Sterile Processing and Infection Control Practice
Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of sterile processing and infection control within healthcare settings. Students will learn about the principles and practices essential for decontaminating, disinfecting, sterilizing, and storing medical instruments and equipment. The curriculum emphasizes the importance of maintaining a sterile environment to prevent healthcare-associated infections, covering guidelines for aseptic techniques, instrument tracking, and quality assurance measures. Students will also examine regulatory standards, safety protocols, and the role of sterile processing technicians as vital members of the healthcare team. Through theoretical knowledge and practical applications, learners will be prepared to uphold the highest standards of infection prevention in clinical environments.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 13th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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45 Chapters
1229 Verified Questions
1229 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Students should have a tour of the perioperative environment and know the basic standards and protocol before starting clinicals.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The perioperative caregiver should display attributes and communication skills that inspire confidence and trust in patients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The team approach involves
A)a coordinated effort by all caregivers.
B)working to obtain specific personal goals.
C)incompetence.
D)direct caregivers with access to patient data.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postoperative infection can originate only in the OR from a break in technique by the surgeon or team.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Caregivers should always know why they are doing a particular action.Actions should be based on ___________.
A)self-taught methods
B)preceptor actions
C)nursing process
D)evidence-based practice
Answer: D
Q3) What documentation goes into the patient's chart and becomes part of the permanent record?
A)Specimen results
B)Intraoperative notes only
C)All routine and individualized care
D)Physical changes
Answer: C
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ consists of leaving the patient for any reason when the patient's condition is contingent on the presence of the caregiver.
Answer: Abandonment
Abandonment consists of leaving the patient for any reason when the patient's condition is contingent on the presence of the caregiver.If the caregiver leaves the room knowing there is a potential need for care during his or her absence,even under the order of a physician,the caregiver is liable for his or her own actions.
Q2) Which is an example of a reportable sentinel event?
A)Surgery on the wrong site
B)Any near miss
C)Going into surgery 3 hours late
D)Unsuccessful suicide attempt
Answer: A
Q3) Which is a charting modality used to document patient care?
A)Hand-off reporting
B)Verbal report
C)Block charting
D)Paper and pen charting
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional
Credentialing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a member of the nonsterile perioperative team?
A)Surgeon
B)Circulating nurse
C)Scrub person
D)First assistant
Q2) The scrub person
A)does not participate in the surgical "time out."
B)is a member of the nonsterile team.
C)provides hemostasis of the surgical wound.
D)may be a nurse or surgical technologist.
Q3) The _________ works to promote the best interests of the patient every single minute.
A)perianesthesia team
B)perioperative team
C)scrub person
D)anesthesiologist
Q4) The term anesthetist refers to a qualified RN,anesthesiologist assistant (AA),dentist,or physician who administers anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) The RNFA should simultaneously perform as a scrub nurse during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first assistant usually assists in positioning the patient,surgical site exposure,closing skin incisions and applying dressings.
A)True
B)False
Q3) AORN is the official accrediting body for the surgical technologist.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is an example of a physical hazard in the OR?
A)Medication
B)Needlestick injury
C)Prep solution
D)Anesthesia gases
Q5) It is in the scope of the surgical technologists practice to hold retractors if asked by the surgeon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the definition of SCIP?
A)Surgical Care Improvement Project
B)Surgical Cost Infection Project
C)Surgical Control Policy
D)Surveillance Control
Q2) An effective infection control program aims to reduce the ________________ of infection and control ______________.
Q3) The sales representative may never render direct patient care at any time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which group conducts hazard surveillance programs and decreases hazardous conditions within the hospital and on hospital grounds?
A)Ethics committee
B)Disaster planning committee
C)Hospital safety committee
D)Continuous performance improvement committee
Q5) An advanced practice nurse uses specialized ________________ and _____________ to make decisions relative to direct and indirect patient care in the perioperative environment.
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chain of evidence incorporates ____________________ of all findings associated with the patient,the suspected ____________________,and the
Q2) On what foundations are cancer treatment and prognoses based?
A)Type of cancer and extent of the disease
B)Type of insurance the patient has
C)Type of surgery the patient chooses to have performed
D)Type of cancer-causing agents the patient was exposed to
Q3) In every state it is mandated that a health care worker who suspects child abuse must notify the child welfare authorities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What does the "no-touch" technique mean?
A)The skin over the site of a tumor is not cleaned or prepped before the procedure.
B)Vigorous scrubbing is needed to clean and prep the skin over a tumor site.
