Physics for Scientists and Engineers Final Test Solutions - 3114 Verified Questions

Physics for Scientists and Engineers

Final Test Solutions

Course Introduction

Physics for Scientists and Engineers is a comprehensive course designed to provide a foundational understanding of classical and modern physics, emphasizing the principles and applications relevant to scientific and engineering contexts. Topics covered include mechanics, thermodynamics, electromagnetism, optics, and modern physics, with a strong focus on problem-solving, quantitative analysis, and laboratory experimentation. Students will develop critical thinking skills, learn to apply theoretical concepts to real-world scenarios, and gain hands-on experience through experiments and projects that illustrate the fundamental laws governing the physical world.

Recommended Textbook Physics 4th Edition by James S. Walker

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32 Chapters

3114 Verified Questions

3114 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) When referring to the "mks" system what does the "m", the "k", and the "s" stand for ?

Answer: meter,kilogram,and second

Q2) Convert 1.2 × 10^-3 to decimal notation.

A) 1.200

B) 0.1200

C) 0.0120

D) 0.0012

E) 0.00012

Answer: D

Q3) Why is MASS considered a more basic property than WEIGHT?

Answer: A mass may have weight but the weight is a property which changes as the mass is moved around the universe.Mass is not a property which depends upon location.

Q4) The speed v of sound waves in a gas can be expressed in terms of the pressure p and the density (mass per unit volume) of the gas, as v = ap^b ^c, where a, b, and c, are dimensionless constants. The dimensions of pressure are [M]/[L][T]². What must be the values of b and c?

Answer: B = 1/2,C = -1/2

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Page 3

Chapter 2: One-Dimensional Kinematics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A stone is thrown straight up. What is its acceleration on the way up?

Answer: 9.8 m/s² downward

Q2) Figure 2-7 represents the position of a particle as it travels along the x-axis. What is the magnitude of the average velocity of the particle between t = 1 s and t = 4 s?

A) 0.25 m/s

B) 0.50 m/s

C) 0.67 m/s

D) 1.0 m/s

E) 1.3 m/s

Answer: C

Q3) Figure 2-4 represents the velocity of a particle as it travels along the x-axis. At what value of t is the instantaneous acceleration equal to zero m/s²?

Answer: At t = 1 s

Q4) Arthur and Betty start walking toward each other when they are 100 m apart. Arthur has a speed of 3.0 m/s and Betty has a speed of 2.0 m/s. Their dog, Spot, starts from Arthur's side at the same time and runs back and forth between them. By the time Arthur and Betty meet, what is Spot's displacement?

Answer: 60 m in the direction of Betty

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Vectors in Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) If three vectors add up to a zero resultant it is correct to say that

A) it is impossible to find three vectors that add up to a zero resultant.

B) the three vectors must be co-linear.

C) the three vectors must be in a plane.

D) the three vectors must have the same magnitude.

E) the three vectors cannot have the same magnitude.

Answer: C

Q2) Mass is a vector quantity.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) A car travels along east and its velocity decreases. The acceleration of the car is in which of the following directions?

A) Eastward

B) Westward

C) Northward

D) Southward

E) Cannot be determined without additional information.

Answer: B

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Two-Dimensional Kinematics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A rock is thrown at some angle above the horizontal with a certain velocity. It reaches its highest point and starts falling down. What is the velocity of the rock at the highest point of its trajectory?

A) 0

B) 9.8 m/s

C) It is equal to its initial horizontal velocity.

D) It is equal to its initial vertical velocity.

E) It is equal to its initial velocity.

Q2) A ball is thrown at an angle above the horizontal. In the presence of the acceleration due to gravity, how far below the straight-line path following its original direction of motion will the ball be at the end of 1.0 second?

A) 20 m

B) 4.9 m

C) 9.8 m

D) 2.5 m

E) None of the other choices is correct.

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Chapter 5: Newtons Laws of Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) When you catch a ball, you feel a force against your hand. Why?

Q2) A 3.0-kg and a 5.0-kg box rest side-by-side on a smooth, level floor. A horizontal force of 32 N is applied to the 5.0-kg box pushing it against the 3.0-kg box, and, as a result, both boxes slide along the floor. How large is the contact force between the two boxes?

