Sustainability Studies
Test Bank
Course Introduction
Sustainability Studies explores the complex interactions between environmental, economic, and social systems to promote a more resilient and equitable world. This course introduces students to the foundational concepts, principles, and challenges of sustainability, focusing on topics such as climate change, resource management, sustainable development, and the ethical dimensions of human-environment relationships. Through interdisciplinary approaches, case studies, and collaborative projects, students will examine how local and global communities can develop strategies for responsible stewardship of natural resources, reduce environmental impacts, and foster long-term well-being for present and future generations.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Jeneen InterlandI
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Chapter 1: Environmental Literacy and the Goal of
Sustainability - on the Road to Collapse: What Lessons Can We Learn From a Vanished Viking Society
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 1.3. The Green Revolution brought modern industrialized agricultural techniques to developing countries so they could better feed their growing populations. The idea is to achieve higher yields by taking advantage of better seed types, irrigation, chemical fertilizers, and pesticides. By doing this, less land, such as rainforest, would need to be converted to agriculture. Use the Infographic to describe the pros and cons of the Green Revolution on the environment, thus illustrating why climate change is a wicked problem.
Answer: By preventing deforestation, more carbon dioxide is taken out of the atmosphere, which helps to prevent global warming. Also, by keeping habitats intact, biodiversity will be better protected in those areas not converted into agriculture. However, by adding tractors, fossil fuels now need to be combusted, and this contributes to global warming. Chemicals added to crops will run off into water and soil. Added irrigation can cause water shortages and soil problems.
Q2) What is environmental science, and what fields of study does it rely on?
Answer: Environmental science is an interdisciplinary field of research that draws on the natural (for example, ecology) and social sciences (for example, anthropology) and the humanities (for example, literature) in order to understand the natural world and our relationship to it.
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Science Literacy and the Process of Science-
Science and the Sky: Solving the Mystery of the Disappearing Ozone
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Q1) When it rains, you often notice people outside holding open umbrellas. You hypothesize that opening an umbrella causes rain to fall. What type of experiment can be used to test this? Explain what is meant by the phrase "correlation is not causation."
Answer: Although the appearance of rain and open umbrellas is correlated, it is not clear yet if one variable is causing the other to happen. We need an experimental study to test if rain is causing people to open umbrellas or if opening an umbrella causes rain to fall. "Correlation is not causation" means that just because two things happen at the same time does not mean that one is caused by the other.
Q2) Why can scientific opinions change over time?
A) All conclusions in science are considered tentative and open to revision.
B) Our understanding of a concept or process can change as scientists learn more.
C) New evidence may be used to overturn a prevailing conclusion.
D) All of these statements are true.
E) None of these statements are true.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Information Literacy:toxic Bottles on the Trail of Chemicals
in Our Everyday Lives- Human Populations and Environmental Health
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Q1) Which uses for BPA were of the most concern to families, and why?
Answer: BPA was used to make baby bottles and line baby food cans, so infants were exposed to it in almost everything they ate or drank. Infants are developing their brains and other organs and so they are more susceptible to chemicals. Also, babies have less efficient livers and kidneys than adults do. Therefore, it may take longer for the BPA to be excreted.
Q2) Which of the following is the term for chemicals that work together in the body to produce toxic effects greater than the sum of their individual effects would predict?
A) additive
B) synergistic
C) antagonistic
D) disruptive
E) agonistic
Answer: B
Q3) In order for individual consumers to decide for themselves whether they will purchase products containing BPA, what two things do they need to know?
Answer: They need to know (1) whether a given chemical has the potential to harm and (2) how great that harm might be.
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Human Populations- One Child China Grows Up:
a Country Faces the Outcomes of Radical Population Control
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Q1) What is the ultimate population question?
A) Is the carrying capacity 7 billion people?
B) Is the carrying capacity 9 billion people?
C) Should China continue their one-child policy?
D) What is the acceptable quality of life?
E) Is population growth linked to climate change?
Q2) As a country progresses from the preindustrial stage to the postindustrial stage, what will happen to the birth rate and death rate?
