System Security
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
System Security is an in-depth exploration of the principles, technologies, and best practices used to protect computer systems and their resources from unauthorized access, misuse, and disruption. The course covers key topics such as operating system security models, authentication and access control mechanisms, vulnerability analysis, malware threats, security policies, and secure system architectures. Students will examine real-world attack scenarios and learn how to implement effective defenses, including hardening techniques, patch management, intrusion detection, and secure configuration. Emphasis is placed on both theoretical foundations and practical skills, preparing students to design and maintain robust and resilient systems in diverse computing environments.
Recommended Textbook
Computer Security Principles and Practice 3rd Edition by William Stallings
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Chapter 1: Computer Systems Overview
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Q1) A flaw or weakness in a system's design,implementation,or operation and management that could be exploited to violate the system's security policy is a(n)__________.
A)countermeasure
B)adversary
C)vulnerability
D)risk
Answer: C
Q2) A loss of _________ is the unauthorized disclosure of information.
A)confidentiality
B)authenticity
C)integrity
D)availability
Answer: A
Q3) Security mechanisms typically do not involve more than one particular algorithm or protocol.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Cryptographic Tools
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Q1) An important element in many computer security services and applications is the use of cryptographic algorithms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Cryptanalytic attacks try every possible key on a piece of ciphertext until an intelligible translation into plaintext is obtained.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) T F 13.The purpose of the DSS algorithm is to enable two users to securely reach agreement about a shared secret that can be used as a secret key for subsequent symmetric encryption of messages.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) __________ is provided by means of a co-processor board embedded in the tape drive and tape library hardware. Answer: library-based tape encryption
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Chapter 3: User Authentication
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Q1) Voice pattern,handwriting characteristics,and typing rhythm are examples of __________ biometrics.
Answer: dynamic
Q2) Memory cards store and process data.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A good technique for choosing a password is to use the first letter of each word of a phrase.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A __________ is directed at the user file at the host where passwords,token passcodes,or biometric templates are stored.
A)eavesdropping attack
B)client attack
C)denial-of-service attack
D)host attack
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Access Control
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Q1) A(n)__________ is a resource to which access is controlled.
A)object
B)owner
C)world
D)subject
Q2) An auditing function monitors and keeps a record of user accesses to system resources.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A constraint is a defined relationship among roles or a condition related to roles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Access control is the central element of computer security.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Traditional RBAC systems define the access rights of individual users and groups of users.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Database and Cloud Security
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Q1) In a discretionary access control environment database users are classified into three broad categories: administrator,end user other than application owner,and
Q2) __________ encompasses intrusion detection,prevention and response.
A)Intrusion management
B)Security assessments
C)Database access control
D)Data loss prevention
Q3) A ___________ is a person or organization that maintains a business relationship with cloud providers.
A)cloud consumer
B)cloud auditor
C)cloud carrier
D)cloud broker
Q4) T F 4.The value of a primary key must be unique for each tuple of its table.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A __________ cloud infrastructure is made available to the general public or a large industry group and is owned by an organization selling cloud services.
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Chapter 6: Malicious Software
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Q1) A logic bomb is the event or condition that determines when the payload is activated or delivered.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A __________ attack is a bot attack on a computer system or network that causes a loss of service to users.
A)spam
B)phishing
C)DDoS
D)sniff
Q3) Developed by IBM and refined by Symantec,the __________ provides a malware detection system that will automatically capture,analyze,add detection and shielding,or remove new malware and pass information about it to client systems so the malware can be detected before it is allowed to run elsewhere.
Q4) Unsolicited bulk e-mail is referred to as __________.
A)spam
B)propagating
C)phishing
D)crimeware
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Chapter 7: Denial-Of-Service Attacks
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Q1) Modifying the system's TCP/IP network code to selectively drop an entry for an incomplete connection from the TCP connections table when it overflows,allowing a new connection attempt to proceed is _______.
A)poison packet
B)slashdot
C)backscatter traffic
D)random drop
Q2) During a ______ attack,the attacker sends packets to a known service on the intermediary with a spoofed source address of the actual target system and when the intermediary responds,the response is sent to the target.
