PC Maintenance and Repair Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
PC Maintenance and Repair introduces students to the fundamentals of personal computer hardware, diagnostics, and troubleshooting techniques. The course covers topics such as identifying and assembling hardware components, installing and configuring operating systems, routine maintenance procedures, detecting and resolving hardware and software issues, and ensuring data security. Hands-on labs and real-world scenarios enable students to develop skills in repairing and upgrading PCs, managing peripherals, and maintaining system performance. This course is ideal for those looking to pursue technical support roles or prepare for industry-standard certification exams such as CompTIA A+.
Recommended Textbook
A+ Guide to IT Technical Support Hardware and Software 9th Edition by Jean Andrews
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Chapter 1: First Look at Computer Parts and Tools
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Q1) Describe the Near Field Communication (NFC) technology.
Answer: Near Field Communication (NFC) is a wireless technology that establishes a communication link between two NFC devices that are within 4 inches of each other. For example, when you tap your smart phone with that of your friend, the two phones can use NFC to exchange contact information. NFC can also be used to read an NFC tag, which is a small microchip that can be embedded in just about anything, including a key chain tag, printed flyer, or billboard. The NFC tag dispenses information to any NFC-enabled smart phone or other device that comes within 4 inches of the tag.
Q2) What is the name for the type of flash memory that is used by mobile devices to store their apps and data?
A) SC card
B) solid state device
C) MicroFlash card
D) hard drive
Answer: B
Q3) A tower case conserves space since it can double as a monitor stand.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Working Inside Desktops and Laptops
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Q1) When is it okay to touch the inside of a computer that is turned on?
A) When disassembling the computer
B) When using a multimeter to measure voltage output
C) When reassembling the computer
D) When a qualified electrician is present
Answer: B
Q2) controls power to the motherboard, must be connected to power the PC up.
A) Power SW
B) front panel header
C) Power LED +/-
D) HDD LED
E) spacer
F) Reset SW
G) ESD strap
H) ZIF connector
I) service manual
J) expansion slot
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: All About Motherboards
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Q1) What has occurred if you see the message "Chassis Intruded! System has halted." the next time you start your computer?
A) the disk has failed
B) Windows has not been activated
C) the case has been opened
D) the keyboard has been unplugged
Answer: C
Q2) Sandy Bridge processors house the memory controller and graphics controller.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A Mini PCIe slot can have how many pins?
A) 52 pins
B) 53 pins
C) 54 pins
D) 55 pins
Answer: A, C
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Chapter 4: Supporting Processors and Upgrading Memory
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Q1) The two major manufacturers of processors are Intel and NVIDIA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What technology in a DIMM informs the BIOS of the module's size, speed, voltage, and data path width?
A) SPD
B) ECC
C) Buffers
D) DDR
Q3) an error checking technology used by older SIMMs
A) RIMM
B) dual ranked
C) ECC
D) Hyper-Threading
E) multiplier
F) parity
G) RAS Latency
H) processor frequency
I) single-sided
J) Thread
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Chapter 5: Supporting the Power System and Troubleshooting Computers
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Q1) If you suspect your system is overheating, how can you determine the CPU temperature?
A) in Windows, go to System Information
B) the CPU has a temperature display screen
C) press a room thermometer on the top of the CPU
D) go into UEFI/BIOS setup and find the temperature monitors for the system
Q2) A cooler with heat pipes, which contain a small amount of liquid that becomes a vapor when heated, allowing heat to be drawn away from the CPU without the use of a fan is known by what two terms?
A) vapor cooler
B) passive CPU cooler
C) fanless CPU cooler
D) inactive CPU cooler
Q3) What Intel socket recommends the use of a liquid cooling system?
A) LGA1150
B) LGA1151
C) LGA1750
D) LGA2011
Q4) Why should a power supply be rated about 30 percent higher than expected needs?
Q5) What causes a BSOD and how should you begin the troubleshooting process?
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Chapter 6: Supporting Hard Drives and Other Storage Devices
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Q1) What statement best describes a RAID 5?
A) data from one drive is mirrored to another
B) it improves performance but not fault tolerance
C) it requires 3 or more drives and uses parity checking
D) it takes at least four disks and data is striped and mirrored
Q2) the overall structure an OS uses to name, store, and organize files on a drive
A) autodetection
B) fault tolerance
C) storage card
D) mirrored volume
E) NAND flash memory
F) WORM drive / cartridge
G) file system
H) spanning
I) striped volume
J) UDF
Q3) List three steps that can be taken to troubleshoot a Windows startup issue.
Q4) Describe the parts of a magnetic hard disk.
