Physical Therapy Foundations
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Foundations introduces students to the fundamental principles underlying the practice of physical therapy. The course explores the history, philosophy, and roles of physical therapists within the healthcare system, emphasizing the values of evidence-based practice and patient-centered care. Students gain foundational knowledge in anatomy, physiology, movement sciences, and kinesiology, alongside an overview of common assessment techniques and therapeutic interventions. Through lectures, discussions, and interactive activities, students develop a clear understanding of professional standards, ethical responsibilities, and the importance of effective communication and teamwork in physical therapy practice.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Kevin
T. Patton
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Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hollow part of an organ or tube of the body
A)Medullary
B)Basal
C)Apical
D)Cortical
E)Lumen
Answer: E
Q2) Spinal cord
A)Respiratory
B)Digestive
C)Urinary
D)Reproductive
E)Endocrine
F)Cardiovascular
G)Integumentary
H)Muscular
I)Skeletal
J)Nervous
Answer: J
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal reading or range of normal is called the:
A)sensor point.
B)set point.
C)effector point.
D)integrator point.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease?
A)Environment
B)Stress
C)Lifestyle
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Explain the feed-forward control system, and give an example of one in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Q4) Homeostasis can best be described as:
A)a constant state maintained by living and nonliving organisms.
B)a state of relative constancy.
C)adaptation to the external environment.
D)changes in body temperature.
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tastes bitter
A) Acid
B) Base Answer: B
Q2) Water acts as a very effective solvent.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Atoms become positively charged by gaining protons.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q4) Ionic bonds are chemical bonds formed by the:
A)sharing of electrons between molecules.
B)donation of protons from one atom to another.
C)transfer of electrons from one atom to another.
D)acceptance of neutrons from one atom by another.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins are the most abundant of the carbon-containing compounds in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Proteins can be divided into functional proteins and structural proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates?
A)They include substances commonly called sugars.
B)They are the body's primary source of energy.
C)They are a part of both DNA and RNA.
D)All of the above are true of carbohydrates.
Q4) Name and describe the structural levels of protein.
Q5) If one side of a DNA molecule is CCTAGGC, the opposite side of the molecule would be CCTAGGC.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ability of proteins to perform their function depends on their shape or conformation.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) One function of the microvilli is to increase the surface area of a membrane to provide for more efficient absorption.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Major source of ATP synthesis; the "powerhouse" of the cell
A)Plasma membrane
B)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)Golgi apparatus
D)Nucleolus
E)Nucleus
F)Ribosome
G)Lysosome
H)Mitochondria
I)Peroxisomes
J)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
K)Proteasomes
Q3) Explain the structure and function of the primary cilium in the cell. Which cell type does not have a primary cilium?
Q4) Name and describe the three types of cell connections.
Q5) What is the function of the centrosome, and by what other name is it known?
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Chapter 6: Cell Function
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Q1) Name the three types of vesicle-mediated transport and explain how they are different.
Q2) Cellular secretion can be achieved by endocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process of glycolysis does not occur in a specific organelle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The process of end-product inhibition in a metabolic pathway is an example of a positive-feedback loop.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most important end product in cellular respiration is oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q6) If a blood cell was placed in a solution and the cell began to swell and take in water, the solution would be called hypotonic to the cell.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chromosomes align along the equator of spindle fibers
A)Anaphase
B)Metaphase
C)Prophase
D)Telophase
Q2) Anticodons make up part of the messenger RNA, because they are opposite of the DNA codon.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During prophase, chromosomes become chromatin, the nuclear membrane disappears, and spindle fibers form.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as:
A)haploid.
B)diploid.
C)myoid.
D)dioid.
Q5) Explain the difference in the cells formed by mitosis and meiosis. Why is this difference important?
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Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cells in the embryo begin the process of cell differentiation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A type of abnormal gene that seems to cause cancer is called an oncogene.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly describe cutaneous membranes and mucous membranes, and give the location of each in the body.
