Physical Therapy Foundations
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Foundations introduces students to the fundamental principles and core concepts underlying the practice of physical therapy. The course explores the historical development of the profession, key professional values, and the scope of physical therapy practice in various healthcare settings. Students learn about the basic anatomy, physiology, and biomechanics relevant to movement and function, as well as foundational examination and intervention techniques. Emphasis is placed on the role of the physical therapist within interprofessional teams, principles of patient-centered care, clinical reasoning, ethical considerations, and the importance of evidence-based practice. This course prepares students for advanced study and clinical experience in the physical therapy curriculum.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 7th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
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Q1) According to the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF) endorsed by the American Physical Therapy Association (APTA), a rotator cuff tear is considered a(n):
A)Health condition.
B)Impairment.
C)Functional limitation.
D)Disability.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is not a prerequisite for motor skill acquisition and retention?
A)Augmented feedback
B)Understanding the task or goal
C)Being able to activate the motor system
D)Being able to retrieve motor memories over time
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Prevention, Health, and Wellness
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Q1) The goals of Healthy People 2020 are based on the nation's vision to:
A)Eliminate HIV and develop an immunization for prevention of AIDS.
B)Develop a cure for the common cold.
C)Promote smoking cessation, eliminate tobacco use, and pass legislation in all states banning smoking in public places.
D)Foster a society in which all people live long and healthy lives.
Answer: D
Q2) You have designed and are directing an exercise class for individuals who have been diagnosed with high blood pressure.This type of program falls within the definition of which type of prevention?
A)Multifactorial prevention
B)Primary prevention
C)Secondary prevention
D)Tertiary prevention
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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Q1) Which of the following is a goal of passive range of motion (PROM) exercises?
A)Prevent muscle atrophy
B)Enhance movement of synovial fluid for articular cartilage nutrition
C)Increase joint range of motion (ROM) and muscle length
D)Improve muscle performance
Answer: B
Q2) You are treating a patient with weak hip abductors (muscle grade is 2/5).Which of the following ROM exercises is most appropriate to prevent tightness of the hip adductors and maintain the current level of strength of the hip abductors?
A)Perform passive abduction of the hip with the patient positioned in the supine position
B)Have the patient perform active hip abduction through the available ROM while positioned in the side-lying position
C)Have the patient perform active hip abduction through the available ROM while positioned in the supine position as you support the weight of the leg
D)Perform passive abduction of the hip with the patient positioned in the side-lying position
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Stretching for Improved Mobility
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Q1) When applying a stretch, you first feel some resistance; as you maintain the stretch, you feel as though you can move into a greater range using the same amount of force.This describes what mechanical property of connective tissue?
A)Stress relaxation
B)Tissue failure
C)Elastic limit
D)Creep
Q2) To increase terminal knee extension, you position the patient prone so the lower leg is not supported on the treatment table.The patient relaxes while the lower leg and foot "hang" off the end of the table.The therapist adds a cuff weight around the ankle.What type of stretching procedure is being applied?
A)Ballistic
B)Mechanical
C)Dynamic
D)Cyclic
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6
Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
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Q1) A long-axis distraction of the humerus provides which direction of gliding?
A)Anterior
B)Inferior
C)Posterior
D)Superior
Q2) In what way does mobilization with movement (MWM) differ from passive mobilization techniques? MWM:
A)Is appropriate for hypomobile or hypermobile joints.
B)Uses only joint distraction techniques to mobilize joints.
C)Integrates active movements by the patient during the mobilization procedure to reduce/eliminate the barrier of pain during the technique.
D)Is performed only in the midrange of available motion to ensure patient comfort.
Q3) To increase palmar abduction of the thumb, stabilize the trapezium and:
A)Radial glide the base of the first metacarpal.
B)Ulnar glide the base of the first metacarpal.
C)Dorsal glide the base of the first metacarpal.
D)Volar glide the base of the first metacarpal.
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Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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Q1) It has been shown that after performing resistance exercise to the point of exhaustion, recovery from exercise (recovery from fatigue) occurs most efficiently if:
A)The fatigued muscle rests completely during recovery.
B)Cold is applied to the fatigued muscle.
C)The patient performs low-intensity, active exercise using the fatigued muscle.
D)The muscle is passively stretched during recovery.
