Physiology and Pathophysiology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental principles of human physiology and the mechanisms underlying normal bodily function, as well as the pathological changes that lead to disease. Students will examine the intricate systems regulating homeostasis, including cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, gastrointestinal, endocrine, and nervous system physiology. Pathophysiological concepts are integrated to illustrate how disruptions in these systems result in various disease states, providing a basis for understanding clinical conditions and their impact on human health. The course emphasizes the connection between physiological principles and real-world medical applications, fostering critical thinking skills essential for healthcare and biomedical professions.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Copstead
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, with aging, organ size and function
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) remain the same.
D) is unknown.
Answer: B
Q2) When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be ________.
Answer: idiopathic
Many diseases are idiopathic in nature.
Q3) A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis, but is not yet demonstrating signs of this disease.This stage of illness is called the _____ stage.
A) prodromal
B) latent
C) sequela
D) convalescence
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effects of excessive cortisol production include A) immune suppression.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) anorexia.
D) inflammatory reactions.
Answer: A
Q2) Events which occur during the alarm stage of the stress response include secretion of
A) catecholamines.
B) ACTH.
C) glucocorticoids.
D) immune cytokines.
E) TSH.
Answer: A, B, C, D
Q3) The effect of stress on the immune system
A) is unknown.
B) has been demonstrated to be non-existent in studies.
C) most often involves enhancement of the immune system.
D) may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system.
Answer: D
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gap junctions are connecting channels that allow passage of small molecules from one cell to the next and are especially important for
A) distance signaling.
B) tissues requiring synchronized function.
C) communication within a cell.
D) passage of large molecules.
Answer: B
Q2) GTP-binding proteins (G proteins)function to
A) activate receptors on the extracellular surface.
B) degrade second-messenger molecules.
C) activate intracellular enzyme systems.
D) synthesize ATP.
Answer: C
Q3) An increase in extracellular potassium ion from 4.0 to 6.0 mEq/L would
A) hyperpolarize the resting membrane potential.
B) make it more difficult to reach threshold and produce an action potential.
C) hypopolarize the resting membrane potential.
D) alter the threshold potential.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except A) necrosis.
B) metaplasia.
C) atrophy.
D) hyperplasia.
Q2) Metaplasia is
A) the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.
B) the transformation of a cell type to malignancy.
C) an irreversible cellular adaptation.
D) the disorganization of cells into various sizes, shapes, and arrangements.
Q3) Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular A) atrophy.
B) death.
C) proliferation.
D) mutation.
Q4) The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is A) anaplasia.
B) dysplasia.
C) metaplasia.
D) hyperplasia.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of cellular differentiation include which of the following?
A) Specialization for different functions
B) Enhanced ability to replicate
C) Influenced by memory of developmental events
D) Dependent on cell-to-cell coordination
E) Generally not reversible
Q2) The differences in structure and function of cells in different body tissues is due to
A) gene differences in tissue cells.
B) expression of tissue-specific genes.
C) transcriptional controls.
D) translation of amino acids to proteins.
Q3) Characteristics of smooth muscle include
A) being under voluntary control.
B) having striations.
C) contraction being short-lived.
D) being found in blood vessels.
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7
Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children with PKU must avoid phenylalanine in the diet.Phenylalanine is most likely to be a component of
A) fat.
B) sugar.
C) protein.
D) carbohydrate.
Q2) Huntington disease primarily affects the _____ system.
A) neurologic
B) muscular
C) gastrointestinal
D) endocrine
Q3) Characteristics of Marfan syndrome include that it
A) is a single-gene disorder.
B) involves alterations in connective tissue.
C) leads to skeletal and joint deformities.
D) leads to short stocky build.
E) results in dangerous cardiovascular disorders.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tumor markers
A) are found only in the blood.
B) are produced by normal cells.
C) help determine cancer origin.
D) help identify progression of cancer.
E) include prostatic-specific antigen.
Q2) The most common tumor suppressor gene defect identified in cancer cells is A) Rb.
B) P53.
C) DCC.
D) APC.
Q3) Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene
A) occurs at an earlier age.
