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Physical Therapy Foundations introduces students to the fundamental concepts, principles, and practices that underpin the field of physical therapy. The course covers the history and evolution of the profession, professional roles and responsibilities, basic anatomical and physiological concepts, and the principles of movement science. Students are introduced to essential assessment skills, intervention strategies, and evidence-based practice, along with an overview of legal, ethical, and cultural considerations in patient care. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking, communication skills, and a patient-centered approach that forms the basis for advanced study and clinical practice in physical therapy.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy 4th Edition by Ellen Hillegass
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681 Verified Questions
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Q1) Which of the following lung architecture characteristics creates an increased susceptibility for aspiration in the lung?
A)A left mainstem angle of 40 to 60 degrees from the trachea
B)A right mainstem angle of 25 degrees from the trachea
C)A length of 2 inches from the trachea to the lung
D)A length of 1 inch from the trachea to the lung
Answer: B
Q2) The point at which the nerves,vessels,and primary bronchi penetrate the parenchyma of each lung is termed the:
A)root.
B)fissure.
C)hilus.
D)segment.
Answer: C
Q3) Pectus excavatum is BEST described as:
A)deformity of the sternum caused by trauma.
B)caved-in appearance of the chest.
C)diminished rib angle anteriorly.
D)conical shape of the thoracic cage.
Answer: B

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Q1) Which of the following factors act to decrease airway resistance?
A)The presence of mucus and edema
B)Smaller airway diameter
C)Parasympathetic nervous system
D)Sympathetic nervous system
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following lung receptors are stimulated in a patient with left-sided congestive heart failure who develops pulmonary edema causing the patient to breathe in a SHALLOW,tachypneic pattern.
A)Irritant receptors
B)Stretch receptors
C)Chemoreceptors
D)Juxtapulmonary receptors
Answer: D
Q3) The total volume of air that is inhaled or exhaled in 1 minute is termed:
A)tidal volume.
B)minute ventilation.
C)inspiratory reserve volume.
D)inspiratory capacity.
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following factors is defined as a type of amino acid found in blood that when elevated has been linked to increased risk for development of cardiovascular diseases?
A)C-reactive protein
B)Homocysteine
C)Factor VII
D)Lipoprotein a (Lpa)
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following medical interventions is the MOST optimal regimen for primary and secondary prevention of a stroke?
A)Aspirin
B)Lipid-lowering medication
C)Antihypertensive medication
D)A combination of all the above
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following pathological conditions will result in scar formation with associated decreased contractility and reduced relaxation in the myocardial tissue?
A)Atrial fibrillation
B)Cardiomyopathy
C)Coronary bypass pump syndrome
D)Myocardial infarction
Q2) Which of the following is the BEST indirect method for a physical therapist to measure an increase in pulmonary capillary wedge pressure?
A)Pulse oximetry
B)Arterial blood gases
C)Auscultation
D)Pitting edema scale
Q3) Liver dysfunction associated with congestive heart failure can be identified using which of the following laboratory values?
A)Elevated blood urea nitrogen
B)Abnormal AST
C)Elevated creatinine levels
D)Low hemoglobin and hematocrit
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Q1) A free-floating segment of ribs that can be identified by its paradoxical movement is termed:
A)lung contusion.
B)rib fractures.
C)flail chest.
D)empyema.
Q2) Ventilation-perfusion mismatching in restrictive lung disease leads to which of the following classic signs?
A)Tachypnea
B)Hypoxemia
C)Low lung volume
D)Pulmonary hypertension
Q3) Which of the following types of bronchogenic carcinoma arises from the bronchial mucosa after repeated inflammation or irritation such as cigarette smoking?
A)Small cell carcinoma
B)Squamous cell carcinoma
C)Adenocarcinoma
D)Large cell carcinoma
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Q1) Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases (COPD)are diseases of the airways that produce obstruction to expiratory airflow.Which of the following problems relates to COPD?
