Radiation Physics for Radiographers Final Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of radiation physics as it pertains to the field of radiography. Students will explore the nature and properties of ionizing and non-ionizing radiation, mechanisms of x-ray production, interactions of radiation with matter, and the principles underlying image formation in diagnostic radiography. Emphasis will be placed on radiation safety, dose measurement, and protection protocols designed to safeguard both patients and healthcare workers. The course also covers the operational principles of radiographic equipment and the physical factors influencing image quality, preparing radiography students to apply physics concepts effectively in clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook Principles of Radiographic Imaging 5th Edition by Richard R. Carlton
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Chapter 1: Basic Mathematics
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Q1) P = 2L + 2W; solve for L.
Answer: (P - 2W)/2
Q2) P<sub>1</sub>V<sub>1</sub>/T<sub>1</sub> = P<sub>2</sub>V<sub>2</sub>/T<sub>2</sub>; solve for V<sub>2</sub>.
Answer: P<sub>2</sub>V<sub>2</sub>T<sub>1</sub>/P<sub>1</sub>V<sub>1</sub>
Q3) Change 23.46 to a percent.
A)0.2346 %
B)23.46 %
C)2,346 %
D) (2,346 %)
Answer: D
Q4) The equation (x+y) <sup>2</sup> can be expressed as:
A)x<sup>2</sup> + 2xy + y<sup>2</sup>
B)2x + 2y
C)x + 2xy + y<sup>2</sup>
D)x<sup>2</sup> + y<sup>2</sup> + xy
Answer: A
Q5) I = E/R + r; solve for r.
Answer: E - IR/I
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Chapter 2: Radiation Concepts
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Q1) An atom has an atomic number of 18 and a mass number of 38.Letting P = the number of protons and N = the number of neutrons, which of the following atoms is the isotope of this atom?
A)P = 18, N = 20
B)P = 18, N = 21
C)P = 20, N = 18
D)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) an "L" to "K" transition would yield 31.45 keV of energy
A)tungsten
B)valence
C)molybdenum
D)iodine
E)barium
F)lead
G)families (groups)
H)periods
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrical components possess a negative and a positive side.This polarity permits the application of
A)resistance across the poles to inhibit electron flow.
B)an electromotive force (emf) to enable current flow.
C)a spark gap to check amperage.
D)all of the above
Answer: B
Q2) 6.24 x 10<sup>18</sup> electrons /sec
A)semiconductor
B)conductor
C)insulator
D)ampere
E)volt
F)Ohm's law
G)series circuit
H)parallel circuit
Answer: D
Q3) What is the total resistance of a circuit with two resistances of 3 and 5 ohms in series and two resistances of 4 ohms each in parallel?
Answer: 10 ohms
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Chapter 4: Electromagnetism
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Q1) A generator is a device that converts
A)electrical energy to thermal energy.
B)thermal energy to electrical energy.
C)mechanical energy to electrical energy.
D)electrical energy to mechanical energy.
Q2) A magnetic field is produced by
A)electric charges at rest.
B)electric charges in motion.
C)permanent magnets only.
D)electric charges both at rest and in motion.
Q3) An electrical device that is designed to store charge momentarily after charging is a/an
A)battery.
B)capacitor.
C)thyristor.
D)dielectric.
Q4) List the three ways to induce an electromagnetic field.
Q5) The design of an x-ray tube requires that electron flow through it is in a single direction or phase.If alternating current were supplied to the x-ray tube at high voltage, what would be the result?
6
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Chapter 5: X-Ray Equipment
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Q1) used by orthodontists to assess the alignment of teeth and jaw disorders
A)overhead tube suspension system
B)C-arm tube suspension
C)panoramic dental and facial system
D)footboard
E)floor-to-ceiling suspension system
F)shoulder supports
G)upright Bucky unit
H)simulator systems
Q2) The mA control is found between the
A)incoming line and the exposure switch.
B)autotransformer and the timer circuit.
C)exposure switch and the step-up transformer.
D)incoming line and the step-down transformer.
Q3) Radiographic rooms equipped with a tilting table are primarily designed for performing ____ procedures.
