Sterile Processing and Surgical Instrumentation
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of sterile processing and the management of surgical instrumentation within healthcare settings. Students will learn essential techniques for decontamination, sterilization, storage, and distribution of surgical tools, emphasizing adherence to strict infection control protocols. The curriculum covers the lifecycle of instrumentation, quality assurance practices, and regulatory standards governing sterile processing departments. Additionally, the course highlights the importance of teamwork, communication, and the critical role sterile processing technicians play in ensuring patient safety and supporting surgical teams.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 13th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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45 Chapters
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1229 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) The team approach involves
A)a coordinated effort by all caregivers.
B)working to obtain specific personal goals.
C)incompetence.
D)direct caregivers with access to patient data.
Answer: A
Q2) Which objective should a perioperative learner strive to attain?
A)Realize that a team approach to surgical procedures cannot always occur.
B)Validate the need for constant patient observation.
C)Maintain the belief that competent behaviors are more vital than humane behaviors.
D)Hands-on experience is the most important means to understanding surgery.
Answer: B
Q3) Entry-level education for perioperative practice prepares nurses to be A)urologists.
B)orthopedists.
C)neurologists.
D)generalists.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which identifies one aspect of safe patient movement from the OR table to the stretcher?
A)The circulating nurse counts to synchronize the patient's movement.
B)The person guiding the head counts to synchronize the movement.
C)The person at the left side of the patient also guides the head and counts to start the movement.
D)Two people are needed to move an anesthetized patient from the table to the stretcher.
Answer: B
Q2) Postoperative infection can originate only in the OR from a break in technique by the surgeon or team.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A universal checklist provides documentation for each step of care for patients undergoing a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a coping method that may help OR team members when a patient dies?
A)Identify with the loss
B)Identify those responsible for the patient death
C)Reduce the dependence on teamwork to maintain patient safety in a crisis
D)Take ownership for the patient death and review actions with risk management team
Answer: A
Q2) Which is one of the four "D's" of malpractice?
A)Deviation of duty by omission
B)Demonstration of standards of care
C)Damage to subcutaneous tissue
D)Divided surgical care of the patient.
Answer: A
Q3) Euthanasia is derived from the Greek words meaning "harsh or painful death."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional Credentialing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sterile team may include a perianesthesia nurse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a member of the nonsterile perioperative team?
A)Surgeon
B)Circulating nurse
C)Scrub person
D)First assistant
Q3) Directing the activities of all learners is the role of the A)surgeon.
B)first assistant.
C)anesthesiologist.
D)circulating nurse.
Q4) Why does credentialing exist?
A)To create revenue for the nursing profession
B)To maintain quality of the personnel's education and performance
C)To encourage professionals to further their education
D)To remain competitive with the medical profession
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemostasis is provided by ________,___________,or thermal means.
Q2) Knot tying for conventional surgery is performed using the A)one-handed tie.
B)freehanded tie.
C)stapling
D)backhanded tie.
Q3) It is important to __________ and think in advance about each step to help the procedure run smoothly.
A)guess every move
B)anticipate
C)retract every time
D)react
Q4) Why is intraoperative suturing performed?
A)To remove a tissue mass
B)To dissolve a tumor or benign mass
C)Evidence that the procedure was performed as scheduled
D)To stabilize an organ
Q5) A physician assistant (PA)can assist in the OR and write prescriptions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which department is responsible for routine monitoring of the electrical and lighting systems?
A)Preadmission testing
B)Facilities engineering
C)Materials management
D)Central processing
Q2) Which is one aspect of downward violence in the workplace?
A)Physical abuse towards one's peers
B)Verbal abuse directed towards a lower-ranked employee
C)Verbal abuse towards one's administrative staff
D)Emotional abuse aimed at patient's families
Q3) Basic policies are updates and statements of task-oriented and skill-oriented actions to be taken in the implementation of policies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The perioperative nurse manager must have a strong knowledge of the OR,management,nursing theory,and practice.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term describes the conversion of nutritive material into complex living matter?
