Physical Therapist Assistant Clinical Science
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Physical Therapist Assistant Clinical Science is a foundational course that introduces students to the principles and practices essential for clinical work in physical therapy settings. The course covers fundamental topics such as patient assessment, therapeutic interventions, documentation, safety protocols, and effective communication within the healthcare team. Emphasis is placed on understanding patient care in diverse populations, developing problem-solving skills, and applying evidence-based techniques under the supervision of a licensed physical therapist. Through a combination of classroom learning, lab activities, and clinical observations, students build the competence and confidence needed to support patient rehabilitation and promote optimal movement and function.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Physical Therapist Assistant 1st Edition by Penelope J. Lescher
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Chapter 1: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When cells in the body are in a state of equilibrium with their environment they are said to be in:
A) balance.
B) transition.
C) homeostasis.
D) imbalance.
Answer: C
Q2) During the healing process,which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding granulation tissue?
A) Granulation tissue is resilient to damage (not easily damaged).
B) Granulation tissue forms a series of red dots in the base of the healing wound.
C) The appearance of granulation tissue in a wound is a good sign that the wound is healing.
D) Granulation tissue is easily damaged.
Answer: A
Q3) Cultural differences can affect the way individuals perceive pain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Immunopathology, neoplasia, and
Chromosome
Abnormalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotic- and antimicrobial-resistant bacteria are becoming much more common.Prescribing antimicrobial medications to young children with minor infections and patients not completing the entire prescribed course of antimicrobials are two of the reasons for this increase in occurrence of these bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Some bacteria have flagella (tails used to swim)and others produce spores.The tetanus bacteria Clostridium tetani produces spores that are unable to survive very long in the environment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) All of the following are examples of a type I hypersensitivity reaction EXCEPT:
A) allergic rhinitis.
B) atopic dermatitis.
C) blood transfusion incompatibility.
D) bronchial asthma.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cardiovascular Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hodgkin's disease is a nonmalignant disease of the white blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Cardiac output is defined as the amount of blood pumped out by:
A) one ventricle in 1 minute.
B) both ventricles in 1 minute.
C) one ventricle in one beat of the heart.
D) both ventricles in one beat of the heart.
Answer: A
Q3) Leukemias are malignant neoplasms of the blood cells or blood-forming organs often with no known cause.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Respiratory Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) During ventilation,the muscles of inhalation enlarge the volume of the thoracic cage and the pressure in the alveoli is lowered below that of the atmospheric pressure of air,causing air to rush into the lungs from the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A pulse oximeter provides an estimate of the levels of oxygen saturation in hemoglobin (SaO<sub>2</sub>).Accepted normal SaO<sub>2</sub> ranges for individuals with no pulmonary disease are:
A) between 80% and 85%.
B) between 86% and 90%.
C) between 91% and 95%.
D) between 96% and 100%.
Q3) In normal lungs,the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)is usually what percentage of the vital capacity (VC)?
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
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Chapter 5: Degenerative Joint Diseases and Bone Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several precautions exist for people who have a total hip arthroplasty.Which instruction should you AVOID giving to a patient after this surgery?
A) Do not flex the hip beyond 90 degrees.
B) Do not cross the affected leg beyond midline.
C) Do sit in a low,soft chair for comfort.
D) Do not bend over to pick something up off the floor.
Q2) Osteochondromas,also called exostoses,are the most common benign tumors of bone in children and are usually located in the distal femur.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Heberden's nodes and Bouchard's nodes are characteristic of:
A) ankylosing spondylitis.
B) gout.
C) Lyme disease.
D) osteoarthrosis (OA)
Q4) People with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)and autoimmune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)can develop arthritic symptoms.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Rheumatoid Arthritis and Related Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disease characterized by a combination of signs and symptoms,including a malar rash on the face (butterfly rash),a discoid rash on the body,fatigue,weight loss or weight gain,Raynaud's phenomenon,arthritis symptoms of several joints,internal organ involvement,gastrointestinal symptoms,and anemia is:
A) Reiter's syndrome
B) scleroderma.
C) systemic lupus erythematosus.
D) Still's disease.
Q2) Physical therapy interventions for people with rheumatoid arthritis (RA)are extensive.Which of the following should NOT be included in a physical therapy intervention plan for a person with RA?
A) The use of resting splints at night to keep the knees in an extended position
B) The use of finger splints and thumb spica splints to correct hand deformities
C) The use of low repetition and high weights exercise programs for strengthening muscles
D) The use of neuromuscular stimulation,ultrasound,and heat modalities during subacute and chronic stages of the disease
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Chapter 7: Neurological Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following describe the motor abilities of an infant/child between 9 and 12 months of age?
