Respiratory Care Assessment Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Respiratory Care Assessment provides students with the essential knowledge and clinical skills required to evaluate patients with cardiopulmonary disorders. The course covers comprehensive patient assessment techniques, including physical examination, patient history, observation of respiratory patterns, and interpretation of vital signs. Students learn to use diagnostic tools such as pulse oximetry, arterial blood gas analysis, chest radiographs, and pulmonary function testing to assess respiratory function accurately. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, communication, and documentation skills necessary for developing appropriate care plans and collaborating effectively with the healthcare team in various clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations Assessment of Respiratory Disease 6th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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Q1) During the interview, the patient states, "Every time I climb the stairs I have to stop to catch my breath." Hearing this, the respiratory therapist replies, "So, it sounds like you get short of breath climbing stairs." This interviewing technique is called:
A) clarification.
B)modeling.
C)empathy.
D)reflection.
Answer: D
Q2) The interviewing technique called silence is used:
A) to prompt the patient to ask a question.
B)after a direct question.
C)after an open-ended question.
D)to allow the patient to review his/her history.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Q1) When would induced hypothermia be indicated?
A) During brain surgery
B)During bowel surgery
C)To break a fever
D)To treat carbon monoxide poisoning
Answer: A
Q2) Tachypnea may be the result of:
1) hypoxemia.
2) hypothermia.
3) fever.
4) sedation.
A)2, 4
B)1, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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Q1) A special indirect measurement procedure must be done to find the following:
A) Inspiratory reserve volume
B)Residual volume
C)Expiratory reserve volume
D)Inspiratory capacity
Answer: B
Q2) Your patient has obstructive lung disease. In response to this, which of the following are typically found?
1) Decreased lung compliance
2) Increased ventilatory rate
3) Increased tidal volume
4) Decreased ventilator rate
A)3, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2
D)1, 3, 4
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Q1) Which of the following would be a normal person's venous oxygen pressure (PaO<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 35 to 45 mm Hg
B)45 to 80 mm Hg
C)80 to 100 mm Hg
D)100 to 120 mm Hg
Q2) Common causes of metabolic acidosis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) diabetic ketoacidosis.
B)shallow breathing from a sedative overdose.
C)lactic acidosis.
D)renal (kidney) failure.
Q3) Your patient has had chronic ventilatory failure for several years. What is the primary factor that determines her breathing pattern?
A) Muscle efficiency
B)Ventilatory efficiency
C)Heart function
D)Work efficiency
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Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Q1) Oxygen consumption:
1) increases with exercise.
2) is the amount of oxygen used by the body.
3) is inversely related to carbon dioxide production.
4) is about 250 mL/min in the resting adult.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)2, 4
D)1, 2, 4
Q2) An increased cardiac output causes the:
1) C(a-v)O<sub>2</sub> to decrease.
2) SvO<sub>2</sub> to increase.
3) Total O<sub>2</sub> delivery to decrease.
4) O<sub>2</sub>ER to increase.
A)1
B)2, 3
C)3, 4
D)1, 2
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Q1) When reviewing a cardiac rhythm strip, you notice that there are three large boxes between two QRS complexes. Approximately what is this patient's heart rate?
A) 60
B)75
C)100
D)150
Q2) A pulmonary artery (Swan-Ganz) catheter can be used for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) measuring cardiac output.
B)arterial blood sampling.
C)measuring left atrial pressure.
D)measuring pulmonary artery pressure.
Q3) The "T" wave represents:
A) depolarization of the ventricles.
B)repolarization of the ventricles.
C)depolarization of the atria.
D)repolarization of the atria.
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Q1) Your patient has a long smoking history and has recently coughed up blood. The physician suspects that there may be lung cancer but no lesions can be seen on a standard chest radiograph. A CT scan offers all of the following advantages EXCEPT:
A) bronchial tumors can be seen.
B)lung tumors as small as 0.4 cm can be seen.
C)a tumor's metabolism can be identified.
D)a mediastinal mass can be seen.
Q2) For most chest x-ray studies, what is usually done?
A) There is a full exhalation.
B)There is a full inspiration.
C)Separate inspiratory and expiratory films are taken.
D)The patient is told to pant to provide a middle lung volume.