A) Both will increase.
B) Both will decrease.
C) Both remain unchanged.
D) Birth rate will increase, and death rate will decrease.
E) Birth rate will decrease, and death rate will increase.
Q3) The discovery of penicillin, the first antibiotic, changed the face of disease management and treatment. For the first time, people were surviving infections that would normally have killed them. How would you think antibiotics, such as penicillin, affect a population's growth rate?
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Q4) How has the one-child policy in China changed the country's sex ratio? What effect is this having on the country?
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Chapter
Nightmare: Human Health Is Intricately Linked to the
Environment-
Consumption and the Environmental
Footprint
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Q1) What is an example of a cultural variable that may influence the plan of action for a particular health threat?
A) water cleanliness
B) habitat fragmentation
C) average income of the population affected
D) religious beliefs
E) All of these options are examples of cultural variables.
Q2) Why is Guinea worm disease (GWD) not a zoonotic disease?
Q3) Zoonotic diseases are impacted by:
A) bushmeat trade.
B) environmental changes.
C) human encroachment into wild areas.
D) climate change.
E) All of these answers are correct.
Q4) Emerging infectious diseases are:
A) diseases new to humans.
B) illnesses that are not transmissible between people.
C) diseases that have established themselves in the natural world. Page 7
D) all zoonotic.
E) None of these answers are correct.
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Page 8
Cradle: a Leading Carpet Company
Takes a Chance on Going Green
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Q1) Sustainable use of forests allows us to use the trees to produce goods without depleting them. The amount of net resources produced from the forest or any other form of natural capital is known as ____________.
A) an ecological footprint
B) internal cost
C) raw material
D) natural interest
E) true cost
Q2) One area where traditional economics differs from environmental economics is that traditional economics tends to give more weight to _________ benefits and costs than it does to ________ benefits and costs.
A) long-term; short-term
B) short-term; long-term
C) long-term; middle-term
D) short-term; middle-term
E) middle-term; long-term
Q3) Refer to Infographic 6.1. Why is it useful to put a monetary value on ecosystem services?
Page 9
Q4) What are the internal and external costs associated with producing paper?
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Chapter 7: Managing Solid Waste- a Plastic Surf: Are the Oceans
Teeming With Trash- Ecology
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 7.8. What options do consumers have for disposing of their waste, and which options are the most environmentally friendly? Refer to the infographic to support your answer.
Q2) In the United States, 54% of all garbage is categorized as ___________ waste.
A) recycled paper
B) mining
C) municipal paper
D) agricultural and industrial
E) municipal metal
Q3) Matter cannot be created nor destroyed; it only changes form. This is the law of _________.
A) conservation of energy
B) waste management
C) conservation of matter
D) no returns
E) sustainability
Q4) Aquatic ecosystems are considered particularly vulnerable to plastic waste.
Describe four ways that plastic waste can affect aquatic species and ecosystems.
Q5) What is the difference between degradable and biodegradable waste?
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Chapter 8: Ecosystems and Nutrient Cycling- Engineering
Earth: an Ambitious Attempt to Replicate Earths Life
Support Systems Goes Awry
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 8.10. Each year a "dead zone" appears in the Gulf of Mexico when oxygen levels in the water drop to levels insufficient to support the fish and shrimp that live there. The drop in oxygen is due to the decomposition of photosynthetic phytoplankton that grow in huge numbers, die, and sink to the bottom; they are then decomposed by bacteria that use up oxygen in the process. Use the infographic to describe what the limiting factor to phytoplankton normally is and how that factor is removed each spring when rains wash runoff from Midwestern farm fields into rivers that empty into the Gulf. What could be done to help prevent this from occurring?
Q2) Which is NOT an example of a terrestrial biome?
A) a temperate forest
B) an open ocean
C) a Mediterranean scrub
D) a savanna
E) a desert
Q3) Refer to Infographic 8.7. Using the infographic, describe what limiting factor caused the human population in Biosphere 2 to become so tired they couldn't work.
Q4) How have humans impacted the carbon cycle, and how can humans use nature to address this issue?