Q5) The most complex tissue in the body is:
A)connective.
B)epithelial.
C)nervous.
D)muscle.
Q6) Both fibronectin and laminin are examples of glycoproteins.
A)True
B)False
10
Q7) Name and briefly describe the four principal types of tissue in the body.
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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Q1) Which is not a function of epithelial tissue?
A)Absorption
B)Secretion
C)Assimilation
D)Protection
Q2) Connective tissue makes up the glycoprotein part of the basement membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Single layer of cells; some are tall and thin and reach the free surface, and others do not
A)Simple squamous
B)Simple cuboidal
C)Simple columnar
D)Pseudostratified columnar
E)Stratified squamous
F)Transitional
Q4) Epithelial tissue is moderately vascular, which results in very little blood loss when cuts occur.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although body temperature normally changes very little during the course of a day, it is generally the lowest during:
A)the early morning.
B)mid-afternoon.
C)late afternoon.
D)the evening.
Q2) Which type of body heat loss is characterized by heat transfer from the surface of one object to the surface of another object without actual contact?
A)Convection
B)Evaporation
C)Radiation
D)Conduction
Q3) The hypodermis:
A)connects the dermis to underlying tissues.
B)is the layer of skin in which hair is produced.
C)connects the dermis and the epidermis.
D)is the layer of skin in which the nails are produced.
Q4) Differentiate among first-, second-, and third-degree burns.
Q5) Describe the formation of hair, and describe the parts of a hair follicle.
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Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diploë can be found:
A)in the diaphysis of a compact bone.
B)in the middle of spongy bone.
C)in the epiphysis of compact bone.
D)connecting parallel osteons in spongy bone.
Q2) Although bones are the main organs of the skeletal system, the system also includes ligaments and tendons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Concentric rings of compact bone
A)Lacunae
B)Central canal
C)Canaliculi
D)Trabeculae
E)Lamellae
F)Transverse canal
Q4) One function of bone is to store calcium and phosphorus for the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name the types of bone found in the body, and give an example of each type.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hyoid is unique in that it is the only bone in the body that does not form a joint with any other bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the clinical significance of the cribriform plate.
Q3) Describe the bones of the skull.
Q4) There are five pairs of false ribs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The posteriorly concave cervical and lumbar curvatures are sometimes called secondary curvatures.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The vomer bone forms immovable joints with four other bones-the sphenoid, the palatine, the ethmoid, and the frontal.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the hyoid bone, including shape, location, and any unique features.
Q8) Identify the special features of the skull.
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shoulder girdle consists of the sternum, the clavicle, and the scapula.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both the tibia and fibula articulate with the femur.
A)True
B)False
Q3) After the age of 50, the density of bone:
A)levels off and maintains its composition,
B)decreases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity.
C)increases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity.
D)decreases slowly because of changes in diet.
Q4) One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe.
A)True
B)False
Q5) There are two arches of the foot-one lengthwise and one crosswise.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Beginning at the shoulder, name the bones in the upper extremity from proximal to distal.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Saddle joints in the body can be found between the:
A)tibia and the femur.
B)thumb metacarpal and the trapezium in the wrist.
C)humerus and the glenoid fossa.
D)atlas and the occipital bone.
Q2) When a person is standing on her toes, dorsiflexion of the foot has occurred.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which joint allows for a unique movement called opposition?
A)Saddle
B)Pivot
C)Hinge
D)Condyloid
Q4) The iliofemoral ligament, which helps stabilize the hip, is one of the strongest ligaments in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A soldier standing at attention would have his arms fully adducted.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) A muscle is attached to the femur and the tibia. When the muscle contracts, the knee bends. That would mean that the:
A)tibia attachment is the origin.
B)femur attachment is the insertion.
C)tibia attachment is the insertion.
D)Both A and B are correct.
