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Practical Nursing is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the essential knowledge, skills, and clinical competencies necessary for entry-level nursing practice. The curriculum covers foundational topics such as human anatomy and physiology, pharmacology, nutrition, mental health, and principles of patient care. Through hands-on laboratory sessions and supervised clinical placements, students gain experience in patient assessment, medication administration, wound care, and effective communication with patients, families, and healthcare teams. Emphasis is placed on ethical and legal aspects of nursing practice, infection control, and the promotion of health and wellness across the lifespan, preparing graduates to succeed as vital members of healthcare teams in diverse settings.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 3rd Edition by Barbara L. Herlihy
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Q1) The thigh is ___________ to the foot.
A) distal
B) proximal
C) inferior
D) deep Answer: B
Q2) The thoracic cavity is ___________ to the abdominopelvic cavity.
A) deep
B) distal
C) anterior
D) superior
Answer: D
Q3) This area is inferior to the diaphragm.
A) axillary
B) inguinal
C) occipital
D) cervical
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following illustrates antacid activity?
A) NaCl --> Na + Cl
B) HCl --> H + Cl
C) Mg(OH) + HCl --> MgCl + H O
D) KCl ---> K + Cl
Answer: C
Q2) The heart pushes blood into the blood vessels as chemical energy is converted to this form of energy.
A) thermal
B) radiant
C) mechanical
D) nuclear
Answer: C
Q3) An atom has 1 proton,0 neutrons,and 1 electron;its isotope has
A) 2 electrons and 0 neutrons.
B) 2 protons and 2 neutrons.
C) 1 proton and 1 neutron.
D) 2 protons and 0 neutrons.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane.Compartment A contains a 20% NaCl solution while compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution.The membrane is permeable to both water and Na and Cl-.Initially,
A) Na and Cl- diffuse from compartment B to compartment A.
B) water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A.
C) Na and Cl- diffuse from compartment A to compartment B.
D) Na diffuses from compartment A to compartment B while Cl- diffuses from compartment B to compartment A.
Answer: A
Q2) A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane.Compartment A contains a 20% NaCl solution while compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution.The membrane is permeable to water but not to Na or Cl .Initially, A) water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. B) Na diffuses from compartment B to compartment A.
C) Na diffuses from compartment A to compartment B.
D) water diffuses from compartment A to compartment B.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following is a double-stranded nucleic acid that is called the "blueprint for life"?
A) urea
B) DNA
C) gene
D) RNA
Q2) Which of the following describes the breakdown of glucose to lactic acid?
A) aerobic
B) Krebs cycle
C) glycolysis
D) gluconeogenesis
Q3) Which of the following is (are)produced by the rapid and incomplete breakdown of fatty acids?
A) acetone and ketoacids
B) lactic acid
C) amino acids
D) urea
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Q1) Which of the following is defined as a disease-producing microorganism?
A) normal flora
B) pathogen
C) arthropod
D) parasite
Q2) Which of the following is least descriptive of Treponema pallidum?
A) causes syphilis
B) classified as a bacterium
C) is most often spread by the fecal-oral route
D) is a spirochete
Q3) Which of the following is least descriptive of Candida albicans?
A) causative organism of impetigo
B) fungal infection
C) yeast infection
D) antibiotic-induced superinfection
Q4) Which of the following is most related to the "rusty nail" infection?
A) clostridium
B) mycotic
C) viral
D) parasitic
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Q1) In which of the following are intercalated discs found?
A) blood
B) ligaments
C) cardiac muscle
D) neurons
Q2) Which type of membrane lines the ventral body cavities that are not open to the exterior of the body?
A) serous membrane
B) mucous membrane
C) synovial membrane
D) meninges
Q3) Which of the following is true of an exocrine gland?
A) made of connective tissue
B) secretes hormones
C) secretes its products to the outside or onto a surface
D) only secretes sweat
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Q1) Which of the following is a consequence of a congenital absence of eccrine glands?
A) jaundice
B) vitiligo
C) acne vulgaris
D) inability to regulate body temperature
Q2) Which type of gland secretes vernix caseosa in the fetus?
A) sudoriferous
B) apocrine
C) eccrine
D) sebaceous
Q3) Anticancer drugs often cause hair loss,a condition called A) alopecia.
B) hirsutism.
C) vitiligo.