A)extremity
B)surgical x-ray
C)fluoroscopic
D)C-arm
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Chapter 6: The X-Ray Tube
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Q1) All of the following are related except one.Select the one that is NOT RELATED.
A)a source of electrons
B)a vacuum
C)thermionic emission
D)a large potential difference
Q2) Insulation of the high-voltage components of the tube and absorption of the heat produced by x-ray production is achieved through the use of
A)a small fan.
B)a vacuum.
C)a stator.
D)dielectric oil.
Q3) As the actual focal spot size increases, the effective focal spot size
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains the same.
D)cannot be determined.
Q4) Why is a vacuum created in the x-ray tube?
Q5) How many heat units are generated by an exposure of 70 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.1 second on a 3\(\phi\) rectified unit?
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Chapter 7: X-Ray Production
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Q1) emission of infrared energy
A)9.6 keV
B)20 keV
C)binding energy
D)kinetic energy
E)thermal energy
F)electromagnetic energy
G)bremsstrahlung radiation
H)characteristic interactions
Q2) The transfer of the incident electrons' kinetic energy to the outer-shell electrons causing vibration of the outer-shell electron results in the emission of
A)infrared radiation.
B)ultraviolet radiation.
C)light.
D)sound.
Q3) At the end of the characteristic cascade, the ____ shell is missing an electron.
A)innermost
B)K
C)outermost
D)characteristic
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Chapter 8: Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment
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Q1) cleft palate in offspring
A)Gray (Gy)
B)Sievert (Sv)
C)Roentgen (R)
D)somatic damage
E)genetic damage
F)Curie (Ci)
G)Equivalent Dose (HT)
H)Effective Dose
Q2) The indirect interaction of matter with photon energy involves the absorption of radiation within a
A)water molecule.
B)glucose molecule.
C)complex protein.
D)macromolecule such as DNA.
Q3) Which instrument detects the presence of radiation rather than measuring it?
A)Geiger-Mueller counter
B)scintillation detector
C)ionization chamber instrument
D)thermoluminescent dosimeter
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Chapter 9: Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel
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Q1) Protective aprons and gloves are usually made of lead-impregnated vinyl within the range of ____ lead equivalency.
A)0.25-1.0 mm
B)0.25-1.0 cm
C)0.1-0.25 mm
D)0.1-0.25 cm
Q2) Which one of the following agencies is a regulatory agency responsible for protecting both the public and occupationally exposed individuals from the effects of ionizing radiation?
A)NCRP
B)ICRP
C)NRC
D)IRS
Q3) By design, primary barriers are able to intercept and absorb
A)primary radiation.
B)secondary radiation.
C)the useful beam.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 10: Filtration
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Q1) Which of the following filtrations would result in the lowest entrance skin exposure to the patient?
A)1.0 Al/Eq
B)1.0 Pb/Eq
C)0.5 Al/Eq
D)0.5 Pb/Eq
Q2) The problem of unequal subject radiographic density is solved by a A)Thoraeus filter.
B)compensation filter.
C)K-edge filter.
D)grid.
Q3) The half-value layer is typically expressed in A)Kerma.
B)Gray (Gy).
C)Al/Eq.
D)Pb/Eq.
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Chapter 11: The Prime Factors
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Q1) Adjustments in kVp should be used to control radiographic A)density.
B)detail.
C)contrast.
D)distance.
Q2) X-ray beam penetrability is primarily controlled by A)mAs.
B)focal spot size and dimension.
C)kVp.
D)filtration.
Q3) The relationship between mAs and exposure is A)exponential.
B)directly proportional.
C)indirectly proportional.
D)a squared relationship.
Q4) Given 40 mA and an exposure time of 0.20 second, calculate the mAs.
Q5) A radiographer takes an initial radiograph using the technical factors of 50 mA at 0.46 sec.There is involuntary motion on the radiograph, but the radiographer wants to maintain radiographic film density.If the exposure time is reduced to 0.115 sec, what is the new mA?
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Chapter 12: X-Ray Interactions
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Q1) yield photons with each transition
A)60 kVp
B)shaped contact
C)focal spot size
D)distance (SID)
E)44-48 inches
F)AP supine abdomen position
G)oblique projection of the abdomen
H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp
Q2) During photoelectric absorption, a/an ____ shell electron is ejected.
