Virology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Virology is the study of viruses and virus-like agents, exploring their structure, classification, evolution, and the mechanisms by which they infect and replicate within host cells. This course examines the molecular biology of viruses, their interaction with host immune systems, and the diseases they cause in plants, animals, and humans. Students will learn about the principles of viral genetics, epidemiology, laboratory techniques for virus detection and identification, and strategies for prevention and treatment, such as vaccines and antiviral drugs. The course emphasizes the impact of viruses on public health, biotechnology, and ecosystem dynamics.
Recommended Textbook
Prescotts Microbiology 10th Edition By
Joanne Willey
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Chapter 1: The Evolution of Microorganisms and Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ _____________microbiologists monitor community food establishments and water supplies in order to control the spread of communicable diseases.
Answer: Public health
Q2) The relationship between specific bacteria and specific diseases was first demonstrated by Koch.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) __________ discovered that soil bacteria could oxidize iron,sulfur,and ammonia to obtain energy.
Answer: Winogradsky
Q4) RNA serves to convert the information stored in DNA to ________.
A)carbohydrates
B)protein
C)lipids
D)RNA
Answer: B
Q5) Archaea are cellular organisms that have unique cell membrane __________.
Answer: lipids
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Chapter 2: Microscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Gram-staining procedure is widely used because it allows rapid identification of a microorganism with little additional testing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Acid-fast organisms such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis contain __________ constructed from mycolic acids in their cell walls.
A)proteins
B)carbohydrates
C)lipids
D)peptidoglycan
Answer: C
Q3) A substage condenser is used to focus light onto the specimen,which increases the resolution of a light microscope.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The __________ is the point at which a lens focuses parallel beams of light. Answer: focal point
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Chapter 3: Bacterial Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Square planar arrangement of cells that forms when round bacteria remain attached to each other during reproduction are called
A)streptococci.
B)staphylococci.
C)tetrads.
D)sarcinae.
Answer: C
Q2) Bacteria that do not have a fixed shape are said to be __________.
Answer: pleomorphic
Q3) The extreme insolubility of ferric iron leaves little free iron available for transport into bacterial cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Which of the following is not considered a macronutrient?
A)Carbon (C)
B)Calcium (Ca)
C)Potassium (K)
D)Cobalt (Co)
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Archaeal Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true about archaeal ribosomes?
A)They are 70S like bacterial ribosomes.
B)They may possess ribosome binding sites homologous to bacterial Shine-Dalgarno sequences.
C)They have similar antibiotic sensitivities to those of bacteria.
D)All of these are true about archaeal ribosomes.
Q2) Some archaeons are symbionts in animal digestive tracts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diglycerol tetraether lipids
A)are a characteristic feature of thermophilic Archaea.
B)tend to make the membrane less rigid.
C)are found in some bacteria and some Archaea.
D)form typical bilayer membranes in thermophilic Archaea of the genus Thermoplasma.
Q4) In terms of membrane lipids,the plasma membranes of archaeons are more similar to those of the eukaryotes than to membranes of bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _______ are the site of protein synthesis in the cell.
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is useful in distinguishing between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A)The use of DNA for the storage of genetic information
B)The presence of ribosomes for the synthesis of proteins
C)The presence of membrane-delimited organelles within the cytoplasm
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The organelle responsible for harvesting light as an energy source for photosynthesis is the A)kinetoplast.
B)centriole.
C)chloroplast.
D)mitochondrion.
Q3) The distribution of lipids in the plasma membrane of eukaryotes is symmetrical. A)True B)False
Q4) Lysosomes maintain an acidic environment by actively pumping protons into their interior.
A)True B)False
Q5) The region of the cell bounded by the plasma membrane is the ______________.
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Chapter 6: Viruses and Other Acellular Infectious Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A PrP<sup>c</sup> protein can convert a PrP<sup>Sc</sup> to a PrP<sup>c</sup>.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are methods of prion disease transmission EXCEPT
A)ingestion of infected tissue.
B)inheritance (genetic).
C)organ or tissue transplantation.
D)contamination through use of inadequately processed surgical instruments.
E)inhalation (airborne).
Q3) The production of cholera toxin by virulent strains of Vibrio cholera is dependent upon genes in a bacteriophage.This is an example of A)lysogenic conversion.
B)induction.
C)bacterial transformation.
D)transduction.
