Practical Nursing Clinical Practice
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Practical Nursing Clinical Practice is a hands-on course designed to provide nursing students with the opportunity to apply theoretical knowledge and develop essential skills in real-world healthcare settings. Through supervised clinical placements, students engage in direct patient care, practice effective communication with patients and interdisciplinary teams, and perform fundamental nursing procedures such as vital sign monitoring, medication administration, and personal hygiene assistance. Emphasis is placed on professional behavior, ethical decision-making, and critical thinking, preparing students to deliver safe and compassionate care across diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing Concepts and Practice 3rd Edition by deWit
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48 Chapters
1519 Verified Questions
1519 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Caring for Medical-Surgical Patients
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse compares the characteristics of a health maintenance organization (HMO)and a preferred provider organization (PPO).Which information should the nurse include about HMOs?
A) HMOs require a set fee of each member monthly.
B) HMOs allow the member to select his health care provider.
C) HMOs permit admission to any facility the member prefers.
D) HMOs offer unlimited diagnostic tests and treatments.
Answer: A
Q2) Which statement accurately describes the primary purpose of the state nurse practice act (NPA)?
A) To test and license LPN/LVNs.
B) To define the scope of LPN/LVN practice.
C) To improve the quality of care provided by the LPN/LVN.
D) To limit the LPN/LVN employment placement.
Answer: B
Q3) The nurse explains that the term _____________ refers to the severity of illness. Answer: acuity
Acuity is the term referring to the severity of illness or condition of a patient.
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Chapter 2: Critical Thinking and the Nursing Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) After evaluating the nursing care plan,the nurse finds lack of progress toward the goal.What action should the nurse take next?
A) Create a more accessible goal.
B) Revise the nursing interventions.
C) Change the problem statement/nursing diagnosis.
D) Use a new evaluation plan.
Answer: B
Q2) The nursing student demonstrates knowledge of the proper use of the ___________ when determining that it is safe to administer meperidine (Demerol)and promethazine (Phenergan)together.
Answer: Medication Reconciliation Form
The Medication Reconciliation Form tracks all medications the patient is taking as prescribed by different physicians and can identify overdoses or drugs that are not compatible.
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4
Chapter 3: Fluid, Electrolytes, Acid-Base Balance, and
Intravenous Therapy
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32 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse uses a picture to show how ions equalize their concentration by which passive transport process?
A) Osmosis
B) Filtration
C) Titration
D) Diffusion
Answer: D
Q2) Which finding is most important for the nurse to confirm prior to hanging an intravenous (IV)bag containing potassium?
A) Verify a blood pressure of at least 60 mm Hg diastolic.
B) Check for urine output of at least 30 mL/hr.
C) Ensure filter placement on the IV line.
D) Verify a pulse of at least 50 beats/min.
Answer: B
Q3) The nurse explains to the 85-year-old patient with a temperature that,with each degree of fever,the body loses _____% of water.
Answer: 10
With each degree of fever,the body has an insensible loss of 10% of its water.
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Chapter 4: Care of Preoperative and Intraoperative Surgical Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for an Asian patient who received atropine as a preoperative drug.For which problem should the nurse should carefully monitor the patient?
A) Oliguria
B) Hyperventilation
C) Hypotension
D) Tachycardia
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been given medication to reverse neuromuscular blocking agents.The nurse is aware that the patient is in which general anesthetic stage?
A) Induction
B) Introduction
C) Emergence
D) Maintenance
Q3) The nurse is planning care for four postoperative patients.Which patient is most likely to develop postoperative complications?
A) 36-year-old with a history of controlled diabetes
B) 62-year-old with a history of hypothyroidism
C) 49-year-old with a history of a myocardial infarction (MI)
D) 76-year-old with mild osteoarthritis
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Care of Postoperative Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a surgical patient who complains of excessive gas.Which action should the nurse take?
A) Offer iced fluids.
B) Arrange for large meal servings.
C) Provide a straw for drinking fluids.
D) Ambulate the patient in the hall.
Q2) The postoperative patient complains of pain only 1 hour after having been medicated with an opioid,which cannot be repeated for three more hours.What action should the nurse take?
A) Give one-half of the prescribed dose now.
B) Contact the prescriber.
C) Ambulate the patient in the hall.
D) Reposition the patient.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a 90-year-old postoperative patient whose oxygen saturation is frequently dropping below 90%.Which age-related change is most likely related to this finding?
A) Prolonged use of a walker
B) Poor fluid intake
C) Weakened respiratory muscles
D) Increased elasticity of costal cartilages
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Chapter 6: Infection Prevention and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A frustrated patient with a fungal infection complains,"Why is the infection taking so long to heal?" Which response is most appropriate?
A) "Fungal infections are essentially incurable."
