Physiology for Health Sciences
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Physiology for Health Sciences provides an in-depth understanding of the fundamental mechanisms that regulate the human body's structure and function. The course emphasizes physiological processes in major organ systems including cardiovascular, respiratory, nervous, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, renal, and endocrine systems while highlighting their integration and relevance to health, wellness, and disease. Students will explore how the body maintains homeostasis, adapts to internal and external stressors, and responds to injury and illness. This foundation prepares learners for advanced studies and practical applications in various health science fields.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Elaine N. Marie
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29 Chapters
3446 Verified Questions
3446 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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118 Verified Questions
118 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A major function of serous membranes is to decrease friction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Used for changes in blood pressure.
A)Negative feedback
B)Positive feedback
Answer: A
Q3) Anatomical position is important because ________.
A) it allows a common point of reference for body position to help communicate anatomical relationships
B) it provides the greatest circulation to the extremities
C) it allows diagrams within textbooks to display a greater surface area of the body with one simple diagram
D) it is the position most comfortable to hospital patients
Answer: A
Q4) Similar cells that have a common function are called ________.
Answer: tissues
Q5) What type of homeostatic feedback reflex is the withdrawal reflex?
Answer: negative
3
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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137 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All organic compounds contain carbon.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) How many phosphates would AMP have attached to it?
A) three
B) two
C) one
D) none
Answer: C
Q3) An amino acid may act as a proton acceptor or donor.Explain.
Answer: Amino acids have two components a base group (proton acceptor)and an organic acid part (a proton donor).Some have additional base or acid groups on the ends of their R groups as well.
Q4) About 60% to 80% of the volume of most living cells consists of organic compounds. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Replicate for cell division.
A)C
B)E C)D
D)A
E)B Answer: C
Q2) Packages proteins for insertion in the cell membrane or for exocytosis.
A)C
B)E C)D
D)A
E)B Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements is correct regarding net diffusion?
A) The greater the concentration gradient, the faster the rate.
B) The lower the temperature, the faster the rate.
C) The rate is independent of temperature.
D) Molecular weight of a substance does not affect the rate.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is,they have a free surface and a basal surface.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following statements refer to events of tissue repair.Put the events in proper numbered order according to the sequence of occurrence.The initial event,the injury,is already indicated as number one.
1.The skin receives a cut that penetrates into the dermis and bleeding begins.
2.Epithelial regeneration is nearly complete.
3.Granulation tissue is formed.
4.Blood clotting occurs and stops the blood flow.
5.The wound retracts.
6.Macrophages engulf and clean away cellular debris.
7.Fibroblasts elaborate connective tissue fibers to span the break.
Q3) How is hyaline cartilage different from elastic cartilage or fibrocartilage?
A) It is more vascularized.
B) Fibers are not normally visible.
C) It allows great flexibility.
D) It contains more nuclei.
Q4) Without macrophages,wound healing is delayed.Why?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surge of sex hormones that accompanies puberty has a wide range of effects on the body.One of those effects is to enhance the activity of the sebaceous glands,increasing the production of sebum.Which of the following is the most likely to result from the increased sebaceous activity?
A) Increased hair growth.
B) Decreased vitamin D synthesis.
C) Increased cooling of the skin.
D) Increased oily appearance and more acne.
Q2) Burns that result in injury to the epidermis and the upper regions of the dermis is called a ________ burn.
Q3) Robert,a surfer,has a mole that has changed its shape and size.His doctor,applying the ABCDE)rule,diagnosed a melanoma.What do the letters ABCDE)represent?
Q4) What are the most important factors influencing hair growth?
A) age and glandular products
B) the size and number of hair follicles
C) sex and hormones
D) nutrition and hormones
Q5) The ________ are the small muscles located in the dermis that cause goose bumps.
Q6) What are vellus hairs?
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an osteoblast becomes completely surrounded by its own matrix secretions it is referred to as an ________.
A) osteogenic cell
B) chondrocyte
C) osteoclast
D) osteocyte
Q2) Lengthwise,long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________.
A) calcification of the matrix of the zone underlying articular cartilage
B) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates
C) differentiation of osteoclasts into osteocytes
D) the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity
Q3) People who live in northern latitudes may require supplemental calcium with vitamin D.Explain why.
Q4) Bone formed is poorly mineralized and soft.Deforms on weight bearing.
A)Paget's disease
B)Osteoporosis
C)Osteomalacia
Q5) When does prevention of osteoporosis start?
Q6) What is found in a central (Haversian)canal?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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125 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fused rudimentary tailbone.
A)Lumbar vertebrae
B)Axis
C)Atlas
D)Coccyx
E)Thoracic vertebrae
Q2) Sam is an accountant who is especially busy during tax season.By the end of each day he complains of shoulder stiffness and tightness as well as some upper back pain.What might be Sam's problem and how could he prevent the discomfort?