D) keratinization.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myelosuppression affects this structure.
A) articular cartilage
B) bone marrow
C) haversian system
D) epiphyseal disc
Q2) Which of the following bones is not located in the lower limbs?
A) femur
B) tibia
C) ulna
D) tarsal
Q3) What is the name of the "soft spots" in a baby's skull?
A) sinuses
B) fontanels
C) synovial joints
D) sutures
Q4) The maxilla
A) is the cheekbone.
B) is a cranial bone.
C) contains the upper teeth.
D) articulates with the temporal bone at the TMJ.
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Q1) Where is the vastus lateralis located?
A) upper arm
B) thigh
C) chest
D) back
Q2) "Pumping iron" is most likely to cause
A) atrophy.
B) contracture formation.
9-PAGE 5
Test Bank
C) hypertrophy.
D) muscular dystrophy.
Q3) With regard to skeletal muscle contraction,which event comes last?
A) shortening of the sarcomere
B) release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) activation of the NM receptors by ACh
D) release of neurotransmitter (ACh)from the somatic motor neuron
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Q1) What is the term applied to the inability of a neuron to accept a stimulus while the neuron is still depolarized?
A) repolarization
B) threshold potential
C) resting membrane potential
D) refractory period
Q2) Which of the following is located within the subarachnoid space?
A) blood
B) lymph
C) cerebrospinal fluid
D) cytoplasm
Q3) Which of the following structures brings information toward the cell body?
A) dendrites
B) axons
C) nodes of Ranvier
D) axon terminals
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Q1) Ptosis of the eyelid and dilated and fixed pupils reflect pressure on this nerve.
A) optic
B) vagus
C) oculomotor
D) facial
Q2) Which of the following nerves is often "deadened" or anesthetized for the purpose of childbirth?
A) pudendal
B) sciatic
C) cauda equina
D) phrenic
Q3) Which of the following is the major motor tract?
A) cauda equina
B) spinocerebellar
C) pyramidal
D) spinothalamic
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Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) adrenergic receptors:alpha,beta
B) cholinergic receptors:muscarinic,nicotinic
C) neurotransmitters:norepinephrine,ACh,dopamine
D) sympathetic responses:decreased blood pressure,decreased heart rate,anxiety
Q2) Paravertebral ganglia
A) are part of the craniosacral outflow.
B) "drive" the vagus nerve.
C) are located within the organs of innervation.
D) are also called the sympathetic chain ganglia.
Q3) Alpha and beta receptors are
A) associated with the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) associated with craniosacral outflow.
C) located on the paravertebral ganglia.
D) activated by norepinephrine.
Q4) Which of the following is least descriptive of thoracolumbar outflow?
A) fight or flight
B) muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
C) sympathetic nervous system
D) paravertebral ganglia

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least related to the retina?
A) rods and cones
B) fovea centralis
C) cornea
D) macula lutea
Q2) What is the function of the vestibule and the semicircular canals?
A) hearing
B) smell
C) balance
D) touch and pressure
Q3) Which group is incorrect?
A) tunics of the eyeball:sclera,choroid,retina
B) general senses:pain,temperature,touch,pressure,proprioception
C) special senses:hearing,sight,smell,taste,balance
D) errors of refraction:myopia,farsightedness,astigmatism,glaucoma
Q4) The sclera
A) is the outer layer of the eyeball.
B) contains the rods and cones.
C) secretes aqueous humor.
D) is the attachment site for the suspensory ligaments.
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Q1) Cretinism,myxedema,and Graves' disease are all
A) thyroid hormone-deficiency diseases.
B) thyroid hormone disorders due to oversecretion of thyroxine.
C) calcium imbalances due primarily to the lack of calcitonin.
D) disorders of thyroid gland function.
Q2) Catecholamines
A) include cortisol,aldosterone,and testosterone.
B) are secreted by the adrenal cortex.
C) lower plasma glucose.
D) include epinephrine (adrenalin)and norepinephrine.
Q3) Which of the following steroids is an androgen?
A) progesterone
B) testosterone
C) estrogen
D) aldosterone
Q4) Lactogenic hormone
A) is also called oxytocin.
B) is a gonadotropin.
C) stimulates the mammary glands to make milk.
D) exerts its greatest effect on the gonads.
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Q1) This type of blood is called the universal donor.
