Principles of Athletic Training
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Principles of Athletic Training introduces students to the foundational concepts and practices essential for the prevention, assessment, treatment, and rehabilitation of athletic injuries. This course covers topics such as the anatomy and physiology of the musculoskeletal system, risk management strategies, emergency care procedures, therapeutic modalities, and the development of conditioning and reconditioning programs. Emphasis is also placed on the ethical and legal responsibilities of athletic trainers, effective communication within the sports medicine team, and evidence-based approaches to promoting athlete health and performance.
Recommended Textbook
Examination of Orthopedic Athletic Injuries 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
20 Chapters
843 Verified Questions
843 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2209
Page 2
Chapter 1: Examination Process
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43948
Sample Questions
Q1) What area is assessed when heart auscultation is performed in the left midclavicular line between ribs 5 and 6?
A) Aortic area
B) Pulmonary area
C) Tricuspid area
D) Mitral area
Answer: D
Q2) Which movement would result in a physiological end-feel of "soft" during PROM?
A) Knee flexion
B) Hip flexion with the knee extended
C) Extension of the metacarpophalangeal joint
D) Elbow extension
Answer: A
Q3) When determining a treatment and rehabilitation program,which evaluation should be used as a baseline?
A) Initial evaluation
B) Reevaluation
C) Discharge evaluation
D) Final evaluation
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Examination and Management of Acute Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43949
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true when developing an EAP?
A) Coordinate the EAP with the pertinent individuals.
B) Establish one written EAP that is not venue specific.
C) Determine the venue-specific access to early defibrillation.
D) Integrate the EAP into the local EMS response.
Answer: B
Q2) Assessing motor function distal to the site of injury is indicated whether or not you have to move the involved bone or joint.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following conditions would not warrant activating emergency medical services (EMS)and stopping an on-field evaluation?
A) Prolonged loss of consciousness
B) Cyanosis
C) Left shoulder pain
D) Unequal chest expansion
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Practice in the Diagnostic Process
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43950
Sample Questions
Q1) Which term describes a test's ability to detect those patients who do not have the disorder being tested for?
A) Selectivity
B) Specificity
C) Reliability
D) Validity
Answer: B
Q2) Likelihood ratios incorporate a test's sensitivity and specificity,and they are influenced by the prevalence of a condition.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What is the term for a situation in which the clinical test and the gold standard are both negative?
A) True positive
B) False positive
C) True negative
D) False negative
Answer: C
Page 5
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 4: Injury Pathology Nomenclature
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43951
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms describes growth of extraneous bone that can occur as a stress reaction from injury or from irregular forces being placed on the bone?
A) Osteochondritis dissecans
B) Apophysitis
C) Exostosis
D) Arthralgia
Q2) One of the best ways to prevent heterotopic ossification in the quadriceps muscle is to do which of the following?
A) Cast the leg to prevent further movement and injury.
B) Don't stretch the muscle, but instead keep it in full extension.
C) Keep a sustained stretch with the knee maintained in 30° of flexion.
D) Keep a sustained stretch with the knee maintained in 120° of flexion.
Q3) Which of the following is more common in the hands and is described as an inflammation of the synovial sheath surrounding a muscle tendon?
A) Tenosynovitis
B) Peritendinitis
C) Tendinitis
D) Tendinosis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
6
Chapter 5: Musculoskeletal Diagnostic Techniques
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43952
Sample Questions
Q1) For which structure is an angiogram best used to identify pathology?
A) Spinal canal
B) Blood vessels
C) Muscle
D) Articular cartilage lesions
Q2) Which of the following would be used to detect the location of nerve entrapments and isolate the location of specific pathology?
A) MRI
B) CT scan
C) Nerve conduction study
D) Electromyography
Q3) Which of the following must be used when performing a bone scan?
A) A coupling medium
B) A radionuclide
C) An electrical current administered through the limbs
D) Electrodes, placed around the area being observed
Q4) Prior to the bone scan,a radioactive agent must be delivered into a small artery.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Assessment of Posture
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43953
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes a person with a very thin body type?
A) Mesomorph
B) Endomorph
C) Ectomorph
D) Cro-Magnon man
Q2) What is the term for the muscles that primarily function to support the body against the forces of gravity?
A) Agonistic
B) Antagonistic
C) Postural
D) Phasic
Q3) Which of the following is not a cause for a swayback posture?
A) Weak hamstrings
B) Poor postural sense
C) Tightened or shortened hip extensors
D) Weakened or elongated hip flexors or lower abdominals
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Evaluation of Gait
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43954
Sample Questions
Q1) During the swing phase of gait,which of the following muscles is (are)more active?
