Physical Science Concepts
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Physical Science Concepts introduces students to the fundamental principles of physics and chemistry that govern the natural world. The course explores topics such as motion, energy, forces, matter, atomic structure, chemical reactions, and the properties of solids, liquids, and gases. Through a combination of theoretical concepts and hands-on experiments, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how scientific principles explain everyday phenomena. The course emphasizes critical thinking, problem-solving, and scientific inquiry, providing a solid foundation for advanced studies in science and for understanding the role of physical science in technology and daily life.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 13th Edition by James Shipman
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20 Chapters
2616 Verified Questions
2616 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Temperature and Heat
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121 Verified Questions
121 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An object's mass would be the same on Earth and on the Moon, but its ______________ would be different.
Answer: weight
Q2) Which of the following is not a fundamental quantity?
A) Weight B) Length C) Time D) Mass
Answer: A
Q3) Liquid density may be measured with a(n) ______________.
Answer: hydrometer
Q4) If there are 2.54 cm/in., how many inches are there per centimeter?
Answer: 394
Q5) A scientific law is a concise statement that describes a(n) ______________ of nature.
Answer: relationship (or regularity)
Q6) A(n) ______________ is a comparison of an unknown physical quantity with the standard unit.
Answer: measurement
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Waves and Sound
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96 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is not an area of physics?
A) Mechanics
B) Optics
C) Algebra
D) Acoustics
Answer: C
Q2) Physics deals with force, energy, motion, and ________________. Answer: matter
Q3) A student travels from St. Louis to Indianapolis, a distance of 210 mi, in 6.0 h. The return trip over the same route takes 7.0 h. What is the average speed for
a. the first half of the trip?
b. the second half of the trip?
c. the total trip?
Answer: a. 35 mi/h
b. 30 mi/h
c. 32 mi/h
Q4) The straight-line distance and direction between two points are, together, called
Answer: displacement
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Chapter 3: Optics and Wave Effects
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student stands on a chair. The forces acting on her or him are supplied by gravity acting downward and by the ______________ acting upward.
Answer: chair
Q2) To increase the force of gravity between two masses by a factor of 9, how would the objects have to be moved?
Answer: 3 times closer together
Q3) An automobile with a mass of 2000 kg is moving north on a level, straight highway with a constant velocity of 80 km/h. What is the unbalanced force acting on the automobile?
Answer: F = 0
Q4) Newton's law of gravitation applies to all ______________. Answer: particles
Q5) It is generally easier to push an object once it is moving than when one is getting it started. Why is this?
Answer: Sliding friction is less than static friction.
Q6) A(n) ______________ force is necessary for uniform circular motion. Answer: centripetal
Q7) Force is a(n) ______________ quantity.
Answer: vector
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Electricity and Magnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A system for which there are no outside effects is said to be ______________.
Q2) One watt is equal to ______________ per second.
A) one kilogram
B) one newton
C) one joule
D) one meter
Q3) Kinetic and potential energies are forms of __________ energy.
Q4) Mechanical energy
A) is always the total energy of a system.
B) is the sum of the energies of motion and position.
C) is always conserved.
D) necessarily involves gravitational potential energy.
Q5) Which of the following four objects has the greatest kinetic energy?
A) An object of mass m moving with speed 4v
B) An object of mass 3m moving with speed 2v
C) An object of mass 4m moving with speed v
D) An object of mass 2m moving with speed 3v
E) None of these; all four objects have the same kinetic energy.
Q6) A horsepower is a unit of power equal to 550 ______________.
Q7) The product of force times parallel distance is called ______________.
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Chapter 5: Atomic Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Celsius degree is
A) the same size as the Fahrenheit degree.
B) larger than the kelvin.
C) the same size as the kelvin.
D) smaller than the Fahrenheit degree.
Q2) A digital thermometer can make readings to the tenth of a degree at either the Celsius setting or the Fahrenheit setting. Which reading would be more precise?