B) is more likely to be unilateral.
C) is more common than non-inherited breast cancer.
D) is more responsive to treatment.
Q4) In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is ____ (more/less)likely to be aggressive.
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of immunization include which of the following?
A) Giving injections of preformed antibodies provides immediate immunity
B) Immunization provides life-long immunity
C) Immunization with killed vaccines may lead to infection from the agent
D) Herd immunity controls disease without immunizing everyone in the population
E) Lack of immunization may lead to an epidemic
Q2) A characteristic of some bacteria is
A) intracellular parasite.
B) composed of RNA or DNA.
C) contains cell wall endotoxin.
D) cannot replicate extracellularly.
Q3) Dietary zinc is an important defense against infection, because it maintains
A) natural killer cell function.
B) lymphocyte activity.
C) antioxidant activity.
D) neutrophil activity.
E) complement activity.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interleukin-1, interleukin-6, and tumor necrosis factor-a are inflammatory cytokines secreted by
A) plasma cells.
B) neutrophils.
C) lymphocytes.
D) macrophages.
Q2) Which clinical finding is most indicative of an acute bacterial infection?
A) Increased (band) neutrophils.
B) Elevated temperature.
C) Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
D) Elevated WBC count.
Q3) The membrane attack complex formed by complement is similar in function to A) CD4<sup>+</sup>.
B) granzymes.
C) gp120.
D) perforin.
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11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is
A) DiGeorge.
B) Bruton agammaglobulinemia.
C) Wiskott-Aldrich.
D) selective IgA.
Q2) Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they A) run high fevers.
B) have unusually high WBC counts.
C) develop brain infections.
D) develop recurrent infections.
Q3) Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury?
A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
B) Graves disease
C) Erythroblastosis fetalis
D) Seasonal allergic rhinitis
Q4) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type ____ hypersensitivity reactions.
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, the best prognosis for long-term disease-free survival occurs with A) ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia).
B) CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia).
C) AML (acute myeloid leukemia).
D) CML (chronic myeloid leukemia).
Q2) A 58-year-old woman is seen in the clinic for reports of severe back pain.Her chest X-ray demonstrates generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture.Blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium levels.The most likely diagnosis is A) leukemia.
B) myeloma.
C) Hodgkin disease.
D) back trauma.
Q3) The major cause of death from leukemic disease is A) infection.
B) malnutrition.
C) hypovolemic shock.
D) kidney failure.
Q4) Two of the most serious oncology emergencies associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma are obstruction of the superior vena cava and compression of the
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Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV infection of T-helper cells is facilitated by attachment of the viral envelope protein gp120 to
A) CD8 proteins on suppressor cells.
B) reverse transcriptase.
C) CD4 proteins on helper cells.
D) the macrophage lipid bilayer.
Q2) The immune system disorder associated with HIV is A) an overactive B-cell system.
B) proliferation of immature WBCs (blasts).
C) deficiency of T-helper lymphocytes.
D) cancerous growth of lymph tissue.
Q3) An effective HIV vaccine is difficult to produce, primarily because A) HIV is not immunogenic.
B) B cells are unable to produce antibodies against HIV.
C) HIV mutates frequently.
D) reverse transcriptase cleaves to the vaccine.
Q4) Cleaning dirty needles prior to use helps prevent the spread of HIV.When using bleach, the user must rinse out all the blood first and then fill the needle and syringe with full-strength bleach three times for ____ to ____ seconds.
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Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is
A) volume expansion with saline.
B) measures to improve oxygenation.
C) phlebotomy.
D) chemotherapy.
Q2) A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)and mean corpuscular volume (MCV)are characteristic of which type of anemia?
A) Vitamin B12 deficiency
B) Folate deficiency
C) Iron deficiency
D) Erythropoietin deficiency
Q3) An increase in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen occurs with A) hyperthermia.
B) shift to the right.
C) elevated PCO .
D) shift to the left.
Q4) The anemia resulting from a deficiency of either vitamin B (cobalamin)or folate is caused by a disruption in DNA synthesis of the blast cells in the bone marrow that produces very large abnormal bone marrow cells called ________.