A)Inflammation of mucosal lining of airways
B)Retained secretions
C)Bronchial constriction related to spasm of the smooth muscle
D)All of the above
Q2) Destruction of alveolar walls and enlargement of the airspaces distal to terminal bronchioles describe which of the following lung conditions?
A)Chronic bronchitis
B)Emphysema
C)Asthma
D)Bronchiectasis
Q3) Which of the following physical examination test results is considered a hallmark of asthma?
A)Reduction in forced expiratory volume in the first second (FEV ).
B)FEV /FVC ratio is low.
C)Maximum mid-expiratory flows (25% to 75% of FVC)is reduced.
D)Improvement in FEV >12% after bronchodilator administration.
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Q1) Which of the following signs and symptoms MOST likely is manifested in a patient whose blood glucose is recorded as moderately elevated?
A)Irritability and abrupt mood changes
B)Nausea and vomiting
C)Tachycardia
D)Increased thirst and hunger
Q2) The presence of an irreversible hypoventilation due to weakness of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm MOST likely occurs in which of the following neurological disorders?
A)Parkinson's disease
B)Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C)Multiple sclerosis
D)Myasthenia gravis
Q3) In patients with end-stage renal disease,which of the following exercise recommendations has been demonstrated to be the MOST beneficial?
A)Low to moderate aerobic exercise sessions the day after dialysis
B)Low-resistance exercise session the day after dialysis
C)Low-resistance training during the first 1 to 2 hours of dialysis
D)Patients with end-stage renal disease (ESRD)on dialysis should not exercise
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Q1) Which of the following components of complete blood cell count would be indicative of impeded blood flow secondary to increase blood viscosity?
A)Low hemoglobin levels
B)Elevated hematocrit levels
C)Small RBCs
D)Elevated WBCs
Q2) Which of the following factors enhance the safety of exercise testing?
A)Knowledge of when to exclude a patient
B)Knowledge of when to terminate an exercise test
C)Knowledge and skills to react to an abnormal response
D)All of the above
Q3) A patient is positioned in supine and her legs are elevated to 45 degrees.In this position the therapist assesses the color of the legs,then places the leg in a dependent position to again assess the color.This procedure describes which of the following tests?
A)Venous filling time test
B)Rubor dependency test
C)Trendelenburg test
D)Homan's sign
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Q1) A 68-year-old male collapses in his yard while mowing.The EMTs immediately obtain an ECG strip that reveals grossly irregular up and down fluctuations of the baseline in an irregular zigzag pattern.Which of the following arrhythmias is potentially occurring?
A)Ventricular tachycardia
B)Ventricular fibrillation
C)Atrial flutter
D)Atrial fibrillation
Q2) The ability of cardiac muscle cells to spread impulses to adjoining cells very quickly BEST describes which of the following properties?
A)Automaticity
B)Rhythmicity
C)Conductivity
D)Electricity
Q3) Both an ST-segment depression or elevation and significant Q wave are indicative of an acute infarction.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In a patient with decreased quantity of hemoglobin per unit volume of blood,which of the following pulmonary tests would be MOST likely to be recorded as abnormal?
A)Total lung capacity (TLC)
B)Diffusing capacity of lung (DLCO)
C)Forced vital capacity (FVC)
D)Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV)
Q2) Bronchoscopy is BEST indicated for which of the following pathological conditions?
A)Assess for infection
B)Perfusion defects with normal ventilation
C)Pleural effusion
D)Pulmonary emboli
Q3) The hila comprising pulmonary blood vessels,bronchi,and group of lymph nodes is anatomically located at which of the following spinal levels?
A)C7 to T1
B)T2 to T3
C)T4 to T5
D)T8 to T9
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Q1) Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate for a patient who is a few days postoperative a femoral-popliteal bypass for peripheral vascular disease?