Q2) Each of the following is a true statement about isokinetic exercise except:
A)Current technology provides resistance only to concentric muscle contractions.
B)It accommodates for a painful arc.
C)It provides maximal resistance throughout the available ROM.
D)It accommodates for muscle fatigue.
Q3) Which of the following is the most efficient way to neutralize the effects of muscle fatigue during an exercise session?
A)Perform active exercises during the rest interval between sets
B)Stop all exercise and rest completely between sets
C)Apply cold to the muscle/muscle groups between sets
D)Massage the muscles between sets
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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Q1) The ability of the body to transport and use oxygen during physical and aerobic activities is an indicator of physical fitness and is measured most commonly using which unit of measure?
A)Metabolic equivalents (METs)
B)Kilocalorie
C)Maximum oxygen consumption (VO m )
D)Blood pressure and heart rate
Q2) Aerobic exercise training (cardiorespiratory endurance) is defined as improvement in the energy utilization of the muscle by means of an exercise program.Which of the following is true of this type of training?
A)It is dependent on sufficient intensity, time, and frequency of exercise.
B)A person with an initial high level of fitness has more potential to improve than one with a low level of fitness.
C)It produces significant crossover effects from one physical activity to another.
D)It requires at least 6 months of progressive training for evidence of improvement.
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Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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Q1) While testing a patient's balance, you have the patient perform a series of activities, starting with those that require a low level of balance control and progressing to more difficult tasks.Of the following, the task that requires the greatest amount of balance control is:
A)Catching and throwing a ball while sitting.
B)Raising the opposite arm and leg while in the quadruped position.
C)Walking with one foot placed in front of the other.
D)While standing, balancing on one leg for 10 seconds.
Q2) During an examination of a patient who has a history of episodic falls, you observe the patient performing functional tasks to determine how she loses her balance.You note that the patient becomes unsteady whenever she picks up objects from the floor or reaches for objects in a kitchen cupboard.These findings most likely indicate a control deficit in:
A)Anticipatory balance.
B)Reactive balance.
C)Static balance.
D)Sensory organization.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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Q1) If a patient has lower extremity edema, which of the following principles associated with hydrotherapy (an aquatic environment) will assist with decreasing the edema?
A)Viscosity
B)Buoyancy
C)Surface tension
D)Hydrostatic pressure
Q2) After a musculoskeletal injury of the lower extremity, you develop an aquatic exercise program for your patient.An aquatic exercise program is the least effective for:
A)Transfer of training to land-based functional activities.
B)Reducing risk of re-injury during the early stage of rehabilitation.
C)Enabling early weight bearing.
D)Increasing range of motion.
Q3) The dynamics of circulation may be affected by immersing a body part in deep water because of the effects of:
A)Viscosity.
B)Laminar flow.
C)Buoyancy.
D)Hydrostatic pressure.
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Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury, Repair, and Management
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Q1) Which of the following types of active exercises are the most appropriate to use first during the acute phase of healing after a muscle injury?
A)Submaximal isokinetic concentric exercise at slow velocities
B)Active ROM exercises
C)Multiple-angle isometrics against manual resistance
D)Low-intensity muscle setting
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to the degeneration of a tendon due to repetitive microtrauma?
A)Tendinitis
B)Tenosynovitis
C)Tenovaginitis
D)Tendinosis
Q3) Progressing resistance and stretching exercises vigorously during the early subacute stage of soft tissue healing:
A)Decreases recovery time.
B)Prolongs the inflammation and promotes adhesion formation.
C)Increases the strength of the healing tissues.
D)Helps scar tissue resolve more quickly.
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Chapter 11: Joint, Connective Tissue, and Bone Disorders and Management
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Q1) Each of the following signs or symptoms is a characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis except:
A)Inflammatory synovitis.
B)Recurring periods of active disease (flare) followed by remission.
C)Usually asymmetrical joint involvement.
D)Fatigue, general malaise, and possibly fever.
Q2) A therapist's role in diagnosing arthritic conditions is to:
A)Identify the underlying pathological process and inform the physician.
B)Order laboratory tests or radiological imaging that may confirm or rule out the diagnosis.
C)Determine the type of arthritis that is causing the patient's symptoms.