C)The tumor is handled as little as possible during its removal.
D)The skin over the tumor site is to be manipulated before prepping.
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9
Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is pulmonary ventilation established?
A)1 to 3 weeks after birth
B)At birth
C)2 to 3 months after birth
D)At conception
Q2) In a Jantene procedure,which two vessels are anatomically switched?
A)Aorta and pulmonary artery
B)Superior vena cava and left pulmonary vein
C)Aortic arch and pulmonary artery
D)Right pulmonary vein and inferior vena cava
Q3) What is the average blood volume of the average newborn?
A)10 to 12 ml
B)40 ml
C)100 ml
D)250 ml
Q4) What are the two ways in which an atrial septal defect can be closed?
A)Suture, patch graft
B)Wires, antibiotics
C)Valve, ligating clips
D)Electrosurgery, antibiotics
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some common findings seen when assessing an older adult patient's integumentary system might be
A)nonhealing foot wounds.
B)skin tags.
C)bruising on arms or hands.
D)bruises.
Q2) Patients with diabetes mellitus can experience which surgical complication?
A)Urinary incontinence
B)No complications
C)Constant monitoring
D)Postoperative infection
Q3) An older adult patient should be allowed to wear a hearing-assist device into the operating room.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Self-care deficit is a common nursing diagnosis when assessing the preoperative geriatric surgical patient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one of three areas into which the surgical suite is divided?
A)Sterile area
B)Negative pressure area
C)Unrestricted area
D)Waiting area
Q2) What type of filter is used in the OR setting that eliminates almost all dust particles?
A)HEPA
B)NIOSH
C)EPA
D)ACH
Q3) The ratio of intensity of general OR lighting should not exceed 1:5.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During construction of the OR,negative pressure must be maintained in halls,with exhaust filtered to the outside of the building.
A)True
B)False
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12
Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical Locations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with a documented history of postoperative nausea and vomiting are not likely good candidates for ambulatory surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because nurses are not on the front line fighting in battle,they do not experience the posttraumatic stress disorder that the wounded soldier might.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When are cases requiring general or moderate sedation scheduled during the day?
A)Early in the day
B)Late morning/early afternoon
C)Last case of the day
D)Only on weekends in the morning
Q4) Use ____________________ patient identifiers when administering drugs or blood,taking blood samples,or providing treatments.
Q5) ASCs may take emergency patients and usually employ more than 50 employees.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is "terminal cleaning" done during the course of a day in the OR?
A)At the beginning of the day
B)In between each case
C)At the end of daily use
D)Every 4 hours
Q2) Turnover time is the time it takes to complete the surgery schedule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Name a type of transmissible disease that results in prions being found in neurologic tissue that can exist on surfaces in the OR.
A)Whooping cough
B)Tuberculosis
C)Influenza
D)Creutzfeldt-Jakob
Q4) Remove gloves first before taking off the gown,so as not to contaminate the front of the gown with dirty gloves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) When working with disinfectants such as phenol or povidone-iodine,what steps should be taken to protect you?
A)Wear goggles.
B)Use a fan in the OR to dissipate the fumes.
C)Wear corneal protectors.
D)Wear a mask with proper nasal and mouth openings to allow air to escape.
Q2) What could cause an electrical injury to a patient during a procedure?
A)Electrosurgical unit not grounded due to a faulty return electrode pad
B)Cool instruments touching patient's bare skin
C)Insulated endoscopic instruments
D)Use of saline on sterile field
Q3) Patients are protected from electrical current and burns by placing a Bovie pad or dispersive electrode.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Electrical current applied to a patient's trunk,from where it can follow many paths through the body,is considered a microshock.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria are transmitted only through insect bites.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a type of antibiotic whose mechanism inhibits the cell wall synthesis?
A)Vancomycin
B)Sulfonamide
C)Tetracycline
D)Quinolone
Q3) In what way can a health care-acquired infection (HAI)develop?
A)Patient not taking their medication
B)Having pain
C)It may begin at the surgical site
D)Brought in from home
Q4) Which is an example of active immunity against the prevention of disease?
A)A preformed immunoglobulin
B)A vaccine or booster shot
C)Vitamin supplements
D)Protein power bar
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of an impervious barrier used in a surgical procedure?
A)Sterile drapes
B)OR bed sheet
C)Plastic pillowcase cover
D)Clean garbage liner
Q2) If the scrub person must re-glove during a procedure,it is acceptable to pull the cuff down over the hand while putting on new gloves.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is acceptable to flash instruments if you are in a hurry and don't want to delay a case.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the proper way an unsterile person should wear their warm-up jacket?
