Radiologic Technology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Radiologic Technology is a course designed to provide students with a comprehensive understanding of the principles and practices involved in medical imaging. The curriculum covers topics such as the physics of radiation, radiographic anatomy, patient care, equipment operation, safety procedures, image analysis, and quality assurance. Students will learn how to produce and evaluate diagnostic images using X-ray, CT, MRI, and other imaging modalities, while adhering to standards for radiation protection and ethics in clinical settings. Emphasis is placed on developing both technical competence and patient communication skills, preparing graduates to work effectively as radiologic technologists in diverse healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook merrills atlas of radiographic positioning and procedures 13th edition 3 volume set by bruce long
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Chapter 1: Preliminary Steps in Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) A decrease in technical factors may be required for a patient who has:
A) edema.
B) emphysema.
C) atelectasis.
D) advanced carcinoma.
Answer: B
Q2) Involuntary motion can be caused by which of the following?
1)Peristalsis
2)Spasm
3)Breathing
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Compensating Filters
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which projection would two double-wedge filters be used?
A) AP shoulder
B) Lateral hip
C) AP spine for scoliosis
D) Lateral spine for scoliosis
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following would be considered advantages in using anatomic compensating filters?
1)Reduces radiation exposure to the patient
2)Provides an even image density
3)Increases image contrast and detail
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning
Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what percentage of the population has a sthenic body habitus?
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 35%
D) 50%
Answer: A
Q2) Some synovial joints contain synovial fluid-filled sacs outside the main joint cavity called:
A) bursae.
B) menisci.
C) ligaments.
D) fibrous capsules.
Answer: A
Q3) Long bones have a central cylindrical cavity called the:
A) meniscus.
B) periosteum.
C) medullary cavity.
D) spongy tissue.
Answer: C
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following devices is necessary to demonstrate the IP joints with a PA oblique projection of the hand?
A) Finger holder strap
B) 20-degree-angle block
C) 45-degree foam block
D) 45-degree foam wedge
Q2) The carpal bones articulate with the: 1)radius. 2)ulna.
3)phalanges.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The central-ray angulation for the PA axial projection of the wrist (Stecher method) is _____ degrees.
A) 0
B) 5
C) 8
D) 10
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Chapter 5: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The central-ray angulation for a lateral scapula is:
A) 0 degrees.
B) 5 degrees caudad.
C) 10 degrees cephalad.
D) 5 to 10 degrees cephalad.
Q2) For an AP projection of the shoulder, the central ray should enter _____ inch(es) inferior to the _____.
A) 1; coracoid process
B) 1; acromion
C) 2; coracoid process
D) 2; acromion
Q3) For an AP projection of the shoulder with the arm in a neutral position, the epicondyles of the humerus should be _____ with the plane of the IR.
A) parallel
B) perpendicular
C) 45 degrees
D) 60 degrees
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Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) How far should the patient be rolled posteriorly from the lateral position, for a lateral projection of the hip that will include the proximal femur?
A) 5 degrees
B) 10 degrees
C) 15 degrees
D) 10 to 15 degrees
Q2) On the anterior surface of the tibia is a prominent process called the: A) body.
B) anterior border.
C) tibial tuberosity.
D) intercondylar eminence.
Q3) The second largest tarsal bone, and the one that occupies the highest position in the foot, is the:
A) talus.
B) navicular.
C) calcaneus.
D) medial cuneiform.
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Chapter 7: Pelvis and Upper Femora
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many degrees is the lower limb and foot rotated internally for an AP hip?
A) 5 degrees
B) 12 degrees
C) 15 to 20 degrees
D) 30 degrees
Q2) The hip bone is composed of which of the following?
1)Ilium
2)Pubis
3)Ischium
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The internal oblique position of the AP oblique projection (Judet method) demonstrates the _____ column and _____ rim of acetabulum.
A) iliopubic; posterior
B) iliopubic; anterior
C) ilioischial; posterior
D) ilioischial; anterior
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Vertebral Column
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does the central ray exit for the AP axial oblique projection to demonstrate the cervical spine pillars and laminae?
A) C4
B) C5
C) C7
D) T2
Q2) When viewed from the side, the vertebral column should present how many curves?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q3) The swimmer's technique demonstrates the cervicothoracic region in which projection?
A) AP
B) Lateral
C) AP axial
D) AP axial oblique
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Chapter 9: Bony Thorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where should the patient's hands be positioned for an upright lateral sternum?