A)inner-
B)middle-
C)outer-
D)all of the above
Q3) If a photon interacts with matter and scatters, the photon
A)no longer exists.
B)exists with greater energy.
C)exists with less energy.
D)is totally absorbed.
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Chapter 13: Minimizing Patient Dose
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Q1) The conscientious radiographer can reduce the patient dose by at least ____ in most examinations by choosing appropriate exposure factors.
A)100 percent
B)75 percent
C)50 percent
D)25 percent
Q2) 45 mR ESE
A)60 kVp
B)shaped contact
C)focal spot size
D)distance (SID)
E)44-48 inches
F)AP supine abdomen position
G)oblique projection of the abdomen
H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp
Q3) The maximum exposure received by the patient is at
A)the skin exit to the body.
B)the area of interest.
C)the gonads.
D)the skin entrance to the body.
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Chapter 14: Vision and Perception
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Q1) Which effect occurs when the eye perceives a change in density?
A)Ellis effect
B)boundary effect
C)threshold detection
D)Mach effect
Q2) Photopic vision is controlled by the A)rods.
B)iris.
C)cones.
D)pupil.
Q3) occurs when intense, bright light floods the eye and reduces contrast perception A)rods
B)veil glare
C)retina
D)Mach effect
E)scotopic vision
F)cones
G)edge enhancement
H)Grenz rays
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Chapter 15: Beam Restriction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bone absorbs more radiation and produces more scatter than soft tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A diaphragm is placed 6 inches from the focal spot.The diameter of the opening in the aperture is a 3-inch circle.What would be the projected image size if the SID were 40 inches?
Q3) When a beam-restricting device is used to limit field size, technical factors may need to ____ to compensate for the change in image receptor exposure.
A)be increased
B)be decreased
C)remain unchanged
D)none of the above
Q4) PBLs may also filter the x-ray beam.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Automatic collimators are known as positive beam limitation (PBL) devices.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: The Patient As a Beam Emitter
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Q1) All of the following are true of Compton scatter EXCEPT:
A)It contributes no meaningful information the final image.
B)Its production increases as tissue density increases.
C)It is a significant contributor to occupational radiation exposure.
D)Most of the final image is the result of Compton scatter.
Q2) Subject contrast is high.
A)Compton scatter
B)photoelectric effect
C)12.31
D)air
E)fat
F)water
G)bone
H)chest
I)subject detail
J)subject density
Q3) Subject distortion occurs naturally.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Pathology Problem
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Q1) Which pathologic condition involves fibrotic changes in the liver parenchyma and is an additive condition?
A)cirrhosis
B)cholelithiasis
C)sclerosis
D)ascites
Q2) Which pathologic condition involves the filling of the interstitial lung tissues and is commonly associated with congestive heart failure?
A)cardiomegaly
B)pulmonary embolus
C)pulmonary edema
D)bronchiectasis
Q3) An increase of _______ will compensate for most additive pathological conditions.
A)5% in mAs
B)5-15% in kVp
C)50% in kVp
D)SID
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Chapter 18: The Grid
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Q1) A satisfactory abdominal radiograph is produced using a 12:1 grid (grid-conversion factor [GCF] = 5.5), 30 mAs, and 85 kVp.A second film is requested using a 16:1 grid (GCF = 6.75).What mAs is needed to produce the second radiograph with comparable radiographic density?
Q2) Which statement about radiographic grids is incorrect?
A)Grids may have grid strips running in perpendicular directions.
B)A grid is a series of lead strips that alternate with radiopaque interspace strips.
C)The radiopaque strips are typically made of thin lead.
D)The interspace strips are usually made of aluminum.
Q3) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using 10 mAs at 85 kVp without a grid.A second film is requested using a 16:1 grid with a conversion factor of 6.75.What mAs is needed to produce the second radiograph?
Q4) Angulation across the long axis of a linear grid causes
A)grid shadowing.
B)cross-hatched impressions.
C)grid cut-off.
D)grid convergence.
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Chapter 19: Radiographic Film
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Q1) The gelatin is used to
A)form the silver halide crystal lattice.
B)react with the silver halide crystals.
