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This course explores the dynamics of behavior and culture within the workplace, focusing on how individual actions, group interactions, and organizational practices shape the work environment. Students will examine key theories and concepts related to workplace culture, communication styles, motivation, diversity, ethics, and leadership. Through case studies and practical activities, the course helps students analyze how workplace culture influences productivity, satisfaction, and conflict, as well as strategies for fostering inclusive, positive, and high-performing organizational cultures.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior Managing People and Organizations 11th Edition by Ricky W. Griffin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Products and services, profits and losses, and employee behaviors are all types of _________ that an organizational system releases to the environment.
Answer: outputs
Q2) All organizational successes and failures result directly from
A)stakeholder management.
B)comprehensive selection and placement.
C)supplier relationships.
D)the behaviors of many people.
E)the dynamics of the reward system of the organization.
Answer: D
Q3) An organizational system receives inputs from the environment, combines and transforms them, and then returns them to the environment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A person's ________ is an indicator of his or her efficiency and is measured in terms of the products or services created per unit of input.
Answer: productivity
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Q1) Cultural diversity can enhance synergy in an organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The duty of the board of directors of a public corporation is to
A)audit the company's financial statements for accuracy.
B)recommend new products and services.
C)control the day-to-day operations of the firm.
D)protect the company from harsh overseas competition and lower labor costs.
E)ensure decisions by senior managers are in the best interests of the shareholders.
Answer: E
Q3) Which of the following best describes the rate of change of the environment of all organizations?
A)Unprecedented
B)Slowing
C)Decreased
D)Moderate
E)Inelastic
Answer: A
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Q1) Abbey's ________ is her feelings toward people who come to work late. Answer: affect
Q2) Raj is proud of his accomplishments yet looks forward to achieving higher levels of performance and is confident in his abilities. Raj has high
A)risk propensity.
B)locus of control.
C)conformity.
D)self-esteem.
E)self-monitoring.
Answer: D
Q3) Gloria generally is pessimistic and usually sees things in a negative light. Gloria has a relatively high degree of A)self-criticism.
B)negative affectivity.
C)locus of control.
D)Machiavellianism.
E)self-efficacy.
Answer: B
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Q1) People with a high need for power can be successful managers if they A)curb their desires when they might interfere with organizational relationships. B)lessen alienation with other employees. C)have a high need for affiliation.
D)seek power to increase their standing in the organization. E)strive to get along with others.
Q2) Motivated behavior begins with one or more A)motives.
B)people.
C)wants.
D)needs.
E)behaviors.
Q3) Evidence suggests that supervisors can more easily manage employees' motivation than they can their ability or the environment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss four of the six common ways in which individuals respond to perceived inequity and provide an example of each. How do you think individuals might respond to overpayment inequity?
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Q1) Employee empowerment promotes participation is a wide variety of areas, including but not limited to work itself, work context, and work environment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss how managers can use motivation theories and job design to increase employees' motivation and performance.
Q3) Describe how a manager might use the job characteristics approach to design a job for a telecommuter.
Q4) All of the following statements about the use of quality circles are true EXCEPT:
A)Employees meet regularly to identify problems.
B)Employees are empowered to control their work.
C)The use of a question/answer period is important.
D)Employees can propose solutions to problems.
E)Employees meet voluntarily.
Q5) _____ is the degree to which a job allows an individual substantial freedom, independence, and discretion to schedule the work and determine the procedures for carrying it out.
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Q6) __________ involves how companies define and structure work.
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Q1) Goals are used in organizations for two primary purposes. Goals are an effective control device and
A)means of communicating with employees.
B)provide a useful framework for managing motivation.
C)training tool.
D)means of increasing individual self-efficacy.
E)social learning mechanism.
Q2) Plans in which employees can earn additional compensation in return for certain types of performance are called
A)performance management systems.
B)performance appraisal systems.
C)incentive systems.
D)compensation packages.
E)base pay.
Q3) __________ convey to people not only how much they are valued by the organization but also their importance relative to others.
Q4) Goal difficulty is the clarity and precision of a goal.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Life traumas include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)marital problems.
B)aggression.
C)family difficulties.
D)health problems unrelated to stress.
E)death of a child.
Q2) Work-life relationships that are separate from work include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)a person's spouse.
B)career goals.
C)dependents.
D)personal life interests.
E)friendship networks.
Q3) ________ is any upheaval in an individual's life that alters his or her attitudes, emotions, or behaviors.
Q4) Explain the basic process involved in the general adaptation syndrome.
Q5) Trade-offs between extreme demands are usually needed when balancing work-life linkages.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Under the condition of ______, the manager knows what the outcomes of each alternative.
A)certainty
B)estimation
C)risk
D)uncertainty
E)rationalization
Q2) The rational decision-making process assumes that managers follow an unsystematic, random process when evaluating alternatives.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The final stage of the rational decision-making process involves implementing the decision.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The creative process generally involves seven different steps that have to occur before a creative idea can be generated.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All of the following are true of large groups EXCEPT large groups
A)formalize interactions.
B)set agendas.
C)do not set many rules or regulations.
D)follow parliamentary procedures.
E)offer more social interactions.
Q2) Successfully reaching goals often increases the _______ of a group because people are proud to be identified with a winner and thought of as competent and successful.
Q3) Group norms are developed in the control and organization stage of group development.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A homogeneous group is likely to be most productive in situations where all of the following apply EXCEPT:
A)group tasks are sequential.
B)quick action is required.
C)cooperation is needed.
D)group tasks are simple.
E)creativity is required.
