Systems and Network Administration
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the principles and practices essential for effective systems and network administration. Students will learn about configuring, managing, and securing both standalone and networked computer systems, with emphasis on operating systems such as Linux and Windows. Topics include user and resource management, network services configuration, system monitoring, troubleshooting, automation through scripting, backup strategies, and security best practices. Through hands-on labs and real-world scenarios, participants will develop the skills required to maintain reliable, efficient, and secure IT infrastructures in organizational environments.
Recommended Textbook
Computer Security Principles and Practice 2nd Edition by William Stallings
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24 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Computer Systems Overview
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Q1) The first step in devising security services and mechanisms is to develop a security policy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) __________ is the insertion of bits into gaps in a data stream to frustrate traffic analysis attempts.
A)Traffic padding
B)Traffic control
C)Traffic routing
D)Traffic integrity
Answer: A
Q3) ________ assures that a system performs its intended function in an unimpaired manner,free from deliberate or inadvertent unauthorized manipulation of the system.
A)System Integrity
B)Availability
C)Data Integrity
D)Confidentiality
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Cryptographic Tools
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Q1) Combined one byte at a time with the plaintext stream using the XOR operation,a __________ is the output of the pseudorandom bit generator.
A)keystream
B)digital signature
C)secure hash
D)message authentication code
Answer: A
Q2) __________ is a block cipher in which the plaintext and ciphertext are integers between 0 and n-1 for some n.
A)DSS
B)RSA
C)AES
D)SHA
Answer: B
Q3) Some form of protocol is needed for public-key distribution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: User Authentication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ is the pattern formed by veins beneath the retinal surface. Answer: retinal pattern
Q2) To counter threats to remote user authentication,systems generally rely on some form of ___________ protocol.
A)eavesdropping
B)challenge-response
C)Trojan horse
D)denial-of-service
Answer: B
Q3) A host generated random number is often called a __________.
Answer: nonce
Q4) __________,in the context of passwords,refers to an adversary's attempt to learn the password by observing the user,finding a written copy of the password,or some similar attack that involves the physical proximity of user and adversary.
Answer: Eavesdropping
Q5) A smart card contains an entire microprocessor.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Access Control
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Q1) A __________ dictates that a user can only be assigned to a particular role if it is already assigned to some other specified role and can be used to structure the implementation of the least privilege concept.
Q2) An independent review and examination of system records and activities in order to test for adequacy of system controls,to ensure compliance with established policy and operational procedures,to detect breaches in security,and to recommend any indicated changes in control,policy and procedures is a(n)__________ .
Q3) __________ is based on the roles the users assume in a system rather than the user's identity.
A)DAC
B)RBAC
C)MAC
D)URAC
Q4) X.800 defines __________ as the prevention of unauthorized use of a resource, including the prevention of use of a resource in an unauthorized manner.
Q5) The __________ user ID is exempt from the usual file access control constraints and has system wide access.
Q6) The basic elements of access control are: subject,__________,and access right.
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Chapter 5: Database Security
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Q1) An end user who operates on database objects via a particular application but does not own any of the database objects is the __________.
A)application owner
B)end user other than application owner
C)foreign key
D)administrator
Q2) The _________ model provides a predefined environment for the cloud subscriber that is shared with other tenants,typically through tagging data with a subscriber identifier.
Q3) A _________ is a virtual table.
A)tuple
B)query
C)view
D)DBMS
Q4) T F 4.The value of a primary key must be unique for each tuple of its table.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Random-sample query is a simple output perturbation technique.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Malicious Software
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Q1) A __________ uses multiple methods of infection or propagation to maximize the speed of contagion and the severity of the attack.
Q2) Developed by IBM and refined by Symantec,the __________ provides a malware detection system that will automatically capture,analyze,add detection and shielding,or remove new malware and pass information about it to client systems so the malware can be detected before it is allowed to run elsewhere.
Q3) __________ are used to send large volumes of unwanted e-mail.
A)Rootkits
B)Spammer programs
C)Downloaders
D)Auto-rooter
Q4) __________ code refers to programs that can be shipped unchanged to a heterogeneous collection of platforms and execute with identical semantics.