C)distribute the crystals evenly over the surface of the film.
D)form a rigid base for the emulsion.
Q2) processed image for interpretation
A)Gurney-Mott theory
B)sensitivity speck
C)film base
D)supercoat
E)latent image
F)panchromatic film
G)duplicating film
H)orthochromatic film
I)manifest image
J)30-60%
K)halation theory
L)68 95%
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21
Chapter 20: Film Processing
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Q1) Which automatic processor solution is most affected by contamination?
A)developer
B)fixer
C)wash
D)replenisher
Q2) uses a GBX filter
A)safelight
B)recirculation system
C)electrolytic
D)clearing time
E)fixer
F)crossover rack
G)solvent
H)replenishment
Q3) The primary chemical agents in the developer are called ____ agents.
A)reducing
B)clearing
C)circulation
D)replenishment
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Chapter 21: Film Sensitometry
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Q1) As crystal size increases, resolution A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)increases exponentially.
D)is unaffected
Q2) Each of the following choices are features of the typical D log E curve EXCEPT the A)toe.
B)arm.
C)shoulder.
D)gamma.
Q3) As the slope of the straight line increases, the radiographic contrast A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)is unaffected.
D)reverses.
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Chapter 22: Intensifying Screens and Film Screen
Combinations
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Q1) The rare-earth screens use phosphors with atomic numbers of A)3 to 11.
B)12 to 27.
C)57 to 71.
D)98 to 131.
Q2) What percentage of the latent image is formed by x-ray photons?
A)100 percent
B)99 percent
C)50 percent
D)1 percent
Q3) The speed of an imaging system depends upon the A)thickness of the phosphor or silver halide layer.
B)crystal/phosphor size.
C)conversion efficiency of the crystal/phosphor.
D)all of the above
Q4) To increase the speed of an intensifying screen,
A)increase phosphor size.
B)decrease the phosphor layer thickness.
C)decrease phosphor concentration.
D)remove the reflective layer.
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Chapter 23: Digital Radiography
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Q1) The response to radiation exposure with a digital receptor is A)non-linear.
B)logarithmic.
C)linear with a threshold.
D)linear.
Q2) All of the following are true of pixel pitch EXCEPT:
A)It is defined as the distance between pixels.
B)It is not related to spatial resolution.
C)It is determined by the size of the DEL in DR systems.
D)It is measured from the center-to-center of the pixels.
Q3) An eight-bit word is called a A)byte.
B)RAM.
C)bit.
D)ROM.
Q4) The window width controls
A)image density.
B)image contrast.
C)speed.
D)depth.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Picture Archiving and Communication Systems
Pacs
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Q1) How long do many institutions store film?
A)1 to 2 years
B)1 to 5 years
C)5 to 7 years
D)5 to 10 years
Q2) What is the anticipated image file size in kilobytes for a computed radiography digital image comprised of a 512 x 512 matrix with a 12-bit depth?
Q3) Laser printers have which of the following components?
A)laser source
B)collimator lens
C)beam modulator
D)all of the above
Q4) The service class and object class combine to form a
A)DICOM byte.
B)DICOM bit.
C)local area network (LAN).
D)SOP unit.
Q5) What is the anticipated file size for a single cardiac cath acquisition of 20 seconds at 15 fps with a digital matrix of 760 x 512 x10?
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Chapter 25: The Imaging Process
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Q1) high image quality
A)narrowing the search
B)pyramid problem
C)image processing
D)wide acceptance limits
E)image acquisition
F)acceptable limits
G)narrow acceptance limits
H)image analysis
Q2) Generally speaking, the primary cause of increased patient radiation dose is
A)extended fluoroscopy.
B)higher grid ratios than necessary.
C)inadequate beam restriction.
D)repeat images.
Q3) Image quality is primarily the domain of the
A)x-ray service engineer.
B)administrator.
C)radiographer.
D)physicist.
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Chapter 26: Densityir Exposure
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Q1) Which generator produces the least amount of radiographic density per mAs?
A)single-phase, 2-pulse
B)three-phase, 6-pulse
C)three-phase, 12-pulse
D)a high-frequency generator
Q2) A radiograph of the forearm is produced using 4 mA at 55 kVp.What kVp would be required to double the exposure?