A) Locked behind the back
B) Straight down at the side
C) Locked above the head
D) Back of the hands against the thighs
Q2) The 12 costovertebral joints of the ribs are:
A) synovial-pivot.
B) synovial-gliding.
C) cartilaginous-symphysis.
D) cartilaginous-synchondroses.
Q3) The easily palpable superior border of the manubrium is called the:
A) body.
B) xiphoid.
C) sternal angle.
D) jugular notch.
Q4) The 10 costochondral joints of the ribs are:
A) synovial-pivot.
B) synovial-gliding.
C) cartilaginous-symphysis.
D) cartilaginous-synchondroses.
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Chapter 10: Thoracic Viscera
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thoracic cavity contains which of the following?
1)Heart
2)Thymus gland
3)Inferior esophagus
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) What is the name of the tongue-shaped process on the anterior-medial border of the left lung?
A) Apex
B) Base
C) Hilum
D) Lingula
Q3) Where should the top of the IR be positioned for a supine AP chest radiograph?
A) At the level of the shoulders
B) At the level of the clavicles
C) 1 inch above the relaxed shoulders
D) 1 \(1 / 2\) to 2 inches above the relaxed shoulders
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Long Bone Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which anatomic landmark is used to localize the knee joint for lower limb long bone measurement?
A) 1 inch inferior to the tibial tuberosity
B) 1 inch superior to the tibial tuberosity
C) Just below the patellar apex
D) Just above the patellar apex
Q2) Which long bone measurement technique requires three separate image receptors?
A) Scanogram
B) Orthoroentgenography
C) Teleoroentgenography
D) Direct digital radiography
Q3) Which landmark is used to localize the shoulder joint for upper limb long bone measurement?
A) Superior margin of the humeral head
B) Medial margin of the glenoid fossa
C) 1 inch inferior to the coracoid process
D) 2 inches inferior and medial to the superolateral border of the shoulder
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13
Chapter 12: Contrast Arthrography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contrast media may be injected into a joint space for radiography of the menisci, cartilage, bursae, etc.?
1)Air
2)Barium
3)Iodine contrast medium
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following imaging modalities has not reduced the use of contrast arthrography?
A) Ultrasound
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
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14
Chapter 13: Trauma Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which imaging modality has replaced conventional trauma skull radiography in most Level I trauma centers?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Nuclear medicine
D) Angiography
Q2) The trauma radiographer must ensure other team members are protected from unnecessary radiation. Which of the following practices will accomplish this?
1)Lead aprons for all personnel who remain in the room during exposures
2)Short exposure times
3)Announcement of impending exposure to allow nonessential personnel to exit the room
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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15
Chapter 14: Mouth and Salivary Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does the submandibular duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the salivary glands?
A) Tonsil
B) Parotid
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular
Q3) How many pairs of salivary glands are in the mouth?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q4) Radiographic examination of the salivary glands using contrast medium is called:
A) parotitis.
B) angiography.
C) sialography.
D) sialostenosis.
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Chapter 15: Anterior Part of Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organ of voice is the:
A) uvula.
B) epiglottis.
C) pharynx.
D) larynx.
Q2) Which is the most common imaging modality for examination of the soft palate, pharynx, and larynx?
A) Computed radiography
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
Q3) Which of the following lies in the anterior neck?
1)Thyroid gland
2)Parathyroid glands
3)Thymus gland
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 16: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the center of the IR positioned for an AP abdominal image performed with the patient in the upright position?
A) L3
B) Lower rib margin
C) Iliac crests
D) 2 inches above the iliac crests
Q2) Which of the following organs lie in the pelvic cavity?
1)Kidneys
2)Rectum
3)Urinary bladder
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) If a patient is unable to stand for an upright AP abdominal image, which position should be used?
A) Ventral decubitus
B) Dorsal decubitus
C) Left lateral decubitus
D) Tight lateral decubitus
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Chapter 17: Digestive System: Alimentary Canal
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding inflation of the retention balloon for a barium enema?
1)It should be inflated by the radiographer using fluoroscopy.
2)It should be inflated by the radiologist using fluoroscopy.
3)It should be inflated by the radiologist without using fluoroscopy.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) The PA oblique projection of the colon done in the LAO position clearly demonstrates the:
A) ascending colon.
B) descending colon.
C) R colic flexure.
D) transverse colon.
Q3) Which projection of the colon best demonstrates the ascending colon?
