Plant Genetics
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Plant Genetics explores the fundamental principles of heredity as they apply to plants, focusing on the molecular, cellular, and population levels. The course covers topics such as gene structure and function, modes of inheritance, genetic mapping, genetic variation, and the role of DNA technology in plant breeding and biotechnology. Students will examine classical genetic studies alongside current methods, including marker-assisted selection and genome editing, to understand how genetic principles are applied in crop improvement and the conservation of plant biodiversity.
Recommended Textbook Genetics Analysis and Principles 5th Edition by Robert Brooker
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28 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A species that contains two copies of each chromosome is called _______.
A) a genetic mutation
B) a morph
C) haploid
D) diploid
E) alleles
Answer: D
Q2) RNA is formed by the process of _____________.
A) transcription
B) translation
C) both transcription and translation
D) None of the answers are correct
Answer: A
Q3) DNA stores the information needed for the synthesis of cellular _______.
A)proteins
B)carbohydrates
C)lipids
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The results that demonstrated that traits were not blended were the ones where
A)The F2 plants were selfed
B)The true-breeding parents were crossed
C)The F1 generation plants were selfed
D)None of these experiments refuted the blending hypothesis
Answer: C
Q2) Which definition below is the best definition for probability?
A)The number of times a coin is flipped
B)The number of times homozygotic recessives appear through successive generations of a family as compared to heterozygotes
C)The chance that an outcome will occur in the future
D)The frequency at which homozygous recessive traits are seen in an individual mating
Answer: C
Q3) According to the Law of Segregation allele segregation into gametes is
A)based on whether the allele is dominant or recessive
B)random
C)based on whether the individual is homozygotic or heterozygotic
D)based on whether the individual is male or female
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Chromosome Transmission During Cell Division and Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) During this phase of the cell cycle the microtubules of the spindle fiber attach to the kinetochore:
A)Metaphase
B)Prometaphase
C)Telophase
D)Anaphase
E)Prophase
Answer: B
Q2) Cell division in prokaryotic cells is called ________, while in eukaryotic cells it is called ________.
A)binary fission ; binary fission
B)binary fission ; mitosis
C)meiosis ; mitosis
D)mitosis ; binary fission
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the molecular level, type A and type B blood differ in which of the following characteristics?
A)The antigens present on the surface of the red blood cells
B)The type of sugar found in each type
C)The antibodies that are generated against the other type of blood
D)All of the answers are correct
Q2) Humans homozygous for the sickle cell allele have sickle cell anemia. A human that is heterozygous for the sickle cell allele is an example of _____________.
A) codominance
B) incomplete penetrance
C) heterozygous advantage
D) multiple allele systems
Q3) If a light-eosin eye male Drosophila is crossed to a homozygous red eyed female, what will be the phenotype of their offspring?
A)All offspring will have red eyes.
B)All males will have light-eosin eyes and all females will have eosin eye
C)All females will have red eyes, all males will have light-eosin eyes.
D)All flies will have white eyes.
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Chapter 5: Non-Mendelian Inheritance
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Q1) The inheritance patterns of genetic material that is not contained in the nucleus of the cell is called _______.
A)extranuclear inheritance
B)maternal effect
C)imprinting
D)nuclear
E)epigenetic
Q2) If the sperm cell contributes mitochondria to the oocyte, it is called _______.
A) paternal leakage
B) maternal leakage
C) paternal inheritance
D) mitochondria
E) imprinting
Q3) Who is largely responsible for proposing the endosymbiosis theory?
A)Schimper, Wallin, Margulis
B)Lyon, Margulis, Schimper
C)Schimper, Wallin, Barr
D)Barr, Lyon, Margulis
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Chapter 6: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mitotic recombination occurs between homologous chromosomes. In which of the following would you not expect to encounter mitotic recombination?
A)The fungus, Aspergillus nidulans
B)Tobacco plants
C)Homo sapiens
D)Drosophila melanogaster
Q2) A map unit or centimorgan is equal to a 10% recombination frequency.
A)True
B)False
Q3) While mapping two genes in Drosophila, you observe 30 recombinants among 200 total offspring. What is the distance between these genes?
A) 30 map units
B) 6.67 map units
C) 200 map units
D) 15 map units
Q4) Map distance is the number of recombinant offspring divided by the total number of nonrecombinant offspring.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Genetic Transfer and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Sample Questions
Q1) Competence factors do which of the following?