Q3) If a radiograph using 30 mAs (400 mA at 0.075 sec.) produced a radiograph with satisfactory density, what new mA should be used at 0.20 sec.?
Q4) The effect of mAs upon IR exposure is
A)inverse.
B)inversely proportional.
C)directly proportional.
D)dependent upon kVp.
Q5) If a satisfactory PA chest radiograph is obtained with 4 mAs at 72 in., what mAs is required to maintain the same density at 60 in.?
Q6) If a radiograph using 50 mA (400 mA at 0.125 sec.) produced a radiograph with satisfactory density, what new mA should be used at 0.25 sec.?
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Chapter 27: Contrast
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Q1) A increase in x-ray beam filtration
A)increases the number of Compton interactions.
B)reduces contrast.
C)increases the average photon energy.
D)all of the above
Q2) High contrast is directly related to
A)the number of photoelectric interactions.
B)high kVp.
C)the amount of Compton scatter.
D)mAs.
Q3) What should you expect to occur with a decrease in kVp?
A)longer scale contrast
B)more Compton interactions
C)lower contrast
D)more photoelectric interactions
Q4) The difference between two adjacent densities is
A)recorded detail.
B)quantum mottle.
C)radiographic contrast.
D)distortion.
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Chapter 28: Recorded Detail
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Q1) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 72 in.distance, and OID of 6 in.
Q2) A digital detector with a high fill factor
A)will produce poor resolution.
B)will require longer processing time.
C)will produce high resolution.
D)is undesirable.
Q3) Which can negatively impact recorded detail?
A)using small focal spot
B)good film-screen contact
C)involuntary motion
D)minimal OID
Q4) Which measures the accuracy of an image compared to the original object on a scale of 0 to 1?
A)line spread function
B)modulation transfer function
C)point spread function
D)noise reduction function
Q5) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 1.0 mm focal spot, at a 40 in.distance, and OID of 2 in.
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Chapter 29: Distortion
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Q1) The ____ the SID, the ____ the magnification.
A)greater; larger
B)greater; smaller
C)lesser; smaller
D)SID has no effect on magnification.
Q2) If an object measures 2 cm and the image measures 3 cm, what would be the percent magnification of the object?
Q3) Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 72 in.and the OID is 2 in.
Q4) If an object is measured as 4 in.in diameter on the image and 4 in.from the film, what is the actual size of the object if the SID is 40 in.?
Q5) an image in which the object is actually shorter
A)kidneys
B)SID SOD
C)elongation
D)SOD
E)object size
F)scapula
G)foreshortening
H)patella
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Chapter 30: The Art of Image Critique
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Q1) recorded detail problem
A)improper patient preparation
B)an S# of 50
C)film-screen contact problem
D)consistently low contrast images
E)image cut-off along the long dimension of a cassette
F)presence of grid lines on image
G)white specks on final images
H)hypothesis
Q2) possible ethical ALARA violation
A)improper patient preparation
B)an S# of 50
C)film-screen contact problem
D)consistently low contrast images
E)image cut-off along the long dimension of a cassette
F)presence of grid lines on image
G)white specks on final images
H)hypothesis
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32
Chapter 31: Quality Management
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Q1) A generator must be recalibrated when the kVp drifts beyond ____ kVp of the labeled setting.
A)2
B)5
C)10
D)12
Q2) The source-to-skin distance limit for a stationary fluoroscopic unit is ____ inches.
A)5
B)12
C)15
D)25
Q3) The accuracy of single-phase generator time settings can be measured with a A)sensitometer.
B)densitometer.
C)spinning top test.
D)penetrometer.
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Chapter 32: Exposure Systems and Charts
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Q1) When formulating an exposure technique chart system, a successful sequence of steps is as follows:
1) clinical trials
2) clinical fine-tuning
3) ongoing fine-tuning
4) creation of phantom images
5) using the phantom images to extrapolate a chart
6) selecting the optimal phantom image
7) phantom testing
A)1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6, 7
B)4, 6, 1, 7, 2, 3, 5
C)4, 6, 5, 7, 1, 2, 3
D)7, 4, 5, 6, 1, 2, 3
Q2) The device used to measure part thickness is called a A)collimator.