A)Catabolism
B)Metabolism
C)Retabolism
D)Anabolism
Q2) What is one step a circulator can take when treating a patient who does not speak the same language being used in the operating room?
A)Speak loud and slow to the patient
B)Write all instructions on paper for patient or family to read
C)Use an interpreter to share information
D)Insist that the patient understands basic instructions before entering the OR
Q3) On what foundations are cancer treatment and prognoses based?
A)Type of cancer and extent of the disease
B)Type of insurance the patient has
C)Type of surgery the patient chooses to have performed
D)Type of cancer-causing agents the patient was exposed to
Q4) The chain of evidence incorporates ____________________ of all findings associated with the patient,the suspected ____________________,and the
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Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anorectal malformation occurs during what weeks of fetal development?
A)13th to 16th weeks
B)4th to 12th weeks
C)3rd to 6th weeks
D)17th to 20th weeks
Q2) What body part is affected with the condition of cryptorchidism?
A)Lack of breast tissue
B)Testicles that are undescended
C)Nasal tissue
D)Toenail fungal infection
Q3) Talipes ________ means the forefoot is inverted and talipes ________ means the forefoot is everted.
A)venous; valgus
B)varus; valgus
C)equines; various
D)venous; variegated
Q4) During a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy,it is always important to control bleeding and prevent any aspiration of blood.
A)True
B)False
10
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What theory suggests that the body loses its ability to keep pace with the maintenance of life processes?
A)Genetic mutation theory
B)Wear-and-tear theory
C)Viral theory
D)Environmental theory
Q2) At what temperature can a geriatric patient be at risk for hypothermia?
A)Below 100.5° F
B)Above 94° F
C)Below 96.8° F
D)Above 99.6° F
Q3) Life expectancy has increased with major advancements in the study of A)disease processes.
B)geriatric psychology.
C)use of pilates and yoga intervention.
D)taking extra vitamins.
Q4) A comorbidity is the existence of two or more diseases in one individual.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an equipment item commonly found in each OR?
A)PYXIS medication machine
B)Mayo stand
C)Crash cart
D)Scrub sink
Q2) Swinging doors are the preferred door type in the OR.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the recommended ratio of fresh air exchanges to recirculated air per hour in Class A ORs?
A)5 air exchanges with 1 exchange of outside air
B)10 air exchanges with 2 exchanges of outside air
C)15 air exchanges per hour with 3 exchanges of outside air
D)25 air exchanges with 5 exchanges of outside air
Q4) What type of filter is used in the OR setting that eliminates almost all dust particles?
A)HEPA
B)NIOSH
C)EPA
D)ACH
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Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical Locations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ambulatory surgery is done only under regional or local anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patients should receive preoperative instructions only when at their preadmission visit to the ASC.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When are cases requiring general or moderate sedation scheduled during the day?
A)Early in the day
B)Late morning/early afternoon
C)Last case of the day
D)Only on weekends in the morning
Q4) Which is an example of an ambulatory surgery center according to the FASA?
A)Office-based center
B)Hospital-affiliated satellite surgery center
C)Hospital-based integrated unit
D)Hospital-based dedicated unit
Q5) ASCs may take emergency patients and usually employ more than 50 employees. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary cause of accidental cuts and punctures is from the disposal of surgical sharps at the end of a case.When cleaning up instruments after a surgical procedure,place unloaded knife handles and other sharp items separate from other instruments so that processing personnel may identify them easily.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What areas of the sterile field are considered contaminated?
A)Just the areas with blood on them
B)The area nearest to the incision
C)The surrounding sterile field and all areas that are in contact with blood or bodily fluids
D)The center of the surgical incision
Q3) Patients with known respiratory-borne diseases are treated the same as all other patients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Every patient is considered a potential contaminant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) What equipment in the OR can help decrease the amount of surgical plume during a procedure?