A) O
B) AB
C) A
D) B
Q2) Leukocytosis and leukopenia are
A) increased numbers of white blood cells.
B) decreased numbers of white blood cells.
C) abnormal numbers of white blood cells.
D) the result of myelosuppression.
Q3) TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
A) prevents blood coagulation.
B) causes thrombocytopenia.
C) dissolves blood clots.
D) prevents the formation of a platelet plug.
Q4) Which type of blood is called the universal recipient?
A) O
B) AB
C) A
D) B
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Q1) Vessel(s)that carry(ies)blood from the pulmonary capillaries to the left atrium.
A) aorta
B) pulmonary artery
C) pulmonary veins
D) vena cava
Q2) Which group is incorrect?
A) semilunar valves:pulmonic,aortic
B) atrioventricular valves:tricuspid,bicuspid,mitral
C) structures that carry oxygenated blood:pulmonary veins,left ventricle,aorta
D) structures that carry unoxygenated blood:right ventricle,venae cavae,pulmonary veins
Q3) The atrioventricular node (AV node)
A) is the pacemaker of the heart.
B) is located in the upper part of the right atrium.
C) has a rate that is normally faster than the SA node.
D) delays the electrical signal coming from the atria into the ventricles.
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Q1) Which of the following refers to a positive inotropic effect?
A) heart block
B) a slow heart rate
C) a rapid heartbeat
D) an increased myocardial contractile force
Q2) Sympathetic stimulation to the heart
A) decreases stroke volume.
B) increases heart rate.
C) causes bradycardia.
D) decreases cardiac output.
Q3) Cardiac output is determined by heart rate and
A) systemic vascular resistance.
B) stroke volume.
C) hematocrit.
D) hemoglobin concentration.
Q4) Which of the following does not happen to a ventricle?
A) activation of the beta1 adrenergic receptors
B) discharge of sympathetic nerves
C) discharge of the vagal nerve
D) binding of norepinephrine to its receptor
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Q1) Which of the following is caused by cirrhosis of the liver?
A) bleeding episodes
B) portal hypertension
C) poor skin turgor
D) myocardial infarction
Q2) Which condition is caused by defective valves in the lower leg veins?
A) portal hypertension
B) varicose veins
C) absent pedal pulse
D) ascites
Q3) These blood vessels have very thin walls and are called the exchange vessels.
A) arterioles
B) veins
C) capillaries
D) arteries
Q4) In which fetal blood vessel is oxygen concentration greatest?
A) aorta
B) umbilical vein
C) umbilical arteries
D) left ventricle
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Q1) If plasma oncotic pressure exceeds CHP,
A) fluid is filtered from the capillary into the interstitium.
B) fluid moves osmotically into the capillary from the interstitium.
C) plasma proteins diffuse from the capillary into the interstitium.
D) blood volume decreases.
Q2) If plasma osmolarity increases,as in dehydration or the infusion of mannitol (a sugar solution),
A) filtration rate increases.
B) fluid is forced out of the capillary into the interstitium.
C) fluid is "pulled" into the capillary from the interstitium.
D) plasma proteins diffuse out of the capillary into the interstitium.
Q3) Both epinephrine and norepinephrine are
A) steroids.
B) secreted by the adrenal cortex.
C) vasopressors.
D) blood pressure-lowering hormones.
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Q1) The right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct empty into the A) jugular vein.
B) inferior vena cava.
C) portal vein.
D) subclavian veins.
Q2) These structures are located near the opening of the nasal cavity in the upper throat and are also called the adenoids.
A) palatine tonsils
B) thymus glands
C) lingual tonsils
D) pharyngeal tonsils
Q3) Which of the following is described as partially encapsulated lymph nodes located in the throat area?
A) spleen
B) tonsils
C) thymus gland
D) lacteal
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Q1) Which cells secrete a lymphokine that stimulates both T and B cells?
A) platelets
B) killer T cells
C) erythrocytes
D) helper T cells
Q2) Which of the following is (are)most related to antibody-mediated immunity?
A) tears
B) saliva
C) sneezing
D) plasma cells
Q3) Because antibodies are carried by the blood,this type of immunity is also called
A) immunotolerance.
B) cell-mediated immunity.
C) humoral immunity.
D) autoimmunity.
Q4) Which of the following is classified as killer,helper,suppressor,and memory?
