Pediatric Pulmonary Physiology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Pediatric Pulmonary Physiology explores the unique aspects of lung development, structure, and function in infants, children, and adolescents. The course examines topics such as the growth and maturation of the respiratory system, mechanics of breathing, gas exchange, control of respiration, and the impact of developmental and pathological factors on pediatric lung function. Students will gain a detailed understanding of the physiological differences between pediatric and adult respiratory systems and how these distinctions influence clinical approaches to diagnosis and management of pediatric pulmonary conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care 4th Edition by Brian K. Walsh
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36 Chapters
733 Verified Questions
733 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Fetal Lung Development
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests of the amniotic fluid have been shown to be sensitive indicators of lung maturity?
A)Levels of prednisone
B)Levels of epidermal growth factor
C)Levels of prostaglandins
D)Levels of phosphatidylglycerol and phosphatidylcholine
Answer: D
Q2) Regarding postnatal lung growth,by approximately what age do most of the alveoli that will be present in the lungs for life develop?
A)6 months
B)1 year
C)1.5 years
D)2 years
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following events causes cessation of right-to-left shunt through the foramen ovale?
A)Increased levels of Po in the blood of the neonate
B)Decreased levels of Pco in the blood of the newborn
C)Increased systemic vascular resistance
D)Removal of the placenta,causing lowered blood volume returning to the right side of the fetal heart
Answer: C
Q2) How long after birth should it take for the ductus arteriosus to close completely?
A)24 hours
B)48 hours
C)96 hours
D)1 week
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Antenatal Assessment and High Risk Delivery
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In lieu of obtaining a scalp blood gas sample,what can the therapist do to conduct intrapartum assessment of the fetus?
A)Fetal scalp stimulation
B)Umbilical cord blood sampling
C)Placental blood sampling
D)Biophysical profile
Answer: A
Q2) A woman with a long history of smoking is now in the last part of the third trimester of her pregnancy.She is at high risk for which of the following conditions?
I.Premature rupture of membranes
II.Placental abruption
III.Placenta previa
IV.Sudden infant death syndrome
A)II and IV only
B)I,II,and III only
C)I and III only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Exam and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant arrives in the newborn nursery with an axillary body temperature of 95.6°
F.Which of the following events may be responsible for this infant's temperature?
A)The neonate was in an infant warmer in the delivery room.
B)The infant was swaddled in numerous blankets.
C)The delivery room temperature was low.
D)The newborn has protracted diarrhea.
Q2) Why is it difficult to localize auscultation findings of the thorax of a newborn?
A)Because the neonate's chest is small and sounds are difficult to differentiate
B)Because the newborn infant is frequently crying
C)Because the neonate's tidal volume is so small
D)Because the newborn's pulmonary compliance is low
Q3) The therapist notices that a preterm newborn has a grunting cry.Which of the following conditions is most consistent with this description?
A)Hypothyroidism
B)Neurologic injury
C)Respiratory distress syndrome
D)Laryngeal edema
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside
Pulmonary Mechanics
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist places a face mask on an infant to measure FRC.What should the therapist do to minimize the presence of air leaks and improve accuracy of the test?
A)Place a nose clip on the infant.
B)Minimize the amount of helium used during the test.
C)Minimize oxygen concentration and increase nitrogen concentration.
D)Apply petroleum jelly on the edges of the mask before applying the mask to the face.
Q2) A pre- and postbronchodilator,partial expiratory pressure-volume maneuver was performed on a 9-month-old boy.The child's prebronchodilator m FRC was 67 mL/second and the postbronchodilator m FRC was 94 mL/second.How should the therapist interpret these data?
A)The data are erroneous.
B)The data are inconclusive.
C)The patient will not clinically improve with bronchodilator administration.
D)The patient has demonstrated clinically significant improvement with bronchodilator administration.
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Chapter 6: Radiographic Assessment
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pediatric patient with pneumonia has an infiltrate in the lower half of the right lung.The right heart border is obliterated.In which lobe(s)of the right lung is the infiltrate located?
A)Right upper lobe
B)Right middle lobe
C)Right lower lobe
D)Right middle and lower lobes
Q2) The lateral decubitus view is a frontal radiographic projection whereby the side down can be evaluated for presence of ____________________.
A)Atelectasis;a pneumothorax
B)A pleural effusion;a pneumothorax
C)Consolidation;atelectasis
D)A pleural effusion;consolidation
Q3) How will well-expanded,air-filled lungs appear on a chest radiograph?