A)Don't wear one
B)Roll up the sleeves
C)Leave it open
D)Button it completely
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Sample Questions
Q1) From what direction should one scrub the hands and arms?
A)From elbow to hand
B)From fingernail to elbow
C)Begin with wrist and end at elbow
D)It does not matter where one begins as long as all areas are scrubbed
Q2) Which is a correct statement regarding the closed gloving method?
A)"In closed gloving, bare skin is exposed while gloving."
B)"In closed gloving, the hand and fingers are exposed through the gown's cuff."
C)"In closed gloving, contamination is less likely to occur while gloving."
D)"Closed gloving is the preferred method to be used when establishing the sterile field."
Q3) What is one reason sterile gloves must cover the knitted cuffs on a sterile gown?
A)It is aesthetically pleasing to see only the glove and not the cuff.
B)The cuff is very likely going to tear and expose the bare wrist.
C)The cuffs are not fluid impervious.
D)The cuffs of a sterile gown are never long enough to cover the wrist adequately.
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ultrasonic cleaner sterilizes the instruments placed in it similar to a washer-sterilizer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the levels of disinfection?
A)High level, medium level, end level
B)High level, intermediate level, low level
C)High level, semi-high, low level
D)High level, medium level, low level
Q3) For a chemical disinfectant to be labeled for use in a hospital,it should be effective against which organisms?
A)Viruses
B)Pseudomonas
C)Pseudomonas, Staphylococcus aureus, and salmonella
D)Gram negative bacteria only
Q4) Which disinfectant is safe to use for housekeeping purposes?
A)Formaldehyde
B)Alcohol and chlorine compounds
C)Glutaraldehyde
D)Ethylene oxide
19
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Chapter 18: Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the preferred method for sterilizing talc?
A)Steam heat sterilization
B)Dry heat sterilization
C)EO gas sterilization
D)Glutaraldehyde sterilization
Q2) Sterilization renders an item free of most microorganisms except for some spores.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which chemical sterilants require the user to wear personal protective equipment (PPE)throughout use of the product?
A)Glutaraldehyde
B)Steam sterilant
C)Nonionizing radiation
D)Cobalt-60
Q4) Which statement regarding irradiation sterilization is true?
A)The principal sources of ionizing radiation are water molecules and heat.
B)Ionizing radiation is the most effective sterilization method.
C)Irradiation cannot sterilize heat- and moisture-sensitive items.
D)Beta 45 is the most commonly used source for irradiation sterilization.
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Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A trocar is an assembly instrument used to cut through tissue for access to fluid or a body cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a responsibility of the circulating nurse before the start of a procedure?
A)Drape the Mayo stand and back table
B)Inspect sterile instruments for imperfections and condition
C)Count instruments
D)Assemble the scalpel blade in the proper handle
Q3) What type of needle holder has jaws eliminating,twisting,and turning of the suture?
A)Smooth jaws
B)Crosshatched
C)Webster
D)Tungsten carbide
Q4) It is acceptable to use a hemostat to load a blade onto a knife handle.
A)True
B)False
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21
Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What item should be on the sterile field while an ESU is being used during a procedure?
A)Dry sponges
B)A full basin of saline to immerse the ESU between uses
C)A suction evacuator device
D)Monopolar ESU
Q2) Why should laser plume be suctioned and evacuated during a surgical procedure?
A)Laser plume increases the temperature in the OR.
B)The smoke may cause blindness.
C)Laser plume reduces visibility at the surgical site.
D)The electromagnetic waves created by plume may cause brain death.
Q3) Which type of electrosurgery unit is preferred when a patient has an implanted cardiac pacemaker?
A)Bipolar unit
B)Monopolar unit
C)Active electrode unit
D)No unit is to be used with a pacemaker
Q4) There is a difference between electrosurgery and electrocautery.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Herbal or dietary supplements must be asked about and noted on the patient's chart preoperatively.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The preoperative nurse is the only person from the OR who needs to see the patient before surgery.
A)True B)False
Q3) Contact lenses are not to be removed during a surgical procedure because they protect the corneas from being scratched during induction of general anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What style of interview questions allows the patient to respond freely and share feelings and concerns?
A)Close-ended questions
B)Direct questioning
C)Open-ended questions
D)Direct questions that require only one-word answers
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Page 23
Chapter
Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Doppler can be used only to evaluate arterial blood flow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of tumor grows slowly and resembles the parent tissue of origin?
