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This course introduces students to the fundamental concepts and best practices of technical support and help desk operations. It covers essential skills for troubleshooting hardware and software issues, managing customer interactions, and using ticketing systems to track and resolve incidents efficiently. Students will learn about customer service principles, communication techniques, escalation procedures, and problem-solving methodologies commonly employed in IT support environments. The course also explores industry-standard tools and technologies, remote support practices, and performance metrics for evaluating help desk effectiveness, preparing students for roles in technical support and customer service in various organizational settings.
Recommended Textbook
Mike Meyers CompTIA A+ Guide to Managing and Troubleshooting PCs 4th Edition by
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32 Chapters
3462 Verified Questions
3462 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The A+ Hardware exam tests your knowledge of _______________,expecting you to be able to identify just about every common device on PCs.
Answer: computer components
Q2) If you passed the A+,Network+,or Security+ exams before the January 1,2011,deadline,what must you do to recertify?
Answer: Nothing.Individuals who passed the exams and earned the certifications before the deadline are still considered "certified for life."
Q3) Other than retaking exams,what must a certified professional earn to maintain their CompTIA A+,Network+,and Security+ certifications?
A) 20 CEUs per year
B) 20 CEUs over a three-year period
C) 10 CEUs per year
D) 10 CEUs over a three-year period
Answer: B
Q4) Who administers the A+ Certification exams?
Answer: Pearson VUE administers the A+ Certification exams.
Q5) Is Windows 8 covered on the CompTIA A+ exams?
Answer: The current CompTIA A+ exams do not include coverage of Windows 8.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-static wrist straps,mats,and bags are used to prevent _______________.
Answer: electrostatic discharge (ESD
Q2) What should you avoid learning at all costs?
A) Dependability
B) Customer passwords
C) Versatility
D) Responsibility
Answer: B
Q3) Which one of the following is not generally included in a typical technician toolkit?
A) Torx wrench
B) Philips-head screwdriver
C) Flat-head screwdriver
D) Hammer
E) F: Parts retriever
Answer: D
Q4) Speaking clearly and eliciting answers in a non-judgmental and non-accusatory manner are examples of _______________.
Answer: assertive communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hard-drive capacity is measured in ____________________ or ____________________.
Answer: gigabytes (GB;terabytes (TB
Q2) A video card uses a 15-pin female ____________________ connector or the unique,video-only digital video interface (DVI)connector.
Answer: DB
Q3) External modems traditionally connected to a(n)____________________ but often connect to USB ports today.
Answer: serial port
Q4) Every ____________________ has a make,a model,and a package type.
Answer: CPU
Q5) What is the limitation of a Compact Disc-Recordable (CD-R)drive?
Answer: You can only record data once.
Q6) Storage devices include which components?
Answer: Hard drives,floppy drives,and optical drives
Q7) What are the PC components for which a motherboard provides sockets or connectors?
Answer: A motherboard provides sockets or connectors for the microprocessor,RAM,and power,as well as connectors for media drives,hard drives,and external devices.
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Sample Questions
Q1) To access an extra menu in just about any view,you can _____ the mouse.
A) left-click
B) right-click
C) scroll
D) bang
Q2) Which tool in Windows 7 tracks CPU,memory,disk,and network usage on your computer and displays that information in a wide variety of charts and graphs?
Q3) "My Network Places" in XP has been replaced with what in Vista and Windows 7?
Q4) Where do 32-bit programs go in 64-bit versions of Windows Vista and Windows 7?
A) c: \ Program Files
B) c: \ Documents
C) c: \ Program Files (x86)
D) c: \ My Documents (x32)
Q5) Which tool in Windows 7 provides a one-page aggregation of event messages,warnings,and maintenance messages?
Q6) The Microsoft Management Console allows a technician to create his or her own tools by adding ____________________.
Q7) Home Starter is not a valid edition of __________.
Q8) Which file system did the Windows 9x versions use?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each __________ can be a member of only one homegroup at a time.
Q2) How does DNS work?
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a domain name?
A) 192.168.24.1
B) www.totalsem.com
C) FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
D) BOBBY-PC
Q4) __________ connects your telephone to the telephone jack in the wall of your house.