A)Light colored
B)Gray
C)Black
D)White
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8
Chapter 7: Bronchoscopy
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a bronchoscopy procedure on a pediatric patient,the therapist notices that a patient's SpO (oxygen saturation as determined by pulse oximetry)is 90%.What should the therapist do at this time?
A)Continue monitoring the patient as the procedure progresses.
B)Provide supplemental oxygen to the patient until the SPo is 95%.
C)If the patient's SPo falls to 88%,administer oxygen to achieve an SPo of 90%.
D)Stop the bronchoscopy procedure until the patient's SPo returns to its preprocedure level.
Q2) Which of the following are considered common risk factors for children who undergo bronchoscopy?
A)Weight less than 10 kg
B)Upper airway pathology
C)Lower airway pathology
D)Preprocedure hypercapnia
Q3) What percent lidocaine spray is used for neonatal flexible bronchoscopy?
A)Less than 1% lidocaine
B)1% to 2% lidocaine
C)3% to 4% lidocaine
D)5% to 6% lidocaine
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Monitoring
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 12-hour-old infant is experiencing respiratory distress,and the neonatologist orders a heel stick to assess the infant's oxygenation status.What action should the therapist take at this time?
A)Perform the heel stick as ordered.
B)Instead of using the newborn's heel,the therapist should use a finger as the site.
C)Inform the physician that this procedure is inappropriate at this time.
D)Explain to the doctor that an arterial puncture procedure is appropriate.
Q2) A 3-kg neonate has lost 30% of his circulating blood volume.Approximately how much fluid should be infused to compensate for this loss?
A)30 mL
B)60 mL
C)90 mL
D)120 mL
Q3) Which of the following conditions can cause methemoglobinemia?
A)Anemia
B)Inhalation of nitric oxide (NO)
C)Use of dobutamine
D)High fraction of inspired oxygen
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Chapter 9: Noninvasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While attending to a neonatal patient in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU),the therapist notices that a transcutaneous electrode is affixed to the upper chest of the neonate.What should the therapist do at this time?
A)The therapist should only continue monitoring the patient since the transcutaneous electrode is properly placed.
B)The therapist should reposition the electrode on the neonate's abdomen.
C)The therapist needs to move the transcutaneous electrode to the infant's right shoulder.
D)The therapist should relocate the electrode on the sternum as close as possible to the heart.
Q2) The therapist is assessing a mechanically ventilated infant and observes that the transcutaneous electrode temperature is set between 41° C and 44° C.What action does the therapist need to take at this time?
A)The temperature range set is appropriate;therefore,no action is necessary.
B)The therapist should increase the temperature range to 47° C to 48° C.
C)The temperature of the transcutaneous electrode needs to be reduced to 36° C to 38° C.
D)The electrode needs to be repositioned and maintained at the same temperature.
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Chapter 10: Oxygen Administration
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following devices would be most appropriate to use for a 3-year-old patient who experiences immediate postextubation hypoxemia?
A)Blow-by setup
B)Partial rebreathing mask
C)Aerosol mask
D)T-piece
Q2) In which of the following conditions is the oxygen-carrying capacity reduced despite the presence of a normal arterial oxygen tension?
A)Carbon monoxide poisoning
B)Polycythemia
C)Heart failure
D)Cyanide poisoning
Q3) Which of the following problems occurs as a result of absorption atelectasis?
A)Pulmonary vasodilation
B)Increased intrapulmonary shunting
C)Decreased alveolar pressure
D)Increased partial pressure of nitrogen in the blood
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Chapter 11: Aerosols and Administration of Medication
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An aerosol treatment is being administered via a jet nebulizer.After 8 minutes the nebulizer starts "sputtering." What should the therapist do at this point?
A)Tap the nebulizer cup until no more mist is produced.
B)Terminate the treatment at this time.
C)Allow the nebulizer to continue the treatment for 2 more minutes.
D)Add more diluent to the nebulizer cup.
Q2) By what percentage can breath holding increase particle deposition in the lungs?
A)5%
B)10%
C)15%
D)20%
Q3) When a conventional jet nebulizer is operated at a flow of 10 L/min versus 5 L/min,what should the respiratory therapist expect?
A)The particle size gets larger.
B)The treatment time shortens.
C)The particle size remains stable.
D)The nebulizer will nebulize the full dose more slowly.
