Pre-Nursing Studies Question
Bank
Course Introduction
Pre-Nursing Studies is an introductory course designed to prepare students for entry into nursing programs and allied health professions. The course covers fundamental topics such as human anatomy and physiology, medical terminology, basic microbiology, and nutrition, as well as foundational principles of patient care and healthcare ethics. Emphasis is placed on developing essential skills like effective communication, critical thinking, and problem-solving in healthcare settings. Additionally, students will explore the roles and responsibilities of nurses, the structure of healthcare systems, and the academic requirements needed for advancement in the nursing field. This course provides a comprehensive overview to ensure students are well-equipped for further nursing education and success in the healthcare environment.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Elaine N. Marie
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3446 Verified Questions
3446 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Appropriate response information is sent through efferent pathways. A)E B)A C)B
D)D
E)C
Answer: D
Q2) The coxal joint is most likely found in ________ region of the body.
A) hip
B) hand
C) foot
D) groin
Answer: A
Q3) Which cavity contains the bladder,some reproductive organs,and the rectum?
Answer: pelvic
Q4) Describe the opposing ways that the muscular system and integumentary system act as effectors in the regulation of body temperature.
Answer: The integument cools the body through sweat while the muscular system warms the body by shivering.
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the difference between potential and kinetic energy.
Answer: Potential energy is inactive stored energy that has potential to do work.Kinetic energy is energy in action.
Q2) What is the ratio of fatty acids to glycerol in triglycerides (neutral fats)?
A) 4:1
B) 3:1
C) 1:1
D) 2:1
Answer: B
Q3) The chemical symbol O=O means ________.
A) the atoms are double bonded
B) both atoms are bonded and have zero electrons in the outer orbit
C) zero equals zero
D) this is an ionic bond with two shared electrons
Answer: A
Q4) Covalent bonds are generally less stable than ionic bonds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plays a role in the synthesis of steroid-based hormones and proteins.
A)Microtubules
B)Nucleoli
C)Ribosomes
D)Endoplasmic reticulum
E)Nucleus
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following would not be restricted (limited)by low levels of ATP?
A) exocytosis
B) pinocytosis
C) phagocytosis
D) osmosis
Answer: D
Q3) Enzymes and proteins needed for cell division are synthesizes and put into place during G<sub>2</sub> phase.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The most common extracellular ion is ________.
Answer: sodium
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consists of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
A)Mucous membrane
B)Serous membrane
C)Cutaneous
D)Endothelium
Q2) The basic difference between dense irregular and dense regular connective tissues is in the amount of elastic fibers and adipose cells present.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Found lining the digestive and respiratory tracts.
A)Mucous membrane
B)Serous membrane
C)Cutaneous
D)Endothelium
Q4) Cartilage has good regenerative capacity,while most epithelial tissues do not.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain why an open wound would need a bed of granulation tissue for wound healing to occur.
Q6) How is epithelial tissue the opposite of connective tissue?
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Appearance of a permanent tan; bronzing.
A)Addison's disease
B)Jaundice
C)Pallor
D)Erythema
E)Cyanosis
Q2) Cells of the stratum spinosum have many interlocking desmosomes that will remain between the cells as they migrate to the stratum corneum.These cell junctions serve the body by ________.
A) preventing ultraviolet light from penetrating the deeper layers of the epidermis
B) allowing secretions like sweat or sebum to pass through
C) preventing mechanical stress or trauma from damaging the epidermis
D) stopping water loss and preventing dehydration
Q3) Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does?
A) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.
B) Perfectly round hair shafts result in wavy hair.
C) Gray hair is the result of hormonal action altering the chemical composition of melanin.
D) Air bubbles in the hair shaft cause straight hair.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Round or oval opening through a bone.
A)Spine
B)Trochanter
C)Facet
D)Foramen
E)Ramus
Q2) Area where bone longitudinal growth takes place.
A)Intramembranous ossification
B)Appositional growth
C)Epiphyseal line
D)Chondrocytes
E)Epiphyseal plate
Q3) Prevention of osteoporosis includes adequate intake of ________.