A) 12 N

B) 20 N

C) 24 N

D) 32 N

E) 0 N

Q3) What average net force is required to accelerate a car with a mass of 1200 kg from 0 to 27.0 m/s in 10.0 s?

A) 444 N

B) 1620 N

C) 3240 N

D) 4360 N

E) 11800 N

Q4) A force is required for an object to move.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Applications of Newtons Laws

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Sample Questions

Q1) A flatbed truck is carrying a 20.0-kg crate along a level road. The coefficient of static friction between the crate and the bed is 0.400. What is the maximum acceleration that the truck can have if the crate is to stay in place?

A) 3.92 m/s²

B) 7.84 m/s²

C) 8.00 m/s²

D) 78.5 m/s²

E) 196 m/s²

Q2) In order to simulate weightlessness for astronauts in training, they are flown in a vertical circle. If the passengers are to experience weightlessness, how fast should an airplane be moving at the top of a vertical circle with a radius of 2.50 km?

A) 157 m/s

B) 314 m/s

C) 78.5 m/s

D) 255 m/s

E) 510 m/s

Q3) A body moving with constant speed cannot be accelerating.

A)True

B)False

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Work and Kinetic Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the SI system of units, power has the same units as A) Js/m.

B) Jm/s.

C) Nm/s.

D) W/m.

E) W/s.

Q2) A constant force is applied to an object that causes a certain displacement. If the angle between the force and the displacement is 135°, the work done by this force is A) positive.

B) negative.

C) 0 J.

D) Cannot be determined without knowing the magnitude of the displacement.

E) Cannot be determined without knowing the magnitude of the applied force.

Q3) State the work-energy theorem.

Q4) Kinetic energy is a scalar quantity.

A)True

B)False

Q5) How many joules of energy are used by a 2.0 hp motor that runs for 1.0 hr?

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Chapter 8: Potential Energy and Conservation of Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) An object of mass 4 kg starts at rest from the top of a rough inclined plane of height 10 m as shown in Figure 8-8. If the speed of the object at the bottom of the inclined plane is 10 m/s, how much work is done by the force of friction? Use g = 10 m/s².

A) -100 J

B) 100 J

C) 0

D) -200 J

E) 200 J

Q2) An object of mass 4 kg is thrown vertically upwards from ground level with an initial speed of 20 m/s. Ignore friction and use g = 10 m/s². What is the kinetic energy of the object as it reaches its maximum height?

A) 800 J

B) 400 J

C) 200 J

D) 0 J

E) 80 J

Q3) State the Conservation of Mechanical Energy

Q4) What distinguishes a conservative force from a non-conservative force?

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Linear Momentum and Collisions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A particle that has zero momentum must also have zero kinetic energy.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A 310-g air track cart is traveling at 1.25 m/s and a 260-g cart traveling in the opposite direction at 1.33 m/s. What is the speed of the center of mass of the two carts?

A) 2.80 m/s

B) 0.0732 m/s

C) 0.131 m/s

D) 1.47 m/s

E) 1.29 m/s

Q3) A uniform piece of wire, 20 cm long, is bent in a right angle in the center to give it an L-shape. How far from the bend is the center of mass of the bent wire?

A) 2.5 cm

B) 3.5 cm

C) 4.5 cm

D) 5.0 cm

E) 7.1 cm

Q4) State the Conservation of Linear Momentum.

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Chapter 10: Rotational Kinematics and Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a rigid body rotates about a fixed axis all the points in the body have the same angular displacement.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A Ferris wheel with a radius of 14.0 m rotates at a constant rate, completing one revolution in 30.0 s. What is the apparent weight of a 60.0-kg passenger when she is at the bottom of the wheel?

A) 589 N

B) 562 N

C) 625 N

D) 852 N

E) 432 N

Q3) The diameter of the Moon is 3.78 × 10⁶ m. It subtends an angle of 0.00982 radians at the surface of Earth. How far is the Moon from Earth?

Q4) The Sun subtends an angle of 0.00928 radians at the surface of the earth. Its distance from Earth is 1.50 x 10¹¹m. What is the diameter of the Sun?

Q5) Express an angle of 450° in radians.

Q6) Express an angle of 35.20 rad in degrees.