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13
Chapter 12: Airway Clearance Techniques and Lung
Volume Expansion
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the main components of the traditional airway clearance techniques?
I.Palpation of the chest wall
II.Postural drainage
III.Percussion
IV.Coughing
A)II only
B)I and III only
C)II,III,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q2) The respiratory therapist has been asked to evaluate the effectiveness of incentive spirometry in some patients during their postoperative stage.What will the RT find to be most influential on the outcome associated with IS?
A)Frequency of therapy
B)Level of inspiratory capacity achieved by the patient
C)Level of supervision and instruction of therapy
D)Patient's age
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Chapter 13: Airway Management
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ideally,how many hours after last feeding should a therapist consider before changing a tracheostomy tube to minimize the risk of vomiting and aspiration?
A)At least 2 hours
B)At least 4 hours
C)At least 6 hours
D)At least 12 hours
Q2) What is the purpose of placing a small towel under the occiput of a 4-year-old patient who is undergoing oral intubation?
A)To prevent unnecessary pressure from being exerted on the occiput
B)To enable the clinician to more easily move the patient's tongue to the left
C)To obtain a better alignment and visualization of the airway
D)To assist in maintaining the patency of the upper airway
Q3) Where should the therapist secure a 4.0-mm endotracheal tube after the intubation procedure?
A)8 cm at the lip
B)9 cm at the lip
C)10 cm at the lip
D)12 cm at the lip
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15
Chapter 14: Surfactant Replacement
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most important component of pulmonary surfactant?
I.Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine
II.Phosphatidylglycerine
III.Phosphatidylinositol
IV.Sphingomyelin
A)I only
B)I and IV only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) Which of the following physiologic conditions result from the presence of normal amounts of pulmonary surfactant in the lung?
A)Pulmonary compliance decreases.
B)Uniform gas distribution during expiration occurs.
C)The functional residual capacity is maintained.
D)Pulmonary perfusion matches alveolar ventilation.
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16
Chapter 15: Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation and
Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following anatomic structures should be closely evaluated when using nasal masks in the administration of IF-CPAP?
A)Tragus
B)Philtrum
C)Sphenoid axis
D)Lower lip
Q2) A bubble CPAP has been set up on an infant at 12 L/min and the water column is reading 4 cm H O.A chest X-ray reveals mild lung overdistention.What is the most feasible explanation for this finding?
A)The amount of CPAP is excessive for this age group.
B)The flow rate is very high and the CPAP measured at the nasal prongs is probably > 4 cm H O.
C)The cannula is probably too large for the infant and causes inadvertent CPAP.
D)The chest X-ray finding is consistent with the amount of CPAP set at the water chamber.
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Chapter 16: Noninvasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Child
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bilevel ventilator settings influences upper airway stability?
A)IPAP
B)Mode
C)Respiratory rate
D)EPAP
Q2) What is the most common complication associated with NPPV among pediatric patients?
A)Ventilator-associated pneumonia
B)Gastric insufflation
C)Claustrophobia
D)Skin irritation caused by the interface
Q3) When should NPPV be selected over CPAP in children with OSA?
A)For every patient who is hypoxemic
B)When OSA is complicated by alveolar hypoventilation and hypercarbia
C)When OSA is complicated by hypoxemia
D)For every patient who is hypoxemic and hypercapnic
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18
Chapter 17: Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonate and Pediatric Patient
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the radiographic assessment of neonatal lung volume performed?
A)Counting the number of anterior ribs above the diaphragm
B)Counting the number of posterior ribs above the diaphragm
C)Counting the number of posterior ribs below the clavicle
D)Counting the number of anterior ribs below the clavicle
Q2) What is a frequent requirement when employing the low-volume strategy while ventilating a neonatal patient with pulmonary interstitial emphysema by HFV?
A)High inspiratory flow
B)Positive end-expiratory pressure
C)High inspired fraction of oxygen (Fio?)
D)Longer inspiratory time
Q3) Why may HFOV be considered a suboptimal ventilation strategy for patients who have either fresh particulate meconium aspiration or bronchopulmonary dysplasia?
A)Ventilation time constants will be decreased.
B)Large increases in tidal volume delivery can occur.
C)Gas trapping may develop.
D)Intrapulmonary shunting becomes likely.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Administration of Gas Mixtures
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the product of the reaction between oxygen and nitric oxide?
A)Oxygen radicals
B)N2O
C)NO
D)The two molecules do not react with each other.
