Physician Assistant Studies
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Physician Assistant Studies is an interdisciplinary course that prepares students to become skilled healthcare professionals capable of providing a broad range of medical services under physician supervision. The curriculum covers essential topics such as clinical medicine, pharmacology, medical ethics, diagnostic techniques, and patient care. Emphasizing evidence-based practices, patient communication, and hands-on clinical experience, the course equips students to diagnose illnesses, develop treatment plans, perform medical procedures, and educate patients. Through classroom instruction, laboratory work, and supervised clinical rotations, students gain the knowledge and practical skills needed to deliver high-quality, compassionate healthcare in diverse settings.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Elaine N. Marie
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29 Chapters
3446 Verified Questions
3446 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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118 Verified Questions
118 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the serous membrane that covers the intestines called?
Answer: visceral peritoneum
Q2) Controls the body with chemical molecules called hormones.
A)Lymphatic
B)Endocrine
C)Immune
D)Cardiovascular
Answer: B
Q3) The term that describes the back of the elbow is ________. Answer: olecranal
Q4) Why are the abdominopelvic cavity organs the most vulnerable to blunt deceleration in an automobile accident with seat belts?
Answer: The walls of the abdominal cavity are formed only by trunk muscles and are not reinforced by bone.The pelvic organs receive a somewhat greater degree of protection from the bony pelvis.
Q5) Describe the opposing ways that the muscular system and integumentary system act as effectors in the regulation of body temperature.
Answer: The integument cools the body through sweat while the muscular system warms the body by shivering.
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is hyperventilating.The "blowing off" of excessive carbon dioxide causes a decrease in blood H<sup>+</sup> concentration.How can the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system function to correct this imbalance? CO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O ? H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> ? H<sup>+</sup> + HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
A) HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> binds with H<sup>+</sup> to form H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> and lower pH
B) HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> binds with H<sup>+</sup> to form H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> and raise pH
C) H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> dissociates to form more H<sup>+</sup> and lower pH
D) H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> dissociates to form more H<sup>+</sup> and raise pH
Answer: C
Q2) Homogeneous,will not settle.
A)Solutions
B)Suspensions
C)Colloids
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) Riboswitches are folded RNAs that act as switches to turn protein synthesis on or off in response to ________.
A) specific codes from the DNA
B) changes in the environment
C) the presence or absence of ubiquitins
D) specific tRNAs
Answer: B
Q2) Other than the nucleus,which organelle has its own DNA?
Answer: Mitochondria.
Q3) Compare a gap junction to a channel protein,how are they alike and how are the different?
Answer: Both allow ions and small molecules to pass through by diffusion.However,gap junctions are embedded within in the plasma membranes of two neighboring cells.The alignment and connection of the gap junctions between the neighboring cells allows the passage of ions and small molecules directly from one cell into another.
Q4) What factors contribute to the fragility of the lysosome and subsequent cell autolysis?
Answer: cell injury,cell oxygen deprivation,presence of excessive amounts of vitamin A in the cell
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is,they have a free surface and a basal surface.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A substance received or given off by your body will likely pass through which tissue type?
A) muscle tissue
B) epithelial tissue
C) nervous tissue
D) connective tissue
Q3) Which of the following would be of most importance to goblet cells and other glandular epithelia?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) lysosomes
C) microvilli
D) multiple nuclei
Q4) Elastic cartilage tissue is found in the walls of the large arteries that leave the heart.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pulls the hair follicle into an upright position.
A)A
B)E
C)C
D)D
E)B
Q2) Pigment-producing cells in the epidermis are ________.
Q3) What are vellus hairs?
Q4) Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch?
A) Pacinian corpuscle
B) Ruffini body
C) free nerve ending
D) tactile corpuscle
Q5) Cells plus a disc-like sensory nerve ending that functions as a sensory receptor for touch.
A)Keratinocytes
B)Keratin
C)Cornified keratinocytes
D)Dendritic cells
E)Merkel disc
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the structural unit of compact bone?
A) the osteon
B) lamellar bone
C) osseous matrix
D) spongy bone
Q2) Bone 1.
A)Irregular
B)Flat
C)Sesamoid
D)Short
E)Long
Q3) The hormone that is primarily involved in the control of bone remodeling is calcitonin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each consecutive bone lamella has collagen fibers that wrap in alternating directions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the differences between the diaphysis and the epiphyses of long bones?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do the first two cervical vertebrae differ from other cervical vertebrae? What are their functions?
Q2) The proximal end of the radius illustrates the relationship of form and function.The cup-like surface of the radial head articulates with the rounded shape of the capitulum.This forms a joint that allows for ________.
A) the rotational motion of the forearm
B) the curling of the fingers
C) the hinge like motion of the forearm
D) the hyper extension of the forearm
Q3) Which of the following can be considered a function of the paranasal sinuses?