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Q1) Mutual accountability is a promise that members make to each other to do everything possible to achieve their goals, and it requires the commitment and trust of all members.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The leadership for change must be developed and a feasibility study should be conducted before the go/no-go team decision is made.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Having a common purpose and common performance goals sets the tone and direction of the team.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mature, fully developed teams are self-directing, self-managing, and autonomous.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ______ statement is simply an expression of purpose that summarizes the long-range benefits the company hopes to gain by moving to a team environment.
Q6) ______ are usually smaller than groups.
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Questions
Q1) Describe, discuss, and give examples of the ways that the source and the receiver can improve the communication process.
Q2) The feedback phase of the communication process is initiated when
A)the receiver decodes the message.
B)the source encodes the message.
C)the receiver understands the message.
D)the initial source translates the message.
E)the receiver responds to the message.
Q3) _______ includes both actual movement and body positions during communication.
Q4) Nonverbal communication only includes elements related to personal characteristics.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most prevalent form of organizational communication is written communication.
A)True B)False
Q6) Discuss and give examples of the opportunities and challenges of communicating across international cultures.
Q7) A(n) _______ links the organization to the external environment.
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Q1) Susan's position power would be considered to be low if
A)her subordinate is a member of the out-group.
B)her subordinate is a member of the in-group.
C)her subordinate's position is more powerful than Susan's position.
D)Susan must get job assignments approved by someone else.
E)Susan can assign work and recommend promotions.
Q2) According to the Leadership Grid, a 1,9 leadership style is also called
A)impoverished management.
B)country club management.
C)middle-of-the road management.
D)authority-compliance.
E)team management.
Q3) Tasks that are complex, nonroutine, and ambiguous are considered to be
A)easily understood.
B)favorable.
C)unstructured.
D)the most ideal for decision-making.
E)structured.
Q4) The ______ theory states that subordinates are motivated by the leader to the extent that leader behavior influences their expectancies.
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Q1) Which of the following traits forms the basis of Robert House's theory of leadership?
A)Job-centered behavior
B)Employee-centered behavior
C)Initiating structure
D)Consideration
E)Charisma
Q2) Project GLOBE identified all of these leader behaviors that can be observed and assessed across a variety of cultures EXCEPT:
A)Charismatic
B)Team oriented
C)Participative
D)Humane-oriented
E)Transactional
Q3) Leadership ______ are individual, task, and organizational characteristics that tend to outweigh the leader's ability to affect subordinate's satisfaction and performance.
Q4) ______ seem to be more autocratic when they make decisions.
Q5) Compare and contrast transactional and transformational leadership styles.
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Q6) Most people have long assumed that ______ are ethical people.
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Q1) Coercive power exists when one person has the ability to punish or harm someone else.
A)True
B)False
Q2) After Adam filed a discrimination complaint, he felt that his case was not handled properly and that he was not given a fair hearing. He started complaining, which had a negative impact on employee morale and the organization's culture. Adam experienced a lack of
A)equal opportunity employment.
B)empowerment.
C)procedural justice.
D)equity in the workplace.
E)legal issues in business.
Q3) Trying to eliminate political behaviors within organizations will probably
A)decrease interdepartmental conflict.
B)increase a manager's power base.
C)increase political behavior.
D)violate the cannons of justice.
E)reduce skill-based pay.
Q4) _______ is a major force in organizations that managers cannot afford to ignore.
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Q1) Differentiate between task, process, relationship, and legal conflict. Which form is most common in organizations?
Q2) When interdependence is complex and several groups and/or individuals are involved in conflict, a liaison may not be sufficient so a(n) _______ may be formed from representatives from each department.
Q3) Conflict is a common occurrence in organizations. A)True B)False
Q4) What are the most common reactions to conflict? Which reaction is most beneficial to organizations?
Q5) Superordinate goals can result in decreased levels of conflict. A)True B)False
Q6) Adopting the role of _______ in discussion sessions is a way to stimulate conflict among groups.
Q7) When two people distrust each other's motives, dislike one another, or for some other reasons simply can't get along, we say a(n) ______ clash exists.
Q8) Competition for scarce ______ can lead to intergroup conflict.
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Q1) Size, environment, and technology have been identified as structural imperatives.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A key contribution of the strategic choice perspective is that it recognizes that
A)the relationship between strategy and structure may be reciprocal.
B)there is no relationship between strategy and structure.
C)structure determines strategy only in new organizations.
D)strategy follows structure.
E)structure follows strategy.
Q3) Analyze how the environment influences organization structure. Provide an example.
Q4) Contemporary organizational designs has four dominant themes that include people, technology, customers, and globalization.
A)True
B)False
Q5) According to Mintzberg, coordination by _______ simply means that workers use informal communication to coordinate with one another.
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Q1) The social psychological contributions to the study of organization culture have emphasized the economic advantages of cultural values.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both American Type Z firms and typical Japanese firms use the ____ approach to the concern for people.
A)holistic
B)narrow
C)synergistic
D)sociohumanistic
E)symbiotic
Q3) Research into organization culture can be traced back to the origins of
A)philosophy.
B)social science.
C)economics.
D)psychiatry.
E)psychology.
Q4) _______ are the basic beliefs about an organization's environment that shape its strategy.
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Q1) Describe, discuss, and give examples of at least three managerial keys to successfully conducting organizational change and development. Ensure the potential impact of each key is addressed.
Q2) A major problem of training programs is
A)identifying actual training needs.
B)finding the time and funding for the training effort.
C)motivating employees to want to learn.
D)transferring employee learning to the workplace.
E)finding "role model" trainers.
Q3) Advances in information processing and communication have paralleled each other.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because of perceptual limitations such as lack of attention or selective attention, a person may not recognize a change in a rule or procedure and thus may not alter his or her behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ______ is important and those who contribute to the change effort should be rewarded.
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Q6) Resistance to change may arise from several ______ and organizational sources.