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Radiographic Imaging Midterm Exam - 345 Verified Questions

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Radiographic Imaging

Midterm Exam

Course Introduction

Radiographic Imaging is an essential course that introduces students to the fundamental principles and techniques of producing diagnostic images using X-ray technology. The course covers the physics of radiation, equipment operation, patient positioning, image acquisition, and exposure factors that influence image quality. Emphasis is placed on understanding radiographic procedures for various anatomical regions, ensuring radiation safety, and adhering to protocols that protect both patients and health care personnel. Students will develop the skills necessary to critically analyze radiographic images for diagnostic accuracy and will gain knowledge of quality control measures, digital imaging systems, and regulatory standards pertinent to radiography practice.

Recommended Textbook

Radiographic Imaging and Exposure 3rd Edition by Terri L. Fauber

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345 Verified Questions

345 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Radiation and Its Discovery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a correct description of the relationship between the wavelength and the frequency of the x-ray photon?

A) Wavelength and frequency are directly proportional.

B) Wavelength and frequency are inversely related by the square root of lambda.

C) Frequency and wavelength are inversely related.

D) Wavelength and frequency have no relationship to each other.

Answer: C

Q2) X-ray photons are capable of traveling around corners.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) X-ray photons travel at the speed of light in a vacuum.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) Chemical changes may occur as a result of exposure to ionizing radiation.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: The X-Ray Beam

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Sample Questions

Q1) The amount the voltage varies during an x-ray exposure is known as:

A) kVp.

B) voltage ripple.

C) mA.

D) tube current.

Answer: B

Q2) The amount of filtration required to reduce the exposure of the beam to half of its original intensity is defined as:

A) wedge filtration.

B) HVL.

C) mAs compensator.

D) mA linearity.

Answer: B

Q3) _____ is the boiling off of electrons from the filament when current is applied.

A) Saturation emission

B) Thermionic emission

C) Filament transport

D) Proton emission

Answer: B

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Radiographic Image Formation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Unwanted density on the radiograph due to scatter radiation is called:

A) latent.

B) manifest.

C) fog.

D) backscatter.

Answer: C

Q2) Compton interactions are more likely to occur in soft tissue as compared to bone.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) When the entering x-ray photon loses energy and changes its path of travel as a result of interacting with an atom, the interaction is known as the:

A) compensating effect.

B) photoelectric interaction.

C) characteristic effect.

D) Compton effect.

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Radiographic Image Quality: Photographic Properties

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Sample Questions

Q1) Assuming all produce appropriate density images, which of the following would be the best exposure technique choice when performing a chest radiograph on an infant?

A) Use 40 ms exposure time.

B) Use 60 ms exposure time.

C) Use 200 ms exposure time.

D) Use at least 80 kVp.

Q2) If mAs were fixed, which kVp would produce the greatest density?

A) 70 kVp

B) 80 kVp

C) 90 kVp

D) 100 kVp

Q3) Generally speaking, what is the kVp value for a pediatric (less than 6 years old) skull compared with the adult skull?

A) 5% less

B) 15% less

C) 50% less

D) 50% more

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Radiographic Image Quality: Geometric Properties

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the geometric factors and those that determine the amount of image distortion are equally important for digital and film-screen imaging.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What effect will using a slower speed imaging system have on recorded detail?

A) Increased recorded detail

B) Decreased recorded detail

C) No effect on recorded detail

Q3) The most detrimental factor to maximum recorded detail is:

A) increased OID.

B) decreased SID.

C) large focal spot size.

D) motion.

Q4) What effect will using a higher grid ratio have on recorded detail?

A) Increased recorded detail

B) Decreased recorded detail

C) No effect on recorded detail

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Chapter 6: Scatter Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a grid is needed but not available, the _____ may be used for certain examinations.

A) tomographic technique

B) air-gap technique

C) Seldinger technique

D) reverse collimation technique

Q2) What occurs when scatter radiation strikes the film?

A) Radiographic contrast increases.

B) Radiographic contrast decreases.

C) Recorded detail decreases.