A) potassium and vitamin D
B) vitamin D and chloride
C) calcium, and vitamin E
D) calcium and vitamin D
Q4) What is found in a central (Haversian)canal?
Q5) Explain why swimming is not generally recommended as an exercise to prevent osteoporosis.
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The frontal bone articulates with the parietal bone by means of the sagittal suture.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The shallow socket of the shoulder joint restricts the movement of the humerus but does increase the stability of the joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the hyoid bone is not attached to another bone why is it so important?
Q4) Forms parts of the middle cranial fossa,dorsal walls of the orbits,and external walls of the skull.
A)B
B)E
C)D
D)A
E)C
Q5) How are the pectoral and pelvic girdles structurally different? How is this difference reflected in their functions?
Q6) What is the function of the lumbar curvature?
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synarthrotic joints ________.
A) characterize all cartilaginous joints
B) are found only in adults
C) have large joint cavities
D) are immovable joints
Q2) A friend finally completes a basement floor tiling project that required extensive time on his knees.Afterwards,knee pain took him to a doctor who diagnosed bursitis.Help explain to your friend what bursitis is and what can be done to relieve it.
Q3) Farhad begins typing his term paper on his new computer early one morning.After 8 hours of typing,he notices that his wrists are stiff and very sore.The next morning,Farhad begins to finish his paper,but soon finds his wrists hurt worse than last night.What is wrong?
Q4) Bending of the tip of the finger exhibits flexion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The only movement allowed between the first two cervical vertebrae is flexion.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How can osteoarthritis be treated?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myoglobin ________.
A) breaks down glycogen
B) is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP
C) produces the end plate potential
D) stores oxygen in muscle cells
Q2) Which of the following is true about smooth muscle?
A) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.
B) Smooth muscle has well-developed T tubules at the site of invagination.
C) Smooth muscle, in contrast to skeletal muscle, cannot synthesize or secrete any connective tissue elements.
D) Smooth muscle cannot stretch as much as skeletal muscle.
Q3) The enzyme ________ is present in the synaptic cleft.Its activity stops the neutotransmitters stimulation.
Q4) Bundle of muscle cells surrounded by a perimysium.
Q5) Only ________ muscle cells commonly branch.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh?
A) vastus medialis
B) iliopsoas and rectus femoris
C) soleus
D) biceps femoris
Q2) Damage to the ischiocavernosus muscle would have what effect?
Q3) Teres major muscle.
A)D
B)A
C)B
D)E
E)C
Q4) The soleus is a synergist of the gastrocnemius during plantar flexion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A pair of tweezers is a good example of a second-class lever.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Bodybuilders are known for their "great quads." Describe the quadriceps muscles.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?
A) size of action potentials
B) origin of the stimulus
C) type of stimulus receptor
D) frequency of action potentials
Q2) When one or more presynaptic neurons fire in rapid order it produces a much greater depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane than would result from a single EPSP; this event is called ________ summation.
Q3) Which of the following is true about the movement of ions across excitable living membranes?
A) Ions always move actively across membranes through leakage channels.
B) Sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes.
C) Ions always move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
D) Ions always move passively across membranes.
Q4) What are the basic divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
Q5) The synapse more common in embryonic nervous tissue than in adults is the
13
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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which brain nucleus is the body's "biological clock"?
A) lentiform nucleus
B) dorsomedial nucleus
C) subthalamic nucleus
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus
Q2) Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________.
A) fissures
B) ganglia
C) sulci
D) gyri
Q3) Which ventricle is continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
Q4) Which category of memory is involved when playing the piano?
A) motor
B) procedural
C) emotional
D) declarative
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Serves the senses of hearing and equilibrium.
A)Olfactory
B)Accessory
C)Abducens
D)Vagus
E)Vestibulocochlear
Q2) Turns the eyeball laterally.