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Ankle plantar flexors
C) Gluteus medius
D) Ankle dorsiflexors
Q2) Which period of the stance phase begins as the body weight moves directly over the support limb and stationary foot,and concludes when the center of gravity is directly over the foot?
A) Loading response
B) Preswing
C) Midstance
D) Terminal stance
Q3) Which phase of gait is the longest?
A) Stance
B) Swing
C) Toe-off
D) Heel strike
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Foot and Toe Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43955
Sample Questions
Q1) Which section of the foot is composed of the navicular,three cuneiforms,and the cuboid bones?
A) Forefoot
B) Midfoot
C) Rearfoot
D) Toes
Q2) When measuring the angle of the medial longitudinal arch,which static position is considered normal?
A) 121° to 130°
B) 131° to 152°
C) 153° to 162°
D) 110° to 120°
Q3) Which drop is considered normal when performing the navicular drop test?
A) 0.6 to 1.8 cm
B) 1.8 to 2.3 cm
C) 0 to 0.6 cm
D) 0 cm
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
10
Chapter 9: Ankle and Leg Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43956
Sample Questions
Q1) The ankle complex (talocrural and subtalar joints)is least stable when it is in the open-packed position,which is a combination of what two motions?
A) Plantar flexion and eversion
B) Plantar flexion and inversion
C) Dorsiflexion and eversion
D) Dorsiflexion and inversion
Q2) According to current research,what is suggested for early management of ankle sprains?
A) Immobilization
B) Weight-bearing ambulation
C) Pain-free range-of-motion (ROM) exercises
D) Taping and bracing
Q3) What portion of the tibialis posterior is most palpable?
A) The muscle belly
B) The muscle at its origin
C) The muscle at its insertion
D) The tendon of the muscle posterior to the medial malleolus
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Knee Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43957
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the origin and insertion of the sartorius?
A) Anterior superior iliac spine and pes anserine tendon
B) Anterior superior iliac spine and fibula
C) Anterior superior iliac spine and adductor tubercle
D) Anterior inferior iliac spine and the pes anserine tendon
Q2) The roles of the menisci do not include which of the following?
A) Deepen the articulation and fill the gaps that normally occur during the knee's articulation
B) Improve lubrication for the articulating surfaces
C) Provide shock absorption
D) Allow for extremes of flexion and extension
Q3) Injury to which of the following would cause edema instead of effusion?
A) PCL
B) LCL
C) ACL
D) Deep fibers of the MCL
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: Patellofemoral Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43958
Sample Questions
Q1) An athlete goes down on the field and you run out to evaluate her.She states that her knee is hurting.You know the athlete has received three cortisone injections in the last 6 months.Which injury may you initially suspect given this information?
A) Meniscal injury
B) Medial collateral ligament sprain
C) Patellar tendon rupture
D) Anterior cruciate ligament sprain
Q2) When discussing patellar movement,which of the following best describes the J sign?
A) As the knee moves from flexion into extension, the patella glides superiorly and tracks slightly medially.
B) As the knee moves from flexion into extension, the patella glides superiorly and tracks slightly laterally.
C) As the knee moves from flexion into extension, the patella glides inferiorly and tracks slightly laterally.
D) As the knee moves from flexion into extension, the patella glides inferiorly and tracks slightly medially.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 13
Chapter 12: Pelvis and Thigh Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43959
Sample Questions
Q1) When measuring hip abduction and adduction,the distal arm is placed parallel to the midline of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are symptoms of a femur fracture?
A) Deformity without loss of function
B) Pain and deformity
C) Immediate loss of function without pain
D) Deformity, pain, and loss in function
Q3) Which of the following is not an internal rotator of the hip?
A) Gluteus medius
B) Gluteus maximus
C) Adductor brevis
D) Gluteus minimus
Q4) What combination of movements is used during the anterior impingement test?
A) Flexion, internal rotation, and adduction of the hip
B) Extension, internal rotation, and adduction of the hip
C) Flexion, external rotation, and adduction of the hip
D) Extension, external rotation, and adduction of the hip
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Lumbosacral Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43960
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the space where the spinal nerve roots exit the vertebral column called?
A) Pars interarticularis
B) Intervertebral foramen
C) Foramen magnum
D) Neural arch
Q2) What spinal motion is limited by the posterior longitudinal ligament?
A) Lateral flexion
B) Flexion
C) Rotation
D) Extension
Q3) Which of the following tests is not used to identify intervertebral disc lesions?
A) Hoover test
B) Femoral nerve stretch test
C) Tension sign
D) Milgram's test
Q4) The primary movement occurring between the L1 and L4 vertebrae is rotation.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Cervical and Thoracic Spine and Thorax Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43961
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are false ribs?
