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This course provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental therapeutic procedures used in clinical settings to manage and treat various health conditions. Topics include the principles, indications, contraindications, and techniques of modalities such as heat and cold therapy, electrotherapy, hydrotherapy, and therapeutic exercise. Students will also explore the evidence-based application of these interventions, patient assessment, safety considerations, and the documentation required for effective clinical practice. Emphasis is placed on the development of hands-on skills and critical thinking necessary for implementing therapeutic procedures in diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Pierson and Fairchilds Principles Techniques of Patient Care 5th Edition by Sheryl L. Fairchild
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13 Chapters
260 Verified Questions
260 Flashcards
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48205
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the single most important recommendation to prevent the spread of infection in a health care setting?
A) Do not leave patients unattended.
B) Routinely evaluate equipment.
C) Perform hand hygiene before and after patient treatment.
D) Avoid storing potentially hazardous equipment or materials in a location where there is a risk of a patient accessing them.
Answer: C
Q2) Which four-phased system of medical record keeping uses a common list of patient problems as its base in addition to a series of progress notes to assess the effectiveness of treatment plans?
A) POMR
B) SOAP
C) HIPAA
D) NVC
Answer: A
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48206
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is appropriate with respect to maintaining a sterile field?
A) A sterile field must not be left unattended.
B) It's acceptable to turn your back to a sterile field as long as you remain in the same room.
C) Talking is allowed across a sterile field, but sneezing, coughing, and reaching across it must be avoided.
D) The base of a sterile field should be slightly moist.
Answer: A
Q2) What is the most important activity that caregivers should perform before and after contact with a patient to control infection?
A) Documentation
B) Hand hygiene
C) Linen changing
D) Gown changing
Answer: B
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20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48207
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should be included in an initial assessment of pain?
A) The onset and pattern of the pain
B) The exact location of the pain
C) A description of the pain in words such as "burning" or "tingling"
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Where should a stethoscope be placed to listen for bronchial breath sounds?
A) In the neck region
B) Between the scapulae
C) Over the periphery of both lung fields
D) Over the manubrium of the sternum
Answer: D
Q3) What device measures the level of blood oxygen saturation,monitors pulse rate,and calculates heart rate?
A) Pulse oximeter
B) Sphygmomanometer
C) Stethoscope
D) Respirator
Answer: A
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48208
Sample Questions
Q1) For removing groceries,tools,or other items from the trunk of a car,which of the following body mechanics principles is recommended?
A) Bend at the waist and lift
B) Bend your hips and knees slightly
C) Keep the object away from your body during lifting
D) Avoid bending the knees
Q2) How are compressive forces directed to intervertebral discs during lumbar lordosis?
A) Anteriorly
B) Posteriorly
C) Laterally
D) Superiorly
Q3) What area of the spine is host to most injuries caused by lifting?
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Sacrococcygeal
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48209
Sample Questions
Q1) Which areas of the side-lying patient are at greatest risk for pressure sores?
A) Sternum, iliac crests, patellae, and lateral ears
B) Lateral ears, lateral ribs, greater trochanters, and humeral epicondyles
C) Occipital tuberosity, transverse processes of vertebrae, sacrum, and heels
D) Forehead, spines of the scapulae, lesser trochanters, and fibular heads
Q2) Who must be notified immediately of physical or drug-induced restraints used for a patient?
A) The patient's family and physical therapist
B) The patient's occupational and physical therapists
C) The patient's case manager and nurses
D) The patient's attending physician
Q3) In general,how frequently should a dependent patient's positioned be changed?
A) At least every 2 hours
B) At least every 4 hours
C) Twice per day
D) Once per day
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Sample Questions
Q1) What degree of hip flexion is contraindicated for a patient who has recently undergone a total hip replacement posteriorly?
A) 40 degrees
B) 75 degrees
C) 90 degrees
D) 115 degrees
Q2) In general,according to the length-tension curve of a muscle,during which portion of a muscle's range is it capable of developing the greatest tension during an isotonic contraction?
A) Beginning ranges
B) Midranges
C) End ranges
D) Tension develops equally throughout a muscle's range
Q3) Which are not examples of multijoint muscles?
A) Rectus femoris and parts of the hamstrings
B) Biceps brachii and long head of the triceps brachii
C) Extensor digitorum and flexor digitorum
D) Gastrocnemius and soleus
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the inferior angles of the scapulae be positioned relative to the top of the back upholstery of a properly fitted wheelchair?