Q3) The heart shadow on a chest radiograph will show up larger than normal on:
A) an AP film.
B)a PA film.
C)a left lateral film.
D)a computed tomography (CT) scan.
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Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Q1) In a normal differential white blood cell (WBC) count, which of the following would have the highest number?
A) Neutrophils
B)Basophils
C)Eosinophils
D)Lymphocytes
Q2) After a thoracentesis procedure, it is important to monitor the patient for:
A) bronchospasm.
B)hemoptysis.
C)increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
D)pneumothorax.
Q3) Gram staining is done to:
1) classify organisms as Gram-positive or Gram-negative.
2) identify tuberculosis organisms.
3) speed up the organism culturing process.
4) help guide antibiotic therapy.
A)3
B)1, 4
C)2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Care Practitioner
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Q1) A 45-year-old woman has acute respiratory failure. She is cyanotic with unstable vital signs. What therapist-driven protocol(s) should be implemented?
1) Oxygen therapy
2) Aerosolized medication therapy
3) Hyperinflation therapy
4) Mechanical ventilation
A)3
B)1, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) When performing a therapist-driven protocol (TDP), the severity assessment refers to:
A) the frequency of performing a treatment modality.
B)how sick the patient is.
C)the Department of Homeland Security's threat level.
D)how urgently the physician wants the patient treated.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the A stands for:
A) application of the data.
B)assessment of the data by the patient.
C)affect of the patient.
D)assessment of the data by the health-care worker.
Q2) A patient who had pneumonia, and her family, are suing the hospital, physician, and respiratory therapist. How can the patient's medical care and treatment be proved?
A) Care is documented in the chart.
B)The patient's testimony
C)The physician's testimony
D)The respiratory therapist's testimony
Q3) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the R stands for:
A) revisions made in the original plan.
B)refusal of care by the patient.
C)rejection by the physician.
D)resuscitate the patient.
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Chapter 11: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd:
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Q1) Which of the following are anatomic alterations found with emphysema?
1) Hyperinflation
2) Mucus plugs
3) Decreased surface area for gas exchange
4) Weakened distal airways
A)1, 2
B)2, 4
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The genetic reference to a person with a normal level of \(\alpha\)<sub>1</sub>-antitrypsin is:
A) Z phenotype.
B)MZ.
C)MM.
D)ZZ.
Q3) Emphysema is probably caused by all of the following EXCEPT: A) inhaling asbestos fibers.
B)(\(\alpha\)<sub>1</sub>)-antitrypsin deficiency.
C)second-hand cigarette smoke.
D)air pollution.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Asthma
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Q1) Which of the following are associated with so-called intrinsic asthma?
1) Emotional stress
2) Cockroach allergen
3) GERD
4) Obesity
A)2, 4
B)1, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A patient has been admitted to the hospital with a suspected asthma attack. What radiographic findings would confirm this diagnosis?
1) Depressed diaphragm
2) Increased anterior-posterior diameter
3) Asymmetrical lung inflation
4) Translucent lung fields
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 13: Bronchiectasis
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Q1) Which of the following pulmonary function testing values would be found in a patient with severe, obstructive bronchiectasis?
A) Decreased RV/TLC ratio
B)Increased PEFR
C)Increased FEF<sub>25%-75%</sub>
D)Decreased FEF<sub>25%-75%</sub>
Q2) Irregularly dilated and constricted bronchi are the key anatomic alterations found in which type of bronchiectasis?
A) Cystic
B)Varicose
C)Tubular
D)Saccular
Q3) Severe bronchiectasis is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) vesicular breath sounds.
B)cor pulmonale.
C)distended neck veins.
D)polycythemia.
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Chapter 14: Cystic Fibrosis
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Q1) If a cystic fibrosis patient is in generally good condition, what might be done to permanently fix the lung problem?
A) Cryosurgery
B)Total DNA replacement
C)Diaphragmatic pacemaker
D)Lung transplant
Q2) What complicating pulmonary problem is likely to happen to a patient with cystic fibrosis?
A) Pulmonary edema
B)Pleural effusion
C)Spontaneous pneumothorax
D)Cardiac tamponade
Q3) total airway obstruction leading to atelectasis.