A)Percutaneous
B)Benign
C)Malignant
D)Prophylactic
Q3) What is one key factor to consider when attempting to minimize radiation exposure?
A)Position
B)Time
C)Square footage
D)Sensitivity
Q4) If a secondary small bowel tumor is removed and positive lymph nodes and signs of metastases in the liver are found,how would the tumor be identified?
A)T N M
B)T N M
C)T N M
D)T N M
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of an irrigation fluid?
A)Cardioplegia solution
B)Formalin
C)Ringer's lactate
D)Gelfoam
Q2) Which phase of clinical trials is performed on 100 to 300 people with an actual disease process for which the drug is the proposed treatment for 2 years?
A)Phase I
B)Phase II
C)Phase III
D)Phase IV
Q3) It is acceptable to recap and save saline left in a bottle for the next case.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which drug name describes the molecular components of the compound?
A)Official name
B)Chemical name
C)Brand name
D)Trade name
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Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term describes a method of anesthesia production or neuroleptanesthesia?
A)Balanced
B)Moderate
C)Complete
D)Provisional
Q2) What feature of the anesthesia machine controls the amount of exhaled anesthesia gases vented into the OR?
A)Oxygen analyzer
B)Scavenger system
C)Dosimeter
D)Flowmeter
Q3) Which is a disadvantage of local anesthesia?
A)Increased apprehension of the patient during the procedure
B)Avoids the effects of general anesthesia
C)Recovery period is minimized
D)Requires minimal equipment
Q4) A MAC,or monitored anesthesia care,is done without an anesthesia provider present.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two best ways to load a knife blade onto a handle are by using a heavy needle holder or simply by hand.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Small sutures do not need to be accounted for at the end of a procedure because they probably will not show up on a radiograph if the suture count is not correct.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where should the safety belt be positioned on a patient?
A)Over the patient's chest
B)Over the patient's abdomen
C)Over the patient's thighs
D)On the patient's knees
Q4) What principle is not associated with motion economy?
A)Make each movement purposeful
B)Work quietly and quickly
C)Keep the work areas orderly
D)Use asymmetric motions
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) A safe prep solution for a facial procedure on a patient with an iodine allergy would be
A)Betadine.
B)chlorhexidine.
C)triclosan.
D)saline.
Q2) __________ can result when prep solutions pool underneath a patient's body or extremity.
A)Chemical burns or fire
B)Contamination
C)Infections
D)Toxicity
Q3) What is a common position for patients to be in for a rectal procedure?
A)Supine
B)Fowler's
C)Reverse Trendelenburg
D)Prone (Kraske)
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28
Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Q1) Which is a type of data that can be obtained from pulmonary artery monitoring?
A)Urine pH
B)Pulse oximetry
C)Urine output
D)Right atrial pressure
Q2) Which is a benefit of indwelling arterial,venous,or intracardiac catheters?
A)Rapid, accurate assessment of physiologic alterations
B)Moderate yield of information with increased discomfort to the patient
C)Potential for bleeding or hemorrhage
D)Infection risk is increased with placement
Q3) Which is a positioning consideration that must be ensured when assisting a physician in placing a subclavian or jugular vein catheter?
A)Turn the patient's head toward the insertion site.
B)Flex the patient's head toward the chest.
C)Elevate the scapular area.
D)Place the patient's head in a 0 degree Trendelenburg's position.
Q4) Core body temperature refers to the entire body temperature including the interior and body surface.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions implants and Wound Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a principle to be followed when handling needles and needle holders at the sterile field?
A)Clamp the needle one quarter the distance from the eye to the point.
B)Close the ratchet of the needle holder on the first or second ratchet.
C)Never touch the free end of the suture material when handing it up at the sterile field.
D)Pass the needle holder with the needle point down toward the sterile wound.
Q2) What is one advantage of using staples on skin tissue?
A)Staples produce an air-tight closure that may leak.
B)Staples used on skin can be removed 5 to 7 days postoperatively.
C)Staples produce an uneven surface.
D)Staples cannot be placed through an endoscope.
Q3) When incisions are made along Langer lines,the resulting closure is more cosmetically pleasing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When handling synthetic absorbable sutures,soak them in saline before using to allow better pliability.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the benefits of early ambulation?
A)Increased gas pain
B)Improved circulation
C)Increased gastroparesis
D)Decreased wound pain
Q2) In what type of wound healing is the wound left open and allowed to heal from the inner toward the outer surface?
