Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology Lab
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology Lab offers students a hands-on exploration of human body systems, providing foundational skills essential for nursing studies. Through interactive laboratory activities, students examine anatomical structures using models, specimens, and microscopy, and investigate physiological processes such as circulation, respiration, digestion, and neuromuscular function. Emphasis is placed on practical techniques, safety protocols, and applications relevant to nursing practice, preparing students to confidently advance into more rigorous nursing coursework and clinical experiences.
Recommended Textbook
Visual Anatomy and Physiology Lab Manual Main Version 2nd Edition by Stephen N. Sarikas
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2
Chapter 1: Body Organization and Terminology
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Q1) ________ serous membranes line the walls of cavities,whereas ________ serous membranes cover the surfaces of internal organs.
A) Parietal; visceral
B) Visceral; parietal
C) Pericardial; peritoneal
D) Pleural; visceral
Answer: A
Q2) The ________ system is responsible for processing food and the absorption of nutrients,minerals,vitamins,and water.
A) digestive
B) cardiovascular
C) urinary
D) integumentary
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Care and Use of the Compound Light
Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the coarse adjustment knob is turned,the stage (or in some cases the nosepiece)________.
A) remains stationary
B) moves forward or backward
C) moves up or down, depending on the direction that the knob is turned
D) moves left or right, depending on the direction that the knob is turned
Answer: C
Q2) All microscope lenses should be cleaned with ________.
A) lens paper
B) tissue paper
C) paper
D) paper towels
Answer: A
Q3) If a microscope is ________,then the user will not have to make adjustments to focus the specimen when switching between objective lenses.
A) compound
B) binocular
C) parfocal
D) monocular
Answer: C
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is the period of time when the cell is not dividing.
A) Anaphase
B) Prophase
C) Interphase
D) Metaphase
Answer: C
Q2) ________ are abundant along the plasma membrane of the cells of the small intestine,increasing surface area the absorption of nutrients.
A) Mitochondria
B) Microvilli
C) Lysosomes
D) Peroxisomes
Answer: B
Q3) The plasma membrane contains ________.
A) cholesterol
B) phospholipids
C) phospholipids and cholesterol
D) phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Membrane Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which temperature would the rate of diffusion of dye molecules be the highest?
A) 95 degrees C
B) 5 degrees C
C) 25 degrees C
D) 10 degrees C
Q2) ________ transport requires the input of energy,whereas ________ transport does not.
A) Active; membrane
B) Passive; active
C) Active; passive
D) Membrane; passive
Q3) A ________ is a substance that dissolves when added to a solvent.
A) molecule
B) buffer
C) solute
D) compound
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Q1) ________ is the discipline dedicated to the study of tissues.
A) Physiology
B) Biology
C) Anatomy
D) Histology
Q2) The ________ is composed of a cell body and two types of cellular processes: dendrites and an axon.
A) erythrocyte
B) neuron
C) leukocyte
D) glial cell
Q3) ________ tissue exhibits the characteristics of excitability,contractility,and elasticity.
A) Connective
B) Nervous
C) Muscle
D) Epithelial
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Q1) Perspiration cools the body by ________.
A) the retention of water from merocrine sweat glands on the surface of the skin
B) the evaporation of water from apocrine sweat glands on the surface of the skin
C) the retention of water from apocrine sweat glands on the surface of the skin
D) the evaporation of water from merocrine sweat glands on the surface of the skin
Q2) The two regions of the skin are the ________.
A) epidermis and dermis
B) stratum basale and epidermis
C) epidermis and hypodermis
D) dermis and hypodermis
Q3) The patterns found in fingerprints are produced by ________.
A) projection of the dermal papillae into the epidermis
B) projection of the hypodermis into the epidermis
C) projection of the epidermis into the hypodermis
D) projection of the hypodermis into the dermis
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8
Chapter 7: Introduction to the Skeletal System and the Axial
Skeleton
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Q1) What type of bone is the sternum?
A) irregular
B) flat
C) sutural
D) sesamoid
Q2) Tarsal bones belong in which classification?
A) short
B) flat
C) sesamoid
D) sutural
Q3) Which bone is found within the pelvis?
A) ilium
B) radius
C) tibia
D) humerus
Q4) The optic canal is found in which of the following bones?
A) sphenoid
B) maxilla
C) frontal
D) lacrimal
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following wrist bones is located in the proximal row?
A) capitate
B) trapezoid
C) trapezium
D) pisiform
Q2) Which of the following tarsal bones form the heel?
A) cuboid
B) talus
C) calcaneus
D) navicular
Q3) What is the roughened surface on the humerus where the deltoid muscle attaches?
A) medial epicondyle
B) deltoid tuberosity
C) capitulum
D) lateral epicondyle
Q4) Which of the following carpal bones articulates with a metacarpal bone?