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Chapter 11: Rotational Dynamics and Static Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) A solid wood door, 90.0 cm wide by 2.00 m tall has a mass of 35.0 kg. It is ajar and at rest. A ball with a mass of 500 g is thrown perpendicular to the door with a speed of 20.0 m/s and hits the door 60.0 cm from the hinged side. The ball rebounds with a speed of 16.0 m/s along the same line. What is the angular speed of the door after the collision?

A) 0.127 rad/s

B) 0.925 rad/s

C) 1.14 rad/s

D) 2.28 rad/s

E) 4.57 rad/s

Q2) A puck moves on a horizontal air table. It is attached to a string that passes through a hole in the center of the table. As the puck rotates about the hole, the string is pulled downward very slowly and shortens the radius of rotation, so the puck gradually spirals in towards the center. What happens to the puck's angular speed?

Q3) A puck moves on a horizontal air table. It is attached to a string that passes through a hole in the center of the table. As the puck rotates about the hole, the string is pulled downward very slowly and shortens the radius of rotation, so the puck gradually spirals in towards the center. What happens to the puck's linear speed?

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Chapter 12: Gravity

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Sample Questions

Q1) You have discovered a star system consisting of three equally spaced stars of equal mass arranged in a straight line. The two outermost stars, Zenith and Nadir, revolve synchronously around the central star, Janus. What is the period of revolution for this system in terms of M, the mass of each of the stars, and R, the radius of the circular orbit of Zenith and Nadir?

A) [2 R^3/2/(GM)^1/2] × (3/2)^1/2

B) [2 R^3/2/(GM)^1/2] × (2/3)^1/2

C) [2 R^3/2/(GM)^1/2] × (4/5)^1/2

D) [2 R^3/2/(GM)^1/2] × (5/4)^1/2

E) [2 R^3/2/(GM)^1/2] × (7/5)^1/2

Q2) An astronaut drops a marble on the surface of Mars and observes that it takes 1.02 s for the marble to fall 2.00 m. She also knows that the radius of Mars is 3.39 × 10⁶ m and that G = 6.67 x 10^-11 N·m²/kg². From this information, she can conclude that the mass of Mars is

A) 3.30 × 10²³ kg.

B) 6.62 × 10²³ kg.

C) 4.62 × 10²³ kg.

D) 8.09 × 10²³ kg.

E) 9.95 × 10²³ kg.

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Oscillations About Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) A mass on a spring undergoes SHM. When the mass is at maximum displacement from equilibrium, its instantaneous acceleration

A) is a maximum.

B) is less than maximum, but not zero.

C) is zero.

D) cannot be determined without mass information given.

E) cannot be determined without spring constant information given.

Q2) An air-track cart is attached to a spring and completes one oscillation every 5.67 s. At t = 0 s the cart is released at a distance of 0.250 m from its equilibrium position. What is the position of the cart when t = 29.6 s?

A) x = 0.0460 m

B) x = 0.210 m

C) x = 0.218 m

D) x = 0.342 m

E) x = -0.218 m

Q3) Should the tuner on a radio have small or large damping?

Q4) In designing buildings to be erected in an area prone to earthquakes, what relationship should the designer try to achieve between the natural frequencies of the building and the typical earthquake frequencies?

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Chapter 14: Waves and Sound

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Sample Questions

Q1) A factory siren indicating the end of a shift has a frequency of 80 Hz. What frequency is perceived by the occupant of a car traveling towards the factory at 30 m/s? The speed of sound in air is 343 m/s.

A) 83 Hz

B) 85 Hz

C) 87 Hz

D) 89 Hz

E) 91 Hz

Q2) The pitch of a sound is determined by

A) the amplitude.

B) the speed.

C) the frequency.

D) the wavelength.

E) none of the above

Q3) In western movies you often see a person putting his ear against the rails in the train tracks to find out if a train is approaching. Why would this give him advance knowledge of the approach of a train?

Q4) What is the audible range of sound frequencies?

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) The two water reservoirs shown in Figure 15-6 are open to the atmosphere. The manometer contains mercury with a density of 13,600 kg/m³. What is the difference in elevation h if the manometer reading m is25.0 cm?

A) 1.58 m

B) 4.20 m

C) 3.75 m

D) 3.40 m

E) 3.15 m

Q2) Substance A has a density of 3.0 g/cm³ and substance B has a density of 4.0 g/cm³. In order to obtain equal masses of these two substances, the ratio of the volume of A to the volume of B will be equal to

A) 1:3.