A) PA oblique, RAO
B) PA oblique, LAO
C) PA axial
D) AP axial
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Chapter 18: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the essential projection used for a cystourethrogram on a male patient?
A) AP
B) AP oblique
C) PA oblique
D) Lateral
Q2) What type of motion is used to cleanse the skin before venipuncture?
A) Circular
B) Upward
C) Downward
D) "Up-down"
Q3) Where is the IR centered for all abdominal images taken during examinations of the urinary system?
A) L3
B) Iliac crests
C) 2 inches above the iliac crests
D) 2 inches below the iliac crests
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiographic examinations of the male reproductive structures are rarely performed as a result of advances in:
A) computed tomography.
B) nuclear medicine.
C) sonography.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.
Q2) Parts of the male reproductive system include the: 1)testes.
2)seminal vesicle.
3)bulbourethral glands.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) What is the most common type of testicular tumor?
A) Cryptorchidism
B) Prostate cancer
C) Seminoma
D) Dermoid
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is located in the internal ear?
A) Concha
B) Auditory tube
C) Tympanic membrane
D) Semicircular canals
Q2) Which of the following is placed perpendicular to the front edge of the IR for a lateral projection of the facial bones?
A) Mentomeatal line
B) Acanthiomeatal line
C) Orbitomeatal line
D) Infraorbitomeatal line
Q3) Which reference line is positioned horizontal to ensure proper extension of the head during a lateral projection of the sinuses?
A) AML
B) OML
C) IOML
D) MML
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22
Chapter 21: Mammography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the essential lateral projection of the breast?
A) 90 degrees lateromedial
B) 90 degrees mediolateral
C) 75 to 90 degrees lateromedial
D) 75 to 90 degrees mediolateral
Q2) Which projection is used when the lateral portion of the breast is not well seen on the standard CC projection?
A) Lateromedial (LM)
B) Lateromedial oblique (LMO)
C) Mediolateral oblique (MLO)
D) Exaggerated craniocaudal (XCCL)
Q3) What is the recommended frequency of mammography for women over age 40?
A) Every 6 months
B) Once a year
C) Every 1 to 2 years
D) Every 3 years
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23
Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many fluid-containing cavities make up the ventricular system of the brain?
A) Two
B) Four
C) Six
D) Eight
Q2) Which modality involves the placement of various coils, medications, filters, stents, or other devices to treat a particular problem or provide therapy?
A) Vascular radiology
B) Interventional radiology
C) Radiation therapy
D) Angiography
Q3) Which of the following projections are performed during myelography?
1)PA
2)PA obliques
3)Lateral (decubitus)
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The central organ of the blood-vascular system is the:
A) brain.
B) lung.
C) heart.
D) aorta.
Q2) The computerized technique by which bone structures are removed from an image of bone and opacified vessels, leaving an unobscured image of the vessels, is termed:
A) digital subtraction angiography.
B) magnetic resonance imaging.
C) percutaneous transluminal angioplasty.
D) computed radiography (CR).
Q3) A stent is used to:
A) open up a stenosis in a vessel.
B) reduce or stop blood flow.
C) remove plaque within artery walls.
D) filter emboli from the blood.
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Chapter 24: Pediatric Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Idiopathic scoliosis is most common in:
A) male infants.
B) adolescent females.
C) male toddlers.
D) utero, between 3 to 6 weeks' gestation.
Q2) Respecting the need for privacy is an important patient care consideration for:
A) toddlers.
B) preschoolers.
C) school-agers.
D) adolescents.
Q3) Which of the following can protect children from unnecessary radiation exposure?
1)Appropriate use of filters
2)Precise collimation
3)Gonad shielding always
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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26
Chapter 25: Geriatric Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) When imaging the upper or lower limbs on geriatric patients, keep in mind that:
A) many projections can be combined to decrease time and discomfort.
B) mobility and flexibility is often decreased.
C) long bones shrink as age increases.
D) scatter radiation is greater in those with osteoporosis.
Q2) Elder abuse occurs in many forms, such as sexual, emotional, exploitive, or physical.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following musculoskeletal conditions increases in incidence as age increases?
1)Osteoporosis
2)Degenerative joint disease
3)Osgood-Schlatter's disease
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 26: Mobile Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) During mobile radiography, the radiographer ideally should be standing at what degree of angle from the primary beam?
A) 0 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 90 degrees
D) 45 to 90 degrees
Q2) The single most effective means of radiation protection during mobile radiography is:
A) distance.