A) 1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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16
Chapter 15: Pneumonia
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Q1) Overall, most cases of pneumonia are caused by:
A) viruses.
B)Gram-negative bacteria.
C)protozoa.
D)fungi.
Q2) When a patient has pneumonia, what would be found in the alveolar effusion fluids?
1) Mucus
2) Serum fluid
3) Saliva
4) Red blood cells
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Your patient has a bacterial pneumonia. What kills the invading bacteria?
A) Macrophages
B)Red blood cells
C)Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D)Serum fluid
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Chapter 16: Lung Abscess
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Q1) A lung abscess may be caused by which of the following?
1) Penetrating chest wound
2) Septic embolism
3) Aspirated foreign body
4) Bronchogenic cyst
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) During the early stages of a lung abscess, the pathological process is the same as that of:
A) pulmonary edema.
B)bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
C)pneumonia.
D)pulmonary fibrosis.
Q3) In response to the patient having a lung infection, how does the body respond?
A) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes go to the area.
B)Erythrocytes go to the area.
C)Surface goblet cells increase mucus production.
D)Metabolism is decreased.
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Chapter 17: Tuberculosis
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Q1) When a person has TB spread through the body, it is found in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) upper lobes.
B)kidneys.
C)brain.
D)lower lobes.
Q2) Your patient has postprimary TB. What are the major pathologic or structural changes associated with it?
1) Cavity formation
2) Laryngeal edema
3) Dilated and distorted bronchi
4) Fibrosis of lung parenchyma
A)2, 3
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
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Chapter 18: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Q1) Your patient with an advanced pulmonary fungal infection has cor pulmonale. How will this manifest itself?
A) Distended neck veins
B)Poor skin turgor
C)Wheezy breath sounds
D)Asymmetrical chest movement when breathing
Q2) Which type of fungal lung infection frequently results in productive cough with purulent sputum?
A) Staphylococcal infection
B)Blastomycosis
C)Klebsiella infection
D)Histoplasmosis
Q3) Fungal lung infections are usually spread by:
A) inhaling spores.
B)blood.
C)contact with infected sputum.
D)inhaling infected droplets.
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Chapter 19: Pulmonary Edema
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Q1) All of the following are causes of cardiogenic pulmonary edema EXCEPT:
A) myocardial infarction.
B)mitral valve disease.
C)allergic reaction to drugs.
D)congenital heart defects.
Q2) Pulmonary edema manifests itself clinically as a/an:
A) restrictive pulmonary disorder.
B)obstructive pulmonary disorder.
C)equally restrictive and obstructive disorder.
D)restrictive cardiac disorder.
Q3) Your patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema has had intravascular catheters placed for monitoring purposes. Which of the following values would be expected?
1) Decreased SV
2) Increased PCWP
3) Increased CVP
4) Decreased RAP
A)2, 3
B)1, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Embolism
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Q1) Your patient's D-dimer blood test results show a value of 250 ng/mL. How should these results be interpreted?
A) The patient does not have a pulmonary embolism.
B)The patient's anticoagulant level is acceptable.
C)The patient has a pulmonary embolism.
D)The patient has a deep vein thrombosis.
Q2) The sudden onset of which of the following signs and symptoms indicate a pulmonary embolism: 1) wheezing.
2) coughing out blood-streaked sputum.
3) cyanosis.
4) sudden shortness of breath.
A)3, 4
B)1, 2
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 21: Flail Chest
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Q1) Your flail chest patient requires supplemental oxygen. What is the usual cause of hypoxemia in a flail chest patient?
A) Myocardial contusion
B)Hemorrhage
C)Pulmonary edema
D)Alveolar atelectasis
Q2) The major anatomic alterations of the lungs associated with flail chest include: 1) hemothorax.
2) diaphragm rupture.
3) atelectasis.
4) consolidation.
A)1,2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)2, 3, 4
Q3) When a patient has a flail chest, what happens during the ventilatory cycle?
A) The I:E ratio becomes inverse.
B)Air leaks out through the flail area.
C)Air leaks in through the flail area.
D)Air is shunted from one lung to the other.
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Chapter 22: Pneumothorax
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Q1) Treatment of a 30% pneumothorax may include:
1) endotracheal intubation.
