.2: Describe the issues surrounding fitness to stand trial. The impact statement is an application for the right to receive particular information about the relevant person through an information notice. a. Witness statement. *b. Victim impact statement. c. Mental health statement. d. Information notice.

8. Who can prepare a victim impact statement? @ Learning Outcome 13.2: Describe the issues surrounding fitness to stand trial. A victim impact statement may be prepared by a victim or a close relative of a victim (e.g. spouses, siblings, children, parents and extended family members) and given to the prosecuting authority to present to the Mental Health Court when it is determining a person’s soundness of mind or fitness to stand trial (s162). a. A friend of the victim. b. A witness. *c. The victim or a close relative of victim, including their spouse. d. The victim’s GP. 9. When can disclosure be prohibited for a victim impact statement? @ Learning Outcome 13.2: Describe the issues surrounding fitness to stand trial. If a request to disclose is made, disclosure can still be prohibited if it is considered harmful to the health and wellbeing of the person of unsound mind. *a. If it is considered harmful to the health and wellbeing of the person of unsound mind. b. If it is thought it may impact the outcome of case.

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c. If it is thought that disclosure may cause further distress to the victim. d. If there is concern that media reporting may jeopardise a fair trial.

10. Who protects the rights of patients in authorised mental health services? @ Learning Outcome 13.2: Describe the issues surrounding fitness to stand trial. A chief psychiatrist protects the rights of patients in authorised mental health services. a. The magistrate. b. The patient’s GP. *c. The chief psychiatrist. d. The Mental Health Court.

11. Which section of the Mental Health Act deals with fitness to stand trial? @ Learning Outcome 13.2: Describe the issues surrounding fitness to stand trial. A victim impact statement may be prepared by a victim or a close relative of a victim (e.g. spouses, siblings, children, parents and extended family members) and given to the prosecuting authority to present to the Mental Health Court when it is determining a person’s soundness of mind or fitness to stand trial (s162). a. Section 152. b. Section 132. *c. Section 162. d. Section 142.

12. The test of fitness to stand trial dates back to which case? @ Learning Outcome 13.2: Describe the issues surrounding fitness to stand trial. In the criminal law system, the common law test of unfitness to stand trial dates back to the significant case of R v Pritchard (1836). a. R v Presser (1958). *b. R v Pritchard (1836). c. R v Porter (1933). d. R v M’Naghten (1843).

13. When can be person be detained in an authorised mental health hospital? @ Learning Outcome 13.3: Delineate the conditions under which a person can be committed to a hospital under ‘civil commitment’, as well as discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. In all states, a person can be detained in an authorised mental health service or public hospital against his or her will if a judgement is made that he or she meets specific treatment criteria. This may vary from state to state but all states require the person has a mental illness and presents a risk to their own safety or welfare (the danger element) — that is, the person is suicidal or unable to provide for the basic physical needs of food, clothing and shelter — or to the safety of others. a. The person is suicidal. b. The person presents a risk to their own safety or welfare. c. The person presents a risk to the safety of others. *d. Any of the above.

14. What is the main contributing factor to violence?

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@ Learning Outcome 13.3: Delineate the conditions under which a person can be committed to a hospital under ‘civil commitment’, as well as discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. This suggests that issues of substance abuse rather than psychotic disorders are the main contributory factors to violence. a. Psychotic disorders. *b. Substance abuse. c. Poverty. d. None of the above.

15. When is violence prediction more accurate? @ Learning Outcome 13.3: Delineate the conditions under which a person can be committed to a hospital under ‘civil commitment’, as well as discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Research suggests that violence prediction is most accurate under the following conditions (Campbell, Stefan, & Loder, 1994; Monahan, 1984; Monahan & Steadman, 1994; Steadman et al., 1998): If a person has been repeatedly violent in the recent past, it is reasonable to predict that he or she will be violent in the near future unless there have been major changes in the person’s attitudes or environment. If violence is in the person’s distant past and if it was a single but very serious act and if that person has been incarcerated for a period of time, then violence can be expected on release if there is reason to believe that the person’s predetention personality and physical abilities have not changed and if the person is going to return to the same environment in which he or she was previously violent. Even with no history of violence, violence can be predicted if the person is judged to be on the brink of a violent act, for example, if the person is pointing a loaded gun at an occupied building. a. When a person has been repeatedly violent in the recent past. b. When a previous serious act has been committed and the person’s personality has not changed. c. When a person is judged to be on the brink of a violent act (e.g. pointing a loaded gun or making credible threats). *d. All of the above.

16. When treating people with psychological disorders and protecting them from harming themselves and others, what type of freedom is to be provided? @ Learning Outcome 13.3: Delineate the conditions under which a person can be committed to a hospital under ‘civil commitment’, as well as discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. The least restrictive alternative to freedom is to be provided when treating people with psychological disorders and protecting them from harming themselves and others. a. None – they need to be confined for their own and others’ safety. b. Limited freedom with supervised release on weekends. c. Full freedom – patients may come and go as they please. *d. Least restrictive alternative to freedom.

17. The policy that referred to discharging as many people as possible from hospitals and discouraging admissions from 1955 to the mid-1960s was known as:

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@ Learning Outcome 13.3: Delineate the conditions under which a person can be committed to a hospital under ‘civil commitment’, as well as discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Between 1955 and the mid-1960s, following shocking reports of utter neglect of many state institutions and increasing budget pressures, the policy referred to as deinstitutionalisation started taking shape, discharging as many people as possible from hospitals and discouraging admissions. a. Transinstitutionalisation. b. Institutionalisation. c. Reinstitutionalisation. *d. Deinstitutionalisation.

18. The National Health and Medical Research Council (NHMRC) in Australia issued the Statement on Human Experimentation in which year? @ Learning Outcome 13.4: Describe the ethics surrounding psychological research and therapy.

In 1966, the National Health and Medical Research Council (NHMRC) in Australia issued the Statement on Human Experimentation that expressly drew on the Helsinki Declaration. a. 1976. *b. 1966. c. 1986. d. 1996.

19. What does informed consent imply? @ Learning Outcome 13.4: Describe the ethics surrounding psychological research and therapy.

The investigator must provide enough information to enable people to decide whether they want to be in a study. *a. Enough information must be provided to enable people to decide whether they want to be in a study. b. Enough information must be provided to the ethics committee. c. Enough information must be listed in the study publications. d. A minimum of information must be provided to enable people to decide whether they want to be in a study.

20. How does APS Code of Ethics define confidentiality? @ Learning Outcome 13.4: Describe the ethics surrounding psychological research and therapy.

Confidentiality is defined in the APS Code of Ethics as the protection of information obtained during their provision of psychological services. a. The protection of information obtained during written informed consent. b. The protection of information obtained by lawyers. c. The protection of information obtained during research. *d. The protection of information obtained during their provision of psychological services.

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