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Chapter 9: Population Ecology- the Wolf Watchers:
Endangered Gray Wolves Return to the American West
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Q1) What is one negative effect of a low-density population?
A) competition for resources
B) quick spreading of disease
C) inbreeding
D) increased fighting
E) none of the above
Q2) Lions in a savanna will increase in population as the total population of their prey species in the ecosystem increases. The number of lions present in the ecosystem is
A) a density-independent factor
B) a reproductive strategy
C) a density-dependent factor
D) the biotic potential
E) at carrying capacity
Q3) ____________ population growth produces an S curve when plotted over time.
A) Exponential
B) Biotic
C) Potential
D) Logistic
E) Resistance
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Threatened Ecosystem- Biodiversity and Evolution
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Q1) Which community do you think would be more resilient to a perturbation: a community with high species richness and low species evenness or one with low species richness and high species evenness? Why?
Q2) A chemical leaks into a pond that selectively kills off the phytoplankton (a producer). Many of the other organisms in the pond die over a short period of weeks, and the overall species diversity declines. The phytoplankton in this pond could be considered a good example of ________________.
A) a keystone species
B) an edge species
C) an indicator species
D) a core species
E) none of the above
Q3) ______________ ecology is the science that deals with the repair of damage or disturbed ecosystems
A) Restoration
B) Remediation
C) Adaptive
D) Landscape
E) Corrective
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Chapter 11: Evolution- a Tropical Murder Mystery: Finding the Missing Birds of Guam
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Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding evolution?
A) An individual organism in a population will evolve to adapt to its environment.
B) A population will evolve to adapt to its environment.
C) Individuals with favorable genes are selected for by natural selection.
D) If a trait is not genetically controlled, it cannot be passed on.
E) All of these answers are correct.
Q2) Which is likely not an example of coevolution?
A) A moth that has a long tongue reaches the nectar of a flower that is housed in a long tube.
B) A tree trunk growing thicker and stronger prevents breakage from hurricane force winds.
C) A caterpillar develops resistance to a toxin produced by its main plant food source.
D) A mollusk develops a thick shell to avoid predation by a crab with strong pinchers.
E) All answers could be examples of coevolution.
Q3) Describe how a population evolves by natural selection.
Q4) What are the main activities that humans are doing to greatly accelerate the rate of extinction above background levels?
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Chapter
Ingredient Is Wreaking Havoc on
Wildlife Across the Globe
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Q1) If islands make up a tiny percentage of the landmass of Earth, why have they accounted for around half of all species extinctions in the last 400 years?
Q2) How could the effects of global warming diminish ecosystem services? Use genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity in your answer.
Q3) What is biodiversity?
A) the measurement of individuals in a particular population
B) diversity that only refers to coloration of fur, feathers, and skin
C) the variety of all living and nonliving things on Earth
D) the variety of all living things on Earth
E) a field of study that focuses on humans and their interactions with the environment
Q4) Why is palm oil a good alternative to other edible oils?
A) Palm oil plantations produce more oil per acre than other oil crops.
B) Palm oil is cheaper.
C) Palm oil is healthier than other edible oils containing trans fats.
D) Palm oil can be sustainably farmed.
E) All of the above are correct.
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Q5) Why do tropical areas typically have more biodiversity than a colder or drier climate?
Chapter 13: Reserving Biodiversity- a Forest Without
Elephants: Can We Save One of Earths Iconic Species-
Water Resources
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Q1) Many zoos participate in species survival plans in which members of a particular endangered species are transferred from zoo to zoo to mate with other members of that species. Why is this mating technique important for the continuation of the species?
A) Oftentimes zoos will only have one sex of the endangered animal, so to mate those individuals, they must be moved to another zoo with members of the opposite sex.
B) This reduces the genetic diversity of the population as a whole and increases the likelihood that the species will survive and thrive in the wild.
C) This technique allows captive animals to experience different environments, since they are unlikely to ever be released back into the wild.
D) This technique increases the genetic diversity of the next generation of the species, which makes them more suited to weather any disturbances in their natural habitats upon release.