B) 4:3.

C) 3:4.

D) 1:4.

E) 4:1.

Q3) Does atmospheric pressure affect the buoyant force on a rigid submarine?

Explain why or why not.

Q4) State Archimedes' Principle.

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Chapter 16: Temperature and Heat

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Sample Questions

Q1) The coefficient of linear expansion of steel is 12 × 10^-6 K^-1.

What is the change in length of a 25-m steel bridge span when it undergoes a temperature change of 40 K?

A) 1.2 cm

B) 1.4 cm

C) 1.6 cm

D) 1.8 cm

E) 2.0 cm

Q2) The coefficient of linear expansion of copper is 17 × 10^-6 K^-1.

A block of copper 30 cm wide, 45 cm long, and 10 cm thick is heated from 0°C to 100°C What is the change in the volume of the block?

A) 2.3 × 10^-5 m³

B) 4.6 × 10^-5 m³

C) 5.2 × 10^-5 m³

D) 6.9 × 10^-5 m³

E) 13.8 × 10^-5 m³

Q3) By what method of heat transfer does a microwave oven transfer heat to the food being cooked?

Q4) Describe the anomalous thermal expansion property of water and its significance.

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Chapter 17: Phases and Phase Changes

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Sample Questions

Q1) An 920-g piece of iron at 100°C is dropped into a calorimeter of negligible heat capacity containing 50 g of ice at 0°C and 92 g of water, also at 0°C. What is the final temperature of the system? The specific heat of iron is 448 J/(kg K) and the latent heat of fusion of water is 33)5 × 10⁴ J/kg.

A) 0°C

B) 11°C

C) 14°C

D) 24°C

E) 32°C

Q2) The pressure in a gas is the result of the momentum transfer that occurs when the molecules bounce from the walls of the container.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is the rms speed of a helium atom:

(a) at 5. K?

(b) at -196.° C (the boiling point of N₂)?

(c) at 100.° C?

Q4) State Boyle's law.

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Chapter 18: The Laws of Thermodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A gas expands at constant temperature from an initial volume of 0.040 m³ and an initial pressure of 210 kPa until its pressure drops to 135 kPa. How much work is done by the system?

A) 3.0 kJ

B) 3.7 kJ

C) 4.1 kJ

D) 5.6 kJ

E) 7.9 kJ

Q2) An ideal monatomic gas undergoes a reversible expansion to 1.5 times its original volume. In which of these processes does the gas perform the least amount of work?

A) at constant pressure

B) if the pressure increases in proportion to the volume

C) if the pressure decreases in proportion to the volume

D) at constant temperature

E) adiabatically

Q3) What is the change in entropy when 50. g of ice melt at 0°C?

Q4) Neither heat nor work are state functions.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 19: Electric Charges, Forces, and Fields

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Sample Questions

Q1) Four equal charges are located at the corners of a square of side d. If the magnitude of each charge is doubled, then what happens to the resultant force on each charge?

A) It is doubled.

B) It is quadrupled.

C) It increases by a factor of 8.

D) It remains the same.

E) None of the other choices is correct.

Q2) Four point charges of equal magnitudes but with varying signs are arranged on three of the corners and at the center of the square of side d as shown in Figure 19-2. Which of the arrows shown represents the net force acting on the center charge?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

E) none of the above

Q3) The Coulomb force between two charges can be attractive or repulsive.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Electric Potential and Electric Potential Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two point charges of magnitude 4.0 C and -4.0 C are situated along the x-axis at x₁ = 2.0 m and x₂ = -2.0 m, respectively. What is the electric potential at the origin of the xy-coordinate system?

A) -36 × 10³ V

B) 0 V

C) 36 × 10³ V

D) -48 × 10³ V

E) 48 × 10³ V

Q2) Which of the following will increase the capacitance between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor?

A) Increase the charge on the plates.

B) Decrease the potential between the plates.

C) Increase the potential between the plates.

D) Introduce a dielectric material between the plates.

E) none of the above

Q3) The potential difference between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 4.00 V. If the plate separation for this capacitor is 6.00 cm, what is the intensity of the electric field between the plates of this capacitor?