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which involves bleeding associated with vascular or platelet defects?
A) Bleeding that occurs immediately after trauma
B) Bleeding that involves skin or mucous membranes
C) Bleeding that is brief in duration
D) Bleeding that is delayed
E) Bleeding into muscles or joints
Q2) A cause of thrombocytopenia includes
A) hypoxemia.
B) reduced erythropoietin.
C) chemotherapy.
D) secondary polycythemia.
Q3) Treatment for hemophilia A includes
A) heparin administration.
B) factor IX replacement.
C) factor VIII replacement.
D) platelet transfusion.
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as ________ disease.
Q5) The ________ is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors, with the exception of part of factor VIII.
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood flow is measured as a given number of A) liters.
B) milliliters.
C) nanoliters.
D) cubic centimeters.
E) cubic millimeters.
Q2) The primary functions of the circulatory system are
A) transport oxygen.
B) transport nutrients.
C) remove metabolic waste.
D) reabsorb leaking fluid.
E) return leukocytes to the circulation.
Q3) Blood flow is slow through capillaries because capillaries
A) are so far away from the heart.
B) have the largest total cross-sectional area.
C) are so narrow.
D) have no smooth muscle.
Q4) A(n)________ is a stationary blood clot formed within a vessel or a chamber of the heart.
Q5) Venules are composed of ________ tissue.
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypertension is closely linked to A) obstructive sleep apnea.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) de Quervain syndrome.
D) spinal stenosis.
Q2) Hypertension with a specific, identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension.
A) primary
B) orthostatic
C) secondary
D) malignant
Q3) An erroneously low blood pressure measurement may be caused by
A) positioning the arm above the heart level.
B) using a cuff that is too small.
C) positioning the arm at heart level.
D) measuring blood pressure after exercise.
Q4) The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in A) non-Hispanic white adults.
B) Mexican-American adults.
C) non-Hispanic black adults.
D) Asian children.
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrical currents that travel through the heart are called vectors because they include
A) direction.
B) polarity.
C) magnitude.
D) vascularity.
E) ionic waves.
Q2) The R wave is responsible for ________ depolarization.
Q3) Which is true about the mitral valve?
A) Opens during ventricular systole
B) Is located between the right atrium and right ventricle
C) Has three valve leaflets
D) Allows blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle
Q4) A requirement for rhythmicity is that the cell membrane has channels that automatically open during phase ________.
Q5) At very high heart rates, cardiac output
A) decreases.
B) increases.
C) stays the same.
D) reverses.
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is a congenital malformation that results in the formation of one large vessel that receives blood from both the right and left ventricles.
Q2) The cause of Prinzmetal angina is ________.
Q3) A reduction in _________ production after birth contributes to the heart's closure and constriction in patent ductus arteriosus.
Q4) Diagnostic tests used to diagnose or confirm MI include A) electrocardiogram.
B) cardiac catheterization.
C) echocardiography.
D) radionuclide scintigraphy.
E) computed tomography.
Q5) Patent ductus arteriosus is accurately described as a(n) A) opening between the atria.
B) stricture of the aorta that impedes blood flow.
C) communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery.
D) cyanotic heart defect associated with right-to-left shunt.
Q6) Atherosclerotic plaque formation is due to injury to the ____________.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) An abnormally wide (more than 0.10 second)QRS complex is characteristic of A) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia.
B) supraventricular tachycardia.
C) junctional escape rhythm.
D) premature ventricular complexes.
Q2) Cor pulmonale refers to A) biventricular failure.
B) left ventricular hypertrophy secondary to lung disease.
C) right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension.
D) right ventricular failure secondary to right ventricular infarction.
Q3) Second-degree heart block type I (Wenckebach)is characterized by A) absent P waves.
B) lengthening PR intervals and dropped P wave.
C) constant PR interval and dropped QRS complexes.
D) no correlation between P waves and QRS complexes.
Q4) Right-sided heart failure is usually a consequence of A) elevated right ventricular afterload.