Q2) No muscles are both muscles of facial expression and muscles of mastication.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Another name for a sphincter muscle is a _____ muscle.
A)spiral
B)circular
C)fusiform
D)convergent
Q4) The two parts of the epicranium are connected by an aponeurosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the way in which you could deduce the action of a muscle.
Q6) Name four features that are used in the naming of muscles. Give an example of each.
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The action of the brachialis muscle is to _____ the forearm.
A)flex
B)extend
C)pronate
D)supinate
Q2) All of the following muscles are part of the rotator cuff muscles except the:
A)deltoid.
B)infraspinatus.
C)supraspinatus.
D)teres minor.
Q3) Poor posture puts abnormal strain on bones and may eventually produce deformities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles act as antagonists.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The circulatory system is responsible for muscle tone. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are two types of isometric contractions: concentric contractions and eccentric contractions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n) _____ contraction.
A)tonic
B)isotonic
C)isometric
D)tetanic
Q3) Explain the role of the skeletal muscles in heat production for the body.
Q4) The anabolism of protein by muscle cells produces heat for the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define rigor mortis. Why does it occur?
Q6) Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis?
A)Multiunit smooth
B)Single-unit smooth
C)Cardiac
D)Striated
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The blood-brain barrier is so effective that only water molecules are able to cross it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the major function of neurons?
Q3) When "central" and "peripheral" are used as directional terms in the nervous system, a nerve fiber may be called peripheral if it extends from the cell body away from the CNS.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sometimes called the "rest-and-repair" division
A)Afferent division
B)Autonomic nervous system
C)Central nervous system
D)Efferent division
E)Parasympathetic division
F)PNS
G)Somatic nervous system
H)Sympathetic division
Q5) Name and briefly describe the types of glia cells found in the nervous system.
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical that carries a nerve impulse across a synaptic cleft
A)Presynaptic cell
B)Neurotransmitter
C)Postsynaptic cell
D)Synaptic knob
E)Electrical synapse
F)Chemical synapse
G)Synaptic cleft
Q2) Action potential and membrane potential are synonymous terms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Absolute refractory periods occur in the axon of the cell; relative refractory periods occur in the dendrite or soma of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the two types of refractory periods. Explain how the relative refractory period can help determine the strength of the stimulus.
Q5) Explain the process of an action potential moving down a neuron.
Q6) Define IPSP and EPSP.
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name and describe the three important inward extensions of the dura mater.
Q2) Disruption of cerebrospinal fluid circulation that causes the fluid to accumulate in the epidural space is known as hydrocephalus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The main divisions of the central nervous system are the:
A)brain, spinal cord, and autonomic nerves.
B)brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves.
C)brain and spinal cord.
D)sensory division and motor division.
Q4) There are _____ ventricles in the brain.
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five
Q5) Name the three spaces between and around the meninges. What does each space contain?
Q6) All of the lobes of the cerebrum are named after the bones that cover them.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When responding to stimulation of the outer margin of the sole of the foot, a 1-year-old infant extends her great toe without fanning of the other toes. This happens because:
A)the corticospinal fibers have become fully myelinated and the Babinski reflex becomes suppressed.
B)the corticospinal fibers have not yet become fully myelinated and the Babinski reflex is activated.
C)the sensory fibers in the ophthalmic branch of the fifth cranial nerve are mediated by reflex arcs.
D)a deep reflex is mediated by a two-neuron spinal arc.
Q2) Danielle has sustained an injury that has reduced her ability to complete simple tasks such as lifting a pencil, manipulating eating utensils, and brushing her hair. The injury has affected the _____ motor pathways _____ the central nervous system (CNS).
A)involuntary; outside
B)involuntary; within C)voluntary; outside D)voluntary; within
Q3) Describe the basic principles of somatic motor pathways.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Effectors that have single innervation by the autonomic nervous system are innervated only by the parasympathetic division.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sympathetic division is the dominant controller of the body at rest.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The autonomic nervous system is a part of the CNS but operates autonomously.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mrs. Fearful has surgery in the morning. At her preoperative checkup, her blood pressure and glucose level are elevated. What might be the cause of this temporary increase?