Q2) Which of the following inhaled anesthetics should the therapist recommend to administer via a face mask to a conscious,spontaneously breathing pediatric patient who has status asthmaticus?
A)Isoflurane
B)Enflurane
C)Sevoflurane
D)Halothane
Q3) The therapist is using an oxygen flowmeter to deliver an 80:20 heliox mixture to a patient.The reading on the flowmeter is 10 L/minute.What is the actual flow received by the patient?
A)5.5 L/minute
B)10 L/minute
C)12.5 L/minute
D)18 L/minute
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Chapter 19: Extracorporeal Life Support
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is not uncommon for patients undergoing ECMO to experience renal failure.What can be done to enhance renal function?
A)Add either colloids or crystalloids to fluid challenge the patient.
B)Perform hemofiltration.
C)Add either vasodilators or vasoconstrictors.
D)Conduct plasmapheresis.
Q2) The therapist in charge of a patient on ECMO is monitoring ACT every 30 minutes.The last ACT was 100 seconds.What should the therapist suggest at this time?
A)Decrease the amount of platelets transfused.
B)Increase the heparin dose.
C)Add plasminogen.
D)Increase blood flow to decrease contact time.
Q3) What is the advantage of having the centrifugal pump automatically respond to resistances against which it is pumping?
A)It avoids placing increased pressures on the heart.
B)It eliminates lowering pulmonary vascular pressures.
C)It maintains regulated flow through the system.
D)It ensures that the blood flows smoothly through the membrane oxygenator.
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21
Chapter 20: Pharmacology
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following benefits has been associated with the use of inhaled tobramycin?
I.Improvement of FEV
II.Eradication of Pseudomona aeruginosa
III.Reduction in hospitalization
IV.Reduction in parenteral use of antibiotics
A)I and IV only
B)I,II,and III only
C)I,III,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q2) When should the therapist administer short-acting bronchodilators to improve penetration of inhaled antibiotics?
A)Immediately after the antibiotic
B)No more than 4 hours after administration of the antibiotic
C)15 minutes to 4 hours before each dose
D)At the same time as the administration of the antibiotic
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Chapter 21: Thoracic Organ Transplantation
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following problems is associated with long-term heart transplant patients?
A)Coronary artery disease
B)Recurrent pulmonary edema
C)Coronary revascularization
D)Cardiac dysrhythmias
Q2) Which of the following is the most common indication for heart transplantation?
A)Cardiomyopathy
B)Massive myocardial infarction
C)External pacemaker placement
D)Primary pulmonary hypertension
Q3) Which of the following chronic lung diseases is the most common indication for bilateral lung transplantation?
A)Severe asthma
B)Cystic fibrosis
C)Acute respiratory distress syndrome
D)Tetralogy of Fallot
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23
Chapter 22: Neonatal Complications and Pulmonary Disorders
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to Group B Streptococcus,which of the following microorganisms are responsible for nosocomial pneumonia acquired after delivery?
A)RSV
B)Escherichia coli
C)Pseudomona spp.
D)Haemophilus influenza
Q2) Which of the following therapeutic interventions is generally needed to treat transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)?
A)Endotracheal intubation
B)40% oxygen hood
C)Bronchial hygiene therapy
D)Bronchodilator therapy
Q3) What radiographic features is the therapist likely to see on a typical chest X-ray of an infant with MAS?
A)Ground-glass appearance
B)Complete whiteout
C)Decreased lung volume
D)Patchy areas of atelectasis
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Chapter 23: Congenital and Surgical Disorders That Affect
Respiratory Care
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should a respiratory therapist do to confirm a diagnosis of choanal atresia?
A)Recommend lateral mandibular radiographs
B)Inspect the nasal cavities with a rhinoscope
C)Attempt to insert an 8 French suction catheter through each nasal cavity
D)Gently pinch the infant's nose closed until oral breathing occurs
Q2) Which of the following acronyms is associated with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula?
A)VACTERL
B)PROM
C)CHARGE
D)PPHN
Q3) A newborn presents with respiratory distress and has a chest radiograph that reveals a circular or ovoid mass with smooth edges.Which of the following lung bud anomalies is consistent with these clinical features?
A)Bronchogenic cysts
B)Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformations
C)Pulmonary sequestration
D)Congenital lobar emphysema
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Chapter 24: Congenital Cardiac Defects
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the therapist select as target gas exchange parameters after surgical intervention for infants with hypoplastic left ventricular syndrome HLHS?
