Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam Preparation Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course is designed to comprehensively prepare students for the Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam (PTCE) by reviewing essential pharmacy principles, regulations, and practices. Students will explore core topics such as pharmacy law, pharmacology, medication safety, pharmaceutical calculations, and pharmacy operations. Through interactive lessons, practice questions, and simulated exams, participants will develop the technical knowledge and problem-solving skills required for certification success. The course also emphasizes professional ethics, communication, and the vital role of pharmacy technicians within healthcare teams.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Pharmacy Technicians 2nd Edition by Kathy Moscou RPh MPH PhD candidate
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43 Chapters
1202 Verified Questions
1202 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Pharmacology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) C-IV
A)Marijuana
B)Methylphenidate
C)Diazepam
D)Diphenoxylate and buprenorphine
E)Methyltestosterone
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is not classified as a behind-the-counter (BTC)drug?
A)Motrin
B)Plan B
C)Sudafed
D)Insulin
Answer: A
Q3) "Rx only" must be printed on the label of all legend drugs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Principles of Pharmacology
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ are drugs that are administered in an inactive form and must be metabolized to their active form.
A)Metabolites
B)Prodrugs
C)Lipophilics
D)Hydrophobics
Answer: B
Q2) Adverse effects reported in animal fetus;information in humans is not available.
A)Category A
B)Category B
C)Category C
D)Category D
E)Category X Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is not a major site of drug elimination?
A)Lungs
B)Kidney
C)Liver
D)Bowel Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Pharmacodynamics
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dose-response curve shows the drug's relative _____ and _____.
A)efficacy,strength
B)efficacy,potency
C)potency,mechanism of action
D)sensitivity,efficacy
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following drug doses could be described as the most potent?
A)1000 mg per dose
B)800 mg per dose
C)600 mg per dose
D)400 mg per dose
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following populations may need dose adjustments for drugs that are highly lipid soluble?
A)Children
B)Middle-aged men and women
C)Men
D)Women
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Drug Interactions and Medication Errors
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Zyprexa/Celexa
A)"Chicken scratch"
B)"Sound-alike,look-alike" drug names
C)mL
D)NKDA
E)Mcg
Q2) Which of the following sigs is properly written using approved The Joint Commission (TJC)abbreviations?
A)50 mg twice daily
B)5.0 mg qod
C)0.5 mg qd
D)5 U SQ daily
Q3) Which of the following is not a way to avoid drug interactions?
A)Place all proper auxiliary labels on each prescription bottle.
B)Do not worry about asking patients about over-the-counter medicines they are taking.
C)Alert the pharmacist to possible drug therapy duplications.
D)Gather a complete medical condition history each time a patient is in your pharmacy.
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6
Chapter 5: Treatment of Anxiety
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All benzodiazepines produce some degree of _____.
A)excitation
B)confusion
C)lucidity
D)insomnia
Q2) Excessive worrying that is experienced daily for more than _____ is an indication of generalized anxiety disorder.
A)3 weeks
B)3 months
C)6 months
D)9 months
Q3) Drug in the drug class azapirone
A)Phobia
B)Anxiolytic
C)Clomipramine
D)Buspirone
E)Hydroxyzine
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Treatment of Depression
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that antagonize 5-HT A and 5-HT C reuptake receptors in the treatment of depression and negative-symptom schizophrenia include which of the following?
A)Mirtazapine
B)Trazodone
C)Lamotrigine
D)Fluoxetine
Q2) Lexapro
A)Tranylcypromine
B)Imipramine
C)Citalopram
D)Doxepin
E)Escitalopram
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an MAOI?
A)Imipramine
B)Tranylcypromine
C)Mirtazapine
D)Citalopram
Q4) Dysthymia symptoms are more severe than those of major depression.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Treatment of Schizophrenia and Psychoses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an example of a "traditional" neuroleptic?
A)Chlorpromazine
B)Haloperidol
C)Thiothixene
D)Risperidone
Q2) Schizophrenia does not run in families.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Onset of schizophrenia typically occurs _____.
A)after age 45
B)before age 10
C)in the late teens
D)in the late 30s
Q4) Antagonizing which receptors is useful in the treatment of negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
A)DA
B)Glutamate
C)5-HT
D)Neurotensin
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Chapter 8: Treatment of Parkinsons Disease and Huntingtons Disease
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs can cause pseudoparkinsonism?