A) The Fahrenheit setting, since 1 degree Fahrenheit is smaller than 1 degree Celsius
B) The Fahrenheit setting, since 1 degree Celsius is smaller than 1 degree Fahrenheit
C) The Celsius setting, since 1 degree Fahrenheit is smaller than 1 degree Celsius
D) The Celsius setting, since 1 degree Celsius is smaller than 1 degree Fahrenheit
Q3) The second law of thermodynamics forbids a heat engine to have thermal efficiency of ______________.
Q4) How much heat is required to melt 5.0 kg of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C?
Q5) Below 4°C, water ______________ with decreasing temperature.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Nuclear Physics
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107 Verified Questions
107 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following radiations has the smallest wavelength?
A) Infrared
B) Visible
C) Ultraviolet
D) X-rays
Q2) Which of the following sound frequencies lie(s) in the audible range?
A) 16 Hz
B) 8 kHz
C) 1 MHz
D) All of these
Q3) A wave in which the particle displacement is parallel to the wave motion is called a(n) ______________ wave.
Q4) Light in a vacuum has a speed of ______________ m/s.
Q5) During a thunderstorm, an observer notes that 10 s elapsed between the lightning flash and the sound of the thunder. What is the approximate distance, in miles, from the observer to the lightning?
Q6) If a sound level increases by 30 dB, the intensity increases by a factor of
Q7) A pendulum has how many natural frequencies?
Q8) The SI unit of frequency is ______________.
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Chapter 7: The Chemical Elements
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A light wave traveling in air strikes a plane mirror surface at an angle of 20° relative to the normal. The wave is reflected at an angle of A) 20° relative to the surface.
B) 20° relative to the normal.
C) 70° relative to the normal.
D) none of these.
Q2) The bending of waves around corners is called A) reflection.
B) refraction.
C) diffraction.
D) interference.
Q3) A ray of light in water strikes an air-water interface at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle. The ray A) emerges but is bent away from the normal. B) travels along the interface.
C) emerges but is bent toward the normal. D) is totally reflected into the water.
Q4) The speed of light in diamond is 1.24 \(\times\) 10<sup>8</sup>m/s. What is the index of refraction of diamond?
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Chapter 8: Chemical Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be the least conductive?
A) Copper
B) Salt water
C) Glass
D) Mercury
Q2) A(n) ______________ is an elementary particle with a charge of -1.6 \(\times\)10<sup>-19</sup> C.
A) electron
B) neutron
C) proton
D) atom
Q3) Ohm's law gives the relationship between
A) current and voltage.
B) work and current.
C) current and charge.
D) force and current.
Q4) To prevent a home electric circuit from overheating because of too much current, a(n) ______________ is used.
Q5) A ferromagnetic material loses this property above the ______________ temperature.
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Chapter 9: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aristotle's "continuous" model of matter was proved wrong about 1807 by A) Bohr.
B) Thomson.
C) Dalton.
D) Rutherford.
Q2) The development of physics since about 1900 is called A) neoclassical physics.
B) Newtonian physics.
C) classical physics.
D) modern physics.
Q3) When an electron is added to an atom, a(n) _______________ ion is formed.
Q4) In the electron cloud model, or quantum model, of the atom, the focus is on the ______________ nature of the electron.
Q5) Addition of an electron to an atom leaves a A) neutron.
B) positive ion.
C) free quark.
D) negative ion.
Q6) Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of a 0.145-kg baseball moving at a speed of 45.2 m/s.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Organic Chemistry
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169 Verified Questions
169 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which unit would it be best to state the dosage of radiation absorbed, with regard to its effects on humans?
A) Roentgens
B) Curies
C) Becquerels
D) Rems
Q2) The strong nuclear force is
A) strongly repulsive for distances less than 10<sup>-14</sup> m and strongly attractive for larger distances.