A)Olfactory
B)Accessory
C)Abducens
D)Vagus
E)Vestibulocochlear
Q3) The meningeal branch of a spinal nerve actually reenters the vertebral canal to innervate the meninges and blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tactile corpuscle.
A)Pacinian corpuscle
B)Ruffini endings
C)Meissner corpuscle
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision.
A) oculomotor (III)
B) abducens (VI)
C) optic (II)
D) trochlear (IV)
Q2) Autonomic ganglia contain ________.
A) the cell bodies of motor neurons
B) both somatic afferent and efferent neurons
C) synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors
D) an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons
Q3) Describe three potential outcomes that result when a preganglionic axon reaches a sympathetic trunk ganglion.
Q4) The facial (VII),glossopharyngeal (IX),and vagus (X)nerves contain postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How is hypertension (high blood pressure)related to the ANS?
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fluid blockages cause glaucoma.
A)A
B)C
C)B
D)E
E)D
Q2) Select the statement below that is not true with regards to the process of light adaptation.
A) Visual acuity is diminished.
B) Retinal sensitivity decreases.
C) Rhodopsin is uncoupled from light transduction.
D) The activity of rods is reduced by rapid bleaching of rhodopsin.
Q3) An essential part of the maculae involved in static equilibrium is (are)the ________.
A) spiral organ (of Corti)
B) otoliths
C) cupula
D) scala media
Q4) Explain why prolonged periods of reading tire the eye muscles and result in eye strain.
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood is ________.
A) thyroid hormone
B) gonadotropic hormones
C) calcitonin
D) parathyroid hormone
Q2) Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the ________.
A) thyroid gland
B) thymus gland
C) adrenal medulla
D) pancreas
Q3) Thyroid hormone production requires the presence of both iodine and calcium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The parents of a 17-year-old boy are concerned about his height because he is only 5 feet tall and they are both close to 6 feet tall.After tests by their doctor,a certain hormone is prescribed for the boy.What is the probable diagnosis,and what hormone was prescribed? Why might the child still expect to reach his growth potential?
Q5) Define synergism in hormone interaction at target cells and give an example.
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Chapter 17: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A total WBC count and a differential WBC count have been ordered for Mrs.Johnson.What information is obtained from the differential count that the total count does not provide?
Q2) Higher viscosity of blood will increase the amount of stress placed on the heart while it is pumping.Viscosity of blood is highest when ________.
A) hemoglobin levels are lowest
B) plasma levels are highest
C) hematocrit is highest
D) HbA1C levels are lowest
Q3) Why is iron not stored or transported in its free form? In what form(s)is it stored or transported in blood?
Q4) If you centrifuge (spin)whole blood,you will find the red blood cells (erythrocytes)at the bottom of the tube and white blood cells atop them.This implies that ________.
A) red blood cells are larger than white blood cells
B) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells
C) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells
D) red blood cells have a greater density than white blood cells
Q5) List the most common causes of bleeding disorders.
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vessel(s)of the heart receive(s)blood from the right ventricle?
A) pulmonary trunk
B) aorta
C) pulmonary veins
D) venae cavae
Q2) Damage to the ________ causes heart block.
A) sinoatrial (SA) node
B) atrioventricular (AV) node
C) atrioventricular (AV) bundle
D) atrioventricular (AV) valves
Q3) The second heart sound is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
A) ventricular filling
B) isovolumetric relaxation
C) isovolumetric contraction
D) ventricular ejection
Q4) List the three vessels that bring oxygen-poor blood to the right atrium.Which regions of the body do they serve?
Q5) Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following describes the action of aldosterone except one.Which of the following does not describe the activity of aldosterone hormone?
A) It will result in higher sodium levels in the urine.
B) It promotes an increase in blood pressure.
C) It promotes an increase in sodium reabsorption from the kidney to the blood.
D) It will reduce urine output.
Q2) Supplies pelvic structures.
A)Inferior mesenteric artery
B)Internal iliac artery
C)Common hepatic artery
D)Renal artery
E)Aorta
Q3) Select the correct statement about blood flow.