A)Benztropine
B)Pramipexole
C)Amantadine
D)Fluphenazine
Q2) Tasmar
A)Ropinirole
B)Selegiline
C)Tolcapone
D)Pramipexole
E)Bromocriptine
Q3) Exposure to _____ is an associated environmental cause in the development of Parkinson's disease.
A)syphilis
B)byproducts of illegally synthesized drugs
C)pesticides
D)chromosome 4 gene
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Valproates should be used cautiously in people with a history of _____.
A)liver disease
B)seasonal allergies
C)depression
D)bipolar disorder
Q2) Which of the following antiseizure medications belongs to the iminostilbenes class?
A)Ethosuximide
B)Tegremazepine
C)Oxcarbazepine
D)Tiagabine
Q3) Ethosuximide inhibits T-type voltage-dependent _____ channels.
A)calcium
B)potassium
C)sodium
D)chloride
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Chapter 10: Treatment of Pain and Migraine Headache
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mixed agonists/antagonists
A)Buprenorphine
B)Naltrexone
C)Meperidine
D)Aspirin
E)Naproxen
Q2) Why is a multimodal approach to pain management recommended?
A)Pain cannot always be pinpointed;therefore,it is better to treat neuropathic and nociceptive pain at the same time.
B)Pain medications cause many side effects,so other drug therapies are necessary to treat the side effects in order to treat the pain.
C)Untreated pain may affect other systems in the body,so other treatment may be necessary as a supportive measure.
D)Some pain may be exaggerated by patients,so counseling should be sought out to determine if the pain is as bad as they think it is.
Q3) A tension headache may last up to 7 days when left untreated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Treatment of Alzheimers Disease
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what stage of Alzheimer's disease may a person become confused and wander,unable to find their way back?
A)Pre-Alzheimer's stage
B)Early stage
C)Moderate stage
D)Late stage
Q2) Exelon
A)Memantine
B)Donepezil
C)Rivastigmine
D)Galantamine
Q3) Which of the following is a modifiable risk for Alzheimer's disease?
A)Alcohol consumption
B)Smoking
C)Obesity
D)Add weight training to exercise regimen
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13
Chapter 12: Treatment of Sleep Disorders and
Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is sunlight an important factor to the sleep-wake cycle?
A)Our bodies have become accustomed to waking up when the sun rises.
B)The lack of sunlight causes our bodies to stop the production of melatonin,which allows us to become sleepy.
C)Our body sends signals to the brain that reduce our sleepiness when it registers sunlight.
D)Our circadian rhythm is preprogrammed to operate on a 24-hour clock so it doesn't matter when the sun is out;our body will sleep when it's used to sleeping.
Q2) Sleep deprivation can cause motor vehicle accidents and trigger seizures,paranoia,and hallucinations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which drug can be used to help treat narcolepsy?
A)Zopiclone
B)Doxepin
C)Amphetamine
D)Quazepam
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Neuromuscular Blockade
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does blocking calcium channels cause muscle relaxation?
A)Permits the blockage of nerve transmissions between the motor endplate and skeletal muscle receptors
B)Blocks the release of ACh
C)Promotes the binding of GABA at the neuromuscular junction,decreasing excitatory messages
D)Allows for nerve transmissions to be blocked between the spinal cord and muscles
Q2) Which of the following is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker?
A)Edrophonium
B)Pyridostigmine
C)Succinylcholine
D)Vecuronium
Q3) Depolarizing neuromuscular drugs are _____ at _____ receptors.
A)agonists,nicotinic
B)adrenergic antagonists,muscarinic
C)adrenergic agonists,muscarinic
D)antagonists,nicotinic
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15
Chapter 14: Treatment of Muscle Spasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) g-Aminobutyric acid (GABA)is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Positive symptoms associated with spasticity include reduction in the capacity to make voluntary muscle movements.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following can be used as supportive therapy for tetanus?
A)Tizanidine
B)Baclofen
C)Ibuprofen
D)Orphenadrine
Q4) Which of the following is not true about the use of botulinum toxin for the treatment of spasticity?
A)It is used to treat abnormal eyelid twitching.
B)Its onset can take up to 7 days.
C)It is injected into the neuromuscular junction.
D)Repeat injections should be administered no sooner than 3 months.
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Chapter 15: Treatment of Autoimmune Diseases That Affect
the Musculoskeletal System
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis because it effectively decreases the progression of the disease.
A)Mitoxantrone
B)Hydroxychloroquine
C)Cyclosporine
D)Betamethasone
Q2) Which of the following has been shown to reduce SLE flare-ups?