B) right ventricular infarction.
C) tricuspid valve defects.
D) congenital anomalies.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) Improvement in a patient with septic shock is indicated by an increase in A) cardiac output.
B) SvO2.
C) systemic vascular resistance.
D) serum lactate level.
Q2) Which causes of shock are considered to be obstructive?
A) Ventricular rupture
B) Pulmonary embolus
C) Cardiac tamponade
D) Tension pneumothorax
E) Acute hemorrhage
Q3) Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation and hypotension occurs with what type of shock?
A) Cardiogenic
B) Hypovolemic
C) Anaphylactic
D) Neurogenic
Q4) A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is ____________.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Virchow's triad can result in
A) decreased pulmonary arterial pressure.
B) alveolar collapse.
C) pulmonary embolus.
D) bronchoconstriction.
Q2) The peripheral chemoreceptors
A) are located in the medulla oblongata.
B) lead to hypoventilation when stimulated.
C) respond to the arterial oxygen level.
D) are unresponsive to pH and CO levels.
Q3) The amount of gas remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration is called the A) residual volume.
B) functional residual capacity.
C) expiratory reserve volume.
D) vital capacity.
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of A) ventricular hypoxia.
B) increased pulmonary vascular resistance.
C) left ventricular strain.
D) hypervolemia.
Q2) Asthma is categorized as a(n)
A) restrictive pulmonary disorder.
B) infective pulmonary disorder.
C) obstructive pulmonary disorder.
D) type of acute tracheobronchial obstruction.
Q3) When exposed to inhaled allergens, a patient with asthma produces large quantities of
A) IgG.
B) IgE.
C) IgA.
D) IgM.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical manifestations of pleural effusion include A) dyspnea.
B) sharp pain in expiration.
C) productive cough.
D) diminished breath sounds.
E) a tracheal shift, if large.
Q2) Restrictive respiratory disorders include A) pneumothorax.
B) emphysema.
C) chronic asthma.
D) type B COPD.
E) ARDS.
Q3) Pneumocystitis is a term that refers to a A) fungal pneumonia secondary to HIV.
B) viral pneumonia found in transplant recipients.
C) non-infectious inflammation in the lung.
D) pneumonia secondary to bladder infection.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical manifestations of extracellular fluid volume deficit include
A) weak pulse, low blood pressure, and increased heart rate.
B) thirst, dry mucous membranes, and diarrhea.
C) confusion, lethargy, coma, and perhaps seizures.
D) cardiac dysrhythmias, paresthesias, and muscle weakness.
Q2) An increase in the resting membrane potential (hyperpolarized)is associated with A) hypokalemia.
B) hyperkalemia.
C) hypocalcemia.
D) hypercalcemia.
Q3) Signs and symptoms of clinical dehydration include
A) decreased urine output.
B) increased skin turgor.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) decreased heart rate.
Q4) Which electrolyte imbalances cause increased neuromuscular excitability?
A) Hypokalemia and hyperphosphatemia
B) Hyperkalemia and hypophosphatemia
C) Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia
D) Hypercalcemia and hypermagnesemia
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Respiratory alkalosis is caused by A) hyperventilation.
B) pneumonia.
C) chest muscle weakness.
D) pulmonary edema.
Q2) The arterial blood gas pH = 7.52, PaCO = 30 mm Hg, HCO <sup>-</sup> = 24 mEq/L demonstrates
A) metabolic acidosis.
B) respiratory acidosis.
C) respiratory alkalosis.
D) mixed alkalosis.
Q3) Emesis causes
A) respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Q1) The glomerular filtration rate is most accurately reflected in the A) blood urea nitrogen level.
B) urinary output.
C) serum osmolality.
D) serum creatinine level.
Q2) It is true that glucose reabsorption in the tubules
A) occurs passively.
B) occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule.
C) is unlimited.
D) simply does not occur.
Q3) Approximately two-thirds of the water and electrolytes filtered by the kidney are reabsorbed by the
A) loop of Henle.
B) collecting tubule.
C) distal tubule.