Q3) A _____ is an action that prevents or impairs the authorized use of networks,systems,or applications by exhausting resources such as central processing units,memory,bandwidth,and disk space.
Q4) A characteristic of reflection attacks is the lack of _______ traffic.
A)backscatter
B)network
C)three-way
D)botnet
Q5) The standard protocol used for call setup in VoIP is the ________ Protocol.
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Chapter 8: Intrusion Detection
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Q1) The IDS component responsible for collecting data is the user interface.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A ________ monitors network traffic for particular network segments or devices and analyzes network,transport,and application protocols to identify suspicious activity.
A)host-based IDS
B)security intrusion
C)network-based IDS
D)intrusion detection
Q3) __________ involves an attempt to define a set of rules or attack patterns that can be used to decide if a given behavior is that of an intruder.
A)Profile based detection
B)Signature detection
C)Threshold detection
D)Anomaly detection
Q4) An IDS comprises three logical components: analyzers,user interface and _____.
Q5) An intruder can also be referred to as a hacker or cracker.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Firewalls and Intrusion Prevention Systems
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Q1) An example of a circuit-level gateway implementation is the __________ package.
A)application-level
B)SOCKS
C)SMTP
D)stateful inspection
Q2) The _________ is inserted between the premises network and the Internet to establish a controlled link and to erect an outer security wall or perimeter to protect the premises network from Internet-based attacks.
Q3) The primary role of the personal firewall is to deny unauthorized remote access to the computer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Distributed firewalls protect against internal attacks and provide protection tailored to specific machines and applications.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A ________ uses encryption and authentication in the lower protocol layers to provide a secure connection through an otherwise insecure network,typically the Internet.
Q6) Snort Inline adds three new rule types: drop,reject,and _________.
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Chapter 10: Buffer Overflow
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Q1) In the classic __________ overflow,the attacker overwrites a buffer located in the local variable area of a stack frame and then overwrites the saved frame pointer and return address.
Q2) The _________ is typically located above the program code and global data and grows up in memory (while the sack grows down toward it).
Q3) There are several generic restrictions on the content of shellcode.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An attacker is more interested in transferring control to a location and code of the attacker's choosing rather than immediately crashing the program.
A)True B)False
Q5) Shellcode is not specific to a particular processor architecture.
A)True B)False
Q6) Gaps,or __________ ,are flagged in the MMU as illegal addresses,and any attempt to access them results in the process being aborted.
Q7) Data is simply an array of _________ .
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Software Security
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Q1) The process of transforming input data that involves replacing alternate,equivalent encodings by one common value is called _________.
Q2) A ________ is a pattern composed of a sequence of characters that describe allowable input variants.
A)canonicalization
B)race condition
C)regular expression
D)shell script
Q3) Software security is closely related to software quality and reliability.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A variant where the attacker includes malicious script content in data supplied to a site is the __________ vulnerability.
Q5) Defensive programming is sometimes referred to as _________.
A)variable programming
B)secure programming
C)interpretive programming
D)chroot programming
Q6) Program input data may be broadly classified as textual or ______.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Operating System Security
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Q1) The ______ process makes copies of data at regular intervals for recovery of lost or corrupted data over short time periods.
A)logging
B)backup
C)hardening
D)archive
Q2) ______ virtualization systems are typically seen in servers,with the goal of improving the execution efficiency of the hardware.
Q3) _______ is the process of making copies of data at regular intervals allowing the recovery of lost or corrupted data over relatively short time periods of a few hours to some weeks.
Q4) ______ virtualization systems are more common in clients,where they run along side other applications on the host OS,and are used to support applications for alternate operating system versions or types.
Q5) Unix and Linux systems grant access permissions for each resource using the ______ command.
Q6) Configuration information in Windows systems is centralized in the _______,which forms a database of keys and values.
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Chapter 13: Trusted Computing and Multilevel Security
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Q1) The ________ control the manner by which a subject may access an object.