A)Hydroxychloroquine
B)Methylprednisolone
C)Celecoxib
D)Acetaminophen
Q3) How does aspirin help relieve the pain associated with MS?
A)It inhibits MAO,which reduces anxiety and decreases pain perception.
B)It blocks purine synthesis,reducing the levels of pain mediators.
C)It increases streptokinase activity,which helps synthesize prostaglandins,reducing pain.
D)It blocks cyclooxygenase (COX)enzyme activity,which inhibits pain mediators.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Treatment of Osteoporosis and Pagets Disease of the
Bone
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fosamax
A)Raloxifene
B)Etidronate
C)Alendronate
D)Zoledronic acid
E)Pamidronate
Q2) Vitamin _____ is involved in the formation of osteoclasts.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q3) Of the following substances of abuse,which one can produce osteoporosis?
A)Cocaine
B)Alcohol
C)Hydrocodone
D)Marijuana
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Chapter 17: Treatment of Hyperuricemia and Gout
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can increase the risk of an acute gout attack?
A)Beer
B)Yogurt
C)Aged cheese
D)Low-fat milk
Q2) Acute gout attacks will resolve themselves spontaneously in as little as _____ days without treatment.
A)2
B)3
C)5
D)7
Q3) _____ is used in the treatment of gout to increase the clearance of uric acid.
A)Urecholine
B)Probenecid
C)Prednisone
D)Allopurinol
Q4) Gout never occurs in perimenopausal women.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Treatment of Glaucoma
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a cholinesterase inhibitor used for open angle glaucoma in the form of eye drops is _____.
A)echothiophate
B)dorzolamide
C)pilocarpine
D)dipivefrin
Q2) Drugs used to promote drainage of the aqueous humor are called miotics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Latanoprost
A)Azopt
B)Trusopt
C)Xalatan
D)Alphagan
E)Timoptic
Q4) IOP is caused by buildup of _____.
A)plaques on optic nerve
B)pressure against the retina
C)aqueous humor
D)scar tissue on the lens of the eye
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Treatment of Disorders of the Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following lifestyle changes could be made to help in the treatment of Ménière's disease?
A)Begin physical therapy.
B)Increase caffeine consumption.
C)Start a low-sodium diet.
D)Start an exercise regimen.
Q2) A home remedy for ear pain is _____.
A)salt water
B)sweet olive oil
C)tea tree oil
D)baking soda
Q3) Drug treatments for sudden sensorineural hearing loss include all of the following except _____.
A)glucocorticoids
B)ceruminolytics
C)plasma expanders
D)vasodilating agents
Q4) It is okay to use a Q-tip to remove earwax from the ear canal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Treatment of Ophthalmic and Otic Infections
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true about uveitis?
A)It is a serious eye condition.
B)It can cause scarring of the eye.
C)There are two types of uveitis that affect the same part of the eye.
D)It can cause blindness if left untreated.
Q2) Otitis externa can be treated with _____.
A)sulfacetamide
B)foscarnet
C)natamycin
D)ofloxacin
Q3) An opportunistic infection in the eye that occurs in patients who have HIV/AIDS or take immunosuppressive drugs is called _____.
A)cytomegalovirus retinitis
B)fusarium keratitis
C)psoriatic blepharitis
D)herpes zoster ophthalmicus D
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Chapter 21: Treatment of Angina
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Sample Questions
Q1) b-Adrenergic blocker
A)Nadolol
B)Isosorbide dinitrate
C)Verapamil
Q2) Why should a patient be nitrate free for at least half the day?
A)To minimize the risk of drug interactions with other medications
B)To minimize the risk of becoming dependent and then tolerant to the drug effects
C)To allow the body to improve its chances of preventing angina without medication
D)To minimize the risk of becoming tolerant to the drug effects
Q3) Nitrate
A)Nadolol
B)Isosorbide dinitrate
C)Verapamil
Q4) Angina is a symptom of _____ disease.
A)atrium heart
B)ischemic heart
C)peripheral artery
D)valvular
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Hypertension
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of hypertension is the predominant form in patients younger than 50 years?
A)Systolic
B)Diastolic
C)Pulmonary
D)Aortic
Q2) ACE inhibitors and ARBs are contraindicated in pregnancy because they can interfere with fetal development of the ____.