Q5) __________ work well for smaller networks because there are fewer users,connections,and security concerns.
Q6) What is common to all flavors of Ethernet?
Q7) Microsoft introduced a new feature in Windows 7 called __________.
Q8) What is a default gateway?
Q9) What do domains require to run?
Q10) Special computers,called __________,keep databases of IP addresses and their corresponding names.
Q12) Describe the star topology. Page 7
Q11) Protocols are combined into groups,called __________.
Q13) What items are configured when entering IP address information into a host?
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of RAM is used in the CPU's cache?
A) BRAM
B) CRAM
C) DRAM
D) SRAM
Q2) The CPUs of __________ must consume as little electricity as possible,to conserve battery life and limit heat.
Q3) What cache was historically on the motherboard but now often comes on the CPU?
A) L1
B) L2
C) Motherboard cache
D) CPU cache
Q4) The Atom processor is used for what type of platform/market?
Q5) A(n)____________________ and A(n)____________________ connect to the CPU and keep it cool.
Q6) The ____________________ numbering system is used to describe the state of a wire at any given moment.
Q7) The video processing portion of the computer traditionally has a discrete microprocessor unique to video capabilities,known as the __________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _______________ doubles the output of SDRAM by making two processes every clock cycle.
Q2) How can excessive disk thrashing be diagnosed?
Q3) Windows Vista 32-bit has a minimum system RAM requirement of __________.
Q4) All unused RIMM slots on an RDRAM motherboard should have a device called a ____ installed on them.
A) CRIMM
B) DIMM
C) SIMM
D) SO-RIMM
Q5) What are RAM sticks?
Q6) Where does the system swap programs from RAM to when the PC starts running out of real RAM?
A) CRIMM
B) L2
C) Page file
D) ECC
Q7) The memory controller chip (MCC)controls memory access to the CPU.On modern PCs the MCC handles _______________ bits.
Q8) What is a page file?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are ROM chips considered nonvolatile?
Q2) What does the term chipset refer to?
Q3) Compare the function of the Northbridge chip versus the Southbridge chip.
Q4) The ____________________ acts as a secure cryptoprocessor that can usually be turned on or off or else enabled or disabled in the CMOS setup program.
Q5) A(n)____________________ chip stores the information that describes specific device parameters.
Q6) A separate memory chip called the ____________________ chip stores the information that describes specific device parameters.
Q7) What is the function of a complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)chip?
Q8) What can accelerate the BitLocker Drive Encryption feature of Windows Vista/7?
Q9) The __________ program checks out the system every time the computer boots
Q10) What is a Registry?
Q11) Upgrading the BIOS is also known as ________________.
A) UROMing
B) smoothing
C) flashing
D) forcing
Q12) What are some drawbacks to traditional BIOS? Page 11
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Q1) Who created the ITX form factor?
Q2) If you need to upgrade the memory,it is best to know how many __________ the new RAM interface supports.
Q3) What does the Super I/O chip handle?
Q4) What are standouts?
Q5) ____ are the lights that have positive and negative sides.
A) Power buttons
B) Reset buttons
C) LEDs
D) Chips
Q6) The LPX and NLX form factors provided an insertion slot for the ____ card.
A) bus
B) network
C) riser
D) installation
Q7) What are traces?
Q8) What indicates a disabled device in Device Manager?
Q9) List the various types of motherboard cases.
Q10) What does a black "!" on a yellow circle (Windows XP)or triangle (Windows Vista/7)indicate in Device Manager? Page 13
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Sample Questions
Q1) What unit is used to measure voltage?
A) Ampere
B) Volt
C) Watt
D) Ohm
Q2) How many watts of power does a typical hard drive in a PC require?
A) 12
B) 15
C) 20
D) 18
Q3) How long does the ATX power supply remain on?
Q4) The notches in the Molex connector that guide installation are called ____.
A) chamfers
B) power
C) ports
D) sockets
Q5) ____________________ current allows electrons to flow in one direction around continuous circuits.
Q6) Why are modern power supplies better for computers that have many devices to connect for power?
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is S.M.A.R.T.?
Q2) To support RAID 5,you must have at least ____________________ drives.
Q3) Most SCSI devices require you to set a ____________________ or ____________________ for termination.
