Physiology for Healthcare Professionals
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Physiology for Healthcare Professionals provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental mechanisms that underlie the functioning of the human body, with a particular focus on systems relevant to clinical practice. The course covers topics such as cell physiology, neurophysiology, cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, gastrointestinal, and endocrine systems, as well as fluid and electrolyte balance. Emphasis is placed on the integration of these physiological processes in maintaining homeostasis and supporting health, as well as the physiological basis of common diseases. Through lectures, case studies, and interactive activities, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of how physiological principles apply to patient care and clinical decision-making in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by
Kevin T. Patton
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Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Circulatory system and lymphatic system
A)Reproduction and development
B)Processing, regulation, and maintenance
C)Outer protection
D)Support and movement
E)Communication, control, and integration
F)Transportation and defense
Answer: F
Q2) Respiratory system, digestive system, and endocrine system
A)Reproduction and development
B)Processing, regulation, and maintenance
C)Outer protection
D)Support and movement
E)Communication, control, and integration
F)Transportation and defense
Answer: B
Q3) List the directional terms, and use them to describe the relationship between two structures in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A one-celled organism whose DNA is organized into a nucleus that can parasitize human tissue
A)Prion
B)Tumor
C)Fungi
D)Gene mutation
E)Bacteria
F)Virus
G)Protozoa
Answer: G
Q2) Explain the feed-forward control system, and give an example of one in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Q3) Pathogenesis can be defined as:
A)a specific disease.
B)a group of diseases.
C)the course of disease development.
D)a subgroup of viruses.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called:
A)hydrolysis.
B)oxidation.
C)decomposition.
D)dehydration synthesis.
Answer: D
Q2) Subatomic particle with no charge
A)Proton
B)Neutron
C)Electron
D)Isotopes
E)Ionic bonds
F)Covalent bonds
G)Octet rule
H)Atomic number
I)Atomic mass
J)Hydrogen bonds
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucose is a hexose, and ribose is a pentose.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are:
A)triglycerides.
B)phosphoglycerides.
C)steroids.
D)prostaglandins.
Q3) List the types of lipids, and give a function for each type.
Q4) The basic building blocks of fats are:
A)monosaccharides.
B)disaccharides.
C)amino acids.
D)fatty acids and glycerol.
Q5) Adenine and thymine are referred to as purine bases, which are important constituents of a DNA molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast the structures of DNA and RNA.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteasomes only destroy abnormal or misfolded proteins in the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Microtubules are sometimes called the "engines" of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How do vesicles move from place to place in an organized way within the cell?
A)Molecular motors pull them along the microtubules and microfilaments of the cytoskeleton
B)Vaults pull them along the microtubules and microfilaments of the cytoskeleton.
C)Rafts pull them along the microtubules and microfilaments of the cytoskeleton.
D)Microvilli and flagella move them along the microtubules and microfilaments of the cytoskeleton.
Q4) Explain the process by which a protein is processed in preparation for being released by the cell, starting at the ribosome and ending at the cell membrane.
Q5) The watery fluid in the cell is called cytosol.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Cell Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxygen is used in the citric acid cycle in cell respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a 20% glucose solution were separated from a 10% glucose solution by a permeable membrane:
A)glucose would move from the 20% solution to the 10% solution.
B)water would move from the 10% solution to the 20% solution.
C)water would move from the 20% solution to the 10% solution.
D)both A and B would occur.
Q3) The process of pinocytosis may be viewed as the cell drinking.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The electron transport system makes ATP by the movement of electrons through the inner mitochondrial membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q5) For osmosis to occur there must be at least one impermeable solute present.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast the processes of diffusion and osmosis.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme DNA polymerase coordinates the mechanism of obligatory base pairing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This is the term used to describe the number of chromosomes in a gamete.
A)Adenine
B)mRNA
C)Intron
D)RNAi
E)Uracil
F)Chaperone protein
G)Transcription
H)tRNA
I)Thymine
J)Exons
K)Proteasomes
L)Telomere
M)Centromere
N)Haploid
O)Diploid
P)Translation
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The serous membrane covering the lungs is the visceral pleura.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Briefly describe serous membranes, and give their location in the body. Differentiate between visceral and parietal membranes, and give an example of each.
Q3) Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate?
A)Muscle
B)Nervous
C)Epithelial
D)All of the above tissue have about equal ability to regenerate.
Q4) Matrix may be defined as the living intracellular material surrounding the cells of a tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A malignant tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is generally called a sarcoma.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name and briefly describe the four principal types of tissue in the body.