A)liver
B)kidneys
C)intestines
D)lungs
Q3) Bumetanide
A)Loop diuretic
B)ACE inhibitor
C)Thiazide diuretic
D)Angiotensin II receptor antagonist
E)Aldosterone receptor blocker
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24
Chapter 23: Treatment of Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mechanism of action for beta blockers used in the treatment of heart failure is to
A)block excess sympathetic stimulation induced by heart failure
B)block excess parasympathetic stimulation induced by hypertension
C)elevate peripheral arterial resistance
D)increase left ventricular hypertrophy
Q2) The oldest class of drugs used for heart failure is _____.
A)b-adrenergic blockers
B)cardiac glycosides
C)diuretics
D)anticoagulants
Q3) Furosemide
A)Diuretic
B)Cardiac glycoside
C)ACE inhibitor
D)CCB
E)Beta blocker
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Myocardial Infarction and Stroke
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would increasing high-density lipoproteins (HDL)levels be beneficial when treating atherosclerosis?
A)HDL acts as an antioxidant,reducing inflammation.
B)HDL carries unsaturated fats in the blood.
C)HDL increases low-density lipoprotein (LDL)oxidation.
D)HDL helps digest trans fats and carries them to the liver to be eliminated.
Q2) Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for lipid lowering drugs in the treatment of hyperlipidemia?
A)They affect cholesterol synthesis.
B)They eliminate bile.
C)They act on the HDL mechanism.
D)They act on the LDL metabolism.
Q3) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors work by blocking the final pathway of platelet aggregation and are the only _____ antiplatelet drugs.
A)transdermal
B)parenteral
C)enteral
D)intrathecal
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Arrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why has the use of drug therapy for arrhythmias declined?
A)Other non-drug treatments are preferred.
B)Drug therapy increases the chances of causing a secondary arrhythmia.
C)The modifiable factors for arrhythmias have shown to have better outcomes.
D)Arrhythmias tend to correct themselves without treatment after a while.
Q2) Class I agents
A)Beta blockers
B)CCBs
C)Other or unknown mechanisms
D)Act on sodium channels
E)Act on potassium channels
Q3) Which of the following is used for primary management of ventricular arrhythmias?
A)Propranolol
B)Verapamil
C)Amiodarone
D)Lidocaine
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Chapter 26: Treatment of Gastroesophageal Reflux
Disease, Laryngopharyngeal Reflux, and Peptic Ulcer
Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do salicylates increase the risk of PUD?
A)Salicylates contain an enzyme that H.pylori feed on,increasing bacteria in the gastrointestinal (GI)tract.
B)Salicylates block prostaglandins from forming,reducing the protective mucosal lining of the GI tract.
C)Salicylates increase production of histamine in the stomach,increasing acid in the GI tract.
D)Salicylates interfere with the formation of acid,reducing enzymes in the GI tract.
Q2) Which of the following drugs is used to treat GERD,LPR,and PUD?
A)Desloratadine
B)Nizatidine
C)Diphenhydramine
D)Cholestyramine
Q3) Which of the following best explains why LPR occurs?
A)Ingestion of H.pylori bacteria eats away at esophagus lining.
B)LPR is passed down genetically.
C)An immature digestive system causes reflux and delayed gastric emptying.
Page 28
D)The ability of natural reflux barriers to work properly becomes damaged.
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Chapter 27: Treatment of Irritable Bowel Syndrome,
ulcerative Colitis, and Crohns Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a systemic adverse reaction to corticosteroid treatment of ulcerative colitis?
A)Mood swings
B)Drowsiness
C)Local itching
D)Appetite change
Q2) Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)is sometimes referred to as _____.
A)peristalsis
B)ulcerative colitis
C)peptic ulcer disease
D)colitis
Q3) Which of the following is commonly prescribed for treatment of infected fistulas that may have developed as a result of Crohn's disease?
A)Doxycycline
B)Amitriptyline
C)Fluconazole
D)Metronidazole
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Treatment of Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cromolyn sodium is primarily used for _____ symptoms.
A)prophylaxis of COPD
B)controlling COPD
C)controlling acute asthma
D)prophylaxis of asthma
Q2) When would a monoclonal antibody drug be used for the treatment of asthma?
A)As additional drug therapy when asthma is not controlled with other inhalation therapy
B)As treatment for chronic symptoms of asthma
C)As treatment for acute symptoms of asthma
D)As a last resort medication for those who do not respond to any other medications
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic symptom of asthma?
A)Airway constriction
B)Sneezing
C)Inflammation
D)Mucus
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Chapter 29: Treatment of Allergies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antihistamines that cross the blood-brain barrier cause what type of side effects?