A) It is relatively constant through all body organs.
B) Blood flow through the entire vascular system is proportional to cardiac output.
C) It is measured in mm Hg.
D) It is greatest where resistance is highest.
Q4) Define vasoconstriction and vasodilation.What is the mechanism of regulation?
Q5) What are the sounds of Korotkoff?
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Chapter 20: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peyer's patches are found in the distal portion of the ________.
A) large intestine
B) stomach
C) small intestine
D) esophagus
Q2) Small organs intimately associated with lymphatic vessels.
A)Peyer's patches
B)Lymph nodes
C)Thoracic duct
D)Lymph
E)Spleen
Q3) Which cells are the main "warriors" of the immune system?
A) basophils
B) macrophages
C) lymphocytes
D) monocytes
Q4) Where are the lymph node aggregations most dense?
Q5) Lymphatic capillaries are permeable to proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body
Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interferons ________.
A) are routinely used in nasal sprays for the common cold
B) are virus-specific, so that an interferon produced against one virus could not protect cells against another virus
C) act by increasing the rate of cell division
D) interfere with viral replication within cells
Q2) Choose the best description of an antigen.
A) part or a piece of a disease or pathogen
B) a particle that triggers the adaptive immunity
C) a particle (typically a foreign protein) that triggers inflammation
D) a chemical that enhances or modifies immune response
Q3) First line of defense.
A)Intact skin and mucous membranes
B)Inflammatory response and skin and mucous membranes
C)Inflammatory response
D)Immune response
Q4) What are some of the drawbacks of passive humoral immunity?
Q5) Failure of developing T cells to recognize self MHC during positive selection results in ________.
Q6) An autoimmune disease that severely impairs renal function is ________. Page 23
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Page 24
Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using spirometry,a patient discovers their forced expiratory volume (FEV)after the first second is 40%.What does this suggest?
A) exposure to asbestos
B) restrictive disease
C) obstructive pulmonary disease
D) healthy lungs
Q2) Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Increased temperature results in decreased O<sub>2</sub> unloading from hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which center is located in the pons?
A) inspiratory center
B) pacemaker neuron center
C) pontine respirator group (PRG)
D) expiratory center
Q5) How will the lungs compensate for an acute rise in the partial pressure of CO<sub>2</sub> in arterial blood?
25
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The circular folds of the small intestine enhance absorption by causing the chyme to spiral,rather than to move in a straight line,as it passes through the small intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The chief bile pigment is ________.
Q3) Your friend suffers from heartburn and was told that he should "stop drinking caffeinated coffee because it is acidic." Explain to your friend why this is good advice but explain the mistaken facts to him.
Q4) Mrs.Wong goes to the emergency room with the following symptoms: severe pain in the umbilical region,loss of appetite,nausea,and vomiting.While she was waiting to see a doctor,the pain moved to the lower right abdominal quadrant.What is the likely diagnosis and treatment?
Q5) Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of ________.
A) catabolism
B) fermentation
C) mastication
D) anabolism
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Chapter 24: Nutrition,metabolism,and Body Temperature Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conversion of fatty acids into acetyl groups.
A)beta oxidation
B)lipolysis
C)ketogenesis
D)lipogenesis
Q2) What is obesity,and what health problems accompany or follow its onset?
Q3) The ingestion of which nutrient type results in the greatest food-induced thermogenesis?
A) carbohydrates
B) vitamins
C) proteins
D) lipids
Q4) Heat-loss mechanisms do NOT include ________.
A) reducing activity
B) the evaporation of sweat
C) vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels
D) behavior measures such as wearing light, loose clothing
Q5) Define amino acid pool and explain how the pool is maintained even though we excrete amino acids daily.
Q6) What are the four mechanisms of heat exchange and how are they defined? Page 27
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excretion of dilute urine requires ________.
A) impermeability of the collecting tubule to water
B) the presence of ADH
C) relative permeability of the distal tubule to water
D) transport of sodium and chloride ions out of the descending nephron loop
Q2) Play a role in urine concentration.