Q4) The nucleic acids carried by viruses usually consist of A)DNA.
B)RNA.
C)either DNA or RNA.
D)both DNA and RNA simultaneously.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common type of autoinducer found in gram-negative bacteria are acyl homoserine lactones (AHL).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Given a log phase bacterial culture with 1 x 10<sup>6</sup> cells per ml and a generation time of 30 minutes,how long does it take the culture to reach a density of 6.4 * 10<sup>7</sup> cells per ml?
A)1 hour
B)2 hours
C)3 hours
D)4 hours
Q3) An open system in which the growth rate is maintained by the removal and addition of media at such a rate as to maintain a constant cell density is called a A)manostat.
B)chemostat.
C)turbidostat.
D)culturostat.
Q4) Organisms that have their optimum growth pH between 8.5 and 11.5 are called
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Chapter 8: Control of Microorganisms in the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) If one left a "pasteurized" flask of broth for a long time at room temperature,it would stay sterile forever,at least in principle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following inhibits bacterial growth but does not kill bacteria?
A)Lysozyme
B)Bactericidal agent
C)Bacteriostatic agent
D)Antiseptic agent
Q3) The first product to be commercially treated by pasteurization was
A)milk
B)wine
C)beer
D)cheese
Q4) Which kind of sterilization procedure takes advantage of the size of microorganisms?
A)Autoclaving
B)Open flame
C)Use of chemicals
D)Filtration
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Chapter 9: Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is (are)true about cephalosporins?
A)They,like penicillin,inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis.
B)There are four generations of cephalosporins.
C)They can be given to patients with penicillin allergies.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following inhibits protein synthesis?
A)Dapsone
B)Erythromycin
C)Penicillin
D)Isoniazid
Q3) Genes for drug resistance may be present
A)on the chromosome.
B)on plasmids.
C)on mitochondrial DNA.
D)both on the chromosome and on plasmids.
E)both on plasmids and on mitochondrial DNA.
Q4) A neuraminidase inhibitor called __________ is sometimes used in the treatment of people infected with influenza viruses.
Q5) When a chemotherapeutic agent is effective against many different pathogens,it is said to be a __________ antibiotic.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each enzyme normally has specific pH and temperature optima at which they function best.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the amount of enzyme present is held constant,the rate of a reaction will continue to increase as long as the substrate concentration increases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The __________ law of thermodynamics states that energy can be neither created nor destroyed.
A)first
B)second
C)third
D)fourth
Q4) The electron transport chain is based on the principle that redox couples with more positive reduction potentials will donate electrons to couples with more negative potentials.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 11: Catabolism: Energy Release and Conservation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The theoretical maximum net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose metabolized aerobically in eukaryotes is A)2.
B)32.
C)38. D)85.
Q2) The TCA cycle generates all of the following from each acetyl-CoA molecule oxidized except A)three NADH molecules.
B)two CO<sub>2</sub> molecules.
C)one FADH<sub>2</sub> molecule.
D)two ATP or GTP molecules.
Q3) Prokaryotes may use several different terminal oxidases for the electron transport system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An organism may use glycolysis and the pentose phosphate pathway simultaneously.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) TCA cycle enzymes are found in the _____________ _________ of eukaryotic cells.
Chapter 12: Anabolism: the Use of Energy in Biosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bacterial cell wall component,_____,is a long,polypeptide chain of NAM and NAG residues that provide the bacterial cell protection from lysis.
Q2) The reduction of sulfate for use in the production of compounds such as cysteine is called __________ sulfate reduction.
A)assimilatory
B)dissimilatory
C)amodulatory
D)demodulatory
Q3) The process of carbon dioxide fixation refers to
A)release of carbon dioxide during catabolic reactions.
B)reduction of carbon dioxide and incorporation into organic molecules that are assimilated.
C)release of carbon dioxide during anabolic reactions.
D)reaction of carbon dioxide with water to form carbonic acid.
Q4) The reduction of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia is called _______.
A)ammonification
B)nitrification
C)denitrification
D)nitrogen fixation
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Chapter 13: Bacterial Genome Replication and Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) The coding sequence in the DNA of __________ is normally continuous; that is,it is not interrupted by noncoding sequences.
A)prokaryotes
B)plants
C)mammals
D)most insects
Q2) A scientist wishes to develop an antimicrobial agent that specifically targets replication elongation in Escherichia coli without interfering with proteins that catalyze other replication processes.Which of the following experimental designs is most appropriate for the scientist to explore?