E) There are only a few zoos that are certified to house and rear young, so mating and birth must take place at these facilities.
Q2) Why would DNA fingerprinting be a useful tool to monitor some populations of endangered species?
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California County Is Employing a Controversial Method toSupply Drinking Water
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 14.2. Explain how salty ocean water can be recycled to become usable freshwater.
Q2) How did the Orange County Water District solve the problem of saltwater intrusion into unconfined coastal aquifers?
A) It built a dam to block the seepage of saltwater into the aquifers.
B) It stopped using those aquifers as public water supplies.
C) It installed desalination plants to purify the water coming out of the aquifers.
D) It began to pump highly treated sewage wastewater into infiltrated wells.
E) It built sea walls along coastal areas to keep out advancing waves.
Q3) What is an aquifer?
A) when saltwater intrudes on freshwater supplies
B) a species of conifer that can live underwater
C) an underground region of permeable soil or rock saturated with water
D) the very top region of an underground water reservoir
E) a manmade underground water reservoir system
Q4) Explain how the choice of crops or ornamental plants to plant can help conserve waters.
Q6) What are some potential impacts of global warming on aquifers? Page 17
Q5) Why is deforestation a problem in regards to the Earth's freshwater supply?
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Chapter 15: Water Pollution-
Zone, Far Upstream- Food Resources
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Q1) Which is an example of a point source pollution source?
A) farm water runoff
B) a ruptured sewer pipe
C) acid rain
D) sediment pollution
E) none of the above
Q2) If water flows more slowly through watershed areas, will this increase or decrease the amount of pathogens found in the water that eventually flows into the ending river or lake?
Q3) In which scenario would it be easier to identify a source of the eutrophication: a river with a large watershed or a river with a small watershed?
A) river with a large watershed
B) river with a small watershed
Q4) Which crop releases the most nitrogen into the soil?
A) oats
B) corn
C) alfalfa
D) rye
E) Plants do not release nitrogen into the soil.
Page 19
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Chapter
Genetically Engineered Food Help End Hunger
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Q1) Efforts from the Green Revolution resulted in enough food to feed every human on Earth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) By 2050, the human population is estimated to reach 10 billion. While the ability to produce food has risen with population growth so far, increasing production for another 3 billion humans poses a tremendous challenge. Discuss how the gene revolution will likely be part of the solution to meeting future food demands.
Q3) What caused the lack of food and resulting riots in 2008?
A) extreme weather events
B) the rising cost of oil
C) the growing demand for meat
D) increased production of biofuels
E) all of these answers likely contributed, with other factors as well
Q4) Given what you know about industrial agriculture and the Green Revolution, why is world hunger considered a "wicked problem"?
Q5) Why is there no clear answer to the problem of malnutrition in Africa?
Page 20
Q6) Why is the decreased biodiversity of high-yield varieties of crops a concern?
Q7) Why are low-tech farming methods more accessible to women farmers?
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Chapter 17: Agriculture- Farming Like an Ecosystem:
Creative Solutions to Feeding the World- Conventional Energy: Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Which of the following in an example of greenwashing that you may find on a food label?
A) produced locally (from commercial farm)
B) only contains natural ingredients
C) cage-free eggs
D) healthy organic brownies
E) all of these answers
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of sustainable farming for the farmer/environment?
A) The soil is not degraded.
B) There is less potential for water pollution.
C) Beneficial insects are not killed.
D) All of these answers are advantages.
E) None of these answers is an advantage.
Q3) Refer to Infographic 17.6. Which methods increase soil fertility, and why?
Q4) What are ways you can personally support sustainable/organic farming techniques and help them become more widely employed?
21
Q5) What are some potential hazards to using biological methods of pest control?
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Chapter
Rubble, the True Costs of Coal
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Q1) If we do not change our current rates of coal usage, how long would the proven coal reserves last?