A)Wet laparotomy sponges
B)Fans in the OR to circulate the air
C)Smoke evacuator
D)Increased number of air exchanges within the operating room
Q2) Which is an example of a bloodborne disease that can be transmitted through a needlestick injury,cut,or a splash with blood or body fluids?
A)Hepatitis
B)Peritonitis
C)Macular degeneration
D)Pancreatitis
Q3) Which chemical sterilizing agent is the least toxic but has fumes that can be irritating to the eyes,nose,and throat?
A)Formaldehyde
B)Ethylene oxide
C)Glutaraldehyde
D)Phenol
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Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a helminthic disease?
A)Parasites
B)Blood-borne flukes
C)Influenza
D)Iatrogenic Creutzfeldt-Jakob
Q2) When is the best time to administer prophylactic antibiotics?
A)When the doctor decides the time is right
B)Whenever anesthesia has time
C)30 minutes to 1 hour before surgical incision
D)Don't need one if you aren't sick
Q3) Which are two examples of diseases caused by exotoxins?
A)Tuberculosis, acute respiratory infection
B)Influenza, anthrax
C)Diphtheria, leprosy
D)Otitis media, E.coli
Q4) Which describe signs and symptoms of a localized infection?
A)Inflammation, red, painful, swelling
B)Generalized edema, lymphedema
C)Hematoma with clear exudate
D)Scaly rash with skin nodules
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Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once the patient's skin has been prepped with iodine solution,it is sterile and considered free of all flora.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If an item in the OR is not known definitively to be sterile,what is the next action to be taken?
A)Consider it contaminated and throw it out.
B)Call your supervisor.
C)Keep it in the room and use it so as not to waste an opened item.
D)Ask the anesthesiologist in the room to determine its sterility.
Q3) What is the most common source of transmission of microorganisms in the OR?
A)Instruments
B)Faulty ventilation system
C)Infection
D)Surgical team
Q4) When removing instrument trays from the sterilizer,it is acceptable to touch the door of the sterilizer with the tray because the door is sterile.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Appropriate Attire, Surgical Hand Hygiene, and Gowning and Gloving
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of surgical hand and arm cleansing?
A)To sterilize the skin before gloving
B)To remove every microorganism present on the skin
C)To warm hands and arms before entering a cold OR environment
D)To decrease the number of resident microorganisms on the skin to a minimum
Q2) Which of the following may be worn into the OR?
A)Pierced ear studs
B)Rings, watches
C)Dangling earrings
D)Necklaces or chains
Q3) Which is an item that must be worn by any person entering the sterile field?
A)Sterile gown
B)Eyeglasses
C)Exam gloves
D)Head cover
Q4) Double gloving is recommended for all sterile team members.
A)True
B)False
18
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) High-level disinfection is not effective against Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Disinfection is the same as sterilization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is one proper way to mark an instrument for identification before being put into service?
A)Identification codes or numbers are etched into the instrument handle.
B)Names or numbers are engraved in the handles or teeth.
C)Numbers or codes can be imprinted with a laser onto an instrument.
D)Names or numbers are carved into an instrument handle.
Q4) When cleaning instrument surfaces,it is acceptable to use wire brushes or scouring pads in order to thoroughly clean the debris from the instrument.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Like EO sterilization,hydrogen peroxide sterilization requires a lengthy aeration period.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order to destroy prions,such as those in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease,how long must they be sterilized?
A)Chemically sterilized for 10 minutes in Cavicide
B)Steam sterilized for a minimum of 1 hour at 270° F after soaking in sodium hydroxide for 1 hour
C)Soaked in ethylene oxide for at least 30 minutes, then dry heat sterilized for 10 minutes
D)Rinsing in sterile water at 240° F for 1 hour then rinsing in Cavicide
Q3) Which is a disadvantage of steam sterilization?
A)Steam leaves a harmful residue on instruments.
B)Items need to be clean and free of grease.
