Course Introduction
Pathophysiology Test Preparation
Pathophysiology explores the physiological processes and mechanisms underlying the development and progression of diseases in the human body. This course examines the alterations in normal biological functions caused by disease, injury, or abnormal syndromes, emphasizing how these changes impact various organ systems. Students will analyze the etiology, clinical manifestations, and pathogenesis of common health disorders, gaining insight into diagnostic reasoning and therapeutic interventions. By understanding the foundational concepts of pathophysiology, learners are better equipped to apply this knowledge in clinical scenarios and healthcare practice.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Elaine N. Marie
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29 Chapters
3446 Verified Questions
3446 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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118 Verified Questions
118 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Similar cells that have a common function are called ________.
Answer: tissues
Q2) The thoracic cavity contains the ________.It is found ________ to the vertebral cavity.
A) stomach and liver: superficial
B) heart and lungs: anterior
C) digestive viscera: inferior
D) kidneys and spleen: deep
Answer: B
Q3) The term that describes the neck region is ________.
Answer: cervical
Q4) What type of homeostatic feedback reflex is the withdrawal reflex?
Answer: negative
Q5) Used for childbirth.
A)Negative feedback
B)Positive feedback
Answer: B
Q6) Which feedback mechanism causes the variable to deviate further and further from its original value or range?
Answer: positive feedback
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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137 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An atom with an atomic number of 10 and a mass number of 24 would have
A) 14 electrons
B) 14 neutrons
C) 24 protons
D) 10 neutrons
Answer: B
Q2) Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and skeletal muscles in the form of
A) triglycerides
B) glycogen
C) glucose
D) cholesterol
Answer: B
Q3) Legs moving the pedals of a bicycle.
A)Mechanical energy
B)Chemical energy
C)Electrical energy
D)Radiant energy
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dividing cells must pass through the phases of mitosis the following order: Prophase,Metaphase,Anaphase,and Telophase.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A type of transport protein found in the plasma membrane of cells lining the inside of the intestine allows sodium ions to diffuse down their concentration gradient.The ions move through the transport protein,and into the cell.These transport proteins will use the kinetic energy of the diffusing sodium ions to bring glucose into the cells as well.This transport protein would best be described as ________.
A) a carrier protein
B) a symporter
C) a pump
D) a channel
Answer: B
Q3) What are nucleolar organizer regions?
Answer: nuclear regions containing the DNA that issues genetic instructions for synthesizing ribosomal RNA
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is,they have a free surface and a basal surface.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The epithelial membrane that lines the closed ventral cavities of the body.
A)Mucous membrane
B)Serous membrane
C)Cutaneous
D)Endothelium
Q3) What type of membrane lines closed ventral body cavities? List three examples.
Q4) A major characteristic of fibrocartilage is its unique amount of flexibility and elasticity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A substance received or given off by your body will likely pass through which tissue type?
A) muscle tissue
B) epithelial tissue
C) nervous tissue
D) connective tissue
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because ________.
A) eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months
B) hormones in the eyebrow follicle switch the growth off after it has reached a predetermined length
C) they grow much slower
D) the vascular supply of the eyebrow follicle is one-tenth that of the head hair follicle
Q2) During the regressive phase of hair growth,the matrix is inactive and the follicle atrophies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where capillary loops are found.
A)A
B)E
C)C
D)D
E)B
Q4) Balding men have tried all kinds of remedies,including hair transplants,to restore their lost locks.Explain the cause of male pattern baldness.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sharp,slender,often pointed projection.
A)Spine
B)Trochanter
C)Facet
D)Foramen
E)Ramus
Q2) Cells that can build bony matrix.
A)Lamellae
B)Osteoblasts
C)Endosteum
D)Canaliculi
E)Osteoclasts
Q3) Bones are classified by whether they are weight bearing or protective in function.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In newborn infants,the medullary cavity and all areas of spongy bone contain yellow bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be most associated with process of warming and humidifying inhaled air?
A) the paranasal sinuses
B) the bones comprising the orbits
C) the cranial bones
D) hyoid bone
Q2) The sella turcica is a portion of this bone.
A)Maxillae
B)Temporal bones
C)Sphenoid
D)Lacrimal bones
Q3) The medial condyle of the femur articulates with the medial condyle of the ________.
Q4) Which of the following would be most associated with housing the special sense organs?
A) the cranial bones
B) hyoid bone
C) the facial bones
D) the bones of the inner ear
Q5) The heel bone is called the ________.
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the basis of structural classification,which is a fibrous joint?
A) pivot
B) syndesmosis
C) symphysis
D) synchondrosis
Q2) Moving a limb so that it describes a cone in space is called circumduction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Joint 2.