A) The paranasal sinuses are passageways for nerves to pass through.
B) Sinuses have rough patches that aid in muscle attachment.
C) Sinuses are often referred to as vestigial, anatomical features with no know function.
D) Sinuses take away a minimal amount of strength from bones while reducing the weight of bones.
Q4) The tubercle of a rib articulates with the transverse process of a vertebra.
A)True
B)False
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis would be suffering loss of the synovial fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A friend finally completes a basement floor tiling project that required extensive time on his knees.Afterwards,knee pain took him to a doctor who diagnosed bursitis.Help explain to your friend what bursitis is and what can be done to relieve it.
Q3) Joint 1.
A)pivot
B)saddle
C)hinge
D)condyloid
E)ball and socket
F)plane
Q4) Which of the following are cartilaginous joints?
A) syndesmoses
B) gomphoses
C) synchondroses
D) sutures
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) A smooth,sustained contraction from rapid stimulation is called ________.
Q2) After nervous stimulation stops,what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?
A) the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved
B) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
C) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae
D) the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules
Q3) Connective tissue covering the exterior of a muscle organ.
A)A
B)E
C)D
D)C
E)B
Q4) What is the functional role of the T tubules?
A) synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction
B) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
C) stabilize the G and F actin
D) hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle
Q5) The enzyme ________ is present in the synaptic cleft.Its activity stops the neutotransmitters stimulation.
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle.What does the term levator mean?
A) The muscle is a fixator and stabilizes a bone or joint.
B) The muscle flexes and rotates a region.
C) The muscle elevates.
D) The muscle functions as a synergist.
Q2) A woman mentions to her friend that another person on the beach has "great abs." What is she talking about?
Q3) Muscles that help to maintain posture are best described as synergists.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient has a stroke and has weakness on his right side.How will the weakness affect his ability to swallow?
Q5) Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors?
A) a first-class lever
B) a second-class lever
C) a fourth-class lever
D) a third-class lever
Q6) Bodybuilders are known for their "great quads." Describe the quadriceps muscles.
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Q7) How does an antagonist differ from a prime mover (agonist)? How is it the same?
Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nerve impulses leading to the brain carry information about cool temperatures on the skin.The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?
A) sensory (afferent) division
B) somatic nervous system
C) sympathetic division
D) parasympathetic division
Q2) Multiple sclerosis (MS)is a disease in which the myelin sheaths are destroyed.What process does this interfere with and what would be the consequence?
Q3) The effect of acetylcholine can be stimulating or inhibiting.Which of the following gives the best explanation for why this is so?
A) Acetylcholine has many different forms.
B) Acetylcholine has a "dose effect". Larger doses are stimulating while small doses inhibit.
C) Postsynaptic cells have a dynamic and changing metabolism and respond differently at different times.
D) Different post synaptic cells will have different receptors.
Q4) What function is served by the increased axon diameter at the nodes of Ranvier?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three basic regions of the cerebrum are the cerebral cortical gray matter,internal white matter,and the superior and inferior colliculi.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The brain and spinal cord begin as an embryonic structure called the neural plate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Meningitis is the most accurate term for inflammation of neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in cortical arousal and stimulation.
Q5) Degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the ________ is the ultimate cause of Parkinson's disease.
A) reticular formation
B) internal capsule
C) substantia nigra
D) red nucleus
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________.
A) lumbar plexus
B) sacral plexus
C) thoracic plexus
D) femoral plexus
Q2) The neural machinery of the spinal cord,including spinal cord circuits.
A)Segmental level
B)Projection level
C)Precommand level
Q3) A person picks up a heavy suitcase in order to estimate its weight and reflexively drops it.Which of the following receptors has initiated this reflex?
A) lamellae corpuscle
B) free nerve ending
C) tendon organ
D) bulbous corpuscle
Q4) A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________.
A) ilioinguinal
B) femoral
C) sciatic
D) iliohypogastric
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autonomic ganglia are sights of synapse and information transmission from preganglionic to postganglionic neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Albuterol (Ventolin)binds to <sub>2</sub> receptors and is used by asthma patients to dilate the bronchioles of the lungs and ease breathing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all of the following EXCEPT
A) weak dilation of the blood vessels of skeletal muscles during exercise
B) increase of heart rate and force
C) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
D) constriction of most blood vessels
Q4) Autonomic dysreflexia ________.
A) usually precedes spinal shock
B) results from over-excitatory input from the cortex
C) is also known as autonomic areflexia
D) involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement below that is not true with regards to the process of light adaptation.
A) Visual acuity is diminished.
B) Retinal sensitivity decreases.
C) Rhodopsin is uncoupled from light transduction.
D) The activity of rods is reduced by rapid bleaching of rhodopsin.
Q2) The blind spot of the eye is caused by ________.