B) "Fungi form spores, which make them difficult to kill."
C) "Fungi can be considered natural flora and are protected by the body."
D) "Fungi can alter the patient's DNA and RNA."
Q2) To which entity should the home health nurse make a referral in order to supply a home-bound older adult with a daily meal?
A) A community food bank
B) The Salvation Army
C) An agency supplying food stamps
D) Meals on Wheels
Q3) The nurse explains that a vaccination provides defense against infection via which type of immunity?
A) Innate immunity
B) The inflammatory response
C) Antibody-mediated immunity
D) Cell-mediated immunity
Q4) The bacteria that are rod-shaped are classified as _________.
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Chapter 7: Care of Patients with Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is experiencing phantom pain following the amputation of her foot.Which type of pain is most associated with phantom pain?
A) Nociceptive
B) Mild
C) Uncontrollable
D) Neuropathic
Q2) The nurse is planning care plans for multiple patients.Which patient does the nurse anticipate will experience the highest level of pain?
A) 28-year-old experiencing pain related to a metatarsal fracture
B) 45-year-old experiencing pain following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy
C) 67-year-old experiencing chronic back pain
D) 79-year-old experiencing pain related to osteoarthritis
Q3) When giving care to a 30-year-old Hispanic male,which action can most likely be attributed to the patient's cultural beliefs about pain?
A) The patient maintains a stoic affect about pain.
B) The patient prefers a pill to an injection.
C) The patient ignores somatic interventions such as heat and massage.
D) The patient confesses to pain but refuses pain medication.
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9
Chapter 8: Care of Patients with Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following a visit from his family,the 55-year-old male patient with terminal cancer tearfully says,"I am so afraid" and begins to cry.Which response is most supportive?
A) "Would you like to have your pain medication now?"
B) "Let's talk about the things that make you afraid."
C) "Would you like for me to call the hospital chaplain."
D) "I will leave to give you some privacy."
Q2) Which medications are biologic response modifier (BRM)drugs?
A) Interleukins
B) Colony-stimulating factors
C) Monoclonal antibodies
D) Cyclosporines
E) Gene therapies
Q3) The nurse is advising a young college student who wants a tan before spring break.Which method is safest for the student to use?
A) Take advantage of morning sun while using sunscreen with an SPF of 30.
B) Use a spray-on tanning solution.
C) Use a sun lamp for a maximum of 20 minutes a day.
D) Use a tanning salon for no more than 10 minutes per visit.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Chronic Illness and Rehabilitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The LPN/LVN making care assignments to nursing assistants would not assign a patient who has which problem?
A) Manipulative behavior
B) An unstable condition
C) A draining wound
D) A communicable disease
Q2) The charge nurse instructs the nursing assistants about the policy concerning call lights.The nurse teaches that patients taking which type of medication require especially prompt call light attention?
A) Diuretics
B) Antibiotics
C) Proton pump inhibitors
D) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs )
Q3) The nurse is caring for a resident who has a security device for safety purposes.What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A) Visually check the resident every hour.
B) Turn and reposition the resident every hour.
C) Assess condition of the skin every 4 hours.
D) Reassess the need for the security device every 4 to 8 hours.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: The Immune and Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is aware that unlike dogs,humans do not contract such diseases as distemper.Which type of immunity explains this protection?
A) Passive immunity
B) Acquired immunity
C) Innate immunity
D) Passive natural immunity
Q2) The nurse is preparing a presentation on the inflammatory response.While preparing a cartoon picture of lysis,the nurse correctly draws which scenario?
A) An antibody acting through the process of neutralization
B) An individual's arm that is red and swollen
C) A phagocyte eating an antigen
D) A cell that is originating in the bone marrow
Q3) The industrial nurse should teach all middle-aged employees to receive a tetanus booster how often?
A) Every 2 years
B) Every 4 years
C) Every 7 years
D) Every 10 years
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12
Chapter 11: Care of Patients with Immune and Lymphatic Disorders (with
HIV and AIDS)
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been exposed to an allergen resulting in a hypersensitivity reaction.The nurse correctly recognizes that which immunoglobulin has been triggered?
A) IgA
B) IgB
C) IgD
D) IgE
Q2) The nurse is providing teaching to a patient who has undergone a liver transplant.Which statement by the patient demonstrates the need for further patient teaching?
A) "I will need to take medications to boost my immune system for the next year."
B) "I will need to be sure to avoid people that have infections."
C) "I will need to take immune suppression medications the rest of my life."
D) "I will need to be monitored to determine if my medications need adjusted."
Q3) The patient with AIDS voices concern over the amount of money it will cost to manage his disease.The nurse is aware that the estimated medications and laboratory testing cost is an average of $______ per year for the patient with AIDS.
Q4) The nurse stresses that the primary emphasis on controlling HIV is __________.