Q4) The non-chipset-based SATA controllers require a(n)____________________ to function.
Q5) Mirroring is also known as ____________________.
Q6) ATA/66,ATA/100,and ATA/133 require a ____ cable.
A) 30-wire
B) 40-wire
C) 50-wire
D) 80-wire
Q7) With ATA/ATAPI-6,drives can be as large as ____________________ PB.
Q8) What is RLL?
Q9) How many wires does the SATA interface have?
A) Four
B) Eight
C) Seven
D) Eighty
Q10) What is ESATAP? Page 16
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Q1) To change a basic disk to dynamic,right-click the drive icon and select ____.
A) format
B) partition
C) Convert to Dynamic Disk
D) New Volume
Q2) All basic hard drive partition tables support up to ____ partitions.
A) one
B) two
C) four
D) six
Q3) Partitioning creates a (n)____________________ and a partition table on the disk.
Q4) Which of the following is the default primary partition for Windows?
A) c:
B) E:
C) D:
D) F:
Q5) What are some differences between Windows XP,Vista,and 7 in partition naming?
Q6) What is an error correction code (ECC)?
Q7) What is a volume boot sector?
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the speed of 32X Speed CD-ROM drives?
A) 32× 3600 KBps480
B) 24× 3600 KBps
C) 32× 4800 KBps
D) 32× 4800 MBps480
Q2) __________ cards come in two sizes: 3.3-mm thick and 5-mm thick.
Q3) What is the storage capacity of a DVD-18 DVD-ROM?
A) 4.37 GB
B) 7.95 GB
C) 8.74 GB
D) 15.90 GB
Q4) If the floppy drive is installed on the middle connector,which drive letter is it assigned?
A) A:
B) B:
C) c:
D) F:
Q5) What is the best way to wipe a CD?
Q6) Blu-ray Disc eliminated the ____________________ format.
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Q7) Floppy drives connect to the computer via a(n)____________________ cable.

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Sample Questions
Q1) If installed on Windows 7,__________ requires an additional 1 GB of RAM and an additional 15 GB of available hard disk space.
Q2) The ____________________ utility in Windows XP Professional checks for hardware and software compatibility.
Q3) Beginning with Windows 2000 Server,Microsoft introduced ____________________,which can be used to initiate either a scripted installation or an installation of an image.
Q4) What are the possible upgrade paths to Window XP Professional?
Q5) A (n)__________ is done when scripts are included to configure the installation without any user intervention.
Q6) What should you do with RAID hardware before upgrading or installing the operating system?
Q7) Which program can be used from within the Windows GUI to start an upgrade to Windows XP?
A) WIN.exe
B) WINNT.exe
C) WIN32.exe
D) WINNT32.exe
Q8) How are product keys linked to the different editions of Vista and 7?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Data Source Administrator enables you to create and manage what kind of entries that point OBDC to a database?
A) DNS
B) DSN
C) DHCP
D) DCOM
Q2) Which command can modify the Registry by adding (or registering)dynamic link library (DLL)files as command components?
A) regedit
B) reg
C) regsrv32
D) regedt32
Q3) Which of the following is a Windows boot file?
A) ntldr
B) ntoskrnl.exe
C) ntdetect.com
D) ntbootdd.sys
Q4) How does a performance counter work?
Q5) The __________ files are NOT capable of booting the system.
Q6) HKEY_CURRENT_USER stores the __________ settings
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Q1) What are the capabilities and limitations of the Power Users group?
Q2) What is Fast User Switching?
Q3) How do groups help administrators manage users and permissions?
Q4) A(n)____________________ should be created and used at a later time to help users if they forget a password.
Q5) Windows 7 has a new way to share files and folders,in the form of libraries,called:
A) Domain
B) Workgroup
C) Homegroup
D) File group
Q6) In a Windows XP system,____________________ have rights almost equal to that of the administrator,except that they cannot install new devices.
Q7) In a Windows,a super account exists called the ____________________ account.
Q8) When you want to give users just enough-but no more-permissions to accomplish their tasks,you are following the principle of __________.
Q9) ____________________ allows you to switch to another user without logging off the current user.
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Q1) By default,Windows creates a ___________ every time new software is installed.
