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Relational Communication explores the processes through which people initiate, develop, maintain, and terminate relationships across a variety of contexts, such as friendships, romantic partnerships, and family connections. The course delves into key theories and concepts underlying relational dynamics, including verbal and nonverbal communication, relational stages, conflict resolution, and the role of technology in relationships. Emphasis is placed on understanding how individuals create meaning, negotiate identities, and manage interpersonal challenges, with applications to both personal and professional interactions. Through readings, discussions, and applied exercises, students gain practical skills for enhancing their relational competence and fostering more effective, satisfying connections with others.
Recommended Textbook
The Basics of Communication A Relational Perspective 2nd Edition by Steve
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Q1) The constitutive approach to communication is closely related to:
A) communication as action.
B) communication as interaction.
C) communication as transaction.
D) all of the above
Answer: C
Q2) Culture affects communication because:
A) Many cultures have strange ways of interacting
B) Many cultures do not send and interpret messages
C) Many cultures take certain knowledge for granted
D) Many cultures do not like to communicate
Answer: C
Q3) The perspective of 'communication as transaction' is preferred by your text's authors because:
A) It accounts for the correct timing of a message
B) It accounts for the exchange of information between two or more individuals
C) It accounts for the creation of new meanings through communication
D) It accounts for the intention to send a message
Answer: C
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Q1) Parole is how people actually use language, with informal and ungrammatical structure that carries meaning to us all the same.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Explain what your text's authors mean by 'conversational hypertext.'
Answer: Conversational hypertext refers to the way that coded messages are included in relationships. These coded messages allow people in the relationship to understand layers of meaning without having to explain them overtly.
Q3) Strategies that would help establish the credibility of the speaker/agent delivering a message would include:
A) Choosing not to introduce the speaker
B) Telling slightly embarrassing jokes about the speaker
C) Summarizing the person's accomplishments
D) Summarizing the person's limitations
Answer: C
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Q1) NVC can convey emotional information in a conversation by revealing:
A) Your attitudes about the other person
B) Your attitudes about the weather
C) Your attitudes about your job
D) Your attitudes about others not involved in the conversation
Answer: A
Q2) If you like to sit in the same seat in class every day and get upset if someone takes your spot, you are experiencing:
A) Primary territoriality
B) Secondary territoriality
C) Public territoriality
D) Tertiary territoriality
Answer: B
Q3) Discuss the connection between relationships and use of personal space.
Answer: We tend to allow people we know well or have an intimate relationship with to stand closer to us, but expect that strangers or people we know less well will stand farther away; followers tend to give more space to leaders; we might move closer to someone if we want to make the relationship more intimate, or even just begin a conversation; we tend to use objects to indicate when we need more personal space.
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Q1) The most likely outcome of critical listening is:
A) Enjoyment or appreciation
B) Comprehension of information
C) Deciding whether or not a message is valuable and useful
D) Enabling someone to talk about a problem or concern
Q2) Define one context in which listening is important in your life, and explain why it is important.
Q3) Being told by your friends that you need to attend a big party or risk being thought of as a 'loser' is typical of:
A) Red herring
B) False alternatives
C) Composition and division
D) Post hoc ergo propter hoc
Q4) Listening is the most frequently used communication skill in secondary and college education.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify the steps in the listening process.
Q6) Identify the difference between hearing and listening.
Q7) Give a definition of critical listening.
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Q1) In discussing early family influences on identity, it is important to realize:
A) These early interactions do not shape your view of yourself
B) These early interactions do shape your view of yourself
C) These early interactions destroy your view of yourself
D) These early interactions completely determine your view of yourself
Q2) Explain the concept of identity as the 'symbolic self.'
Q3) We do not indulge all of our personal impulses in performing our self because:
A) Society fails to make judgments about our actions
B) Society rarely makes judgements about our actions
C) Society judges our actions
D) Society ignores our actions
Q4) Self-disclosure is most likely to reveal information that is:
A) Private and confidential
B) Private and controversial
C) Public and controversial
D) Public and not sensitive
Q5) Identity is exclusively self-determined.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the relationship between culture and identity formation.
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Q1) Explain Duck's claim that relationship development is created by the interpretation of information-sharing, not just the act of information-sharing.
Q2) Robert Weiss (1974) identified six specific areas where relationships provide us with something special, needed, or valued. Identify these six provisions of relationships.
Q3) If you begin preparing for new relationships after a breakup is over, defining what you do and don't want in the future, Duck suggests you are in this phase:
A) Dyadic
B) Social process
C) Grave-dressing
D) Resurrection
Q4) If you begin complaining to your partner, start talking about problems, goals, and commitment in the relationship with him/her, Duck suggests you are in this phase:
A) Intrapsychic
B) Dyadic
C) Social process
D) Grave-dressing
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Q1) A creative group is distinguished from other types of groups because it:
A) Focuses on advising, comforting, raising consciousness on issues
B) Evaluates or creates new concepts or products
C) Produces a best solution for a problem
D) Builds or sustains relationships
Q2) Going along with the group even if you disagree is termed as:
A) cohesiveness
B) conformity
C) a group history
D) a group future
Q3) Explain the concept of group cohesiveness.
Q4) Power in groups is:
A) Always held by the designated leader
B) Sometimes based on communication competence
C) Based only on roles
D) Decided by majority rule.
Q5) Both the ideas people hold and the relationships they form are important in understanding small groups.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which style of conflict management involves giving up one's position to satisfy another's?