Q3) How are thoracic vertebrae 11 and 12 different from the other vertebrae?
A) There are two foramina on vertebrae 11 and 12.
B) The transverse processes do not have facets that articulate with the tubercles of the ribs.
C) The orientation of the articular processes is different from all the other thoracic vertebrae.
D) The spinous processes are directed parallel with the centrum.
Q4) Costal cartilages join most ribs to the sternum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) A friend finally completes a basement floor tiling project that required extensive time on his knees.Afterwards,knee pain took him to a doctor who diagnosed bursitis.Help explain to your friend what bursitis is and what can be done to relieve it.
Q2) On the basis of structural classification,which is a fibrous joint?
A) pivot
B) syndesmosis
C) symphysis
D) synchondrosis
Q3) Joint 3.
A)pivot
B)saddle
C)hinge
D)condyloid
E)ball and socket
F)plane
Q4) Supination is the movement of the forearm in which the palm of the hand is turned anteriorly or superiorly.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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129 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reduction in blood flow to a muscle fiber would have the greatest effect on
A) slow oxidative fibers
B) fast oxidative fibers
C) both slow and fast oxidative
D) fast glycolytic
Q2) A smooth,sustained contraction from rapid stimulation is called ________.
Q3) 25 meter swim.
A)Direct phosphorylation
B)Anaerobic pathway
C)Aerobic pathway
Q4) Describe how the unique contractile mechanism of smooth muscle allows it to contract and remain in a contracted state for long periods of time with relatively little energy expenditure.
Q5) A relatively high percentage are found in successful marathon runners.
A)Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
B)Fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers
C)fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers
Q6) Describe the difference between muscle tension,muscle contraction and a muscle twitch.
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ tightens the neck and draws the corners of the mouth downward as in expressing horror.
A) platysma
B) mentalis
C) sternocleidomastoid
D) sternohyoid
Q2) Coracobrachialis.
A)C
B)D
C)B
D)E
E)A
Q3) What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts?
A) a prime mover
B) an agonist
C) a synergist
D) an antagonist
Q4) How can a lever system work at a mechanical disadvantage but still be of use to us?
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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95 Verified Questions
95 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a post synaptic cell is stimulated to threshold by temporal summation this implies that ________.
A) the postsynaptic cell can be influenced by only one presynaptic cell
B) the postsynaptic cell is sending frequent action potential
C) a presynaptic neuron is sending frequent EPSP
D) the presynaptic neuron is sending frequent IPSP
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system?
A) innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract
B) innervation of skeletal muscle
C) innervation of cardiac muscle
D) innervation of glands
Q3) Calcium ions.
Q4) When one or more presynaptic neurons fire in rapid order it produces a much greater depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane than would result from a single EPSP; this event is called ________ summation.
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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in cortical arousal and stimulation.
Q2) Which statement about coma is true?
A) Coma may be caused by widespread cerebral or brain stem trauma.
B) During coma, brain oxygen consumption resembles that of a waking state.
C) Coma is a form of deep sleep.
D) Coma is neurologically identical to syncope.
Q3) Which of the following is a dural septum,described as a large sickle-shaped fold that dips into the longitudinal fissure between the cerebral hemispheres?
A) tentorium cerebelli
B) corpus callosum
C) falx cerebelli
D) falx cerebri
Q4) What connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland?
A) mammillary bodies
B) infundibulum
C) arbor vitae
D) optic chiasma
Q5) What is the function of the limbic system?
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A doctor asks her patient to follow the motion of her finger as she moves it up and down,left and right.Which of the following cranial nerves is not being tested?
A) the oculomotor nerve (III)
B) the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
C) the abducens (VI)
D) the trochlear nerve (IV)
Q2) Tactile sensation is a combination of touch,pressure,stretch and vibration.Which of the following is most likely the receptor type that senses tactile stimulation?
A) mechanoreceptors
B) proprioceptors
C) nociceptors
D) thermoreceptors
Q3) Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________.
A) lumbar plexus
B) sacral plexus
C) thoracic plexus
D) femoral plexus
Q4) Name three unencapsulated sensory receptors and tell what they are used for.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most blood vessels are innervated by the sympathetic division alone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________.
A) preganglionic fibers are short
B) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow
C) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
D) preganglionic fibers are long
Q3) Secreted by most postganglionic sympathetic fibers.
A)Norepinephrine (NE)
B)Acetylcholine (ACh)
Q4) The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition,depending on the division that is active and the target that is affected.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Secreted by postganglionic sympathetic fibers to sweat glands.
A)Norepinephrine (NE)
B)Acetylcholine (ACh)
Q6) How is hypertension (high blood pressure)related to the ANS?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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147 Verified Questions
147 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Information from balance receptors goes directly to the ________.
