Promotional Strategy Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Promotional Strategy explores the principles and practices involved in designing and implementing effective promotional campaigns within the broader field of marketing. This course examines the tools and techniques used to communicate with target audiences, including advertising, public relations, sales promotion, personal selling, and digital marketing. Students learn to analyze market environments, set promotional objectives, develop creative messaging, select appropriate media channels, manage budgets, and measure campaign effectiveness. Through case studies, projects, and discussions, students gain practical skills in formulating integrated promotional strategies that drive brand awareness, consumer engagement, and sales performance in various organizational contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Advertising Promotion and Marketing Communications
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6th Edition by Kenneth E. Clow
Chapter 1: Integrated Marketing Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The people who develop advertisements and promotional campaigns are called creatives.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Noise is anything that distorts or disrupts a message and can occur at any stage in the communication process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The coordination and integration of all marketing communication tools, avenues, and sources within a company into a seamless program that maximizes the impact on consumers and other end users at a minimal cost is:
A) the marketing plan
B) the marketing mix
C) integrated marketing communications
D) marketing strategy
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Corporate Image and Brand Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Federal Express and International Business Machines (IBM) are examples of:
A) overt names
B) implied names
C) conceptual names
D) iconoclastic names
Answer: B
Q2) Consumers recommend brands to their families and friends because of one or more salient attributes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Iconoclastic names:
A) reveal what the company does
B) capture the essence of the idea behind the brand
C) contain recognizable words or word parts that imply what the company is about
D) do not reflect the company's goods or services, but instead something that is unique, different, and memorable
Answer: D
Q4) What are the four types of corporate names?
Answer: Overt names, implied names, conceptual names, iconoclastic names.
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Buyer Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Julian, the owner of a small company asks his secretary to call some of the local office supply stores and locate two that would offer a good deal on a new copy machine. In performing this task, the secretary is assuming which initial roles within the buying center?
A) user and gatekeeper
B) user and buyer
C) user, decider, and influencer
D) buyer and gatekeeper
Answer: A
Q2) The members of the buying center who shape purchasing decisions by providing information and criteria are called:
A) users
B) influencers
C) deciders
D) buyers
Answer: B
Q3) Selling to both consumers and businesses is known as dual-channel marketing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: The IMC Planning Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) A communications analysis involves looking at communications by the company itself, by competitors, and industry communications.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the first step in the IMC Planning Process? Describe the components.
Q3) A set of businesses or groups of individual consumers with distinct characteristics is a:
A) differentiated group
B) production department
C) market segment
D) manufacturing system
Q4) Product positioning is the:
A) level of brand equity faced by a company or brand
B) perception consumers have of a company or brand relative to competitors
C) number and level of products offered by a company
D) perception consumers have of a company or brand relative to other brands being offered by the company
Q5) What are the characteristics of a viable market segment?
Q6) What are the methods of segmenting business-to-business markets?
6
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Chapter 5: Advertising Management
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Sample
Questions
Q1) A media service company negotiates and purchases media packages, which are also known as media buys.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In terms of selecting an advertising agency, requesting client references should occur before the initial list of applicants is screened, because the client list can be used to eliminate agencies where there is a conflict of interest.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Successful brands have two characteristics: top-of-mind and top-choice.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The element of an advertisement that taps into or activates a person's value system is a(n):
A) message theme
B) appeal
C) executional framework
D) leverage point
Q5) Describe the work of the creative in creating an advertising campaign.
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Chapter 6: Advertising Design: Theoretical Frameworks and Types of Appeals
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a viewer believes he or she can take action to prevent negative consequences by purchasing a product or service, the individual is exhibiting self-efficacy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Print media offer the best outlets for rational appeals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) While some evidence exists that humor may be universal, other research indicates that particular executions of humor appeals may not be universal and that humor is often based in one's culture.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To be successful, the humor in a humor appeal should be:
A) directed at the target audience of the ad
B) of a low level since humor that is too heavy tends to interfere with message recall
C) directed to the audience's value system
D) connected directly to the product's benefits
Q5) How are visual elements of ads stored in the brain?
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Chapter 7: Advertising Design: Message Strategies and
Executional
Frameworks
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Sample Questions
Q1) For products with no real tangible differences among the various brands, which message strategy is best at developing a liking and positive feelings toward a particular brand?
A) affective
B) cognitive
C) conative
D) generic
Q2) The Pillsbury Dough character used by Pillsbury is an example of which type of executional framework?
A) animation
B) dramatization
C) testimonial
D) fantasy
Q3) Visual consistency is important in developing effective advertisements because:
A) of the high cost of producing new ads
B) it creates a higher level of brand equity
C) buyers, whether consumers or businesses, spend very little time viewing or listening to ads
D) it maintains ad consistency
Q4) Name the five major forms of cognitive strategies.