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Chapter 12: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which manifestation(s)are age-related changes that alter the respiratory system?
A) Weakened cough
B) Kyphosis
C) Increased ciliary movement
D) Decrease in body fluid
E) Muscle weakness
Q2) Step 4
A)Place diaphragm of stethoscope above clavicles.
B)Listen in midaxillary line to level of diaphragm.
C)Move stethoscope from side to side down midline of the chest.
D)Place diaphragm of stethoscope above scapulae.
E)Move stethoscope side to side on either side of the spine.
Q3) Step 1
A)Place diaphragm of stethoscope above clavicles.
B)Listen in midaxillary line to level of diaphragm.
C)Move stethoscope from side to side down midline of the chest.
D)Place diaphragm of stethoscope above scapulae.
E)Move stethoscope side to side on either side of the spine.
Q4) The nurse describes the ability of the lungs to respond to change in the volume and pressure of inhaled air by expanding as lung __________.
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Chapter 13: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Upper
Respiratory
System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Step 2
A)Wrap hand around fist.
B)Squeeze and thrust five times.
C)Make a fist.
D)Check status of breathing.
E)Position fist, thumb foremost, over umbilicus.
Q2) When teaching a patient about esophageal speech,which technique should the nurse instruct the patient to use first?
A) Coordinate lip and tongue movements with produced sound.
B) Relax the diaphragm to allow air into the esophagus.
C) Cough to express air.
D) Swallow air and force it back up through the esophagus.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent a laryngectomy.Which need should the nurse address first?
A) Pain control
B) Family support
C) Communication method
D) Plan for long-term care
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Chapter 14: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Lower
Respiratory
System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient immediately postoperative after a left pneumonectomy.How should the nurse position the patient?
A) In high Fowler position
B) In semi-Fowler position
C) In a right side-lying position
D) In a left side-lying position
Q2) The nurse reading a tuberculin skin test (TST)on a new employee who lives in the Midwest,is 20-years-old,and has no known history of contact with any people with tuberculosis (TB).The nurse should interpret the reading as positive if the area around the injection site has an induration of how many millimeters?
A) 0 mm
B) 5 mm
C) 10 mm
D) 15 mm
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Chapter 15: The Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Step 5
A)Becomes a phagocyte
B)Becomes a macrophage
C)Engulfs bacteria
D)Migrates into tissues
E)Becomes a monocyte
F)Becomes a leukocyte
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient with a dark complexion for cyanosis.To ensure the most accurate assessment,which locations should the nurse inspect?
A) Conjunctiva
B) Gums
C) Roof of the mouth
D) Nail beds
E) Palms of the hands
Q3) Which statement(s)describe functions of blood?
A) To absorb nutrients
B) To transport blood gases
C) To regulate pH by buffering
D) To regulate fluid distribution
E) To regulate body temperature
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Chapter 16: Care of Patients with Hematologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which descriptions accurately characterize the appearance of red blood cells (RBCs)in iron deficiency anemia?
A) Normochromic and normocytic
B) Hypochromic and microcytic
C) Hyperchromic and macrocytic
D) Normochromic and microcytic
Q2) How often should a patient with polycythemia vera have phlebotomy to thin the blood?
A) Every 2 to 3 weeks
B) Monthly
C) Every 2 to 3 months
D) Semiannually
Q3) The nurse is monitoring a patient who is receiving a blood transfusion.Which finding(s)would lead the nurse to stop the infusion?
A) Report of chills
B) Headache
C) Back pain
D) Report of a rash
E) Fever
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Chapter 17: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorder(s)is/are examples of congenital heart defects?
A) Arteriosclerosis
B) Coarctation of the aorta
C) Septal defects
D) Valvular defects
E) Atherosclerosis
Q2) Which modifiable risk factors increase a patient's risk for heart disease?
A) Smoking
B) Race
C) Obesity
D) Sedentary lifestyle
E) Age
Q3) Which preventative measure(s)may protect against development of cardiovascular disease?
A) Exercising regularly for at least 30 minutes a day
B) Maintaining high-density lipoprotein (HDL) greater than 50 mg/dL
C) Refraining from smoking
D) Obtaining and maintaining a healthy weight
E) Maintaining triglycerides above 150 mg/dL
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Care of Patients with Hypertension and Peripheral Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with a history of peripheral arterial disease.The patient complains of significant claudication,and findings of an ankle-brachial index are abnormal.The nurse anticipates that this patient will most likely require which type of procedure?
A) Left heart catheterization
B) Stress echocardiogram
C) Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
D) Nuclear medicine stress test
Q2) The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old patient with a history of diabetes and peripheral vascular disease (PVD).The nurse observes an inflamed and excoriated area on the patient's right shin.Which intervention should the nurse perform first?