A)Third intention
B)First intention
C)Second intention
D)Non-intention
Q3) What type of wound occurs after a dirty object penetrates skin and requires debridement of devitalized tissue?
A)Closed wound
B)Complicated wound
C)Contaminated wound
D)Simple wound
Q4) Radiopaque sponges are not to be used as part of the dressing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an item that the circulating nurse's handoff report needs to contain?
A)Family location
B)Insurance information
C)Total surgical time
D)Type of dressing and drains
Q2) A patient having a surgical procedure performed in a physician's office does not need postoperative care and should be able to leave immediately after it is over.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Time spent in the PACU varies from patient to patient and can change with each patient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is one way a PACU nurse can assess a patient's pain level?
A)Palpating the surgical incision
B)Wait until they are crying
C)Asking the anesthesia provider whether the patient is experiencing pain
D)Using the FACES scale
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Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Q1) If Avitene has been used for hemostasis during a surgical procedure,the blood collected from the wound cannot be used for autotransfusion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a treatment used to reverse hypotension?
A)Increased use of anesthetics
B)Elevation of legs
C)Increased positive airway pressure
D)Beta-blocker drugs
Q3) Which vitamin is necessary in the clotting process?
A)Vitamin K
B)Vitamin D
C)Vitamin C
D)Vitamin E
Q4) What are some predisposing factors for deep vein thrombosis?
A)Diabetes
B)Female
C)Obesity
D)Asthma
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Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Q1) Natural Orifice Transluminal Endoscopic Surgery (NOTES)is a newer form of endoscopic surgery in which only two incisions are made on the patient's abdomen to remove an appendix or a gallbladder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lasers are not able to be used with endoscopic or laparoscopic procedures because of the limited vision endoscopy allows.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of gas medium is used to insufflate the peritoneal cavity?
A)Nitrous oxide
B)Oxygen
C)Carbon dioxide
D)Argon
Q4) Fluid can be used as an expansion media for creating working space while using a scope.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mammography is the only diagnostic technique to diagnose breast cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When performing surgery near or on the liver,what precautions need to be taken into consideration?
A)Liver tissue is very friable and can hemorrhage.
B)No precautions are needed because the patient can always have a liver transplant.
C)Have a drain ready for after surgery.
D)Partial lobectomy is acceptable for function.
Q3) Which type of stoma is created in the opening of the cecum through the lower right side of the abdomen?
A)Ileostomy
B)Cecostomy
C)Colostomy
D)Gastrostomy
Q4) Any person who wants to lose weight quickly is considered a candidate for bariatric surgery.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Q1) Which female organ can expand,receive,and hold a fertilized ovum during development of a fetus?
A)Bartholin's glands
B)Hymen
C)Cervix
D)Uterus
Q2) Which special features apply to both vaginal and abdominopelvic procedures in gynecologic surgery?
A)Patient position
B)Prophylactic anticoagulation
C)Placement of Foley catheter
D)All of the above
Q3) Which technique of tubal ligation is one of the most reliable methods?
A)Cautery
B)Pomeroy technique
C)Falope ring
D)Filshie or Hulka clip
Q4) Pelvic endoscopy cases are not considered sterile procedures.
A)True
B)False
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient position is commonly used when the kidney is exposed posteriorly?
A)High lithotomy
B)Supine
C)Lateral
D)Recumbent
Q2) Enlarged prostate
A)Nephrectomy
B)Pyeloplasty
C)Prostatic hypertrophy
D)Phimosis
E)Varicocele
F)Penectomy
G)Orchiectomy
H)Hydrocele
I)Vasovasostomy
Q3) Which organ of the urinary system connects the kidney and bladder?
A)Nephron
B)Renal parenchyma
C)Ureter
D)Tubule
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Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cancellous tissue is porous,spongy,and contains bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of sterile protective attire is worn by sterile team members in an orthopedic joint replacement procedure?
A)Isolation suits
B)Goggles
C)X-ray gown
D)Long sleeves under scrub top
Q3) Which type of fracture is referred to as a simple fracture?
A)Pathologic fracture
B)Bony fracture
C)Metastatic fracture
D)Closed fracture
Q4) Laminar airflow is used to create an ultraclean environment for orthopedic surgery.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) What piece of personal property is removed from a patient before cranial surgery?
A)Rings
B)Contact lenses
C)Hearing aide
D)Hair
Q2) A corpus callosotomy is performed to prevent secondary generalized seizures a patient may have.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What procedure is performed to suture a divided nerve?