B) exposure time.
C) choice of kVp.
D) use of a nongrid technique.
Q3) Which position is recommended for a mobile AP chest examination on a critically ill patient?
A) Seated upright at a 90-degree angle
B) Seated upright at a 45-degree angle
C) Supine
D) Left lateral decubitus
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28
Chapter 27: Surgical Radiography
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Q1) Who would be included as nonsterile team members?
1)Anesthesia provider
2)Physician assistant
3)Radiographer
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following surgical procedures require the C-arm to be positioned between the patient's legs?
A) Tibia nailing
B) Operative cholangiography
C) Hip pinning
D) Antegrade femoral nailing
Q3) What should be done if the sterile field is compromised?
A) Determine if the area is important.
B) Don't tell anyone.
C) Call your manager.
D) Tell OR staff immediately.
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Chapter 29: Computed Tomography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fourth-generation CT scanners use the following configuration:
A) translate tube and rotating detectors.
B) rotating tube and detectors.
C) only rotating detectors.
D) only rotating tube.
Q2) Dose in CT is considered to be:
A) independent of size.
B) size dependent.
C) related to the CT numbers.
D) similar to a chest examination.
Q3) The advantages of multislice helical CT (MSHCT) include:
1)multiphase studies.
2)isotropic viewing.
3)longer anatomic coverage.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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30
Chapter 30: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are a variety of magnet types that can be used for MRI. Resistive and superconductive magnets are both:
A) permanent magnets.
B) weak magnets.
C) electromagnets.
D) used at up to 3 tesla.
Q2) Spin-spin relaxation (T2) is the release of energy by excited nuclei:
A) as a result of interaction among themselves.
B) to their general environment.
C) according to their precessional frequency.
D) in relation to their resonant frequency.
Q3) The wobbling motion of the proton when it is placed in a strong magnetic field is called:
A) frequency.
B) precession.
C) resonance.
D) a signal.
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Ultrasound
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Q1) A full bladder is used for imaging the female pelvis as a sonic window and to also:
A) flatten the vagina.
B) reposition the intestines laterally.
C) distend the uterus.
D) flatten the ovaries.
Q2) The frequency for diagnostic ultrasound is in the range of:
A) 2 to 320 Hz.
B) 20 to 20,000 Hz.
C) 100,000 Hz to 1 MHz.
D) 1 to 10 MHz.
Q3) If an echo pattern is similar throughout a structure or mass it is termed:
A) heterogeneous.
B) homogeneous.
C) complex.
D) anechoic.
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32
Chapter 32: Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) One desirable characteristic of a radiopharmaceutical is:
A) long physical half-life in days.
B) millisecond effective half-life.
C) easily absorbed in surrounding tissues.
D) primary photon energy between 100 and 140 keV.
Q2) Collimators are used in nuclear medicine to:
A) cone down the beam.
B) limit patient dose from the radiation.
C) maintain signal strength.
D) keep scattered rays from entering the camera.
Q3) The most common radionuclide used in nuclear medicine is:
A) technetium (99mTc).
B) iodine (123I).
C) thallium (201Tl).
D) xenon (133Xe).
Q4) PET scanning is an examination that can visualize a patient's:
A) physiology.
B) anatomy.
C) soft tissue.
D) bone detail.
Page 33
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Chapter 33: Bone Densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Risk factors for falling and causing fractures are:
1)antidepressants.
2)impaired muscle strength.
3)environmental hazards.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) The measurement of bone density uses two different beam energies, allowing the separation of soft tissue and bone due to:
A) filtration differences in the beam.
B) mass attenuation coefficient differences.
C) BMD population calculations.
D) the two-dimensional area.
Q3) Accuracy in bone densitometry relates to the ability of the system to:
A) measure the true value of an object.
B) reproduce the same results in repeat measurements of the same object.
C) reflect the bone measurement by the scanner software.
D) measure the variability of the spread of data values around the mean.
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Page 34
Chapter 34: Radiation Oncology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24128
Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of cancers arise from the epithelium and are classified as:
A) sarcomas.
B) lymphomas.
C) myelomas.
D) carcinomas.
Q2) Radiation oncology may be used in conjunction with: 1)surgery.
2)chemotherapy.
3)angiography.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Cancer can spread or metastasize by invading: A) adjacent tissue.
B) normal tissue.
C) blood vessels.
D) anywhere close.
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