Q5) All cranial nerves except nerves I and II contain parasympathetic fibers. A)True
B)False
Q6) An effect of sympathetic stimulation on the eye is constriction of the pupil. A)True
B)False
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Q7) Explain in general, what the function of the parasympathetic nervous system is.
Chapter 23: General Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the:
A)Meissner corpuscles.
B)Krause end bulbs.
C)Ruffini corpuscles.
D)free nerve endings.
Q2) The special senses:
A)are widely distributed throughout the body.
B)enable us to detect pain.
C)are dense in the fingertips.
D)are grouped in the tongue, nose, eyes, and ears.
Q3) Another term for a visceroceptor is an interoceptor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When referring to the sensory neurons, the term end organ refers to the _____ lobe of the brain.
A)occipital
B)temporal
C)parietal
D)None of the above is correct.
Q5) Differentiate between exteroceptors, visceroceptors, and proprioceptors.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Special Senses
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Q1) The stapes fits into the round window in the middle ear.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The function of the lacrimal apparatus is to:
A)secrete aqueous humor.
B)secrete vitreous humor.
C)drain aqueous humor.
D)secrete tears.
Q3) There are three semicircular canals per ear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Amanda repeatedly became ill with throat infections during her first few years of school. Lately she has noticed that whenever she has a throat infection, her ears become very sore also. What might be the cause of this additional problem? Explain the connection between the two problems.
Q5) Which of the following is not an accessory structure of the eye?
A)Eyebrows
B)Eyelashes
C)The palpebrae
D)All of the above are accessory structures.
26
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation
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Q1) The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the:
A)formation of cAMP.
B)increase of enzyme-controlled intracellular reactions.
C)transcription of RNA.
D)activation of adenyl cyclase.
Q2) A cell with receptors for a specific hormone
A)Synergism
B)Steroid hormone
C)Second messenger
D)Target cell
E)Upregulation
F)Antagonism
G)Prostaglandin
H)Tropic hormone
I)Nonsteroid hormone
J)Permissiveness
Q3) A list of the nonsteroid hormones from largest to smallest would read protein hormones, amino acid derivative hormones, and peptide hormones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Q1) Besides the cells of the kidney, target cells of ADH include muscle cells of the walls of the arteries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) High blood levels of ADH would be found in someone who has:
A)just eaten a meal high in sugar or other carbohydrates.
B)been working in high temperatures and is dehydrated.
C)a high level of calcium in the blood.
D)a low level of calcium in the blood.
Q3) Insulin and glucagon exert antagonistic effects on blood levels of glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The thyroid hormone T is more potent than T , but less of it is produced.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the negative-feedback principle for controlling anterior pituitary tropic hormone production. Give an example in your explanation.
Q6) What role does the hypophyseal portal system play in the control of secretions in the adenohypophysis?
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Q1) In the development of the red blood cell, the reticulocyte is the most mature cell that still contains a nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In men red blood cell counts average about 4,800,000 per cubic millimeter of blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The platelet count in the average adult is 500,000/mm³.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the shape of the red blood cell. How does this structure assist the cell in accomplishing its function?
Q5) Which factor in the clotting process is the Christmas factor?
A)IV
B)VIII
C)IX
D)X
Q6) Name and give the functions of each type of agranulocyte.
Q7) Explain the process by which a blood clot is dissolved.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Q1) The QRS complex represents:
A)depolarization of the atria.
B)repolarization of the atria and depolarization of the ventricles.
C)depolarization of both the atria and ventricles.
D)repolarization of the ventricles.
