

Pharmacy Practice Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Pharmacy Practice is a foundational course that introduces students to the roles, responsibilities, and ethical standards of pharmacists within various healthcare settings. The course covers key aspects such as patient counseling, prescription processing, medication dispensing, and drug information services. Students will develop essential communication skills, learn about pharmaceutical care principles, and explore the legal and regulatory frameworks that govern pharmacy practice. Emphasis is placed on the pharmacist's role in promoting patient safety, optimizing therapeutic outcomes, and collaborating effectively with other healthcare professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 7th Australian Edition by Shane Bullock
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15 Chapters
666 Verified Questions
666 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1096

Page 2
Chapter 1: Pharmacology Within the Social Context
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21573
Sample Questions
Q1) The generic name of a medication is:
A) the name given by the biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
B) the name given to the pharmaceutical company that manufactures the medication.
C) the chemical name of the medication.
D) the shortened, simplified version of the chemical name.
Answer: D
Q2) Why is once-daily-dosing preferred for Australian Indigenous peoples?
A) Because Indigenous people generally have a poor memory.
B) Indigenous people have a culturally different concept of time, therefore minimising the number of doses is aimed at promoting compliance.
C) Because once-daily dosing is less likely to cause side effects such as renal disease.
D) All of the above.
Answer: B
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3

Chapter 2: Pharmacology Within the Profesional Context
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21574
Sample Questions
Q1) Voluntary euthanasia involves:
A) the client's next-of-kin agreeing to an intervention that leads to the client's death.
B) the client voluntarily and freely choosing to receive an intervention that leads to their death.
C) the client being incapable of giving consent.
D) the health care professionals involved with the client's care choosing to administer an intervention that leads to the client's death.
Answer: B
Q2) Passive euthanasia involves:
A) the intentional act that leads to the client's death.
B) allowing the client to die by deliberately withholding or withdrawing life-supporting measures.
C) health care professionals carrying out actions that lead to the client's death without the client's consent.
D) the client voluntarily and freely choosing to die.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Medicine Administration and Professional
Responsibilities
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21575
Sample Questions
Q1) For best results when administering nystatin oral drops, you should do all of the following except:
A) place it under the tongue.
B) hold it in the mouth for as long as possible.
C) swallow it straight away.
D) place it in the buccal cavity.
Answer: C
Q2) Following use of a nebuliser unit:
A) dismantle the unit, rinse and shake to allow to dry.
B) pack it away in the client's bedside drawer.
C) dismantle the unit, rinse and towel dry.
D) leave it hanging by the client's bedside.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following routes of drug administration is recommended for a rapid drug effect?
A) Intradermal.
B) Intravenous.
C) Oral.
D) Topical.
Answer: B

Page 5
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Chapter 4: General Aspects of Pharmacology
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21576
Sample Questions
Q1) A type of hypersensitivity reaction to a drug, described as anaphylaxis, which is mediated by IgE antibodies is a:
A) Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
B) Type II hypersensitivity reaction.
C) Type III hypersensitivity reaction.
D) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
Q2) In disrupting the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria, sulfonamides act:
A) as competitive inhibitors.
B) as non-competitive inhibitors.
C) by physical action.
D) by none of the above.
Q3) When a drug acts through non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme it:
A) can be overcome by giving more of the enzyme substrate.
B) is usually reversible.
C) binds to a distinct site away from the active site.
D) is lethal to the person receiving treatment.
Q4) Paediatric drug dosage can be calculated by using the body surface area, age, and body weight.
A)True
B)False

Page 6
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Chapter 5: To Xicology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21577
Sample Questions
Q1) Probenecid has been banned for use in elite sport as it can:
A) increase the effectiveness of antibiotics giving athletes an unfair advantage.
B) inhibit the tubular secretion of some banned substances, therefore reducing the levels of the substance that is measurable in urine.
C) act as a stimulant.
D) increase the rate of repair for muscle cells therefore accelerating recovery times after injury.
Q2) Which body organ is monitored before and during naltrexone treatment?
A) Brain.
B) Liver.
C) Heart.
D) Kidneys.
Q3) A specific antidote for an overdose of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is:
A) physostigmine.
B) atropine.
C) acetylcysteine.
D) naloxone.
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Chapter 6: Autonomic Pharmacology
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21578
Sample Questions
Q1) Clients on an receptor blocking agent should be advised not to stop taking the medication abruptly if they experience problems, because this may lead to all of the following except:
A) rebound hypertension.
B) angina attacks.
C) rebound tachycardia.
D) severe depression.
Q2) The involuntary subconscious motor component of the peripheral nervous system is called the:
A) autonomic nervous system.
B) somatic nervous system.
C) afferent nervous system.
D) brain.
Q3) The 'fight or flight' responses are initiated by which system?
A) Somatic nervous system.
B) Parasympathetic nervous system.
C) Central nervous system.
D) Sympathetic nervous system.
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Chapter 7: Chemical Mediators
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21579
Sample Questions
Q1) A cytokine (such as interferon, interleukin and lymphokine) is an example of:
A) a neurotransmitter.
B) a classic hormone.
C) an autacoid.
D) a local hormone.
Q2) How many endothelins have been identified so far?
A) One.
B) Two.
C) Three.
D) Four.
Q3) H<sub>1</sub> antihistamines are useful in the management of:
A) peptic ulcers.
B) travel sickness.
C) moderately severe pain.
D) clotting disorders.
Q4) Which antihistamine is used in migraine and in stimulating the appetite?
A) Cyproheptadine.
B) Trimprazine.
C) Loratidine.
D) Promethazine.

Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Modulat Ion of Behaviour, Cognition and Motor Activity
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21580
Sample Questions
Q1) The potentially fatal 'serotonin syndrome' is associated with SSRI therapy for depression. Which of the following signs or symptoms are not linked to serotonin syndrome?
A) Weight gain.
B) Hyperthermia.
C) Sweating.
D) Euphoria or drowsiness.
Q2) Which of the following antipsychotic drug groups is associated with photosensitivity, therefore requiring protection from the sun?
A) The butyrophenones.
B) The phenothiazines.
C) The dibenzodiazepines.
D) The thioxanthenes.
Q3) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
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Chapter 9: Medicines Used to Relieve Pain and Produce
Anaesthesia
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21581
Sample Questions
Q1) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium.
B) Potassium.
C) Sodium.
D) GABA.
Q2) The opioid tramadol should be avoided in clients with:
A) epilepsy.
B) a heart condition.
C) asthma.
D) liver disease.
Q3) Aspirin needs to be stopped approximately ________ before planned surgery and some complex dental procedures because of the possibility of increased bleeding.
A) two days
B) seven days
C) two weeks
D) seven weeks
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Page 11
Chapter 10: The Modulat Ion of Oxygenat Ion and Perfusion
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21582
Sample Questions
Q1) The absorption of iron in the gut may be enhanced by A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin E.
C) vitamin C.
D) folate.
Q2) To reduce the gastric irritation associated with oral iron therapy, the person should be advised to:
A) take the preparation as a suppository.
B) take the preparation with or immediately after meals.
C) take the preparation at bedtime.
D) take the preparation with an antacid.
Q3) Which of the following nitrate formulations is not used to prevent angina symptoms?
A) Oral isosorbide dinitrate controlled-release tablets.
B) Oral isosorbide mononitrate controlled-release tablets.
C) Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate.
D) Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate.
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12

Chapter 11: The Modulation of Gastrointestinal Function
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21583
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the laxative groups acts directly on the wall of intestines to stimulate defecation?
A) Lubricants.
B) Stimulant laxatives.
C) Osmotic laxatives.
D) Faecal softeners.
Q2) Sennosides are best administered:
A) at bedtime.
B) before lying down.
C) with meals.
D) in the recumbent position.
Q3) Peppermint oil may be useful in the treatment of A) gallstones.
B) irritable bowel syndrome.
C) haemorrhoids.
D) GORD.
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Chapter 12: The Modulation of Body Growth, Development and Metabolism
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21584
Sample Questions
Q1) An adverse effect not associated with androgenic drug use is:
A) increased libido.
B) increased aggressiveness.
C) testicular hypertrophy.
D) liver disorders.
Q2) The use of hCG in prepubertal boys can cause:
A) epilepsy.
B) stunted long bone growth.
C) fluid retention.
D) asthma.
Q3) Which of the following foods inhibit absorption of calcium due to high phytic acid content?
A) Unrefined cereals.
B) Green vegetables.
C) Strawberries.
D) Cow's milk.
Q4) To ensure maximum efficacy for post-coital contraception, it needs to be administered within 12 hours of sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Nutritional and Natural Therapies
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21585
Sample Questions
Q1) Caffeine may potentiate the effect of ________ in causing insomnia:
A) kava
B) valerian
C) St John's wort
D) ginseng
Q2) St John's wort has proved to be effective, according to some studies, in the treatment of:
A) anxiety.
B) paranoia.
C) depression.
D) mania.
Q3) What vitamin deficiency is normally associated with pernicious or Addison's anaemia?
A) Vitamin B<sub>1 </sub>(thiamine).
B) Vitamin B<sub>2</sub> (riboflavin).
C) Vitamin B<sub>6</sub> (pyridoxine).
D) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> (hydroxocobalamin).
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Chapter 14: The Modulation of Celullar Growth and Proliferation
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21586
Sample Questions
Q1) The antiretroviral drug zidovudine belongs to the following group:
A) protease inhibitors.
B) fusion inhibitors.
C) non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors.
D) nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors.
Q2) Mrs Debere, suffering from tuberculosis, noticed a deterioration in visual acuity. This was most likely related to:
A) ethambutol.
B) streptomycin.
C) isoniazid.
D) rifampicin.
Q3) It is recommended that surgical prophylaxis with antibiotics is not undertaken with a:
A) mastectomy.
B) coronary bypass surgery.
C) splenectomy.
D) large bowel resection.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Medicines Used Topically
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21587
Sample Questions
Q1) Acne rosacea is best treated with topical:
A) erythromycin.
B) clindamycin.
C) metronidazole.
D) clotrimazole.
Q2) Factors that can affect the rate of topical drug absorption into the eyeball include all of the following except:
A) the pH of the environment.
B) corneal integrity.
C) the age of the person.
D) blinking.
Q3) Which one of the following drug groups is not currently used in the management of glaucoma?
A) Anticholinesterases.
B) Prostaglandins.
C) Diuretics.
D) Prostamides.
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