D) proximal tubule.
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28
Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pain that accompanies kidney disorders is called A) nephritic.
B) nephralgia.
C) nephrotic.
D) nephronitis.
Q2) Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because
A) hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids.
B) lipids are not excreted in the urine.
C) body fats are catabolized.
D) muscles stop burning triglycerides for energy.
Q3) When a patient experiencing nephrotic syndrome asks, "What causes my urine to be so full of protein," the nurse's response is based on the knowledge that
A) his glomeruli have been damaged by his own immune system.
B) the glomerular membrane has increased permeability.
C) his liver is extremely active in synthesizing protein.
D) his renal tubules are full of cellular debris.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most likely cause of anemia in a patient with end-stage renal disease is A) insufficient erythropoietin.
B) blood loss secondary to hematuria.
C) vitamin B deficiency secondary to deficient intrinsic factor.
D) iron deficiency.
Q2) One of the most frequent causes of chronic kidney disease is A) hypertension.
B) glomerulonephritis.
C) chronic pyelonephritis.
D) polycystic kidney disease.
Q3) Renal insufficiency occurs when _____ of the nephrons are not functional.
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75% to 90%
D) more than 90%
Q4) Osteoporosis commonly occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease because of A) hyperparathyroidism.
B) hypercalcemia.
C) excess active vitamin D. D) phosphorous deficiency.
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?
A) Infants and children
B) Sexually active women
C) Adult males
D) Patients taking diuretics
Q2) The direct cause of stress incontinence is
A) the effect of aging.
B) pelvic muscle weakness.
C) neurologic conditions.
D) detrusor muscle overactivity.
Q3) Detrusor muscle overactivity can be improved by administration of A) alpha-receptor agonists.
B) botulinum toxin.
C) cholinergic agents.
D) nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents.
Q4) The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is A) Klebsiella.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) herpes simplex virus.
D) Candida albicans.
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The primary function of the epididymis is to
A) house developing sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid.
C) produce sperm.
D) secrete male hormones.
Q2) The _________ nervous system mediates the process of ejaculation.
Q3) An important function of the scrotum is to
A) regulate the temperature of the testes.
B) provide support to the prostate gland.
C) regulate blood supply to the penis.
D) supply antibacterial secretions.
Q4) The main function of the prostate is to A) produce sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid to support sperm.
C) secrete male hormones.
D) provide innervation for erection.
Q5) The thick covering of the ovum is called the ________.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the ________ of the disease.
Q2) The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as
A) hypospadias.
B) urethral fistula.
C) epispadias.
D) priapism.
Q3) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the ________ during sexual stimulation.
Q4) Sexual impotence is rarely due to A) drug side effects.
B) psychological factors.
C) primary causes.
D) vascular diseases.
Q5) A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for A) endocrine disorders.
B) vascular abnormalities. C) female sex assignment. D) epispadias.
Q6) The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as _______. Page 33
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The corpus luteum
A) is the site of implantation of a fertilized egg.
B) secretes hCG.
C) develops at the site of a ruptured ovarian follicle.
D) is part of the human placenta.
Q2) At the midpoint of the menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs in response to the A) increase in progesterone.
B) increase in luteinizing hormone and FSH.
C) decrease in estrogen.
D) decrease in gonadotropin.
Q3) From the time of fertilization until the end of the eighth week, the developing organism is referred to as the A) zygote.
B) fetus.
C) infant.
D) embryo.
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Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Absence of menstruation is called A) amenorrhea.
B) metrorrhagia.
C) menorrhagia.
D) dysmenorrhea.
Q2) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)is due to A) endometrial inflammation.
B) reproductive tract malignancies.
C) endometrial fibroid tumors.
D) absent or diminished levels of progesterone.
Q3) A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed.The procedure performed was a A) radical mastectomy.
B) modified radical mastectomy.
C) mastectomy.
D) lumpectomy.
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Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A painless ulceration called a chancre is a lesion associated with infection by
A) human papillomavirus.
B) N. gonorrhoeae.
C) C. trachomatis.
D) T. pallidum.