D)Identify impairments, such as the pattern and extent of range of motion (ROM) and joint mobility limitations, contributing to a patient's activity limitations and participation restrictions.
Q3) The articular cartilage of a synovial joint is most susceptible to damage from stress:
A)During low-impact exercise performed on a regular basis.
B)During early weight-bearing exercises after soft tissue surgery.
C)During passive stretching procedures.
D)Immediately following a period of prolonged joint immobilization.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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Q1) All of the following are signs and symptoms your patient may exhibit that would alert you to a possible pulmonary embolism except:
A)Sudden onset of dyspnea.
B)Chest pain alleviated with deep breathing and rib compression.
C)Rapid, shallow breathing.
D)Diaphoresis with minimal activity.
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about the phases of postoperative rehabilitation?
A)Phases are based on the stages of tissue healing and each patient's responses to interventions.
B)It is important to strictly adhere to a progression of interventions spelled out in a predetermined protocol.
C)During the maximum protection phase of postoperative rehabilitation, movement of the operated body segment is contraindicated regardless of the type of surgery.
D)Once a patient reaches the minimum to no protection phase of rehabilitation after surgery, there is no value to continuing postoperative exercise.
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Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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Q1) Following transverse carpal ligament surgery to release impingement of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel, your patient has increased sensation of tingling when the wrist is extended.The impairment and its intervention should be:
A)Joint adhesions: use joint-mobilization techniques.
B)Median nerve adhesions: use nerve-mobilization techniques.
C)Ligamentous stress from the surgery: use cross-friction massage.
D)Scar adhesions: mobilize the skin around the surgical site followed by range of motion (ROM) exercises.
Q2) To effectively treat CRPS, a physical therapist:
A)Performs a sympathetic block prior to any manual or exercise interventions.
B)Utilizes an approach that manages the physical symptoms of pain, edema, stiffness, and muscle changes.
C)Bombards the autonomic nervous system with stimuli using desensitization techniques.
D)Avoids the "no pain, no gain" philosophy and encourages the patient to minimize activity if it causes discomfort.
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15
Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, Function, and Posture
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Q1) Motion at a functional unit of the spine is defined by what is occurring with the:
A)Anterior portion of the body of the superior vertebrae.
B)Anterior portion of the body of the inferior vertebrae.
C)Spinous process of the superior vertebrae.
D)Spinous process of the inferior vertebrae.
Q2) Your patient describes posterior cervical pain and headaches that get progressively worse throughout each workday.She is a computer programmer, plays tennis on the weekends, and is an aerobic walker in the evenings.Your evaluation reveals a person who is physically fit with well-balanced flexibility and strength.Your treatment emphasis will be:
A)Stretching the short suboccipital, levator, and scalene muscles.
B)Teaching tension-reducing postures and modification of chair, desk, and computer heights.
C)Teaching proper warm-up exercises and progressing her aerobic program to running.
D)Changing her sleeping posture and pillow height.
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16
Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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Q1) Your patient has acute joint trauma to the cervical spinal facets.Every time she attempts neck motions, there is increased pain and muscle guarding.A possible way to maintain integrity in the contractile units of the muscles is to:
A)Apply cold.
B)Perform passive range of motion to the cervical spine.
C)Apply heat.
D)Perform reverse muscle action using gentle scapular motions.
Q2) Disk lesions are more common in the 30 year to 45 year age span because:
A)The annulus begins degenerating, loses tensile strength, and begins to tear with excessive forces.
B)The nucleus pulposus changes in chemical composition during this time and is capable of imbibing greater than normal amounts of water, causing greater than normal pressure against pain-sensitive structures.
C)The facets are wearing out and the entire joint complex is placed under greater stress.
D)This is not the most common age span for disk lesions.
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Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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Q1) Your patient is recovering from a low back injury that occurred when picking up her 15-lb infant 4 weeks ago.The symptoms are no longer acute.She has learned the basic drawing-in maneuver and neutral spine position and can maintain her neutral spine while rolling, transitioning from supine to sit and from sit to stand.Now you plan to progress her exercises in order to improve her ability to return to managing household responsibilities.How should you progress the exercises to improve the stabilizing function in the abdominals?
