Security Policies and Procedures
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
This course explores the development, implementation, and management of security policies and procedures within organizations. Students will learn the principles of effective policy creation, including risk assessment, regulatory compliance, and the frameworks that guide security decision-making. The course covers best practices for creating clear, enforceable security procedures and examines their role in protecting organizational assets, managing security incidents, and ensuring business continuity. Through case studies and real-world examples, students will gain practical skills in drafting, communicating, and maintaining policies that align with organizational objectives and legal requirements.
Recommended Textbook
Information Security and IT Risk Management 1st Edition by Manish Agrawal
349 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIPAA is important to information security for
A) Intruding into a number of high profile computer installations
B) Driving demand for information security in a large sector of the US economy
C) Causing one of the most significant Internet outages ever
D) Popularizing computers among the masses
Answer: B
Q2) Information security is becoming increasingly important because of
A) The increasing criticality of information to individuals and organizations
B) There is a general increase in criminal behavior in society
C) People are greedier these days
D) Organizations are wealthier these days
Answer: A
Q3) The ILOVEYOU virus is important to information security for
A) Intruding into a number of high profile computer installations
B) Stealing commercial information by exploiting weakness is wireless networks
C) Exposing the implications of international differences in cyber-law
D) Popularizing computers among the masses
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: System Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hot spare is a
A) Single point of failure
B) Redundant component that can replace a failed component with no downtime
C) Spare components used to replace failed components as quickly as possible
D) Popular component purchased when it is on sale
Answer: B
Q2) Cloud computing models include all of the following except
A) Revenue as a service
B) Infrastructure as a service
C) Platform as a service
D) Software as a service
Answer: A
Q3) The types of monitoring include
A) Penetration testing and access control
B) Health checking and log monitoring
C) Nagios and log monitoring
D) Reactive monitoring and pro-active testing
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: System Administration 2
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Sample Questions
Q1) The default shell prompt for a regular user in the bash shell is A) / B) .
C) ..
D) $
Answer: D
Q2) To view the contents of a file, we can use the command A) less B) more
C) cat
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Q3) The filesystem root is represented in Linux by A) / B) .
C) ..
D) $
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Basic Information Security Model
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rootkits are
A) Software used to hide the existence of malicious software on computer systems
B) Exploits that compromise a previously unknown software vulnerability
C) Computers that perform malicious tasks at the direction of a remote controller
D) Manipulating people into performing desired actions
Q2) An unrestricted uploads vulnerability refers to a situation where
A) Files are accepted as input without verifying their specifications
B) Input from other users is supplied as output to other users
C) A program puts more data into a storage location than it can hold
D) User input is used without confirming its validity
Q3) A cross-site scripting vulnerability can occur when
A) Files are accepted as input without verifying their specifications
B) Input from other users is supplied as output to other users
C) A program puts more data into a storage location than it can hold
D) User input is used without confirming its validity
Q4) Vulnerabilities in IT systems can be eliminated through secure coding practices
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Asset Identification and Characterization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on sensitivity, assets are classified as
A) Essential, required, deferrable
B) Restricted, unrestricted
C) Information, personnel, hardware
D) Hardware, software, legal
Q2) Required assets are those whose loss of availability
A) Could be tolerated for a short period of time
B) Could be acceptable
C) Is not acceptable even for a short period of time
D) Would cause immediate severe repercussions to the organization
Q3) The most appropriate IT lifecycle stage to evaluate an organization's processes is the
A) Retirement stage
B) Deployment stage
C) Management stage
D) Planning stage
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Chapter 6: Threats and Vulnerabilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the context of information security, bots are
A) Activities performed by agents to compromise assets
B) Malicious software that uses operating system or application vulnerabilities for propagation
C) Software that performs simple tasks automatically and repetitively, usually at the direction of another software
D) Malicious content entered by an end user on a web-based system
Q2) Top management can be a threat agent by
A) Abusing privileges
B) Lack of understanding of security issues
C) Pulling rank
D) All of the above
Q3) The goal of agents running a 419 Nigerian scam is to
A) Damage the reputations of end users
B) Damage end user computers
C) Steal money
D) Steal intellectual property
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Chapter 7: Encryption Controls
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Sample Questions
Q1) Public key encryption techniques used in practice are based heavily on
A) Division operations
B) Set operations
C) Extraction operations
D) Modulus operations
Q2) Block encryption uses both
A) Relational and Procedural operations
B) Substitution and permutation
C) Keys and hashes
D) Data and storage
Q3) Electronic Code Book ECB is not used for encryption since it has inadequate
A) Licensing flexibility
B) Recovery features
C) Diffusion of confusion
D) Parallelism
Q4) Cryptanalysis is
A) The art of breaking ciphertext