2) giving the patient supplemental oxygen.
3) placing a chest tube into the pleural space.
4) placing a chest tube into the pericardial space.
A)1, 3
B)2, 3
C)2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Your patient with a large pneumothorax has tachycardia and a low blood pressure. What could cause this?
A) Shock
B)Decreased venous return to the heart
C)Tracheal compression
D)Compression of the abdominal aorta
Q3) An iatrogenic pneumothorax may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.
B)pleural biopsy.
C)subclavian vein cannulation.
D)endotracheal intubation.
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Chapter 23: Effusion and Empyema
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Q1) Which of the following are major causes of an exudative pleural effusion?
1) Empyema
2) Chylothorax
3) Pancreatitis
4) Peritoneal dialysis
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following are associated with a transudative pleural effusion?
1) Thin and watery fluid
2) Fluid has a lot of cellular debris
3) Fluid has high protein count
4) Few blood cells
A)2, 3
B)1, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
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Chapter 24: Kyphoscoliosis
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Q1) Which of the following pulmonary function values are likely to be found in a patient with kyphoscoliosis?
1) Normal or decreased Vt
2) Normal or increased PEFR
3) Decreased VC
4) Decreased FVC
A)1, 2
B)2, 4
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Your patient has a 45-degree curvature of her spine. The physician is most likely to recommend which of the following?
A) Surgery for rod instrumentation
B)Observation checkup in about 3 months
C)Milwaukee or other brace
D)Surgery for spinal fusion
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26
Chapter 25: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Q1) Your patient has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) of the lungs. What is the most commonly found pulmonary complication of SLE?
A) Bronchospasm
B)Pleurisy
C)Atelectasis
D)Diaphragmatic dysfunction
Q2) Your patient has asbestosis. What major pathologic and structural changes are associated with this and other types of ILD?
1) Fibrocalcific pleural plaques
2) Excessive secretions
3) Bronchospasm
4) Mediastinal shift
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 26: Cancer of the Lung
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Q1) A patient has gone to see her physician after recently developing hoarseness and difficulty swallowing. What does this indicate?
A) Mediastinal cancer
B)Gastroesophageal reflux
C)Stomach cancer
D)Salivary gland cancer
Q2) The major pathologic and structural changes associated with bronchogenic carcinoma include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) bronchospasm.
B)airway obstruction.
C)destruction of airways and alveoli.
D)atelectasis.
Q3) Your patient has metastatic lung cancer that has been identified in several other locations. What is the best way to treat her?
A) Radiation therapy
B)Surgical removal of all known tumors
C)Chemotherapy
D)Needle aspiration of the tumors
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28
Chapter 27: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) Your patient has a prolonged case of ARDS. What will happen to his alveolar cells?
A) Multiplication of the type I cells
B)Influx of macrophages
C)Hyperplasia and swelling of the type II cells
D)Development of emphysema
Q2) Clinical manifestations of ARDS include:
1) low or normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP).
2) tachycardia.
3) intercostal retractions.
4) cyanosis.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) A chest radiograph finding indicative of ARDS is:
A) "ground-glass" appearance.
B)pleural effusion.
C)lung hyperinflation.
D)tracheal deviation.
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Chapter 28: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Q1) The peripheral nervous system problems found with Guillain-Barré syndrome include:
1) loss of reflexes.
2) increased reflex reactions.
3) flaccid paralysis of skeletal muscles.
4) tetany of skeletal muscles.
A)3
B)4
C)1, 3
D)2, 4
Q2) Your Guillain-Barré syndrome patient has autonomic nervous system dysfunction and should be monitored for all of the following:
1) tachycardia.
2) hypotension.
3) bradycardia.
4) fever.
A)2, 4
B)1, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Myasthenia Gravis
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Q1) Which demographic group(s) is/are most likely to develop myasthenia gravis?
1) African-American female > 40 years of age
2) White male < 40 years of age
3) Female 15-35 years of age
4) Male 40-70 years of age
A)1
B)4
C)2, 3
D)3, 4
Q2) In a myasthenia gravis patient, what happens after a rest period?
A) There is no clinical change.
B)Strength decreases.