A) Walks alone with wide base of support,crawls upstairs,and squats when playing
B) Changes direction when running,walks backward,and attempts to kick a ball
C) Stands supported,cruises in standing while holding onto furniture,and walks with hand held or alone
D) Rolls supine to prone,sits without support,and takes weight through feet and steps if held upright
Q2) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare degenerative neurological disorder that can be treated with antimicrobial medications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Autism spectrum disorder encompasses a wide range of neurodevelopmental disorders including Asperger's syndrome,Rett's syndrome,and classical autism.The cause of autism is unknown but is thought to be a combination of genetic and environmental factors.Children with all types of the disorder exhibit impairment of social interaction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Burns and Skin Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autolytic débridement uses a nonocclusive dressing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are protective functions of the skin EXCEPT:
A) control of body temperature.
B) defense against bacteria.
C) production of vitamin D.
D) protection from infrared light.
Q3) Herpes zoster
A)Area affected may appear as a nonhealing ulcer with an asymmetrical shape
B)Area of concern can be red,purple,or brown and is found mainly on the face and lower legs
C)Blister-like vesicles occurring along a dermatome
D)Lesions that are 6 mm in diameter and have mixed flat and raised areas
E)Occurs on areas regularly exposed to ultraviolet light
Q4) The percentages in the Rule of Nines for an adult and an infant/small child are the same.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Endocrine, metabolic, and Nutritional Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are complications of diabetes mellitus EXCEPT:
A) amyotrophy.
B) reduced function of kidneys.
C) retinopathy.
D) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
Q2) Blurred vision,Charcot's arthropathy,increased appetite,and peripheral neuropathies are signs and symptoms of which disease?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Phenylketonuria
C) Vitamin A deficiency
D) Wilson's disease
Q3) Which disease can be characterized by a buildup of calcium in the eyes and brain?
A) Addison's disease
B) Adrenocortical hypofunction
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Hypoparathyroidism
Q4) A person with bulimia nervosa has the tendency to overexercise.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of poliomyelitis can also give rise to post-poliomyelitis syndrome?
A) Clinical
B) Nonparalytic
C) Paralytic
D) Subclinical
Q2) Dengue fever
A)Contact with infected rodents or rodent urine or feces
B)Mosquito bite
C)Respiratory droplets via coughing or sneezing
D)Sexual contact
E)Tick bite
Q3) Upon finding out your patient has HIV/AIDS,you are allowed to inform all the therapists in your department.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a secondary infection associated with AIDS?
A) Chancroid
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Rubella
D) Rubeola
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Female and Male Reproductive System
Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women in the later stages of pregnancy require more time to recover after exercise.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Primiparity
A)Development of the placenta either completely or partly over the internal opening of the cervix
B)Implantation of the placenta deeply into the myometrium
C)Woman pregnant for the first time
D)Woman who has given birth only once
E)Woman who has had several pregnancies
Q3) Which of the following describes why the mobilization of joints on a pregnant woman is NOT recommended?
A) Frequency of micturition
B) Increase in blood volume
C) Lactation
D) Relaxing of the ligaments
Q4) Prostate cancer is the leading cause of death from cancer in men.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Diseases of the Digestive and Urinary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic medical test for digestive system diseases?
A) Barium enemas
B) Colonoscopy
C) Endoscopy
D) Testing for creatinine clearance
Q2) Bile salts
A)Liver
B)Pancreas
C)Salivary glands
D)Small intestine
E)Stomach
Q3) Cholelithiasis is the medical term for:
A) common bile duct stones.
B) gallstones.
C) kidney stones.
D) urinary stones.
Q4) Hemodialysis recycles waste products in the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Intensive Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) PO<sub>2</sub>
A)70 to 110 mg/100 mL
B)75 to 100 mm Hg
C)150,000 to 300,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
D)Females: 12 to 16 g/100 mL; Males: 13 to 18 g/100 mL
E)Females: 37% to 48%; Males: 45% to 52%
Q2) In adults,what is the normal range for intracranial pressure in mm Hg?
A) 0 to 5
B) 0 to 10
C) 5 to 10
D) 5 to 15
Q3) Which of the following lines will not harm the patient directly if it becomes kinked or pulled?
A) Arterial line
B) Catheter
C) Intravenous line
D) Pulse oximeter
Q4) Patients are allowed to refuse treatment in the ICU.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Geriatric Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ménière's disease
A)Rare,benign tumor of the eighth cranial nerve located in the internal auditory canal
B)Abnormal growth of bone in the middle ear resulting in deafness
C)Blockage of the endolymphatic duct of the ear and a subsequent buildup of fluid in the inner ear
D)Dizziness and/or vertigo with a change in head position
E)Inflammation of the inner ear that may be either in both ears or one ear
Q2) A person with Parkinson's disease will exhibit:
A) an ability to perform daily living activities unimpeded.
B) an expressive face.
C) normal gait.
D) pill rolling.
Q3) The Kübler-Ross stages of dying include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) anger.
B) bargaining.
C) depression.
D) surrender.
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