Pharmacy Pathology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacy Pathology is a course designed to provide pharmacy students with a comprehensive understanding of the fundamental principles and mechanisms underlying human disease processes. The course emphasizes the structural and functional changes in cells, tissues, and organs that occur in response to various pathological conditions, with a focus on disorders commonly encountered in pharmacy practice. Through the study of topics such as inflammation, neoplasia, immunopathology, and organ system pathology, students will develop the ability to correlate clinical symptoms with underlying pathology, thereby enhancing their skills in disease recognition, drug selection, and therapeutic monitoring. This course lays the groundwork for future studies in pharmacotherapy, clinical pharmacy, and patient-centered care.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pathology 9th Edition by Vinay Kumar
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23 Chapters
265 Verified Questions
265 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1129 Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Injury, Cell Death, and Adaptations
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22166
Sample Questions
Q1) A 90-year-old man died in a nursing home. During the past 10 years, he was unable to care for himself and was mentally incoherent. He had no memory and could not hold a conversation. He was unaware of his surroundings. At autopsy, the brain showed signs of Alzheimer disease, and there were neurons containing numerous neurofibrillary tangles. These cytoplasmic structures are formed from which component of the neurons?
A) Nucleus
B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) Mitochondria
E) Cytoskeleton
Answer: E
Q2) Continuous expression of the gene for atrial natriuretic factor in the myocardial cells of the left ventricle is typically a consequence of A) myocardial infarction
B) angina pectoris
C) hypertension
D) hypotension
E) ventricular fibrillation
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mediators of inflammation causes pain?
A) Nitric oxide
B) Complement C3a
C) Bradykinin
D) Leukotriene B<sub>4</sub>
E) Interleukin-1
Answer: C
Q2) Bradykinin is produced from a high-molecular weight kininogen circulating in the blood. This reaction is mediated by
A) coagulation factor X
B) kallikrein
C) Hageman factor
D) complement C3
E) protein C
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolism, and Shock
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22168
Sample Questions
Q1) In the antiphospholipid syndrome of systemic lupus erythematosus, arterial thrombi occur most often in the arteries of the
A) brain
B) heart
C) kidneys
D) intestines
E) bronchi
Answer: A
Q2) A 60-year-old man had congestive heart failure and sodium retention. Pitting edema of the lower extremities in this patient is most likely associated with an increased blood level of
A) albumin
B) globulin
C) aldosterone
D) troponin
E) plasminogen
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Diseases of the Immune System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22169
Sample Questions
Q1) The formation of vesicles in contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy is primarily mediated by
A) T<sub>H</sub>1 lymphocytes
B) T<sub>H</sub>2 lymphocytes
C) CD8 lymphocytes
D) B cells
E) macrophages
Q2) The most common and the most serious form of renal disease encountered in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is classified as x. Most of the lesions found in SLE are mediated by the deposition of immune complexes (type III hypersensitivity reaction). Which pathologic reaction is due to type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic) reaction?
A) Class I (minimal changes)
B) Class II (mesangial)
C) Class III (focal proliferative)
D) Class IV (diffuse proliferative)
E) Class IV (membranous)
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Chapter 5: Neoplasia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which mechanism affecting the genes or chromosomes accounts for the activation of the c-myc protooncogene in Burkitt lymphoma cells?
A) Overexpression
B) Amplification
C) Point mutation
D) Translocation
E) Inactivation of its promotor
Q2) Which one of the following carcinomas is locally invasive but rarely forms metastases in lymph nodes and distant sites?
A) Basal cell carcinoma of the skin
B) Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
C) Oat cell carcinoma of the lung
D) Transitional cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder
E) Adenocarcinoma of the stomach
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Pediatric Diseases
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22171
Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-year-old child complained of frequent muscle cramps during play. A muscle biopsy revealed accumulation of glycogen in the skeletal muscle cells and a lack of muscle phosphorylase. Which form of glycogenosis is this?
A) Type I (von Gierke disease)
B) Type II (Pompe disease)
C) Type III (Cori-Forbes' disease)
D) Type IV (Andersen disease)
E) Type V (McArdle disease)
Q2) Mutation of the gene for lysyl hydroxylase in the kyphoscoliosis type Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (ED type VI) causes weakness of bones and cutis laxa because of abnormal collagen
A) synthesis
B) secretion
C) cross-linking
D) degradation
E) resorption
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Chapter 7: Environmental and Nutritional Diseases
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Xerophthalmia and night blindness typically result from deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin K
Q2) Which is the most common preventable form of mental retardation in the United States?