C)Muscle strength improves.
D)Ascending paralysis descends.
Q3) Your patient has a severe case of myasthenia gravis. It is most important that she be monitored for:
A) urine output.
B)atrial fibrillation.
C)hypotension.
D)apnea.
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Chapter 30: Sleep Apnea
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Q1) Signs and symptoms associated with obstructive sleep apnea include:
1) insomnia.
2) excessive daytime sleepiness.
3) hypothyroidism.
4) metabolic alkalosis.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is useful in the management of the patient with obstructive sleep apnea because it:
A) pushes air into and out of the lungs like a mechanical ventilator.
B)prevents airway collapse.
C)stretches the J receptors in the chest wall to stimulate breathing.
D)delivers a tidal volume breath to the patient.
Q3) Which of the following cardiac arrhythmias is life threatening?
A) Atrioventricular block
B)Sinus bradycardia
C)Ventricular tachycardia
D)Premature ventricular contraction
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Chapter 31: Newborn and Early Childhood Respiratory Disorders
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Q1) Your neonatal patient is having expiratory grunting. What physiologic effect does this produce?
A) Increased vital capacity.
B)Increased PAO<sub>2</sub>.
C)Decreased PaCO<sub>2</sub>.
D)Closes the ductus arteriosus.
Q2) Apnea of prematurity could be defined as:
1) respiratory pause causing bradycardia.
2) cycles of short breathing pauses followed by faster breathing.
3) no breathing for >20 seconds.
4) sudden apnea and death (crib death).
A)4
B)2
C)1, 3
D)3, 4
Q3) A newborn's 5-minute Apgar score is 7. How should this be interpreted?
A) Normal adjustment to being born
B)Moderate distress; intubate the airway and suction the lungs
C)Moderate distress; administer supplemental oxygen
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D)Severe distress; begin bag-mask resuscitation
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Chapter 32: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) About how many neonatal patients with MAS will require mechanical ventilation?
A) 50%
B)30%
C)10% to 15%
D)4%
Q2) What is the consequence of meconium aspiration if there is a "ball-valve" effect in the small airways?
A) Air trapping on exhalation
B)Apnea of prematurity
C)Air trapping on inhalation
D)Bronchiectasis
Q3) How may a fetus respond when he/she becomes hypoxemic?
A) It stops making breathing efforts.
B)It makes rapid, shallow chest movements.
C)It makes very deep, gasping inspiratory movements.
D)It shows Kussmaul respirations.
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Chapter 33: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) The breathing pattern seen in a patient with TTN includes:
1) normal rate.
2) rapid rate.
3) higher than normal tidal volume.
4) shallow tidal volume.
A)1, 3
B)2, 3
C)2, 4
D)1, 4
Q2) Initially, TTN will have a clinical presentation similar to:
A) the early stage of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
B)the late stage of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
C)bronchial pneumonia.
D)meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS).
Q3) Usually TTN will begin to resolve within what time period?
A) 4 to 6 hours
B)12 to 24 hours
C)About 48 hours
D)Greater than 72 hours
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Chapter 34: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) All of the following amniotic fluid lab findings would indicate mature fetal lungs, EXCEPT:
A) S:A ratio is >55
B)PG is present
C)L:S ratio is 2:1
D)L:S ratio is 1:2
Q2) The hyaline membrane seen in the alveoli of a neonate with RDS is similar to the anatomic alteration found in what other pulmonary disease?
A) Bacterial pneumonia
B)Pulmonary fibrosis
C)Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
D)Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
Q3) The neonate with RDS would have a phosphatidylglycerol (PG) level that is A) present.
B)absent.
C)above normal.
D)below normal.
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Chapter 35: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Q1) If your patient were to develop a pneumoperitoneum, what clinical presentation would be seen?
A) Mediastinal shift toward affected area
B)Change in point of maximum impulse
C)Abdominal distension
D)Pleural effusion
Q2) What chest radiograph finding(s) would confirm that the patient has PIE?
1) Mediastinal shift to the unaffected side
2) Air below the diaphragms
3) Lung hyperinflation
4) Fine, bubbly appearance of the lungs
A)4
B)1, 2
C)3, 4
D)1, 3, 4
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Chapter 36: Respiratory Syncytial Virus Infection
Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis
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Q1) Anatomic alterations related to an RSV infection can lead to all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) pneumomediastinum.
