Preventive Dentistry Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Preventive Dentistry focuses on the principles and practices aimed at maintaining oral health and preventing the onset, progression, and recurrence of dental diseases. This course covers topics such as patient education, risk assessment, dietary counseling, oral hygiene methods, fluoride application, sealants, and community-based prevention strategies. Emphasis is placed on the role of dental professionals in promoting preventive measures, understanding epidemiology of oral diseases, and developing customized prevention plans to address individual and community needs. The course also explores current trends and evidence-based approaches to caries prevention, periodontal health, and the impact of oral health on overall wellbeing.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice 4th Edition by Michele Leonardi
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64 Chapters
1581 Verified Questions
1581 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Dental Hygiene Profession
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is accreditation?
A) The process of explaining the concepts of oral health and their relationship to general health
B) The process of guiding and directing of the work of others so that they can become certified
C) The process of researching a specific topic and analyzing it
D) A formal, voluntary nongovernmental process that establishes a minimum set of national standards that promotes and ensures quality in education
Answer: D
Q2) The importance of a conceptual model is to provide philosophic and practical perspectives about dental hygiene's paradigm concepts. Dental hygiene's paradigm is operationalized via the Human Needs Conceptual Model.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Human Needs Theory and Dental Hygiene Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A deficit in the need for a wholesome facial image is a dissatisfaction with the appearance of one's teeth. This need is in deficit only if the client reports dissatisfaction.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Answer: A
Q2) The dental hygienist should not evaluate clients with a deficit in protection from health risks because the domain of the dental hygienist is only the oral cavity.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Answer: E
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4
Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Decision Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) The AHA Guidelines on Prevention of Infective Endocarditis changed most recently because of:
A) more people dying from dental procedures.
B) quality of evidence.
C) dental professionals not following the guidelines.
D) client compliance.
E) a change in medications available.
Answer: B
Q2) Being a good consumer of research literature means you:
A) understand what you are reading.
B) can identify the level of evidence.
C) know how much confidence you can put into the findings.
D) Both a and c are correct.
E) Options a, b, and c are correct.
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Health and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Health-promotion movement is the responsibility of the public health dental hygienist. Disease treatment is the responsibility of the clinic-based dental hygienist.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Client health promotion has a perspective that:
A) singularly identifies each client's needs.
B) focuses on individual behavior.
C) considers individual behavior and the social environment.
D) attributes disease to environmental influences.
E) lessens the role of the oral health professional in healthcare.
Q3) The distribution of a mailbox announcement is representative of which health promotion strategy?
A) Mass media
B) Legislation
C) Health education
D) Community organization
E) Clinical intervention
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Changing Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pedagogy is the art and science of teaching _______________.
Q2) Oral health professionals must be aware of their own values and how they affect the choices professionals make in planning and implementing oral health behavioral change programs.
A)True B)False
Q3) Nonverbal communication is the use of________________________ rather than words to transmit a message.
Q4) The two types of asking questions are __________ and ___________.
Q5) The most important aspects of verbal communication are _____, _____, _____, and _____. (Show your answer in alphabetical order.)
Q6) The __________ Model of behavioral change is effective for use with young school-age children
Q7) Interpersonal communication is never _________________ but rather is a ________________, ongoing process.
Q8) Communication generally stops with one encoded and decoded message. A)True B)False
Q9) The Zones of touch are _________________ and
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Cultural Competence
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother is standing beside her child in the dental office. The child is experiencing a terrible toothache. The mother is crying. She wants to know why God is doing this to her child. What would be the best response of the care provider?
A) Explain to her that God has nothing to do with the cause of this toothache.
B) Explain to her that she is making the child anxious.
C) Listen actively and allow her to express her feelings.
D) Do not pay too much attention to her crying, but focus on the child and try to examine the cause of the toothache.
Q2) Statement 1: Culturally sensitive care starts with the care provider exploring the cultural beliefs of the client. Statement 2: Cultural differences occur in every clinical encounter.
A) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
C) Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D) Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
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Chapter 7: Professional Portfolios
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Sample Questions
Q1) A recent dental hygiene graduate is preparing to apply for jobs and wants to use her portfolio as part of the interview process. She has heard that the dentist is looking for a dental hygienist with experience with a very diverse client population. The student decides to amend her charts of client experiences to show a greater number of clients seen than she actually cared for during her dental hygiene education. Which ethical principal did the student violate?
A) Autonomy
B) Veracity
C) Nonmaleficence
D) Beneficence
Q2) An electronic portfolio has the following advantages when compared to a paper based portfolio except e-portfolios are:
A) more adaptable over time.
B) more compact and portable.
C) easier to learn than a paper-based portfolio.
D) a "greener" approach to documenting work.
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Chapter 8: The Dental Hygiene Care Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The intraoral camera (IOC) was first used in dentistry in 1987. Since then many dental offices, and dental and dental hygiene schools have used them chairside for identification of defects in the oral cavity and client education. The IOC magnifies teeth _____ times the original size.