B) The transformation of data to produce ciphertext
C) The science of creating superior encryption algorithms
D) Text that is unintelligible to the reader
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Chapter 8: Identity and Access Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stages in identity management are
A) Denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance
B) Plan, do, check, act
C) Plan, acquire, deploy, manage
D) Discovery, reconciliation and enrichment
Q2) Kerberos is
A) The process of proving that a user is the owner of the identity being used
B) A secret series of characters known only to the user
C) The use of minute differences in physical traits to prove identity
D) A protocol that allows nodes in an insecure network to securely identify themselves to each other using tokens
Q3) Hardware or software tokens are used for
A) The process of proving that a user is the owner of the identity being used
B) A secret series of characters known only to the user
C) The minute differences in physical traits used to prove identity
D) A protocol that allows nodes in an insecure network to securely identify themselves to each other using tokens
Q4) Kerberos has been very useful in securing web applications
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Hardware and Software Controls
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Sample Questions
Q1) In enterprise networks, power users can facilitate patch management by
A) Administering as much of the patch management themselves as possible
B) Setting automatic updates to as many services and software as possible
C) Using department funds to deploy local patch management systems to as many systems as possible
D) Allowing system administrators to controls as much of the patch management as possible
Q2) Examining byte sequences in incoming and outgoing data is called
A) Reputation based end-point protection
B) Protocol-based end-point protection
C) Anomaly-based end-point protection
D) Signature-based end-point protection
Q3) End-point protection defends against attacks on A) Firewalls
B) Offices
C) Vehicles
D) Desktops
Q4) Patches should always be installed as soon as they become available
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Shell Scripting
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Sample Questions
Q1) The command to view the contents of a variable at the shell prompt is A) variablename
B) echo variablename
C) echo $variablename
D) $variablename
Q2) A specific set of commands is to be executed until a pre-specified condition is reached. The most appropriate loop construct to accomplish this is A) for B) while C) do D) if
Q3) The pipe operator, which directs the output from one command to another, is A) / B) # C) | D) >
Q4) An infinite loop a loop that runs forever can sometimes be useful
A)True B)False
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Chapter 11: Incident Handling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Log consolidation is useful for
A) Identifying irregularities across multiple systems
B) Lowering hardware costs
C) Eliminating the need for clock-synchronization
D) Serving as a honeypot
Q2) In the context of monitoring, a false positive is
A) An undetected problem
B) A component that is working intermittently
C) A component that is likely to fail soon
D) An alert that upon further investigation turns out to be not a problem
Q3) Eradication is
A) Saving log files in a server container configured specially for this purpose
B) Preventing the expansion of harm
C) Removing the causes of the adverse event
D) Returning systems to owners for normal operations after the incident
Q4) During an incident, it is advisable to pull members away from current projects to assist the IRT
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Incident Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In IT, BYOD stands for
A) Bring your own drink
B) Buy your own drink
C) Buy your own dress'
D) Bring your own device
Q2) In Windows, operating system log messages are recorded in the
A) Application log
B) Security log
C) System event log
D) Forwarded events log
Q3) Syslog selectors are composed of
A) Information, warning
B) Facility, priority
C) Event logs, application logs
D) Syslog, logmon
Q4) Syslog facilities include all of the following except
A) auth
B) cron
C) kern
D) debug
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Chapter 13: Policies, Standards and Guidelines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Policy review is usually triggered by all of the following except
A) Time lapse since last review
B) Change in vendors for significant technologies
C) Significant technology change
D) Changes in regulatory compliance
Q2) The first section of a policy generally specifies
A) Who or what is covered by the policy
B) Any definitions used in the policy
C) The statement of the policy
D) The need for the policy
Q3) A policy is
A) Procedures that tell units when it would be nice if things were operated a certain way, but it is not a requirement to do so
B) Guidelines to users and customers on what is appropriate and what is not appropriate to do with information technology resources
C) A document that records a high-level principle or course of action that has been decided on
D) A defined set of rules, accepted and adopted by several organizations
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Chapter 14: It Risk Analysis and Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Risk is
A) A quantified measure of the potential damage caused by a specified threat
B) Capabilities, intentions and attack methods of adversaries to cause harm to assets
C) Resource or information that is to be protected
D) Weaknesses in an information system that can lead to a compromise of an asset
Q2) The motivation for the passage of the Sarbanes-Oxley act was
A) Failure of Internet technologies
B) Denial of culpability by senior executives for falsification of records
C) To prevent stock market crashes
D) To recover retiree savings
Q3) The PCAOB created by the Sarbanes-Oxley act of 2002
A) Defines the format of annual financial reports
B) Oversees auditors and defines auditing standards
C) Performs independent audits of suspect firms
D) Regulates the stock market
Q4) If assessed using the NIST 800-39 framework, the risk estimate is an accurate measure of the IT risk facing the organization
A)True
B)False
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