A) Allow the formation of a sex pilus
B) Promote bacteriophages binding for transduction
C) Allow DNA in the environment to bind to the cell surface
D) Inhibit genetic transfer between donor and recipient cells
Q2) An episome is a segment of bacterial DNA that can exist as a plasmid or be integrated into the bacterial chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cotransduction establishes the general order of genes on a bacterial chromosome, while conjugation is more specific and thus may be used to establish precise distances.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the maximum size of the
A) 10%-20%
B) 30%
C) 0.5%-1%
D) 1%-2.5%
E)coli chromosome capable of being carried by a P1 phage?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Variation in Chromosome Structure and
Number
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Q1) Genetic abnormalities that occur before fertilization may result in some tissues of the body differing in their genetic composition. This is called mosaicism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The polytene chromosomes of Drosophila are an example of _________.
A)aneuploidy
B)polyploidy
C)translocations
D)inversion loops
E)None of the answers are correct
Q3) Familial Down syndrome is a result of A)inversion.
B)deficiency.
C)gene duplication.
D)translocation.
Q4) Which type of chromosome has the shortest p arm of the chromosome?
A)Acrocentic
B)Metacentric
C)Telocentric
D)Submetacentric
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Chapter 9: Molecular Structure of DNA and RNA
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Q1) Frederick Griffith is responsible for discovering what process?
A)Replication
B)Transmission
C)Transformation
D)Transduction
Q2) The idea that the adenine and thymine bases of the DNA interact in some manner was first proposed by _______.
A) Watson and Crick
B) Franklin
C) Pauling
D) Chargaff
Q3) What is one of the criteria that all genetic material must meet?
A)It does NOT contain the information necessary to construct the entire organism.
B)It must be passed from offspring to parent.
C)It must be able to be copied.
D)It must have a limited amount of variation.
Q4) DNA is recognized as a left-handed molecule.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Chromosome Organization and Molecular Structure
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Q1) The function of condensin is to
A) cause the chromosomes to uncompact following mitosis.
B) coat the chromosomes and condense them into heterochromatin through the compaction of radial loops.
C) hold the DNA to the histone proteins in the nucleosome core particle.
D) trigger DNA to be compacted in a nucleosome core particle.
E) none of these
Q2) How many types of histone proteins are there?
A)4
B)5
C)7
D)8
Q3) Which of the following assists the alignment of sister chromatids during metaphase?
A)Radial loop domains
B)Cohesin
C)Centromeres
D)Nucleosomes
E) Condensin
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Chapter 11: DNA Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The movement of the replication fork in bacterial replication is unidirectional.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You extract DNA from an E.coli cell and observe it is hemi-methylated.Which strand of DNA is older?
A)The methylated strand
B)The strand that is not methylated
C)Neither-they are the same "age."
Q3) In eukaryotes, which of the following is similar to the oriC region of prokaryotes?
A)Dam
B)ARS elements
C)Promoters
D)Telomeres
Q4) The Meselson-Stahl experiments used <sup>35</sup>S radioisotopes to determine the mechanism of DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Gene Transcription and RNA Modification
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gene that undergoes rho-dependent termination has a mutation in the rut site. How will this influence transcriptional activity?
A)Transcription will terminate normally as Rho termiantion relies on the rut site to enhance termination; it is not essential for termination
B)Transcription will stop immediately because RNA polymerase will sense there is a mutation
C)Transcription will continue until another termination sequence, either Rho dependent or independent is reached
D)There will be no transcription initiation
Q2) What sequences are not considered to be regulatory elements?
A) Enhancers
B) Silencers
C) Core promoters
D) Cis-acting elements
E) General transcription factors
Q3) Sigma factor belongs to a general group of proteins called the transcription factors. A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 13: Translation of MRNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transcription and translation may occur simultaneously in prokaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are studying the DNA of a person who you know has two defective copies of the gene that encodes phenylalanine hydroxylase. You are surprised to find that this person also carries two defective copies of the gene for homogentisic acid oxidase. What disease symptoms will this person exhibit? (Assume pathway intermediates are not available from sources outside the phenylalanine breakdown pathway.)
A)This person will exhibit symptoms of alkaptonuria.
B)This person will exhibit symptoms of tyrosinosis.
C)This person will exhibit symptoms of phenylketonuria.
D)This person will exhibit symptoms of alkaptonuria and phenylketonuria.
E) This person will be phenotypically normal.
Q3) What is the minimal number of tRNAs that can be used to recognize all of the codons for threonine?
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Gene Regulation in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many promoters are in an operon?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)It depends on how many genes are present in the operon
Q2) The term enzyme adaptation is used to describe an enzyme that appears in a living cell following exposure to a specific substrate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a bacteria is placed in an environment that contains both glucose and lactose, the regulation of the lac operon will allow which nutrient to be processed first?