A) 20 to 60
B) 60 to 100
C) 100 to 150
D) 40 to 60
Q2) With today's technology, dental offices can choose if they want to use film or digital radiographs; depending on what is decided, it has an effect on equipment needed to process the radiographs. Digital radiographs require _____ whereas film radiographs require _____.
A) an automatic processor, an automatic processor
B) computer software, computer software
C) computer software, an automatic processor
D) an automatic processor, computer software
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Chapter 9: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which types of procedures may be restricted for a DHCP who is hepatitis B e-antigen positive?
A) None
B) Major oral or maxillofacial surgery
C) All invasive procedures
D) All periodontal procedures
Q2) Factors to consider in assessing the need for follow-up after an occupational blood or body fluid exposure include:
A) the type of exposure.
B) the type of body fluid.
C) the bloodborne pathogen status of the source.
D) the susceptibility of the exposed person.
E) all of the above.
F) none of the above.
Q3) What is the most common type of sterilizer found in dental healthcare settings?
A) Dry heat sterilizers
B) Immersion chemical sterilants
C) Steam autoclaves
D) Unsaturated chemical vapor sterilizers
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Page 12
Chapter 10: Medical Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ASA II classification indicates which of the following?
A) Normal, healthy client
B) Mild systemic disease
C) Moderate systemic disease
D) Severe systemic disease that limits activity but is not incapacitating
E) Incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
Q2) What is the term for a person who is not responding when spoken to and shaken gently?
A) Unconscious
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Dental fear and anxious
D) Immunosuppression
Q3) A good Samaritan is someone who renders aid in an emergency to an injured person on a voluntary basis. There is no need for consent for the care provided to a conscious or an unconscious person.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Page 13
Chapter 11: Ergonomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three chairside preventive measures to minimize the occurrence of carpal tunnel syndrome.
Q2) The fulcrum finger must remain locked during instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What causes the shoulder injury trapezius myalgia?
Q4) Which nerve is affected when Guyon's canal syndrome is evident?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Radial nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Nerves from the brachial plexus
Q5) What is the foremost risk factor for carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)?
A) Holding instruments too tightly
B) Repetition
C) Use of vibrating instruments
D) Cold room temperatures
Q6) Digital motion is an acceptable hand movement during treatment instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 12: The Health History
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Sample Questions
Q1) The health history questionnaire includes all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Reason for appointment
B) History of dental procedures
C) Medical problems experienced
D) Height, weight, date of birth
E) Record of missed appointments
Q2) Which of the following conditions requires antibiotic prophylaxis before oral procedures?
A) Heart murmur
B) Mitral valve prolapse
C) Prior infective endocarditis
D) Heart transplant
Q3) All of the following references are used during a thorough health history review except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Physician's Desk Reference
B) Merck Manual of Diagnosis and Therapy
C) A dental drug reference
D) Results from annual physical examination
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The four vital signs used to detect a client's cardiovascular and systemic health are:
A) height, weight, age, and race.
B) respiration, temperature, pulse, and blood pressure.
C) speed, temperature, gait, and electrocardiogram.
D) cholesterol, blood pressure, vision, and blood sugar.
Q2) If the client reports an occasional premature ventricular contraction (PVC):
A) the client should be referred to a physician.
B) contact their physician if there is an increase in frequency.
C) the dentist should be notified to initiate a referral to the physician.
D) contact emergency medical services (EMS) for an immediate response to an emergency situation.
Q3) When the dental hygienist makes inquiries about premature ventricular contractions or PVCs, the dental hygienist is evaluating which vital sign?
A) Pulse
B) Respiration
C) Blood pressure
D) Korotkoff sound
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Chapter 14: Pharmacologic History
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common etiology for angular cheilitis?
A) Vitamin deficiency
B) Fungal infection
C) Allergic reaction
D) Localized dermatitis
Q2) Which of the following is the most important factor for consideration when determining whether to proceed with dental hygiene treatment for a medicated client?
A) Presence of environmental safety hazards
B) Risk for compromising the client's health
C) Availability of supportive emergency equipment
D) Use of personal protective equipment
Q3) Which of the following best describes the manufacturer's recommendations for pediatric drug dosing?
A) Equivalent dosing to the adult dose
B) Half of the adult dose
C) One quarter of the adult dose
D) Twice the adult dose
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Chapter 15: Extraoral and Intraoral Clinical Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a lesion is considered a macule with the oral cavity, it is usually due to:
A) hyperplasia.
B) hypertrophy.
C) pigmentation.
D) unchanged vascularity.
Q2) Which of the following terms is best used to describe an area that faces away from the head and toward the feet?
A) Anterior
B) Posterior
C) Superior
D) Inferior
Q3) Which of the following conditions is necessary for an effective extraoral assessment by a dental hygienist of a client in a dental office setting?
A) Subdued lighting
B) Supine patient
C) Upright patient
D) Tight tie
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Chapter 16: Dentition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) When measuring for furcation involvement, which of the following classes is described by the probe passing completely through the furcation, but the furcation is not clinically visible?