Q5) A bot can use a __________ to capture keystrokes on the infected machine to retrieve sensitive information.
Q6) Countermeasures for malware are generally known as _________ mechanisms because they were first developed to specifically target virus infections.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Denial-Of-Service Attacks
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Q1) Since filtering needs to be done as close to the source as possible by routers or gateways knowing the valid address ranges of incoming packets,an _______ is best placed to ensure that valid source addresses are used in all packets from its customers.
Q2) A ______ is a graphical puzzle used to attempt to identify legitimate human initiated interactions.
Q3) TCP uses the _______ to establish a connection.
A)zombie
B)SYN cookie
C)directed broadcast
D)three-way handshake
Q4) ______ attempts to monopolize all of the available request handling threads on the Web server by sending HTTP requests that never complete.
A)HTTP
B)Reflection attacks
C)SYN flooding
D)Slowloris
Q5) A _______ flood refers to an attack that bombards Web servers with HTTP requests.
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Chapter 8: Intrusion Detection
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Q1) __________ involves an attempt to define a set of rules or attack patterns that can be used to decide if a given behavior is that of an intruder.
A)Profile based detection
B)Signature detection
C)Threshold detection
D)Anomaly detection
Q2) _________ involves the collection of data relating to the behavior of legitimate users over a period of time.
A)Profile based detection
B)Signature detection
C)Threshold detection
D)Anomaly detection
Q3) The _________ is the predefined formally documented statement that defines what activities are allowed to take place on an organization's network or on particular hosts to support the organization's requirements.
Q4) Intrusion detection is based on the assumption that the behavior of the intruder differs from that of a legitimate user in ways that can be quantified.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Firewalls and Intrusion Prevention Systems
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Q1) The primary role of the personal firewall is to deny unauthorized remote access to the computer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A packet filtering firewall is typically configured to filter packets going in both directions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Snort Inline enables Snort to function as an intrusion prevention capability.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ are attacks that attempt to give ordinary users root access.
A)Privilege-escalation exploits
B)Directory transversals
C)File system access
D)Modification of system resources
Q5) One disadvantage of a packet filtering firewall is its simplicity. A)True
B)False
11
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Chapter 10: Buffer Overflow
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Q1) A runtime technique that can be used is to place ________ between critical regions of memory in a processes address space.
A)guard pages
B)library functions
C)shellcodes
D)MMUs
Q2) _______ defenses involve changes to the memory management of the virtual address space of processes that act to either alter the properties of regions of memory or to make predicting the location of target buffers sufficiently difficult to thwart many types of attacks.
A)Buffer
B)Position independent
C)Run-time
D)Compile-time
Q3) The first widely used occurrence of the buffer overflow attack was the _______.
A)Code Red Worm
B)Morris Internet Worm
C)Sasser Worm
D)Slammer Worm
Q4) ______ defenses aim to harden programs to resist attacks in new programs.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Software Security
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Q1) Software security is closely related to software quality and reliability. A)True B)False
Q2) Injection attacks variants can occur whenever one program invokes the services of another program,service,or function and passes to it externally sourced,potentially untrusted information without sufficient inspection and validation of it. A)True B)False
Q3) Security flaws occur as a consequence of sufficient checking and validation of data and error codes in programs. A)True B)False
Q4) A number of widely used standard C _________ compound the problem of buffer overflow by not providing any means of limiting the amount of data transferred to the space available in the buffer.
Q5) "Failure to Preserve SQL Query Structure" is in the __________ CWE/SANS software error category.
Q6) A ________ occurs when multiple processes and threads compete to gain uncontrolled access to some resource.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Operating System Security
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Q1) Most large software systems do not have security weaknesses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Performing regular backups of data on a system is a critical control that assists with maintaining the integrity of the system and user data.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Manual analysis of logs is a reliable means of detecting adverse events.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ______ is the process of retaining copies of data over extended periods of time,being months or years,in order to meet legal and operational requirements to access past data.