A)Glucose
B)Lactose
C)Both will be processed equally
D)Neither will be processed in this environment
Q4) Operons that code for catabolic enzyme systems are typically regulated by repressors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes I: Transcriptional Regulation
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Q1) A particular cell contains all of the standard histones but lacks several histone variants. Which of the following MAY be true of this cell?
A)The cell will be completely unable to remodel its chromatin.
B)The cell will have an enhanced ability to chemically modify its histones.
C)The cell will be unable to express any of its genes at all.
D)The cell will express different sets of genes than other cells in the same organism.
E) The cell will not be able to divide.
Q2) Which of the following structural motifs promotes dimerization?
A)Zinc finger
B)Leucine zipper
C)Helix-turn-helix
D)Helix-loop-helix
Q3) Methylation of DNA bases is one way that regulatory transcription factors may influence gene expression.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes II: Epigenetics and
Regulation at the RNA Level
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Q1) In order of their occurrence what are the steps in RNA interference?
A)Processing of RNA transcript by DGCR8, binding to RISC, transport to cytoplasm, processing by Dicer, binding to target mRNA
B) Processing by Dicer, processing of RNA transcript by DGCR8, transport to cytoplasm, binding to RISC, binding to target mRNA
C)Processing of RNA transcript by DGCR8, transport to cytoplasm, processing by Dicer, binding to RISC, binding to target mRNA
D)Processing of RNA transcript by DGCR8, processing by Dicer, transport to cytoplasm, binding to RISC, binding to target mRNA
Q2) Who originally identified a highly condensed structure in the interphase of nuclei?
A)Lyon
B)Barr
C)Ohno
D)None of the answers are correct
Q3) Both parents usually imprint the same gene.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Genetics of Viruses
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Q1) Tetherin is a protein encoded in the human genome. Based on what you know about the interaction between Vpu and tetherin, what do you predict the broad cellular function of tetherin is?
A)To keep HIV particles in place until they are ready to bud
B)To stop the spread of HIV in the body by inhibiting HIV release
C)To help in HIV assembly
D)To help with the maturation of HIV particles
Q2) Azidothymidine (AZT) is mentioned in your book as an HIV drug. AZT is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor. That means AZT is only effective during the ______ stage of the viral life cycle.
A)entry
B)integration
C)viral assembly
D)release
Q3) Reverse transcriptase copies
A)DNA to DNA.
B)DNA to RNA.
C)RNA to DNA.
D)RNA to RNA.
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Chapter 18: Gene Mutation and Dna Repair
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Q1) The mutation frequency is the ratio of the number of mutant alleles to the total number of alleles in a given population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The mechanism for reactive oxygen species to cause mutation is
A)bases are oxidized to a variety of different products which might pair with a different base than the original base would have.
B)thymine bases are dimerized which causes a break in the DNA which is not repaired correctly.
C)the reactive oxygen species stabilize different tautomeric forms of the bases causing inappropriate pairing.
D)guanine is depurinated by the reactive oxygen species and if it is not repaired can result in any base being inserted.
Q3) The mutation frequency would be the same for all genes in a given culture.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Recombination and Transposition at the
Molecular Level
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Q1) The Holliday model is used to explain which of the following?
A)Recombination between homologous chromosomes
B)Recombination between sister chromatids
C)The migration of transposons
D)The replication of transposons
E) The generation of antibody diversity
Q2) Which of the following is technically not part of the genetic information of a transposable element?
A)Long-terminal repeats
B)Inverted repeats
C)Direct repeats
D)Transposase
Q3) Which of the following most likely accounts for the majority of the recombination events during both DNA repair and meiosis?
A)A nick in only one strand of the DNA
B)Double-stranded breaks in DNA
C)DNA gap repair synthesis
D)Heteroduplex formation
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Chapter 20: DNA Technologies
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Q1) What is a DNA library?
A)A collection of vectors, each containing a fragment of the original genome
B)A complete sequence of the genetic material in an organism
C)An electronic file that may be used for additional genetic analysis
D)A collection of mRNA from a given cell
Q2) Mutations generated during site-directed mutagenesis occur randomly in the genome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The presence of a specific plasmid in a bacterial cell may be determined if the plasmid _____.
A)is exceptionally large
B)is an expression vector
C)contains pieces of a viral genome
D)contains a selectable marker
Q4) The DNA Pol III enzyme can use mRNA to make a cDNA strand.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Biotechnology
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Q1) The reduction of pollutants in the environment by microorganisms is called biodegradation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An individual who contains cells that are mutated is called a chimera.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why was the addition of methionine necessary during the production of somatostatin by recombinant bacteria?
A)So that it was compatible with the restriction enzyme
B)As a selectable marker
C)To allow the somatostatin to link to a bacterial protein
D)To increase the length of the peptide to make it more commercial
Q4) Lipid vesicles that are used to introduce DNA into a cell for gene therapy are called liposomes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A transgenic organism has recombinant DNA integrated into its genome.