A) dominating
B) integrating
C) compromising
D) obliging
Q2) Collectivist cultures are generally known to:
A) Emphasize the individual person
B) Emphasize individual goals and achievements
C) Emphasize the right to personal choice
D) Emphasize acting for the common good
Q3) Co-cultural groups and 'social communities' often exist within the framework of a larger culture.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Monochronic views of time are more often found in:
A) No-context societies
B) Mid-context societies
C) High-context societies
D) Low-context societies
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Q1) Online communication is more likely to result in misunderstanding than face-to-face (FTF) interaction because:
A) Online communication has more nonverbal cues than FTF interaction
B) Online communication has fewer nonverbal cues than FTF interaction
C) Online communication has the same number of nonverbal cues as does FTF interaction
D) Neither online nor FTF communication has nonverbal cues
Q2) Fears about the impact of technology on communication are unique to today's generation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you believe that spending time using the Internet makes you more productive as a person, you would view this relational technology as a:
A) Time replacer
B) Time monitor
C) Time displacer
D) Time enhancer
Q4) Discuss the explanation that 'diffusion of innovations' theory gives for why people adopt technologies at different times.
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Q1) Summarize the basic idea behind 'uses and gratifications' theory.
Q2) Media producers are becoming more likely to focus their products on smaller, specific audiences rather than mass audiences.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The concept of selective exposure explains:
A) People usually seek out media that oppose their own existing beliefs, values, and attitudes
B) People are indifferent to media that oppose their own existing beliefs, values, and attitudes
C) People are not aware of media that support their own existing beliefs, values, and attitudes
D) People usually seek out media that support their own existing beliefs, values, and attitudes
Q4) The majority of people overestimate the actual amount of time they spend using the media.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the basic idea of the concept of 'selective exposure.'
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Q1) Distinguish between attitudes, beliefs, and values.
Q2) Prior relationships between a speaker and audience can affect a presentation because:
A) The audience will have no expectations of the speaker
B) The audience will have expectations of the speaker
C) The audience will be less receptive to the speaker
D) The audience will be neutral towards the speaker
Q3) Doing an individual inventory is helpful for a speaker because it:
A) Prevents the speaker from talking about what he/she knows well
B) Prevents the speaker from knowing what makes him/her unique
C) Prevents the speaker from overlooking what makes him/her unique
D) Prevents the speaker from preparing the presentation
Q4) Which of the following would not be an appropriate goal for a speaker giving an evocative presentation:
A) Make the audience happy
B) Inspire the audience
C) Give the audience technical information
D) Commemorate an important event
Q5) Explain the difference between the general and the specific purpose of a presentation.
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Q1) Using humor in a presentation, whether in the introduction, body, or conclusion, requires:
A) Standup talent
B) Appropriateness
C) Excellent timing
D) A younger audience
Q2) The organizing principles discussed in this chapter are:
A) Points, product, personality, people
B) Points, unity, coherence, signposting
C) Points, unity, balance, guidance
D) Points, main points, subpoints, thesis
Q3) Identify six components of conclusions.
Q4) When a causal pattern is used to organize the body of a speech, the main points are arranged according to cause and effect.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The introduction and conclusion should make up 50% of a speaker's presentation time.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Compare and contrast syllogisms and enthymemes.
Q2) Which of the following would be indicative of inductive reasoning:
A) Moving from the specific to the specific
B) Moving from the specific to the general
C) Moving from the general to the general
D) Moving from the general to the specific
Q3) When seeking to change an audience's way of thinking, a speaker must:
A) Point out that he/she has the audience's best interests in mind
B) Point out that he/she will benefit from the audience's change of perspective
C) Point out that he/she has more knowledge than the audience
D) Point out that he/she has less knowledge than the audience
Q4) The purpose of a persuasive presentation is to avoid having an impact on the attitudes, belief, or behavior of the audience.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In applying social judgment theory to a persuasive presentation, a speaker must:
A) Be extremely vague about his/her goals
B) Be extremely vague about his/her position
C) Be very specific about his/her goals and position
D) Be very specific about the audience
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Q1) Discuss vocalics.
Q2) You should maintain eye contact during your speech and focus primarily on your professor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sincere, appropriate enthusiasm helps to build credibility with an audience.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If practiced correctly, the most natural and appealing form of delivery is:
A) Manuscript
B) Memorized
C) Extemporaneous
D) Deliberative
Q5) Communication apprehension can be diminished if a speaker is able to:
A) Get to know the audience
B) Pick a topic that is not that important
C) Give a speech with very little preparation
D) Memorize the entire presentation word-for-word
Q6) Discuss why personal appearance is so important in giving a successful presentation.
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Q1) According to the book, in response to illegal questions asked during an employment interview you could respond appropriately with any of the following except:
A) Claiming discrimination
B) A tactful refusal to answer
C) A direct but brief answer
D) A tactful inquiry as to why that information matters
Q2) Following an interview, an interviewee should do all of the following except:
A) develop a candid assessment of his or her performance
B) contact the interviewer to check the status of the job search
C) develop a candid assessment of the position and organization
D) send a letter of thanks, usually within two days
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the question pattern sequences found in interviews?
A) Funnel sequence
B) Inverted Funnel sequence
C) Tunnel sequence
D) Tangent sequence
Q4) The purpose of the _________________ is to present credentials in a clear and concise manner.
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