A) the macula lutea interrupts the nerve pathway
B) there are no photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye
C) an absents of cones in the foveae
D) more rods than cones within the retina
Q3) A condition that can result from a deficiency of vitamin A.
A)Conduction deafness
B)Otitis media
C)Night blindness
D)Glaucoma
Q4) Static equilibrium involves the sensation of linear acceleration as well as changes in head rotation.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The size and shape of a pea; produces hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands.
A)Thyroid gland
B)Pancreas
C)Pituitary gland (hypophysis)
D)Adrenal medulla
E)Parathyroid glands
Q2) The beta cells in the pancreatic islets produce insulin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Define synergism in hormone interaction at target cells and give an example.
Q4) Aldosterone ________.
A) is secreted by the posterior pituitary
B) presence increases potassium concentration in the blood
C) production is greatly influenced by ACTH
D) functions to increase sodium reabsorption
Q5) Many hormones synthesized in the gastrointestinal tract are chemically identical to brain neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemorrhagic anemias result from blood loss.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Thrombin catalyzes the activation of these molecules present in plasma.
A)Albumin
B)Fibrinogen
C)Electrolytes
D)Organic nutrients
Q3) Blood reticulocyte counts provide information regarding ________.
A) clotting ability of the blood
B) rate of platelet formation
C) WBC ability to defend the body against disease
D) rate of erythrocyte formation
Q4) Myelocytic leukemia involves a cancerous condition of lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why would there be cause for concern if a young pregnant mother is Rh<sup>-</sup>,her husband is Rh<sup>+</sup>,and this is their second child?
Q6) Explain why blood is classified as a connective tissue.
Q7) What is the buffy coat found in centrifuged whole blood?
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient takes a nitroglycerin tablet sublingually for chest pain.Nitroglycerin acts directly on smooth muscle,producing relaxation and vessel dilation.How would this relieve chest pain?
Q2) Arterial blood supply to heart muscle is continuous whether the heart is in systole or diastole.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Heart rate at rest under both autonomic divisions signaling.
A)Bradycardia
B)Cardiac reserve
C)Tachycardia
D)Vagal tone
Q4) Junctional rhythm.
A)B
B)C
C)D
D)A
Q5) List the three vessels that bring oxygen-poor blood to the right atrium.Which regions of the body do they serve?
Q6) What is the difference between the auricles and the atria?
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs.
A)Superior mesenteric artery
B)Brachial artery
C)Pulmonary vein
D)Femoral artery
E)Great saphenous vein
Q2) Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow resistance?
A) blood viscosity
B) blood vessel diameter
C) total blood vessel length
D) blood vessels type
Q3) What do the ductus arteriosus and the foramen ovale become at birth?
A) ligamentum arteriosum; fossa ovalis
B) ligamentum teres; fossa ovalis
C) fossa ovalis; ligamentum arteriosum
D) ligamentum arteriosum; ligamentum teres
Q4) The pulmonary circulation does not directly serve the metabolic needs of body tissues.
A)True
B)False
21
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Chapter 20: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medulla.
A)D
B)C
C)E
D)A
Q2) Largest lymphatic organ.
A)Peyer's patches
B)Lymph nodes
C)Thoracic duct
D)Lymph
E)Spleen
Q3) The lymphatic capillaries function to absorb the excess protein-containing interstitial fluid and return it to the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If even a small part of the spleen is left in a ten-year-old child,it will most likely regenerate itself.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the consequence of obstruction of the lymphatics?
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Chapter 21: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body
Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 36-year-old man enters the hospital in an extremely debilitated condition.He has purple-brown skin lesions (a symptom of Kaposi's sarcoma)and a persistent cough.A physical examination reveals swollen lymph nodes,and laboratory tests find a very low lymphocyte count.Information taken during the personal history reveals that he has multiple sex partners with whom he frequently engages in unprotected sex.What is likely to be the man's problem and what is his outlook?
Q2) Septic shock is a dangerous condition where the ________ are released unchecked,making the capillaries very leaky and thus depleting blood fluids.
Q3) Innate immune system defenses include ________.
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) plasma cells
D) phagocytosis
Q4) The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by
A) phagocyte mobilization
B) complement production
C) vasoconstriction
D) vasodilation
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Composed of simple squamous epithelium.
A)Alveolar duct
B)Segmental (tertiary) bronchi
C)Type I alveolar cells
D)Respiratory bronchioles
E)Type II alveolar cells
Q2) The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells,type I and type II alveolar cells.The function of type II alveolar cells is to ________.
A) replace mucus in the alveoli
B) protect the lungs from bacterial invasion
C) trap dust and other debris
D) secrete surfactant
Q3) Which center is located in the pons?