A) 11 and 12
B) 8 and 9
C) 8, 9, and 10
D) 7, 8, and 9
Q2) The cricoid cartilage is located anterior of what cervical vertebra level?
A) C4
B) C5
C) C6
D) C7
Q3) The onset of commotio cordis is influenced by all of the following factors.Which of these is most crucial?
A) Type of force
B) Timing of impact
C) Location of force
D) Amount of force
Q4) The dens is a superior projection off of the atlas and allows for rotation.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
Q5) The supraspinous ligament is called the _______ ________ in the cervical region.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 17
Chapter 15: Shoulder and Upper Arm Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43962
Sample Questions
Q1) A positive Hawkins test is more indicative of pathology in which rotator cuff muscle?
A) Supraspinatus
B) Infraspinatus
C) Teres minor
D) Subscapularis
Q2) What motion is not produced when the patient performs the portion of the Apley Scratch test where the patient touches the opposite shoulder by crossing the chest?
A) GH adduction
B) Horizontal adduction
C) Internal rotation
D) Scapular retraction
Q3) The scapular retraction test is used to identify which of the following?
A) Role of scapular dysfunction in pathology
B) Presence of impingement
C) Degree of anterior GH instability
D) Strength of the rhomboid major and minor
Q4) Name all the muscles that have a direct action on the scapula.
Q5) Define the plane of the scapula.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 16: Elbow and Forearm Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43963
Sample Questions
Q1) Forearm fractures in children are often treated with open reduction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the angle formed by the long axis of the humerus and ulna known as?
A) Angle of torsion
B) Angle of inclination
C) Carrying angle
D) Q angle
Q3) Which of the following is the most important history finding regarding elbow trauma?
A) Onset and location of symptoms
B) Onset and type of pain
C) Location of symptoms and type of pain
D) Location of symptoms
Q4) What is it medically called when the alignment of the forearm and humerus fully extends beyond 0°?
A) Cubitus valgus
B) Cubitus varus
C) Cubital valgus
D) Cubital recurvatum
Page 19
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 17: Wrist, Hand, and Finger Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43964
Sample Questions
Q1) An individual suffering from de Quervain's syndrome will typically undergo a series of magnetic resonance imaging.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a rupture of the central extensor tendon that causes the lateral bands to slip palmarly on each side of the PIP,changing its line of pull on this joint from an extensor to a flexor?
A) Boutonnière deformity
B) Mallet finger
C) Jerry finger
D) Pseudoboutonnière deformity
Q3) Which nerve supplies the primary innervation for wrist flexion and radial deviation?
A) Median
B) Ulnar
C) Radial
D) Musculocutaneous
Q4) Name the two muscles of the flexor grouping that are not innervated by the median nerve.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 18: Eye Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43965
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the thin mucous membrane that covers the eye and lines the inside of the eyelids?
A) Sclera
B) Conjunctiva
C) Iris
D) Pupil
Q2) What are you looking for when assessing eye movement?
Q3) Which condition describes an infection of a ciliary gland?
A) Hyphema
B) Stye
C) Iritis
D) Corneal abrasion
Q4) Elastic balls are of great concern because the expansive force may be of a magnitude to rupture the globe.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Due to the severity of the injury,a ruptured globe will always present with symptoms.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 19: Face and Related Structure Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43966
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the outermost covering of a tooth?
A) Dentin
B) Enamel
C) Cementum
D) Periodontal ligaments
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A) Swimmer's ear can be caused by overcleaning your ear.
B) Psoriasis predisposes an athlete to swimmer's ear.
C) A narrow inner ear can predispose an individual to swimmer's ear by preventing inadequate drying.
D) Swimmer's ear only affects those athletes involved in water sports.
Q3) What is the shape of the external ear-which is maintained by an accumulation of cartilaginous tissue-called?
A) Auricle
B) Stapes
C) External auditory meatus
D) Incus
Q4) What are three signs and symptoms of a potentially catastrophic injury resulting from a blow to the throat?
Q5) Explain how to perform Weber's test and what is considered a positive test.
Page 22
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 20: Head and Acute Cervical Spine Pathologies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43967
Sample Questions
Q1) List two ways to elicit a pain response from an unconscious patient.
Q2) A decerebrate posture is identified when there is flexion of the elbows and wrists,clenched fists,and extension of the lower extremity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To properly check cranial nerve (CN)VIII,the examiner should check which of the following?
A) Hearing and swallowing
B) Hearing and balance
C) Swallowing and gag reflex
D) Facial movement
Q4) Which cranial nerve (CN)is implicated with a positive Romberg test?
A) VIII
B) II
C) VII
D) IV
Q5) Cervical fractures alone tend to cause spinal cord trauma.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which cranial nerve(s)are responsible for eye movement?
Page 23
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.