A)Develop a molecule that interferes with the DNA-binding ability of DNA polymerase III core enzyme.
B)Modify an existing antibiotic to act as a competitive inhibitor of DNA polymerase I.
C)Design a drug that modifies the structural configuration of DNA at the oriC locus.
D)Create a novel protein that acts as a competitive inhibitor of the DNA ligase binding site.
Q3) A molecule of RNA has 99 phosphodiester bonds connecting ribonucleotides.
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Chapter 14: Regulation of Bacterial Cellular Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) When bound to the DNA,the repressor protein usually prevents attachment of the RNA polymerase to the __________.
A)operon
B)operator
C)promoter
D)regulator
Q2) With the A)the same as B)less than
C)greater than
D)Repression is not used in the regulation of the E)coli trp operon where both repression and attenuation occur,the extent of regulation achieved by repression is _____________ the extent of regulation achieved by attenuation.
Q3) The sensing of starvation that leads to sporulation in Bacillus subtilis is accomplished by a . A)small RNA
B)sensor kinase
C)response regulator
D)quorum regulatory effector
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Chapter 15: Eukaryotic and Archaeal Genome Replication and Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) The unexpressed regions of split genes are called _______.
A)exons
B)endons
C)introns
D)codons
Q2) Eukaryotes are able to express different proteins over time or at certain points in the life cycle by using _____.
A)siRNAs
B)mediators
C)silencers
D)riboswitches
Q3) Differences in eukaryotic,bacterial,and archaeal transcription are attributable to both polymerase differences and organization of protein-coding genes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The role of folding and secretion of proteins in eukaryotes and archaea is facilitated by the use of _____ protein systems.
Q5) Splicing of eukaryotic heteronuclear RNA is catalyzed by ________.
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Chapter 16: Mechanisms of Genetic Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations that result in the death of an organism when expressed are called __________ mutations.
A)dominant
B)recessive
C)lethal
D)conditional
Q2) A recipient cell that is temporarily diploid for a portion of the genome during the replacement process is called a(n)__________.
A)merozygote
B)exogenote
C)endogenote
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Mutations resulting from exposure to physical or chemical agents are called __________ mutations.
Q4) In mismatch repair on newly replicated DNA,enzymes distinguish between old and newly replicated DNA strands based on the fact that newly replicated DNA strands are ________-methylated relative to older DNA. or
Q5) __________ are physical or chemical agents that cause mutation.
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Chapter 17: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In _____________,cells are mixed with recombinant DNA and exposed to a brief pulse of high-voltage electricity to cause the membrane to become permeable and allow the uptake of DNA from its environment.
Q2) Which of the following is not part of a yeast artificial chromosome (YAC)?
A)the F factor
B)a selectable marker
C)an ARS
D)a CEN sequence
Q3) Recombinant DNA technology does not rely on which of the following enzymes?
A)restriction endonucleases
B)RNA methylase
C)DNA ligase
D)reverse transcriptase
Q4) Electroporation is commonly used to introduce recombinant DNA molecules into cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A genomic __________ is a sufficiently large collection of recombinant DNA molecules in which the inserted sequences together represent the entire genome of an organism.
19
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Chapter 18: Microbial Genomics
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Q1) The technique of _____ _____ is used to copy the genome of a single microbial cell so there is sufficient DNA for sequencing. or
Q2) The microbiome represents all the genes present in the trillions of microbes living on and in adult humans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Microbiome sequencing requires the construction of a genomic library,while whole-genome shotgun sequencing does not.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The subdiscipline of genomics that seeks to identify similarities and differences between genomes of different strains and species is called __________ genomics.
Q5) Each of the four Sanger sequencing reactions include
A)a combination of the four different dideoxynucleotides.
B)a single dideoxynucleotide triphosphate.
C)ATP.
D)tRNA.
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Chapter 19: Microbial Taxonomy and the Evolution of Diversity
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Q1) Microbial species are collections of strains that share many stable properties in common but differ significantly from other strains.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The science dealing with classification is called ______.
A)taxonomy
B)nomenclature
C)systematics
D)identification
Q3) According to the endosymbiosis hypothesis
A)the first endosymbiotic event involved an anaerobic bacterium.
B)the first endosymbiont was a fermentative organism.