Q6) Describe what a hybrid hard drive is. Page 8
Q5) Describe the biggest disadvantage of using tape drives.
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Survey of Windows Features and Support Tools
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Q1) What dialog box in Windows appears each time a user attempts to perform an action that can be done only with administrative privileges?
A) User Account Confirmation
B) User Account Control
C) User Access Control
D) User Access Confirmation
Q2) What is the purpose of the UAC box?
Q3) The Windows desktop is itself a folder.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the Windows taskbar and how is it used?
Q5) A service is a program that runs in the foreground and is visible on the taskbar.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What two methods can be used to access items in the Quick Launch menu?
A) Right click the Start button, select an item from the Quick Launch menu
B) Right click the taskbar, select Quick Launch, select an item.
C) Press Win+X on the keyboard to access the Quick Launch menu from anywhere
D) Press CTRL+X on the keyboard to access the Quick Launch menu from anywhere
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Installing Windows
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Q1) a command that provides encryption options and hard link management within USMT
A) virtual machine
B) file system
C) Windows Easy Transfer
D) push automation
E) standard image
F) system BIOS
G) unattended installation
H) batch file
I) usmtutils
J) answer file
Q2) What command can be used to remove partitions and convert a drive to GPT?
A) fdisk
B) bootrec
C) diskpart
D) gptconv
Q3) The price for Windows 7 is the same regardless of the edition and type of license you purchase.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Supporting I/O Devices
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Q1) What is MIDI?
Q2) used to display information about hardware and diagnose problems
A) infrared (IR)
B) digitizer
C) dxdiag.exe
D) HDMI connector
E) OLED
F) projector
G) refresh rate
H) stylus
I) contrast ratio
J) ghost cursor
Q3) A SuperSpeed USB port is capable of attaining what maximum data transfer speed?
A) 1.2 Gbps
B) 1.5 Gbps
C) 5 Gbps
D) 6 Gbps
Q4) What is a KVM switch and how might one be useful?
Q5) What is DirectX?
Q6) What is a barcode reader and how are they typically connected to a computer?
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Maintaining Windows
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Q1) searches for bad sectors on a volume and recovers the data from them if possible
A) Dynamic volumes
B) Virtual memory
C) Defragmenting
D) Backup
E) Mounted drive
F) Chkdsk utility
G) Pagefile.sys
H) Basic disk
I) restore points
J) file system
Q2) The chkdsk command will not fix anything on the drive unless the drive is unlocked.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are two methods that can be used to free up disk space on a hard drive?
A) Format the hard drive
B) Delete the Windows\System directory
C) Uninstall software you no longer use
D) Use drive compression
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Page 13
Chapter 11: Optimizing Windows
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Q1) Describe the Windows shell.
Q2) Define process and thread.
Q3) Shell subsystems that have only a limited access to system information and can access hardware only through other OS services are operating in what mode?
A) process mode
B) elevated privilege mode
C) user mode
D) kernel mode
Q4) What Task Manager tab shows running processes organized by Apps, Background processes, and Windows processes?
A) Applications
B) Services
C) Processes
D) Performance
Q5) How can you check for unwanted scheduled tasks?
Q6) There is no undo feature in the Registry Editor.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the Windows kernel, including its two main components.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Supporting Customers and Troubleshooting
Windows
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Q1) assignment of a problem to someone higher in the support chain
A) call tracking
B) Blue Screen of Death
C) System File Checker
D) escalate
E) Component Services
F) default program
G) Taskkill
H) Tasklist
I) ticket
J) Regsvr32
Q2) What should you do if you are being verbally abused by a customer?
Q3) What piece of equipment is NOT a tool that would be considered appropriate equipment for on-site visits?
A) oscilloscope
B) flashlight
C) multimeter
D) ESD strap
Q4) What should you do if you cannot solve a problem that you are working on?
Q5) List the six steps of the troubleshooting process.
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Chapter 13: Troubleshooting Windows Startup
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Q1) Describe the difference between a hard boot and a soft boot.
Q2) You have received a "No boot device found" notification upon booting your system. What does this mean, and what can you do to troubleshoot it?
Q3) a self-diagnostic program used to perform a simple test of the CPU, RAM, and various I/O devices
A) Windows Recovery Environment (RE)
B) Last Known Good Configuration
C) POST (power-on self test)
D) EFI System Parition (ESP)
E) Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store
F) soft boot
G) diskpart
H) Windows Boot Manager (BootMgr)
I) cold boot
J) fixboot
Q4) What is the first thing that the kernel does when WinLoad turns over the startup process to it?