A) boot disk
B) device driver
C) license
D) restore point
Q2) What tab in the System Configuration utility allows you to select the type of startup you would like to use for the next boot?
Q3) Which version of Windows has the Memory usage setting in the Advanced tab of Performance Options?
A) Windows XP
B) Windows Vista
C) Windows 7
D) Windows Server 2008
Q4) In Windows Vista/7's Task Scheduler,what are triggers?
Q5) A (n)__________ is a large bundle of updates plus anything else Microsoft might choose to add.
Q6) In the Windows XP Automatic Updates options,_______________________ simply flashes a dialog box that tells you updates are available but does not download anything until you allow it.
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Q1) Hard drives are assigned starting with the letter ____.
A) A:
B) B:
C) c:
D) D:
Q2) What is the difference between a folder and a subfolder,or a directory and a subdirectory?
Q3) What command can be used to copy entire directories,including subdirectories?
A) xcompact
B) xcomp
C) xcmd
D) xcopy
Q4) What does the extension part of a filename instruct the computer to do with the file?
Q5) If the TEST directory in the c: drive had a subdirectory called SYSTEM,it would be shown as ____________________.
Q6) Entering the command ____________________ at a Command Prompt will scan,detect,and repair hard drive volume- and sector-related issues.
Q7) What does the command cd \ do?

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Sample Questions
Q1) In Windows Vista,you should select ____________________ in the System Recovery Options to restore Windows to an earlier point in time.
Q2) How can the Recovery Console be used to resolve boot problems?
Q3) Which section of the Windows XP Event Viewer would record audit events?
A) Application
B) Security
C) System
D) Audit
Q4) Which mode is identical to Safe mode but provides network support?
A) Enable Boot Logging
B) Safe Mode
C) Safe Mode with Command Prompt
D) Safe Mode with Networking
Q5) In Windows XP,____________________ starts up Windows loading only very basic drivers for the mouse,VGA monitor,keyboard,mass storage,and system services.
Q6) Your system won't boot,and you suspect that a virus has corrupted the boot sector of your system partition.To fix this problem,you enter ____________________ in the Recovery Console.
Q7) The system file checker helps ensure that critical __________ are not modified.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an advantage of optical mice over ball mice?
Q2) How fast is IEEE 1394a?
A) 12 Mbps
B) 400 Mbps
C) 480 Mbps
D) 800 Mbps
Q3) Describe a digitizer.
Q4) A friend has a two-megapixel camera and asks you if she can use it to create 8 × 10 photos.What do you tell her?
Q5) How would you troubleshoot issues with webcams?
Q6) What type of biometric device is commonly used with USB thumb drives,keyboards,and laptops?
A) Retina scanner
B) Touch screen analyzer
C) Fingerprint scanner
D) KVM scanner
Q7) TWAIN is short for ____________________.
Q8) __________ comes in two speeds: IEEE 1394a,which runs at 400 Mbps,and IEEE 1394b,which runs at 800 Mbps.
Q9) When using scanners,what dictates how big a file the scanner can handle? Page 26
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Q1) The ____________________ is a screen that lies directly behind the phosphors in a CRT and allows only the proper electron gun to light the proper phosphors.
Q2) RAMDAC stands for ____________________.
Q3) If your LCD makes a distinct hissing noise,a(n)____________________ is about to fail.
Q4) What is the number of horizontal pixels times the number of vertical pixels called?
A) Dot Pitch
B) Horizontal Refresh Rate
C) Vertical Refresh Rate
D) Resolution
Q5) What is a CRT monitor?
Q6) In the PC gaming world,a true 3-D object is composed of a group of points called ____________________.
Q7) Where do you enable transparency or change the color scheme and intensity in Windows Vista?
Q8) If you hear bird-like chirping sounds emanating from your computer at regular intervals,it usually indicates a problem with the ____________________.
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Q1) List the address range for network classes A,B,and C.
The address range for each of the network classes are class A-1 to 126,class B-128 to 191,and class C-192 to 223.
Q2) Bandwidth-sharing problems on Ethernet networks caused by using a hub can be resolved by replacing the hub with a (n)____________________.
Q3) What is usually the issue when failing to connect to a new resource?
Q4) A (n)__________ measures impedance in network cabling.