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following exocrine glands constitutes the mammary glands?
A)Merocrine
B)Apocrine
C)Holocrine
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not a class of cartilage tissue?
A)Hyaline
B)Fibrocartilage
C)Cancellous
D)Elastic
Q3) Glands that self-destruct to complete their function, such as glands that produce oil to lubricate the skin
A)Endocrine
B)Holocrine
C)Merocrine
D)Apocrine
Q4) In the process of endochondral ossification, the bone that is formed replaces cartilage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) An abnormal thickening of the stratum corneum is called hyperkeratosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the dermal-epidermal junction?
A)It is important in blocking bacteria from passing through the skin.
B)It is composed chiefly of basement membrane.
C)Its function is to "glue" the two layers of skin together.
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) Explain how the involvement of desmosomes in a blister is a good example of the relationship between structure and function at the chemical level of organization.
Q4) Name and describe what occurs in the cells in each of the layers of the epidermis.
Q5) Which of the following is not true of dermal growth and repair?
A)Just as the epidermis, the dermis is in a constant state of regeneration.
B)In the healing of an injury, fibroblasts reproduce and begin to form new connective tissue.
C)Surgical incisions made parallel to cleavage lines are less likely to leave a scar.
D)All of the above statements are true.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both compact and spongy, or cancellous, bone have canaliculi.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A person with a diet rich in calcium would probably have a:
A)low level of calcitonin.
B)low level of parathyroid hormone.
C)high level of calcitonin.
D)Both B and C are correct.
Q3) Diploë can be found:
A)in the diaphysis of a compact bone.
B)in the middle of spongy bone.
C)in the epiphysis of compact bone.
D)connecting parallel osteons in spongy bone.
Q4) A major difference between bone tissue and cartilage is the makeup of the matrix.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Another name for compact bone is cancellous bone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cribriform plate is part of the sphenoid bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which bone marking can be defined as a depression in a bone and often receives an articulating bone?
A)Trochanter
B)Fossa
C)Foramen
D)Ramus
Q3) The face contains more bones than the cranium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The palatine bones have horizontal portions that are part of the hard palate. A)True
B)False
Q5) All vertebrae except the sacrum and coccyx have a central opening called the: A)spinous process.
B)vertebral foramen.
C)dens.
D)transverse process.
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shoulder girdle consists of only the scapula and the clavicle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Radial tuberosity
A)Femur
B)Fibula
C)Humerus
D)Coxal
E)Radius
F)Scapula
G)Tibia
H)Ulna
Q3) The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the:
A)elbow.
B)shoulder.
C)wrist.
D)thumb.
Q4) Explain how age differences and environmental factors may cause skeletal variations.
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rotator cuff surgery is performed quite commonly on professional baseball players, especially pitchers. Evidently, the throwing motion places enormous stress on the: A)elbow.
B)wrist.
C)shoulder. D)hip.
Q2) In terms of structure, which type of articulation has a joint capsule?
A)Fibrous
B)Cartilaginous
C)Synovial
D)Amphiarthrotic
Q3) The ranking of joints from most movement to least movement would be synarthroses, amphiarthroses, and diarthroses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is slight movement of the symphysis pubis necessary?
Q5) Arthroplasty is the total or partial replacement of a joint with a prosthesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a muscle causes the knee to bend, the insertion point is above the knee and the origin point is below the knee.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Deltoid
A)Location
B)Function
C)Shape
D)Direction of fibers
E)Number of heads or divisions
F)Points of attachment
Q3) Most muscles span a joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The deltoid is an example of a muscle named by its shape.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The main function of the trapezius muscle is to move the scapulae.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The posterior arm muscle that extends the forearm is the: A)biceps brachii.
B)triceps brachii.
C)supinator.
D)brachialis.
Q2) The muscle that extends and adducts the arm is the:
A)deltoid.
B)latissimus dorsi.
C)trapezius.
D)pectoralis minor.
Q3) All of the following muscles are part of the rotator cuff muscles except the: A)deltoid.
B)infraspinatus.
C)supraspinatus.
D)teres minor.
Q4) Which of the following muscles does not move the upper arm?
A)Pectoralis major
B)Latissimus dorsi
C)Deltoid
D)Trapezius
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the sarcomere contracts, the A-bands become smaller.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Recruitment is the term used to describe the addition of more motor units to allow a muscle to increase its strength of contraction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In smooth muscle cells, the protein calmodulin takes the place of the sarcoplasmic reticulum found in striated muscle cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sarcolemma is a:
A)system of transverse tubules that extend at a right angle to the long axis of the cell.