A) 10 years
B) 20 years
C) 120 years
D) 1,200 years
E) none of these answers
Q2) Acid mine drainage is formed when water flows past exposed rocks that leach out _________________ that react with water and oxygen to form
________________.
A) carbonates; bases
B) sulfates; acids
C) arsenic; bases
D) nitrates; acids
E) methane; acid
Q3) Even though coal is produced by natural processes of the Earth, why is it classified as a "nonrenewable resource'?
Q4) What are the different types of pollution created in burning coal to generate electricity?
Q5) What are the benefits of using coal as an energy source?
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Consequences of Using Fossil Fuels
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Q1) What would be the consequence of using up all available oil for gasoline and transport uses?
Q2) Refer to Infographic 19.3. The United States reached its peak oil for domestic deposits in 1970. What have we done since then?
A) increased our dependence on other countries for oil
B) reduced our demand for oil
C) found other fuel sources to use instead of oil
D) continued to search for new sources of oil in the United States
E) used up our stores of domestic oil while reducing our dependence on foreign oil
Q3) If all sources of oil, unconventional or not, in the United States were equally economically feasible to harvest, which source would be most profitable?
A) conventional oil
B) conventional natural gas
C) fracking natural gas
D) oil sands
E) kerogen shale
Q4) What is the "Marcellus Shale"?
Page 23
Q5) What is energy security, and why is it an important issue for many countries?
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Chapter
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Q1) ________ is one of the most common chronic childhood diseases in the United States and other developed nations and a major cause of childhood disability.
A) Arthritis
B) Heart disease
C) Lung cancer
D) Asthma
E) None of these answers
Q2) Power plants are often built in neighborhoods where residents have less ability to fight for their rights. This is a violation of ___________.
A) environmental regulations
B) EPA protocol
C) environmental justice
D) transboundary jurisdiction
E) deposition principles
Q3) Smaller-sized particulate matter has more potential to induce health problems than larger-sized particulate matter.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Climate Change- When the Trees Leave:
Scientists Grapple With a Shifting Climate- Alternatives to Fossil Fuels
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Q1) What causes the level of atmospheric CO to rise and fall throughout the year?
A) plant growth and dormancy due to seasons
B) temperature fluctuation
C) movement of ocean air streams
D) industry booms
E) relative distance of Earth to the Sun
Q2) List several techniques used by climate scientists to gather indirect data on climate (temperature, carbon dioxide levels, etc.) from the distant past.
Q3) Describe how Milankovitch cycles help explain past climate change. Explain why the current warming cannot be attributed to these cycles.
Q4) Shifts in the ranges of tree species due to climate change are called ________.
A) derooting events
B) tree-range migrations
C) uncoupling events
D) seed dispersal phenomena
E) none of these answers
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Q5) Refer to Infographic 21.8. What is the scientific consensus regarding the cause of the recently observed changes in global climate?
Chapter
Nuclear Energy Overcome Its Bad Rep
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Q1) Which of the following statements about nuclear fission is NOT true?
A) Nuclear fission splits the nucleus of an atom.
B) Nuclear fission releases energy.
C) Nuclear fission reactions depend on radioactive isotopes.
D) Nuclear fission does not produce any heat.
E) All of these answers are incorrect
Q2) ___________________ rods are used in a nuclear plant to absorb neutrons and regulate the speed of the fission chain reaction.
A) Fuel
B) Nuclear
C) Regulatory
D) Control
E) Mechanical
Q3) Refer to Infographic 22.4. Use the infographic to explain how a nuclear reaction happens.
Q4) What is the process of nuclear fission?
Q5) What is the half-life of a radioactive isotope, and how long is it?
Q6) How do control rods regulate the rate of the nuclear reaction?
Q7) Explain why nuclear power plants require a vast amount of water.
Q8) What are the similarities and differences between uranium-238 and uranium-235? Page 26
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Chapter 23: Sustainable Energy
Stationary Sources-
Strides
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Q1) Which renewable resource supplies more electricity to the human population than any other single renewable resource?
A) solar energy
B) wind
C) geothermal energy
D) biomass
E) hydropower
Q2) Has Samsø completely become independent of fossil fuels, and if not, what is the country doing to accomplish this goal?