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV
Q2) Which bite situation can be produced from thumbsucking?
A) End to end
B) Crossbite
C) Open bite
D) Overbite
Q3) Which of the following minerals are abundant in the saliva for remineralizing early carious lesions?
A) Calcium and phosphorus
B) Calcium and potassium
C) Phosphorus and potassium
D) Phosphorus and iron
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Chapter 17: Oral Hygiene Assessment: Soft and Hard Deposits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dental plaque as a transparent film can be detected in several ways. Select all of the methods that can be used to detect dental plaque.
A) Use of a disclosant
B) Visibly evident thick deposits
C) Passing an explorer over the tooth surface
D) Direct vision of stained deposits
Q2) Of the following variables, which is not an important variable to measure during baseline assessment?
A) Extent of oral biofilm
B) Amount of calculus
C) Location of deposits
D) Presence of food debris
Q3) A major risk factor for caries and periodontal diseases is:
A) amount of materia alba.
B) food debris.
C) dental plaque.
D) extrinsic stain.
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Dental Caries Management by Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of caries management is to restore and maintain a balance between protective factors and pathologic factors because this balance leads to remineralization of early carious lesions and/or prevents future caries.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason are correct.
Q2) Placement of restorations reduces the bacterial challenge. Bacterial challenge can be reduced by antibacterial therapy.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) What is a white spot lesion?
A) A demineralized area due to loss of minerals in the subsurface
B) A demineralized area in the surface of the enamel
C) A remineralized area that has been treated with fluoride
D) An area to watch for development of a carious lesion
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Periodontal and Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications has a beneficial effect on the periodontium?
A) Phenytoin
B) Nifedipine
C) Cyclosporine
D) Tetracycline
Q2) What is the name of the PDL fiber that extends obliquely from the cementum just beneath the junctional epithelium and functions to prevent horizontal movement of teeth?
A) Alveolar crest
B) Oblique
C) Horizontal
D) Sharpey
Q3) All of the following conditions can be observed on radiographs except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Status of the lamina dura
B) Tooth crown to root ratio
C) Height of the facial boney plate
D) Changes in the PDL space
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22
Chapter 20: Potential Impact of Periodontal Infections on
Overall General Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The entry and presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, a common occurrence in patients with periodontitis, is called:
A) bacteriosis.
B) bacteremia.
C) bacterascites.
D) bacteroidosis.
E) bacterioclasis.
Q2) Atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels that lead to coronary heart disease are also the main cause of which of the following?
A) Preeclampsia
B) Chronic gastritis
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Nonhemorrhagic stroke
E) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
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Chapter 21: Dental Hygiene Diagnosis
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Q1) The client's assessed blood pressure was 140/90 mm Hg. Given the client's race, weight, smoking behavior, and periodontal health status, what systemic disease is this client most at risk for?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Respiratory disease
C) Renal disease
D) Cardiovascular disease
Q2) Some legal jurisdictions allow a dental hygienist to identify oral disease such as moderate pregnancy-associated gingivitis or early chronic periodontitis as long as it is not the final dental diagnosis. What is this type of diagnosis called?
A) Early dental diagnosis
B) Final dental diagnosis
C) Preliminary dental diagnosis
D) None of the above
Q3) The dental hygiene diagnosis is made after which process of care phase?
A) Assessment
B) Planning
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation
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Page 24
Chapter 22: Dental Hygiene Care Plan, Evaluation, and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following are factors that the dental hygienist will consider before recommending a continued care interval to the client except:
A) overall appraisal of goal attainment.
B) client's continued adherence to recommended oral self-care.
C) level of optimum health achieved.
D) restorative care needed.
Q2) A critical strategy for care planning self-care instruction includes considering variables such as client dexterity, skill, and knowledge. Therefore, a parent or guardian should be included when instructing a young child or client with a special need.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 23: Toothbrushing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Toothbrushes can be a mode of indirect transmission for pathogenic organisms. Solid rather than hollow designs and toothbrush caps reduce toothbrush contamination.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Which ethical principle is represented by a dental hygienist's allocation of time for instruction, repetition, reinforcement, and continual assessment of each client's oral health practices?
A) Beneficence
B) Nonmaleficence
C) Society trust
D) Veracity
E) Autonomy
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Chapter 24: Mechanical Oral Biofilm Control: Interdental and Supplemental Self-Care Devices
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Q1) Which step in dental flossing improves control and reduces the possibility of floss cuts?
A) Setting a fulcrum on the cheek or intraorally
B) Using up-and-down strokes
C) Wrapping the floss around the index fingers
D) Wrapping the floss in a C shape
Q2) Which of the following aids should be discarded after one use?
A) Floss threader
B) Rubber tip stimulator
C) Toothpick holder
D) Wooden wedge/triangular toothpick
Q3) Which of the following describes the proper use of a wooden wedge?
A) Apply the base of the wedge triangle to the gingiva.
B) Force the stimulator into interproximal spaces.