Q5) What is the purpose of the TRACERT utility?
Q6) The ____________________ in Windows Vista can be used to turn file,folder,or printer sharing on or off.
Q7) How does multimode fiber work?
Q8) When you set the IP address manually,the IP address is not subject to change and is called a (n)____________________.
Q9) What is the impedance measured in both RG-6 and RG-59 coax cables?
A) 50 ohms
B) 10 MBps
C) 75 ohms
D) 100 MBpsT
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Q1) Wireless Zero Configuration was first introduced with which operating system?
A) Windows 2000
B) Windows XP
C) Windows Vista
D) Windows 7
Q2) Name the three classes of Bluetooth and their maximum distances.
Q3) What is an Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)?
Q4) What frequencies does 802.11n use?
A) 2.4 and 5 GHz
B) 11 and 54 MHz
C) 5 and 24 GHz
D) 2.4 and 11 MHz
Q5) You can install multiple WAPs to permit __________ between one WAP's coverage area and another's.
Q6) Describe Power over Ethernet (POE).
Q7) What are the throughput,range,and frequency of the 802.11n wireless standard?
Q8) What are the two wireless network modes?
Q9) List the features of the 802.11a standard.
Q11) Name the two wireless modes used by 802.11 wireless networks. Page 30
Q10) What can you do to make your new 802.11n WAP most secure?
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Q1) When accessing a Telnet server,a user must provide a(n)____________________ and a(n)____________________ before access is granted.
Q2) What port number is used by HTTPS?
A) 43
B) 143
C) 443
D) 343
Q3) WiMAX and LTE are current __________ high-speed cellular technologies.
Q4) The server that handles outgoing e-mail is called the ____________________ server.
Q5) What is the function of the Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter (UART)chip?
Q6) Which of the following transfers data via analog signals?
A) Connector
B) ISP
C) Modem
D) Telephone wire
Q7) The most common method of encrypting personal information sent over Web sites is ____________________.
Q8) Describe cellular data services. Page 32
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Q1) What enables you to input MIDI information using an external MIDI-enabled device?
A) Video capture card
B) TV tuner card
C) Digital audio workstation
D) S/PDIF
Q2) What is the result of increasing the sampling rate for sound capture?
A) Higher amplitude
B) Better sound reproduction
C) Stereo sound
D) Higher frequency
Q3) In the Dolby Digital and DTS standards,a system can have five speakers with a subwoofer.What nomenclature defines this?
A) 5.1
B) 6.1
C) DD 5
D) DTS 5
Q4) Most sound cards have at least ____________________ connections.
Q5) The configuration program used in Windows Vista to configure sound settings is ________.
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Q1) Card Bus cards support up to ____________________ different functions.
Q2) ____________________ is the comparison of the screen width to the screen height.
Q3) What might happen if Li-Ion batteries are overcharged?
Q4) What is System Management Mode?
Q5) Which port can support the keyboard and mouse in portable devices?
A) PS/2
B) RS-232
C) IEEE 1284
D) FireWire
Q6) When a PC comes out of hibernation,Windows reloads all the files and applications into ____________________.
Q7) What does "hot-swappable" mean,and what is another term manufacturers use?
Q8) What is the main difference between docking stations and port replicators?
Q9) List the three physical types of PC Cards.
Q10) Describe Lithium polymer batteries.
Q12) What is the most common battery used in laptops today? Page 35
Q11) Why can't you throw a used nickel-cadmium battery in the trash?
Q13) Many portable computers have ____________________,meaning they can detect outlet voltage and adjust it accordingly.
Q14) The most common PC Cards are Type ____________________ cards.
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Q1) Mobile devices that offer microSD slots are usually running which mobile operating system?
A) Apple iOS
B) Android
C) Microsoft Windows 7
D) Red Hat Linux
Q2) How do most mobile devices connect to external devices such as keyboards?
Q3) What does a gyroscope do on a mobile device?
Q4) What is Microsoft's current presence in the mobile device world?
Q5) Mobile devices have a default screen called the __________ screen.
Q6) Describe the cable connector used to synch or back up mobile devices.
Q7) Which touchscreen devices require periodic screen calibration?
A) Capacitive
B) Reactive
C) Resistive
D) LCD
Q8) Describe the availability of cameras on mobile devices.