A)uniaxial
B)biaxial
C)nonaxial
D)multiaxial
Q5) Briefly describe the structure of a typical synovial joint.
Q6) Synovial joints have six distinguishing features.What are they?
Q7) How can osteoarthritis be treated?
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) How a smooth increase in muscle force is produced.
A)Tetanus
B)Maximal stimulus
C)Wave summation
D)Muscle tone
E)Multiple motor unit summation
Q2) If a muscle fiber were to suddenly and permanently stop producing ATP the fiber would no longer be able to actively transport calcium out of the cytoplasm (sarcoplasm)and the intracellular calcium concentration would rise.Which of the following would you expect to happen?
A) The fiber would twitch uncontrollably due to excessive calcium bound to troponin.
B) Myosin would be able to bind to the exposed binding sites on thin filaments but it would not be able to detach.
C) Calcium would be transported to the sarcoplasmic reticulum therefore contractions would cease.
D) No change would occur in a muscle that was relaxed to begin with.
Q3) Describe the anatomical parts of the muscle triad and how the function of these organelles work together to initiate contraction.
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11
Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris?
A) It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips.
B) It closes the eye.
C) It pulls the lower lip down and back.
D) It draws the eyebrows together.
Q2) The broadest muscle of the back is the latissimus dorsi.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee?
A) hamstring muscles
B) gluteal muscles
C) soleus
D) brachioradialis
Q4) The most powerful muscle in the body is the ________.
A) gluteus maximus
B) rectus abdominis
C) gastrocnemius
D) quadriceps femoris
Q5) Damage to the ischiocavernosus muscle would have what effect?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following correctly describes a graded potential?
A) it has a depolarization, repolarization and hyperpolarization phase
B) it can have amplitudes of various sizes
C) it is initiated by voltage changes in the membrane
D) it travels long distances
Q2) Bipolar neurons are commonly ________.
A) motor neurons
B) called neuroglial cells
C) found in the retina of the eye
D) found in ganglia
Q3) When one or more presynaptic neurons fire in rapid order it produces a much greater depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane than would result from a single EPSP; this event is called ________ summation.
Q4) The action potential is caused by permeability changes in the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cell bodies of sensory neurons may be located in ganglia lying outside the central nervous system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a role of the basal nuclei?
A) playing a role in cognition and emotion
B) controlling starting and stopping movements
C) initiating protective reflex actions
D) inhibiting unnecessary or antagonistic movements
Q2) Thalamus.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) Passing through the NREM stages (1 through 4),the frequency of the EEG waves declines,but their amplitude increases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Projection fibers in the brain mainly connect the right and left hemispheres.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which brain areas lack a blood-brain barrier,and what purpose does this absence serve?
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reciprocal inhibition means that while one sensory nerve is stimulated,another sensory neuron for synergistic muscles in the same area is inhibited and cannot respond.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________.
A) afferent nerves
B) mixed nerves
C) efferent nerves
D) motor nerves
Q3) Includes cortical and brain stem motor areas.
A)Segmental level
B)Projection level
C)Precommand level
Q4) Supplies each muscle with fibers from more than one nerve.
A)B
B)A
C)C
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Q5) A nurse is asked about the cause of the excruciating pain of tic douloureux.How should s/he answer?
Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) sympathetic preganglionic fibers; release ACh
B) parasympathetic preganglionic fibers; release ACh
C) parasympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE
D) sympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE
Q2) Baroreceptors in the carotid sinus monitor blood pressure.When the carotid sinus is stretched by blood pressure or manipulation,a feedback response through the vagus (X)nerve can be blocked by atropine.How would external stimulation of the carotid artery,such as carotid massage,affect the heart rate?
Q3) Increases blood pressure.
A)Sympathetic
B)Parasympathetic
Q4) Cell body of a somatic motor neuron.
A)C
Q5) Describe outcome criteria that can be used to evaluate whether a patient is effectively coping with a stressful problem.
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the visual pathways to the brain,the optic radiations project to the ________.
A) primary visual cortex
B) medial retina
C) lateral geniculate body
D) optic chiasma
Q2) What prevents the eyelids from sticking together when the eyes close?
A) tarsal gland secretions
B) lacrimal fluid
C) ciliary gland secretions
D) conjunctival fluid
Q3) Houses organ of Corti.
A)C
B)B
C)A
D)D
E)E
Q4) Explain why prolonged periods of reading tire the eye muscles and result in eye strain.
Q5) The synapse of the olfactory nerves with the mitral cells is called a ________.
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enteroendocrine cells of the GI tract produce some hormones that are chemically identical to neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Produces hormones and is considered a neuroendocrine organ.