A) Document the findings.
B) Review the patient's diet.
C) Notify the primary care provider.
D) Cover with clear occlusive dressing.
Q3) The patient who has a history of smoking and alcohol abuse is most likely to develop __________ hypertension.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Care of Patients with Cardiac Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is analyzing a patient's telemetry strip and observes a sawtooth appearance with no P waves.How should the nurse document this finding?
A) Premature ventricular contraction (PVC)
B) Atrial flutter
C) Ventricular tachycardia (VT)
D) Premature atrial contraction (PAC)
Q2) The nurse expresses concern to the 80-year-old resident in a long-term care facility who is attempting to jog on a treadmill.The nurse is aware that the exceptional oxygen and metabolic demands brought on by the exercise might cause ____________.
Q3) The nurse caring for a patient who requires a temporary transvenous pacemaker.Which statement indicates that the patient understands the nurse's teaching?
A) "I may experience uncomfortable muscle contractions."
B) "The procedure will use general anesthesia."
C) "I will be given a sedative after the procedure."
D) "This device may be left in place for 6 weeks."
Q4) The patient suffering from ventricular tachydysrhythmia may benefit from _________________ when medications are not effectively treating the disorder.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Care of Patients with Coronary Artery Disease and Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which herbs and supplements lower cholesterol?
A) Garlic
B) Bananas
C) Oatmeal
D) St. John's wort
E) Soy products
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent a transfemoral cardiac catheterization with coronary angiography earlier in the day.The patient denies pain and no longer requires bed rest.The groin is soft with no palpable hematoma.Which postprocedure care is most important for the patient at this time?
A) Encourage increased fluid intake.
B) Administer pain medications as ordered.
C) Obtain vital signs every 15 minutes.
D) Assist the patient with ambulation.
Q3) The nurse uses a diagram to show how obstruction of an artery has caused an area of necrosis called a(n)_________.
Q4) The nurse is aware that the patient's cardiac rehabilitation levels of physical activity are designated through ____________ units.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: The Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital to rule out the possibility of bacterial meningitis.Which test will be most helpful in diagnosing this condition?
A) Magnetoencephalography (MEG)
B) Myelography
C) Cerebral angiography
D) Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis and culture
Q2) A student nurse questions the nurse about the difference between a quadriplegic and a tetraplegic patient.Which statement correctly describes tetraplegia?
A) Tetraplegic patients are capable of fewer fine motor movements.
B) Tetraplegic patients can experience pain in paralyzed parts.
C) Tetraplegic patients are more easily rehabilitated.
D) Tetraplegia is the newer term for the old term quadriplegia.
Q3) Which reflex indicates an abnormality in the motor control pathways from the cerebral cortex?
A) Babinski reflex
B) Biceps reflex
C) Brachioradialis reflex
D) Knee jerk reflex
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Head and Spinal Cord Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with flaccid paralysis after sustaining a spinal cord injury 3 days earlier.The family excitedly notifies the nurse that the patient has flexed his arm.Which response is best for the nurse to make?
A) "I will give the doctor this wonderful news."
B) "Avoid directly touching the arm muscles so that you don't cause more muscle spasms."
C) "This movement means that the spinal cord is adjusting to the injury."
D) "These muscles spasms are a type of involuntary movement that happens frequently in patients with spinal cord injuries."
Q2) If conservative measures are unsuccessful in treating a herniated disk,a(n)__________ may be necessary to remove the posterior arch of the vertebrae,along with the disk.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with spastic paralysis.Which technique is most appropriate for the nurse to use when moving the patient?
A) Firmly grasp the muscles.
B) Use the palms of hands to support the joints.
C) Log roll the patient as a unit.
D) Perform passive range-of-motion (ROM).
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Chapter 23: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) To help prevent aspiration while feeding a patient who has a right-sided paralysis,the nurse should implement which intervention(s)?
A) Place the patient in high Fowler position.
B) Instruct the patient to tilt the head and neck forward.
C) Instruct the patient to drink liquids through a straw.
D) Place food in the left side of the mouth.
E) Avoid mixing foods with different textures.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a transient ischemic attack (TIA).A carotid ultrasound reveals a 40% obstruction.The nurse anticipates that the treatment will likely consist of which factor(s)?
A) Diet modification
B) Lifestyle alteration
C) Aspirin for antiplatelet aggregation
D) Daily doses of nitrates
E) Endarterectomy
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25
Chapter 24: Care of Patients with Peripheral Nerve and Degenerative Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with Huntington chorea.Which symptom(s)is/are characteristic manifestation(s)of this disease?
A) Fidgeting
B) Restlessness
C) Constant movement
D) Dementia
E) Difficulty swallowing
Q2) The nurse is planning care for a patient with Parkinson disease.Which problem statement/nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the patient experiencing bradykinesia?