B)segment of the myofibril between two successive Z-lines.
C)unique name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber.
D)None of the above are correct.
Q5) Define rigor mortis. Why does it occur?
Q6) List three conditions that influence the strength of muscle contraction.
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the components of the blood-brain barrier is:
A)astrocytes.
B)neurons.
C)myelin.
D)oligodendrocytes.
Q2) Oligodendrocytes are found only around dendrites of neurons of the CNS.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Preparing the body for "fight or flight" describes the function of the _____ nervous system.
A)parasympathetic
B)sympathetic
C)somatic
D)Both B and C are correct.
Q4) Part of the function of the astrocyte is to help feed the neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Gray fibers have no association with Schwann cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neuron is able to maintain an internal negative charge by pumping out sodium (Na ) and pumping in chloride (Cl-).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Stimulus-gated channels open in response to:
A)sensory stimuli.
B)the influx of potassium.
C)hyperpolarization.
D)both A and B.
Q3) A synaptic knob would be located on a(n):
A)cell body.
B)axon.
C)dendrite.
D)cell body, axon, or dendrite.
Q4) Which of the following is not used by the body as a neurotransmitter?
A)Nitric oxide
B)Peroxide
C)Carbon monoxide
D)All of the above are used by the body as neurotransmitters.
Q5) Define IPSP and EPSP.
21
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) William was recently involved in a serious automobile accident. As a result, he has had difficulty controlling his skeletal muscles and maintaining his balance. What part of the nervous system was most likely damaged?
A)Cerebellum
B)Cerebral cortex
C)Myelin sheath of the peripheral neurons
D)Pineal gland
Q2) The central nervous system directly or indirectly regulates or influences nearly every organ in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What structure drains cerebrospinal fluid into the third ventricle?
A)Cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius)
B)Interventricular foramen (of Monro)
C)Lateral foramina (of Luschka)
D)Cisterna magna
Q4) Funiculi consist of tracts divided into smaller bundles called nerve fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sends fibers to the occipital lobe and the superior colliculi
A)Olfactory nerve
B)Optic nerve
C)Oculomotor nerve
D)Trochlear nerve
E)Trigeminal nerve
F)Abducens nerve
G)Vestibulocochlear nerve
H)Glossopharyngeal nerve
I)Vagus nerve
J)Hypoglossal nerve
Q2) The brachial plexus is the only plexus that contains a thoracic spinal nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is not true of the dorsal nerve root?
A)It is also called the posterior root.
B)It includes the spinal ganglion.
C)It includes sensory fibers.
D)All of the above are true.
Q4) Explain how the nerve plexuses make the nervous system more efficient.
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Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because:
A)they reach visceral effectors faster than parasympathetic impulses.
B)myoneural junctions contain a substance that inactivates acetylcholine.
C)preganglionic fibers are short and postganglionic fibers are long.
D)preganglionic fibers synapse with several postsynaptic fibers.
Q2) Informal term used to describe the response of the body to parasympathetic nervous system stimulation
A)Sympathetic nervous system
B)Parasympathetic nervous system
C)Alpha receptor
D)Nicotinic receptor
E)Sympathetic trunk
F)Splanchnic nerve
G)"Fight or flight"
H)"Rest and repair"
I)Acetylcholine
J)Norepinephrine
Q3) Explain the source and possible synapse points for the sympathetic preganglionic neurons.
Q4) What is the name of the enzyme that terminates the action of acetylcholine?
Page 24
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Chapter 23: General Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anatomically, each muscle spindle consists of a discrete grouping of about 5 to 10 modified muscle fibers called intrafusal fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following defines or explains adaptation?
A)The magnitude of a receptor response increases over time to a continuous stimulus.
B)The magnitude of a receptor response decreases over time to a continuous stimulus.
C)The stimulus is sent to the thalamus and redirected to the brainstem.
D)None of the above defines or explains adaptation.
Q3) Encapsulated nerve endings are encapsulated by cuboidal epithelial tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which large mechanoreceptor, when sectioned, shows thick laminated connective tissue capsules?
A)Krause end bulb
B)Ruffini corpuscle
C)Pacinian corpuscle
D)Root hair plexus
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Chapter 24: Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changes in size or shape determine the size of the pupil
A)Aqueous humor
B)Choroid
C)Cones
D)Cornea
E)Fovea centralis
F)Iris
G)Optic disk
H)Retina
I)Rods
J)Vitreous humor
Q2) The vitamin A derivative opsin is an important component of photopigments in rods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Presbyopia is a condition resulting from:
A)excessive aqueous humor.