A) pisiform
B) trapezium
C) lunate
D) scaphoid
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Q1) Which pair of sutures meet at the sphenoidal fontanel?
A) coronal and squamous
B) coronal and sagittal
C) lambdoid and sagittal
D) lambdoid and squamous
Q2) The movement of the thumb so that it passes directly across the palmar surface of your hand is known as ________ of the thumb.
A) abduction
B) adduction
C) flexion
D) opposition
Q3) Which of the following ligaments is Y-shaped and strengthens the anterior aspect of the hip joint?
A) pubofemoral
B) ischiofemoral
C) iliofemoral
D) acetabular labrum
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11
Chapter 10: Introduction to Skeletal Muscle
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Q1) The release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in response to an action potential is known as ________.
A) power stroke
B) sliding filament theory
C) tropomyosin
D) excitation-contraction coupling
Q2) What is the anatomical name for the tube-like structures that are open to the surface of the sarcolemma and form a portion of a triad?
A) cisternae
B) myofibril
C) sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) T-tubules
Q3) Which of the following is a globular protein that binds to calcium?
A) tropomyosin
B) troponin
C) actin
D) myosin
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12
Chapter 11: Muscles of the Head, Neck, and Trunk
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Q1) Describe the relationship between the origin and insertion of a muscle.
A) The origin remains fixed and the insertion moves toward the origin during contraction.
B) Both the origin and insertion move when a muscle contracts.
C) The insertion remains fixed and the origin moves toward the origin during contraction.
D) There is no relationship between the origin and insertion.
Q2) ________ attach muscles to bones.
A) Cartilages
B) Cords
C) Tendons
D) Ligaments
Q3) The diaphragm ________.
A) originates and inserts on the ribs
B) is the primary muscle of respiration
C) elevates the ribs
D) depresses the ribs
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13
Chapter 12: Muscles of the Upper and Lower Limbs
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Q1) Sending a text message to your roommate would be impossible without the actions of ________.
A) the muscles of the anterior forearm
B) the muscles of the posterior component of the arm
C) the intrinsic muscles of the hand
D) the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm
Q2) The muscles of the posterior thigh (hamstrings)share a common ________.
A) insertion (on the ischial tuberosity)
B) origin (on the ischial tuberosity)
C) insertion (on the lateral side of the fibular head)
D) origin (lateral side of the fibular head)
Q3) Based on the name gluteus maximus,which of the following statements about the muscle is true?
A) This is the smallest muscle of the femoral region.
B) This is the largest muscle of the gluteal region.
C) This is the intermediate muscle of the gluteal region.
D) This is the largest muscle of the femoral region.
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Chapter 13: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Q1) Isotonic muscle contractions differ from isometric contractions because isotonic contractions ________.
A) result in lengthening of the muscle
B) involve movement of the muscle and body structures
C) do not involve shortening of a muscle
D) result in shortening of the muscle
Q2) Which activity will result in the recruitment of the highest number of motor units?
A) lifting a 10-lb barbell
B) lifting a 2-lb barbell
C) lifting a 25-lb barbell
D) lifting a 5-lb barbell
Q3) Of the activities listed below,which relies primarily on isometric contractions?
A) answering the telephone
B) bending down to pick up a textbook
C) throwing a ball
D) sitting in an upright position
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Chapter 14: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) What group of cells provides support and protection for neurons?
A) oligodendrocytes
B) Schwann cells
C) ependymal cells
D) glial cells (or neuroglia)
Q2) Which of the following types of neurons serves as motor neurons for voluntary and involuntary movements?
A) bipolar neurons
B) anaxonic neurons
C) unipolar neurons
D) multipolar neurons
Q3) ________ contains mostly myelinated axons,whereas ________ contains cell bodies,dendrites,and unmyelinated axon fibers.
A) White matter; gray matter
B) White matter; cerebral medulla
C) Gray matter; white matter
D) Cerebral cortex; white matter
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16
Chapter 15: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) The ________ is the fold of the dura mater that separates the cerebral hemispheres.
A) falx cerebelli
B) endosteal layer
C) falx cerebri
D) tentorium cerebelli
Q2) What is the structure that is responsible for secreting the hormone melatonin?
A) pineal gland
B) cingulate gyrus
C) mammillary body
D) medulla oblongata
Q3) Cerebrospinal fluid produced in the lateral ventricles flows next to the ________.
A) third ventricle
B) choroid plexus
C) fourth ventricle
D) cerebral aqueduct of the midbrain
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Chapter 16: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) The bony structure that encloses and protects the spinal cord is called the
A) cauda equina
B) conus medullaris
C) dura mater
D) vertebral canal
Q2) The ________ connect(s)the pia mater to the dura mater of the spinal cord.