A) Fetal rubella infection
B) Fetal toxoplasmosis
C) Fetal alcohol syndrome
D) Fetal cytomegalovirus infection
E) Fetal herpesvirus infection
Q3) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in chronic alcoholics is caused by a deficiency of
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin K
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Chapter 8: General Pathology of Infectious Diseases
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22173
Sample Questions
Q1) Diarrhea caused by cholera toxin results from the action of this toxin on cells of the A) stomach
B) small intestine
C) cecum
D) transverse colon
E) rectum
Q2) Mycobacterium avium intracellulare infection in AIDS patients typically begins in the A) nasal cavity
B) lungs
C) esophagus
D) small intestine
E) liver
Q3) Which African disease is complicated by elephantiasis of the legs?
A) Giardiasis
B) Onchocerciasis
C) Filariasis
D) Cryptosporidiosis
E) Schistosomiasis
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Chapter 9: Blood Vessels
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aneurysms caused by weakening or destruction of the arterial wall by bacteria are called
A) berry aneurysms
B) fusiform aneurysms
C) saccular aneurysms
D) mycotic aneurysms
E) cirsoid aneurysms
Q2) "Pulseless disease" associated with giant cell granulomatous inflammation of the aorta and its major branches arising from the arch of the aorta are features of
A) temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
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11
Chapter 10: Heart
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22175
Sample Questions
Q1) Which marker of myocardial necrosis is elevated first in the blood of a patient with a myocardial infarction?
A) Aspartate aminotransferase
B) Creatine kinase
C) Creatine kinase M-B fraction
D) Troponin T
E) Lactate dehydrogenase
Q2) The most common cause of sudden cardiac death, defined as occurring within 1 hour after onset of the first symptoms, in 50-year-old men is
A) aortic valve stenosis
B) mitral valve prolapse
C) atherosclerotic coronary heart disease
D) cardiomyopathy
E) hypertensive heart disease
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12
Chapter 11: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase is a marker of
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Precursors of B and T lymphocytes
D) Plasma cells
E) Natural killer cells
Q2) Normocytic normochromic anemia, associated with low serum iron, reduced total-iron binding capacity, and abundant iron stores, as seen in the bone marrow biopsy, are laboratory findings typically found in anemia of
A) iron deficiency
B) chronic disease
C) thalassemia minor
D) thalassemia trait
E) vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency
Q3) Peripheral blood cytopenia is a feature of
A) chronic myelogenous leukemia
B) chronic myeloproliferative disorders
C) myelodysplastic syndrome
D) polycythemia vera
E) essential thrombocytopenia
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Chapter 12: Lung
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22177
Sample Questions
Q1) Bronchospasms in patients with nonatopic asthma who have normal IgE blood levels are most often precipitated by
A) bacteria
B) viruses
C) fungi
D) aspirin
E) exercise
Q2) A retired man who had worked in the shipyards most of his life was found to have pleural plaques and mesothelioma. These pathologic changes are most likely a complication of which type of pneumoconiosis?
A) Simple coal workers' pneumoconiosis
B) Progressive massive fibrosis
C) Anthracosis
D) Asbestosis
E) Silicoanthracosis
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Chapter 13: Kidney and Its Collecting System
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22178
Sample Questions
Q1) Which kidney disease characterized by nephrotic syndrome, microscopic hematuria, and glomerular deposits of C3 complement and properdin is caused by an autoantibody called C3 nephritic factor?
A) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type II
B) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
C) Membranous nephropathy
D) IgA nephropathy
E) Acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis
Q2) The PKD1 gene encoding polycystin-1 is a large integral membrane protein. It is typically found in persons who have which of the following diseases?
A) Childhood polycystic kidney disease
B) Adult polycystic disease
C) Adult onset renal medullary cystic disease
D) Glomerulocystic disease
E) Acquired renal cystic disease
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Chapter 14: Oral Cavity and Gastrointestinal Tract
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Basal zone hyperplasia exceeding 20% of the thickness of the esophageal epithelium, accompanied by elongation of lamina propria papillae and by inflammatory infiltrates that contain eosinophils is a histologic finding most typical of which disease?
A) Reflux esophagitis
B) Viral esophagitis
C) Barrett esophagus
D) Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E) Boerhaave syndrome
Q2) The finding of anti-endomysial antibodies in a person with intestinal malabsorption strongly favors the diagnosis of A) Whipple disease
B) celiac sprue
C) tropical sprue
D) lactase deficiency
E) abetalipoproteinemia
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Chapter 15: Liver, Gallbladder, and Biliary Tract
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22180
Sample Questions
Q1) Peliosis hepatis is a form of primary hepatic sinusoidal dilatation and intrasinusoidal blood stagnation most often caused by
A) tetracycline
B) anabolic steroids
C) acetaminophen
D) methotrexate
E) Escherichia coli infection
Q2) Centrolobular necrosis is typical of intoxication with A) hydralazine
B) acetaminophen
C) methyldopa
D) methotrexate
E) chlorpromazine
Q3) HELLP syndrome (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets) occurs typically in A) autoimmune hepatitis
B) Budd-Chiari syndrome
C) primary sclerosing cholangitis
D) primary biliary cirrhosis
E) preeclampsia
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Chapter 16: Pancreas
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22181
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
A) Alcohol
B) Thiazide diuretics
C) Viruses
D) Trauma
E) Vascular thrombosis
Q2) Which of the following genes is the most frequently mutated oncogene in ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas?