B)opacity of the lens.
C)loss of lens elasticity.
D)irregular curvature of the cornea.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Steroids are able to pass easily through a target cell's plasma membrane because they are:
A)synthesized from amino acids.
B)synthesized from carbohydrates.
C)lipid-soluble.
D)synthesized from nucleic acids.
Q2) The general effect of hormones is to produce regulatory changes within the target cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The endocrine system functions at a much greater speed than the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Responses that result from endocrine feedback loops are called endocrine reflexes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Chemically, steroid hormones are derived from the cholesterol molecule. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Q1) Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the basophils?
A)Prolactin
B)Luteinizing hormone (LH)
C)Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D)Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Q2) Glucagon, produced by alpha cells, tends to promote the movement of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids out of the blood and into tissue cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cells in the neurohypophysis make two hormones: ADH and oxytocin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Under stress conditions, the hypothalamus is a "go between," linking the cerebrum and the pituitary.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and briefly describe the tropic hormones produced by the pituitary gland. What is a tropic hormone?
Q6) Explain how the renin-angiotensin mechanism operates to maintain blood pressure.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Platelets are important for blood clotting and hemostasis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) People with type AB blood are considered universal recipients because their blood:
A)does not contain the Rh antigen.
B)does not contain either anti-A or anti-B antibodies.
C)is absent of both antigen A and antigen B in the red blood cells.
D)Both B and C are correct.
Q3) The only people who can ever have anti-Rh antibodies in their plasma are Rh-positive men or women who have been transfused with Rh-negative blood or Rh-positive women who have carried an Rh-negative fetus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following are not found in the buffy coat?
A)Erythrocytes
B)Leukocytes
C)Thrombocytes
D)All of the above are found in the buffy coat.
Q5) Name and give the function of the three blood-formed elements.
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the anatomic positioning of the heart.
Q2) Late repolarization of the Purkinje fibers, larger with hypokalemia
A)QRS complex
B)P wave
C)T wave
D)U wave
Q3) The sinoatrial node is in the right atrium, where the superior vena cava attaches.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not an atrioventricular valve?
A)Aortic
B)Mitral
C)Bicuspid
D)Tricuspid
Q5) As compared with the body's own heart pacemaker, what is the major disadvantage of a mechanical pacemaker?
Q6) Tachycardia refers to a heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Q1) Blood flow from the heart to the body (not the lungs) and back to the heart
A)Arteries
B)Capillaries
C)Pulmonary circulation
D)Systemic circulation
E)Tunica adventitia
F)Tunica intima
G)Tunica media
H)Veins
Q2) Arteriovenous shunts can redirect blood through the skin to help regulate heat loss.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Arteriosclerosis means "chest pain."
A)True
B)False
Q4) The blood vessels that supply other blood vessels with blood are called the vasa vasorum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greater the cross-sectional area of a vessel, the greater the speed of the blood flow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Grief tends to make the heart beat faster.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following tasks must the circulation control mechanism accomplish?
A)Maintain circulation.
B)Vary the volume and distribution of the blood circulated.
C)Make sure that all cells receive the same amount of blood to maintain nutrient and oxygen levels.
D)Both A and B are correct.
Q4) Osmotic pressure tends to move plasma out of the capillary and into the tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An increase in ADH in the blood would have a tendency to increase total blood volume.
A)True
B)False
32
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tonsils located near the posterior opening of the nasal cavity are called the _____ tonsils.
A)palatine
B)pharyngeal
C)lingual
D)laryngeal
Q2) The spleen is not classified as a vital organ.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lymph ducts empty into the circulatory system, draining into the:
A)jugular vein.
B)subclavian veins.
C)superior vena cava.
D)inferior vena cava.
Q4) The lymph taken from what location has the highest concentration of protein?
A)Thoracic duct
B)Cisterna chyli
C)Spleen
D)Thymus
Q5) Describe the important functions performed by the thymus.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not describe phagocytosis?
A)The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles
B)Part of the inflammatory response
C)A major component of the body's third line of defense
D)A nonspecific defense
Q2) Which of the following is not part of the inflammation response?
A)The release of chemicals that attract white blood cells
B)The formation of antibodies
C)The increase of blood flow to the inflamed area
D)All of the above are part of the inflammation response.