A)Neurolysis
B)Neurectomy
C)Neurexeresis
D)Neurorrhaphy
Q4) Mannitol is given to increase intracranial pressure (ICP)in patients with intracranial hemorrhage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What level of the spinal column is damaged and causes a person to become a quadriplegic?
A)Any injury above T1
B)Between T1 and T8
C)T8-T10
D)S2-S5
Q2) What procedure is necessary and urgent when pressure on the spinal cord causes symptoms?
A)Vertebral alignment
B)Lumpectomy
C)Decompression
D)Discectomy
Q3) Which type of retractor is used in spinal surgery?
A)Bayonet
B)Penfield #4
C)Kerrison
D)Beckman
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Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who is a candidate for radial keratotomy?
A)Farsighted individuals
B)Blind individuals
C)Nearsighted individuals
D)Individuals with cataracts
Q2) What cleansing product do ophthalmologists recommend to patients with inflamed eyelids?
A)Dish soap
B)Alcohol
C)Antibiotic ointment
D)Diluted baby shampoo
Q3) Which term best describes a full-thickness corneal transplant?
A)LASIK
B)Lamellar graft
C)Epikeratophakia
D)Penetrating keratoplasty
Q4) Retrobulbar blocks are injected into the soft tissue superior and inferior to the globe.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should a graft be handled until the surgeon is ready to apply it?
A)Leave it dry on the corner of the table.
B)Keep the graft moist on a separate sterile graft table.
C)Place it on the mayo stand.
D)Place it in an ice basin.
Q2) Which is an augmentation mammoplasty approach in which a breast implant is inserted?
A)Laparoscopic
B)Periareolar
C)Periosteal
D)Intrathoracic
Q3) What necessary environmental controls must be considered when caring for a severe burn patient?
A)Know preexisting medical history
B)Keep skin exposed to air
C)Let family visit to distract them from pain
D)Increase room temperature and practice reverse isolation
Q4) The rule of sevens chart is used to estimate burn injury in the adult.
A)True
B)False
42
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Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a test of hearing sensitivity?
A)Acoustical radiogram test
B)Acoustic reflex latency test
C)Audio refractive potential test
D)Auditory brainwave test
Q2) A nasal fracture needs to be repaired immediately after the trauma to avoid malunion or nonunion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The mouth is considered contaminated,so sterile equipment and a sterile technique is not necessary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which type of mastoidectomy removes air cells using a small burr by opening the mastoid process behind the ear?
A)Simple mastoidectomy
B)Modified radical mastoidectomy
C)Radical mastoidectomy
D)Simple mastectomy
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Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chylothorax is a complication of thoracic surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A thymectomy is performed to relieve the symptoms of what disease?
A)Graves' disease
B)Tuberculosis
C)Bronchospasm
D)Myasthenia gravis
Q3) Which is a factor that influences the choice of incisions for thoracic surgery?
A)Patient age
B)Surgeon preference
C)Intrapleural pressure
D)Hemodynamic quality
Q4) Which type of pressure is necessary within the thorax to maintain normal inhalation and expiration?
A)Negative
B)Positive
C)Internal
D)Blunt
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Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repair of dilation of the ventricular wall
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)Tachycardia
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q2) A patient with a pacemaker should not have a procedure that uses an electrosurgical unit (ESU).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of valve consists of the pulmonary valve and aortic valve?
A)Atrioventricular
B)Tricuspid
C)Mitral
D)Semilunar
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Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated blood to the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which characteristic is true of the ideal vena cava filter?
A)Low filtration
B)Low cost
C)Large caliber insertion device
D)Magnetic
Q3) Method to vaporize arterial plaque
A)Embolectomy
B)Atherectomy
C)Balloon dilation
D)Intraluminal stent
E)Laser angioplasty
F)Thrombolytic therapy
G)Thrombectomy
Q4) When creating an arteriovenous fistula,commonly used autologous vessels are the radial artery and cephalic vein at the wrist.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Procured organs are placed in sterile containers and packed with dry ice to decrease ischemia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which two organs can be removed from nonheartbeating donors?
A)Skin and bone
B)Kidney and pancreas
C)Heart and liver
D)Lung and liver
Q3) What act is recognized by all 50 states as a legal consent for organ donation?
A)Organ Transplant Registry Act
B)United Network for Organ Sharing Act
C)Uniform Anatomical Gift Act
D)Total Organ Perfusion System
Q4) What areas of the body is donor bone marrow taken from?
A)All bones
B)Ribs
C)Iliac crests and sternum
D)Sternum and femur
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