C) Point the tip apically at a 45-degree angle.
D) Use an up-and-down motion in the interproximal space.
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Chapter 25: Dentifrices
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Q1) The role of humectants in dentifrices is to:
A) make the product delightful.
B) mask the taste.
C) dissolve the ingredients.
D) limit drying.
Q2) A client suffering from dental hypersensitivity must use dentifrice containing:
A) SnF2.
B) NaF.
C) sodium hexametaphosphate.
D) potassium nitrate.
Q3) The incorporation of fluoride ions into enamel crystals is facilitated by the _____ the dentrifice.
A) presence of fluoride ions in B) neutral pH of C) acidic pH of
D) basic pH of
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Chapter 26: Hand-Activated Instrumentation
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Q1) Clinicians who practice with finger reinforcement scaling techniques provide which of the following benefits?
A) Additional lateral pressure
B) Guides the instrument in a longer pull stroke
C) Protective scaling qualities
D) All of the above
Q2) Which set of treatment instruments are not used for supragingival and subgingival calculus removal where tissue is retractable?
A) Hoe
B) File
C) Sickle
D) Universal
Q3) Which of the following assessment or treatment instruments use a pull and push stroke?
A) Hirschfeld files
B) Chisel scaler
C) Hoe scaler
D) Explorer
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Chapter 27: Ultrasonic Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive cementum removal during periodontal debridement could result in which of the following?
A) Caries
B) Root surface damage
C) Pulpitis
D) Loss of enamel
E) Dentinal sensitivity
Q2) In which of the following ways could an ultrasonic working end cause an undesirable surface alteration?
A) Power setting is too low.
B) Water spray is too great.
C) Point is adapted to the tooth.
D) Light pressure is used on the tooth.
E) The tooth to working end angulation is less than 15 degrees.
Q3) What actually causes the working end of an ultrasonic insert or tip to vibrate?
A) The voltage in the generator
B) The transducer contracting and expanding
C) The cavitation
D) Acoustic microstreaming
E) The wireless or wired foot pedal
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Chapter 28: Root Morphology and Instrumentation
Implications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The name of the condition when teeth within an arch are so crowded that two adjacent teeth contact each other on the root and are connected by cementum is:
A) gemination.
B) fusion.
C) concrescence.
D) dilaceration.
Q2) Which of the following teeth is most likely to have a facial and lingual root?
A) Maxillary lateral incisor
B) Mandibular canine
C) Maxillary first premolar
D) Mandibular first molar
Q3) Dentinal hypersensitivity may occur as a result of the removal of cementum during root instrumentation. The goal of root instrumentation is to remove all cementum.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Page 31
Chapter 29: Stain Management and Tooth Whitening
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Q1) Aerosols are generated with sonic and ultrasonic instrumentations. Aerosols can be effectively minimized with the use of a saliva ejector.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Intact enamel surfaces are not damaged when extrinsic stain removal is accomplished with the air polisher. However, prolonged use of air polishing on cementum and dentin can remove significant tooth structure and should be avoided.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) All of the following client conditions contraindicate tooth bleaching except:
A) hypertension.
B) pregnancy.
C) nursing mothers.
D) enamel cracks.
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Chapter 30: Decision Making Related to Nonsurgical
Periodontal Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long should PM continue for a client?
A) One year after initial therapy
B) Five years after active therapy
C) Until periodontal attachment loss is halted
D) Until 1 to 2 mm of clinical attachment level is gained
E) For the life of the dentition or its implant replacements
Q2) Which of the following nonsurgical periodontal therapies is appropriate for a client with early periodontitis?
A) Oral prophylaxis
B) Gingival curettage
C) Gingivectomy
D) Therapeutic scaling and periodontal debridement
E) Root planing
Q3) Periodontal diagnosis is determined by analyzing disease characteristics including all of the following except:
A) extent.
B) severity.
C) classification.
D) bleeding on probing.
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Chemotherapy for the Control of Periodontitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true regarding the active ingredient within an oral chemotherapeutic except:
A) responsible for reducing or altering the microbial pathogens.
B) equally effective across various delivery systems.
C) can be bactericidal or bacteriostatic.
D) oral antiseptics have received the most research attention.
Q2) What is the most effective antiplaque and antigingivitis OTC proprietary agent having received the ADA seal for therapeutic efficacy?
A) Atridox
B) Peridex
C) Listerine
D) Cepacol
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding the chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) chip?
A) Must be professionally removed
B) Marketed under the trade name Atridox
C) Suppresses bacteria for several weeks after release
D) Contraindicated for clients allergic to the tetracycline family of antibiotics
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Chapter 32: Acute Gingival and Periodontal Conditions,
Lesions of Endodontic Origin, and Avulsed Teeth
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are significant signs for endodontic lesions?
A) Inflammatory processes in the periodontium
B) Ulceration and necrosis of the interdental papillae
C) Occur in the palate
D) Occurs in chronic periodontitis
Q2) Which one of the following factors is most important in the emergency management of an avulsed tooth?