A)C
B)D
C)B
D)E
E)A
Q3) Johanna is significantly shorter than normal for her age.Her doctor recommends treatment with a hormone before her growth plates ossify in her long bones.Which hormone is recommended?
A) cortisol
B) thyroid stimulating hormone
C) parathyroid hormone
D) growth hormone
Q4) Why should the hypothalamus instead of the anterior pituitary be called the "master endocrine gland?"
Q5) What is the difference between autocrines and paracrines?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myeloid stem cells give rise to all leukocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Universal donor.
A)B
B)D
C)C
D)A
Q3) Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
Q4) How many polypeptide chains make up hemoglobin?
Q5) Type B.
A)B
B)D
C)C
D)A
Q6) Why is hemoglobin enclosed in erythrocytes rather than existing free in plasma?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ventricular repolarization.
A)A
B)D
C)E
Q2) During contraction of heart muscle cells ________.
A) all of the calcium required for contraction comes from storage in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger amounts of calcium from intracellular stores
C) calcium is prevented from entering cardiac fibers that have been stimulated D) the action potential is prevented from spreading from cell to cell by gap junctions
Q3) List the three vessels that bring oxygen-poor blood to the right atrium.Which regions of the body do they serve?
Q4) List and define the three most important factors that affect stroke volume.
Q5) Asystole is the total absence of ventricular electrical activity.Explain why defibrillation would not be effective in this situation.
Q6) What is the difference between the auricles and the atria?
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Page 20
Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sinusoid capillary.
A)A
B)B
C)C
Q2) A patient has an 80% blockage of his left anterior descending coronary artery.Describe what occurs in terms of myocardial oxygen supply and demand if his sympathetic nervous system is stimulated.
Q3) Splenic vein.
A)E
B)B
C)D
D)C
E)A
Q4) The abdominal aorta divides into three arteries at its terminus; what are they?
Q5) Which of the following would not promote filtration from the arteriole end of the capillary bed?
A) increasing blood pressure
B) reducing hydrostatic pressure within the interstitial fluid
C) increasing plasma protein concentration
D) relaxing precapillary sphincters
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Chapter 20: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the spleen?
A) Clusters of white pulp look like islands in a sea of red pulp.
B) The splenic artery and vein enter and exit the spleen at the hilum.
C) Red pulp is where immune functions take place.
D) The spleen is the largest lymphoid organ.
Q2) Small organs intimately associated with lymphatic vessels.
A)Peyer's patches
B)Lymph nodes
C)Thoracic duct
D)Lymph
E)Spleen
Q3) Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue.
A) Lymphoid macrophages secrete antibodies into the blood.
B) T lymphocytes act by ingesting foreign substances.
C) Once a lymphocyte enters the lymphoid tissue, it resides there permanently.
D) Lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue.
Q4) Digested fats are absorbed from the intestine by the lymph capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
Q5) Where are the lymph node aggregations most dense?
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Chapter 21: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body
Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type of immediate hypersensitivity is ________.
Q2) Soluble proteins secreted by plasma cells are called antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Involved in allergies.
A)IgG
B)IgD
C)IgM
D)IgA
E)IgE
Q4) Name four autoimmune diseases.
Q5) Natural killer cells can lyse and kill cancer cells and virus-infected body cells ________ the immune system is activated.
Q6) Without the positive selection process in lymphocyte maturation ________.
A) NK cells would be non-functional
B) monocytes would not be able to migrate into infected tissue and differentiate into macrophages
C) T-cells would not be able to properly bind to APC's and therefore not be activated by them
D) autoimmune diseases would be likely to result Page 23
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Page 24
Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tracheal obstruction is life threatening.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Select the correct statement about the pharynx.
A) The pharyngeal tonsil is located in the laryngopharynx.
B) The palatine tonsils are embedded in the lateral walls of the nasopharynx.
C) The laryngopharynx blends posteriorly into the nasopharynx.
D) The pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube drains into the nasopharynx.
Q3) Which of the following is correct regarding acclimatization?
A) At high altitudes, hemoglobin's affinity for O<sub>2</sub> is increased because BPG concentrations increase.
B) High-altitude conditions always result in lower-than-normal hemoglobin saturation levels because less O<sub>2</sub> is available to be loaded.
C) Decreases in arterial PO<sub>2</sub> cause the peripheral chemoreceptors to become less responsive to increases in PCO<sub>2</sub>.
D) When blood O<sub>2</sub> levels decline, the kidneys produce more erythropoietin, which stimulates breakdown of red blood cells in the spleen.
Q4) Distinguish among anemic,ischemic (stagnant),histotoxic,and hypoxemic hypoxia.