C)the mitochondrion evolved from the same endosymbiont as the hydrogenosome.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Small,random genetic changes that occur over generations is known as ______.
A)microgenesis
B)progenesis
C)degenesis
D)anagenesis
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Q5) Bacterial strains that have distinct antigenic properties are called __________.
Chapter 20: Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Archaeal cell walls
A)are disrupted by treatment with lysozyme or penicillin.
B)are similar to those of Gram-negative bacteria.
C)lack murein and D-amino acids.
D)include orthomureine.
Q2) Autotrophy has been observed among the ______.
A)methanogens
B)extreme thermophiles
C)cyanobacteria
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Some members of the Archaea lack a cell wall.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Archaeoglobales have been isolated from marine hydrothermal vents.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Glycogen is used as a major carbon and energy reserve by some archaeons.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The metabolic feature that defines Thaumarchaeota is _______ _______.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: The Deinococci, Mollicutes, and Nonproteobacterial
Gram-Negative
Bacteria
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Q1) Which of these is NOT a location where you might find members of the phyla Chlorobi,Chloroflexi,or Cyanobacteria?
A)Deep ocean thermal vents
B)Microbial mats
C)"Blooms" on lakes
D)Sulfide-rich mud on lake bottoms
Q2) Thermotogae can grow anaerobically on which of the following?
A)Methane and methanol
B)Protein digests and carbohydrates
C)Lignin
D)Cellulose
Q3) Members of the phylum Thermotogae can be found growing in
A)marine hydrothermal vents and terrestrial solfataric hot springs.
B)marine salterns of the shore of the Dead Sea.
C)soils of the Antarctic.
D)the intestinal tract of mammals.
Q4) Ureaplasma conserves energy and compensates for an absent electron transport chain by creating chemiosmotic energy gradients and ATP from the breakdown of _______ into ammonia/ammonium.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Proteobacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Filamentous microbial mats in anoxic,sulfide-rich cave springs are dominated by members of the ______.
A)alpha proteobacteria
B)beta proteobacteria
C)delta proteobacteria
D)epsilon proteobacteria
Q2) In general,the sulfate-reducing bacteria (SRB)can oxidize carbon substrates such as lactate,formate,butyrate,propionate,pyruvate,or aromatic compounds to acetate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Helicobacter pylori is responsible for ______.
A)pneumonia
B)cholera
C)dysentery
D)peptic ulcer disease
Q4) Methylotrophic bacteria generate ATP by oxidizing methane to methanol then to formaldehyde,which is excreted.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Firmicutes: The Low G-C Gram-Positive Bacteria
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Q1) Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of food poisoning in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some species of Streptococcus,when grown on blood agar,produce a complete hemolysis with the formation of a clear zone around the colony; this is referred to as ______.
A)alpha-hemolysis
B)beta-hemolysis
C)gamma-hemolysis
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Staphylococcus aureus appears to be very adept at acquiring virulence and antibiotic resistance genes from other bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Members of the genus Lactobacillus
A)grow optimally under slightly alkaline conditions.
B)are normal flora of the human body in mouth,intestinal tract,and vagina.
C)are strict aerobes.
D)produce large amounts of H<sub>2</sub> as a byproduct of metabolism when growing on glucose.
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Chapter 24: Actinobacteria: the High G-C Gram-Positive Bacteria
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Q1) The genus Arthrobacter
A)is a significant component of the microbial flora of soil.
B)plays an important role in the degradation of some herbicides and pesticides.
C)forms heat resistant endospores.
D)is a significant component of the microbial flora of soil and plays an important role in the degradation of some herbicides and pesticides.
Q2) Members of the genus Micrococcus usually exist as ______.
A)pairs
B)tetrads
C)irregular clusters
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following is correct about members of the genus Propionibacterium?
A)They are used in the production of Swiss cheese.
B)They cause acne vulgaris and contribute to the development of body odor.
C)They are typically found growing on the skin and in the digestive tract of animals.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) A(n)_____________ mycelium is a branching network of filaments that rises above the agar growth medium.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Protists
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Q1) The pellicle of a Euglena cell consists of A)glycoprotein.
B)polysaccharide.
C)peptidoglycan.
D)protein strips and microtubules.
Q2) Euglena use a contractile vacuole for osmotic regulation.
A)True B)False
Q3) Acellular slime molds form a large multinucleate mass called a(n)______________ .