A) brain stem reflex centers
B) visual cortex
C) motor cortex
D) back muscles
Q2) Visual processing in the thalamus does not contribute significantly to ________.
A) high-acuity vision
B) night vision
C) movement perception
D) depth perception
Q3) What is the chemical composition of the rod pigment,rhodopsin,and how does it appear to act in the reception of light?
Q4) Viscous liquid that holds the retina firmly against the pigmented layer.
Q5) Explain the role of the endolymph of the semicircular canals in activating the receptors during angular motion.
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aldosterone is the most potent mineralocorticoid produced by the adrenal glands but the least abundant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a parathyroid gland mechanism to maintain adequate levels of blood calcium?
A) inhibition of calcitonin synthesis
B) increased intestinal absorption of calcium ions
C) increased calcium ion reabsorption by the kidneys
D) activation of osteoclasts
Q3) All amino acid based hormones are lipid soluble and can cross the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Eicosanoids do NOT include ________.
A) leukotrienes
B) prostaglandins
C) hydrocortisones
D) paracrines
Q5) Compare the structure and function of endocrine and exocrine glands.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neutrophil.
A)B
B)D
C)C
D)A
Q2) Leukocytes move through the circulatory system by amoeboid motion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would provide no benefit to a person suffering any one of the various types of anemia?
A) treatment with synthetic erythropoietin
B) supplemental bilirubin injection
C) supplemental oxygen delivered by mask
D) blood transfusion
Q4) Platelet deficiency resulting in spontaneous bleeding from small blood vessels.
A)Embolism
B)Polycythemia
C)Anemia
D)Thrombocytopenia
E)Leukemia
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anastomoses among coronary arterial branches provide collateral routes for blood delivery to the heart muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells.
A) The refractory period in skeletal muscle is much longer than that in cardiac muscle.
B) Cardiac muscle cells are innervated by sympathetic, parasympathetic, and somatic nerve fibers so that the nervous system can increase heart rate.
C) The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all.
D) The influx of potassium ions from extracellular sources is the initiating event in cardiac muscle contraction.
Q3) A patient is prescribed a calcium channel blocker to prevent angina (chest pain),by decreasing the demand for oxygen.Explain why.
Q4) Ventricular repolarization.
A)A
B)D
C)E
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arteries supplying the same territory are often merged with one another,forming arterial anastomoses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Secondary hypertension can be caused by ________.
A) kidney disease
B) stress
C) smoking
D) obesity
Q3) The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in time is termed autoregulation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?
A) tunica externa
B) tunica adventitia
C) tunica media
D) tunica intima
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Chapter 20: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is FALSE?
A) It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.
B) It does not directly fight antigens.
C) It functions strictly in T lymphocyte maturation.
D) Its stroma consists of epithelial tissue.
Q2) Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by
A) lymph nodes
B) plasma cells
C) T lymphocytes
D) medullary cords
Q3) Stores blood platelets.
A)Peyer's patches
B)Lymph nodes
C)Thoracic duct
D)Lymph
E)Spleen
Q4) Describe why the prognosis of cancer is best when there is no detectable spread from the region of the primary tumor to the lymph nodes.
Q5) List the functions of the spleen.
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Chapter 21: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body
Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fever ________.
A) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting
B) decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy
C) is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous
D) causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication
Q2) A 36-year-old man enters the hospital in an extremely debilitated condition.He has purple-brown skin lesions (a symptom of Kaposi's sarcoma)and a persistent cough.A physical examination reveals swollen lymph nodes,and laboratory tests find a very low lymphocyte count.Information taken during the personal history reveals that he has multiple sex partners with whom he frequently engages in unprotected sex.What is likely to be the man's problem and what is his outlook?
Q3) Select the correct statement about immunodeficiency.
A) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) disease is an acquired condition.
B) Hodgkin's disease is a hereditary immunodeficiency found in children.
C) The most common form of immunodeficiency is graft-versus-host (GVH) disease.
D) The causative agent in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a virus that recognizes CD4 proteins.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The average individual has 500 ml of residual volume in his lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The symptoms of hyperventilation may be averted by breathing into a paper bag because it ________.
A) reduces brain perfusion by constricting cerebral blood vessels
B) helps retain oxygen in the blood
C) lowers blood pH levels
D) helps retain carbon dioxide in the blood
Q3) Strong emotions and pain,acting through the limbic system and hypothalamus,send signals to the respiratory centers that modulate respiratory rate and depth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Terminates in alveoli.
A)Alveolar duct
B)Segmental (tertiary) bronchi
C)Type I alveolar cells
D)Respiratory bronchioles
E)Type II alveolar cells
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is salivation regulated?