Q3) Complement can be activated only by the specific immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One function of phagocytes is to function as antigen-presenting cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pavementing is the attraction of neutrophils to the site of an infection.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is a natural killer cell? Explain the functioning of a natural killer cell.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Even though tumor cells are part of your body, your immune system treats them as "foreign" and tries to destroy them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A mother passes antibodies to her baby
A)Natural active immunity
B)Natural passive immunity
C)Artificial active immunity
D)Artificial passive immunity
Q3) Complement can best be described as a(n):
A)enzyme in blood.
B)lymphokine.
C)antibody.
D)hormone.
Q4) A person without a functioning immune system would not benefit from an injection of antibodies developed by someone else.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the development, activation, and functions of T cells.
Q6) Explain how the AIDS virus seems to affect the immune system.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is(are) characteristic of the stage of exhaustion?
A)Initially increased glucocorticoid secretion but eventually marked decreased secretion
B)Loss of resistance to stressor; may lead to death
C)Stress triad
D)All of the above
Q2) The current definition of stress is any stimulus that directly or indirectly stimulates neurons of the hypothalamus to release cortisol.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During the alarm stage, the body exhibits lowered resistance to stressors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The level of adrenocorticoids in the urine is often used to measure stress.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Water loss and a decrease in blood volume are common stress responses.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How is type A behavior related to stress, and what, if anything, may result?
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The epiglottis is a small, leaf-shaped cartilage that projects upward behind the tongue and hyoid bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Surfactant is a fluid coating the alveoli that reduces surface tension.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The anatomical division of the pharynx that is located behind the mouth from the soft palate above to the level of the hyoid bone below is called the:
A)nasopharynx.
B)oropharynx.
C)laryngopharynx.
D)sphenopharynx.
Q4) The hollow nasal cavity is separated by a midline partition called the:
A)septum.
B)conchae.
C)cribriform plate.
D)turbinates.
Q5) What part of the respiratory system serves as resonating chambers for speech?
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A relatively large increase in arterial oxygen partial pressure stimulates an increase in breathing rate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure:
A)inspiration occurs.
B)expiration occurs.
C)lung tissue has collapsed.
D)the bronchioles are obstructed.
Q3) A man is at the bottom of a 20-foot tank filled with water and can breathe only through a rigid 15-foot tube. Using the concept of anatomical dead air space, explain why the man may soon begin to suffer from oxygen deprivation.
Q4) A poorly perfused but well-ventilated part of the lung wastes blood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The pneumotaxic center is located in the pons of the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the diving reflex.
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under usual conditions, the partial pressure of oxygen in systemic venous blood is approximately 87 mm Hg.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify the major factors that help determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute.
Q3) White blood cells do not have a role in oxygen transport.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An increase in the plasma PCO and a decrease in PO cause an increase in the dissociation of CO from hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The enzyme in blood plasma that helps form carbaminohemoglobin is carbonic anhydrase.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the process by which carbon dioxide is transported by the blood.
Q7) Briefly describe and diagram the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the functions of the intrinsic factor of the stomach is to protect vitamin A from damage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dental caries is another name for tooth decay.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Innermost layer of the GI tract; contains the lamina propria
A)Sublingual salivary gland
B)Submucosa layer
C)Dentin
D)Muscularis layer
E)Mucosa layer
F)Parotid salivary gland
G)Enamel
H)Submandibular salivary gland
I)Tongue
J)Serosa layer
Q4) Name the secretory cells of the stomach wall and describe the secretions from each.
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The liver is the largest gland in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Jaundice occurs when the pancreatic duct is blocked and the contents of the pancreas enter the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The normal nonpathogenic bacteria in the intestine produce important molecules such as vitamin K and biotin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The peritoneum that covers the organs is called the visceral layer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The hepatic flexure of the large intestine is located in the left hypochondriac region.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List the functions of the liver.
Q7) Explain the cause of appendicitis.
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Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Segmentation is described as a wavelike muscle contraction in a hollow organ that moves food through the digestive system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both simple sugars and amino acids are absorbed into the blood in the intestinal capillaries.
A)True B)False
Q3) After leaving the stomach, chyme normally takes about 5 hours to pass all the way through the small intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Glucose moves from the GI tract into the circulatory system by the process of: A)diffusion.
B)cotransport.
C)facilitated diffusion.
D)filtration.
Q5) Explain the difference between transcellular absorption and paracellular absorption. What can be absorbed by means of paracellular absorption?