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Chapter 8: Traditional Media Channels
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new interaction between use of social media and watching television has emerged.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The issue of accountability for advertising results combined with the need to create a "return on investment" of marketing dollars had led to an increase in power to the:
A) creative side of the agency
B) account side of the agency
C) media planning and buying side of the agency
D) client
Q3) If the objective of an advertising campaign is to increase brand recall, then reach is more important than frequency.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The size of the advertising agency or media buying firm has an impact on the rates that a company will pay for media time and space.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Digital Marketing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about consumer-generated ads placed on social networks is not true?
A) Consumer-generated ads are viewed as more genuine than company-generated ads
B) Some advertising experts believe the future of advertising is in user-generated ads rather than agency-produced ads
C) Encouraging consumers to generate ads for a product is a creative form of interactive marketing
D) Most ads on social networks are produced by consumers
Q2) Dwell time measures the amount of time individuals spend on the company's website.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many of the online exchanges and auctions are intermediary companies that simply match buyers and sellers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the impact of blogs and online social networks on companies and how companies should respond?
Q5) What consumer concerns influence e-commerce online purchasing?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Alternative Marketing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of branded entertainment increased sharply with the:
A) introduction of cable TV and the ability to target audience through specialty shows
B) increased interest in specialty shows like Extreme Makeover and Top Chef
C) rise of reality television shows where there is a lack of script and the focus is on the real world
D) popularity of the American Idol shows and fan voting
Q2) The future use of product placements and branded entertainment will depend on:
A) the level of clutter in the placements
B) the costs
C) viewer acceptance
D) the measured impact on sales
Q3) Brand ambassadors or customer evangelists are typically individuals who were loyal to competitor's brand, but have switched to the sponsor's brand because of the incentives offered.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify the major forms of alternative marketing.
Q5) Discuss the factors that are necessary for effective point-of-purchase displays.
Q6) Identify the different forms of video game advertising.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Database and Direct Response Marketing and Personal Selling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Catalogs offer the advantages of being long lasting, low-pressure, and can be viewed at a person's leisure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the knowledge acquisition stage of the selling process, a salesperson should gather all the following information, except:
A) evaluate the risk factors
B) identify the product users
C) evaluate the switching costs
D) identify the decision makers and influencers
Q3) If the salesperson has answered all of the objections and feels confident that the prospect is ready to buy, then using the direct close works well.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The primary benefit of database marketing is:
A) the enhancement of customer loyalty
B) higher sales
C) greater profits
D) greater brand parity
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Sales Promotions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tyson and General Foods developed a joint consumer promotion, which is an example of a(n):
A) intracompany tie-in
B) intercompany tie-in
C) overlay
D) premium
Q2) Shania received a sample of a new tea drink when she attended a football game in Miami. This is an example of selective sampling.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Price-offs can encourage customers to switch brands in brand parity situations or when the consumer has a high level of brand loyalty to another brand.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The consumer is typically required to make a purchase when entering a sweepstakes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the four major types of premiums?
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Chapter 13: Public Relations and Sponsorship Programs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A strong company image that takes years to build may be destroyed in just a few weeks or months if something bad happens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sponsoring bloggers has become a new form of product sponsorship for companies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The marketing department tends to create contact points with customers and potential customers; the public relations department deals with the other contact points that are created or are unplanned.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In planning a sponsorship or event marketing program, after the marketing team establishes promotions of the event or sponsorship, the next step would be:
A) create objectives
B) identify key publics
C) include the company in all brochures and advertising
D) monitor the event
Q5) Describe sponsorship marketing.
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Chapter 14: Regulations and Ethical Concerns
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ambush marketing occurs when a brand attempts to associate itself with a major event, such as the Olympics, without being an official sponsor of the event.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) places limits on advertising to children on both weekdays and weekends.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cyber squatting or domain squatting is the practice of using brand names on generic websites.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ads featuring underwear, condoms, and feminine hygiene products may be offensive to some, which has led to regulations restricting when and where the ads can be placed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the difference between deception and puffery.
Q6) What criteria must be met to deem an advertisement deceptive or misleading?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Evaluating an Integrated Marketing Program
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the principles of position advertising copytesting (PACT), multiple measures should be used in the evaluation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The impact of all of the following marketing programs can be measured using redemption rates, except:
A) point-of-purchase displays
B) coupons
C) sweepstakes
D) direct-mail letters
Q3) Most emotional reaction tests are self-reported instruments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One major advantage of a test market is that it resembles an actual market situation more than any of the other evaluation methods.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What can test markets assess?
Q6) What objectives can be used to measure the overall IMC program?
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