Physical Science for Educators
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Physical Science for Educators offers a foundational exploration of physics and chemistry concepts tailored for future teaching professionals. Emphasizing inquiry-based learning, this course covers topics such as matter and its properties, energy and motion, force, electricity and magnetism, and the principles of scientific investigation. Students will engage in hands-on activities and experiments, develop strategies for classroom demonstrations, and learn effective methods to communicate scientific ideas to diverse learners. The course aims to build both content knowledge and pedagogical skills, empowering educators to foster scientific curiosity and critical thinking in their own classrooms.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 13th Edition by James Shipman
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20 Chapters
2616 Verified Questions
2616 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Temperature and Heat
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121 Verified Questions
121 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is incorrect?
A) A kilogram has an equivalent weight greater than that of a pound.
B) A kilometer is longer than a mile.
C) A meter is longer than a yard.
D) A liter is larger than a quart.
Answer: B
Q2) The metric prefix that means one-hundredth (1/100) is
A) kilo-.
B) centi-.
C) mega-.
D) milli-.
Answer: B
Q3) In a debate, is the statement "It's only a theory" a valid argument point against a theory (as in "The theory of evolution is wrong because it's only a theory")?
A) Yes, theories are weak.
B) No, theories are strong.
C) No, theories are weak.
D) Yes, theories are meaningless.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Waves and Sound
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96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ball dropped from the top of a building hits the ground 8.0 s later. How high is the building (in meters)?
Answer: 310 m (rounded to two significant figures)
Q2) In straight-line motion, if a moving object speeds up, the direction of the acceleration is ______________ the direction of the velocity. Answer: along, the same as, or parallel to
Q3) In the equation a<sub>c</sub>= v<sup>2</sup>/r for centripetal acceleration, the v stands for A) volume.
B) very.
C) speed.
D) velociraptor.
Answer: C
Q4) An automobile traveling on a straight, level road at 15 km/h speeds up to 90 km/h in 30 s. What was the magnitude of the auto's acceleration, in meters per second squared? Answer: 69 m/s<sup>2</sup>
Q5) The SI unit of centripetal acceleration is ______________. Answer: meters per second squared (m/s<sup>2)</sup>
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Chapter 3: Optics and Wave Effects
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) G (big
G) is not a(n) ____________, as g (little g) is.
Answer: acceleration
Q2) The gravitational pull of Earth acting on an object is zero when the object
A) has zero acceleration.
B) is in free fall.
C) is midway between Earth and the Moon.
D) is in orbit around Earth.
E) none of these
Answer: E
Q3) The natural tendency of an object to remain at rest or in motion with a constant velocity is called
A) an external force.
B) an unbalanced force.
C) inertia.
D) none of these.
Answer: C
Q4) To initiate motion, a(n) ____________ force is necessary.
Answer: unbalanced, or net
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Chapter 4: Electricity and Magnetism
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Energy provided directly from Earth's interior is called
A) groundwater energy.
B) geothermal energy.
C) artesian energy.
D) thermionic energy.
Q2) The potential energy of a pendulum is least
A) when its potential energy is greatest.
B) at the top of its swing.
C) at the bottom of its swing.
D) when its total energy is greatest.
Q3) Work is defined as force times
A) distance.
B) time.
C) parallel distance.
D) perpendicular distance.
Q4) Gravitational potential energy is equal to the ______________ of an object times its height.
Q5) A 5.00-kg object is lifted from the floor to a shelf. The object's new gravitational potential energy relative to the floor is 102 J. What is the height of the shelf?
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Chapter 5: Atomic Physics
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105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One kelvin unit is equivalent to
A) 9/5 Fahrenheit degrees.
B) 1 Fahrenheit degree.
C) 2 Celsius degrees.
D) 1.8 Celsius degrees.
Q2) Which of the following is not directly involved in the second law of thermodynamics?
A) Spontaneous heat flow
B) Converting all heat input into work
C) Conservation of energy
D) Entropy
Q3) The amount of heat necessary to change 1 kg of a liquid into a gas at the same temperature is called the
A) entropy.