A) p53
B) K-RAS
C) MYC
D) RB1
E) SMAD4
Q3) Hereditary pancreatitis is most likely to be found in persons harboring the mutation of which of the following genes?
A) <sub>1</sub>-Antitrypsin
B) Amylase
C) Cationic trypsinogen
D) Enterokinase
E) Alkaline phosphatase
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Chapter 17: Male Genital System and Lower Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22182
Sample Questions
Q1) A 60-year-old man is being treated for cancer with several cytotoxic drugs, including cyclophosphamide. He developed hematuria and later died. At autopsy, cystitis is noted. Which specific form of cystitis did this patient most likely develop?
A) Interstitial cystitis
B) Follicular cystitis
C) Emphysematous cystitis
D) Hemorrhagic cystitis
E) Malakoplakia
Q2) A papillary urinary bladder tumor composed of multilayered hyperchromatic transitional epithelium shows significant nuclear atypia. This type of tumor is best classified as which of the following?
A) Urothelial papilloma
B) Urothelial neoplasm of low malignant potential
C) Papillary urothelial carcinoma, low grade
D) Papillary urothelial carcinoma, high grade
E) Anaplastic carcinoma
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Chapter 18: Female Genital System and Breast
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22183
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following genital lesions is associated with a greater than expected risk of carcinoma of the vulva?
A) Condyloma acuminatum
B) Condyloma latum
C) Lichen simplex chronicus
D) Lichen sclerosus
E) Papillary hydradenoma
Q2) A 55-year-old woman who has diabetes mellitus complains of genital itching. Examination shows whitish plaques on the mucosa of the vulva and vagina. Which of the following infectious agents most likely caused these changes?
A) Human papillomavirus
B) Herpes simplex virus type 2
C) Trichomonas vaginalis
D) Gardnerella vaginalis
E) Candida albicans
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Chapter 19: Endocrine System
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22184
Sample Questions
Q1) Calcifications of the basal ganglia are complications associated with parkinsonian-like movement disorders and calcification of the lens with cataract formation. These complications are most often associated with which of the following conditions?
A) Parathyroid adenoma
B) Secondary parathyroid hyperplasia
C) Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
D) Parathyroid carcinoma
E) Hypoparathyroidism
Q2) A 50-year-old man who is showing signs of acromegaly is found to have an elevated concentration of growth hormone and another hormone in blood that was apparently derived from the liver. Which other hormone is most likely increased in this patient's blood?
A) Glucagon
B) Somatostatin
C) Insulin growth factor I
D) Cholecystokinin
E) Secretin
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21
Chapter 20: Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The autosomal dominant bone disorder caused by a mutation of fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) is characterized by short stature, rhizomelic shortening of limbs, frontal bossing of the skull, and midface abnormalities. Which of the following disorders is described by these characteristics?
A) Achondrogenesis
B) Achondroplasia
C) Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
D) Synpolydactyly
E) Holt-Oram syndrome
Q2) Which of the following muscle diseases is classified as an ion channel myopathy (channelopathy)?
A) Dysferlin deficiency
B) Becker muscular dystrophy
C) Malignant hyperpyrexia
D) Central core disease
E) Myotubular myopathy
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22
Chapter 21: Peripheral Nerves and Muscles
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1 Verified Questions
1 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is mediated by which form of immune hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Atopic IgE-mediated reaction
B) Cytotoxic IgG antibody-mediated reaction
C) Circulating immune complex-mediated reaction
D) T cell-mediated reaction
E) Graft-versus-host reaction
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fetal alcohol syndrome is most often characterized by which of the following disorders?
A) Encephalocele
B) Anencephaly
C) Macrogyria
D) Microencephaly
E) Lissencephaly
Q2) Which of the following is the most common source of septic thromboemboli in the cerebral arteries?
A) Leg veins
B) Pulmonary veins
C) Heart
D) Aorta
E) Carotid arteries
Q3) Posttraumatic hydrocephalus is most often caused by which of the following?
A) Hypersecretion of cerebrospinal fluid
B) Obstruction of the aqueduct
C) Obstruction of the foramen of Luschka
D) Obstruction of the foramen of Magendie
E) Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid absorption
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Chapter 23: Skin
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following skin lesions will most likely progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma?
A) Actinic keratosis
B) Seborrheic keratosis
C) Seborrheic dermatitis
D) Epidermal inclusion cyst
E) Steatocystoma multiplex
Q2) Which of the following skin lesions becomes darker and more pigmented upon exposure to sunlight?
A) Vitiligo
B) Lentigo
C) Ephelis
D) Congenital melanocytic nevus
E) Dysplastic nevus
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