Q3) What factors make wind energy imperfect as an energy source?
A) Wind is intermittent.
B) Wind turbines are expensive to build.
C) Wind turbines can create noise.
D) Some people think turbines are an eyesore.
E) All of these answers are correct.
Q4) How does insulating pipes, using an on-demand water heater, and taking shorter showers save energy?
Q5) Explain why wind and water energy sources are considered an indirect form of solar energy. Page 28
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Chapter 24: Urbanization- the Ghetto Goes Green: in
Bronx, Building a Better Backyard
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Q1) In which international agreement is climate change formally recognized as a problem?
A) Kyoto Protocol
B) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
C) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
D) Montréal Protocol
E) Climate change has not been officially recognized as a problem.
Q2) Prior to the 1987 Montréal Protocol, there existed some uncertainty in the scientific community as to the magnitude of ozone depletion caused by CFCs in the atmosphere. Nevertheless, the Protocol did recommend phasing out CFCs from refrigerants and other uses because the potential consequences of not doing so were so severe. This is an example of applying the _______________ principle.
A) uncertainty
B) guilty-until-proven-innocent
C) precautionary
D) utopian
E) better-safe-than-sorry
Q3) What is political lobbying? In the United States, how does lobbying affect policy decisions?
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Chapter 25: Environmental Policy
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Q1) In the 1960s urban flight resulted in many banks ruling certain sections of cities off-limits to any type of investment. What was this practice called?
A) bluelining
B) redlining
C) greenlining
D) urban planning
E) rezoning
Q2) The disadvantages of urbanization for a society include ___________________.
A) higher energy efficiency in stacked houses
B) more job opportunities
C) a higher rate of disease
D) more transportation options
E) more services for citizens
Q3) Which of the following is considered a component of green building?
A) low-VOC design features
B) the use of sustainable FSC lumber
C) strategically placed windows
D) the use of wind turbines and water-saving devices
E) all of these answers
Q4) Explain the patterns in the development of megacities from midcentury to 2030.
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Chapter 26: Counterfeit Cooling: in
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Q1) A mining operation extracts copper ore from the ground. Without access to modern smelters, they dig pits and use them as open-air smelters. They harvest nearby trees for fuel in order to produce the high temperatures required for separating the copper metal from other components of the ore, such as sulfur. Describe some environmental consequences of such an operation.
Q2) In Infographic 26.3, quartz, mica, and feldspar are which of the following?
A) minerals
B) rocks?
C) metals
D) ores
E) none of these answers
Q3) From Infographic 26.4, list and explain which mining technique would be considered most dangerous to the miner.
Q4) Use Infographic 26.2 to describe how minerals are created.
Q5) Despite the development of safer techniques to process ores containing gold and silver, many areas of Africa, South America, and Asia still use toxic chemicals in their smelting process. Describe why this situation exists in those countries.
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Q6) Describe how geologists help determine the location of mineral deposits.
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Chapter 27: Learned After the Fact
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 27.3. Discuss some scenarios of how the healthy grass in the first picture might begin to look like the overgrazed grass in the second picture.
Q2) Which of the following is a consequence of overgrazing in grasslands?
A) compaction of soil
B) reduction in water penetration
C) reduction in seed germination
D) reduced seedling growth
E) all of these answers
Q3) Which types of grasslands are characterized by ultra thin layers of soil and very short growing seasons?
A) cold
B) temperate
C) savanna
D) prairie
E) rangeland
Q4) How does overgrazing lead to soil erosion?
Q5) What is the purpose of the Conservation Reserve Program, and what are some of the controversies surrounding it?
Q6) What are some of the important ecosystem services provided by grasslands?
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Chapter 28: Optional Chapters Available in Launchpad
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Q1) The layer of a forest cross section that generally would contain seedlings is the ___________.
A) forest floor
B) understory
C) canopy
D) emergent layer
E) none of these answers
Q2) Which of the following are services provided by forests?
A) watershed purification
B) sink for carbon dioxide
C) recycling of nutrients
D) reduction of soil erosion
E) all of these answers
Q3) The key to the regeneration of Haiti's forests is _______________________.