A) Risk for falls
B) Impaired swallowing
C) Acute confusion
D) Risk for suicide
Q3) Which factor(s)is/are most likely a potential cause(s)of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
A) Environmental factors and genetic predisposition
B) Allergic response to antiviral medications
C) Hypersensitivity reaction attacking the myelin
D) Bacterial infection of the myelin
26
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Chapter 25: The Sensory System: Eye and Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tilts her head to the side while reading a pamphlet.The nurse recognizes that this action may be an attempt to compensate for which problem?
A) Tinnitus
B) Nystagmus
C) Photophobia
D) Diplopia
Q2) When assessing for macular degeneration,the nurse should use which assessment tool?
A) Snellen eye chart
B) Corneal reflex test
C) Visual field test
D) Amsler grid test
Q3) A tonometer reading reflects the amount of pressure exerted by which component of the eye?
A) Sclera
B) Aqueous humor
C) Vitreous humor
D) Cornea
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Chapter 26: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Eyes and Ears
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient in the postoperative period after enucleation.Which intervention is most important?
A) Provide emotional support.
B) Educate the patient about permanent prosthesis placement.
C) Resume diet as ordered.
D) Educate the patient about postoperative medications.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient following a left corneal transplant.When positioning the patient,the nurse correctly assists the patient into which positions?
A) Supine
B) Supine with head on small pillow
C) Left side-lying
D) Right side-lying
E) High Fowler
Q3) Which manifestation(s)is/are symptoms of a cataract?
A) Nystagmus
B) Troubled by glare
C) Increased myopia
D) Color distortion
E) Night blindness
28
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Chapter 27: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that the older adult is prone to digestive disorders related to which age-related change(s)?
A) Decreased hydrochloric acid
B) Increased enzyme levels
C) Inadequate chewing
D) Diminished intestinal motility
E) Gastroesophageal sphincter incompetence
Q2) The nurse is reviewing a student nurse's charting and notes that the student has documented absent bowel sounds.The nurse reminds the student that in order to document absent bowel sounds,one must auscultate each quadrant at what period of time?
A) 30 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 2 minutes
D) 5 minutes
Q3) The nurse caring for the patient who has diarrhea from taking a protocol of oral amoxicillin will use __________ Precautions in the care.
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Chapter 28: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Upper
Gastrointestinal
System
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that the diagnosis of morbidly obese is reserved for people who exceed which percentage of their recommended weight?
A) 50%
B) 70%
C) 90%
D) 100%
Q2) A patient who had gastric bypass surgery 5 weeks ago calls the office to report feelings of nausea,sweating,and diarrhea shortly after eating meals.What response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "This is common after the type of surgery you had."
B) "How much, if any, alcohol do you consume each day?"
C) "Avoid large meals, limit sweets, and drink small amounts of liquids between meals."
D) "You may be experiencing a postoperative infection."
Q3) For which patient should the nurse question an order for esomeprazole (Nexium)?
A) A 55-year-old female who takes digoxin
B) A 52-year-old male who is noncompliant
C) A 38-year-old female who has asthma
D) A 56-year-old male who has epistaxsis
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Chapter 29: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Lower
Gastrointestinal
System
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18687
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient 1-day postoperative after a transverse colostomy.When assessing the stoma,which finding requires the nurse's immediate action?
A) A wet, glistening stoma
B) A stoma with scant marginal bleeding
C) An edematous stoma
D) A purplish-red stoma
Q2) Extremely watery stool with concentrations of digestive enzymes
A)Ascending colostomy
B)Transverse colostomy
C)Descending colostomy
D)Ileostomy
E)Continent ileostomy
Q3) The mechanical bowel obstruction caused when the bowel twists on itself is known as _________.
Q4) The nurse explains that a hernioplasty is a surgery that involves which process?
A) Reducing the hernia by manual pressure.
B) Sewing synthetic mesh over the abdominal wall defect to reduce the hernia.
C) Applying an individualized truss for the reduction of the hernia.
D) Reducing the hernia and suturing the defect in the abdominal wall.
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Chapter 30: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Liver,
Gallbladder, and Pancreas
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18688
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reinforces that the immunization for HBV is believed to provide _____ immunity.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with esophageal varices with a new order for vasopressin (Pitressin).The nurse reviews the patient's history and notes that the patient's comorbidities include coronary artery disease (CAD),type 2 diabetes,gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD),and fibromyalgia.The nurse should immediately notify the physician about which component of the patient's history?
A) CAD
B) Diabetes mellitus (DM) type 2
C) GERD
D) Fibromyalgia.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient being treated for new onset of gallstones.The patient asks the nurse if he will have to have surgery.How should the nurse respond?
A) "You will have to have surgery if you continue to have gallstones."