B) boiling point.
C) latent heat of vaporization.
D) latent heat of fusion.
Q4) The SI unit of heat is the ______________.
Q5) The substance is entirely a solid between points ______________ and
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Chapter 6: Nuclear Physics
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107 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a longitudinal mechanical wave, the particle motion is
A) parallel to the direction of the wave velocity.
B) perpendicular to the direction of the wave velocity.
C) both parallel and perpendicular to the direction of the wave velocity.
D) in all directions.
Q2) What is the wavelength, in meters, of radio waves produced by a radio station with a frequency of 1400 kHz?
(c = 3.00 \(\times\) 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)
Q3) A certain radio wave has a wavelength of 6.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>-2</sup>m. What is its frequency in hertz?
Q4) The region of the electromagnetic spectrum with frequencies just greater than those in the microwaves region is the ______________ region.
A) infrared
B) ultraviolet
C) x-rays
D) gamma rays
E) visible
Q5) Light in a vacuum has a speed of ______________ m/s.
Q6) The SI unit of frequency is ______________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Chemical Elements
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For total internal reflection, light is ______________ and none is ______________.
A) reflected, refracted
B) refracted; transmitted
C) transmitted, refracted
D) transmitted; reflected
Q2) Polarizing sunglasses have the transmission axis oriented ______________.
Q3) A ray of light in water strikes an air-water interface at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle. The ray A) emerges but is bent away from the normal. B) travels along the interface.
C) emerges but is bent toward the normal. D) is totally reflected into the water.
Q4) FM radio reception may be blocked by buildings because the wavelengths are too short to be ______________ around buildings.
Q5) A simple magnifying glass has a focal length of 6.0 cm. An object is placed 4.0 cm from it. Sketch a ray diagram and give the characteristics of the image.
Q6) Reflection from smooth surfaces is called ______________ reflection.
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Chapter 8: Chemical Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two oppositely charged particles ______________ one another.
Q2) A transformer with 400 turns on the primary coil is used to decrease the voltage from 3000 V to 120 V for home use. How many turns should be in the secondary coil?
A) 400 turns
B) 10000 turns
C) 16 turns
D) 3520 turns
Q3) The source of magnetism is
A) polarization.
B) magnetic monopoles.
C) electrons.
D) protons.
Q4) The resistances are added in a(n) ______________ circuit.
Q5) A step-down transformer has more windings on the ________ coil.
Q6) A component in an automobile 12-V electrical system has a resistance of 20 \(\Omega\).a. How much current is in the component when the system is in operation?
b. How much energy is dissipated by the component each second?
Q7) According to the law of poles, like poles ______________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Chemical Reactions
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170 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calculate the energy E<sub>n</sub>, in electron volts, of a hydrogen atom's electron with n = 5.
Q2) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is most important for A) very large objects, such as the Moon.
B) very large distances.
C) very small particles, such as electrons.
D) very small angular momentum.
Q3) Thomson discovered the ______________ in 1897.
Q4) The element named ______________ was detected spectroscopically on the Sun before it was found on Earth.
Q5) Calculate the de Broglie wavelength for an electron (m = 1 \(\times\) 10<sup>-30 </sup>kg) moving at 2.4 \(\times\) 10<sup>6</sup> m/s.
Q6) In the electron cloud model, or quantum model, of the atom, the focus is on the ______________ nature of the electron.
Q7) The second excited state for an electron in a hydrogen atom would be where n equals ______________.
Q8) The quantity h in the Bohr theory is called ______________.
11
Q9) The energy of a photon equals ______________ multiplied by the frequency.
Q10) Tripling the frequency of a photon would ______________ its energy.
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Chapter 10: Organic Chemistry
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169 Verified Questions
169 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Write the equation for the reaction of a deuteron with a triton to form a neutron and another particle.
Q2) What happens to the atomic number (Z) and the mass number (A) when a nucleus emits a beta particle (electron)?