Q2) Valve through which the right ventricle pumps blood
A)Right ventricle
B)Right atrium
C)Left atrium
D)Left ventricle
E)Right atrioventricular valve
F)Left atrioventricular valve
G)Aortic semilunar valve
H)Pulmonary semilunar valve
I)Superior vena cava
J)Aorta
K)Pulmonary vein
L)Pulmonary artery
Q3) Describe the anatomic positioning of the heart.
Q4) Select one heart valve. Give its name, location, and function.
30
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Q1) The tissue layers of blood vessels from exterior to interior are:
A)tunica media, tunica intima, and tunica adventitia.
B)tunica adventitia, tunica media, and tunica intima.
C)tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica adventitia.
D)tunica media, tunica adventitia, and tunica intima.
Q2) Name and describe the types of arteries from largest to smallest. What is the function of each?
Q3) The tunica media is also called the tunica adventitia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As the external iliac artery enters the thigh, its name changes to the _____ artery.
A)subclavian
B)brachial
C)femoral
D)popliteal
Q5) Blood flow from the pulmonary arteries leads to the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name the three layers of tissue that make up a blood vessel.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) At rest most of the body's blood supply resides in the pulmonary loop.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List two factors that affect peripheral resistance. Explain how these factors influence arterial blood pressure. In normal blood flow, where is the major peripheral resistance encountered?
Q3) Blood viscosity is highly variable in healthy individuals under resting conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An increase in arterial blood pressure causes an increase in parasympathetic impulses to the heart and blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In order for all the cells of the body to survive, blood supplies to all cells must be equal.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name and give the location of five places in the body where a pulse can be felt.
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anastomoses are not characteristic of lymphatic vessels, and therefore a malignant tumor in one breast cannot spread to the other breast.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lymph from the lips, nose, and teeth drains through the submental and submandibular lymph nodes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss the potential physiological effect that could result if blood proteins that escaped from the capillaries remained in the interstitial fluids without being returned to the blood.
Q4) The "beaded" appearance of lymph vessels is caused by bands of smooth muscle tissue surrounding the vessel.
A)True
B)False
Q5) More than 85% of the lymph from the breast enters lymph nodes at the lateral edge of the sternum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Species resistance refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a species provide defense against certain pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pyrogens are produced only by body cells that have been infected by a virus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Complement can be activated only by the specific immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the inflammatory response; include the chemicals released and the characteristic signs.
Q5) An autoimmune disease would indicate a problem with development of self-tolerance in the immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The most numerous type of phagocyte is the macrophage.
A)True
B)False
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antigens activate B cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Suppressor T cells function by inhibiting T cell formation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An antibody has one antigen-binding site.
A)True
B)False
Q4) B cell mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity.
A)nonspecific
B)antibody-mediated
C)cell-mediated
D)Both A and B are correct.
Q5) T cells secrete antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name the classes of antibodies, and give the function of each.
Q7) Explain how the AIDS virus seems to affect the immune system.
Q8) Name and explain the role of regulating cells in the immune system.
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Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following determine(s) which stimuli are stressors for each individual?
A)Heredity
B)Past experiences
C)Either extreme of a continuum
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not characteristic of the Selye stress syndrome?
A)Adrenal atrophy
B)Shrinkage of the thymus
C)Bleeding gastrointestinal ulcers
D)Shrinkage of lymphatic organs
Q3) Which of the following is not an effect of cortisol?
A)Increased protein catabolism
B)Decreased allergic responses
C)Fight-or-flight responses
D)Decreased immune responses
Q4) List the physical responses your body makes to stress.
Q5) How is type A behavior related to stress, and what, if anything, may result?
Q6) Explain why the precise classification of stimuli as stressors or nonstressors is not possible.
36
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?
A)Assists with homeostasis of body pH
B)Distributes oxygen to cells
C)Filters air
D)Warms air
Q2) The trachea provides part of an open passage from the outside to the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The structures that deflect air as it passes through the nose are called:
A)choanae.
B)paranasal sinuses.