A)Cholinergic effects
B)Insomnia
C)Sedation
D)Have no effect on the brain
Q2) Human allergic responses are engineered by what mechanism?
A)T lymphocytes
B)B lymphocytes
C)Monocytes
D)Neutrophils
Q3) Claritin
A)Chlorpheniramine
B)Cetirizine
C)Loratadine
D)Fluticasone
E)Mometasone
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Chapter 30: Treatment of Prostate Disease and Erectile Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flomax
A)Terazosin
B)Finasteride
C)Tamsulosin
D)Vardenafil
E)Alprostadil
Q2) Alprostadil is formulated for _____.
A)oral administration
B)intraurethral insertion
C)intravenous (IV)injection
D)intramuscular (IM)injection
Q3) Coadministration of vardenafil and _____ must be done with caution.
A)glyburide
B)aspirin
C)doxazosin
D)alcohol
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Chapter 31: Treatment of Fluid and Electrolyte Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be helpful in hypotensive patients?
A)Hypotonic fluids
B)Isotonic fluids
C)Hypertonic fluids
D)Serotonic fluids
Q2) All of the following are causes of edema,a classic fluid imbalance condition,except
A)retention of electrolytes
B)heart failure
C)severe burns
D)change in urinary frequency
Q3) Which of the following can be used to replace fluids that have been lost and promote urine output?
A)Hypertonic saline (3% NaCl)
B)Dextran 40
C)Neutra-Phos
D)Albumin
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33
Chapter 32: Treatment of Thyroid Disorders
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Q1) It takes _____ months of therapy with propylthiouracil before maximum effects are achieved.
A)1 to 2
B)2 to 4
C)5 to 6
D)6 to 8
Q2) Synthroid
A)Methimazole
B)Levothyroxine
C)Liotrix
D)Liothyronine
E)Desiccated thyroid
Q3) Which of the following is not a risk factor for thyroid disease?
A)Diabetes
B)Smoking
C)Increasing age
D)Cancer
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) Lantus
A)Repaglinide
B)Sitagliptin
C)Insulin glargine
D)Pioglitazone
E)Insulin detemir
Q2) _____ is the most common form of diabetes.
A)Gestational diabetes
B)Type 2 diabetes
C)Type 1 diabetes
D)Diabetes insipidus
Q3) Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of metabolism that involves _____ utilization.
A)protein
B)glucose
C)fat
D)all of the above
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Chapter 34: Drugs That Affect the Reproductive System
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Q1) Danazol
A)Treats infertility
B)Treats amenorrhea
C)EC
D)Treats prostate cancer,advanced breast cancer
E)Treats endometriosis and fibrocystic disease
F)Birth control patch
Q2) How does clomiphene work to increase fertility?
A)Blocks estrogen to induce FSH and LH production.
B)Stimulates the release of LH.
C)Increases estrogen levels to prompt ovulation.
D)Suppresses pituitary output of FSH and LH,stimulating ovulation.
Q3) _____ is an IUD that releases progestin and levonorgestrel to prevent menstruation.
A)NuvaRing
B)ParaGard
C)Ortho-Cyclen
D)Mirena
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Bacterial Infection
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Q1) _____ would be prescribed for the treatment of tuberculosis (TB).
A)Isoniazid
B)Metronidazole
C)Tetracycline
D)Ciprofloxacin
Q2) Multidrug resistance is only a problem in the hospital setting.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following drugs is not a b-lactamase inhibitor?
A)Clavulanic acid
B)Sulbactam
C)Aztreonam
D)Tazobactam
Q4) What is one of the most serious adverse reactions linked to aminoglycoside use?
A)Ototoxicity
B)Neurotoxicity
C)Hepatotoxicity
D)Increased glucose levels
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Chapter 36: Treatment of Viral Infections
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Q1) ____ has an increased oral absorption when compared to acyclovir and can be prescribed in the treatment of HSV1.
A)Ganciclovir
B)Oseltamivir
C)Trifluridine
D)Valacyclovir
Q2) Which drug is not U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)approved for herpes infections but is commonly prescribed for its treatment?
A)Valacyclovir
B)Cidofovir
C)Acyclovir
D)Foscarnet
Q3) The FDA requires the manufacturer of _____ to provide a black box warning in the package labeling regarding reports of fatal and nonfatal intracranial hemorrhage.
A)acyclovir
B)tipranavir
C)saquinavir
D)lopinavir
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Chapter 37: Treatment of Cancers
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Q1) Methotrexate (MTX)is the principal drug in the _____ class.