B)caliper.
C)protractor.
D)goniometer.
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Chapter 33: Automatic Exposure Controls
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Sample Questions
Q1) The single function of an AEC is to eliminate the need to set A)kVp.
B)mA.
C)time.
D)all of the above
Q2) AP abdomen radiograph
A)phototiming
B)minimum response time
C)backup mAs
D)underexposed image
E)overexposed image
F)density controls
G)all three detectors
H)center detector only
Q3) When an AEC is used for an AP lumbar spine, which ionization chambers are utilized?
A)the center cell
B)the left and right outer cells
C)all three cells
D)the right outer cell only
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Exposure Conversion Problems
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Q1) A radiograph is produced at 10 mAs with a high frequency generator.The film is repeated using a single-phase, 2-pulse generator.Calculate the new mAs.
Q2) You are asked to fill in for a technologist at a local clinic for the day.When you arrive, you notice the x-ray generator is single phase.Your experience with exposure techniques was based upon a high frequency unit at the local hospital.To work at this clinic, you will likely do what to your hospital exposure techniques?
A)increase the kVp values by 15%
B)increase the mAs values by 100%
C)decrease the kVp values by 15% and double the mAs values
D)decrease the mAs values by 15%
Q3) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using the variable kVp theory.The part measuring 8 cm and 55 kVp was used.To maintain exposure, what kVp should be used if the part measures 10 cm?
Q4) A radiograph is produced using 10 mAs at a 40 in.distance.Calculate the new distance if 25 mAs is used.
Q5) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using the fixed kVp theory.The part measuring 10 cm and 6 mAs was used.To maintain exposure, what mAs should be used if the part measures 6 cm?
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Chapter 35: Mobile Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) typical power source for recharging batteries
A)110-120 volts
B)capacitor discharge
C)Picker Corporation
D)high frequency output
E)56 inches
F)rechargeable batteries
G)tethered detector
H)low ratio and high frequency
I)dead man switch
J)CVP line
Q2) Output from battery-operated units is essentially
A)single-phase unrectified.
B)single-phase, fully rectified.
C)three-phase, 6 pulse.
D)high frequency.
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Chapter 36: Fluoroscopy
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Q1) The fluoroscopic x-ray tube is different from a radiographic tube in that the fluoro tube
A)has high heat loading potential, as it operates at very high milliamperes.
B)cannot have an SOD less than 15 inches.
C)uses a water-cooled, stationary anode with focussing lenses.
D)uses manual collimation to limit the field size to the receptor.
Q2) The most commonly used fluoroscopic viewing system is A)mirrors.
B)real-time video monitors.
C)dry laser images.
D)videotape.
Q3) Fluoroscopic mA range is commonly ____ mA.
A)0.5 to 5.0
B)5.0 to 10.0
C)10.0 to 100
D)100 to 500
Q4) What is the minification gain for an image intensification tube with an input screen diameter of 5 in.and an output diameter of 1 in.?
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis
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Q1) The tomographic ____ is the total distance traveled by the tube.
A)arc
B)wavelength
C)blur
D)increment
Q2) The diagnostic modality of choice for an acoustic neuroma located in the inner ear is
A)wide angle tomography.
B)thin cut linear tomography.
C)CT scanning.
D)linear zonography.
Q3) farther from the image receptor
A)zonogram
B)panoramic tomography
C)40 degrees
D)focal plane
E)exposure amplitude
F)10 degrees or more
G)section interval
H)maximum blur
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Chapter 38: Mammography
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the backup time is reached during a breast exposure, the radiographer should select a ____ setting for the repeat radiograph.
A)lower mAs
B)higher mAs
C)higher kVp
D)lower kVp
Q2) The advantage of using molybdenum for the anode material in mammography tubes is
A)a decreased number of low-energy photons.
B)low radiographic contrast.
C)production of specific x-ray energies.
D)none of the above
Q3) Digital tomosynthesis in mammography
A)uses a 40-degree rotation angle.
B)acquires ten images of the breast per sweep.
C)uses digital detector technology.
D)all of the above
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40
Chapter 39: Bone Densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are related except one.Select the choice that is NOT RELATED to the others.