A)True
B)False
23
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Chapter 22: Genomics I: Analysis of DNA
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Q1) Which of the following acronyms describes a technique used in chromosome painting?
A)RFLP
B)VNTR
C)STR
D)FISH
E)STS
Q2) The term that best describes how the components of a genome interact to produce an organism's traits is:
A)Proteomics
B)Functional genomics
C)Structural genomics
D)Genomics
Q3) Which of the following is the most direct benefit of high-throughput Sanger sequencing?
A)Bases can be identified as soon as they are added to the template.
B)RNA can be directly sequenced without first reverse transcribing it into DNA.
C)An entire chromosome can be sequenced without disrupting it into smaller fragments.
D)Many DNA samples can be sequenced simultaneously.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Genomics II: Functional Genomics, Proteomics, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) What would be the most reasonable technique to use to determine if a drug is capable of inhibiting a transcription factor?
A) ChIP assay used with a DNA microarray
B) Mass spectometry of proteins in the cell
C) 2-D gel electrophoresis
D) Antibody microarray
Q2) In analyzing microarray data if the ratio of mRNA present before and after a particular treatment is 1 it indicates that
A)there was no change in mRNA levels before and after treatment.
B)the gene was not expressed either before or after treatment.
C)gene expression could not be detected.
D)mRNA was not detected before treatment.
Q3) What technique can be used to identify a proteins function?
A)Functional protein microarray
B)Antibody microarray
C)DNA microarray
D)RNA microarray
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Chapter 24: Medical Genetics and Cancer
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Q1) When GTP is bound to Ras, it is in the _____ form.
A)active
B)inactive
Q2) The term that indicates that cancer has begun to migrate to other parts of the body is ______.
A)malignant
B)benign
C)metastatic
D)invasive
E) clonal
Q3) A pedigree analysis is the study of family trees to establish patterns of inheritance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An environmental agent that causes cancer is called a _______.
A) carcinogen
B) malignant agent
C) invasive agent
D) metastatic agent
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Chapter 25: Developmental Genetics
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Q1) A
C.elegans with a heterochronic mutation in lin-14 will lay eggs normally.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The spatial arrangement of different regions in the body is called a _______.
A) pattern
B) morphogen
C) induction
D) segment
Q3) Antennapedia in Drosophila is an example of a _________.
A)Loss-of-function mutation
B)Gain-of-function mutation
C)Zygotic mutation
D)Segmentation mutation
Q4) Which segment gene is activated first in the Drosophila embryo?
A)pair-rule genes
B)segment-polarity genes
C)gap genes
D)myogenic bHLH genes
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Chapter 26: Population Genetics
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Q1) The smallest difference in DNA sequence between a gene in two individuals is a single-nucleotide polymorphism (SNP).
A)True
B)False
Q2) The measure of the reproductive success of a genotype is called Darwinian fitness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The degree of relatedness of two members of a pedigree is calculated using _____.
A)The calculation of average heterozygosity
B)The Hardy-Weinberg rule
C)The coefficient of inbreeding
D)The chi-square test
Q4) Migration is a key evolution mechanism by which microevolution occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) New genetic variation in a population is a critical aspect of microevolution.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Quantitative Genetics
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Q1) To use a backcross mating strategy for QTL mapping
A)two inbred parental strains that differ in a quantitative trait are crossed are mated.
B)the F<sub>1</sub> offspring are crossed with each other.
C)the F<sub>2</sub> offspring must contain chromosomes that are recombinant betweeen the markers and the genes involved in the trait
D)each parent should contain the same alleles at each QTL.
Q2) In QTL mapping, the parental strains are crossed and the F<sub>1</sub> generation backcrossed to which of the following?
A)The F<sub>2</sub> generation
B)The parental generation
C)A strain that is homozygous recessive for all markers
D)A wild-type organism
Q3) QTL mapping can rely on the relationship between genes for quantitative traits and which of the following?
A)The centromere
B)Transposon sites
C)Structural genes
D)Molecular markers such as RFLPs
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Chapter 28: Evolutionary Genetics
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Q1) One definition of species is a group of individuals whose members have the potential to interbreed and produce viable, fertile offspring.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The production of sterile offspring is an example of a prezygotic isolation mechanism.
A)True B)False
Q3) The biological species concept was introduced by A)Dobzhansky.
B)Darwin.
C)Mayr.
D)Mendel.
E) Wallace.
Q4) What is the most common form of cladogenesis?
A)Parapatric speciation
B)Allopatric speciation
C)Sympatric speciation
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Page 30