A)Wall slides, beginning with 10 repetitions; progress to 25, then begin squats
B)Maintain neutral spine while walking for 10 minutes two times a day; progress to 5 times a day
C)Curl-ups on a mat; progress to doing curl-ups on an unstable surface such as a gym ball
D)Supine; maintain neutral spine while alternating arms, then add alternating legs; increase repetitions until she can hold the position for 3 minutes; progress difficulty by increasing the lever arm or adding weights to arms and legs
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Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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Q1) Muscles that typically are shortened in patients with increased thoracic kyphosis; forward head; and protracted, forward tilted scapula are the:
A)Teres major and minor, subscapularis, infraspinatus, and triceps.
B)Pectoralis major and minor, latissimus dorsi, infraspinatus, and teres minor.
C)Pectoralis major, teres major and minor, and serratus anterior.
D)Pectoralis minor, subscapularis, and levator scapulae.
Q2) Which of the following surgical procedures is performed for recurrent anterior instability or dislocation of the glenohumeral joint and involves reattachment and repair of the capsulolabral complex to the anterior rim of the glenoid?
A)Anterior capsular shift
B)Bankart repair
C)Hill-Sachs repair
D)SLAP lesion repair
Q3) For effective shoulder function, each of the following is necessary except:
A)Appropriate movement and stability of the scapula.
B)Greater mobility in the external rotators than the internal rotators.
C)A balance in strength of the external and internal rotators.
D)Thoracic extension and axial extension of the cervical spine.
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Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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Q1) Each of the following is a precaution that should be taken after TEA involving a triceps-reflecting or triceps-splitting approach except:
A)Limit assisted elbow flexion to about 90° to 100° for the first 3 to 4 weeks postoperatively.
B)For about the first 3 to 4 weeks, perform active elbow flexion/extension only while lying in the supine position.
C)Postpone elbow extension against manual resistance or light weights for 6 weeks or longer.
D)Avoid pushing motions with the operated upper extremity during functional activities, such as pushing up from a chair, for at least 6 weeks.
Q2) Your goal is to increase end-range elbow flexion using joint-mobilization techniques.Which of the following techniques is appropriate?
A)Stabilize the distal humerus and apply a proximal glide of the ulna
B)Apply a valgus stress at the elbow
C)Stabilize the humerus and apply a dorsal glide to the head of the radius
D)Stabilize the distal humerus and apply an ulnar (lateral) glide of the ulna
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20
Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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Q1) During the subacute stage of soft tissue healing after injury and repair of the flexor tendons of the hand or forearm, each of the following is an important intervention except:
A)Scar management with pressure on the scar.
B)Tendon-gliding exercises.
C)Gentle prolonged stretch.
D)Progressive resistance exercise.
Q2) What is the biomechanical cause of a Boutonnière deformity?
A)Overstretching of the volar plate (palmar plate) and bowstringing of the lateral bands of the extensor hood mechanism
B)Volar displacement of the extensor carpi ulnaris tendon, causing a flexion force at the wrist joint
C)Rupture of the central band (central slip) of the extensor hood mechanism, causing the lateral bands to slip in a volar direction at the PIP joint
D)Overstretching or rupture of the collateral ligaments of the metacarpophalangeal (MP) joints
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21
Chapter 20: The Hip
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Q1) Which of the following signs and symptoms in the hip region and/or lower extremity is most consistent with the finding associated with trochanteric bursitis?
A)Pain along the lateral aspect of the hip joint and possibly along the lateral thigh and knee to the insertion of the iliotibial band; pain typically worsens during long periods of asymmetrical standing with more weight shifted to the involved side
B)Pain that becomes evident during extended periods of sitting, with most pain experienced in the buttock region over the ischial tuberosities
C)Groin and anterior thigh pain that becomes evident or is aggravated during activities that require repetitive hip flexion
D)Groin pain at rest that increases with weight bearing coupled with a positive Trendelenburg sign and pain with hip abduction
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Chapter 21: The Knee
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Q1) Each of the following is true about postoperative management after primary TKA except:
A)Based on the design of the prosthesis, the use of grade III posterior joint gliding techniques may be an appropriate intervention to increase knee flexion after cruciate-excising TKA but not after cruciate-retaining TKA.
B)If the TKA involved cementless fixation, weight-bearing recommendations vary widely from weight bearing as tolerated while using a walker or crutches to touch-down weight bearing for 4 to 6 weeks after surgery.