C)Steam is expensive and not easily supplied.
D)Steam's total time cycle is the longest of all methods.
Q4) Lubricant on any items must be removed before being sterilized with EO gas.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of suctioning is done using a syringe and needle?
A)Suctioning with a Yankauer
B)Aspiration
C)Autotransfusion
D)Using a Poole suction device
Q2) A self-retaining retractor is held by at least two people to retract and provide a well-viewed surgical site.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is acceptable to use a hemostat to load a blade onto a knife handle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A number 10,11,or 15 blade is the most commonly used blade to make initial skin incisions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Manual retractors come in different shapes and sizes.They are held by the first or second assistant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which microscope lens provides the greatest magnification?
A)100 mm
B)200 mm
C)250 mm
D)400 mm
Q2) Which type of electrosurgery unit is preferred when a patient has an implanted cardiac pacemaker?
A)Bipolar unit
B)Monopolar unit
C)Active electrode unit
D)No unit is to be used with a pacemaker
Q3) If a skin knife is not available to make the initial skin incision,electrosurgery may be used for the incision.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Only the operator of the laser must wear safety eyewear during the surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should an anesthesia provider see a patient for a preoperative assessment?
A)To select an appropriate anesthetic for the procedure
B)To allow the provider to charge for an official consultation before the case
C)To decide whether the provider wants to work on the patient during the procedure
D)To determine whether the provider likes the patient before working with him or her
Q2) Contact lenses are not to be removed during a surgical procedure because they protect the corneas from being scratched during induction of general anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why should jewelry be removed before a surgical procedure?
A)It might get stolen
B)Doesn't need to be removed
C)Metal jewelry can cause a burn
D)It might hang in the way of the procedure
Q4) The family of the surgical patient should be included in preoperative teaching.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Diagnostics, specimens, and Oncologic
Considerations
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Q1) What type of specimen is collected with a circular sharp,hollow tip?
A)Aspiration biopsy
B)Brush biopsy
C)Punch biopsy
D)Smear
Q2) ____________ may contribute to the formation of cancerous tumors.
A)Holistic medical care
B)Radiation
C)Endoscopy
D)Excessive protein intake
Q3) What type of procedure does not enter the patient's body and uses equipment placed near the patient's skin?
A)Invasive
B)Interventional
C)Noninvasive
D)Percutaneous
Q4) Angiography assists in the diagnosis of AV malformations,aneurysms,tumors,or vascular accidents.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Q1) Which is an example of an irrigation fluid?
A)Cardioplegia solution
B)Formalin
C)Ringer's lactate
D)Gelfoam
Q2) It is acceptable to recap and save saline left in a bottle for the next case.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is one of the steps of calculating medication problems using ratios and proportions?
A)Add all the values together and subtract the required drug dosage.
B)Divide each value by 2 and add the first two values together.
C)Multiply extreme values and multiply the means.
D)Ratios and proportions are not used to calculate medication problems.
Q4) Where are sources of drugs derived from?
A)Plant sources
B)Mineral sources
C)Biological sources
D)All of the above
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Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Q1) Where is the placement of the endotracheal during intubation?
A)Into the lungs
B)Between the vocal cords
C)Down the esophagus
D)Into the back of the throat
Q2) Hypnosis produces a state of altered consciousness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is an inhalation agent that is administered via facemask for a comfortable,rapid induction?
A)Desflurane
B)Nitrous oxide
C)Thiopental sodium
D)Propofol
Q4) Which is an example of a diagnostic or therapeutic nerve block?
A)Paravertebral lumbar block
B)Intercostal block
C)Bier block
D)Interscalene block
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Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Q1) When opening blades onto a sterile field,where is the best place to lay them?
A)On a sterile metal basin
B)Near other sutures to keep all sharps together
C)On top of gloves or a gown so that the scrub person will notice them
D)On the working end of the sterile field
Q2) Small sutures do not need to be accounted for at the end of a procedure because they probably will not show up on a radiograph if the suture count is not correct.