C)conchae.
D)vibrissae.
Q4) Enlarged pharyngeal tonsils are called sinusoids.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Unlike the trachea, parts of the primary bronchi have complete cartilage rings.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the ways in which the volume of the thoracic cavity is increased.
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both sudden painful stimulation and sudden cold stimulation to the skin can produce reflex apnea.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Labored or difficult breathing; often associated with hypoventilation
A)Dyspnea
B)Cheyne-Stokes respiration
C)Eupnea
D)Hypoventilation
E)Biot breathing
F)Hyperventilation
G)Hyperpnea
H)Orthopnea
I)Apneusis
J)Apnea
Q3) Both external respiration and internal respiration take place in capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the terms ventilation and perfusion. Explain how they must work together to allow efficient gas exchange in the lung.
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbon dioxide is carried in three forms in the blood. Ranking them from greatest to least amount carried, the sequence would be:
A)dissolved in the plasma, carbaminohemoglobin, and bicarbonate ion.
B)carbaminohemoglobin, bicarbonate ion, and dissolved in plasma.
C)bicarbonate ion, dissolved in plasma, and carbaminohemoglobin.
D)bicarbonate ion, carbaminohemoglobin, and dissolved in plasma.
Q2) Explain the process by which oxygen is transported by the blood.
Q3) An increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide decreases the affinity between hemoglobin and oxygen. This is called a right shift, or the Haldane effect.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood is distributed through the capillaries in a layer so thin that each red blood cell comes in contact with the alveolar-capillary membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe and diagram the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve.
Q6) Explain Dalton law as it relates to the movement of oxygen from the lungs into the circulatory system.
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Outermost GI tract layer that is actually the visceral peritoneum
A)Sublingual salivary gland
B)Submucosa layer
C)Dentin
D)Muscularis layer
E)Mucosa layer
F)Parotid salivary gland
G)Enamel
H)Submandibular salivary gland
I)Tongue
J)Serosa layer
Q2) The mucosa is actually made up of two layers: the mucous epithelium and the lamina propria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pancreas is a main organ of the digestive system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Give the complete definition of digestion.
Q5) Briefly explain the role of exocrine glands within the GI tract.
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the pancreas, alpha cells produce insulin and beta cells produce glucagon. A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the cause of appendicitis.
Q3) Bile is released from the gallbladder into the stomach to aid in the digestive process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Paneth cells of the small intestine produce enzymes, but they are used for protection rather than digestion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The falciform ligament in the liver divides it into equal right and left halves. A)True
B)False
Q6) Liver cells detoxify substances. Explain what happens to the substances in the process of detoxification.
Q7) The duodenum of the small intestine was named based on its length. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Structurally, enzymes are:
A)lipids.
B)carbohydrates.
C)proteins.
D)inorganic compounds.
Q2) Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from:
A)carbohydrates.
B)meat proteins.
C)undigested fats.
D)undigested connective tissue.
Q3) Converts maltose to glucose
A)Amylase
B)Bile
C)Lactase
D)Maltase
E)Pepsin
F)Peptidase
G)Sucrase
H)Trypsin
I)Lipase
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) What process has pyruvic acid and two gained ATPs as end products?
A)Krebs cycle
B)Anaerobic pathway
C)Glycolysis
D)Electron transport chain
Q2) Explain what occurs in the anaerobic pathway. What is the Cori cycle? What is meant by the oxygen debt?
Q3) Saturated fats are usually liquids at room temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The hormone leptin is frequently given to people undergoing chemotherapy to stimulate their appetite.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Show in an equation form the end products of glucose catabolism. Use one molecule of glucose and six molecules of oxygen to begin the equation.
Q6) One benefit of exercise is that it tends to increase blood levels of LDL.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The substance most often measured to determine normal kidney function is:
A)creatinine.
B)glucose.
C)sodium.
D)potassium.