A)pH < 7.35
B)PaO of 60 mm Hg and PaCO of 60 mm Hg
C)pH > 7.45
D)PaO of 40 mm Hg and PaCO of 40 mm Hg
Q2) Which of the following clinical manifestations is consistent with an atrial septal defect (ASD)?
A)An ASD often causes congestive heart failure (because of decreased pulmonary blood flow).
B)The right ventricle may become hypertrophic (right ventricular hypertrophy).
C)Most patients with an ASD are symptomatic in the neonatal intensive care unit,presenting with right atrial enlargement.
D)Chest radiographs are usually abnormal.
Q3) What factor is responsible for closure of the foramen ovale?
A)Increased PaO
B)Increased pressure on the left side of the heart
C)Blood flowing through the lungs
D)High pulmonary vascular resistance
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Sleep Disorders
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which age group is more often affected by periodic breathing?
A)Newborns
B)Infants
C)Children
D)Adults
Q2) What is the leading cause of death in infants?
A)Congenital malformations (e.g. ,heart defects)
B)CSA
C)SIDS
D)ALTE
Q3) Which of the following are typical features of the obstructive hypoventilation syndrome?
I.Disruption of sleep architecture
II.Degradation of sleep quality
III.Abnormal gas exchange
IV.Significant daytime symptoms
A)I and III only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
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Chapter 26: Pediatric Airway Disorders and Pulmonary Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the ER,a chest radiograph reveals dilation of the segmental and subsegmental bronchi.The patient complains of expectorating copious amounts of thick mucus and frequent lung infections over the last year.Which of the following conditions does this child likely have?
A)Atelectasis
B)Bronchiectasis
C)Foreign body aspiration
D)Postoperative laryngotracheobronchitis
Q2) Relative to an adult's larynx,where is an infant's larynx situated?
A)C1-2
B)C2-3
C)C3-4
D)C4-5
Q3) The therapist has been asked to evaluate the chest radiograph of a 3-month-old boy with atelectasis.Which pulmonary lobe has the greatest tendency to collapse in young infants?
A)RUL
B)RML
C)Lingula
D)LUL
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Chapter 27: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapist has been asked to check the FENO on a patient with asthma.The level is < 15 ppb.How should the therapist interpret this data?
A)The asthma is well controlled.
B)The patient is less likely to respond to corticosteroids.
C)The patient is likely to require immunotherapy.
D)The patient has a neutrophilic phenotype of asthma.
Q2) Which of the following types of cells play a role in the pathophysiology of asthma?
I.Mast cells
II.Eosinophils
III.Neutrophils
IV.Basophils
A)I and III only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
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Chapter 28: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following therapeutic interventions should be the focus of the treatment of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A)Airway clearance techniques
B)Bronchodilators
C)Antihistamines
D)PEP therapy
Q2) Which of the following respiratory signs and symptoms should prompt the therapist for evaluation of cystic fibrosis in a child?
I.Recurrent wheezing
II.Frequent thick sputum production
III.Chronic cough
IV.Nasal polyps
A)I and II only
B)III and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)I,II,III,and IV
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Chapter 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ventilatory strategies is appropriate when mechanically ventilating a patient with ARDS?
A)PEEP less than 15 cm H O and tidal volume (VT)between 8 and 10 mL/kg
B)Peak inspiratory pressure (PIP)less than 40 cm H O and Pplateau less than 30 cm H O
C)VT less than 6 mL/kg and Pplateau less than 30 cm H O
D)A high or low level of PEEP and a VT between 8 and 10 mL/kg
Q2) What pathophysiologic change accounts for the alteration of the hysteresis curve during ARDS?
A)High transpulmonary pressures
B)High transairway pressures
C)Hyperinflated lungs
D)Refractory hypoxemia
Q3) Which of the following interventions should the therapist implement to decrease mortality in patients with ARDS?
A)High PEEP
B)Alveolar recruitment maneuvers
C)Low tidal volume
D)High respiratory rate
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Chapter 30: Shock, Sepsis and Anaphylaxis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child admitted to the emergency department with a diagnosis of shock has a cardiac index is 3.5 L/min/m².How should the therapist interpret this value?
A)This cardiac index is associated with an increased risk of mortality.
B)This cardiac index is in the high range of normal,and it is an indication to wean vasopressors and fluids.