A)True B)False
Q3) When packs or sets have been wrapped with double wrappers,the outer wrap is considered the ____________________,and the inner wrap is considered the
Q4) Counted sharps must not be taken from the OR during the surgical procedure.
A)True B)False
Q5) A scrub person should not gown and glove from the main field,but rather use a separate surface to place an open gown and gloves after scrubbing.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Q1) The patient return electrode should always be placed after the patient is in position for the procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a possible complication of being in the lithotomy position?
A)Mitral valve prolapse
B)Hearing loss
C)Compartment syndrome
D)Carpal tunnel syndrome
Q3) __________ can result when prep solutions pool underneath a patient's body or extremity.
A)Chemical burns or fire
B)Contamination
C)Infections
D)Toxicity
Q4) The circulator should be nearby when the scrub person is draping in order to direct the procedure and watch for breaks in sterile technique.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Q1) Which is an example of an invasive monitoring device?
A)Intracardiac catheter
B)Blood pressure cuff
C)Pulse oximeter probe
D)Axillary thermometer
Q2) The stroke volume (SV)is measured to indicate ventricular function.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the normal hourly urinary output?
A)5 to 10 mL/hr
B)10 to 20 mL/hr
C)30 to 60 mL/hr
D)Greater than 30 to 60 mL/hr
Q4) Where can a core temperature probe be placed?
A)Bladder
B)Axilla
C)Index finger tip
D)Forehead
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Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions implants and Wound Closure
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Q1) Which type of suture is less traumatic and glides easily through tissue?
A)Monofilament
B)Polyfilament
C)Unafilament
D)Bifilament
Q2) Which is an example of a synthetic nonabsorbable polymer?
A)Dermal silk
B)Surgical cotton
C)Stainless steel suture
D)Surgical nylon
Q3) Which loose,fatty tissue layer is below the dermis?
A)Peritoneal tissue
B)Fascia
C)Subcutaneous
D)Muscle
Q4) Which is a component used to classify surgical needles?
A)Color
B)Length
C)Point
D)Neck
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Q1) An elevated leukocyte level (white blood cell count)indicates the presence of infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Absorbable gelatin (Gelfoam)is placed on an area of capillary bleeding where fibrin is deposited and the sponge swells forming a clot.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which layers of skin are cut into during the initial skin incision?
A)Glabrous and hairy
B)Epidermis and dermis
C)Fascia and epidermis
D)Adipose and fascia
Q4) In what type of wound healing is the wound left open and allowed to heal from the inner toward the outer surface?
A)Third intention
B)First intention
C)Second intention
D)Non-intention
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Report to the PACU nurse is given by
A)the circulating nurse.
B)the OR charge nurse.
C)the scrub person.
D)the OR scheduling office.
Q2) Time spent in the PACU varies from patient to patient and can change with each patient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is an item that the circulating nurse's handoff report needs to contain?
A)Family location
B)Insurance information
C)Total surgical time
D)Type of dressing and drains
Q4) When does the postoperative phase begin?
A)As soon as the surgery is over
B)When report is given
C)When the patient is admitted to the postoperative area
D)When the patient is home
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Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a way to cool a patient's body during a malignant hyperthermia (MH)crisis?
A)Pour frozen distilled water into surgical wound.
B)Decrease temperature of OR suite.
C)Administer iced normal saline intravenously.
D)Lavage the bladder with cooled fluids.
Q2) Allogeneic blood is a patient's own blood and requires no typing or crossmatching.
A)True B)False
Q3) What is the recommended IV dose of dantrolene to be given in a malignant hyperthermia (MH)crisis?