Q4) When protists feed on solid nutrients such as bacteria by phagocytosis,they are said to be using ____________ nutrition.
A)saprozoic
B)holozoic
C)endozoic
D)parasitic
Q5) Species of dinoflagellates are responsible for much of the phosphorescence seen in ocean waters at night.
A)True
B)False
27
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Chapter 26: Fungi Eumycota
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Q1) Which of the following is not true about yeast?
A)Yeast contain two or more nuclei.
B)Yeast reproduce either asexually by budding or sexually through spore formation.
C)Yeast are larger than most bacteria.
D)Yeast possess eukaryotic organelles.
Q2) The spores that are released when the zygospore splits open are_____________.
A)diploid
B)triploid
C)haploid
D)motile
E)sterile
Q3) In which of the following is the presence of different mating types critical to sexual reproduction?
A)Homothallic species
B)Heterothallic species
C)Sporangiospore-producing species
D)Arthrospore-producigin species
Q4) Microsporidia have a unique organelle,the ______________ _______________ that is used to invade the host cell.
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Chapter 27: Viruses
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Q1) The genomes of _____________________ cannot function as mRNA and therefore these viruses must bring at least one RNA-dependent RNA polymerase into the host cell during entry.
A)positive-strand RNA viruses
B)double-stranded DNA viruses
C)negative-strand RNA viruses
D)single-stranded DNA viruses
Q2) Due to the diversity of retroviruses,they can be placed into more than one Baltimore system group.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Release of T4 phage from host cells after assembly
A)occurs by extrusion and does not result in cell lysis.
B)depends on a protein that interacts with MurA and interferes with normal peptidoglycan synthesis.
C)requires holin protein that allows the T4 lysozyme to attack the peptidoglycan.
D)occurs by exocytosis.
Q4) ________ mRNA is synthesized before replication of the viral nucleic acid.
Q5) __________ is an unusual base found in the DNA of T4 phages.
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Chapter 28: Biogeochemical Cycling and Global Climate Change
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Q1) The removal of nutrients from nutrient cycling when those nutrients are converted to biomass is referred to as nutrient _______.
Q2) Forests are generally regarded as CO<sub>2</sub> ______.
A)sources
B)sinks
C)both a source and a sink
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) An example of biomagnification is the ability of Desulfovibrio to catalyze production of methyl mercury,which is lipid soluble,thereby increasing the concentration of mercury in the food chain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Since the beginning of the twentieth century,the rate at which ______ and other so-called greenhouse gases have entered the atmosphere has been faster than at any other time in the known history of life on Earth. or
Q5) Microbes such as Geobacter metallireducens obtain energy from organic matter under anaerobic conditions by using ferric iron as a(n)__________ __________.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Methods in Microbial Ecology
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/52004
Sample Questions
Q1) When PCR amplification of SSU (small subunit ribosomal RNA)yields a population of different PCR products of about the same molecular weight,these fragments can be separated for further analysis by ______.
A)isoelectric focusing
B)size exclusion chromatography
C)denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis
D)DNA hybridization
Q2) Microbial ecologists seek to understand how microbes drive and respond to the biogeochemical cycles that are essential for life on Earth.However,at this time it is only possible to make any concrete connections,identifications,or measurements about the abiotic flux of nutrients rather than the interactions between microbes that make these fluxes possible.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the microdroplet culture method,cells from mixed assemblages are encapsulated in a gel matrix.The matrix is then emulsified to generate gel "microdroplets"; each microdroplet contains a mixture of cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Microorganisms in Marine and Freshwater
Ecosystems
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The importance of phage-mediated lateral gene transfer by virioplankton was illustrated by the fact that cyanophages thought to infect Synechococcus and Prochlorococcus carry the structural gene for ______.
A)nitrogenase
B)phycocyanin production
C)a photosynthetic reaction center protein
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Thiomargarita species store large amounts of _________ in huge internal vacuoles.
A)nitrate
B)sulfate
C)oxygen
D)hydrogen sulfide
Q3) Among the eukaryotic microbes in the phytoplankton,the ________ are most noted for their contribution to carbon fixation.
A)dinoflagellates
B)green algae
C)diatoms
D)cyanobacteria
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Chapter 31: Microorganisms in Terrestrial Ecosystems
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57 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungi can be present at up to several hundred meters of hyphae per gram of soil.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the more important genera of gram-positive aerobic actinomycetes found in soils is ________.