B) "Tell me more about your concern."
C) "Treatment for gallstones may include diet modification and weight loss, medications, or surgery."
D) "You need to ask the doctor about your concerns."
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Chapter 31: The Musculoskeletal System
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18689
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing the patient's crutches.Which observation confirms that the crutches are sized correctly?
A) The crutches are the same height as the patient's shoulders.
B) The crutches are approximately 12 inches shorter than the patient's shoulders.
C) The crutches are approximately 16 inches shorter than the patient's height.
D) The crutches are tall enough to allow the patient's arms to be fully extended when walking.
Q2) When the nurse plans for the progressive mobilization of a hemiplegic,the nurse will consider the patient's ability to perform which function(s)?
A) Move limbs
B) Change position in bed independently
C) Transfer self from bed to chair
D) Perform all activities of daily living (ADLs) independently
E) Walk
Q3) When a joint is obliterated by bony overgrowth,the joint is said to be _________.
Q4) The canal system that runs through the bone and contains the blood and lymph vessels is called the ____________.
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Chapter 32: Care of Patients with Musculoskeletal and Connective Tissue Disorders
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18690
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse suspects compartment syndrome in a patient with a side arm cast and traction when observing which finding(s)?
A) Warm, rosy fingers
B) Intense pain in hand and fingers
C) Edema of fingers
D) Weak radial pulse
E) Tingling and numbness
Q2) The patient is returning to the unit with a wet long leg cast.To prevent damage to the wet cast,what action(s)should the nurse take?
A) Determine the cast material.
B) Prop the casted limb on a footboard and elevate it until the cast is dry.
C) Support the cast with the palms of the hands rather than holding it with the fingers.
D) Assess heat generated from the drying cast.
E) Explain that the cast has dried when it acquires a grayish color.
Q3) The nurse uses a visual aid to show the difference between a complete dislocation and a partial dislocation,which is also called a(n)__________.
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Chapter 33: The Urinary System
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18691
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with deteriorating kidney function.Laboratory work indicates 900 mg of uric acid in 24 hours.In addition to administering prescribed medication,which dietary modification should the nurse address?
A) Limit servings of beef to 3-ounce portions.
B) Increase intake of avocados and liver.
C) Avoid yogurt or skim milk.
D) Limit intake of potatoes and pasta.
Q2) Which statement(s)accurately describe the functions of the kidneys?
A) Regulation of electrolytes
B) Regulation of fluid volume
C) Regulation of blood pressure
D) Secretion of erythropoietin
E) Transportation of urine
Q3) An 85-year-old patient who has been NPO since midnight last night for diagnostic testing just completed the procedure.Which intervention is most important?
A) Inform the patient about the test results.
B) Obtain the patient's weight for comparison to the morning value.
C) Turn the patient every 2 hours.
D) Offer 4 ounces of water or juice every hour.
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Chapter 34: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Urinary System
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18692
Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with nonspecific urethritis.Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
A) "How many servings of green vegetables do eat each day?"
B) "How often, if any, do you consume alcohol?"
C) "How often do you use bath salts or take bubble baths?"
D) "Do you take a daily multivitamin?"
Q2) In which situation(s)should the nurse question an order for carbenicillin for a patient with a urinary infection?
A) The patient is older than 80 years of age.
B) The patient is allergic to penicillin.
C) The patient takes warfarin daily.
D) The patient takes oral contraceptives.
E) The patient has a history of hypertension.
Q3) Hypovolemic shock
A)Prerenal ARF
B)Intrarenal ARF
C)Postrenal ARF
Q4) The nurse is aware that 80% of UTIs in females are the result of contamination from
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Chapter 35: The Endocrine System
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18693
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient undergoing the fluid deprivation test.This test is designed to confirm which condition?
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Hyperparathyroidism
Q2) Which causative factor(s)may be responsible for primary endocrine disorders?
A) Hormone overproduction
B) Long periods of limited mobility
C) Trauma
D) Severe infection
E) Effects of certain drugs
Q3) If an endocrine gland begins to hypersecrete,it usually causes which result?
A) Hyperplasia
B) Activation of the inflammatory process
C) An allergic response
D) An autoimmune response
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Chapter 36: Care of Patients with Pituitary, Thyroid, Parathyroid, and
Adrenal Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Step 6
A)Hypothalamus is activated.
B)Pituitary releases thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
C)Drop in norepinephrine level.
D)Thyroid releases thyroid hormone.
E)Satisfaction of norepinephrine level signals hypothalamus in negative feedback.
F)Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) is secreted.
Q2) Step 4
A)Hypothalamus is activated.
B)Pituitary releases thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
C)Drop in norepinephrine level.
D)Thyroid releases thyroid hormone.
E)Satisfaction of norepinephrine level signals hypothalamus in negative feedback.