Q5) What is the Last Known Good Configuration?
Q6) When would you use the "Enable Low-Resolution Video" option?
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Connecting To and Setting Up a Network
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Q1) Packets are delivered to a single node on a network when using what type of IPv6 address?
A) anycast address
B) default gateway address
C) multicast address
D) unicast address
Q2) What is DNS and how does it work?
Q3) What two protocols are used for remote access to a server, using unencrypted and encrypted transmissions respectively?
A) AFP
B) telnet
C) SSH
D) SNMP
Q4) How are IP addresses available to the Internet classified?
A) public
B) private
C) non-routable
D) standard
Q5) Describe a domain name and provide examples of domain names.
Q6) Describe communications at the application level - give an example.
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Chapter 15: Supporting Network Hardware
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Q1) What is the unit of information called when a network adapter adds the source and destination MAC address to the segment of data before it is transmitted on the network?
A) frame
B) packet
C) bit
D) segment
Q2) What does a 1000BaseT NIC use to connect to a network cable?
A) HDMI port
B) RJ-45 port
C) 10BaseT port
D) Half duplex port
Q3) If you are experiencing issues reaching a target destination network, and you need to to display each hop to the destination, what command should you use?
A) ipconfig
B) ifconfig
C) tracert
D) nslookup
Q4) What is Power over Ethernet and how might you use it?
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Chapter 16: Supporting Mobile Operating Systems
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Q1) What software programming languages can be used for an iOS app? (Choose all that apply.)
A) Objective-C
B) C
C) C++
D) Java
Q2) What unique number is used to identify each mobile phone or tablet device worldwide?
A) IMSI
B) IMEI
C) ICCID
D) MAC address
Q3) The act of jailbreaking a phone was once illegal, but was made legal by the U.S. Copyright Office and the Library of Congress.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe Android's Safe Mode.
Q5) Releases of Android are named after animals, such as Lion, Leopard, or Puma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Windows Resources on a Network
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Q1) When utilizing both share and NTFS permissions, what statement is inaccurate?
A) if both permissions are used, the least restrictive permission between the two applies
B) if NTFS permissions conflict between a user and group the least restrictive permission applies
C) when you copy a file, the file takes on the permissions of the destination folder
D) inherited permissions pass from parent folder to child file or folder
Q2) What is an authentication server, and how does Active Directory satisfy this role?
Q3) What two applications are an example of a mail server and a mail client application, respectively?
A) Exchange
B) Maverick
C) Outlook
D) Firefox
Q4) On the IE General tab you can block cookies.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the principle of least privilege?
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Security Strategies
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Q1) the practice of tricking people into giving out private information or allowing unsafe programs into the network or computer
A) adware
B) digital certificate
C) grayware
D) keylogger
E) dictionary attack
F) social engineering
G) tailgating
H) Trojan
I) zombie
J) Worm
Q2) When creating a strong password, what are some valid criteria the password should meet? (Choose all that apply.)
A) The password should be at least eight characters long.
B) You should not use adjacent keys on the keyboard, such as asdf.
C) You should combine uppercase and lower case letters, numbers, and symbols.
D) You can use words from a foreign language to make the password more secure.
Q3) What is a Trojan, and how is it installed?
Q4) Describe file and folder encryption in Windows (not how you encrypt a file).
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Chapter 19: Supporting Printers and Customizing a System
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Q1) What products are considered to be set-top boxes? (Choose all that apply.)
A) Amazon Fire TV
B) Chromecast
C) Roku
D) Chromebox
Q2) What is a hypervisor?
A) a program that manages VMs
B) another name for a thin client
C) technology that enhances processor support for VMs
D) a fat client running an HAV
Q3) The developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning steps of the laser printing process use the printer components that undergo the most wear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the first thing you should do to get toner dust off your clothes?
A) clean immediately with hot water
B) use a hot hair dryer to blow it off
C) throw the clothes in the dryer set on high heat
D) use a can of compressed air to blow off the toner
Q5) Describe the exposing or writing step of laser printing.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Virtualization, Linux, and Mac OS X
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Q1) a text editor that works in command mode or insert mode
A) dump
B) client-side virtualization
C) Finder
D) hypervisor
E) clone
F) presentation virtualization
G) vi editor
H) bash shell
I) thin client
J) Spotlight
Q2) In order to ensure that a Mac has no startup items, what two directories should you check for items?
A) /etc
B) /Library/StartupItems
C) /.startup
D) /System/Library/StartupItems
Q3) LILO is the most commonly installed boot loader by the Linux operating system.
A)True
B)False
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