A)vertebral bodies
B)distal radius
C)greater trochanter
D)tarsals
Q2) In healthy adults, peak bone mass occurs
A)following menopause.
B)at puberty.
C)in their twenties and mid-thirties.
D)at the onset of menarche.
Q3) All of the following are true of the bone remodeling process EXCEPT:
A)It is a balanced activity between the action of osteocytes and chondrocytes.
B)It is influenced by hormones.
C)Osteoclast activity in excess can result in a loss of bone mass.
D)Osteoblast activity equals osteoclast activity in a healthy individual.
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Chapter 40: Vascular Imaging Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vascular imaging using angiography requires
A)single-phase input and three-phase output.
B)generators with 1 ms interrogation and forced extinction times.
C)C-arm rotational capability during image acquisition.
D)500 kHU x-ray tubes at a minimum.
Q2) Most angiographic studies are produced at what kVp range?
A)30 to 40
B)40 to 50
C)50 to 100
D)75 to 110
Q3) What type of image acquisition is used when eliminating bone and soft tissue structures from an image so that only contrast-filled vessels remain?
A)digital angiography
B)digital subtraction angiography
C)digital cineradiography
D)image reversal angiography
Q4) How many heat units are generated by a series of 15 exposures using 70 kVp, 300 mA, 0.20 sec.on a three-phase, 6-pulse unit?
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Chapter 41: Computed Tomography
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Q1) The CT radiation beam is collimated
A)at the tube exit.
B)at the detector entrance.
C)pre-patient and post-patient.
D)all of the above
Q2) The calculation of CT numbers is based upon the calculation of A)half-value layers.
B)half-lives.
C)attenuation coefficients.
D)pitch.
Q3) MSCT scanners have evolved greatly over the last few years, particularly with regard to slice combinations, scanning speed, and clinical utility.As these scanners gather more slices of data per rotation, a major technological challenge is
A) the amount of data handled by the computer.
B) the number of images to be analyzed by the clinician.
C) developing technologies to minimize dose.
D) all of the above
Q4) If the table is moving at 5 mm/sec., and a pitch of 1.5 is being used, what is the section thickness?
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Chapter 42: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contrast-enhanced MR images use ________as the contrast material of choice.
A)iodine
B)barium
C)gadolinium
D)hydrogen
Q2) The most common variable in operating an MRI unit is the ____ used to enhance image quality.
A)TI
B)TE
C)TR
D)all of the above
Q3) The RF signal strength determines
A)brightness.
B)field strength.
C)section thickness.
D)spatial resolution.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) similar to electron except for atomic origin
A)hot lab
B)MUGA
C)alpha emission
D)NRC
E)bone scan
F)elution
G)gamma emission
H)V/Q scan
I)PET scanning
J)wipe testing
K)beta emission
L)uptake probe
Q2) The radionuclide emission used for most all nuclear diagnostic studies is A)x-rays.
B)beta particles.
C)gamma photons.
D)alpha particles.
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Chapter 44: Radiation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common therapy unit is the
A)Cobalt-60 gamma unit.
B)CT simulator.
C)tomotherapy unit.
D)linear accelerator.
Q2) The treatment planning process is typically completed
A)using a linear accelerator.
B)using a Cobalt radiotherapy unit.
C)using a simulator.
D)using an MR simulator.
Q3) All of the following are components of a typical linear accelerator EXCEPT A)gantry and collimator assembly.
B)simulator.
C)treatment couch.
D)control console and modulator cabinet.
Q4) IGRT is an important part of a successful radiotherapy program because of its A)ability to create images.
B)capability for gated treatment fields.
C)technology for optical tracking of tumor location and size.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Medical Sonography
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Sample Questions
Q1) When scanning in the transverse orientation,
A)the marker on the transducer should point to the patient's right side.
B)the marker on the transducer should point to the patient's head.
C)the marker on the transducer should point to the patient's left side.
D)the marker on the transducer should point to the patient's feet.
Q2) frequency of sound is related to direction of echo relative to source
A)B-mode
B)rayls
C)damping material
D)decibels
E)Doppler
F)acoustic coupler
G)PZT
H)matching layer
I)M-mode
J)Huygen's principle
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