D) Visibility of recorded detail improves.

Q3) Also called lateral decentering, the _____ grid error results when the central ray is not aligned to the middle of a focused grid.

A) off-level

B) off-focus

C) off-center

D) upside-down focused

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8

Chapter 7: Image Receptors

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is used to assess screen-film contact?

A) Spinning top

B) Wire mesh test tool

C) Gauze compression device

D) Nine penny test

Q2) What is the term specifically used to describe the emission of light during and after external stimulation?

A) Luminescence

B) Phosphorescence

C) Fluorescence

D) Incandescence

Q3) The CR latent image consists of:

A) electrons trapped in the phosphor layer.

B) clumps of metallic silver in the emulsion.

C) light trapped in the phosphor layer.

D) computer data.

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9

Chapter 8: Radiographic Film Processing

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Sample Questions

Q1) If films begin to fade after being in storage for a long time, there might be a problem with which stage of the processing cycle?

A) Development

B) Fixation

C) Washing

D) Drying

Q2) In the developer solution, exposed silver halide crystals are reduced to _____ silver.

A) ionic

B) liquid

C) negative

D) metallic

Q3) One and one half minutes (90 seconds) is a typical processing cycle.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Silver recovery is the removal of silver from the:

A) developer solution.

B) wash.

C) fixer solution.

D) all of the above.

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Chapter 9: Sensitometry

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is measured by comparison of the amount of light transmitted through an area of film with the amount of light incident on that area?

A) Speed point

B) Gamma

C) Optical density

D) Logarithmic scale

Q2) The steeper the slope of the straight-line region of the sensitometric curve, the higher the contrast of the film.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is the range of diagnostic densities on the radiograph?

A) 0.5-1.5

B) 0.25-2.5

C) 0.5-2.0

D) 0.5-3.0

Q4) The lower the speed exposure point, the faster the film speed.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Exposure Factor Selection

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Sample Questions

Q1) Technique charts are still needed when using Automatic Exposure Control (AEC).

A)True

B)False

Q2) When using a fixed kVp/variable mAs technique chart, if part thickness increases by 5 cm, what needs to happen to the mAs?

A) It should be halved.

B) It should be doubled.

C) It should be quartered.

D) It should be tripled.

Q3) Radiographic contrast would be standardized with the:

A) variable kVp/fixed mAs technique chart design.

B) variable kVp/variable mAs technique chart design.

C) fixed kVp/variable mAs technique chart design.

D) fixed kVp/fixed mAs technique chart design.

Q4) Generally speaking, patient dose will be decreased with the:

A) variable kVp/fixed mAs technique chart design.

B) variable kVp/variable mAs technique chart design.

C) fixed kVp/variable mAs technique chart design.

D) fixed kVp/fixed mAs technique chart design.

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Chapter 11: Automatic Exposure Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) When using film-screen, what happens when an outside detector is selected for an AP thoracic spine?

A) The spine will have insufficient contrast.

B) The spine will be too dark.

C) The spine will have excessive contrast.

D) The spine will have insufficient density.

Q2) Why was automatic exposure control (AEC) originally developed?

A) To decrease the need for technique charts

B) To make the technologist more of a "button pusher"

C) To reduce repeats and improve image quality

D) To increase productivity and patient dose

Q3) AEC eliminates the need for the radiographer to select the actual _____ the examination will require.

A) kVp

B) SID

C) time

D) focal spot size

Q4) AEC can typically be used with table-top exams.

A)True

B)False

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Digital Imaging

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many lines would an ideal video monitor for digital radiography have?

A) 525

B) 1024

C) 1050

D) 2000

Q2) Which one of the following digital systems would have the best image quality?

A) 8 bit

B) 12 bit

C) 16 bit

D) 32 bit

Q3) The _____ provides a method of processing digital images in order to change the density and contrast displayed.

A) matrix

B) lookup table

C) histogram

D) charge-coupled device

Q4) The pixel bit depth determines the amount of shades of gray the system is capable of displaying on the digital image.

A)True

B)False

Page 14

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