Q2) The Centers for Disease Control estimate that there are ________ new sexually transmitted infections every year.
A) 300,000
B) 1.3 million
C) 19 million
D) 17 billion
Q3) A long asymptomatic latent phase is characteristic of which of the following sexually transmitted infections?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydia
D) Hepatitis B
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Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sympathetic nerve endings in the GI tract secrete A) acetylcholine.
B) histamine.
C) gastrin.
D) norepinephrine.
Q2) Absorption of glucose and amino acids across the intestinal epithelium occurs by A) endocytosis.
B) ATP-driven transporters.
C) sodium-dependent carriers.
D) passive diffusion.
Q3) The propulsive movement of the GI tract is called A) peristalsis.
B) transmission.
C) contraction.
D) constriction.
Q4) Which is associated with contraction of the gallbladder?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Morphine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Gastrin
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rupture of esophageal varices is a complication of cirrhosis with portal hypertension and carries a high ________ rate.
A) cure
B) morbidity
C) insurance
D) mortality
Q2) A patient with chronic gastritis would likely be tested for
A) Helicobacter pylori.
B) occult blood.
C) lymphocytes.
D) herpes simplex.
Q3) An early indicator of colon cancer is
A) rectal pain.
B) bloody diarrhea.
C) a change in bowel habits.
D) jaundice.
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with acute pancreatitis are generally made NPO and may require continuous gastric suctioning in order to A) prevent abdominal distention.
B) remove the usual stimuli for pancreatic secretion.
C) prevent hyperglycemia associated with loss of insulin secretion. D) prevent mechanical obstruction of the intestine.
Q2) Elevated serum lipase and amylase levels are indicative of A) gallbladder disease. B) appendicitis.
C) pancreatitis.
D) peritonitis.
Q3) Most gallstones are composed of A) bile.
B) cholesterol. C) calcium.
D) uric acid salts.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient admitted with bleeding related to esophageal varices could be expected to receive a continuous intravenous infusion of A) glucose.
B) octreotide acetate.
C) anticoagulants.
D) proton pump inhibitors.
Q2) An infusion of mannitol would be prescribed to treat A) varices.
B) encephalopathy.
C) peritonitis.
D) cerebral edema.
Q3) Coma, no liver flap
A)Grade 1
B)Grade 2
C)Grade 3
D)Grade 4
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that lipid-soluble hormones are
A) transported in a free state in the bloodstream.
B) bound to receptors on the plasma membranes of target cells.
C) diffused through cell membranes to activate intracellular receptors.
D) activated by second-messenger cascades within the target cell.
Q2) In primary thyroid hormone deficiency, the TSH levels are A) high.
B) low.
C) undetectable.
D) constantly fluctuating.
Q3) _________ is the hormone which causes uterine and milk duct contractions.
A) Vasopressin
B) Prolactin
C) Oxytocin
D) Antidiuretic
Q4) Aldosterone secretion would be expected to produce which change?
A) Decrease sodium reabsorption
B) Decrease urine potassium
C) Decrease blood pressure
D) Increase blood pressure
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tumor which results in excessive production and release of catecholamines is A) goiter.
B) pheochromocytoma.
C) Conn syndrome.
D) Cushing disease.
Q2) It is true that Graves disease is
A) a secondary endocrine disorder.
B) associated with autoantibodies to TSH receptors.
C) characterized by high serum TSH levels.
D) untreatable.
Q3) Which are major classifications of deficiencies in growth hormone secretion?
A) Increased IGF-1
B) Decreased GH secretion
C) Defective GH action
D) Decreased IGG secretion
E) Defective IGF-1 generation
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) The breakdown of stored glycogen in the liver and muscles is called A) glycolysis.
B) glycogenesis.
C) glycogenolysis.
D) gluconeogenesis.
Q2) In type I diabetes, respiratory compensation may occur through a process of A) respiratory alkalosis.
B) respiratory acidosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
Q3) Type 2 diabetes mellitus is often associated with A) nonketotic hyperosmolality.
B) childhood.
C) autoimmune destruction of the pancreas.