C)This cardiac index is within normal limits but still requires close monitoring because it is in the low range of normal.
D)This cardiac index is normal and no action is required.
Q2) Which vascular site would provide the most reliable measurement of the beat-to-beat monitoring of the blood pressure in an infant who is suspected of having shock?
A)Any vessel
B)Any peripheral vein
C)A peripheral or central artery
D)A central vein
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Chapter 31: Pediatric Trauma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions often results as a complication among survivors of submersion injury?
A)Pneumonia
B)Acute respiratory distress syndrome
C)Empyema
D)Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Q2) Which of the following procedures can cause an iatrogenic pneumothorax?
A)Oropharyngeal suctioning
B)Central venous catheter placement
C)Orogastric tube placement
D)Nasogastric tube placement
Q3) For victims of penetrating chest wall trauma demonstrating respiratory distress,which of the following therapeutic interventions generally need to be administered before radiologic studies are obtained to ascertain the status of intrathoracic organ injuries?
A)Arterial puncture procedure
B)Noninvasive ventilation
C)Neurological assessment
D)Ipsilateral tube thoracotomy
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Chapter 32: Disorders of the Pleura
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fluid drained from a thoracentesis has the appearance of pus.Which of the following microorganisms should the therapist typically suspect in children with empyema?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae
D)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Q2) Which of the following clinical symptoms is associated with a pleural effusion?
A)Chest pain
B)Productive cough
C)Dyspnea
D)Dysphagia
Q3) Which of the following are the most common symptoms associated with pneumothorax?
A)Cough and headache
B)Shortness of breath and chest pain
C)Hemoptysis and chest pain
D)Dry cough and dyspnea
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34
Chapter 33: Neurologic and Neuromuscular Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is characterized by demyelination of sheaths that coat peripheral nerves?
A)Poliomyelitis
B)Guillain-Barré syndrome
C)Chiari malformations
D)Infantile botulism
Q2) The therapist is performing an airway clearance technique to a 5-month-old child with a diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia.The child has a very weak cough and,although he appears alert,he cannot move.Which of the following disorders of the motor nerve should the therapist suspect?
A)Polio
B)Myasthenia gravis
C)Spinal muscular atrophy
D)Guillian-Barré
Q3) Which of the following glycogen storage diseases has the most severe respiratory symptoms?
A)Pompe disease
B)Diabetes
C)Von Gierke
D)Forbes-Cori disease
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Chapter 34: Transport of Infants and Children
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Q1) What are some of the operational features that characterize a pediatric transport unit?
I.110-V AC electrical power
II.Point-of-care radiographic equipment
III.Medical air and oxygen
IV.Suction capabilities and equipment
A)III and IV only
B)I,II,and IV only
C)I,III,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) Which of the following distances is considered the effective radius for rapid transport of critically ill patients via helicopter?
A)Less than 30 miles
B)Between 30 and 150 miles
C)Between 150 and 250 miles
D)Between 250 and 300 miles
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Chapter 35: Home Care
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Q1) Which of the following is the most important disadvantage of a liquid oxygen system?
A)It is very heavy.
B)It requires a power source.
C)It requires filling every 6 months.
D)It vents regardless of whether the flow is on or off.
Q2) What are the advantages of an oxygen concentrator?
A)It provides an unlimited supply of oxygen.
B)It does not require a power source.
C)It does not require gas analysis.
D)It is ideal for transport situations.
Q3) Which of the following backup equipment needs to be provided for a home-ventilated infant who (1)lacks the ability to breathe spontaneously for at least 4 successive hours,(2)lives 2 hours away by automobile from medical assistance,and (3)requires mechanical ventilation for mobility?
A)Point-of-care blood gas analyzer
B)Second oxygen concentrator
C)Additional source of oxygen
D)Additional ventilator and ventilator circuits
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Quality and Safety
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Q1) The wrong dose of albuterol is administered to the patient,but the patient does not have any adverse response.What is the name of this event?
A)Near miss
B)Precursor safety event
C)Serious safety event
D)Sentinel event
Q2) Lack of skills and/or failure to follow or deviation from standard practices/procedures is known as:
A)Sentinel event
B)Six Sigma
C)Negligence
D)Health failure mode
Q3) Which of the following processes enables organizations to continuously measure services,practices,costs,and products using best practices to improve care?
A)Self-reporting
B)Benchmarking
C)Quality measure reporting
D)Quarterly budget
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