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22

Chapter 21: Electric Current and Direct-Current Circuits

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Q1) Which one of the following is the correct expression for electric current?

A) I = C/ t

B) I = R/ t

C) I = V/ t

D) I = Q/ t

E) None of the other answers is correct.

Q2) A series circuit is a current divider and a parallel circuit is a voltage divider circuit.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which one of the following is a correct statement for a number of resistors connected in series or parallel?

A) The total resistance in a series circuit decreases as more resistors are added.

B) The flow of current is different through resistors connected in a series circuit.

C) The voltage is different across resistors connected in a parallel circuit.

D) The total resistance in a parallel circuit decreases as more resistors are added.

E) None of the above statements is correct.

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Chapter 22: Magnetism

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Q1) An electron moving perpendicular to a magnetic field of 2.2 × 10^-2 T moves in a circle of certain radius. If the electron is moving with a speed of 1.5 × 10⁷ m/s, what is the radius of the circle?

A) 1.5 × 10^-3 m

B) 2.2 × 10^-4 m

C) 2.2 × 10^-3m

D) 3.9 × 10^-4 m

E) 3.9 × 10^-3 m

Q2) A proton moving at 5.0 × 10⁴ m/s horizontally enters a region where a magnetic field of 0.12 T is present, directed vertically downward. What magnitude force acts on the proton?

Q3) A long straight wire carrying a 4-A current is placed along the x-axis as shown in Figure 22-9. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at a point P, located at y = 0.02 m, due to the current in this wire?

A) 20 T

B) 30 T

C) 40 T

D) 50 T

E) 60 T

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Magnetic Flux and Faradays Law of Induction

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Q1) The two identical bar magnets in Figure 23-2 are dropped from rest along a vertical line passing through the center of the rings, as shown. The two rings are identical in every respect except that the ring on the right has a small break in it. Calling a_L and a_R the magnitude of the downward accelerations of the magnets on the left and right, respectively, you observe that

A) a_L = a_R.

B) a_L > a_R.

C) a_L < a_R.

D) It is not possible to predict the outcome of this experiment with the data given.

Q2) A cube whose edges are 0.10 m long has one corner at the origin of an xyz-coordinate system as shown in Figure 23-6. A magnetic field with a strength of 0.40 T is applied along the +x-axis. What is the magnetic flux through the shaded face of the cube?

A) 4.0 × 10^-1 Tm²

B) 4.0 × 10^-2 Tm²

C) 4.0 × 10^-3 Tm²

D) 4.0 × 10^-4 Tm²

E) 0 Tm²

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Chapter 24: Alternating-Current Circuits

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Q1) The inductive reactance of a 20-mH inductor at a certain frequency is 120 . What is the frequency in rad/s?

A) 2000 rad/s

B) 4000 rad/s

C) 5000 rad/s

D) 6000 rad/s

E) 7000 rad/s

Q2) A 25.0-mH inductor, a 2.00- F capacitor, and a certain resistor are connected in series across an ac voltage source at 1000 Hz. If the impedance of this circuit is 200 , what is the value of the resistor?

A) 100

B) 184

C) 552

D) 579

E) 200

Q3) The inductive reactance of an inductor is higher at low frequencies.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 25: Electromagnetic Waves

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Q1) An electromagnetic wave propagates along the +y direction as shown in Figure 25-1. If the E-field at the origin is along the +z direction, what is the direction of the B-field?

A) +z

B) -z

C) +y

D) +x

E) -x

Q2) Electromagnetic waves in a vacuum travel with the speed of light.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A car is going past a radio station at a speed of 40.0 m/s. If the radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 74.5 MHz, what change in frequency does the driver observe?

A) 9.93 Hz

B) 99.3 Hz

C) 993 Hz

D) 7.45 Hz

E) 74.5 Hz

Q4) A cordless phone operates at 900 MHz. What is the associated wavelength?

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Chapter 26: Geometrical Optics

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Q1) A mirror is rotated at an angle of 10° from its original position. How much is the rotation of the angle of reflection?

A) 10°

B) 5°

C) 15°

D) 20°

E) 40°

Q2) The index of refraction for a certain material is 1.399 for red light and 1.432 for blue light. Find the angle separating the two refracted colors if the:

(a) angle of incidence is 30°.