Q5) Ideally new systems should be constructed on an unprotected network in order to prevent installation restrictions.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Unix and Linux systems grant access permissions for each resource using the ______ command.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Trusted Computing and Multilevel Security
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Q1) The _________ model is intended to deal with the case in which there is data that must be visible to users at multiple or all security levels but should only be modified in controlled ways by authorized agents.
Q2) An object is said to have a security ________ of a given level.
Q3) The _________ model is aimed at commercial rather than military applications and closely models real commercial operations.
Q4) The ________ control the manner by which a subject may access an object.
A)security classes
B)security classifications
C)security clearances
D)security properties
Q5) ________ is when a new document consolidates information from a range of sources and levels so that some of that information is now classified at a higher level than it was originally.
A)Classification creep
B)Trusted platform
C)Common criteria
D)Polyinstantiation
Q6) A subject is said to have a security _________ of a given level.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: It Security Management and Risk Assessment
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Q1) Legal and regulatory constraints may require specific approaches to risk assessment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is not critical that an organization's IT security policy have full approval or buy-in by senior management.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Implementing the risk treatment plan is part of the ______ step.
A)check
B)act
C)do
D)plan
Q4) Organizational security objectives identify what IT security outcomes should be achieved.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The _________ approach combines elements of the baseline,informal,and detailed risk analysis approaches.
Page 16
Q6) _________ is sharing responsibility for the risk with a third party.
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Chapter 15: It Security Controls, plans, and Procedures
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Q1) Once in place controls cannot be adjusted,regardless of the results of risk assessment of systems in the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The IT security management process ends with the implementation of controls and the training of personnel.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _________ is a formal process to ensure that critical assets are sufficiently protected in a cost-effective manner.
A)Configuration management control
B)IT security management
C)Detection and recovery control
D)Security compliance
Q4) Operational controls range from simple to complex measures that work together to secure critical and sensitive data,information,and IT systems functions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Contingency planning falls into the _________ class of security controls.
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Chapter 16: Physical and Infrastructure Security
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Q1) The ______ is an optional key that may be present on any PIV card,does not require PIN entry,and whose purpose is to authenticate the card and therefore its possessor.
A)VIS
B)BIO
C)CHUID
D)CAK
Q2) If a computer's temperature gets too cold the system can undergo thermal shock when it is turned on.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Low-intensity devices such as cellular telephones do not interfere with electronic equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Unauthorized physical access can lead to other threats.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Power utility problems can be grouped into three categories: undervoltage,overvoltage,and ________.
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Chapter 17: Human Resources Security
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Q1) Awareness only communicates information security policies and procedures that need to be followed and does not provide the foundation for any sanctions or disciplinary actions imposed for noncompliance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A _______ is a characteristic of a piece of technology that can be exploited to perpetrate a security incident.
Q3) A(n)________ is any file or object found on a system that might be involved in probing or attacking systems and networks or that is being used to defeat security measures.
Q4) Programmers,developers,and system maintainers require less advanced security training than other employees. A)True B)False
Q5) Employee behavior is not a critical concern in ensuring the security of computer systems.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 18: Security Auditing
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Q1) Severe messages,such as immediate system shutdown,is a(n)_____ severity.
A)alert
B)emerg
C)crit
D)warning
Q2) Audit trails are different from audit logs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) RFC 2196 (Site Security Handbook)lists three alternatives for storing audit records: read/write file on a host,write-once/read-many device,and ______.
Q4) Thresholding is a form of baseline analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) System conditions requiring immediate attention is a(n)_______ severity.
A)alert
B)err
C)notice
D)emert
Q6) Messages in the BSD syslog format consist of three parts: PRI,Header,and ___.
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Q7) ______ is the process of defining normal versus unusual events and patterns.
Chapter 19: Legal and Ethical Aspects
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Q1) Privacy is broken down into four major areas: anonymity,unlinkability,unobservability,and _________.
Q2) The success of cybercriminals,and the relative lack of success of law enforcement,influence the behavior of _______.