A)1 mg/kg every minute until temperature is within normal limits
B)2 to 3 mg/kg in an initial IV bolus and repeat every 5 to 10 minutes
C)10 mg/kg initially and every 5 minutes until muscles relax
D)10 to 20 mg/kg every 5 minutes until temperature stabilizes
Q4) During a cardiac arrest in the OR,the scrub person must always remain sterile. A)True B)False
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33
Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fiberoptic lighting is nonglaring and cool inside the patient.This makes it safe to lay the light source on the drapes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For what reason may a hand-assisted access sleeve be used in a laparoscopic procedure?
A)To keep the surgeon's hands warm during the procedure
B)To allow insertion of the surgeon's hand to palpate or grasp an organ
C)To place pressure on a vessel that is bleeding
D)To lose the peritoneum and convert to an open procedure
Q3) What can be attached to the endoscope that enables the surgical team to view the anatomy at the same time?
A)Monitor
B)Computer
C)Microscope
D)Camera
Q4) The surgeon may place more than one trocar during puncture endoscopy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What open procedure involves creating a McBurney incision?
A)Femoral hernia repair
B)Appendectomy
C)Left upper lobe resection
D)Modified mastectomy
Q2) What procedure allows visualization of the rectal lumens via a flexible scope?
A)Colonoscopy
B)Gastroscopy
C)Bronchoscopy
D)Sigmoidoscopy
Q3) Colitis is one reason a hemicolectomy or total colectomy may be performed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Zenker's diverticula are pockets or pouches formed at the distal end of the esophagus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A/an __________ amputation is performed at the lower third of the thigh.
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Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What area of the female anatomy is the common route of entry for a number of diagnostic and surgical procedures?
A)Posterior cul-de-sac
B)Uterus
C)Clitoris
D)Perineum
Q2) Raytec sponges that are rolled up and secured on a sponge forcep are called?
A)Uterine sound
B)Sponge stick
C)Curette
D)Dressing forcep
Q3) What type of test is done to test fallopian tube patency?
A)Tubal curettage
B)Tubal ligation
C)Tubal biopsy
D)Tubal insufflation
Q4) An anterior colporrhaphy or Kelly procedure is performed to prevent stress incontinence or urine leakage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reconstruction of the kidney pelvis
A)Nephrectomy
B)Pyeloplasty
C)Prostatic hypertrophy
D)Phimosis
E)Varicocele
F)Penectomy
G)Orchiectomy
H)Hydrocele
I)Vasovasostomy
Q2) Removal of testis
A)Nephrectomy
B)Pyeloplasty
C)Prostatic hypertrophy
D)Phimosis
E)Varicocele
F)Penectomy
G)Orchiectomy
H)Hydrocele
I)Vasovasostomy
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Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Swelling between layers of fascia; causes damage or death to tissue
A)Osteomyelitis
B)Nonunion
C)Arthrotomy
D)Open fracture
E)Osteogenesis
F)Cast
G)Cortex
H)Arthrodesis
I)Dislocation
J)Compartment syndrome
Q2) Laminar airflow is used to create an ultraclean environment for orthopedic surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is an aspect of fiberglass casts that plaster casts do not have?
A)Heavier weight
B)Thicker in diameter
C)Deteriorates when wet
D)More porous
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which procedure relieves the pain of trigeminal neuralgia,or tic douloureux?
A)A stereotaxy procedure
B)A radiofrequency retrogasserian rhizotomy
C)Stereotactic depth reimplantation
D)Thalamotomy
Q2) Which is a potential risk of placing a patient in a semi-Fowler's position?
A)Hearing loss
B)Air embolism
C)Urinary retention
D)Hypercapnia
Q3) What type of diagnostic is used with three-dimensional brain mapping?
A)MRI
B)CT
C)Digital holography
D)PET
Q4) A galea is defined as
A)a tough, highly vascular tissue over the cranium.
B)the skin layer over vessels and muscles in the brain.
C)lining of the cranium and spinal cord.
D)the circulating fluid that helps bathe the brain.
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of cautery is commonly used during spine surgery?