D) ketoacidosis.
Q4) In the United States, nearly ________ people have diabetes mellitus.
A) 7 million
B) 25.8 million
C) 366 million
D) 176 billion
Page 44
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Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) During times of fasting, the body uses ________ as a source of energy.
A) protein
B) fat
C) carbohydrates
D) glucagon
Q2) The process of metabolizing proteins to provide energy is called A) glycogenolysis.
B) glycolysis.
C) gluconeogenesis.
D) proteolysis.
Q3) Acute physiologic stress is associated with A) preferential use of glycogen.
B) catabolism of body proteins.
C) decreased basal metabolic rate.
D) conservation of body energy stores.
Q4) The metabolic response to physiologic stress is characterized by A) loss of somatic protein.
B) preservation of visceral protein.
C) body weight less than 80% of ideal.
D) stress-induced protein catabolism.
Page 45
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurotransmitter binding to neuronal receptors occurs primarily at the dendrite and A) cell body.
B) nucleus.
C) axon hillock.
D) axon terminal.
Q2) Acetylcholine is released into the synapse by
A) passive reuptake of acetylcholine into the presynaptic neuron.
B) active reuptake of acetylcholine into the presynaptic neuron.
C) passive diffusion into the postsynaptic membrane.
D) degradation by acetylcholinesterase.
Q3) Activation of touch receptors on the left side of the body is transmitted primarily to the ________ cortex.
A) right somatosensory
B) occipital
C) left temporal
D) right motor
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stroke is the leading cause of disability in the United States.Among the long-term survivors, the most common disability is
A) inability to perform ADLs.
B) aphasia.
C) clinical depression.
D) hemiparesis.
Q2) Manifestations of acute brain ischemia (Cushing reflex)are due primarily to A) parasympathetic nervous system activation.
B) sympathetic nervous system activation.
C) autoregulation of body systems.
D) loss of brainstem reflexes.
Q3) A college student living in a dormitory, reports a stiff neck and headache and is found to have a fever of 102° F.This information is most consistent with A) encephalitis.
B) meningitis.
C) skull fracture.
D) cerebral ischemia.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of seizure usually occurs in children and is characterized by brief staring spells?
A) Epileptic
B) Idiopathic
C) Partial
D) Absence
Q2) Which are common causes of acquired parkinsonism?
A) Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons
B) History of infection
C) History of intoxication
D) History of trauma
E) Seizure disorder
Q3) It is true that Bell palsy is a
A) permanent facial paralysis after stroke.
B) painful neuropathic pain affecting the trigeminal nerve.
C) paralysis of the muscles innervated by the facial nerve.
D) herpetic outbreak in a facial dermatome.
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition of ocular misalignment that causes a cross-eyed appearance is referred to as
A) strabismus.
B) amblyopia.
C) cataract.
D) retinopathy.
Q2) Ménière disease is characterized by A) bilateral hearing impairment.
B) vertigo in association with hearing loss.
C) middle ear infection.
D) ossification of bones in the middle ear.
Q3) Nerve fibers of the ________ system have their cell bodies in the mucous membrane of the upper and posterior parts of the nasal cavity.
A) visual
B) auditory
C) gustatory
D) olfactory
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most sensory afferent pain fibers enter the spinal cord by way of the ________ nerve roots.
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) C fiber
D) anterolateral
Q2) The gate control theory of pain transmission predicts that activity in touch receptors will
A) enhance perception of pain.
B) decrease pain signal transmission in the spinal cord.
C) activate opioid receptors in the CNS.
D) increase secretion of substance P in the spinal cord.
Q3) A patient presenting with a severe, pounding headache accompanied by nausea and photophobia is likely experiencing a ________ headache.
A) tension
B) migraine
C) sinus
D) chronic
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that inhibit reuptake of norepinephrine or serotonin may be helpful in the management of
A) schizophrenia.
B) panic attacks.
C) depression.
D) delusional disorder.
Q2) Childlike silliness in a patient with schizophrenia is known as A) delusions.
B) disorganized thinking.
C) grossly disorganized behavior.
D) asociality.