A) Handle only by the crown and do not dry the tooth
B) Store in tap water
C) Dental hygienist treatment
D) Dry the tooth
Q3) What are the signs and symptoms of gingival abscess?
A) Reddened tissue (marginal gingival), as well as swelling and pain
B) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
C) Occurrence in chronic periodontitis sites
D) Tooth mobility
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Chapter 33: Fluorides, Chlorhexidine, Amorphous Calcium
Phosphate, and Xylitol
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vertical caries transmission is from parent-to-child. Horizontal transmission is from person-to-person.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Randomized controlled clinical trials are the gold standard to test therapeutic interventions. The American Dental Association periodically releases recommendations gleaned only from evidence-based research.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) All of the following are true about the caries management process for all clients except:
A) early risk assessment of children and the education of mothers.
B) avoiding the use of sharp explorers on demineralized areas of teeth.
C) preventive professional application of fluoride every six months.
D) suppressing acidophilic oral microorganisms.
Page 36
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Chapter 34: Pit and Fissure Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Safety concerns of curing lights are:
A) the shield should be surface disinfected after use.
B) the operator and patient should never look directly at a curing light when in use.
C) a plastic barrier should be used on the tip.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Which preventive aid(s) is (are) not thoroughly effective in cleaning the pit and fissures of a tooth?
A) Toothbrushing
B) Fluoride
C) Flossing
D) All of the above
Q3) When applying a sealant material, use a small amount of material on the brush _____ the pits and fissures.
A) and dab into
B) and drag the material across
C) using a scrubbing motion apply to
D) using a sweeping motion apply to
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Chapter 35: Nutritional Counseling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutritional counseling is recommended before oral surgery for all of the following reasons except:
A) increase resistance to infection.
B) help meet the catabolic stresses of surgery.
C) increase wound healing.
D) instruct to eat a typical diet in the first few days after surgery.
Q2) What is the main disadvantage of using BMI as a measurement tool?
A) Does not account for the desire to gain or lose weight
B) Does not measure lean tissue in relation to fat
C) Not useful in determining if the client is underweight or overweight
D) Does not measure accurate weight in relation to height
Q3) Development of a comprehensive meal plan to meet individual needs of dental patients can only be provided by which of the following?
A) U.S. dietary guidelines
B) MyPlate
C) Registered dietitian
D) Registered dental hygienist
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Chapter 36: Tobacco Cessation
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true when it comes to arranging follow-up with a tobacco user except:
A) the hygienist checks in on where the clients are at in their thinking about quitting.
B) the RDH checks in on the progress in coping with the quitting process.
C) the RDH asks how many times the tobacco user has quit before.
D) for those clients with an unsuccessful quit attempt, modifications are made.
E) new goals may be set or a new quit date.
Q2) All of the following are key elements to assess in the intensive tobacco cessation treatment program except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Motivation to quit
B) Reasons for quitting
C) Previous quit attempts
D) Patterns of tobacco use
E) History of mood disorders
F) Thinking responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) From each symptom select the most closely linked appropriate custom-made oral appliance.
A) Snore guard
B) Oral surgical stent
C) Periodontal splint
D) Aligners
E) Night guard
F) Mouthguard
G) Whitening tray
1. Tooth whitening
2) Protection from health risks
3) Bruxism
4) Stabilization of mobile teeth
5) Treatment of sleep apnea
6) Orthodontic treatment
7) Implant placement
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Chapter 38: Restorative Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amalgam has what element as the largest amount?
A) Aluminum
B) Tin
C) Copper
D) Mercury
Q2) A Tofflemire retainer and metal matrix band would most likely be used to place what class of restoration?
A) II
B) III
C) IV
D) V
Q3) When placing a Class II restoration, a wedge is typically placed from the:
A) lingual.
B) buccal.
C) mesial.
D) distal.
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Chapter 39: Dental Hypersensitivity Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following would be good self-care recommendations for this client except which one?
A) Use a daily, self-applied fluoride mouth rinse.
B) Use a soft toothbrush.
C) Use a low-abrasive fluoride toothpaste for sensitive teeth.
D) Use an oral irrigation system.
Q2) All of the following factors from the client's assessment data might be the cause of gingival recession except which one?
A) Presence of carious lesions
B) Use of a hard toothbrush
C) Presence of abfraction
D) Presence of occlusal trauma
Q3) What term refers to the reduction of the dentinal tubule lumen as a result of the deposition of intratubular dentin?
A) Abfraction
B) Abrasion
C) Dentinal sclerosis
D) Attrition
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Chapter 40: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are advantages to the metallic breech loading Aspirating syringe except:
A) autoclavable.
B) weight.
C) visible cartridge.
D) long lasting with proper care.
Q2) Referring to the client in question 4 whose medical consult shows no contraindications to its use, what anesthetic would you chose for an appointment that is scheduled for 1 hour?