A)Handheld cautery
B)Tripolar cautery
C)Bipolar cautery
D)Monopolar cautery
Q2) Which specific need of the spinal cord injury patient must be addressed after the injury?
A)Temperature control
B)Tactile sensation
C)Loss of vision
D)Loss of hearing
Q3) Which type of diagnostic tool is most effective at diagnosing spinal injuries?
A)Radiograph
B)PET scan
C)Ultrasound
D)MRI
Q4) The spinal cord is composed of white matter on the outside and gray matter on the inside.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a device used to estimate intraocular pressure (IOP)?
A)A corneal trephine
B)A Geissen eye ruler
C)An air-puff device
D)A phacoemulsifier to measure fluid pressure
Q2) What type of retinal detachment occurs when a hole in the retina is present?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Quaternary
Q3) Retrobulbar blocks are injected into the soft tissue superior and inferior to the globe.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a method used to attain hemostasis during ophthalmic surgery?
A)Prolene suture
B)Suction cautery
C)Bipolar cautery
D)Argon gas beam coagulator
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a source for replacement tissue?
A)Polygraft
B)Allograft
C)Isograft
D)Xenograft
Q2) What process increases the surface of the dermal-epidermal layer to create a skin flap?
A)Rotational flap
B)Tissue expansion with a tissue expander
C)Subcutaneous flap
D)Arterialized flap
Q3) The goal of a plastic surgeon is to attempt to restore aesthetic appearance and function.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a benefit of using a split-thickness mesh graft of skin?
A)Can be cut to fit exactly to the recipient site
B)Prevents serum from escaping the openings in the recipient site
C)Can be placed over the recipient site with slight tension
D)Heals by first intention
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Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a diagnostic tool used to determine the extent of a craniofacial deformity?
A)MRI
B)CT scan
C)Manual sketches of the facial formations
D)PET scan
Q2) What type of surgeon may have OR privileges to perform surgical procedures in and around the mouth?
A)Pathologist
B)Oral surgeon
C)Gynecologist
D)Dermatologist
Q3) What type of procedure involves the removal of the tongue and the use of a free flap?
A)Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
B)Glossectomy
C)Laryngectomy
D)Mucogingivoplasty
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What process,caused by a puncture of the left pleural cavity,may result in a collapsed right lung?
A)Pectus excavatum
B)Median sternotomy
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Segmental resection
Q2) What type of device is used to prolong resuscitation after a patient is removed from cardiopulmonary bypass?
A)BCMA
B)ACLS
C)CPRS
D)ECMO
Q3) Which type of pressure is necessary within the thorax to maintain normal inhalation and expiration?
A)Negative
B)Positive
C)Internal
D)Blunt
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Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cold treatment to treat dysrhythmias
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)Tachycardia
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q2) Where does the impulse for cardiac contraction originate?
A)Superior vena cava
B)Inferior vena cava
C)Sinoatrial (SA) node
D)Vagus nerve
Q3) The most common complication after cardiac surgery is stroke.
A)True
B)False
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one of the three layers of the arterial walls?
A)Semilunar
B)Popliteal
C)Intima
D)Mediastinal
Q2) Which shunt is used to relieve portal hypertension to decompress esophageal varices?
A)Mesocaval shunt
B)Hepatorenal shunt
C)Suprahepatic shunt
D)Portacaval shunt
Q3) Pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated blood to the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which drug is used in vascular surgery to relax the smooth muscle of a vessel?
A)Surgicel
B)Fibrin
C)Papaverine
D)Thrombin
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Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one of the three types of bone marrow transplants?
A)Synologous
B)Allogeneic
C)Xenologous
D)Isogenic
Q2) A child awaiting a liver transplant requires a liver donated by a child because of patient size and surface area of the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tissue grafted between different species
A)Allografts
B)Autografts
C)Isografts
D)Xenografts
E)Orthotopic transplants
F)Heterotopic transplants
Q4) During organ procurement,no drugs are given to the patient during the procedure. A)True
B)False
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