A)Bed rest with surgical limb elevated
B)Transfer to bedside chair only with surgical limb elevated
C)Ambulation in room only three times per day
D)Ambulation as tolerated,gentle leg range of motion,limb elevation at rest
Q2) A patient who is positioned one-quarter turn from prone (operative side elevated)with the uppermost arm elevated forward,flexed at the elbow,and placed by the head is in preparation for which of the following surgical approaches?
A)Posterolateral thoracotomy
B)Anterolateral thoracotomy
C)Lateral thoracotomy
D)Axillary thoracotomy
Q3) Patients with claudication pain after a peripheral vascular intervention have better long-term outcomes and fewer amputations?
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following infection control practices should involve the minimum required personal protective equipment when visiting a patient who is within 12 to 24 hours postoperative thoracic organ transplantation?
A)Only the health care providers need to wear a mask and gloves to avoid spreading germs from other patients.
B)Only hand washing should be employed when entering the room.
C)Hand washing when entering the patient room and use of a mask if one has respiratory symptoms.
D)All visitors (family and health care providers)should at least wear a mask and perform hand washing.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the use of biphasic positive airway pressure (BiPAP)intervention in a lung transplant candidate?
A)It is indicated for patients with signs of respiratory failure.
B)It is a method to decrease the work of breathing.
C)It will improve exercise tolerance in a patient with severe respiratory failure.
D)All of the above.
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Q1) The pulmonary artery end-diastolic pressure measured by a Swan-Ganz catheter is essentially equal to which of the following cardiac pressures?
A)Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
B)Left atrial pressure
C)Right atrial pressure
D)Systolic pressure
Q2) Low central venous pressure (CVP)indicates which of the following clinical abnormalities?
A)Fluid overload
B)Right ventricular failure
C)Dehydration
D)Tricuspid insufficiency
Q3) Which of the following oxygen delivery devices would potentially provide the HIGHEST fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO )?
A)Simple mask
B)Venturi mask
C)Partial rebreather mask
D)Nonrebreather mask
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Q1) Which of the following physiological changes is considered a negative effect of a prescribed nonselective beta-blocker to decrease myocardial oxygen demand?
A)Enhancing bronchospasm
B)Decreasing heart rate
C)Decreasing heart contractility
D)Decreasing blood pressure
Q2) Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to a decrease in myocardial oxygen demand?
A)Exercise
B)Increased systemic vascular resistance
C)Anemia
D)Use of beta-blockers
Q3) Which of the following classes of antiarrhythmic agent drugs act as membrane depressants affecting the fast sodium channels?
A)Class I
B)Class II
C)Class III
D)Class IV
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Q1) Which of the following receptor types is targeted for blockade by antihistamines?
A)Beta receptor activity
B)Alpha receptor activity
C)Adenosine receptor activity
D)H1 receptor activity
Q2) Blockade of muscarinic receptors results in which of the following physiological changes?
A)Prevents the increase in cGMP.
B)Decreases the action of camp.
C)Increases vagal tone.
D)Increases acetylcholine release.
Q3) A spacer added onto a metered dose inhaler provides which of the following advantages?
A)Provides a mouthpiece to place in mouth.
B)Allows the person to inhale slowly and deeply one to two times.
C)Increases the speed of aerosol delivery.
D)All of the above.
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Q1) When reviewing the medical record of a patient,the date of the event is deemed significant for which of the following reasons?
A)It provides a mechanism to verify the accuracy of patient reported medical history.
B)It determines the acuteness of the patient's medical situation.
C)It is necessary for reimbursement documentation.
D)It determines the onset of an episode of care.
Q2) Which of the following actions done by the physical therapists enhances trust and rapport with that patient during the initial evaluation session?
A)Knowledge of the patient's medical history after a thorough review of the medical chart
B)Completing a highly structured interview of questions
C)Joking around with the patient prior to the interview
D)Having the patient complete a questionnaire prior to the physical therapy visit
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Q1) Asking a patient to provide a rating of perceived exertion or a rating of dyspnea is measuring which of the following parameters of exercise?