B)partial airway obstruction.
C)decreased airway lumen.
D)complete airway obstruction.
Q2) Wheezing breath sounds are detected in your patient. What agent(s) would be initially used to help cause smooth muscle relaxation?
1) Inhaled sympathomimetic
2) Systemic corticosteroid
3) Inhaled parasympatholytic
4) Systemic decongestant
A)1
B)2, 4
C)1, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 37: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Q1) Your patient is beginning to develop BPD. What can be given to promote pulmonary vasodilation?
A) Furosemide (Lasix)
B)Inhaled nitric oxide (iNO)
C)Inhaled albuterol
D)> 50% oxygen
Q2) Which of the following "new" BPD criteria would indicate a severe case of the condition?
1) Needs > 30% oxygen upon discharge
2) Needs nasal CPAP at discharge
3) Breathing room air upon discharge
4) Needed supplemental oxygen for 35 days
A)1, 2
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)2, 3, 4
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Chapter 38: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Q1) Your patient has a left-sided CDH. How would this manifest itself clinically?
A) A restrictive pulmonary disorder
B)An obstructive pulmonary disorder
C)Equally restrictive and obstructive disorder
D)A restrictive cardiac disorder
Q2) A newborn infant shows respiratory distress upon delivery. It is observed to have a scaphoid abdomen. Auscultation reveals diminished breath sounds with heart sounds on the right side of the chest. What is the infant's most likely diagnosis?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B)Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)
C)Pneumoperitoneum
D)Abdominal aortic aneurysm
Q3) All of the following chest radiograph findings would be found in a patient with a CDH, EXCEPT:
A) steeple point sign.
B)complete lung collapse.
C)lungs do not meet the chest wall.
D)heart is shifted to the unaffected side.
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Chapter 39: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) The medication racemic epinephrine (Micro-Nefrin, Vaponefrin) is given to a patient with LTB because it:
A) is an effective bronchodilator.
B)causes mucosal vasoconstriction.
C)causes bradycardia.
D)has an appealing taste and smell.
Q2) The diagnosis of LTB is made by all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) child has inspiratory stridor and barking cough.
B)child has a normal temperature or low fever.
C)child has a significant fever.
D)child can drink without difficulty.
Q3) What is the main clinical risk facing a patient with epiglottitis?
A) Secretions blocking the trachea
B)The epiglottis will bleed.
C)Laryngeal inlet covered by the epiglottis
D)The vocal cords will spasm and close.
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Chapter 40: Near Drowning
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Q1) The initial chest radiograph appearance of a near drowning victim may include:
1) normal lung fields.
2) atelectasis.
3) pulmonary edema.
4) pencil point sign.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Hospital management of near drowning victims includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) measurement of arterial blood gas values.
B)rewarming if the patient is hypothermic.
C)measurement of venous blood gas values.
D)chest radiography.
Q3) Many adult drowning victims have been shown to have:
A) used alcohol.
B)had a stroke.
C)eaten just before swimming.
D)had a heart attack.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Smoke Inhalation and Thermal Injuries
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Q1) A patient has been brought to the Emergency Department after inhaling super heated steam. Pulmonary injuries unique to this situation include:
1) atelectasis.
2) pulmonary edema.
3) thick secretions.
4) pharyngeal edema.
A)3
B)1, 2
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A throbbing headache, nausea, vomiting, and impaired judgment are common clinical manifestations when the blood COHb is at what level?
A) 0% to 10%
B)10% 20%
C)20% to 30%
D)30% to 50%
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Chapter 42: Postoperative Atelectasis
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Q1) A patient with atelectasis is being monitored by bedside spirometry. What findings would correspond with atelectasis?
1) Decreased IC
2) Increased PEFR
3) Decreased VC
4) Increased DLCO
A)2
B)1, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) What definition of atelectasis would best fit that of a premature newborn with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
A) Partial or total collapse of previously expanded lung regions
B)Free pleural air compressed the lungs
C)Enlarged heart causes compression of the lungs
D)The lungs remain unexpanded since birth
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