A) Z increases by 1; A is unchanged.
B) Z is unchanged; A is unchanged.
C) Z decreases by 2; A decreases by 4.
D) Z decreases by 1; A is unchanged.
Q3) Radioactive decay was discovered in 1896 by
A) Ernest Rutherford.
B) Niels Bohr.
C) Henri Becquerel.
D) Marie and Pierre Curie.
Q4) The number of neutrons in a triton is ______________.
Q5) When an unstable Ce nucleus undergoes beta decay, the nucleus formed is that of A) Cerium.
B) Neodymium.
C) Lanthanum.
D) Barium.
E) Praeseodymium.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Place and Time
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179 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solid solution of two or more metals is called a(n) ______________.
Q2) The symbol for lead is A) Pb.
B) La.
C) Li.
D) Xe.
Q3) O<sub>3</sub> and O<sub>2 </sub>are the two ______________ of the element oxygen.
Q4) The second period of the periodic table is composed of ______________ (how many?) elements.
Q5) In general, elements that have four to eight electrons in their valence shell are A) semimetals.
B) metalloids.
C) nonmetals.
D) metals.
Q6) The element ______________ was the gas used in the Hindenburg.
Q7) The electrons in the outermost shell are called ______________ electrons.
Q8) When salt is dissolved in water, the salt is called the ______________.
Q9) The compound BeF<sub>2</sub> is named ______________.
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Chapter 13: The Solar System
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143 Verified Questions
143 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A compound that contains water molecules as part of its formula is called A) a hydrate.
B) an anhydride.
C) a hydride.
D) a hydroxide.
Q2) Which of the following is not a property of an aqueous solution of an acid?
A) Reacts with many metals to liberate hydrogen gas
B) Changes the color of litmus dye from red to blue
C) Tastes sour
D) Conducts an electric current
Q3) When aqueous solutions of Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> and BaCl<sub>2</sub> are mixed, the products are NaCl and ______________.
Q4) The rate of a chemical reaction would be decreased by A) stirring the reactants.
B) increasing the concentration of the reactants.
C) adding a catalyst to the reactants.
D) cooling the reactants.
Q5) Changes that alter the chemical composition of a substance are known as ______________ changes.
Page 14
Q6) The formula for the hydronium ion is ______________.
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Chapter 15: Moons and Small Solar System Bodies
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147 Verified Questions
147 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the time of the summer solstice, all latitudes from ______________ to 90°N are having 24 hours of daylight.
Q2) The number of daylight hours at 40°S is greatest during the month of
A) June.
B) December.
C) September.
D) March.
Q3) The elapsed time between two successive crossings of the same meridian by a star other than the Sun is known as the ______________ day.
Q4) At which latitude is the noonday Sun overhead twice a year?
A) 30°S
B) 23°S
C) 24°N
D) 30°N
Q5) The ______________ angle added to the altitude angle equals 90°.
A) inclination
B) declination
C) altitude
D) zenith
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Chapter 16: The Universe
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The planet with the Great Red Spot is A) Jupiter.
B) Neptune.
C) Uranus.
D) Saturn.
E) Mars.
Q2) The motion of a Foucault pendulum proves that Earth is A) rotating.
B) revolving.
C) precessing.
D) an oblate spheroid.
Q3) The rings of Saturn were discovered by ______________.
Q4) The third brightest object in the sky is
A) the Sun.
B) the Moon.
C) Venus.
D) Mars.
Q5) The point of a planet's orbit farthest from the Sun is called the ______________.
Q6) The most distant planet that can be seen with the unaided eye is
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Chapter 17: The Atmosphere
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152 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Moon is thought to be
A) older than Earth.
B) the same age as Earth.
C) younger than Earth.
D) infinitely old.
Q2) In exactly 14 days after a full moon, one would see a
A) new moon.
B) waxing crescent moon.
C) first-quarter moon.
D) waning crescent moon.
Q3) The impact of meteorites on the Moon has caused A) craters only.
B) rays only.
C) rills only.
D) both rays and craters.