A)Glomerular capillaries
B)Vasa recta
C)Afferent arterioles
D)Peritubular capillaries
E)Efferent arterioles
Q3) Select the correct statement about urinary system development.
A) The metanephric ducts will become the urethras.
B) The pronephros (first tubule system) develops during the tenth week of gestation.
C) The mesonephros will develop into the kidneys.
D) Kidneys develop from urogenital ridges.
Q4) List three substances that are abnormal urinary constituents and provide the proper clinical term for such abnormalities.
Q5) The presence of pus in the urine is a condition called ________.
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Chapter 26: Fluid,electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormones is important in the regulation of sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid?
A) erythropoietin
B) antidiuretic hormone
C) renin
D) aldosterone
Q2) Insufficient parathyroid hormone production in the body could result in ________.
A) muscle weakness
B) muscle twitching
C) kidney stones
D) cardiac arrhythmia
Q3) The regulation of sodium ________.
A) involves hypothalamic osmoreceptor detection of ion concentration
B) is due to specific sodium receptors in the hypothalamus
C) is linked to blood pressure
D) involves aldosterone, a hormone that increases sodium excretion in the kidneys
Q4) What is the effect of acidosis on the body? Of alkalosis?
Q5) List and describe three stimuli that activate the hypothalamic thirst center.
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Chapter 27: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All but one of the following statements is true of uterine function.Select the statement that is not true of uterine function.
A) The endometrium has a functional layer that the embryo will implant into.
B) Its rhythmic, reverse peristalsis can propel sperm toward the egg.
C) The narrow portion of the uterus near the cervix is the most typical site of fertilization.
D) The myometrium contracts to expel the fetus during child birth.
Q2) The midpiece of the sperm tail contains mostly ________.
Q3) The duct system of the male reproductive system includes all but which of the following?
A) epididymis
B) ductus deferens
C) urethra
D) corpus spongiosum
Q4) Prostate cancer is ________.
A) sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient
B) the number-one cause of death in men
C) often the result of a distortion of the urethra
D) most common in Asians
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Chapter 28: Pregnancy and Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnancy test involves antibodies that detect growth hormone (GH)levels in a woman's blood or urine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mrs.Phang,eight months pregnant with her first child,makes an appointment with her obstetrician to investigate the cause of vaginal bleeding.Because it is actually more "spotting" than frank bleeding,and painless,she is becoming worried.Ultrasound visualization of her abdomen shows that the placenta is formed across the internal os of the cervix,and she is ordered to her bed for the remainder of the pregnancy.What name is given to Mrs.Phang's condition? Why is it an extremely serious condition? Why was she ordered to have complete bed rest for the remainder of her pregnancy?
Q3) In fetal circulation,one way in which blood bypasses the nonfunctional lungs is by way of the foramen ovale.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Of the three germ layers,the mesoderm forms the most body parts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define Braxton Hicks contractions.
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Chapter 29: Heredity
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120 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Is the trait dominant or recessive?
Q2) Inheritance that results in continuous or qualitative phenotypic variations between two extremes; an example is skin color.
A)Sex-linked inheritance
B)Polygenic inheritance
C)Dominant-recessive inheritance
D)Multiple-allele inheritance
E)Incomplete dominance
Q3) Identify,by numbers,any known carriers.
Q4) Assume that brown eyes (B)are dominant over blue (b); and right-handedness (R)is dominant over left-handedness (r).A brown-eyed,right-handed man marries a blue-eyed,right-handed woman.Their first child is brown-eyed and right-handed,and their second child is blue-eyed and left-handed.What are the genotypes of the parents?
Q5) A patient is heterozygous for sickle-cell anemia.Explain why the patient would have few or no symptoms of sickle-cell anemia.
Q6) The X and Y chromosomes are considered the ________ chromosomes.
Q7) A cross of two second-generation,straight-shorthaired individuals would yield what phenotype?
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