A) Articaine HCl 4% with epinephrine 1:100,000
B) Lidocaine HCl 2% with epinephrine 1:100,000
C) Mepivacaine HCl 3% with no epinephrine
Q3) Amide local anesthetics undergo biotransformation in the:
A) liver.
B) kidneys.
C) intestines.
D) nerve cell.
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Chapter 41: Nitrous Oxideoxygen Analgesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contraindications for nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia include:
1) breathing difficulties.
2) communication problems with the patient.
3) patient dislike of "laughing gas."
4) emotional instability.
5) hypertension.
6) early pregnancy.
A) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
B) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
E) All of the above
Q2) After the administration of nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia, oxygen alone should be given for a minimum of _____ minutes before the patient is released.
A) 1 to 3
B) 5
C) 7 to 8
D) 10
E) 12 to 15
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Page 44
Chapter 42: Persons With Disabilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clients with neuromuscular problems such as tremors, muscle spasms, or hyperflexive responses may require a stabilization device to ensure their safety during dental treatment. Since the immobilization device is not harming the client, it is not necessary to obtain informed consent from the client, parent, and or caregiver.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) All of the following client risks except one are associated with persons who are paralyzed from the waist down and who require wheelchair transfers into the dental chair. Which is the one exception?
A) Aspiration
B) Muscle spasms
C) Decubitus ulcers
D) Disruption of bladder and bowel elimination
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Chapter 43: Cardiovascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) An electronic stimulator used to send electrical currents to the myocardium to control or maintain the heart rate is known as a cardiac pacemaker or intracardiac device. Cardiac pacemakers vary in their sensitivity to electrical interferences that may alter or cease their function.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Clients at risk for infective endocarditis include those with all of the following except:
A) previous history of endocarditis.
B) artificial heart valves.
C) recent myocardial infarction.
D) heart transplant.
Q3) What is the most frequent form of heart disease leading to death?
A) Congenital heart disease
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Coronary heart disease
D) Valvular heart disease
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Chapter 44: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atherosclerotic disease is more common in which type of diabetes?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Gestational diabetes mellitus
D) Prediabetes
Q2) A common complication of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, is a result of which of the following?
A) Microvascular and macrovascular changes
B) Peripheral neuropathy
C) Retinopathy
D) Nephropathy
Q3) Which type of diabetes results from insulin resistance and a defect in insulin secretion?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
Q4) Dental hygiene care should not begin until the diabetic condition is controlled.
A)True
B)False
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Page 47
Chapter 45: Oral Care of Persons With Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals who practice good oral hygiene and home care reduce the risk and severity of oral complications associated with cancer therapy. Precancer therapy dental evaluation, medically necessary dental treatment, and good oral hygiene can prevent all oral complications.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) The choice of cancer treatment depends on the type and stage of cancer. All of the following are accepted cancer treatments except:
A) chemotherapy.
B) immunotherapy.
C) nutrition therapy.
D) radiation therapy.
Q3) The following are risk factors for oral squamous cell carcinoma except:
A) denture irritation.
B) tobacco.
C) alcohol.
D) old age.
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Page 48
Chapter 46: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) An HIV-positive woman presents for oral care. She has a line of red, inflamed gingiva, which is very painful when manipulated. This is most likely to represent:
A) cancrum oris.
B) necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
C) necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis.
D) linear gingival erythema.
E) herpesvirus.
F) aphthous ulcer.
G) Kaposi's sarcoma.
Q2) It is recommended that HIV-positive patients with periodontal disease receive dental hygiene care on which interval?
A) Monthly
B) Every 2 to 3 months
C) Every 3 to 6 months
D) Yearly
Q3) Most patients with HIV are unmotivated to preserve their oral health.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Persons With Neurologic and Sensory Deficits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individualized home dental care for a stroke client is most similar to that of the client with which other condition?
A) Arthritis
B) Diabetes
C) Epilepsy
D) Infective endocarditis
E) All of the above
Q2) What distinguishes Parkinson's disease from cerebral palsy?
A) Drooping of one corner of the mouth
B) Loss of postural stability
C) Muscular rigidity
D) Stooped posture with a slow, shuffling gait
E) Tremors
Q3) Which of the following is important when a hearing-impaired or deaf client is treated?
A) Speak slowly and articulate clearly the diagnosis and procedures needed.
B) Give patient a written recall card.
C) Establish communication preferences before working in the client's mouth.
D) Use visible expressions. Speak with your hands, your face, and your eyes.
E) All of the above are important.
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Chapter 48: Persons With Autoimmune Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which autoimmune disease most often presents with a painful, burning tongue and oral ulcerations?
A) Pemphigus vulgaris
B) Cicatricial pemphigoid
C) Sjögren's syndrome
D) Pernicious anemia
E) Scleroderma
Q2) Which of the following represents an unusual oral side effect of DMARDs?
A) Gingival bleeding
B) Ecchymosis
C) Herpes zoster
D) Blue-black pigmentation
E) Delayed wound healing
Q3) Daily fluoride therapy is often recommended for clients with autoimmune disease because, they are prone to xerostomi a.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 49: Renal Disease and Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of pretransplant candidates are people living with _____ disease.