F)Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) is secreted.
Q3) The nurse's major contribution to the care of a patient with Cushing syndrome is that of __________ and __________.
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Chapter 37: Care of Patients with Diabetes and Hypoglycemia
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18695
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement(s)explain(s)a reason for weight loss in type 1 diabetics?
A) Loss of body fluid
B) Insulin intolerance
C) Metabolization of body fats
D) Stress of disease
E) Altered diet
Q2) Which genetic factor(s)increase(s)the risk of a person developing diabetes mellitus (DM)?
A) Number of relatives with DM
B) Body mass index (BMI)
C) Sedentary lifestyle
D) Genetic closeness of relatives with DM
E) Race
Q3) The patient takes his NovoLog 70/30 at 0700.When should the nurse suggest that the patient schedule exercise?
A) 0730.
B) 1000.
C) 1300.
D) Scheduling exercise is unnecessary.
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Chapter 38: Care of Women with Reproductive Disorders
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18696
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is educating a speaking to a group of junior high girls about reproductive health.Which information is most important to include?
A) Breasts may be tender in the middle of the cycle.
B) Girls ages 12 or older who have not had a period should see a doctor.
C) Irregular or missed periods are nothing to worry about.
D) A normal period may last up to 2 weeks.
Q2) An infertile couple considering zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)asks how it differs from in vitro fertilization (IVF).Which information about ZIFT is most important for the nurse to include?
A) During ZIFT, fallopian tubes are artificially lined with material that nourishes the gamete.
B) During ZIFT, the fertilized egg is placed in the fallopian tube.
C) During ZIFT, fallopian tubes are cleared with injected air.
D) During ZIFT, fallopian tube is implanted with unfertilized ova and sperm.
Q3) Pain lasts throughout menstrual flow
A)Primary dysmenorrhea
B)Secondary dysmenorrhea
Q4) The nurse explains that the portion of the menstrual cycle in which the ova are stimulated and matured is the ________ phase.
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Chapter 39: Care of Men with Reproductive Disorders
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18697
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who returns to the unit after undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP).The nurse observes a few small clots and pieces of tissue returning in the indwelling catheter bag.What should the nurse do next?
A) Document the finding.
B) Notify the surgeon immediately.
C) Adjust the bladder irrigation flow rate.
D) Apply traction to the catheter.
Q2) The nurse is aware that of the known infertility causes,approximately what percentage is due to male factors?
A) 15%
B) 25%
C) 35%
D) 45%
Q3) Erection curving upward preventing vaginal penetration
A)Hydrocele
B)Varicocele
C)Priapism
D)Peyronie disease
E)Torsion
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Chapter 40: Care of Patients with Sexually Transmitted
Infections
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recommends that the newly diagnosed patient with herpes get current information about her disease from the local _______________.
Q2) The nurse is educating a young woman newly diagnosed with genital herpes.Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plain?
A) Take the entire course of antibiotics.
B) Increase fluid intake to dilute urine.
C) Wash hands after applying topical ointment to lesions.
D) Avoid all sexual contact until lesions completely resolve.
Q3) The nurse urges a female patient with gonorrhea to seek medical care.Which complication(s)can occur if gonorrhea is left untreated?
A) Ppelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B) Sterility
C) Obstructed fallopian tubes
D) Ectopic pregnancy
E) Ophthalmia neonatorum in the newborn
F)None of above
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Chapter 41: The Integumentary System
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18699
Sample Questions
Q1) Squamous epithelium,no blood vessels
A)Epidermis
B)Dermis
C)Sebaceous glands
D)Sweat glands
Q2) The nurse reminds the junior high school health class that the first line of defense from pathogens for the body is the ____________.
Q3) Contains vessels,nerves,and hair follicles
A)Epidermis
B)Dermis
C)Sebaceous glands
D)Sweat glands
Q4) Which chemical irritant causes the most damage to skin of the immobilized patient?
A) Urine
B) Topical medication
C) Bath soap
D) Laundry soap
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Chapter 42: Care of Patents with Integumentary Disorders and Burns
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18700
Sample Questions
Q1) An adult male patient enters the emergency department with full- and partial-thickness burns on the entire right leg,front of the right arm,and one half of the front torso.The nurse,using the "rule of nines," assesses the burn as ____%.
Q2) A 75-year-old patient questions the nurse about vaccination to prevent shingles.Which response is most appropriate?
A) "The incidence of shingles in people your age is not overly common, so vaccination is unnecessary."
B) "The vaccination has not yet been approved for use in the older adults."
C) "Because of the incidence of shingles in your age group, you should consider taking the vaccination."
D) "The vaccination is expensive but will provide lifelong immunity."