A)Streptomyces
B)Bdellovibrio
C)Acinetobacter
D)Pseudomonas
Q3) Soil protists often utilize bacteria as a nutrient source.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The region of soil in the immediate vicinity of the roots of plants is called the ________.
A)plant crust
B)rhizosphere
C)phyllosphere
D)microbivory
Q5) The surface of a plant root is called the __________. or
33
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Chapter 32: Microbial Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physical relationship where an organism hosts more than one symbiont is known as a
A)clade.
B)consortium.
C)partnership.
D)cojoining.
Q2) In the rumen,the carbohydrate fermentation end products include A)acetate.
B)carbon dioxide.
C)methane.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) When two different microbes are engaged in a cooperative relationship,they do as well when living separately as they do when living together.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The lungs are protected from microorganisms by A)the ciliated epithelial cells.
B)lysozyme in mucus.
C)phagocytic action of alveolar macrophages.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Innate Host Resistance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The alternate complement pathway plays an important role in A)innate immunity.
B)aquired immunity.
C)specific immunity.
D)both innate immunity and specific immunity.
Q2) The bacteriocins produced by Escherichia coli are called colicins.
A)True B)False
Q3) Dendritic cells
A)play an important role in the development of allergies and hypersensitivity.
B)contain granules with histamine and other pharmacologically active substances that contribute to the inflammatory response.
C)are capable of recognizing specific pathogen-associated molecular patterns and play an important role in nonspecific resistance.
D)are mainly important in the defense against protozoan and helminth parasites.
Q4) During phagocytosis,signs and symptoms of illness peak following phagolysosome formation if the pathogen is Gram-positive.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 34: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ chains are structurally distinct for each immunoglobulin class.
Q2) Due to a genetic defect,an individual is unable to make T cytotoxic cells.Predict the most likely consequence.
A)The individual will not be able to synthesize any antibodies.
B)The individual will have SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency disease).
C)The person will have frequent infections caused by Staphylococcus and Streptococcus.
D)The person will not be able to adequately fight viral infections and infections caused by intracellular bacteria.
Q3) T cells produce and secrete factors that do not directly interact with invading microorganisms but that augment the body's defense mechanisms.These molecules are called _________.
A)antibodies
B)cytokines
C)immunogens
D)augmetins
Q4) T cells are so named because they mature in the thyroid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Pathogenicity and Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally,exotoxins tend to be more heat stable than endotoxins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which of the following situations did disease develop due to vertical transmission of the pathogen?
A)A fetus develops listeriosis after unpasteurized cheese infected with Listeria bacteria is consumed by the mother during pregnancy
B)A traveler develops gastroenteritis after drinking water that is contaminated with Escherichia coli bacteria
C)A dog develops rabies after being scratched during a fight with a raccoon that carries the virus
D)A hospitalized patient develops MRSA bacteria in a wound following surgery
Q3) Which of the following features of a pathogen is not considered to be a virulence factor when establishing infection within host?
A)Pigment production
B)Attachment fimbriae
C)Slime layer
D)Protein spikes
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Chapter 36: Clinical Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following media will permit the growth of one group of bacteria while inhibiting the growth of some other groups?
A)Differential
B)Selective
C)Enrichment
D)Characteristic
Q2) Patients are instructed to collect sputum specimens in such a way as to minimize contamination with normal microbiota from the mouth.A sputum specimen has arrived in the clinical laboratory and a Gram-stained smear of the specimen reveals a mixture of Gram-positive cocci,Gram-negative cocci,and Gram-positive bacilli as well as numerous squamous epithelial cells.This result indicates
A)a poor quality specimen of primarily saliva and oropharyngeal microbiota.
B)that the specimen has been properly collected and is representative of sputum.
C)that the patient has a pneumonia caused by a mixture of different bacteria.
D)that the patient has bacterial pneumonia rather than viral pneumonia.
Q3) DNA probe technology identifies microorganisms by probing their genetic composition.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Epidemiology and Public Health Microbiology
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Q1) When a disease maintains a relatively steady,low-level frequency at a moderately regular interval,it is called _________.
A)sporadic
B)hyperendemic
C)an endemic
D)an epidemic
Q2) Which of the following is considered a newly emerging disease?
A)Escherichia coli O157:H7
B)Cryptosporidiosis
C)Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The __________ _____________ ____________ is responsible for the monitoring of infectious disease and the implementation of prevention and control strategies world-wide.