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common lipids in the diet are:
A)phospholipids.
B)cholesterol.
C)triglycerides.
D)prostaglandins.
Q2) The process of splitting glycogen is called:
A)glycogenesis.
B)glycogenolysis. C)gluconeogenesis.
Q3) The level of glucose in the blood has an impact on the appetite center. A)True B)False
Q4) The monosaccharides fructose, glucose, and galactose are all equally useful to the cell.
A)True B)False
Q5) Metabolism requires the use of enzymes to catalyze chemical reactions. A)True B)False
Q6) Explain what is meant by oxidative phosphorylation.
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Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) About 180 liters of filtrate is formed each day.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Tube nearest to the glomerular capsule
A)Distal convoluted tubule
B)Glomerulus
C)Glomerular capsule
D)Nephron loop
E)Proximal convoluted tubule
F)Collecting duct
G)Peritubular capillary
H)Vasa recta
Q3) Explain how the nephron loop establishes a solute concentration gradient from the top of the loop to the bottom of the loop.
Q4) ANH reinforces and adds to the effect of aldosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Aldosterone tends to increase urine volume, thereby promoting water loss.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following two forces tend to move fluid out of the blood vessel?
A)Blood hydrostatic pressure and blood colloid osmotic pressure
B)Blood colloid osmotic pressure and interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
C)Blood hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid colloid pressure
Q2) Because the GFR is almost constant, the amount of hormone in the blood has the biggest impact on urine volume.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid?
A)Sodium
B)Chlorine
C)Potassium
D)Magnesium
Q4) Water is added to the body only through the digestive tract.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare the chemical compositions of plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid.
Q6) What are anions? What are cations? Give examples of each.
Q7) Describe the functioning thirst center. Where is it located?
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Chapter 44: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged hypoventilation may increase blood pH enough to produce alkalosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Any substance that increases the hydrogen ion concentration of a solution
A)Alkaline
B)pH
C)Buffer
D)Acid
E)Alkalosis
F)Chloride shift
G)Acidosis
H)Metabolic alkalosis
I)Metabolic acidosis
J)Respiratory acidosis
K)Respiratory alkalosis
Q3) Most body fluid buffer pairs contain a strong base and a weak acid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the chloride shift and what is its cause?
Q5) Describe the respiratory compensation for a change in blood pH.
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Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vas deferens acts as a storage area and a conduction pathway for sperm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One important difference between asexual and sexual reproduction is that in asexual reproduction the offspring have more variation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The sustentacular cells produce and secrete testosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The gland that secretes an alkaline substance that constitutes about 30% of the seminal fluid is the:
A)seminal vesicle.
B)Cowper gland.
C)bulbourethral gland.
D)prostate gland.
Q5) Explain structure and the function of the scrotum.
Q6) Describe the structure and function of the sustentacular cells.
Q7) Name and give the function of the hormones that regulate the male reproductive system.
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mammary glands are essential organs of reproduction in women.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Functions of the vagina include being a receptacle for semen and being the last part of the birth canal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not an accessory sex organ of the female reproductive system?
A)Ovary
B)Vagina
C)Fallopian tube
D)Mammary glands
Q4) As part of the cyclical changes occurring in the uterus, both estrogen and progesterone cause an increase in myometrial contractions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how the cyclic changes in the uterus are regulated.
Q6) Describe how the cyclic changes in the ovaries are regulated.
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Chapter 47: Growth, Development, and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fertilization most often occurs in the outer one third of the oviduct.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As one ages, anxiety and hostility increases, control over fear lessens, and resistance to happiness increases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As the body develops, the:
A)head becomes proportionately smaller.
B)face decreases from one half to one eighth of the skull surface.
C)trunk becomes proportionately longer.
D)thoracic and abdominal contours become more rounded.
Q4) Some gerontologists believe that aging is "preprogrammed."
A)True
B)False
Q5) Theca cells produce androgen, a steroid that is converted by granulosa cells into testosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly discuss the three stages of labor.
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a man had Leber hereditary optic neuropathy, a mitochondrial DNA-carried disease, what is the probability of him passing the trait on to his offspring?
A)100%
B)75%
C)0%
D)There is not enough information to determine the probability.
Q2) Disease genes never provide biological advantages for human populations, regardless of the circumstances.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A mutation caused by the loss of nucleotide bases in DNA sequence is called a deletion mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The term pedigree refers to the entire collection of genetic material in each typical cell of the human body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe three possible hypotheses for the genetic basis of cancer.
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