A) denticulate ligaments
B) conus medullaris
C) spinal nerves
D) filum terminale
Q3) What is the role of the adipose tissue in the epidural space?
A) The adipose tissue conducts nerve impulses.
B) The adipose tissue in the epidural cushions dura mater and protects the nerves and blood vessels that it surrounds.
C) The adipose tissue of the epidural space produces myelin.
D) There is no known function of the adipose tissue in the epidural space.
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18
Chapter 17: Human Reflex Physiology
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Q1) A ________ is an automatic,involuntary,and predictable response to a stimulus.
A) reflex
B) plexus
C) effector
D) neuron
Q2) The sensory and motor impulses of a reflex follow a specific pathway that consists of a sensory receptor sensory neuron,integration center,motor neuron,and effector organ.This pathway is known as a ________.
A) muscle spindle
B) reflex
C) stretch reflex
D) reflex arc
Q3) Which element of a reflex arc is responsible for carrying out an action in response to a stimulus?
A) motor neuron
B) effector organ
C) sensory receptor
D) sensory neuron
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19
Chapter 18: Special Senses
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Q1) The ________ of the eye contains the pigmented cells that are responsible for eye color.
A) lens
B) cornea
C) cones
D) iris
Q2) Which of the following connects the olfactory bulbs to the olfactory area of the cerebrum?
A) olfactory receptor cells
B) supporting cells
C) olfactory tracts
D) olfactory glands
Q3) The ________ is the innermost layer of the eye and it contains photoreceptor cells (rods and cones).
A) retina
B) cornea
C) lens
D) sclera
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Chapter 19: The Endocrine System
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Q1) A young child was brought to the hospital with multiple bone breaks.It is determined that the child's osteoclasts are overactive.Which hormone is most likely to be elevated?
A) natriuretic peptide
B) thyroxine
C) calcitonin
D) parathyroid hormone
Q2) A 22-year-old female is given the results of her blood test and she notices that her calcium levels are high.Which of the following hormones is most likely to be elevated?
A) calcitonin
B) thyroid-stimulating hormone
C) parathyroid hormone
D) prolactin
Q3) Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH)produced?
A) pituitary
B) pineal gland
C) adrenal medulla
D) hypothalamus
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21
Chapter 20: Blood Cells
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Q1) Which formed element of blood is involved in clotting?
A) granulocytes
B) red blood cells
C) agranulocytes
D) platelets
Q2) A fellow student has an allergy to grass pollen.Which of the following leukocytes is most active in this student during an allergic reaction?
A) neutrophils
B) monocytes
C) eosinophils
D) basophils
Q3) Which of the following is the measure of the percentage of formed elements in the blood?
A) platelets
B) hemoglobin concentration
C) hematocrit
D) anemia
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Chapter 21: Gross Anatomy of the Heart
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Q1) What are the only arteries that carry oxygen-poor blood in the body?
A) circumflex artery
B) posterior interventricular artery
C) coronary arteries
D) pulmonary arteries
Q2) A blockage in which artery will most likely cause damage in the posterolateral wall of the left ventricle?
A) anterior interventricular artery
B) right marginal artery
C) left marginal artery
D) posterior interventricular artery
Q3) What is the name of the area within the thoracic cavity where the heart is located?
A) fossa ovalis
B) auricle
C) mediastinum
D) thoracic cavity
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Chapter 22: Anatomy of Blood Vessels
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Q1) A patient has shortness of breath,is experiencing severe chest pain,and is coughing up bloody sputum.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) varicose veins
B) atherosclerosis
C) venipuncture
D) pulmonary embolism
Q2) An athlete decides to run 10 miles at noon during the hottest day of the summer.Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur?
A) atherosclerosis
B) vasodilation
C) varicose veins
D) vasoconstriction
Q3) Which type of blood vessel possesses valves?
A) elastic arteries
B) arterioles
C) muscular arteries
D) veins
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Q1) A heartbeat begins with an electrical impulse generated by the ________.
A) sinoatrial (SA) node
B) Purkinje fibers
C) atrioventricular (AV) bundle
D) atrioventricular (AV) node
Q2) The artery at the pulse point found on the anterior surface of the lateral wrist is the ________.
A) radial artery
B) external carotid artery
C) popliteal artery
D) femoral artery
Q3) Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between recovery time and physical fitness?
A) Shorter recovery time equates to better physical fitness.
B) Shorter recovery time equates to poor physical fitness.
C) Longer recovery time equates to better physical fitness.
D) There is no relationship between recovery time and physical fitness.
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Chapter 24: The Lymphatic System
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Q1) Thymosins ________.
A) facilitate the production of mature T cells
B) phagocytize abnormal red blood cells
C) engulf pathogens
D) defend the body against viral pathogens
Q2) The lymph nodes ________.