Q2) The capsular space is a microscopic space between the glomerulus and the parietal layer of the glomerular capsule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Determine the filtration pressure based on the following values:
A. The glomerular hydrostatic pressure is 55 mm Hg.
B. The glomerular osmotic pressure is 27 mm Hg.
C. The capsular hydrostatic pressure is 18 mm Hg.
Q4) When the mean arterial blood pressure doubles, so does glomerular filtration.
A)True B)False
Q5) Just like the kidneys, the ureters are retroperitoneal.
A)True B)False
Q6) Outline the flow of blood through the kidney tissue.
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) When compared chemically, intracellular fluid and plasma are almost identical.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In infants, total body water constitutes approximately 40% of body weight.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Unit measuring the number of ionic charges or electrocovalent bonds in a solution; measure of reactivity of a particular electrolyte solution
A)Osmoreceptors
B)Electrolyte
C)Intracellular
D)Parenteral
E)Extracellular
F)Milliequivalent
G)Cation
H)Anion
I)Interstitial
J)Blood hydrostatic pressure
K)Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
Q4) How does an electrolyte imbalance lead to fluid imbalances?
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Chapter 44: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A buffer would prevent any lowering of pH if a strong acid were added to a solution.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because saline solutions have chloride in them, they can be used to treat metabolic alkalosis caused by vomiting.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bicarbonate excess caused by excessive antacid use or excessive vomiting
A)Alkaline
B)pH
C)Buffer
D)Acid
E)Alkalosis
F)Chloride shift
G)Acidosis
H)Metabolic alkalosis
I)Metabolic acidosis
J)Respiratory acidosis
K)Respiratory alkalosis
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In spermatozoa, a helical arrangement of mitochondria is located in the: A)acrosome.
B)head.
C)cylindrical middle piece.
D)tail.
Q2) The wall of the vas deferens has two layers of muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the male reproductive system, the essential organs of reproduction are called: A)seminal vesicles.
B)testes.
C)vasa deferentia.
D)Cowper glands.
Q4) A line drawn between the ischial tuberosities divides the perineum into the larger anal triangle and the smaller urogenital triangle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and describe the reproductive ducts of the male reproductive system.
Q6) Describe the functions of the testes.
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the structure of the uterus.
Q2) A line drawn between the two ischial tuberosities divides the perineum into a urogenital and anal triangle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The postmenstrual phase is also called the proliferative phase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The layer that is incomplete because it covers none of the cervix and only part of the body is called the:
A)parietal peritoneum.
B)myometrium.
C)endometrium.
D)symphysis pubis.
Q5) As an oocyte matures, it moves to the medulla of the ovary to complete its development.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Give an example of how the negative feedback process can influence the release of a gonadotropin.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Growth, Development, and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures is not formed by the mesoderm?
A)Skeletal muscles
B)Bones
C)Kidneys
D)All of the above structures are formed by the mesoderm.
Q2) Develops into an important fetal membrane in the placenta
A)Parturition
B)Chorion
C)Neonate
D)Zygote
E)Organogenesis
F)Blastocyst
G)Gestation
H)Morula
I)Senescence
J)Primary germ layers
K)Histogenesis
L)Embryology
M)Implantation
N)Fertilization
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition called trisomy results from a(n):
A)mistake in mitosis called nondisjunction.
B)mistake in meiosis called nondisjunction.
C)abnormality in a single gene.
D)genetic predisposition.
Q2) A karyotype is effective only in identifying chromosomal abnormalities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The egg cytoplasm rather than the egg nucleus is responsible for transmission of mitochondrial DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) "A" is the dominant allele for normal skin color; "a" is recessive for albinism. If a couple were "AA" and "Aa," which of the following statements is not true?
A)Both parents have the same phenotype.
B)Both parents have the same genotype.
C)They could not have a child with albinism.
D)All of the above are true statements.
Q5) Explain the principle of independent assortment.
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