A)security classes
B)security classifications
C)security clearances
D)security properties
Q2) A subject can exercise only accesses for which it has the necessary authorization and which satisfy the MAC rules.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Functionality is the security features provided by a product.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Multilevel security is of interest when there is a requirement to maintain a resource in which multiple levels of data sensitivity are defined.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When multiple categories or levels of data are defined,the requirement is referred to as __________ security.
Q6) _________ rules are built-in system security mechanisms that achieve the objectives of the certification rules.
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Chapter 14: It Security Management and Risk Assessment
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Q1) The purpose of ________ is to determine the basic parameters within which the risk assessment will be conducted and then to identify the assets to be examined.
A)establishing the context
B)control
C)risk avoidance
D)combining
Q2) ISO details a model process for managing information security that comprises the following steps: plan,do,________,and act.
Q3) _________ is choosing to accept a risk level greater than normal for business reasons.
A)Risk avoidance
B)Reducing likelihood
C)Risk transfer
D)Risk acceptance
Q4) The _________ provides the most accurate evaluation of an organization's IT system's security risks.
Q5) A(n)_________ is anything that has value to the organization.
Q6) Not proceeding with the activity or system that creates the risk is _________.
Q7) _________ is sharing responsibility for the risk with a third party.
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Chapter 15: It Security Controls,plans,and Procedures
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Q1) The ________ audit process should be conducted on new IT systems and services once they are implanted;and on existing systems periodically,often as part of a wider,general audit of the organization or whenever changes are made to the organization's security policy.
Q2) The _______ plan documents what needs to be done for each selected control,along with the personnel responsible,and the resources and time frame to be used.
Q3) Controls can be classified as belonging to one of the following classes: management controls,operational controls,technical controls,detection and recovery controls,preventative controls,and _______ controls.
Q4) Periodically reviewing controls to verify that they still function as intended,upgrading controls when new requirements are discovered,ensuring that changes to systems do not adversely affect the controls,and ensuring new threats or vulnerabilities have not become known are all ________ tasks.
A)security compliance
B)maintenance
C)incident handling
D)program management
Q5) Incident response is part of the ________ class of security controls.
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Chapter 16: Physical and Infrastructure Security
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Q1) ________ threats are specifically designed to overcome prevention measures and seek the most vulnerable point of attack.
A)Human-caused
B)Technical
C)EMI
D)Environmental
Q2) _________ security,also called infrastructure security,protects the information systems that contain data and the people who use,operate,and maintain the systems.
Q3) An area of a facility that has no security interest is classified as _________.
A)unrestricted
B)controlled
C)limited
D)exclusion
Q4) The direct flame is the only threat from fire.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ physical threats are more difficult to deal with than environmental and technical threats.
Q6) The most essential element of recovery from physical security breaches is ____.
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Chapter 17: Human Resources Security
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Q1) In general,a(n)________ program seeks to inform and focus an employee's attention on issues related to security within the organization.
Q2) ________ is explicitly required for all employees.
A)Security awareness
B)Education and experience
C)Security basics and literacy
D)Roles and responsibilities relative to IT systems
Q3) A(n)________ is any file or object found on a system that might be involved in probing or attacking systems and networks or that is being used to defeat security measures.
Q4) Awareness only communicates information security policies and procedures that need to be followed and does not provide the foundation for any sanctions or disciplinary actions imposed for noncompliance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Many companies incorporate specific e-mail and Internet use policies into the organization's security policy document.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Security Auditing
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Q1) A _________is a chronological record of system activities that is sufficient to enable the reconstruction and examination of the sequence of environments and activities surrounding or leading to an operation,procedure,or event in a security-relevant transaction from inception to final results.
Q2) All UNIX implementations will have the same variants of the syslog facility.
A)True B)False
Q3) The foundation of a security auditing facility is the initial capture of the audit data.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The security administrator must define the set of events that are subject to audit.
A)True B)False
Q5) The ______ repository contains the auditing code to be inserted into an application.
Q6) A _______ is an independent review and examination of a system's records and activities.