Q10) In terms of expansion and connection,what do most mobile devices have in Page 37
Q9) Many offer microSD slots,and a few feature Micro USB or even full-sized __________ ports.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/54584
Sample Questions
Q1) What is resolution enhancement technology (RET)?
Q2) What is a transfer corona?
Q3) Every particle on a laser printer's drum that is hit by the laser will release most of its ____________________ charge into the drum.
Q4) What could cause vertical white lines to appear on laser output?
Q5) What kind of printers tend to have problems with ink drying out inside the nozzles when the printer is not used for a period?
A) Color
B) Laser
C) Inkjet
D) Dot-matrix
Q6) Dye-sublimation printing is also known as ____________________ printing.
Q7) What is an MSDS?
Q8) What is print resolution?
Q9) What kind of printout usually results from an empty toner cartridge?
A) Blank
B) Dirty
C) Vertical white lines
D) Embossed effect
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89 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/54583
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Q1) List five ways to increase security protection for a wireless network.
Q2) What is a software program that looks like one thing (such as a utility or a game)but is actually doing something else (such as modifying CMOS settings)?
A) Spyware
B) Trojan
C) Virus
D) Worm
Q3) What can be used to create entries in the Security log whenever a user logs on?
A) Event auditing
B) Object access auditing
C) Event tracking
D) Success logging
Q4) You are tasked with ensuring that any time a file or folder is accessed,details of the access are logged.This is an example of ____________________.
Q5) Define social engineering.
Q6) What tool is used to set security policies on an individual system?
Q7) You identify a server that is using FAT32 as the file system.You decide to change it to an NTFS drive.What command would you enter at the command line?
Page 40
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/54582
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the Microsoft family of virtualization products.
Q2) Discuss how virtualization enables system duplication.
Q3) An example of a guest operating system that must be licensed is __________.
Q4) A (n)__________ environment is called a virtual machine (VM).
Q5) What are important considerations during the installation of a virtual machine?
Q6) __________ is an example of a popular open-source virtualization program.
Q7) Describe a virtual machine manager (VMM).
Q8) Discuss how virtualization enables power savings.
Q9) VMware's ESX hypervisor can support up to __________ processors.
Q10) A hypervisor allocates physical __________ to virtual machines.
Q11) VMware Fusion is a popular virtual machine manager for which operating system?
A) Solaris
B) Linux
C) Mac OS X
D) Windows 7
Q12) Describe hypervisors.
Q13) How does a hypervisor allocate hardware? Page 41
Q14) Microsoft's hypervisor is known as __________.
Q15) Discuss how virtualization enables system recovery.
Q16) What is an example of Linux-based or open-source VMM?
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90 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/54581
Sample Questions
Q1) Hardware needs on a home server apply primarily to the __________ speed and __________ capacity.
Q2) What should be the motherboard considerations for a thick client?
Q3) How would you share a printer on a home server PC?
Q4) CAD/CAM workstations should also have a professional-level __________ card.
Q5) A home server PC usually fills all of the following roles EXCEPT:
A) Media streaming
B) Virtualization
C) File sharing
D) Print sharing
Q6) Which component of a video workstation is important due to the large size of video files?
A) Storage
B) GPU
C) RAM
D) Video card
Q7) CompTIA calls a general-purpose SOHO computer a __________ client.
Q8) Consider whether to use a (n)__________ or a dedicated video card.
Q9) __________ certified devices connect to your home network,discover each other,and share media. Page 43
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37 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/54580
Sample Questions
Q1) After you have successfully solved the user's problem,have the user sit down and ____________________ the task to ensure full system functionality.
Q2) If a theory is not confirmed,what should you do next?
A) Make changes
B) Implement the solution
C) Establish a new theory or escalate
D) Verify full functionality
Q3) Sally has fixed a multitray printer that was jamming.After cleaning it and installing a maintenance kit,she verifies the original problem is no longer present.What else should she do?
A) Clean up and go.
B) Reinstall the drivers.
C) Tell the customer to be more careful about keeping the printer clean.
D) Test all trays.
Q4) What kind of report should detail what happened and where it happened?
A) Down time
B) Formalized
C) Incident
D) Performance
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