A) About one hand width above the back upholstery
B) About one fingerbreadth above the back upholstery
C) About two fingerbreadths below the back upholstery
D) About one hand width below the back upholstery
Q2) How does the "hemiplegic" wheelchair differ from standard wheelchairs?
A) The seat is lowered approximately 2 inches.
B) The rear wheel axles are positioned 2 inches posterior to their normal position.
C) The seat is widened approximately 2 inches.
D) The rear wheel axles are positioned 2 inches anterior to their normal position.
Q3) How does the "amputee" wheelchair differ from standard wheelchairs?
A) The seat is lowered approximately 2 inches.
B) The rear wheel axles are positioned 2 inches posterior to their normal position.
C) The seat is widened approximately 2 inches.
D) The rear wheel axles are positioned 2 inches anterior to their normal position.
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Q1) What type of transfer assistance is used when the patient performs only 25 to 49 percent of the activity?
A) Minimal assistance
B) Moderate assistance
C) Maximal assistance
D) Dependent assistance
Q2) Where should the caregiver be positioned during a transfer board transfer?
A) Directly behind the patient
B) Directly in front of the patient
C) Slightly in front and to one side of the patient
D) Slightly behind and to one side of the patient
Q3) During a standing,assisted pivot transfer,where should a caregiver's left leg be placed if the patient has significant right knee weakness?
A) Posterior to the weak knee
B) Anterior to the weak knee
C) Lateral to the weak knee
D) Near the patient's stronger side
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should a patient using bilateral axillary crutches do in the event of a forward fall?
A) Use only one crutch to help break the fall
B) Use both crutches to help break the fall
C) Release both crutches so that they fall to each side
D) None of the above
Q2) When performing activities on parallel bars,how much space should be provided between each of the patient's hips and the bar?
A) 0 to 2 inches
B) 2 to 4 inches
C) 4 to 6 inches
D) 6 to 8 inches
Q3) In determining proper walker height for a patient,where are the rear tips of the walker positioned?
A) Slightly ahead of the toes
B) Opposite the midportion of the feet
C) Next to the patient's heels
D) 2 inches behind the heels
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Q1) Which hospital unit is designated by the acronym SICU?
A) Special intensive care unit
B) Surgical intervention and cardiac unit
C) Surgical intensive care unit
D) Sensory integration care unit
Q2) What information can be found using an ICP?
A) Intravenous pressure
B) Intrathoracic pressure
C) Intracranial pressure
D) Intermittent capsule pressure
Q3) What photoelectrical device measures the oxygen saturation of blood?
A) Endotracheal tube
B) Arterial monitoring line
C) Swan-Ganz catheter
D) Oximeter
Q4) Which platelet count permits the performance of resistive exercises?
A) 20,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
B) 40,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
C) 60,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
D) 80,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
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Q1) Which of the following is most closely associated with lymphedema?
A) Rough, dry skin
B) Weak immune system function
C) Respiratory distress
D) Excessive eschar
Q2) Which phase of wound healing serves as the body's initial local defense response to injury or trauma?
A) Inflammatory
B) Proliferative
C) Remodeling
D) Maturation
Q3) What factors affect wound healing time?
A) Nutritional status
B) Hydration
C) Age
D) All of the above
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48216
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are signs of hyperglycemia?
A) Dry tongue
B) Large amounts of glucose in urine
C) Drowsy behavior
D) All of the above
Q2) How should a seizing person be handled?
A) All extremities should be restrained during the seizure
B) Motions of the lower extremities should be restricted
C) Head motion should be restrained
D) Convulsions should not be restrained or restricted
Q3) Over which body part should your hands be clasped when performing the Heimlich maneuver?
A) The sternum
B) The upper back
C) Below the umbilicus
D) Below the diaphragm
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much of a deduction does the IRS allow per year for expenses associated with the removal of qualifying architectural and transportation barriers?
A) $5,000
B) $10,000
C) $15,000
D) $20,000
Q2) For a wheelchair-accessible home,what is the minimum door width?
A) 30 inches
B) 32 inches
C) 36 inches
D) 40 inches
Q3) For a wheelchair-accessible home,what is the maximum distance door handles and windows should be from the floor?
A) 30 inches
B) 32 inches
C) 36 inches
D) 40 inches
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