B) zero for distances less than 10<sup>-14 </sup>m and strongly attractive for larger distances.
C) strongly attractive for distances less than 10<sup>-14 </sup>m and zero for larger distances.
D) strongly attractive for distances less than 10<sup>-14 </sup>m and repulsive for larger distances.
Q3) The time it takes for one-half of a sample of a radionuclide to decay is called its
Q4) The diameter of the average atom is about ______________ m.
Q5) A gas of electrons and protons or other nuclei is called a(n) ______________.
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Chapter 11: Place and Time
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179 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following Group 1A elements has the smallest atom?
A) Rb
B) Na
C) K
D) Li
Q2) A chocolate chip cookie is a good example of
A) a compound.
B) an element.
C) a homogeneous mixture.
D) a heterogeneous mixture.
Q3) About 74% by mass of Earth's crust is composed of the two elements
A) oxygen and iron.
B) aluminum and iron.
C) oxygen and silicon.
D) silicon and aluminum.
Q4) An atom of chlorine has how many valence electrons?
A) 1
B) 7
C) 4
D) 17
Page 13
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Chapter 13: The Solar System
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143 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a weak acid?
A) Hydrochloric acid
B) Nitric acid
C) Sulfuric acid
D) Acetic acid
Q2) What type of reaction gives CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O as the only products?
A) Complete hydrocarbon combustion
B) Acid-base reaction
C) Acid-carbonate reaction
D) Single-replacement, with an acid and an active metal
Q3) Which of the following compounds would you expect to be soluble in water?
A) PbCO<sub>3</sub>
B) Ag<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
C) CuCO<sub>3</sub>
D) K<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
Q4) Most ______________ do their jobs by decreasing the activation energy for a reaction.
Q5) Name four factors that influence the rate of chemical reactions.
Q6) The human body contains thousands of catalysts called ______________.
Page 14
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Chapter 15: Moons and Small Solar System Bodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The longest-daylight day for people in the Northern Hemisphere at latitudes greater than 30°N occurs at the
A) summer solstice.
B) vernal equinox.
C) winter solstice.
D) autumnal equinox.
Q2) If it is 2:00 P.M. EST in Washington, D.C., what is the time in San Diego, California, the longitude of which is 45° more westerly?
A) 1:00 P.M. PST
B) 11:00 A.M. PST
C) Noon PST
D) 5:00 P.M. PST
Q3) When it is 12 noon, May 6, in Perth, Australia (33°S, 116°E), what are the standard time and date in Ottawa, Canada (44°N, 76°W)?
Q4) When the noonday Sun is overhead in London, England, on April 15, what are the standard time and date in San Francisco?
Q5) During one year, what is the apparent change in the noonday Sun's overhead latitude?
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Chapter 16: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Earth-centered model of the solar system is called the ______________ model.
Q2) The large, central portion of a swirling solar nebula is called a(n) ______________.
Q3) Calculate the value of the constant k in Kepler's harmonic law, using values for Earth from Table 16.1 in the textbook (1 year can be used for the period, and 1 AU can be used for the mean distance to the Sun).
Q4) The flattened, rotating disk of gas and dust around the protosun, from which planets were believed to have formed, is called the
A) solar nebula.
B) planetary nebula.
C) condensation nebula.
D) primordial nebula.
Q5) At present, the formation of the solar system is believed by most astronomers to have begun with a large, swirling volume of cold gas and dust called the ______________ nebula.
A) condensation
B) primordial
C) accretion
D) celestial
Page 16
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Chapter 17: The Atmosphere
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152 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following moons has retrograde motion?
A) Ganymede
B) Titan
C) Miranda
D) Triton
Q2) Long-period comets are believed to come from ______________.
A) the Oort cloud
B) interstellar space
C) the asteroid belt
D) the Great Red Spot
Q3) Comets are composed of ______________ and ______________.
Q4) ______________ is the largest known asteroid.