A) finding alternative sources of energy
B) finding alternative sources of food, building materials, and income
C) changing the species used for charcoal production
D) A and B
E) all of these answers
Q4) Why might forest management be considered a "wicked problem"?
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Chapter 29: Mineral Resources and Mining
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Q1) It is estimated that ______ of all ocean species spend some portion of their life in a coral reef.
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 90%
Q2) Where does the majority of ocean pollution come from?
A) offshore mining and oil drilling activities
B) human activities on land that runoff into ocean ecosystems
C) accidental oil spills from oil tankers transporting crude oil
D) deliberate dumping of litter in the ocean by cruise ships
E) atmospheric contaminants that enter the ocean via precipitation
Q3) Refer to Table 29.1. Describe ways that you can reduce the threats to ocean ecosystems through your personal actions.
Q4) The majority of coral reefs that have been destroyed are found near less-developed countries. What are some of the reasons why these coral reefs have been more damaged compared with reefs found near countries that are more developed?
Q5) Why do ecologists consider coral reefs a keystone species?
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Chapter 30: Rare Earth Elements: a Bevy of Unfamiliar
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Q1) According to Infographic 30.5, the incidence of E. coli foodborne illness in the United States has trended toward the set goal of no more than 0.6 cases per 100,000. What are some preharvest and postharvest strategies used in the beef industry to reduce E. coli contamination?
Q2) ___________ affects diet by increasing the demand for animal food products.
A) Affluence
B) A food recall
C) Eating lower on the food chain
D) Use of antibiotics
E) Poverty
Q3) Refer to Infographic 30.7, explain how the number of people an area of land can support varies with the meat content of their diet. What happens to that relationship when the total consumption of fat per day increases to 35% or more?
Q4) List and describe several ethical issues involved with raising animals in CAFOs.
Q5) Describe why some scientists have suggested that feeding cattle a corn-rich diet has resulted in selecting for the development of E. coli strain O :H .
Q6) What are some advantages and disadvantages to feeding cattle grains instead of grass?
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Chapter
Soil and Grassland Resources
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Q1) The difference(s) between fishing and aquaculture is(are) ___________.
A) fish populations in aquaculture operations are typically more genetically uniform than wild fish captured by fishing fleets
B) unlike fish harvested from the ocean, aquaculture operations have historically been much smaller, producing just enough fish to feed a family or a small village
C) the size of the catch in fishing is limited by the size of the wild population, whereas in aquaculture, fish production is primarily limited by the size of the area in which organisms can be grown
D) unlike fishing operations, aquaculture produces higher concentrations of waste that can pollute aquatic ecosystems in which they are housed
E) All of these answers are differences between fishing and aquaculture.
Q2) Refer to Table 31.1. Even though aquaculture may help balance fisheries collapse, there are several problems associated with net pen and pond aquaculture. Select three problems, and describe a possible solution for each.
Q3) Overfishing decimated the cod fisheries in North America. How can this information be used to educate other North American fisheries to prevent the same thing from happening?
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Chapter 32: Restoring the Range: the Key to
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Q1) What are some advantages and disadvantages of using algae for biofuel?
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of using biofuel?
A) All types have a higher energy content than fossil fuels, so less needs to be burned to produce the same amount of energy.
B) Burning biomass directly produces minimal particulate matter pollution.
C) If grown with minimal or no fossil fuel inputs, it is carbon neutral or negative.
D) The most commonly grown biofuel crops consume far less water per kilowatt-hour than what is used for traditional fossil fuels.
E) None of these answers are an advantage.
Q3) Which of the following is FALSE regarding biodiesel?
A) It is the only biofuel to be certified by the EPA.
B) It comprises only a small portion of the biofuels produced today.
C) It can be produced from soybeans as well as from animal fats.
D) It can be used in both diesel and gasoline engines.
E) None of these answers is false.
Q4) Describe how many U.S. states are rewarding energy efficiency as it pertains to our mobile fuel needs.
Q5) List and describe at least three advantages and three disadvantages of biofuels.
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