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When we ingest large molecules such as lipids,carbohydrates,and proteins,they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules.This series of reactions is called ________.
A) mechanical breakdown
B) absorption
C) secretion
D) chemical digestion
Q2) A woman is brought to an emergency room complaining of severe pain in her left iliac region.She claims previous episodes and says that the condition is worse when she is constipated,and is relieved by defecation.A large,tender mass is palpated in the left iliac fossa and a barium study reveals a large number of diverticula in her descending and sigmoid colon.What are diverticula,and what is believed to promote their formation? Does this woman have diverticulitis or diverticulosis? Explain.
Q3) Stimulates insulin release and mildly inhibits HCl production.
A)Secretin
B)Cholecystokinin
C)Gastric Inhibitory Peptide
D)Gastrin
Q4) The protective outermost layer of the esophagus is the ________.
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Chapter 24: Nutrition,metabolism,and Body Temperature Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Produces the CO<sub>2</sub> involved during glucose oxidation.
A)B
B)D
C)E
D)A
E)C
Q2) Ghrelin,produced by the stomach,is a powerful appetite stimulant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as
A) fat utilization
B) lipogenesis
C) gluconeogenesis
D) lipolysis
Q4) Occurs in the cytosol of a cell.
A)Glycolysis
B)Citric acid (Krebs) cycle
C)Electron transport chain
Q5) How is the postabsorptive state controlled and initiated?
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes kidney function in older adults (70 years or older)?
A) Kidney function decreases due to kidney atrophy.
B) Only about 3% of older adults have any loss of kidney function.
C) Only obese and diabetic older adults have any kidney dysfunction.
D) Kidney function remains the same throughout life, regardless of age.
Q2) Fetal kidneys have the primary responsibility of clearing wastes from the fetal blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The proximal convoluted tubule is the portion of the nephron that attaches to the collecting duct.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Water reabsorption through the proximal convoluted tubule is termed obligatory water reabsorption,whereas water reabsorption through the distal convoluted tubule is termed facultative water reabsorption.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The presence of pus in the urine is a condition called ________.
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Chapter 26: Fluid,electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main fluid compartment outside the cells.
A)Nonelectrolytes
B)Electrolytes
C)Intracellular
D)Interstitial
E)Extracellular
Q2) After traveling from Los Angeles to Denver,Claire finds she is not feeling well and checks into a clinic for help.The clinic's diagnosis is respiratory alkalosis.What has caused this problem?
Q3) Sodium depletion.
A)Hypernatremia
B)Hypocalcemia
C)Hyponatremia
D)Hyperkalemia
E)Hypermagnesemia
Q4) Sodium ions are highest in ________.
A)interstitial fluid
B)blood plasma
C)intracellular fluid
Q5) Why would an infant with colic be suffering from respiratory alkalosis?
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Chapter 27: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sexually transmitted infections are the most important cause of reproductive disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The erectile tissue around the urethra is the corpus ________.
Q3) Organism responsible for up to half of the diagnosed cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.
A)Gonorrhea
B)Syphilis
C)Chlamydia
D)Genital warts
E)Genital herpes
Q4) The molecule that enhances the ability of testosterone to promote spermatogenesis is inhibin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ________ of the testis nourish the newly formed sperm cells.
Q6) What is the physiological importance of the fact that the male testes descend to reside in the scrotal sac?
Q7) What is the purpose of the male bulbourethral gland?
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Chapter 28: Pregnancy and Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Milk ejection (the letdown reflex)is stimulated by which of the following hormones associated with pregnancy?
A) prolactin
B) oxytocin
C) inhibin
D) gonadotropin
Q2) The patient is in her first trimester of pregnancy.She complains of feeling nauseated and has vomited on occasion.She tells the nurse that she did not have this with her first pregnancy.She asks the nurse,"What is causing this and when will it end?" How should the nurse respond?
Q3) A pregnant woman urinates more often than usual because the uterus compresses the bladder,her metabolic rate and blood volume are increased,and she must also dispose of fetal metabolic wastes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A zygote is usually formed within the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List four factors that help to precipitate parturition (birth).
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Chapter 29: Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A particular gene's allele received by a gamete has no influence over selection of a different gene's allele.
A)Independent assortment
B)Chromosome segregation
C)Chromosome crossover
D)Gene recombination
Q2) How many alleles exist for a given gene?
A) always one allele per gene
B) only two
C) each gene can have a different number of alleles
D) two from each parent
Q3) A condition of drier excessively sticky mucus production.
A)Cystic fibrosis
B)Achondroplasia
C)Albinism
D)Tay-Sachs disease
E)Huntington's disease
Q4) Most genetic disorders are inherited through dominant genes.
A)True
B)False
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