Q3) Which symptoms would support a diagnosis of major depressive disorder?
A) Diminished interest or pleasure
B) Incomprehensible speech
C) Altered reality
D) Psychomotor agitation or retardation
E) Appetite disturbance
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repetitive or ritualistic acts that a person performs with urgency are referred to as A) obsessions.
B) delusions.
C) hallucinations.
D) compulsions.
Q2) Which statements are true about post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
A) PTSD occurs up to 1 month after an event.
B) PTSD is an acute condition.
C) Remission may take as long as 3 to 4 years.
D) Women appear to take longer to recover from PTSD than men.
E) Acute stress disorder and PTSD are precipitated by a traumatic event.
Q3) A patient who experiences sudden-onset, acute fearfulness for no apparent reason has a disorder called
A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) phobia.
C) panic disorder.
D) post traumatic stress disorder.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteoclast activity leads to A) hardening of the bones.
B) resorption of bone.
C) deposition of bone.
D) arthritis.
Q2) Articular cartilage is avascular and A) completely incapable of regeneration.
B) nonliving.
C) nourished by synovial fluid.
D) rarely damaged.
Q3) Moderate stretching of a muscle at rest results in a(n) A) more forceful contraction when stimulated.
B) inefficient use of ATP.
C) more rapid onset of muscle fatigue.
D) reduced force of contraction.
Q4) The primary determinant of tendon strength is A) collagen cross-linking.
B) actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) elastin composition.
D) calcium balance.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which
A) neuronal demyelination disrupts nerve transmission.
B) muscles become increasingly bulky but weakened.
C) acetylcholine receptors are destroyed or dysfunctional.
D) acetylcholine release from motor neurons is disrupted.
Q2) A malignant bone-forming tumor is referred to as a(n) A) rhabdosarcoma.
B) liposarcoma.
C) osteosarcoma.
D) chondrosarcoma.
Q3) Following a bone fracture, the most likely event to occur is
A) development of a blood clot beneath the periosteum.
B) leukocyte infiltration into bone tissue.
C) blood vessel growth at the fracture site.
D) migration of osteoblasts to the fracture site.
Q4) A compound, transverse fracture is best described as a bone that is
A) broken in two or more pieces.
B) cracked but not completely separated.
C) broken along the long axis.
D) broken and protruding through the skin.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function: Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)is a rheumatic disease attributed to A) wear and tear on weight-bearing joints.
B) septic joint inflammation and necrosis.
C) unknown etiologic factors.
D) autoimmune mechanisms.
Q2) Rheumatoid arthritis is commonly associated with the presence of rheumatoid factor autoantibodies in the bloodstream.This indicates that rheumatoid arthritis is likely to be
A) due to bacterial infection.
B) an autoimmune process.
C) an infective process.
D) due to an enzymatic defect.
Q3) Polymyositis leads to
A) muscle weakness and stiffness.
B) difficulty lifting the head from a pillow.
C) severe muscle pain.
D) difficulty with overhead functional activity.
E) cardiac involvement.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conditions caused by a virus include
A) athlete's foot.
B) boils.
C) warts.
D) impetigo.
Q2) Scleroderma is characterized by
A) large, weeping, open sores.
B) thickening and decreased elasticity of the skin.
C) butterfly rash on the face.
D) hair loss and ulcer formation on the extremities.
Q3) Corticosteroids are commonly administered for the management of skin disorders because they
A) are analgesics.
B) prevent infection.
C) enhance collagen production.
D) reduce inflammation.
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of electrical burns in children are caused by
A) playing with electrical outlets.
B) playing with defective electrical cords.
C) biting on extension cords.
D) putting fingers in electrical sockets.
Q2) Electrical injury may cause extensive damage to low-resistance tissues, particularly A) bone and muscle.
B) nerves and blood vessels.
C) epidermis.
D) dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
Q3) The immediate management of a thermal burn victim once the fire has been extinguished is to
A) cover with blankets to prevent shock.
B) monitor for signs of respiratory impairment.
C) apply lubricant to the burn area.
D) start an IV line.
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