A) phagocytize damaged red blood cells
B) are located only in the neck
C) produce thymosins
D) filter lymph before it is returned to the blood
Q3) White and red pulp are functional components of the ________.
A) thymus
B) lymphatic nodules
C) spleen
D) lymph nodes
Q4) The ________ system defends the body against infection and disease.
A) urinary
B) cardiovascular
C) lymphatic
D) reproductive
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Chapter 25: Anatomy of the Respiratory System
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Q1) The lungs are located in the ________ on either side of the heart.
A) plural cavities
B) pelvic cavity
C) abdominal cavity
D) thoracic cavity
Q2) The vocal cords are located in the ________.
A) trachea
B) esophagus
C) larynx
D) pharynx
Q3) The ________,or windpipe,delivers air to the bronchial tree.
A) glottis
B) pharynx
C) larynx
D) trachea
Q4) Which of the pharyngeal regions is most closely associated with the oral cavity?
A) nasopharynx
B) oropharynx
C) trachea
D) laryngopharynx
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Physiology
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Q1) The maximum amount of air that a person can exhale after a forced inhalation is called ________.
A) expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
B) inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
C) vital capacity (VC)
D) inspiratory capacity (IC)
Q2) The ________ is the primary inspiratory muscle in the body.
A) serratus anterior
B) rectus abdominis
C) diaphragm
D) internal oblique
Q3) If the volume of an enclosed space increases,how does the pressure of the gas in the space change?
A) The pressure of the gas will decrease.
B) The pressure of the gas will remain constant.
C) The pressure of the gas will increase.
D) Boyle's law can't be used to explain the behavior of the gas.
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28
Chapter 27: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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Q1) What is the name of the membranous fold that connects the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity?
A) vestibule
B) labial frenula
C) lingual frenulum
D) palate
Q2) Which organ is the only organ connected to the anterior body wall by a mesentery in the adult?
A) liver
B) transverse colon
C) stomach
D) small intestine
Q3) Which is the most superior region of the stomach?
A) fundic region (or fundus)
B) cardiac region
C) body
D) pyloric region
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29
Chapter 28: Actions of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) When starch is digested by amylase what is the first breakdown product?
A) dextrin
B) glucose
C) amylose
D) sucrose
Q2) The breakdown of amylopectin in the presence of amylase and maltase will result in which of the following products?
A) galactose
B) glucose
C) sucrose
D) fructose
Q3) Which of the following is a polysaccharide?
A) starch
B) glucose
C) sucrose
D) maltose
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Chapter 29: Anatomy of the Urinary System
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Q1) What is the innermost tissue layer of a ureter?
A) connective tissue layer
B) mucous membrane
C) lamina propria
D) smooth muscle layer
Q2) What are the urine-producing tubules of the kidney called?
A) renal pelvis
B) renal medulla
C) renal cortex
D) nephrons
Q3) What is the name of the tube that travels through the shaft of the penis?
A) membranous urethra
B) prostatic urethra
C) ureter
D) spongy urethra
Q4) What structure drains directly into a minor calyx?
A) papillary duct
B) collecting duct
C) proximal convoluted tubule
D) glomerular capsule
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Urinary Physiology
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Q1) A patient's urine tests positive for large blood proteins and red blood cells.Which of the following conditions might the person have?
A) glomerulonephritis
B) ketonuria
C) diabetes mellitus
D) bilirubinuria
Q2) In which part of the nephron are excess ions removed from the blood?
A) glomerulus
B) proximal convoluted tubule
C) loop of Henle
D) distal convoluted tubule
Q3) Which of the following foods might turn urine dark brown?
A) blackberries
B) carrots
C) asparagus
D) rhubarb
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Chapter 31: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following tubes has both reproductive and urinary functions?
A) ejaculatory duct
B) epididymis
C) ductus deferens
D) urethra
Q2) Contractions of the dartos muscle ________.
A) wrinkle the skin that covers the scrotum
B) bring the testes closer to the body when body temperature increases
C) result in the ejection of sperm from the penis
D) draw the testes away from the body when temperature decreases
Q3) The ________ is a fibrous capsule that covers each testis.
A) scrotal cavity
B) rete testis
C) tunica albuginea
D) serous membrane
Q4) The regions of the penis are ________.
A) the body and the glans
B) the root and the glans
C) the root and the body
D) the root, the body, and the glans
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Chapter 32: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Which reproductive accessory organ serves as the birth canal and receives semen during intercourse?
A) uterine (fallopian) tubes
B) ovary
C) vagina
D) uterus
Q2) Which accessory organ delivers the oocyte or embryo to the uterus?
A) vagina
B) ovary
C) uterus
D) uterine (fallopian) tube
Q3) Which phase of the uterine cycle is characterized by degradation of the functional zone?
A) uterine phase
B) menstrual phase
C) proliferative phase
D) secretory phase
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Page 34