A)cyber thieves
B)cybercrime victims
C)cybercrime acts
D)cyber detectives
Q3) The three main types of intellectual property for which legal protection is available are: copyrights,patents,and _______.
Q4) A servicemark is the same as a trademark except that it identifies and distinguishes the source of a service rather than a product.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Both policy and ________ approaches are needed to protect privacy when both government and nongovernment organization seek to learn as much as possible about individuals.
Q6) The ___________ Act places restrictions on online organizations in the collection of data from children under the age of 13.
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Chapter 20: Symmetric Encryption and Message
Confidentiality
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Q1) All encryption algorithms are based on two general principles: substitution and _________.
Q2) The National Bureau of Standards is now the National Institute of Standards and Technology.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A brute-force approach involves trying every possible key until an intelligible translation of the ciphertext into plaintext in obtained.
A)True
B)False
Q4) "Each block of 64 plaintext bits is encoded independently using the same key" is a description of the CBC mode of operation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Key distribution can be achieved for two parties A and B by a third party selecting the key and physically delivering it to A and B.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The three most important symmetric block ciphers are: 3DES,AES,and _____. Page 22
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Page 23
Chapter 21: Public-Key Cryptography and Message
Authentication
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Q1) The purpose of the algorithm is to enable two users to exchange a __________ securely that can then be used for subsequent encryption of messages.
Q2) A __________ type of attack exploits properties of the RSA algorithm.
A)timing
B)brute-force
C)chosen ciphertext
D)mathematical
Q3) SHA is perhaps the most widely used family of hash functions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A hash function such as SHA-1 was not designed for use as a MAC and cannot be used directly for that purpose because it does not rely on a secret key.
A)True
B)False
Q5) RSA is a block cipher in which the plaintext and ciphertext are integers between 0 and n - 1 for some n.
A)True
B)False
Q6) NIST has published FIPS PUB 186,which is known as the ___________.
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Chapter 22: Internet Security Protocols and Standards
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Q1) As an alternative the RSA public-key encryption algorithm can be used with either the SHA-1 or the MD5 message digest algorithm for forming signatures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ is housed in the user's computer and is referred to as a client e-mail program or a local network e-mail server.
Q3) A message store cannot be located on the same machine as the MUA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) IPsec provides two main functions: a combined authentication/encryption function called ___________ and a key exchange function.
Q5) _________ is a specification for cryptographically signing e-mail messages,permitting a signing domain to claim responsibility for a message in the mail stream.
Q6) If encryption is used alone,_______ is used to convert the ciphertext to ASCII format.
Q7) The default algorithms used for encrypting S/MIME messages are the triple DES and a public-key scheme known as _______.
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Chapter 23: Internet Authentication Applications
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Q1) The certification _________ is the issuer of certificates and certificate revocation lists.
Q2) An integer value unique within the issuing CA that is unambiguously associated with the certificate is the ________.
A)issuer name
B)subject's public-key information
C)issuer unique identifier
D)serial number
Q3) In Kerberos,the ___________ decrypts the ticket and authenticator,verifies the request,and creates ticket for requested server.
Q4) Kerberos is designed to counter only one specific threat to the security of a client/server dialogue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) CMP,defined in RFC 2510,is designed to be a flexible protocol able to accommodate a variety of technical,operational,and business models.
A)True B)False
Q6) In a generic identity management architecture a ________ is an identity holder.
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Chapter 24: Wireless Network Security
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Q1) The lowest layer of the IEEE 802 reference model is the __________ layer.
Q2) A wireless access point is a _______.
A)cell tower
B)Wi-Fi hot spot
C)wireless access point to a LAN or WAN
D)all of the above
Q3) The association service enables transfer of data between a station on an IEEE 802.11 LAN and a station on an integrated IEEE 802.x LAN.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The MAC service data unit contains any protocol control information needed for the functioning of the MAC protocol.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The purpose of the authentication phase is to maintain backward compatibility with the IEEE 802.11 state machine.
A)True
B)False
Q6) At the top level of the group key hierarchy is the ___________.
Q7) The field following the MSDU field is referred to as the ___________.
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