(b) angle of incidence is 60°.

Q3) At a quiet pond with crystal clear water, you decide to fish with bow and arrow. When you aim at the fish you see, you must aim

A) closer to the surface then you perceive the fish to be.

B) directly at the fish.

C) deeper then you perceive the fish to be.

D) It depends on how large the fish is.

E) It depends on how deep the pond is.

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Chapter 27: Optical Instruments

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Sample Questions

Q1) The process of changing the shape of the lens, and hence adjusting its focal length, is referred as accommodation.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What is the power of the combined lenses with individual powers of 8.0 diopters and 4.0 diopters?

A) 32 diopters

B) 24 diopters

C) 2.0 diopters

D) 4.0 diopters

E) 12 diopters

Q3) The lens in a person's eye is too thick. The condition that this person has is called

A) farsightedness.

B) spherical aberration.

C) astigmatism.

D) chromatic aberration.

E) nearsightedness.

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Chapter 28: Physical Optics: Interference and Diffraction

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Sample Questions

Q1) In Young's two-slit experiment, a beam of light from a slit reaches at a point on the screen one wavelength behind the wave from the other slit. What is observed on the screen at that point?

A) Dark fringe

B) An empty space

C) Bright-dark fringe

D) Dark-bright fringe

E) Bright fringe

Q2) A single-slit diffraction pattern is formed on a distant screen. Assuming the angles involved are small, by what factor will the width of the central bright spot on the screen change if the wavelength is doubled?

A) It will be cut to one-quarter its original size.

B) It will be cut in half.

C) It will double.

D) It will become four times as large.

E) It will become eight times as large.

Q3) Interference is the superposition of two or more waves.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 29: Relativity

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Sample Questions

Q1) How fast must something be traveling if its mass increases by 10%?

Q2) What is meant by proper time?

Q3) How fast would you have to travel in order to reach a star that is 50 light-years away from Earth when you are 40 years older than you were when you left Earth? One light-year is the distance light travels in one year.

A) 0.58c

B) 0.68c

C) 0.78c

D) 0.88c

E) 0.96c

Q4) Which of the following results shows the validity of the relativistic effect of time dilation?

A) the detection of gravity waves

B) bending of light near the Sun

C) the decay of muons

D) red shift in distant galaxies

E) blue shift in distant galaxies

Q5) When a spring is compressed, its mass increases.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 30: Quantum Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) What primary wavelength and corresponding photon energy is emitted by a body at: (a) 400.°C?

(b) 800.°C?

(c) 1200.°C?

Q2) The distribution of energy in the blackbody radiation depends upon the material from which the blackbody is constructed.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A zero value for the Planck's constant would mean that the laws of classical physics would apply to quantum physics.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is the minimum uncertainty in determining the position of an electron if the speed of the electron is 6000 m/s within an accuracy of 0.004%?

A) 0.105 mm

B) 0.153 mm

C) 0.241 mm

D) 0.335 mm

E) 0.483 mm

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Chapter 31: Atomic Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) What type of spectrum is produced when a high energy electron beam is incident on a metal target producing X-rays?

A) line spectrum

B) emission spectrum

C) absorption spectrum

D) continuous spectrum

E) line spectrum superimposed on a continuous spectrum

Q2) For the ground state of the hydrogen atom, which of the following represents the correct value of the orbital angular momentum quantum number?

A) -1

B) 1

C) 0

D) 2

E) -2

Q3) The state of a hydrogen atom is defined to be a specific assignment of values for each of the four quantum numbers.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 32: Nuclear Physics and Nuclear Radiation

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Q1) If the "half life" for Radium-226 is 1600. years, how long is the "quarter life"?

Q2) In beta minus decay, the number of protons in the nucleus is A) decreased by 1. B) decreased by 2. C) increased by 1. D) increased by 2. E) remains unchanged.

Q3) Quarks can only have a charge of +(2/3)e or -(1/3)e, while antiquarks can only have charges of -(2/3)e or +(1/3)e.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The density of a nucleus (to a reasonable approximation) is independent of the mass number.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What combination of quarks produces a proton and what are the electric charges on these quarks, expressed in terms of e?

Q6) How much energy is required to remove one proton from ⁹Be?

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