C)Although straight-leg-raising exercises for the operated lower extremity are initiated in supine and prone positions as soon as possible during the early postoperative period, they often are delayed for several weeks in side-lying positions to avoid varus/valgus stresses on the operated knee.
D)Participation in high-impact physical activities should be avoided after TKA, as it may contribute to mechanical loosening of the implanted prosthesis over time.
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Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Q1) A 40-year-old teacher who has been referred to you has experienced pain along the plantar aspect of the heel for more than 6 months.It is most noticeable when getting out of bed in the morning, upon standing after sitting for longer than 1 hour, and after playing racquetball.During walking, pain is most noticeable at the terminal stance/pre-swing phase of gait.The mostly likely disorder causing these symptoms is:
A)Plantar fasciitis.
B)Calcaneal bursitis.
C)Achilles tendinitis.
D)Posterior tibialis tendinitis.
Q2) Which one of the following ligaments of the ankle is most frequently stressed with an inversion sprain?
A)Posterior talofibular
B)Anterior talofibular
C)Calcaneofibular
D)Deltoid
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Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Q1) For an individual to be able to execute functional activities, it is necessary to have the ability to maintain the position of the body in equilibrium within the environment.This state of equilibrium is called:
A)Power.
B)Endurance.
C)Postural stability.
D)Strength.
Q2) Moving and planting activities, in which the patient is required to move, change position, and then hold the position (freeze) are most appropriate for a patient returning to which activity/function?
A)An usher at a sporting event who has to stand for long periods
B)A traveler who needs to use escalators routinely both with luggage and without
C)A receptionist who frequently transitions from sit to stand and escorts individuals to their meetings
D)A tour guide who walks for long distances on cobblestones or other uneven surfaces
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Chapter 24: Exercise in the Older Adult
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Q1) Normal aging results in progressive loss of muscle mass characterized by:
A)Death of alpha motorneurons at the spinal cord resulting in decline of innervation to individual muscles.
B)Reduction in size but not number of muscle fibers.
C)Atrophy of type I fibers and hypertrophy of Type II muscle fibers.
D)Loss of muscle mass beginning in the sixth decade of life.
Q2) Which of the following accurately represents appropriate guidelines for developing a safe and effective progressive resistance training program for your patient who is age 85?
A)High-intensity progressive resistance exercise is contraindicated in patients older than age 80.
B)Each session should include warm-up, stretching, functional or sport-specific exercises, and cool-down.
C)Strength cannot be gained in patients with low muscle mass, and resistance training will be detrimental.
D)Resistance exercises beyond the seventh decade should only be performed as part of an aquatic program to reduce the stress on joints and soft tissue.
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Chapter 25: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) Each of the following contributes to the potential for pelvic floor muscle dysfunction following pregnancy except:
A)Planned cesarean delivery.
B)Injury to the pudendal nerve.
C)Tear/surgical laceration of the perineal body.
D)Stretch to the pelvic floor during late stage of pregnancy.
Q2) During the last trimester of pregnancy, pain in the groin area is often caused by overstretching of the:
A)Broad ligament.
B)Round ligament.
C)Uterosacral ligament.
D)Pubococcygeal ligament.
Q3) Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to participating in an exercise program during pregnancy?
A)Diastasis recti
B)Gestational diabetes
C)Maternal type 1 diabetes
D)Obesity
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Chapter 26: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Q1) The treatment of lymphedema with compression therapy to the limb involves a combination of bandaging and use of compression garments.The type of compression to use depends on the phase of lymphedema treatment and the desired outcome.Which of the following is true regarding the proper utilization of compression treatment?
A)During phase II, a custom compression bandage or an Ace wrap can be used by the patient for self-management.
B)During phase I, only high-stretch bandages are used to provide continuous high resting and working pressure until limb reduction is achieved.
C)Low-stretch bandaging is used to achieve limb reduction in phase I and to continue limb reduction intervention at night during phase II.
D)Ace wraps are used during phase I to achieve limb reduction and during phase II to control limb size during vigorous activity.
Q2) Intervention goals for lymphedema include all of the following except:
A)Educating the patient in techniques for self-management.
B)Reducing the risk of infection.
C)Softening of fibrotic tissue.
D)Resolving the lymphedema and returning the lymphatic system to a normal state.
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