A) inspiratory center
B) pacemaker neuron center
C) pontine respirator group (PRG)
D) expiratory center
Q4) The average individual has 500 ml of residual volume in his lungs.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child with restricted tongue movement may have a surgery that involves the cutting of the ________.
A) lingual frenulum
B) uvula
C) palatine tonsils
D) terminal sulcus
Q2) Structures that increase the absorptive area of the small intestine.
A)E
B)C
C)B
D)D
E)A
Q3) Select the correct statement about the regulation of gastric secretion.
A) Gastric secretion can be stimulated before food has entered the mouth.
B) The presence of food in the stomach prevents hormonal control of gastric secretion.
C) Vagus stimulation of the stomach results in decreased secretion of gastric juice.
D) Gastric secretion is enhanced by very low pH (below a pH of 2).
Q4) Compare and contrast the structure and function of a premolar and a molar.
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Chapter 24: Nutrition,metabolism,and Body Temperature Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is obesity,and what health problems accompany or follow its onset?
Q2) ATP formed by oxidative phosphorylation.
A)B
B)D
C)E
D)A
E)C
Q3) Megadoses of vitamin supplements may have serious consequences.Extreme excess of which vitamin group,water or fat soluble,is most likely to cause serious health problems,and why?
Q4) In order for amino acids to be oxidized for energy,the amine group (NH<sub>2</sub>)must be removed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) It would not be healthy to eliminate all fats from your diet because they serve a useful purpose in maintaining the body.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How is the postabsorptive state controlled and initiated?
Q7) What are four possible complications of obesity from a medical standpoint? Page 26
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important characteristic of urine is its specific gravity or density,which is
A) less than water
B) much higher than water
C) the same as water
D) slightly higher than water
Q2) Angiotensin II is a substance made by the body to lower blood pressure during stress.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are aquaporins?
Q4) Urea is reabsorbed in the nephron loop.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ellen,a 47-year-old woman who has suffered kidney disease for several years,has been diagnosed with proteinuria.Her legs and feet are so swollen that she has difficulty walking.Her hands and her left arm are also swollen.What is proteinuria,and could this condition be playing a role in her swollen limbs?
Q6) The need to get up in the middle of the night to urinate is called ________.
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Fluid,electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dehydration can be caused by endocrine disturbances such as diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Do not dissociate in solution.
A)Nonelectrolytes
B)Electrolytes
C)Intracellular
D)Interstitial
E)Extracellular
Q3) A pregnant woman complains to her doctor that her ankles and feet stay swollen all of the time.She is very worried about this.As her doctor,what would you tell her?
Q4) Sodium is pivotal to fluid and electrolyte balance and to the homeostasis of all body systems.
A)True B)False
Q5) The most abundant cation in intracellular fluid is sodium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) One division consisting of prophase,metaphase,anaphase,and telophase.
A)Meiosis
B)meiosis
C)Mitosis
D)mitosis
Q2) Explain the purpose of tamoxifen in breast cancer treatment.
Q3) All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true except ________.
A) the corpus luteum is formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation
B) FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium
C) a decrease in the levels of ovarian hormones signals menstruation
D) estrogen is secreted by the developing follicle in the follicular phase of the cycle
Q4) Ovulation occurs when the oocyte is released into the peritoneal cavity.By what means does it usually enter the uterine tube?
Q5) The adenohypophyseal hormone that triggers ovulation is estrogen.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the name given to the female homologue to the penis?
Q7) The ________ of the testis nourish the newly formed sperm cells.
Page 30
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Chapter 28: Pregnancy and Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The part of the endometrium that surrounds the uterine cavity face of the implanted embryo.
A)C
B)E
C)A
D)D
E)B
Q2) Gastrulation begins when a groove with raised edges called the ________ appears on the dorsal surface of the embryonic disc.
A) notochord
B) placenta
C) primitive streak
D) spinal cord
Q3) Which of the following is NOT usually considered a teratogen?
A) German measles
B) nicotine
C) aspirin
D) wine
Q4) List four factors that help to precipitate parturition (birth).
Q5) Define Braxton Hicks contractions.
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Chapter 29: Heredity
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/74918
Sample Questions
Q1) Gene mutations in the sex chromosomes of the human would tend to become visibly expressed ________.
A) more frequently in females
B) more frequently in males
C) equally frequently in both sexes
D) in neither males or females
Q2) Down syndrome is an example of nondisjunction of chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Is the trait sex-linked?
Q4) Inherited traits determined by genes on the X or Y chromosomes.
A)Sex-linked inheritance
B)Polygenic inheritance
C)Dominant-recessive inheritance
D)Multiple-allele inheritance
E)Incomplete dominance
Q5) Parents are informed after an amniocentesis that the results show a baby who has an extra number 21 chromosome.Should there be concern and what might the problem be?
Q6) The ABO blood type is a good example of a(n)________ inheritance.
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