A) heart
B) kidney
C) liver
D) lung
Q2) Secondary hyperparathyroidism is a serious complication affecting the:
A) thyroid gland.
B) kidneys.
C) nephrons.
D) parathyroid gland.
Q3) Secondary hyperparathyroidism is treated with any of the following except which one?
A) Dietary modifications with regard to phosphorus
B) Active vitamin D
C) Phosphorus binders
D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Q4) Renal dialysis is usually initiated as a maintenance treatment at stage 5 of chronic kidney disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 50: Respiratory Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major concern associated with treating a client with tuberculosis?
A) Disease transmission
B) Proper client positioning to avoid symptom exacerbation
C) Stress prevention
D) Use of local anesthesia with epinephrine
Q2) Which of the following classifications of medications is taken on a daily basis to achieve and maintain control of asthma?
A) Short-acting inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonists
B) Inhaled synthetic corticosteroids
C) Systemic corticosteroids
D) Inhaled antiasthmatics (mast cell stabilizers)
Q3) Children who are asthmatics should be closely monitored for malocclusion because of the correlation of posterior crossbite and which of the following conditions?
A) Mouth breathing
B) Bronchospasm
C) Deviated septum
D) Xerostomia
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Chapter 51: Cognitively and Developmentally Challenged
Persons
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Q1) Almost all clients with Down syndrome must be preoperatively medicated prior to dental treatment. When care requires a general anesthetic agent, a thorough health history review is imperative, and all possible needs should be met while the person is anesthetized.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Clients with Down syndrome are given the same treatment options as other clients. Treatment objectives must be limited simply because the client has Down syndrome.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Most children with ASD avoid communicating with:
A) facial expressions.
B) eye contact.
C) nonverbal communication.
D) all of the above.
Page 54
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Chapter 52: Alcohol and Substance Abuse Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the National Household Survey on Drug Abuse, the age reporting the highest drug use is:
A) 12 to 14.
B) 18 to 25.
C) 20 to 35.
D) 40 to 55.
E) 50 to 59.
Q2) Select all intraoral signs of marijuana use.
A) Extrinsic green stain
B) Halitosis
C) Bloodshot eyes
D) Slurred speech
Q3) Select all intraoral methamphetamine mouth signs.
A) Rampant decay
B) Xerostomia
C) Bruxism
D) Severe gingivitis
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Chapter 53: Eating Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following therapies for anorexia nervosa, which one of the interventions is likely a therapy included later in the client's recovery care plan?
A) Psychotherapy
B) Family counseling
C) Antidepressant medications
D) Physical fitness routine
E) Dental treatment
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the initial professional response of the dental hygienist whose client states that he or she has begun active treatment for an eating disorder?
A) Expect client will make steady progress with the disorder.
B) Commend the client for seeking therapy.
C) Suggest tooth prophylaxis for removal of stains.
D) Inform the client of evidence of dental trauma.
E) Tell the client to cease all purging behaviors.
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56
Chapter 54: Womens Health and the Health of Their
Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women and men experience similar signs of having a heart attack; therefore, it is important to be able to recognize these symptoms and get the proper help for your patient.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
Q2) All of the following are inappropriate ways to give babies pacifiers except:
A) dipping in sugar or honey to sooth/distract baby.
B) dipping in juice or soda to sooth/distract baby.
C) "cleaning" by rinsing with tap water before giving to the baby.
D) "cleaning" by putting in caregiver's mouth before giving to the baby.
Q3) Pregnant dental personnel should receive no greater than _____ rem during the gestation period.
A) 0.05
B) 0.5
C) 5.0
D) 0.55
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Chapter 55: The Older Adult
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are common age-related changes seen in teeth?
A) Occlusal surface wear as a result of long-term use
B) Increased enamel sensitivity due to tooth wear
C) Increase in reparative dentin that reduces tooth fracture
D) Increase in opacity and whiteness of teeth
Q2) For an older adult client needing considerable restorative dental care, which one of the following options is the best appointment scheduling?
A) Several, brief midmorning appointments
B) Several, brief late afternoon appointments
C) One long midafternoon appointment
D) One long appointment scheduled first in the morning
Q3) In addition to gestures and sign language, adaptations necessary for older patients with hearing decline include which of the following?
A) Large print pamphlets
B) Increased repetition in verbal and written communication
C) Increased volume in speech
D) Waiting room TV presentations for educational topics
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58
Chapter 56: Persons With Fixed and Removable Dental
Prostheses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Successful nutritional counseling with older adults can be accomplished if:
A) no major changes are made in food habits and preferences.
B) major changes are made in food habits and preferences.
C) food habits are broken.
D) preferences are ignored and only healthy foods are promoted.
Q2) To promote esthetics, control oral malodor, as well as to prevent and treat infections, persons with dentures need to:
A) visit their dentist annually.
B) ensure they have adequate nutrition.
C) use a mouth rinse daily.
D) maintain denture hygiene.