Q5) When a meteoroid enters Earth's atmosphere, it is called a(n) ______________.
Q6) Short-period comets, such as Halley's comet, are believed to come from ______________.
A) the Kuiper Belt
B) the Oort cloud
C) the asteroid belt
D) Earth
Q7) The oldest Moon rocks are about ______________ years old.
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Chapter 19: Atmospheric Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) An average lapse rate of 2.7 °F/1000 ft is equivalent to
A) 1.5 °C/m.
B) 4.0 °C/1000 ft.
C) 5.0 °C/km.
D) 6.5 °C/1000 m.
Q2) The fraction of incident light that a body reflects is known as its A) Rayleigh scattering.
B) insolation.
C) albedo.
D) humidity.
Q3) The fraction of incident light that a body reflects is called its ______________.
Q4) Photosynthesis produces ______________ in the atmosphere.
A) carbon dioxide
B) oxygen
C) argon
D) carbon monoxide
Q5) The cloud root name meaning "heap" is ______________.
Q6) The atmospheric division that lies directly above the stratosphere is the
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Chapter 21: Structural Geology and Plate Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The part of the mantle located directly below the lithosphere is called the
A) stratosphere
B) Mohorovicic discontinuity
C) mesosphere
D) asthenosphere
Q2) The rock on the upper side of an inclined fault plane is called the hanging wall, and the rock on the underside is called the ______________.
Q3) The lithospheric plates are believed to be put into motion by the driving force of ______________ cells in the asthenosphere.
Q4) In the early 1900s, the scientist named __________ revived the idea of continental drift.
A) Alfred Wegener
B) Harry Hess
C) Andrija Mohorovicic
D) None of the above
Q5) The discovery of seafloor spreading led to acceptance of the theory of ______________.
Q6) The Wasatch Mountains in Utah are examples of ______________ mountains.
Page 19
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Chapter 22: Minerals Rocks and Volcanoes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Particles of sand, mud, and rock fragments deposited along rivers, in lakes, and on the seafloors are called by the general term _____________.
Q2) The appearance of a mineral's surface in reflected light is called its
Q3) Plutons are
A) bodies of intrusive igneous rocks.
B) solids made of tephra.
C) active volcanoes.
D) extinct volcanoes.
Q4) The largest plutons are called
A) sills.
B) dikes.
C) laccoliths.
D) batholiths.
Q5) The term ______________ refers to the tendency of some mineral to break along flat planes at definite angles.
Q6) Dripstone formations that form on cavern ceilings are called _____________.
Q7) Rocks solidified from molten material, either below or above ground, are classified as ______________ rocks.
Page 20
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Chapter 23: Surface Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In latitudes where the subsurface layer of soil always remains frozen, the frozen layer is called
A) an aquifer.
B) the frost table.
C) a glacier.
D) permafrost.
Q2) Glaciers are being considered as a source of
A) scarce metals.
B) fresh water.
C) salt.
D) fertile soil.
Q3) The upper boundary of the zone of saturation is called the ______________.
Q4) ______________ (how many?) tidal bulges "move" around Earth daily.
Q5) Geologists define a(n) ______________ as any flow of water occurring between well-defined banks.
Q6) Which of the following is not a component of a stream's load?
A) Mother load
B) Dissolved load
C) Suspended load
D) Bed load
Page 21
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Chapter 24: Geologic Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another name for cyanobacteria, the earliest evidence of ancient life, is
A) blue-green algae.
B) amber.
C) foraminifera.
D) coal.
Q2) ______________ fossils are those typical of a particular limited time segment of Earth's history.
Q3) We live in the ______________ eon.
Q4) The largest units of geologic time are called ______________.
Q5) The Jurassic period is part of the ______________ era.
Q6) The Paleocene is a(n)
A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
Q7) Which of the following eons is the oldest?
A) Proterozoic
B) Phanerozoic
C) Hadean
D) Archean
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