A) granulocytes
B) T cells
C) antibodies
D) vaccines
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Q1) What is the effect of an overdose of an opioid (narcotic)?
A) alters the shape of the hemoglobin so that it cannot bind to oxygen
B) depresses the medulla oblongata and depresses ventilation
C) causes spasm of the epiglottis resulting in an upper airway obstruction
D) causes hyperventilation and alkalosis
Q2) Most oxygen is transported through the blood
A) attached to hemoglobin.
B) as bicarbonate.
C) as surfactant.
D) as lysozyme.
Q3) Kussmaul respirations
A) cause hypoxemia.
B) increase PCO<sub>2</sub>.
C) are increased respiratory activity due to acidosis.
D) are caused by a decrease in the plasma [H ].
Q4) Which of the following structures is located in the lungs?
A) pharynx
B) epiglottis
C) alveoli
D) larynx

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Q1) Which of the following refers to the roof of the mouth?
A) uvula
B) tonsil
C) frenulum
D) palate
Q2) The cystic duct,common bile duct,and the hepatic ducts
A) are parts of the biliary tree.
B) carry chyle.
C) are parts of the small intestine.
D) are parts of the hepatic portal circulation.
Q3) The pyloric sphincter is located between the duodenum and this structure.
A) stomach
B) common bile duct
C) jejunum
D) esophagus
Q4) The hepatic flexure does not involve the A) ascending colon.
B) esophagus.
C) transverse colon.
D) large intestine.

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Q1) The calyces receive urine from the
A) proximal convoluted tubule.
B) collecting ducts.
C) glomeruli.
D) peritubular capillaries.
Q2) The distal convoluted tubule
A) receives urine from the collecting duct.
B) reabsorbs Na in response to aldosterone.
C) is the nephron structure that is primarily associated with filtration.
D) empties its urine into Bowman's capsule.
Q3) What is the urine-making structure of the kidney?
A) trigone
B) renal pyramid
C) renal capsule
D) nephron unit
Q4) Aldosterone
A) depletes blood volume.
B) causes potassium reabsorption.
C) causes sodium excretion.
D) causes Na and water reabsorption.

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Q1) Which of the following is true about interstitial fluid,plasma,lymph,and transcellular fluid?
A) contain no electrolytes
B) protein-free fluids
C) classified as extracellular
D) pH less than 6 (highly acidic)
Q2) Which of the following is not true of extracellular fluid?
A) Most body water is extracellular.
B) Plasma is extracellular fluid.
C) Transcellular fluid is extracellular.
D) There is more interstitial fluid than intravascular fluid.
Q3) Bicarbonate (HCO-<sub>3</sub>)is considered an anion because it
A) contains hydrogen.
B) contains carbon.
C) contains oxygen.
D) carries a negative charge.
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Q1) Which hormone stimulates the secretion of testosterone?
A) FSH
B) LH or ICSH
C) estrogen
D) human chorionic gonadotropin
Q2) The morula
A) only occurs if there is an ectopic pregnancy.
B) is the unfertilized ovum that gets discharged with the menstrual blood.
C) refers to the adorable pre-embryonic cluster of cells.
D) spends its life embedded within the endometrium.
Q3) Implantation
A) occurs within the fallopian tubes or the oviducts.
B) is achieved by the morula.
C) is a uterine event achieved by the blastocyst.
D) occurs within the ovaries.
Q4) If implantation occurs within the fallopian tube,the
A) greatest concern is the placenta previa
B) pregnancy is described as ectopic.
C) pregnancy is considered normal.
D) woman will continue to menstruate throughout the 9 months of fetal growth.
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Q1) From week 3 to week 8,baby-to-be is called a(n)
A) zygote.
B) morula.
C) fetus.
D) embryo.
Q2) Which group is incorrect?
A) extraembryonic membranes:graafian follicle,chorion,yolk sac
B) twinning:monozygotic,dizygotic
C) primary germ layers:ectoderm,mesoderm,endoderm
D) genes:dominant,recessive,codominant
Q3) Which of the following is most descriptive of a zygote?
A) fertilized ovum
B) mature sperm
C) graafian follicle
D) fetus
Q4) Which of the following is most related to fertilization?
A) broad ligament
B) implantation
C) menses
D) 23 chromosomes plus 23 chromosomes
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