Q2) The relatively unchanging pressure in a filling stomach is due to the contraction of the stomach oblique muscle layer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Name two regions of the digestive tract where mechanical food breakdown processes are very important.Name two organs that are primarily food conduits.Name the organ where protein digestion is begun.Name the organ where fat digestion begins.
Q4) Mumps is an inflammation of the parotid glands caused by myxovirus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cell type specialized to secrete mucus into the lumen of the intestinal tract.
A)E
B)C
C)B
D)D
E)A
Q6) Why is it necessary for the stomach contents to be so acidic? How does the stomach protect itself from digestion?
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Chapter 24: Nutrition,metabolism,and Body Temperature Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What process primes a molecule to change in a way that increases its activity,produces motion,or does work?
A) beta oxidation
B) cellular respiration
C) phosphorylation
D) glycolysis
Q2) Beta oxidation is the initial phase of fatty acid oxidation,and it occurs in the cytoplasm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The amount of protein needed by each person is determined by their age,size,metabolic rate,and the need to build new proteins (whether the body is in positive nitrogen balance).
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the four mechanisms of heat exchange and how are they defined?
Q5) A friend expresses concern that their family hardly ever consumes fruits and vegetables and is not eating healthy.Use the USDA's MyPlate food guide to help your friend understand how to improve this family's diet.
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells that are the most active in reabsorbing the filtrate.
A)E
B)C
C)D
D)B
E)A
Q2) Which of the choices below is not a glomerular filtration rate control method?
A) electrolyte levels
B) hormonal regulation
C) renal autoregulation
D) neural regulation
Q3) The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the ________.
A) collecting duct
B) glomerular filtration membrane
C) nephron loop
D) distal convoluted tubule
Q4) The collecting duct is impermeable to water in the presence of ADH.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Fluid,electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Magnesium excess.
A)Hypernatremia
B)Hypocalcemia
C)Hyponatremia
D)Hyperkalemia
E)Hypermagnesemia
Q2) Calcium depletion.
A)Hypernatremia
B)Hypocalcemia
C)Hyponatremia
D)Hyperkalemia
E)Hypermagnesemia
Q3) Identify and describe the operation of the three major chemical buffers of the body.
Q4) Respiratory acidosis can occur when ________.
A) a runner has completed a very long marathon
B) a person consumes excessive amounts of antacids
C) the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions
D) a person's breathing is shallow due to obstruction
Q5) Why would an infant with colic be suffering from respiratory alkalosis?
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Chapter 27: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human papillomavirus.
A)Gonorrhea
B)Syphilis
C)Chlamydia
D)Genital warts
E)Genital herpes
Q2) The oral contraceptive pill,informally called "the pill" contains an estrogen and progesterone or a synthetic mimic of this hormone.The combination of these two hormones taken in the pill and circulating in the blood work because.
A) The hormones cause the woman's body to mimic the activities of a pregnancy and disrupt the ovarian cycle, preventing ovulation.
B) The hormones create an acid condition in the vagina that acts as a spermicide.
C) The hormones prevent the proliferative or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle and the embryo will have no place to implant.
D) The hormones cause a thickening of the mucus plug at the cervix that prevents sperm from penetrating the womb and reaching the ovulated egg.
Q3) What is the name given to the female homologue to the penis?
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Chapter 28: Pregnancy and Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The decidua basalis is ________.
A) the tissue that surrounds the uterine cavity face of the implanted embryo
B) destined to remain in the uterus after the birth of the infant
C) the part of the endometrium that lies beneath the embryo
D) not a maternal contribution to the placenta
Q2) Derivatives of the mesoderm include ________.
A) glandular derivatives of the digestive tract
B) vertebrae and ribs
C) all nervous tissue
D) epithelium of the digestive tract
Q3) Fertilization occurs while the egg is still in the ovarian follicle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Derivatives of the endoderm include ________.
A) epithelial lining of the respiratory tract
B) brain and spinal cord
C) heart and blood vessels
D) kidneys and gonads
Q5) Describe the events allowing monospermy.
Q6) Define Braxton Hicks contractions.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Heredity
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inheritance of stature (height)in humans is probably due to ________.
A) polymorphism
B) polygene inheritance
C) incomplete dominance
D) polyploidy
Q2) Define karyotype.
Q3) The 23rd pair of human chromosomes are called ________ chromosomes.
Q4) Identify,by numbers,any other possible carriers.
Q5) In incomplete dominance,the heterozygote has a phenotype intermediate between that of homozygous-dominant and homozygous-recessive individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Albinism is a good example of a(n)________ trait.
Q7) A disorder of brain lipid metabolism.
A)Cystic fibrosis
B)Achondroplasia
C)Albinism
D)Tay-Sachs disease
E)Huntington's disease
Q8) The ABO blood type is a good example of a(n)________ inheritance.
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