A)fluoropyrimidine
B)platinum compound
C)antimetabolite
D)topoisomerase inhibitor
Q2) _____ can be used to treat metastatic breast cancer in postmenopausal women.
A)Bleomycin
B)Toremifene
C)Carboplatin
D)Cisplatin
Q3) Lymphoma's primary site of growth begins in the _____.
A)cells of the immune system
B)blood-forming tissues
C)tissues covering the internal organs
D)white blood cells
Q4) The use of drugs to kill or slow the growth of cancerous cells is called _____.
A)biological therapy
B)pharmaceutical therapy
C)chemotherapy
D)modulator therapy
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Chapter 38: Vaccines, Immunomodulators, and
Immunosuppressants
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Q1) Mycophenolic acid is an immunosuppressive agent that inhibits the enzyme required for synthesis of purines needed for _____.
A)T-cell lymphocytes
B)T-cell and B-cell proliferation
C)B-cell antibodies
D)inhibition of CYP450 microsomal pathways
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of a live vaccine?
A)Polio
B)Mumps
C)Tetanus
D)Rubella
Q3) Prograf
A)Mycophenolate mofetil
B)Pimecrolimus
C)Tacrolimus
D)Daclizumab
E)Cyclosporine
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Chapter 39: Treatment of Fungal Infections
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Q1) Which of the following is not true about ringworm?
A)It is contagious.
B)It can spread between humans and animals.
C)It is not spread from person to person.
D)It is caused by a fungus,not a worm.
Q2) Which infection is caused by a dermatophyte?
A)Pneumocystis carinii
B)Aspergillus fumigatus
C)Vulvovaginal candidiasis
D)Tinea corporis
Q3) Pneumocystis carinii is a fungus that can cause pneumonia in individuals who have a decreased immune system response.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following fungal infections cannot be cured using over-the-counter (OTC)drugs?
A)Vulvovaginal candidiasis
B)Thrush
C)Jock itch
D)Athlete's foot
41
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Chapter 40: Treatment of Decubitus Ulcers and Burns
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Q1) The most important principle of therapy for decubitus ulcers is _____.
A)to prevent initial skin damage that promotes ulceration
B)the application of skin protection
C)to prevent hydration
D)nutrition high in carbohydrates
Q2) Why is papain useful for bulk débridement?
A)It acts as a bactericidal in any pH.
B)It has a broad pH,so it can help better break down dead skin.
C)It keeps the skin hydrated so it can heal itself.
D)It works effectively in a narrow pH,so it can better target débridement.
Q3) The most frequently used topical agent for burns is _____.
A)erythromycin
B)silver sulfadiazine
C)hydrocortisone
D)silver nitrate
Q4) Which of the following products is used to débride necrotic tissue?
A)Trypsin
B)Balsam Peru
C)Castor oil
D)Silver nitrate
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Treatment of Acne
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Q1) Isotretinoin is classified in the U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)Pregnancy
Category _____ drug.
A)B
B)C
C)D
D)X
Q2) Which of the following is used for initial oral drug therapy in patients with moderate to severe inflammatory acne?
A)Clindamycin
B)Erythromycin
C)Sulfonamides
D)Minocycline
Q3) Which of the following topical antibiotics can help reduce inflammation caused by acne?
A)Tetracycline
B)Benzoyl peroxide
C)Clindamycin
D)Doxycycline
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Chapter 42: Treatment of Eczema and Psoriasis
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Q1) Mometasone furoate
A)Enbrel
B)Elocon
C)Elidel
D)Gengraf
E)Ultravate
Q2) Topical corticosteroids possess all of the following properties except _____.
A)anti-inflammatory properties
B)immunosuppressive properties
C)produce vasoconstriction
D)anti-infective properties
Q3) Which of the following is classified as a Class VII corticosteroid and can be used on the face?
A)Desonide
B)Betamethasone
C)Diflorasone
D)Hydrocortisone
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Chapter 43: Treatment of Lice and Scabies
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Q1) Which drug could be the first line of therapy for head lice?
A)Lindane
B)Pyrethrins
C)Permethrins
D)Malathion
Q2) Which of the following drugs is not used to treat head lice?
A)Malathion
B)Crotamiton
C)Permethrin
D)Spinosad
Q3) Head lice are spread from head-to-head contact.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Head lice most commonly affects children aged _____ years and their families;however,anyone can become infested.
A)1 to 5
B)5 to 9
C)3 to 11
D)2 to 15
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