Q3) Older adults may consume fewer protein-rich or high-fiber foods because of:
A) dislike of their texture.
B) chewing difficulties.
C) lack of appetite.
D) desire to not gain weight.
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59
Chapter 57: Orofacial Clefts and Fractured Jaw
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Sample Questions
Q1) Orofacial clefts are one of the most common craniofacial congenital defects. The presence of an orofacial cleft most likely indicates the presence of a syndrome.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Embryologic development of the upper lip occurs during week:
A) 2.
B) 3.
C) 4.
D) 5.
E) 6.
Q3) During immobilization, dentifrices that are recommended to limit demineralization should contain potassium nitrate. Dentifrices aiding with tooth sensitivity should contain sodium fluoride.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Page 60
Chapter 58: Osseointegrated Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clear resin device containing holes used by the oral and maxillofacial surgeon (or periodontist) to maintain the angulation and the axis for drilling the bone and for placement of the fixture is called a(n):
A) surgical guide stent.
B) superstructure guide.
C) implant guide.
D) bone guide.
Q2) Periodontal probing should not be used as a routine procedure with dental implant clients because there is a possibility of disturbing the biologic seal that attaches the healthy peri-implant tissue to the titanium abutment. Periodontal probing can cause a local infection within the unattached sulci and lead to implant failure.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Chapter 59: Persons With Orthodontic Appliances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Orthodontic forces applied to a tooth must be light and maintained in order to do which of the following?
A) Hyalinize the bone on the pressure side of the tooth, enabling optimal tooth movement.
B) Produce undermining resorption on the pressure side of the tooth, enabling optimal tooth movement.
C) Produce frontal resorption on the pressure side of the tooth, enabling optimal tooth movement.
D) None of the above are correct.
Q2) Because the duration of a force is more important than the magnitude (strength) of the force applied, habits such as thumbsucking will not produce tooth movement unless practiced for at least how many hours per day?
A) 2
B) 6
C) 10
D) 12
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Chapter 60: Abuse and Neglect
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30 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23078
Sample Questions
Q1) Dental hygienists can assist victims of domestic violence by:
A) posing screening questions such as "Do you feel safe at home?" to the victim in the presence of the suspected perpetrator.
B) inviting the suspected perpetrator to be present during the medical history interview and oral examination of the victim.
C) continuing to question the victim despite denials of any issues to show your professional expertise on the matter and intimidate the victim into disclosing abuse.
D) discretely slipping domestic violence helpline brochures into the coat pocket or purse of the victim while he or she is not looking.
E) doing none of the above.
Q2) Which of the following maltreatment types comprise the greatest percentage of victims among children and elderly adults?
A) Physical abuse
B) Sexual abuse
C) Neglect
D) Emotional abuse
E) Verbal abuse
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63
Chapter 61: Palliative Oral Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Palliative care is a healthcare approach that improves the quality of life of patients and their families who face problems associated with life-limiting illnesses. Palliative care aims to prevent and relieve suffering by early identification, assessment, and treatment of pain and other types of physical, psychologic, emotional and spiritual distresses.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Topical corticosteroids must be used with caution in the treatment of mucositis, because they may increase the risk of aspiration pneumoni a.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 62: Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of client noncompliance are:
1) routinely tardy for scheduled appointments.
2) repeated appointment cancellations.
3) allowing radiographs whenever needed.
4) unwillingness to accept recommended treatment.
5) failure to use medications as prescribed.
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 2, 4, 5
C) 2, 4, 5, 3
D) 1, 3, 4, 5
Q2) Client nonadherence is a lack of cooperation with recommended oral healthcare. Nonadherence should only be documented when the client refuses recommended treatments.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 63: Career Planning and Job Searching
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be the best way to learn about a dental office's daily schedule and routine?
A) Complete an online search.
B) Read online reviews about the office.
C) Complete an office observation and interview.
D) Ask clients about the practice.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Sources for a professional mentor include:
A) former professors or instructors.
B) a past or present employer or supervisor.
C) close colleagues with whom one works.
D) members of a professional organization.
E) all of the above.
Q3) All of the following should be included on a résumé except:
A) name.
B) place of birth.
C) email address.
D) educational background.
E) work experience.
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Page 66
Chapter 64: Legal and Ethical Decision Making
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Q1) Which of the following are recommended risk management strategies for appropriately maintaining client records?
A) Entries should be accurate, concise, and written in black ballpoint pen.
B) Entries should include patient cancellations and late arrivals.
C) Errors can be erased or blacked out if corrections are clearly documented.
D) Both a and b are correct.
E) Options a, b, and c are correct.
Q2) As a practicing dental hygienist, you realize that during the care of a client you may have broken an instrument tip. The tip may be located somewhere in the oral cavity. You immediately inform the client of the situation, obtain his cooperation, and initiate the appropriate steps to resolve the problem. You clearly document the event in the client's chart. Which ethical principle is being followed?
A) Veracity
B) Justice
C) Beneficence
D) Autonomy
E) Fidelity
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