A)Frequency
B)Duration
C)Intensity
D)Mode
Q2) Which of the following techniques would be BEST employed if after repeated instruction and trials,the patient is unable to understand and perform diaphragmatic breathing?
A)Stacked breathing
B)Sniffing
C)Unilateral costal breathing
D)Inspiratory hold technique
Q3) Which of the following conditions would be a relative contraindication to postural drainage?
A)Increased intracranial pressure
B)Open wounds or burns on thorax
C)Rib fractures
D)Osteoporosis
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Q1) For which of the following cardiovascular conditions are patients NOT considered to be good candidates for rehabilitation?
A)Myocardial infarction
B)Heart transplant
C)Uncontrolled hypertension
D)Coronary artery bypass graft surgery
Q2) Which of the following methods for determining intensity would be BEST for a patient who is currently prescribed a beta-blocker?
A)Karoven method for predicted heart rate range
B)Ventilatory threshold
C)Rating of perceived exertion
D)Electrocardiogram
Q3) Which of the following factors should be considered when determining specific intensity parameters of an acute phase cardiac rehabilitation program?
A)ECG findings only
B)Heart rate
C)Physician's preference
D)Combination of ECG,hemodynamics,and symptoms
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Q1) A breathing exercise that improves oxygen saturation by increasing carbon dioxide removal,reducing respiratory rate,and slowing expiratory flow is which of the following breathing retraining interventions?
A)Diaphragmatic breathing
B)Pursed-lip breathing
C)Resistive breathing device
D)Paced breathing
Q2) Which of the following criteria is appropriate to use when determining the time to advance workloads in an exercise prescription for a patient with moderate lung disease?
A)The patient feels like it is time to advance the workload.
B)Each week the workload should be increased per a schedule.
C)Rating of perceived exertion (RPE)and heart rate decrease and exercise time is maintained.
D)The program can be advanced when cleared by the medical director.
Q3) Pulmonary function test data are exclusively used when determining a patient candidacy for pulmonary rehabilitation.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following pediatric diagnoses is considered a connective tissue disease that is commonly associated with aortic aneurysm and aortic/mitral insufficiency?
A)DiGeorge syndrome
B)Marfan syndrome
C)Williams syndrome
D)Down syndrome
Q2) Cardiac development in a fetus is primarily complete during which of the following gestational week?
A)Week 5
B)Week 7
C)Week 10
D)Week 12
Q3) Which of the following conditions is considered an absolute contraindication to high-frequency chest wall oscillation (HFCWC)?
A)Lung contusion
B)Bronchospasm
C)Burns,open wounds,and skin infections of the thorax
D)Unstable Back injury
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Q1) Which of the following physiological changes occurs MOST due to graded compression using bandages or garments?
A)Decreasing filtration of fluid into the interstitium.
B)Reduction of the amount of lymph needing to be transported by the lymphatics.
C)Improves efficiency of the muscle pump during contraction of the distal and compressed muscle.
D)Assists in softening hardened fibrotic tissue found in the more advanced stages.
Q2) Which of the following factors contribute the MOST to reduced lymphatic function in the cardiovascular system leading to the formation of atherosclerosis?
A)Sedentary lifestyle
B)Decreased vital capacity
C)Obesity
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following steps of manual lymph drainage should be FIRST?
A)Patient should be lying down and affected extremity elevated.
B)Determine how strokes should be applied.
C)Treat the appropriate central areas and uninvolved lymph nodes.
D)Teach the patient appropriate manual techniques.
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Q1) The Center for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)prefers quality measures to focus on which of the following areas?
A)Psychological function
B)Patient satisfaction
C)Transition of the patient across settings
D)Length of stay
Q2) Which of the following factors is considered a clinical patient outcome?
A)Survival
B)Cost of care
C)Satisfaction
D)Resource utilization
Q3) Which of the following factors would be considered a nonclinical factor affecting patient outcomes?
A)Principle diagnosis
B)Comorbidity
C)Patient attitude
D)Age
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