Q4) The first epidemiologist was _________.
A)Robert Koch
B)Louis Pasteur
C)John Snow
D)Edward Jenner
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Chapter 38: Human Diseases Caused by Viruses and Prions
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67 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A traveler returning to the United.States from India reported having a fever and severe joint pain.She mentioned that the mosquitoes had been particularly troublesome during her trip,and that she had taken the appropriate prophylactic anti-malarial medications.What is a likely cause of her illness?
A)Malaria
B)Yellow fever
C)Lyme disease
D)West Nile virus
E)Chickungunya fever
Q2) Which of the following can stimulate a reactivation of the virus that causes cold sores?
A)Physical stress (fever,cold winds,trauma,hormonal changes)
B)Emotional stress
C)Ultraviolet light
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The main route of transmission of the poliovirus is _________.
A)body contact
B)fomites
C)food and water
D)respiratory secretions
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Chapter 39: Human Diseases Caused by Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pelvic inflammatory disease may result from infection with ________.
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis
B)Clostridium perfringens
C)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D)Mycobacterium leprae
Q2) Which of the following is important in the treatment of potential infections by Clostridium tetani?
A)Proper care of wounds contaminated with soil
B)Prophylactic use of antitoxin
C)Administration of penicillin
D)All of the choices are important in the treatment of potential infections by Clostridium tetani.
Q3) Identity confirmation of Yersinia pestis by advanced laboratory techniques can be carried out in almost any hospital clinical laboratory.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the primary stage of syphilis,the initial symptom is a small,painless,reddened ulcer called a __________.
Q5) Dental pathogens are called __________.
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Chapter 40: Human Diseases Caused by Fungi and Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)__________ organism is generally harmless in its normal host but can become pathogenic in a compromised host.
Q2) Which of the following has emerged as one of the leading organisms responsible for death in AIDS patients?
A)Toxoplasma gondii
B)Pneumocystis jiroveci
C)Acanthamoeba
D)Naegleria
Q3) What virulence factor does Cryptococcus neoformans have in common with most of the bacteria that cause meningitis?
A)Adhesive pili
B)Capsule
C)Toxin production
D)Hyaluronidase production
E)Superantigen characteristics
Q4) The fungal diseases that are acquired the airborne route typically stay localized to the lungs,causing pneumonia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Microbiology of Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some fermented dairy products have been suggested to have beneficial effects,including a reduction in the incidence of colon cancer and the minimization of lactose intolerance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A chemical that is effective in preserving foods with a low pH such as bread is ________.
A)sodium propionate
B)sodium nitrate
C)sodium citrate
D)sodium sulfite
Q3) Growth of yeasts and molds will be favored in more acidic foods.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To control microbial growth in a food,one can decrease water availability by the addition of ________.
A)sugar or salt
B)gelatin
C)agar
D)formaldehyde
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Chapter 42: Biotechnology and Industrial Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using corn to manufacture ethanol as a fuel additive?
A)Use of corn as a fuel source drives up the cost of grain worldwide.
B)Ethanol absorbs water and would thus corrode fuel pipelines used in transport.
C)Ethanol contains far less energy than other fuels.
D)All of these are disadvantages.
Q2) The Ti plasmid has been genetically engineered to improve its utility as a cloning vector by all of the following EXCEPT B.genes responsible for resisting infection with A)elements found in other vectors,such as selectable markers and multicloning sites have been added.
B)thuringiensis have been added.
C)nonessential regions,including tumor-inducing genes,have been deleted.
D)genes required for the actual infection of the plant cell by the plasmid are retained.
Q3) Which fuel contains more potential energy per unit weight than gasoline?
A)Ethanol derived from corn
B)Ethanol derived from algae
C)Hydrogen
D)None of these contain more energy per weight unit than gasoline.
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Chapter 43: Applied Environmental Microbiology
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51990
Sample Questions
Q1) In the total organic carbon (TOC)test,microorganisms are used to measure the levels of carbon in a water sample.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)test is primarily a measure of carbon demand and should not include nitrogen oxidation demand.
A)True B)False
Q3) Chlorination alone will usually suffice to inactivate viruses present in drinking water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fecal coliforms are useful indicator organisms for the contamination of water by
A)agricultural fertilizer runoff
B)sewage
C)phosphates
D)All of these choices are correct.
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