Q4) When a meteor strikes Earth's surface, it is called a(n) ______________.
Q5) The Moon revolves eastward around Earth every ______________ solar days.
Q6) The major moons of ______________ were named after literary characters.
Q7) A huge bull's-eye formation is a distinctive feature of Jupiter's moon
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Chapter 19: Atmospheric Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major contribution in heating the troposphere comes from ______________.
Q2) Which of the following has the smallest albedo?
A) Water
B) Polar ice
C) Fresh snow
D) Dry sand
Q3) Oxygen is supplied to the atmosphere by
A) ozone.
B) incomplete combustion.
C) photosynthesis.
D) complete combustion.
Q4) A type of cloud composed of ice crystals is the A) altostratus.
B) cirrostratus.
C) stratus.
D) nimbostratus.
Q5) The term weather refers to the atmospheric conditions of the ______________.
Q6) The rate at which the temperature decreases with altitude is called the ______________.
Q7) The cloud root name meaning "heap" is ______________.
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Chapter 21: Structural Geology and Plate Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Alps are examples of which type of mountain?
A) Fold
B) Volcanic
C) Fault-block
D) None of these
Q2) A mid-ocean ridge is formed at the boundary of two plates
A) that are separating from one another.
B) that are sliding horizontally past one another.
C) where one is pushing over the top of the other.
D) that are basically at rest.
Q3) In the early 1900s, a scientist named ______________ revived the idea of continental drift.
Q4) Studies of remanent magnetism in rocks spreading from the Mid-Atlantic Ridge reveal symmetric bands of magnetic anomalies. These anomalies provide
A) support for the idea of continental drift.
B) evidence of Earth's magnetic pole reversals.
C) both (A) and (B).
D) neither (A) nor (B).
Q5) A(n) ______________ fault occurs as the result of expansive forces.
Q6) The deflection of one plate under another is called ______________.
Page 19
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Chapter 22: Minerals Rocks and Volcanoes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The saying "The present is the key to the past" is a simple way to state the basic geologic concept called ______________.
A) presentarianism
B) prepostanarism
C) uniformitarianism
D) formitarianism
Q2) Intrusive igneous rock formations that cut more or less vertically across older formations are said to be ______________.
A) recordant
B) discordant
C) concordant
D) precordant
Q3) Which of the following is the softest mineral on the Mohs scale?
A) Talc
B) Gypsum
C) Diamond
D) Quartz
Q4) The ratio of a mineral sample's weight to the weight of an equal volume of water is called the mineral's ______________.
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Chapter 23: Surface Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any flow of water occurring between well-defined banks is defined by geologists as A) a stream.
B) a meander.
C) a lake.
D) none of these.
Q2) The object above a valley floor that consists of glacial ice is called A) a valley glacier.
B) a gulley glacier
C) a canyon glacier.
D) none of these.
Q3) The true edges of the continental landmasses are called the ______________.
Q4) A river's suspended load and bed load may accumulate at its mouth and form a(n) A) delta.
B) flood plain.
C) moraine.
D) abyssal plain.
Q5) The shallowly submerged areas that border the continental landmasses are called the ______________.
Q6) Carbonic acid is the main agent of ______________ weathering.
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Chapter 24: Geologic Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rubidium-______________ dating is an important radiometric dating tool.
Q2) ______________ fossils are those typical of a particular limited time segment of Earth's history.
Q3) The K-T event occurred about ______________ million years ago.
Q4) The term age of mammals is sometimes used to refer to the ______________ era.
Q5) New material filling a mold forms a ______________ of the original shell or bone.
A) cast
B) mold
C) hole
D) groove
Q6) The ______________ states that in a sequence of undisturbed sedimentary rocks, lavas, or ash, each layer is younger than the layer beneath it.
Q7) A number of epochs is called a(n) A) eon.
B) period.
C) millennia.
D) era.
Q8) Eons are subdivided first into ______________.
Q9) The term age of reptiles is sometimes used to refer to the ______________ era. Page 22
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Page 23