Q3) Biologic dressing obtained from a pig
A)Open technique
B)Closed technique
C)Escharotomy
D)Allograft
E)Xenograft
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Chapter 43: Care of Patients in Disasters or Bioterrorism
Attack
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18701
Sample Questions
Q1) Which measurement best detects the daily amount of radiation to which a health worker is exposed?
A) Radiation urinalysis
B) Radiation badges
C) Radiation spectrometer
D) Radiation sputum analysis
Q2) Which category A organisms may be released in a bioterrorism attack because of high lethality?
A) Ebola
B) Avian flu
C) Botulism
D) Smallpox
E) Tularemia
Q3) During a flood,the public water supply has been contaminated.Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
A) Designate which commodes can be used for body waste.
B) Gather a large pot, household bleach, and other supplies.
C) Run cold water in sinks to have reservoirs of water.
D) Reserve existing water for hand washing only.
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Chapter 44: Care of Patients with Emergencies, Trauma, and Shock
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18702
Sample Questions
Q1) A diving accident occurs at the community pool and the victim is conscious and in pain.Which intervention is most appropriate pending the arrival of emergency medical personnel?
A) Position the patient on the side of the pool.
B) Move the patient to the shallow end and cover with a towel
C) Leave the patient in the pool and support with a large float.
D) Leave the patient in the pool and attempt cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
Q2) The nurse recognizes which indications of respiratory distress?
A) Gasping
B) Wheezing
C) Stridor
D) Choking
E) Stupor
Q3) Administration of fluids
A)Cardiogenic shock
B)Hypovolemic shock
C)Anaphylactic shock
D)Neurogenic shock
E)Insulin shock
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Chapter 45: Care of Patients with Anxiety, Mood, and Eating Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18703
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is educating a patient with a new prescription for lithium carbonate.Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?
A) It can take up to two weeks for Lithium to reach a therapeutic level in the body.
B) Lithium is often given in conjunction with loop diuretics.
C) Carefully restrict sodium intake to less than 1 gram/day.
D) Take medication before breakfast for maximum effectiveness.
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medical history of a patient who is being evaluated for anorexia nervosa.Which characteristic(s)would be consistent with the condition?
A) Weight loss of 2 to 3 pounds in the past month
B) Binge eating
C) Frequent mood changes
D) Absence of three consecutive menstrual periods
E) Body weight less than 85% of what is expected for height and weight
Q3) The nurse points out that a persistent irrational fear of a specific object or situation that causes anxiety that interferes with responsibilities is a(n)_________.
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Chapter 46: Care of Patients with Substance Abuse Disorders
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18704
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse cautions the recovering alcoholic who is on disulfiram (Antabuse)should avoid even small exposure to alcohol.Which signs and symptoms are characteristic of a reaction of disulfiram (Antabuse)with alcohol?
A) Chest pain
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Hypertension
D) Blurred vision
E) Blinding headache
Q2) The nurse uses the CAGE challenge to alcoholics who persist in denial.What does the "G" in the set of questions from CAGE represent?
A) Get: "Do you feel like you must get alcohol?"
B) Go: "Do you go out to drink?"
C) Gone: "Is memory of drinking episodes gone?"
D) Guilty: "Do you feel guilty about your drinking?"
Q3) How long does it take the body to metabolize a single can of beer?
A) 20 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 40 minutes
D) 60 minutes
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Chapter 47: Care of Patients with Cognitive Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18705
Sample Questions
Q1) What does the Mini-Mental Status Exam (MMSE)assess? (select all that apply)
A) Orientation
B) Judgment
C) Memory
D) Insight
E) Ability to follow directions
Q2) An exhausted daughter is the sole caregiver to a patient with moderate Alzheimer disease (AD).She asks the nurse what respite care entails.Which statement indicates that the caregiver understands the nurse's response?
A) "My mom would stay in a long-term care facility for a short time while I rest."
B) "Home health aides would come to our home and help me with housework."
C) "A registered nurse would provide total care for my mom in 3 day intervals."
D) "I would be connected with a special support group to share stresses and communicate with other caregivers."
Q3) Processes of perception,memory,and judgment
A)Cognition
B)Dementia
C)elirium
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Chapter 48: Care of Patients with Thought and Personality Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18706
Sample Questions
Q1) Milieu therapy is a therapeutic application for people with personality disorders.What principle(s)underscore(s)the basis of this method?
A) Maintaining a structured environment
B) Participating as a member of the structured environment
C) Practicing appropriate social behavior
D) Actively attempting to modify behavior
E) Learning to modify feelings and emotional responses
F)None of above
Q2) The delusional patient rushes up to the nurse and begins to brush her uniform with his hands,saying,"I must get the weegos off of you!" The nurse recognizes that the word "weegos" is a(n)________.
Q3) Approximately what percentage of the U.S.population is affected with schizophrenia?
A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 3%
D) 4%
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