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Chapter 19: Legal and Ethical Aspects
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Q1) A _______ for an invention is the grant of a property right to the inventor.
A)patent
B)copyright
C)trademark
D)claim
Q2) The purpose of the privacy functions is to provide a user protection against discovery and misuse of identity by other users.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _______ or cybercrime,is a term used broadly to describe criminal activity in which computers or computer networks are a tool,a target,or a place of criminal activity.
Q4) No cybercriminal databases exist that can point investigators to likely suspects.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Anyone can join the Ad Hoc Committee on Responsible Computing.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The three types of patents are: utility patents,design patents,and ________.
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Chapter 20: Symmetric Encryption and Message
Confidentiality
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Q1) Key distribution can be achieved for two parties A and B by a third party selecting the key and physically delivering it to A and B.
A)True
B)False
Q2) AES uses a Feistel structure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cryptographic systems are generically classified by _________.
A)the type of operations used for transforming plaintext to ciphertext
B)the number of keys used
C)the way in which the plaintext is processed
D)all of the above
Q4) "The input to the encryption algorithm is the XOR of the next 64 bits of plaintext and the preceding 64 bits of ciphertext" is a description of the ________ mode of operation.
Q5) Plaintext is the scrambled message produced as output.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _________ is the process of attempting to discover the plaintext or key.
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Chapter 21: Public-Key Cryptography and Message
Authentication
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Q1) A hash function such as SHA-1 was not designed for use as a MAC and cannot be used directly for that purpose because it does not rely on a secret key. A)True B)False
Q2) Unlike RSA,DSS cannot be used for encryption or key exchange. A)True B)False
Q3) Cryptographic hash functions generally execute faster in software than conventional encryption algorithms such as DES. A)True B)False
Q4) SHA-3 algorithms must be designed to resist any potentially successful attack on SHA-2 functions.
A)True B)False
Q5) The evaluation criteria for the new hash function are: security,_______,and algorithm and implementation characteristics.
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Q6) Perhaps the most widely used public-key algorithms are _________ and Diffie-Hellman.
Chapter 22: Internet Security Protocols and Standards
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Q1) The default algorithms used for signing S/MIME messages are SHA-1 and the
Q2) Recipients without S/MIME capability can view the message content, although they cannot verify the signature.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A benefit of IPsec is __________.
A)that it is below the transport layer and transparent to applications
B)there is no need to revoke keying material when users leave the organization C)it can provide security for individual users if needed
D)all of the above
Q4) A message store cannot be located on the same machine as the MUA. A)True
B)False
Q5) A _________ is formed by taking the message digest of the content to be signed and then encrypting that with the private key of the signer.
Q6) _________ is a specification for cryptographically signing e-mail messages,permitting a signing domain to claim responsibility for a message in the mail stream.
Q7) The _________ is used to convey SSL-related alerts to the peer entity.
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Chapter 23: Internet Authentication Applications
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Q1) CMP,defined in RFC 2510,is designed to be a flexible protocol able to accommodate a variety of technical,operational,and business models.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Update is not required when the certificate lifetime expires or as a result of certificate revocation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ is a markup language that uses sets of embedded tags or labels to characterize text elements within a document so as to indicate their appearance,function,meaning,or context.
A)HML
B)HTTP
C)XML
D)SOAP
Q4) The ticket-granting ticket is not reusable.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ allows end entities to restore their encryption/decryption key pair from an authorized key backup facility.
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Chapter 24: Wireless Network Security
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Q1) The wireless access point provides a connection to the network or service.
A)True
B)False
Q2) WPA2 incorporates all of the features of the IEEE 802.11i WLAN security specifications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lowest layer of the IEEE 802 reference model is the __________ layer.
Q4) A(n)__________ is any entity that has station functionality and provides access to the distribution system via the wireless medium for associated stations.
A)ESS
B)access point
C)distribution system
D)MPDU
Q5) The wireless environment consists of three components that provide point of attack: the wireless client,the transmission medium,and the _________.
Q6) The field following the MSDU field is referred to as the ___________.
Q7) At the top level of the group key hierarchy is the ___________.
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